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UPSC PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2025

TEST - 33
FULL LENGTH TEST - 9
{COMPLETE SYLLABUS}
(Indian Constitution, Political System and Governance +
Geography + History of India + Indian Economy & Social
Development + Ecology & Environment + General Science +
Current Affairs)

2025
Ganesh Book Shop - 7562946513
 VISIONIAS
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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4733

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
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1. India recently announced a US$ 100 million 5. Consider the following statements:
fresh line of Credit for the connectivity 1. Coral reefs are found in both tropical
project which is an infrastructure project to and deep-sea ecosystems.
link its capital with its nearby islands of
2. Great Nicobar and Sundarbans are home
Villingli, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi. Uthuru
to some of India's major coral reef
Thilafalhu (UTF) atoll is a major atoll of this
formations.
country. It is part of the Colombo Security
Conclave which envisages peaceful 3. Coral reefs are primarily composed of
cooperation in the Indian Ocean. calcium phosphate secreted by coralline
Which of the following country is being algae.
described in the above-given passage? 4. Coral reefs require warm, shallow, and
(a) Maldives clear waters to thrive in marine
(b) Mauritius ecosystems.
(c) Sri Lanka
How many of the above statements are
(d) Fiji
correct?

2. 'Delhi Chalo Movement’ is associated with: (a) Only one

(a) Swadeshi Movement (b) Only two
(b) Quit India Movement (c) Only three
(c) Individual Satyagraha (d) All four
(d) Bardoli Satyagraha
6. Which of the following rivers primarily
3. “Extended Fund Facility” and “Stand-by
contributed to the fertility of the
Arrangement” are related to the provisions
Mesopotamian region within the Fertile
of lending by which one of the following?
Crescent?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund (a) Nile and Jordan
(c) United Nations Environment Programme (b) Tigris and Euphrates
Finance Initiative (c) Indus and Ganges
(d) World Bank (d) Danube and Rhine

4. In the context of Bhitarkanika National Park, 7. How many of the following tree species
consider the following statements:
depends exclusively on bats for its
1. The park is famous for having one of the
pollination in nature?
largest populations of saltwater
1. Baobab
crocodiles in India.
2. It is a dry deciduous forest ecosystem 2. Dillenia biflora
with minimal aquatic biodiversity. 3. Mango
3. The park has been included under 4. Guava
UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites Select the correct answer using the code
How many of the statements given above are given below.
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) All four

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8. Which of the following best defines a ‘Blue 11. The IUCN has also raised concerns about
frankincense-producing trees (Boswellia
Moon’?
species). In this context, consider the
(a) A phenomenon when the Moon appears
following statements:
blue due to atmospheric dust during a 1. Frankincense trees are endemic to the

lunar eclipse. region of the African continent.

2. Frankincense trees grow best in dense,
(b) The occurrence of two new moons
high-rainfall tropical forests.
within the same calendar month. 3. Frankincense resin has been used as
(c) A full moon that appears closest to the incense, perfume, and medicine.
How many of the statements given above are
Earth and looks larger and brighter than
correct?
usual. (a) Only one
(d) The second full moon occurring within (b) Only two
(c) All three
the same calendar month.
(d) None

9. Arrange the following National Parks in 12. Consider the following information :
Species Name IUCN Status Distribution
India from North to South:
in India
1. Dachigam National Park 1. Malabar Critically Western
2. Khangchendzonga National Park Civet Endangered Ghats

3. Gangotri National Park 2. Snow Endangered Himalayas

Leopard
4. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
3. Lesser Critically Western
Select the correct answer using the codes Florican Endangered India
given below: In how many of the above rows is the
given information correctly matched?
(a) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
(a) Only one
(b) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (b) Only two
(c) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (c) All theee
(d) None
(d) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4

13. The Warrant of Precedence in India, which

10. Which of the following is primarily is an official order that ranks government
officials and dignitaries based on their
responsible for the current accelerated
protocol status for ceremonial and state
expansion of the universe? functions, is published by:
(a) Dark Matter (a) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Dark Energy
(c) President’s Secretariat
(c) Antigravity (d) Ministry of Personnel, Public
(d) Cosmic Inflation Grievances and Pensions
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14. Consider the following statements regarding 17. Sasaini, Hispar, and Khordopin are best
the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): associated with which of the following?
1. The CBI is subject to dual supervision (a) Seasonal rivers in the Zanskar Valley
by the Central Vigilance Commission originating from Himalayan snowmelt
(CVC) and the Ministry of Personnel, (b) Mountain passes of the Dhauladhar
Public Grievances, and Pensions. Range used historically by traders from
2. The deputation of police officers to the Ladakh
CBI requires the approval of the (c) Glaciers in the Karakoram region
respective state government where the contributing to river systems in the
officer is serving. region
3. The CBI investigates serious and (d) Glacier-eroded plateaus in the cold
organized crimes, including cases of desert region of Himachal Pradesh and
terrorism. Ladakh
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 18. Which of the following effects are
(a) Only one
commonly associated with hyperinflation?
(b) Only two
1. Encourages hoarding of goods
(c) All three
2. Erodes real wages and savings
(d) None
3. Leads to overvaluation of domestic
currency
15. Consider the following statements:
4. Weakens the central bank's credibility
1. Police can arrest an accused involved in
Select the correct answer using the code
a cognizable crime only with a warrant
given below.
from the Court.
(a) 1 and 3 only
2. Non-cognizable offences do not need
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
express permission from courts because
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
of their serious nature.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
19. Consider the following statements about
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Warren Hastings:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. He ended the Dual System in Bengal and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 made Calcutta the capital of Bengal.
2. He introduced the Ijaredari system in
16. Consider the following pairs: which the right to collect revenue was
Volcanic mountain Country given to the highest bidder.
1. Spurr : Russia 3. He stablished the Board of Revenue for
2. Lewotobi : Indonesia the Company's Diwani work and
3. Erebus : Iceland appointed ‘collectors for revenue
4. Kanlaon : Japan collection.
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many of the above statements are
matched? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None
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20. PolG disease is a genetic disorder that 24. Consider the following:
directly affects which of the following
1. Convention on the Conservation of
organelles, leading to impaired energy
production and cellular dysfunction? Migratory Species of Wild Animals

