Section 1: Verbal

1. LESION
(A) cut
(B) swipe
(C) deadlock
(D) piece
(E) group

2. OBLIGE
(A) breed
(B) require
(C) produce
(D) transmit
(E) form

3. ETHICAL
(A) agile
(B) stinging
(C) moral
(D) satisfied
(E) cherished

4. HERITAGE
(A) scheme
(B) isolation
(C) growl
(D) limitation
(E) tradition

5. NUDGE
(A) indicate
(B) stall
(C) avoid
(D) push
(E) board

6. VERSATILE
(A) outrageous
(B) adaptable
(C) commercial
(D) passionate
(E) knowledgeable
7. DISCRETION
(A) reduction
(B) benefit
(C) decline
(D) settlement
(E) carefulness

8. RANKLE
(A) plow
(B) twist
(C) irritate
(D) lunge
(E) achieve

9. LETHARGIC
(A) sluggish
(B) regular
(C) empty
(D) anxious
(E) obsessed

10. GRIT
(A) ribbon
(B) limb
(C) courage
(D) slice
(E) impulse

11. DIVULGE
(A) reveal
(B) disperse
(C) consume
(D) plummet
(E) create

12. SCARCE
(A) open
(B) limited
(C) strict
(D) exact
(E) creepy

13. MANEUVER
(A) time
(B) lump
(C) riot
(D) ease
(E) plan

14. CULTIVATE
(A) dismiss
(B) correspond
(C) identify
(D) develop
(E) transport

15. FISCAL
(A) neglectful
(B) lenient
(C) cyclical
(D) financial
(E) accessible

16. NOSTALGIA
(A) revolution
(B) application
(C) proposal
(D) distribution
(E) homesickness

17. ENTREAT
(A) forsake
(B) nurture
(C) plead
(D) lynch
(E) blemish

18. RAUCOUS
(A) intolerant
(B) boisterous
(C) impracticable
(D) outlandish
(E) national

19. SKEPTICISM
(A) ingredient
(B) expansion
(C) pastime
(D) disbelief
(E) obstruction

20. ALIENATE
(A) distance
(B) assign
(C) relieve
(D) examine
(E) criticize

21. GALORE
(A) flimsy
(B) splendid
(C) imposing
(D) abundant
(E) voluntary

22. BEDLAM
(A) chaos
(B) sermon
(C) virtue
(D) poverty
(E) louse

23. IMPLICATE
(A) deprave
(B) expedite
(C) obligate
(D) secede
(E) associate

24. MUNIFICENT
(A) dominant
(B) fearless
(C) generous
(D) expressive
(E) philosophical

25. DOGMA
(A) power
(B) creed
(C) sorcery
(D) liking
(E) module
26. WHET
(A) arouse
(B) treat
(C) deprive
(D) certify
(E) operate

27. ORTHODOX
(A) abnormal
(B) intense
(C) conventional
(D) yielding
(E) medieval

28. TENURE
(A) urgency
(B) action
(C) entrance
(D) term
(E) mandate

29. HOARD
(A) exceed
(B) amass
(C) proclaim
(D) reject
(E) derive

30. PUNCTILIOUS
(A) suitable
(B) underrated
(C) deficient
(D) supernatural
(E) thorough

31. Country is to railroads as body is to

(A) arteries
(B) muscles
(C) exhalations
(D) lesions
(E) reflexes

32. Fee is to service as

(A) officer is to patrol
(B) history is to archive
(C) bristle is to brush
(D) nerve is to warning
(E) thanks is to favor

33. Speech is to chat as banquet is to

(A) kitchen
(B) hotel
(C) snack
(D) table
(E) emcee

34. Boardwalk is to beach as

(A) railing is to exhibit
(B) gymnasium is to school
(C) cubicle is to office
(D) escalator is to store
(E) bar is to restaurant

35. Garment is to alteration as book is to

(A) publication
(B) genre
(C) revision
(D) catalog
(E) distribution

36. Common is to rare as

(A) iron is to diamond
(B) doorway is to exit
(C) pacifist is to activist
(D) landlord is to occupant
(E) base is to summit

37. Leg is to journey as

(A) spider is to web
(B) egg is to incubator
(C) arm is to sleeve
(D) hourglass is to sand
(E) note is to scale

38. Equator is to world as

(A) millennium is to year
(B) waist is to person
(C) horizon is to sunrise
(D) dome is to arena
(E) satellite is to moon

39. Food is to hunger as security is to

(A) guard
(B) fear
(C) liquid
(D) alarm
(E) poison

40. Alchemy is to science as

(A) seminary is to religion
(B) diaphragm is to body
(C) fuselage is to aviation
(D) wafer is to food
(E) plagiarism is to writing

41. Ponderous is to weight as

(A) taciturn is to talk
(B) diminutive is to height
(C) pictographic is to sight
(D) gargantuan is to size
(E) dense is to volume