(a) Ribosomes 2. Minamata Convention on Mercury

(b) Nucleus
3. Vienna Convention for the Protection of
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Lysosomes the Ozone Layer

4. Stockholm Convention of Persistent

21. Consider the following pairs:
Organic Pollutants
Indus Valley site Excavators
1. Harappa : R D Bannerji Arrange the above conventions in the correct
2. Mohenjodaro : Dayaram Sahani chronological order from the earliest to the
3. Lothal : J P Joshi
latest.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? (a) 2–3–1–4
(a) 1 only (b) 3–1–2–4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1–3–4–2
(c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 3–2–4–1

22. Consider the following statements:

25. Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat is the only state in India that
produces agate and chalk. 1. Recently, scientists from the University
2. Chhattisgarh is the sole producer of tin of California, Berkley, have X-rayed a
concentrate in the country.
single atom for the first time.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? 2. An X-ray's wavelength distribution is
(a) 1 only similar to an atom's size.
(b) 2 only
3. Scientists have used the synchrotron X-
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ray scanning tunneling microscopy

method to image a single atom of Iron

23. Delegated legislation means a legislation
and Terbium.
which is passed by a body to which the
power of legislation is delegated by the How many of the above statements are
statute. Where in the Consitution of India we correct?
find the inspiration/source of delegated
(a) Only one
legislation provisions?
(a) Article 75 (b) Only two
(b) Article 122 (c) All three
(c) Article 142
(d) None
(d) Article 312
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26. Tri Party Repo Dealing System (TREPS) is a 28. Arrange the following events in
money market platform operated by the chronological order:
Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL) 1. Launch of Golden Quadrilateral Project
for repo transactions in government 2. Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC)
securities, where a third-party agent manages 3. Commencement of operations of the
collateral and settlement. In this context, National Stock Exchange (NSE)
Which of the following entities are eligible Select the correct answer using the code
to participate in TREPS? given below.

1. Public Sector Banks (a) 2-1-3

2. Co-operative Banks (b) 3-1-2

3. Mutual Funds (c) 1-3-2

4. Insurance Companies (d) 3-2-1

Select the correct answer using the code

given below. 29. In the context of Sanyasi-Fakir rebellion of

(a) 1 and 2 only 18th century, consider the following

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only statements:

(c) 3 and 4 only 1. The sanyasis were descendants of the

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 'dasnami' group who were followers of

Shankaracharya.

27. With reference to the GST (Goods and 2. It was a combined armed resistance by

Services Tax) Council, consider the Sanyasis and Muslim Fakir against the

following statements: East India Company of India

1. The 100th Constitutional Amendment 3. The Sanyasis apart from being religious

Act of 2016 led to the formation of the mendicants acted as traders,

GST Council. moneylenders and mercenaries.

2. The vote of the central government shall 4. They revolted mainly against the

have equal weightage to the votes of all reversal of benefits like having tax-free

state governments in the council lands and free movement which they

proceedings. received traditionally.

Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above are

correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) Only two

(b) 2 only (b) Only three

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All four

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

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30. Consider the following description: 33. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It is a high-altitude wetland and an initiatives for promoting women
important breeding ground for the
entrepreneurship in India:
Black-necked Crane.
2. The site experiences extreme cold desert 1. Fifty percent of annual procurement by
conditions, with temperatures dropping Central Public Sector Enterprises
below freezing for most of the year. (CPSEs) is reserved for women-owned
3. It is located in a rain-shadow region,
MSMEs.
making it one of the driest wetlands in
the country. 2. 10 percent of the Fund of Funds for
Which of the following Ramsar sites is best Startups (FFS) managed by Small
described by the description given above? Industries Development Bank of India
(a) Loktak Lake
(SIDBI) is reserved exclusively for
(b) Wular Lake
(c) Tso Kar Wetland Complex women-led startups.
(d) Chandra Taal Wetland 3. The Indian Patent Act provides for
expedited examination of a patent
31. How many of the following are the
application if at least one applicant is a
characteristics of a mangrove ecosystem?
1. Aerial Roots female.
2. Exhibit vivipary How many of the statements given above are
3. Saline and Waterlogged Conditions correct?
4. Low Biodiversity
(a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) Only three
(d) All four
34. Consider the following pairs:
32. Consider the following statements regarding Tectonic Plate Location
various types of investments in an economy : 1. Macquarie : Sits south of
1. Induced Investment changes with
microplate Tasmania
income levels and economic activity.
2. Autonomous Investment is independent 2. Capricorn : Separates the Indian
of income and economic fluctuations. microplate and Australian plates
3. Impact Investment aims for both
3. Pontous : South China Sea
financial returns and positive social or
How many of the above pairs are correctly
environmental outcomes.
How many of the statements given above are matched?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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35. Consider the following pairs: 38. With reference to the joint session of
Term Description parliament, consider the following
1. Isohaline : Same Salinity statements:
1. A joint sitting of parliament cannot be
2. Isohyte : Same Sunshine
summoned if the bill under dispute has
3. Isohel : Same Precipitation
already lapsed due to the dissolution of
How many of the pairs given above are the Lok Sabha.
correctly matched? 2. In the absence of the speaker and deputy
(a) Only one speaker of Lok Sabha, the chairman of
(b) Only two Rajya Sabha presides over the joint
(c) All three sitting.
3. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting
(d) None
is one-tenth of the total number of
members of the two Houses.
36. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above are
the Seagrasses: correct?
1. Seagrasses are flowering marine plants (a) 1 and 2 only
that grow in shallow coastal waters. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Antarctica is the only continent without (c) 1 and 3 only
seagrasses. (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Seagrasses reproduce both asexual

39. Consider the following:
clonal growth and sexual reproduction.
1. Green Credit Programme (GCP)
How many of the above statements are 2. International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)
correct? 3. One Trillion Trees Initiative
(a) Only one 4. High Ambition Coalition for Nature and
(b) Only two People
(c) All three How many of the above initiatives have been
launched by India?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
37. Consider the following statements about the
(c) Only three
Primary Market: (d) All four
1. Retail investors cannot participate in
Initial Public Offer (IPOs) through the 40. Which of the following has been exempted
primary market. from GST as per recent decisions of the
2. Rights issues and preferential allotments GST?
1. Fortified Rice Kernels
are part of the primary market
2. Gene Therapy
operations.
3. Penal Charges collected by Banks
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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41. Which of the following best describes 44. Expedition 72, recently seen in the news, is
'externalities' in the context of Economics? related to which of the following?
(a) It is the total cost of production incurred
(a) A joint Indo-Pacific naval exercise
by a firm.
(b) It refers to the impact of government conducted in the South China Sea.
policies on market prices. (b) A scientific research voyage to
(c) It is the revenue generated by firms from Antarctica under the Indian Antarctic
international trade.
Programme.
(d) It is the unintended side effects of an
economic activity on third parties. (c) A long-duration crewed mission to the
International Space Station (ISS).
42. Consider the following statements: (d) A SpaceX mission involving the first
Statement I: The Global Methane Pledge,
commercial space station module
launched at COP26, aims to reduce methane
launch.
emissions by 30% by 2030 from 2020 levels.
Statement II: Methane is a long-lived climate
pollutant with a high global warming 45. Recently, a new species was identified in
potential (GWP).
Meghalaya named Channa nachi, this
Which one of the following is correct in
species marks the rich biodiversity of the
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are region. This species is related to which of
correct, and Statement II is the correct the following?
explanation for Statement I (a) Snake
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(b) Fish
correct, but Statement II is not the
correct explanation for Statement I (c) Bamboo
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (d) Butterfly
incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
46. Consider the following statements regarding
is correct
yakshas:
43. Consider the following statements regarding 1. In some traditions they were worshipped
'Jalvahak' scheme: as the God of fertility.
1. It incentivizes the movement of long-
2. They were regarded as demonic
haul cargo via NW-1 (River Ganga),
NW-2 (River Brahmaputra), and NW-16 creatures in some Brahmanical and
(River Barak). Buddhist texts.
2. It offers reimbursement upto 100% of 3. They were worshipped in some regions
total operating expenditure incurred
as the God of merchants and travelers.
while transporting cargo through
waterways. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
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47. Consider the following statements with 50. In the context of the International Trade
respect to Rig Vedic Age: Settlement in Indian Rupees (INR) initiative
1. They had the knowledge of different
by the RBI, which of the following
seasons for agriculture.
statements correctly describe the Special
2. Land formed the most important form of
Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA)?
private wealth.
3. Aryan people were acquainted with land 1. SRVA requires prior approval from the
routes. RBI before being opened.
Which of the statement given above are 2. SRVA enables international trade
correct?
settlements in Indian Rupees,
(a) 1, 2 and 3
complementing the existing foreign
(b) 2 and 3 only
currency-based system.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 3. The exchange rate between INR and
foreign currency must be fixed by the
48. Due to some reasons, if there is a significant RBI for SRVA transactions.
decline in the population of honeybees, what
Select the correct answer using the code
could be its likely consequences?
given below.
1. Pollination of several crops could be
(a) 1 and 2 only
severely affected, reducing agricultural
yields. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. There could be a sharp increase in (c) 1 and 3 only
populations of other pollinators like (d) 1, 2 and 3
butterflies and beetles.
3. It may lead to a decline in species that
51. Which of the following was/were the
depend on honeybees for food, such as
outcome of the Nagpur Session of Indian
some birds and mammals.
Select the correct answer using the code National Congress in 1920?
given below: 1. Launch of Civil Disobedience
(a) 1 only Movement.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and
(c) 1 and 3 only
legitimate means was set as the goal of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Congress.