42. Charm is to evil as

(A) fort is to attack
(B) bungalow is to rest
(C) tip is to dinner
(D) insignia is to uniform
(E) seesaw is to play

43. Cell is to organism as worker is to

(A) boss
(B) office
(C) employee
(D) income
(E) staff

44. Binding is to book as

(A) welding is to tank
(B) desecrating is to grave
(C) oscillating is to pendulum
(D) splitting is to atom
(E) jousting is to knight
45. Typo is to book as
(A) mania is to festival
(B) causeway is to ground
(C) defect is to jewel
(D) hobo is to neighborhood
(E) valet is to ticket

46. Building is to construct as

(A) alias is to assume
(B) brick is to lay
(C) trench is to dig
(D) faction is to form
(E) niche is to carve

47. Ceiling is to chandelier as puppeteer is to

(A) stage
(B) puppet show
(C) voice
(D) audience
(E) puppet

48. Intermission is to performance as

(A) direction is to procession
(B) layover is to trip
(C) catalyst is to reaction
(D) margin is to paper
(E) ambassador is to embassy

49. Buoy is to ship as law is to

(A) regulation
(B) book
(C) veto
(D) citizen
(E) enactment

50. Obstetrician is to physician as

(A) soprano is to vocalist
(B) equestrian is to horse
(C) figurehead is to monarch
(D) quintuplet is to child
(E) franchise is to owner

51. Swell is to burst as

(A) symbol is to formula
(B) infection is to illness
(C) value is to money
(D) enrollment is to capacity
(E) intuition is to truth

52. Pigment is to albino as hair is to

(A) bleached
(B) straight
(C) clean
(D) bald
(E) oily

53. Attic is to basement as

(A) zenith is to nadir
(B) port is to starboard
(C) liberal is to traditionalist
(D) comrade is to nemesis
(E) urban is to rural

54. Sedate is to anesthesiologist as

(A) select is to pharmacist
(B) drill is to sergeant
(C) vote is to politician
(D) write is to contractor
(E) promote is to lobbyist

55. Prohibited is to refrain as

(A) perilous is to undertake
(B) inebriated is to imbibe
(C) compulsory is to comply
(D) fleeting is to regret
(E) luminescent is to glisten

56. Aspirant is to incumbent as candidate is to

(A) official
(B) party
(C) campaign
(D) debate
(E) platform

57. Allay is to pain as

(A) annihilate is to enemy
(B) exile is to defector
(C) render is to usage
(D) mitigate is to offense
(E) compromise is to mission

58. Unimpeachable is to criticism as

(A) seamless is to textbook
(B) ominous is to portent
(C) exemplary is to reproach
(D) flamboyant is to diva
(E) evolved is to ecosystem

59. Clerical is to secular as

(A) primary is to secondary
(B) spiritual is to worldly
(C) real is to counterfeit
(D) bountiful is to scarce
(E) terminal is to perpetual

60. Storyteller is to listener as

(A) agriculturist is to planter
(B) speech is to orator
(C) patent is to inventor
(D) ensign is to officer
(E) pantomime is to viewer
Section 2: Math
1. With 4 weeks remaining in the season, Lisa has 31 more homeruns than Mark. If
Mark is to hit more homeruns than Lisa, he must average at least how many more
homeruns per week than Lisa?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 31
(E) 32

2. Two coins are tossed at the same time. The probability of getting 2 heads is
(A) 1/3
(B) 1
(C) 2/3
(D) 1/4
(E) 1/2

3. In a right triangle, two angles have the same angle measure. What is the angle
measure, in degrees, of each of these two angles?
(A) 25 degrees
(B) 30 degrees
(C) 35 degrees
(D) 40 degrees
(E) 45 degrees

4. There are 6 rental cars available for 18 riders, each holding either 2 or 4 riders.
How many rental cars hold exactly 2 riders?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

5. For what price is 5 percent off the same as $4 off?

(A) $80
(B) $90
(C) $100
(D) $120
(E) $140

6. If 1/2 of a number is less than 12, the number must be

(A) greater than 12
(B) less to 6
(C) greater than 24
(D) equal to 6
(E) less than 24

7. A driver can only afford 8 gallons of gas at $2.50 a gallon. If the price of gas were
reduced to $2 a gallon, how many more gallons of gas could the driver afford to buy?
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5
(E) 3

8. If 54 = ( A ÷ B ) × 9 and B is a whole number, then A could NOT be

(A) 12
(B) 30
(C) 42
(D) 50
(E) 60

9. Aloha City has 2.75 chiropractors for every 1,000 people. If there are 4 million
people in Aloha City, how many chiropractors are there?
(A) 11,000
(B) 11
(C) 110,000
(D) 110
(E) 1,100

10. In the figure below, the distance from W to Z is 90, and the distances from W to X
and from Y to Z are equal. If the distance from X to Y is half the distance from W to X,
how far apart are W and X ?
W X Y Z
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 44
(E) 48