49. Phos-Chek, recently seen in the news, is a: 3. Provincial Congress Committees were
(a) Newly developed antibiotic for treating organized on linguistic basis.
bacterial infections. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Chemical compound used as a fire
given below.
retardant in wildfire suppression.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Type of fertilizer used to enhance crop
(b) 1 and 3 only
yield.
(d) Satellite launched for environmental (c) 2 only
monitoring. (d) 2 and 3 only
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52. Consider the following statements regarding 55. Consider the following statements with
the BharatNet Project: regard to the associations/groups formed
1. The project aims to provide high-speed during the Non-Cooperation movement:
broadband connectivity to all gram 1. Anti-non-Cooperation association was
panchayats in India. established by a section of businessmen
2. It is being implemented by Bharat against the movement.
Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) 2. Foreign Cloth Boycott Committee was
under the Ministry of Electronics and organized to propagate ideas of the
Information Technology. programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Consider the following statements regarding 56. Doon Valleys, such as Dehradun, are found
the Judges Protection Act, 1985: between:
1. The Act applies to judges of the (a) Great Himalayas and Lesser Himalayas.
Supreme Court, High Courts, and (b) Shivaliks and Lesser Himalayas.
Subordinate Courts but does not extend (c) Lesser Himalayas and Trans-Himalayas.
to members of tribunals. (d) Great Himalayas and Shivaliks.
2. The Act provides immunity to only
sitting and not retired judges from 57. The terms "Hard Fork" and "Soft Fork" are
criminal proceedings for acts performed primarily related to which of the following
in their judicial capacity. technologies?
3. The Act lays down a detailed procedure (a) Cryptocurrency and blockchain
for registering an FIR against a judge technology
accused of misconduct. (b) Genetic modifications in crops
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Cybersecurity protocols in cloud
correct? computing
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Strategies used in information warfare
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 58. Which of the following best describes the
(d) None of the above role of 'Bargis' during the Medieval period?
(a) They were elite cavalry units were used
54. MITRA, a new digital platform to assist for rapid assaults in battlefield
investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive engagement.
or unclaimed mutual fund folios, was (b) They were mercenary groups well-
launched by which organization? known for their large-scale plundering in
(a) Association of Mutual Funds in India regions like Bengal.
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (c) They were administrative officers in
(SEBI) charge of tax collection in the provinces.
(c) International Financial Services Centres (d) They were religious leaders that
Authority responsible for maintaining law and
(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) order within the empire.
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59. Consider the following statements: 62. Consider the following statements regarding
1. A British committee of the Indian Whistleblowing in India under Whistle
National Congress was established in
London in 1889. Blowers Protection Act, 2014:
2. In 1892, Dadabhai Naoroji held a 1. Whistleblower can be a government
session of the Indian National Congress
official or an non-governmental
in London.
Which of the statements given above is/are organization.
correct? 2. It does not apply to the armed forces of
(a) 1 only
the Union.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Complainant must disclose his
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 particulars in order to invoke action by
the authorities.
60. It is conducted when more than one person
stakes a claim to form the government. Which of the statements given above is/are
When the majority is not clear, the governor correct?
might call for a special session to see who
(a) 2 and 3 only
has the majority. The majority is counted
based on those present and voting. This can (b) 1, 2 and 3
also be done through a voice vote where the (c) 1 and 2 only
member can respond orally or through
(d) 3 only
division voting. Some legislators may be
absent or choose not to vote.
Which of the following is best explained in 63. In the context of cultural history of India,
the passage given above?
"Batik art", is a:
(a) Composite floor test
(b) Confidence motion (a) form of painting done on walls using
(c) No-confidence motion natural pigments.
(d) Division vote
(b) textile art where patterns are created by

61. With reference to Anushakti Vidhyut Nigam applying wax to fabric.

Ltd. (ASHVINI), consider the following (c) type of pottery decoration using clay and
statements:
paint.
1. ASHVINI is a joint venture between
NPCIL and NTPC, with NPCIL holding (d) form of sculpture created using metal
the majority stake. and stones.
2. ASHVINI will function under the
Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
3. It is established to build, own, and 64. The term ‘justice’ in the preamble mainly
operate nuclear power plants in India. refers to which of the following?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) Retributive justice
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Distributive justice
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Corrective justice
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Procedural justice