11. If p > 5, which of the following is the greatest?

(A) p / ( p + 1 )
(B) p + 4
(C) 2p + 1
(D) ( p + 1 ) / p
(E) p + 5
12. Three times a number is equal to the same number increased by 28. The number
is
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 21
(E) 25

13. If paper clips cost 24 cents a dozen, how many paper clips cost one dollar?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
(E) 60

14. When a number is divided by 8, the quotient is 7 and the remainder is 5. When
the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

15. Alex won first place in the shot‐put with a heave of 35 feet 4 inches. Griffin won
second place with a heave of 32 feet 9 inches. Alex defeated Griffin by
(A) 2 feet 5 inches
(B) 2 feet 7 inches
(C) 2 feet 9 inches
(D) 3 feet 5 inches
(E) 3 feet 7 inches

16. If 1/4 + 2/3 = 1 – N, then N equals

(A) 5/7
(B) 6/7
(C) 5/6
(D) 7/12
(E) 1/12

17. Robyn walks around a rectangular lot 78 feet long and 59 feet wide. If she walks
around the lot 3 times, how many total feet will she walk?
(A) 600
(B) 711
(C) 822
(D) 933
(E) 1,044

18. Laura buys 50 quarts of juice at $1.20 a quart and sells it in pint‐sized jars at 80
cents a jar. What was her profit? (Note: 2 pints = 1 quart)
(A) $15
(B) $20
(C) $25
(D) $30
(E) $35

19. The Lobleys bought a house for $70,000. They spent $14,000 in repairs, insurance
premiums and taxes, heat and electricity. In order to make a 10% profit after
expenditures, for how much must the Lobleys sell their house?
(A) $92,400
(B) $93,100
(C) $94,700
(D) $95,600
(E) $97,800

20. Mr. Cook used 60% of his 20 pounds of ground beef to make ½‐pound patties,
which he sold at 2 patties for $3. How much did he receive for the patties?
(A) $24
(B) $28
(C) $30
(D) $32
(E) $36

21. The length of a rectangle is 7 units longer than its width. If the perimeter of the
rectangle is 30 units, what is its area, in square units?
(A) 36
(B) 40
(C) 44
(D) 48
(E) 52

22. What is 0.75 + 450% ?

(A) 5¼
(B) 5¾
(C) 50¼
(D) 50¾
(E) 500¼

23. A tree grew 13 feet in 6 years. Its growth rate for those years, in inches per year,
was
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 25
(E) 26

24. Craig is at school. If he walks 7 miles north, then 4 miles east, then 13 miles south,
then 4 miles west, how far away will he be from school?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 11
(D) 24
(E) 28

25. Amy has n more books than Bob, and Bob has 2 less books than Cathy. If Cathy
has 5 books, how many books does Amy have?
(A) n – 3
(B) n + 3
(C) n – 7
(D) n + 7
(E) n – 10
 Section 3: Reading
Passage 1
Backyard ponds and water gardens are for birds, butterflies, frogs, fish— and
you and your family. These ponds are typically three to four feet in diameter, and
may be built in barrels or other patio containers. Water is effective in drawing wildlife
to your backyard, and is a natural, relaxing and scenic addition that can provide
5 interest and enjoyment.
Consider locating your backyard pond where you can see it from a deck or
patio. There, it can blend in with its natural surroundings. Slightly elevate the soil
around the pond so excess water will flow away from the pond. Plan to landscape
around the pond to provide a habitat for frogs and birds that need land and water. If
10 you would like to use a pump to re‐circulate water, be sure electrical service is
available in that area. Also, there will be less maintenance if your pond is not under a
tree, and most aquatic plants will grow better in full sun.
If you do not have space in your yard for a built‐in earthen pond, consider a
“tub” pond or a large water bowl. It can be placed on the patio and provide many of
15 the same benefits as a built‐in pond. There are numerous tub kits available that can
be as simple as adding water, a pump and some plants. They can also be moved
inside in the winter as long as good lighting is provided for plants.
‐National Association of Conservation Districts

1. According to the passage, all of the following are benefits of backyard ponds
EXCEPT:
(A) It will attract animal life to the yard.
(B) It will increase the value of the home.
(C) It will be fun and interesting for the family.
(D) It will add to the beauty of the home.
(E) It will be a natural home for various pets.

2. The second paragraph is most concerned with

(A) why backyard ponds are so helpful.
(B) how to build a backyard pond.
(C) when to install the backyard pond.
(D) the advantages of backyard ponds.
(E) where to put a backyard pond.

3. According to the passage, a pump for the pond needs to go together with
(A) directions on how to use the pump.
(B) a tub or large water bowl.
(C) animals that are not harmed by the device.
(D) a power source that is nearby.
(E) knowledge on how to fix the pump.
4. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
(A) there are alternatives to built‐in ponds
(B) tub kits are available on a limited basis.
(C) water bowls are more expensive than built‐in ponds.
(D) earthen ponds are only good in the winter.
(E) good lighting is not needed for earthen ponds.