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65. With reference to advanced computing 67. With reference to ‘Tiger Reserves in India’,
technologies, consider the following consider the following pairs:
statements: Tiger Reserve State
1. Cloud computing enables high-speed
1. Sariska Tiger Reserve : Odisha
real-time data processing, whereas Edge
2. Valmiki Tiger Reserve : Bihar
computing is used for non-time-sensitive
3. Satkosia Tiger Reserve : Rajasthan
data processing.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
2. Cloud computing operates remotely and
correctly matched?
requires minimal internet connectivity,
(a) 2 only
whereas Edge computing relies on a
stable internet connection. (b) 1 and 2 only

3. Cloud computing is ideal for handling (c) 3 only

highly sensitive data with strict (d) 2 and 3 only

regulatory compliance, whereas Edge
computing is suited for dynamic 68. Consider the following statements about
workloads and large datasets.
Tribunals established under Article 323A
How many statements given above are
and 323B:
correct?
1. Tribunals established under Article
(a) Only one
323A deal exclusively with service
(b) Only two
matters of government employees.
(c) All three
2. Article 323B allows the creation of a
(d) None
hierarchy of tribunals at both the Union

66. Which of the following industries flourished and State levels.

during the Vijayanagara Empire? 3. Tribunals under Article 323A can be

1. Jaggery & Sugar created only by Parliament, while
2. Textile tribunals under Article 323B can be
3. Leather
established by both Parliament and State
4. Oil Pressing
Legislatures.
5. Salt Manufacturing
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer from the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
69. Consider the following statements regarding 72. Arrange the following saints of bhakti
the World Trade Organization (WTO): movement in correct chronological order:
1. The First Ministerial Conference of the 1. Surdas
WTO was held in Singapore in 1996. 2. Vallabhacharya

2. No WTO Ministerial Conference has 3. Gnanadeva

been held in India till now. 4. Basavanna

Select the correct answer using the code
3. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
given below.
was a key outcome of the Bali
(a) 1-2-3-4
Ministerial Conference in 2013.
(b) 1-3-2-4
How many of the statements given above
(c) 4-3-2-1
is/are correct?
(d) 3-1-4-2
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
73. Consider the following:
(c) All three 1. Proclamation of Emergency
(d) None 2. Provisions as to financial emergency
3. Provisions in case of failure of
70. Which one of the following statements is not constitutional machinery in States
correct regarding the Sukanya Samriddhi Under the Indian Constitution, how many of
Yojana? the above are included in the Emergency
(a) The guardian can open the account provisions under Part XVIII?
immediately after the birth of the girl (a) Only one
child till she attains the age of 18 years. (b) Only two
(b) Parents can open a maximum of two (c) All three

accounts for each of their children (d) None

except in case of twins or triplets.

74. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Patents can open a Sukanya Samriddhi
the architecture in during Delhi Sultanate
account for girls at any post office or
period:
designated commercial bank branch.
1. They started using slab and beam
(d) The account matures upon the
construction was for roofs.
completion of twenty-one years of the
2. They built minars around mosques and
account holder from its opening date.
mausoleums.
3. They used human and animal figures in
71. Which of the following recently became the their architecture.
first Indian State to have commission for Which of the statements given above is/are
elderly? correct?
(a) Gujarat (a) 3 only
(b) Tamil Nadu (b) 2 only
(c) Maharashtra (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Kerala (d) 1 and 2 only
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
75. Article 257 of the Indian Constitution 78. Consider the following pairs :
empowers the Union Government to extend Philosophy Founder
directions to the States in certain areas. 1. Advaita : Ramanujacharya
Which of the following matters are 2. Dvaita : Shankaracharya
specifically mentioned in the Constitution, 3. Vishistadvaita : Madhvacharya
on which the Union can issue such directions How many of the above pairs are correctly
to the States? matched?
(a) Only one
1. Construction and maintenance of means
(b) Only two
of communication of national or military
(c) All three
importance
(d) None
2. Protection of the railways within the
state
79. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Allocation of resources for State the major geological systems of India:
development 1. The Archaean rock system occupies
4. Regulation of minerals and mineral nearly two-thirds of the Peninsular
resources Indian landmass.
5. Protection of national parks and wildlife 2. The Dharwar rock system occurs in
sanctuaries scattered patches and extends as far
Select the correct answer using the code north as the Aravalli range.
below. 3. The Cuddapah system is prominently
(a) 1 and 2 only known for its red sandstones, which
(b) 1 only were widely used for historical
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only structures.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
76. With reference to medieval Indian history,
(b) 2 and 3 only
what does At-Chala and Dalaan mean?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) These were taxes collected in the eastern
(d) 1, 2 and 3
part of Mughal empire.
(b) These were temple architectural styles in
80. The Maritime Development Fund was
Bengal. announced in the budget 2025-26. With
(c) These were literary texts written on war reference to this consider the following
by scholars in Rajasthan. statements:
(d) These were pottery making styles of 1. It will be a Rs.25000 crore fund for
North India. long-term financing for the maritime
industry.
77. Which of the following commodity boards 2. 75 percent of the fund cntribution will
does not come under the Ministry of come from the private sector and ports.
Commerce and Industry, Government of Which of the statements given above is/are
India? correct?
(a) Rubber Board (a) 1 only
(b) Coir Board (b) 2 only
(c) Tea Board (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Coffee board
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
81. Consider the following statements regarding 84. The Kilkanakku texts in Sangam literature
Card Tokenisation in India: deals with:
1. Tokenisation and de-tokenisation of (a) prescription of code of conduct for
cards can be performed only with the
various social groups in society.
approval of National Payments
(b) narration and glorification of heroic
Corporation of India (NPCI).
works of rulers.
2. Contactless card transactions are not
allowed under tokenisation. (c) earliest information about Tamil
3. Customers need not pay any charges for grammar and literary works.
availing tokenisation services. (d) description of socio economic conditions
How many of the statements given above are of Pandyan kingdom.
correct?
(a) Only one
85. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two
1. As per the Henley Passport Index 2025,
(c) All three
India holds a rank among the top 50
(d) None
countries.
82. Consider the following pairs : 2. An Indian-passport holder can have visa-
Commodity Top Producer free access in a total of 45 countries.
1. Milk : Gujarat Which of the statements given is/are correct?
2. Eggs : Andhra Pradesh (a) 1 only
3. Wool : Jammu and Kashmir (b) 2 only
4. Meat : Uttar Pradesh
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the pairs given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 86. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Only three Fundamental Rights in India:
(d) All four 1. The Right to Free and Compulsory
Education under Article 21A does not
83. Consider the following statements with apply to unaided minority institutions.
regards to the literature works during the
2. Every citizen has a fundamental right to
period of the Rashtrakutas:
become a member of a voluntary
1. Adipurana, the life stories of various
association or cooperatives.
Jain saints was written by Gunabhadra.
2. Parsvabhudaya, a biography of Parsva 3. Article 32 applies only to violations of
was composed by Jinasena. fundamental rights by the State, and not
3. Amogavarsha’s Kavirajamarga was the against private individuals or entities.
first poetic work in Kannada language. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

87. The ‘Global Stocktake Report’, recently in 90. Consider the following aspects regarding
the news, is related to: Ecomark certification:
(a) Assessing the progress of countries in 1. It helps consumers identify
meeting their Paris Agreement goals environmentally friendly products.
(b) Tracking global Biodiversity loss and 2. It is granted to products that are 100%
Conservation Efforts biodegradable only.
(c) Monitoring the impact of climate change 3. The application process is managed by
on ocean currents the Central Pollution Control Board
(d) Evaluating the financial commitment of (CPCB).
developed nations toward climate 4. It is valid for 5 years from the date of
mitigation issuance.
Which of the statements given above is/are
88. Which one of the following uses pebbles as correct?
tools to crack open the shells of mollusks or (a) 1 and 3 only
sea urchins? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Bottlenose Dolphin (c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) Sea Otter (d) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) Olive Ridley Turtle
(d) Sea cow 91. Consider the following statements regarding
Vermifiltration Technology:
89. Consider the following statements regarding 1. It is a nature-based wastewater treatment
the characteristics of cowpea: method that relies on the activity of
1. It is a short-duration crop that matures earthworms and microorganisms.
quickly, making it suitable for multiple 2. Vermifiltration operates under anaerobic
cropping systems. conditions to break down organic waste
2. Cowpea can fix atmospheric nitrogen, effectively.
improving soil fertility. 3. It is applicable for treating sewage as
3. Nigeria is the largest producer of well as agro-industrial wastewater
cowpea in the world. effluents.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
92. With reference to India’s Kuno National 95. "This festival is known as the 'Nada Habba'
Park, consider the following statements:
or the state festival of Karnataka. It begins
1. It was in the news recently due to the
with a traditional start atop the Chamundi
successful translocation of Asiatic lions
from Gir National Park Hills with a procession of Goddess
2. It is spread over two districts.
Chamundeshwari. The festival is being
3. It is a designated UNESCO World
celebrated since four hundred years and is
Heritage Site.
How many of the statements given above are patronized by the Wodeyar dynasty."
correct?
Which of the following festivals is being
(a) Only one
described in the above passage?
(b) Only two
(c) All three (a) Gowri Habba
(d) None
(b) Mysuru Dasara

(c) Bathukamma
93. The region "Carnatic," during the colonial
India was the (d) Mahamastakabhisheka
(a) entire Deccan Plateau and its
surrounding regions.
96. Consider the following statements:
(b) Coromandal coast and its hinterland.
(c) Malabar coast and adjacent areas. 1. The difference in mineral composition
(d) Western Ghats and coastal Karnataka.
between seawater and river water is

primarily attributed to the varying

94. Consider the following statements regarding
the distribution of powers between the Union durations of contact with the Earth's
and States in India:
crust.
1. Parliament, by law, may allow a State or
2. Seawater contains predominantly
multiple States to legislate on a subject
in the Union List, but only with the prior chlorides, while river water contains
consent of the concerned State(s).
higher proportions of carbonates and
2. The Union government can delegate its
sulphates.
executive power to a State government
with or without the consent of the Which of the statements given above is/are
respective State.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
97. As per the provisions of the Indian 99. Consider the following statements :
Constitution, the President is bound to act on Statement-I: Dugongs are the only
the aid and advice of the Council of herbivorous marine mammals found in
Indian waters.
Ministers. In this context, consider the
Statement-II: Dugongs reproduce rapidly,
following activities of the President:
with females giving birth to multiple
1. Promulgation of Ordinances offspring every year, leading to a stable
2. Appointment of Governors population.
3. Appointment of the Chairman of UPSC Which one of the following is correct in
4. Consideration of Bills other than respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Constitutional Amendment Bills and
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
Money Bills
explanation for Statement-I.
Which of the above activities can the (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
President send back to the Council of correct, but Statement-II is not the
Ministers for reconsideration? correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II
(b) 4 only is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
is correct.
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