5. Which of the following is the author most likely to discuss next?

(A) The differences between tubs and water bowls
(B) A detailed history of the water pump
(C) Instructions on how to install a backyard pond
(D) Food options for water‐based animal life
(E) Possible reasons why patios are good for pets
 Passage 2
Thomas Edison created many inventions, but his favorite was the phonograph.
While working on improvements to the telegraph and the telephone, Edison figured
out a way to record sound on tinfoil‐coated cylinders. In 1877, he created a machine
with two needles: one for recording and one for playback. When Edison spoke into
5 the mouthpiece, the sound vibrations of his voice would be indented onto the
cylinder by the recording needle.
“Mary had a little lamb” were the first words that Edison recorded on the
phonograph and he was amazed when he heard the machine play them back to him.
In 1878, Edison established a company to sell his new machine.
10 Edison suggested other uses for the phonograph, such as: letter writing and
dictation, phonographic books for blind people, a family record (recording family
members in their own voices), music boxes and toys, clocks that announce the time,
and a connection with the telephone so communications could be recorded.
The phonograph also allowed soldiers to take music off to war with them.
15 During World War I, Edison’s company created a special phonograph for the U.S.
Army. Many Army units purchased these phonographs because it meant a lot to the
soldiers to have music remind them of home. In a recording, Edison himself
reminded Americans of the enormous sacrifice made by the soldiers.
‐America’s Library

6. This passage is primarily about

(A) the life of a great American inventor.
(B) the many inventions of Thomas Edison.
(C) the role of the phonograph in modern society.
(D) the origin and uses of an invention.
(E) how the phonograph changed World War I.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) Edison sold many of the phonographs all by himself.
(B) the phonograph was most important for letter writing.
(C) the phonograph had a positive effect on U.S. troops.
(D) Edison used tinfoil in the invention of the telephone.
(E) Edison loved to read nursery rhymes as a child.

8. Edison believed that a phonograph could be used for each of the following
reasons EXCEPT
(A) to help disabled people.
(B) to entertain children.
(C) to announce the time.
(D) to record voices.
(E) to interpret languages.

9. Each of the following words may be used to describe Edison EXCEPT:

(A) Submissive
(B) Appreciative
(C) Imaginative
(D) Spontaneous
(E) Predictive

10. According to the passage, needles were used to

(A) create the telegraph, but not the telephone.
(B) indent sound vibrations onto a cylinder.
(C) connect the mouthpiece to the playback button.
(D) produce sound vibrations.
(E) secure the tinfoil on each cylinder.
 Passage 3
In the 1950s, Native Americans struggled with the government’s policy of
moving them into cities where they might assimilate into mainstream America. Many
had difficulties adjusting to urban life. When the policy was discontinued in 1961, the
government noted that “poverty and deprivation are common” for Native Americans.
5 In the 1960s and 1970s, watching both Third World nationalism and the civil
rights movement, Native Americans became more aggressive in fighting for rights.
New leaders went to court to protect tribal lands or to recover those which had been
taken away. In 1967, they gained victories guaranteeing long‐abused land and water
rights. The American Indian Movement helped direct government funds to
10 Native‐American organizations and assist neglected Native Americans in cities.
Confrontations became more common. In 1969 a landing party of 78 Native
Americans took over Alcatraz Island and held it until federal officials removed them
in 1971. In 1973 AIM took over the South Dakota village of Wounded Knee, where
soldiers in the late 19th century had massacred a Sioux camp. Militants hoped to
15 dramatize the poverty and alcoholism in the reservation surrounding the town. The
episode ended after one Native American was killed and another wounded, with a
governmental agreement to re‐examine treaty rights.
‐U.S. Dept. of State

11. According to the passage, all of the following were gained by Native Americans
EXCEPT
(A) a governmental review of treaty rights
(B) financial support for Native American groups
(C) equal opportunities in the military
(D) help for uncared for city‐based Native Americans
(E) land and water rights

12. The word assimilate as used in the first sentence most closely means
(A) struggle
(B) adapt
(C) learn
(D) thrive
(E) connect

13. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason militants took over
Wounded Knee was
(A) it was the next logical target after Alcatraz Island.
(B) its location far away from South Dakota officials.
(C) they wanted to profit from alcohol sales in the town.
(D) this town did not have a strong police presence.
(E) it had historical meaning for Native Americans.

14. In the second paragraph, Native American leaders are described as

(A) mistreated
(B) disadvantaged
(C) unforgiving
(D) determined
(E) violent

15. According to the passage, Native Americans fought for which of the following
reasons?
I. To battle poverty among their people.
II. They were inspired by movements across the globe.
III. To support Native Americans in foreign countries.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
(E) II only
 Passage 4

Life was exciting for Ensign Lee Royal in the summer of 1950. The Texan had
recently graduated from the U.S. Naval Academy and reported for duty on the most
famous warship in the world, the USS Missouri. Royal was a commissioned officer, a
step up from the previous year when he had served on the same ship as a
5 midshipman on a training cruise.
The Missouri had visited England during that cruise, and Royal and two
classmates had been brave enough to go to Winston Churchill’s country home
unannounced. The former British prime minister was very welcoming, taking the
three young midshipmen on a tour and then presenting them with books, cigars, and
10 wine. An amazed bodyguard told them privately that Churchill had been much more
hospitable to them than to many of his famous visitors.
By 1950, the Missouri was the U.S. Navy’s only active battleship—just a
decade after the navy had considered battleships to be its foremost fighting ships.
The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor in 1941, however, had changed the situation.
15 Soon aircraft carriers and submarines became the navy’s primary offensive weapons.
Battleships had been designed to fight gun duels against large surface vessels, but
those encounters rarely occurred in World War II. The U.S. entered the war with a
number of old, slow battleships, which were primarily used for shore attack and to
support landings.
20 ‐Paul Stillwell

16. All of the following are true regarding Ensign Lee Royal EXCEPT:
(A) He was promoted while serving on the Missouri.
(B) He received gifts from Winston Churchill.
(C) He visited England while on a training cruise.
(D) He fought for the United States during World War II.
(E) His naval career had just begun in 1950.

17. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that Winston Churchill
(A) did not offer books, cigars and wine to all his guests.
(B) previously served in the United States Navy.
(C) sent out invitations to Royal and his classmates.
(D) employed more than one bodyguard.
(E) was on vacation from his job as prime minister.

18. An underlying theme throughout the passage is

(A) how World War II affected the U.S. Navy.
(B) a famous U.S. naval warship.
(C) an unexpected visit to a prime minister’s home.
(D) the early life of a naval officer.
(E) American and English relations in the 1950s.
19. All of the following contributed to why the USS Missouri “was the U.S. Navy’s
only active battleship” in 1950 EXCEPT:
(A) Battleships were rarely used in combat anymore.
(B) Most of the wartime battleships were old and slow.
(C) Submarines were more important during the war.
(D) The surprise Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor.
(E) Most battleships were converted to aircraft carriers.

20. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(A) The Navy is the most popular of the armed forces.
(B) The U.S. should not have given up on battleships.
(C) Ensign Lee Royal is not afraid to take risks.
(D) Promotion in the Navy should be more difficult.
(E) Winston Churchill should not have retired so young.
 Passage 5

What Happened to Ozymandias?

I met a traveler from an antique land
Who said: “Two vast and trunkless legs of stone
Stand in the desert, Near them, on the sand,
5 Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed:
10 And on the pedestal these words appear:
‘My name is Ozymandias, king of kings:
Look on my works ye Mighty, and despair!’
Nothing beside remains. Round the decay
Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare
15 The lone and level sands stretch far away.”
‐Percy Bysshe Shelley

21. The wrecked statue of Ozymandias indicates all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Ozymandias was sending a message to other kings.
(B) Ozymandias was a merciless leader.
(C) Ozymandias had great pride in his accomplishments.
(D) Ozymandias intended for his legacy to last.
(E) Ozymandias possessed great architectural skill.

22. Which statement would be most consistent with the message expressed in the
poem?
(A) It is wiser to build a house on rock than on sand.
(B) He who lives by the sword, dies by the sword.
(C) The bigger they are, the harder they fall.
(D) Art and language outlast power and kingdoms.
(E) The passage of time helps to heal old wounds.

23. The word them (line 8) most likely refers to

(A) Ozymandias’ people
(B) the traveler’s people
(C) historians
(D) builders of the statue
(E) Ozymandias’ enemies

24. The destruction of the statue demonstrates which of the following?

I. The destructive power of history
II. The lasting influence of humans throughout time
III. The temporary nature of political power
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

25. The poet most likely has a tourist tell the tale of Ozymandias’ statue in order to
(A) show that Ozymandias’ sculpture is just one of many sculptures.
(B) further reduce the power and influence of a great king.
(C) describe the facial features of Ozymandias’ statue in greater detail.
(D) strengthen the imagery of a country from ancient times.
(E) narrate this story from the viewpoint of a foreigner.
 Passage 6