100. Consider the following statements regarding

98. Which of the following lakes in India the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha
has/have shrunk immensely in the recent evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)
past? Scheme:
1. It aims to provide solar energy-based
1. Kolleru Lake
irrigation to farmers and reduce their
2. Tamulidoba beel
dependence on diesel and electric
3. Panje wetlands pumps.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The scheme is entirely funded by the
given below. Central Government.
(a) 1 only 3. The Ministry of Agriculture and
(b) 2 and 3 only Farmers’ Welfare is the nodal ministry
for implementing the scheme.
(c) 2 only
How many of the statements given above are
(d) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4733 (2025)

Q 1.A
• India-Maldives Relations
o India announced a US$ 100 million fresh line of Credit for the Greater Male Connectivity Project
(GMCP). GMCP is an India funded infrastructure project to link Male with its nearby islands of
Villingli, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi.
o Both countries have signed a security cooperation pact with a credit line from India for capacity
building in the maritime domain.
o Maldives is part of the Colombo Security Conclave (Initiated by India) which envisages peaceful
cooperation in Indian Ocean along with Sri Lanka and Mauritius. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
o National College for Policing and Law Enforcement (NCPLE), India's largest grant project in
Maldives was recently inaugurated in Addu City, Maldives.
• About Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):
o It is a regional security grouping comprising India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and
Mauritius.
o The CSC’s core objective is to promote regional security by addressing transnational threats and
challenges of common concern to the Member States.
o Origin: The CSC, initially known as the Trilateral for Maritime Security Cooperation, evolved out
of trilateral meetings between National Security Advisors (NSAs) and Deputy NSAs from India,
Maldives, and Sri Lanka, starting in 2011.
o It came to a standstill after 2014 due to rising tensions between India and the Maldives.
o Since its revival and re-branding as the CSC in 2020, Mauritius and more recently, Bangladesh
were added as members of the grouping.
o Current members of CSC include India, Bangladesh, Maldives, Mauritius, and Sri Lanka, while
the Seychelles is an observer nation.
o CSC brings together NSAs and Deputy NSAs of the member countries. Cooperation under the
conclave focuses on five pillars:
> maritime safety and security
> countering terrorism and radicalisation
> combating trafficking and transnational organised crime
> cyber-security and protection of critical infrastructure
> humanitarian assistance and disaster relief.
o Permanent secretariat: Colombo

Q 2.C
• Individual Satyagraha: In 1940, then Viceroy Linlithgow made a set of proposals called the ‘August
offer’ which included that a representative Indian body would frame a constitution for India after the war
and Dominion status is the objective for India. Indian National Congress rejected this offer in its
meeting at Wardha in August 1940 and demanded complete freedom from the colonial rule.
Jawaharlal Nehru remarked that the dominion status concept was as dead as a doornail. After this,
Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Individual Satyagraha to affirm the right to free speech. He avoided
a mass satyagraha because he did not want violence.
• The aims/methodology of Individual Satyagrahis were:
o To show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness.

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 o To express people’s feelings that they were not interested in the war and that they made no distinction
between Nazism and the double autocracy that ruled India.
o To give another opportunity to the Government to accept Congress’s demands peacefully.
• The demand of the Satyagrahi was using Freedom of Speech against the war through an anti-war
declaration. If the government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she will move repeating it in
villages and start march towards Delhi (“Delhi Chalo Movement”). The centerpiece of Individual
Satyagraha was non-violence which could be achieved only by selecting the Satyagrahis.
• Acharya Vinoba Bhave, Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, and Brahma Dutt were the first, second, and third
the selected Satyagarhi respectively. Till 15 May 1941, 25000 satyagrahis had been jailed.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 3.B
• Recent context: The Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) concluded the 2024
Article IV consultation with Pakistan and approved a 37-month Extended Arrangement under the
Extended Fund Facility (EFF) for Pakistan in the amount of SDR 5,320 million (or around US$7 billion).
The Fund’s immediate disbursement will be SDR 760 million (or about US$1 billion).
• Extended Fund Facility (EFF):
o The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974
to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.
o The EFF is prescribed for a country who is suffering from balance of payment problem caused by
structural weaknesses and who need fundamental economic reforms. The use of the facility has
increased substantially in the recent crisis period.
• Stand-by Arrangement (SBA):
o Stand-by Arrangement (SBA) is often termed as the work horse facility of the IMF as it is the most
sought loan facility.
o Bulk of non-concessional assistance has been provided through SBAs. Main objective of the scheme
is to help countries address short-term balance of payments problems.
o SBA is provided with conditionality.
o Duration of SBA is typically 12–24 months, and it can be availed on a precautionary basis also. Here
countries can choose not to draw upon approved amounts but retain the option to do so if conditions
necessitate. The SBA provides for flexibility with respect to phasing of the disbursement of loan as
well. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 4.A
• Bhitarkanika National Park, located in Odisha, India, is renowned for its rich biodiversity and unique
ecosystems. Bhitarkanika was designated as a Ramsar site on August 19, 2002, acknowledging its
significance as a wetland of international importance. Bhitarkanika is renowned for its substantial
population of saltwater crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus), with nearly 700 individuals inhabiting its rivers
and creeks. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Bhitarkanika primarily comprises mangrove forests and wetland ecosystems, supporting a diverse range
of aquatic and terrestrial species. It is not characterized as a dry deciduous forest with minimal aquatic
biodiversity. Bhitarkanika hosts extensive mangrove forests and is recognized as the second-largest
mangrove ecosystem in India, following the Sundarbans. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Gahirmatha Beach, adjacent to Bhitarkanika, is globally recognized as a significant nesting ground for
olive ridley sea turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea). Although Bhitarkanika has been proposed for inclusion as
a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it has not yet been granted this status. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.