For the next eight or ten months, Oliver was the victim of a systematic course
of treachery and deception. He was brought up by hand. The hungry and destitute
situation of the infant orphan was duly reported by the workhouse authorities to the
parish authorities. The parish authorities inquired with dignity of the workhouse
5 authorities, whether there was no female then established in “the house” who was
in a situation to impart to Oliver Twist, the consolation and nourishment of which he
stood in need. The workhouse authorities replied with humility, that there was not.
Upon this, the parish authorities magnanimously and humanely resolved, that Oliver
should be “farmed”, or, in other words, that he should be dispatched to a
10 branch‐workhouse some three miles off, where twenty or thirty other juvenile
offenders against the poor‐laws, rolled about the floor all day, without the
inconvenience of too much food or too much clothing, under the parental
superintendence of an elderly female, who received the culprits at and for the
consideration of sevenpence‐halfpenny per small head per week. Sevenpence‐
15 halfpenny’s worth per week is a good round diet for a child; a great deal may be got
for sevenpence‐halfpenny, quite enough to overload its stomach, and make it
uncomfortable. The elderly female was a woman of wisdom and experience; she
knew what was good for children; and she had a very accurate perception of what
was good for herself. So, she appropriated the greater part of the weekly stipend to
20 her own use, and consigned the rising parochial generation to even a shorter
allowance than was originally provided for them. Thereby finding in the lowest
depth a deeper still; and proving herself a very great experimental philosopher.
‐Charles Dickens

26. This selection is primarily about

(A) the living conditions of a specific branch‐workhouse.
(B) the early childhood and education of Oliver Twist.
(C) the history of young orphans in the 19th century.
(D) the circumstances of a young child’s relocation.
(E) the philosophy of a workhouse superintendent.

27. It can be inferred from the passage that “sevenpence‐halfpenny” was

(A) enough money to take care of a child for a week.
(B) the weekly pay of the branch‐workhouse overseer.
(C) the cost of ownership of Oliver Twist.
(D) just enough money to pay for food for one day.
(E) used specifically to buy clothing for infant orphans.

28. According to the passage, the overseer of the branch‐workhouse

(A) was too young to handle the raising of children.
(B) had a poor relationship with parish authorities.
(C) secretly stole money that was meant for child care.
(D) was trying to quit her job as a caregiver of children.
(E) had a particular dislike for young Oliver Twist.

29. The style of the passage is most like that found in a

(A) personal letter
(B) diary of an orphan
(C) history textbook
(D) philosopher’s manual
(E) novel about an orphan

30. In the last sentence, “finding in the lowest depth a deeper still” refers to the
(A) great difficulty of adjusting to a branch‐workhouse.
(B) highly immoral nature of a woman’s actions.
(C) amount of experience of an overseer of orphans.
(D) experimental aspect of a woman’s philosophy.
(E) extent to which orphaned children must suffer.
 Passage 7

Of all the men who wore blue uniforms in the Civil War, none felt more keenly
the purpose of his mission than the African‐American soldier. Every marching step,
every swing of a pick and every round fired at Confederate enemies gave him a
chance to strike a blow against slavery and prove himself equal to his white comrades.
5 U.S. Colored Troops were consistently good fighters, performing well in every
engagement in which they fought. Even their enemies had to grudgingly admit that
fact. One USCT member, William H. Carney, transcended good to become great, and
was the first black U.S. soldier to earn the Medal of Honor.
On February 17, 1863, at age 23, Carney heeded the call for African
10 Americans to join a local militia unit, the Morgan Guards, with 45 other volunteers
from his hometown of New Bedford, Mass. That unit would later become Company C
of the 54th Massachusetts Infantry Regiment.
There was something unique about the new regiment, commanded by
Colonel Robert Gould Shaw; it was an all‐black unit with the exception of senior
15 officers and a few senior noncommissioned sergeants. The 54th Massachusetts was
created to prove that black men could be good soldiers.
‐Thomas Hammond

31. The main focus of this passage is

(A) how a few men changed the course of the Civil War.
(B) the strengths and flaws of African‐American soldiers.
(C) the impact of the Civil War on American history.
(D) the achievement of black soldiers in the Civil War.
(E) the battles fought by a famous Civil War regiment.

32. According to the passage, the enemy’s attitude towards the U.S. Colored Troops
may best be described as
(A) sarcastic exaggeration
(B) reluctant respect
(C) enthusiastic optimism
(D) sincere criticism
(E) angry condemnation

33. In the selection, all of the following questions are answered regarding William H.
Carney EXCEPT:
(A) How old was he when he became a fighting man?
(B) Was he a member of the U.S. Colored Troops?
(C) Did he receive any awards for his actions in war?
(D) How many men volunteered for the unit with him?
(E) What rank did he hold in the infantry regiment?

34. According to the passage, the African‐American soldier wanted to do well in the
Civil War for which of the following reasons?
I. To show he could fight as well as white soldiers.
II. To find better jobs after the war.
III. To help get rid of slavery.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

35. The passage implies that

(A) the soldiers with blue uniforms were fighting against slavery.
(B) Colonel Robert Gould Shaw was an African‐American.
(C) the Confederate army also had many African‐American soldiers.
(D) the Morgan Guards never met Company C of the 54th Massachusetts.
(E) the Medal of Honor was given to only one soldier in the war.
 Passage 8

The energy crisis has rocketed from a textbook concept into the most pressing
political issue of our time. Future energy supplies are increasingly vulnerable and
global consumption is expected to escalate dramatically, increasing by 71% in 2030
and continuing to rise. Energy shortages would have a dramatic impact on every area
5 of modern life: business, transport, food, health and communications. This looming
crisis has drawn scientific minds and encouraged radical research into other
technologies, such as the once‐neglected area of nuclear fusion.
Our sun is powered by nuclear fusion. Similar to traditional nuclear power, or
fission, it can produce huge amounts of carbon‐neutral energy. But there is one vital
10 difference: no dangerous, long‐lasting radioactive waste. Waste from nuclear fusion
is only radioactive for 50‐70 years, compared to the thousands of years of
radioactivity that result from fission. This is a long‐term supply of energy from a small
amount of fuel, and the by‐products are harmless.
Raw materials for nuclear fusion—water and silicon—are plentiful and
15 widespread on Earth. This should prevent the situations where energy supplies can
be threatened by political instability; as demonstrated in January 2007 when Russia
shut down a main oil pipeline to Europe after a political spat with Belarus.
Nuclear fusion could also help meet international climate change targets,
such as those agreed by politicians in Washington last month. Current zero‐carbon
20 technologies are unlikely to meet our energy demands this century. Nuclear power is
deeply unpopular while renewable energy sources—wind, solar and tidal—yield
relatively little energy for their high cost. But nuclear fusion could render carbon
dioxide‐producing fossil fuels obsolete by 2100.
‐Nigel Praities

36. According to the passage, an important difference between nuclear fusion and
nuclear fission is
(A) nuclear fusion produces both water and silicon.
(B) nuclear fission contributed more to the energy crisis.
(C) nuclear fusion has no harmful long‐term side effects.
(D) nuclear fission will have a big impact on modern life.
(E) one draws energy from the sun and the other doesn’t.

37. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to

(A) show the advantages of an alternative energy source.
(B) describe the escalation of the energy crisis.
(C) compare the pros and cons of new energy sources.
(D) explain how nuclear power will help in the future.
(E) criticize an emerging trend in the energy crisis.

38. All of the following are mentioned as benefits of nuclear fusion EXCEPT:
(A) It does not produce carbon dioxide.
(B) The raw materials for it are abundant on Earth.
(C) It will help meet environmental goals.
(D) It will generate ideas for new technologies.
(E) Its radioactive waste lasts must shorter than fission.

39. The author mentions “a political spat with Belarus” (third paragraph) in order to
(A) determine how water and silicon are used in the process of nuclear fusion.
(B) report about the political instability caused by the development of nuclear
power.
(C) illustrate the secondary role oil pipelines play to the actual oil reserves.
(D) show how different countries can cooperate to solve energy‐related problems.
(E) provide an example of a situation that would not happen with nuclear fusion.

40. It can be inferred from the passage that nuclear fusion

(A) will not become a reality in the next 50‐70 years due to radioactive waste.
(B) can produce more energy than wind, solar or tidal power at the same cost.
(C) is not being used by many countries due to the high amount of fuel it consumes.
(D) will use the power of the sun to eliminate energy shortages worldwide.
(E) can produce carbon dioxide at a much lower cost than other fossil fuels.
Section 4: Math

1. N is an even number between 20 and 60. N is also a multiple of 7 between 30 and

70. Which is N ?
(A) 28
(B) 49
(C) 56
(D) 64
(E) 77

2. The perimeter of a rectangle is 330. If its width is 67, then its length is
(A) 95
(B) 96
(C) 97
(D) 98
(E) 99

3. A man is on the ninth floor. He goes up twenty‐one floors, then down a dozen
floors, then up sixteen floors, then up forty‐seven floors. What floor does the man
end up on?
(A) Sixty‐ninth floor
(B) Seventy‐second floor
(C) Seventy‐fifth floor
(D) Seventy‐eighth floor
(E) Eighty‐first floor

4. If x @ y = ( x + 5 ) – y , then ( 3 @ 4 ) × ( 2 @ 1 ) =
(A) 21
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 28
(E) 30

5. The number of people now employed by a certain company is 40, which is 5/8 the
number employed a year ago. How many more employees did it have then than it
has now?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) 28

6. Each person contributed the same amount toward a $120 dinner. Which of the
following CANNOT be the amount each gave?
(A) $2.50
(B) $3
(C) $7.50
(D) $8
(E) $12.50

7. Three babies—Angela, Brian and Carrie—have different weights. Based on the

information below, how many pounds does Angela weigh?

Angela and Brian combined weigh 13 pounds.

Angela and Carrie combined weigh 14 pounds.
Brian and Carrie combined weigh 15 pounds.

(A) 4 pounds
(B) 5 pounds
(C) 6 pounds
(D) 7 pounds
(E) 8 pounds

8. The ratio of girls to boys in a classroom with 42 children is 4 to 3. How many more
girls than boys are there?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

9. If the tens digit and the hundreds digit of the number 1 6 2 9 are reversed, the
larger number will be how much more than the smaller number?
(A) 63
(B) 297
(C) 360
(D) 990
(E) 4,500

10. If the pattern of words continues to the right, what will the 50th word be?
left, right, up, down, left, right, up, down…
(A) left
(B) right
(C) up
(D) down
(E) all of the above
11. By hiring 200 people, a department store increased its total number of
employees by 25%. How many employees did the store have before the increase?
(A) 50
(B) 800
(C) 400
(D) 2,000
(E) 100

12. Miss Chang and Mr. Jones are teachers. Mr. Jones has 5 more students than the
number of his classroom. Miss Chang has eight less students than the number of her
classroom. If Miss Chang is in Room 27, and the two teachers combined have a total
of 47 students, what is the number of Mr. Jones’ classroom?
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26
(E) 27

13. If two chickens lay eight eggs in three days, how many eggs can ten chickens lay
in six days?
(A) 90
(B) 70
(C) 100
(D) 60
(E) 80

14. Rachel and John stand back‐to‐back. They each take 3 steps in opposite directions
away from each other and stop. Rachel then turns around, walks toward John, and
reaches him in 4 steps. The length of one of Rachel’s steps is how many times the
length of one of John’s steps? (All of Rachel’s steps are the same length and all of
John’s steps are the same length.)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 7

15. Chris takes out the trash every 4th day and washes the dishes every 6th day. Last
Thursday he did both chores. On what day of the week will he be doing both chores
again?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Saturday
(E) Friday

16. The total weight of a toy is 1/2 of its weight plus 1/2 of a pound. What is the toy’s
weight in ounces?
1 pound = 16 ounces
(A) 32 ounces
(B) 8 ounces
(C) 64 ounces
(D) 4 ounces
(E) 16 ounces

17. The sum of 25 + 326 + 837 + 548 + 259 + 970 is greater than the sum of 24 + 325
+ 836 + 547 + 258 + 969 by how much?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) 6

18. The current odometer reading of a car is 4,729 miles. What is the least number of
miles that the car must travel before the odometer displays four digits that are the
same?
(A) 285
(B) 826
(C) 1,937
(D) 3,048
(E) 4,159

19. 446,751 ÷ 2,938 is closest to which of the following?

(A) 1,500
(B) 1,200
(C) 150
(D) 120
(E) 100

20. On a playground, there are x groups of 12 children each. How many groups of 3
children each can be made?
(A) 2x
(B) x + 3
(C) 3x
(D) x + 4
(E) 4x

21. The scenic route from Henry’s home to his school is 7 miles longer than the direct
route. When he goes by the scenic route and returns by the direct route, the round
trip is 43 miles. How many miles is the direct route?
(A) 16 miles
(B) 17 miles
(C) 18 miles
(D) 19 miles
(E) 20 miles

22. A teacher writes clues to the identity of a number on the board. What is the
identity of this number?
‐ The number has 3 digits
‐ All the digits are odd
‐ All the digits are different
‐ The sum of the digits is 19
‐ The smallest digit is in the units place
‐ The largest digit is in the hundreds place
(A) 865
(B) 973
(C) 751
(D) 955
(E) 379

23. If ^^ P = 1,000 ÷ P, which of the following is not a whole number?

(A) ^^ 50
(B) ^^ 10
(C) ^^ 75
(D) ^^ 25
(E) ^^ 100

24. Taxi fare is $2 for the first 1/2 mile and $0.60 for each additional 1/2 mile. How
many miles can a passenger ride for $8 ?
(A) 4½
(B) 5
(C) 5½
(D) 6
(E) 6½

25. In a library, there are 4 times as many chairs as tables. If there are 45 total chairs
and tables, how many chairs are in the library?
(A) 28
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) 35
(E) 36
题号 词汇 数学 阅读 数学
1 A B B C
2 B D E D
3 C E D E
4 E C A B
5 D A C D
6 B E D E
7 E C C C
8 C D E B
9 A A A C
10 C B B B
11 A C C B
12 B A B A
13 E D E E
14 D A D B
15 D B A B
16 E E D E
17 C C A E
18 B B B B
19 D A E C
20 A E C E
21 D C E C
22 A A D B
23 E E A C
24 C B C C
25 B B B E
26 A D
27 C A
28 D C
29 B E
30 E B
31 A D
32 E B
33 C E
34 D C
35 C A
36 A C
37 E A
38 B D
39 B E
40 E B
41 D
42 A
43 E
44 A
45 C
46 C
47 E
48 B
49 D
50 A
51 B
52 D
53 A
54 E
55 C
56 A
57 D
58 C
59 B
60 E