Q 5.B
• Coral reefs are commonly found in tropical shallow waters, such as the Great Barrier Reef, Indian Ocean,
and Caribbean Sea.
• Deep-sea corals, also known as cold-water corals, exist at depths of 200–2,000 meters, where there is no
sunlight. Hence, statement 1 Is correct.
• Great Nicobar has coral reefs, but Sundarbans does not support major coral formations due to high
sedimentation and low salinity from the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• India’s major coral reef sites include:
o Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)
o Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)

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 o Andaman & Nicobar Islands
o Lakshadweep Islands
• Coral reefs are composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO3), secreted by coral polyps and coralline algae (red
algae).
o Calcium phosphate is not a major component of coral reefs. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Coral reefs thrive in warm waters (23-29°C), shallow depths (less than 50 meters), and clear waters that
allow sunlight to reach zooxanthellae algae, which perform photosynthesis. Hence, statement 4 is
correct.
• Threats to corals include:
o Coral bleaching (due to rising temperatures)
o Ocean acidification
o Coastal pollution
o Overfishing & destructive fishing practices

Q 6.B
• The Fertile Crescent
o The Fertile Crescent, often hailed as the “Cradle of Civilization,” is a historical region in the Middle
East that witnessed the emergence of the world’s first urban societies. At the heart of this crescent lies
Mesopotamia, whose very name means “land between rivers.” These rivers are none other than
the Tigris and Euphrates, which played an indispensable role in shaping human history.
• Tigris and Euphrates:
o These rivers originate in the Armenian highlands and flow southeast through modern-day countries
such as Turkey, Syria, and Iraq, eventually emptying into the Persian Gulf. The fertile plains between
these rivers supported the development of some of the world’s earliest civilizations, including the
Sumerians, Akkadians, Babylonians, and Assyrians. The annual flooding of the Tigris and Euphrates
deposited nutrient-rich silt onto the land, enhancing its fertility and enabling agriculture to flourish in
an otherwise arid region.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 7.A
• Baobab (Adansonia spp.), particularly the African baobab, is primarily pollinated by bats, but not
exclusively. Some species may also be pollinated by moths or other insects, depending on the region
and species. Hence, point 1 is not correct.
• While numerous plant species rely on bats for pollination, one tree species known to depend
exclusively on bats for its pollination is Dillenia biflora. A tree species native to the Pacific Islands,
specifically Fiji, has been found to have a unique pollination system where the entire corolla falls
open, and bats are the sole pollinators. Hence, point 2 is correct.
• Mango (Mangifera indica): Pollinated mainly by insects (bees, flies, thrips). Hence, point 3 is not
correct.
• Guava (Psidium guajava): Pollinated by bees and other insects Hence, point 4 is not correct.

Q 8.D
• What Is a Blue Moon?
o The night sky holds many fascinating phenomena, and one that often captures public attention is the
“Blue Moon.” Despite its name, a Blue Moon has little to do with the moon’s color. Instead, it refers
to an extra full moon that appears due to the unique alignment of the lunar calendar with our
Gregorian calendar.
• Types of Blue Moon
o There are two main definitions of a Blue Moon, both of which are tied to the lunar cycle — the
Moon’s phases take approximately 29.5 days to complete.
> Monthly Blue Moon (More Common)
✓ This occurs when two full moons appear within the same calendar month. Since most
months are longer than the lunar cycle, it is possible for two full moons to occur in one month
— the second one is called the Blue Moon. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
> Seasonal Blue Moon (Traditional Definition)
✓ In an astronomical season (the time between a solstice and an equinox, typically three
months), there are usually three full moons. When a fourth full moon appears, the third in the

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 sequence is traditionally called a Blue Moon. This definition is used more in astronomical
contexts.

Q 9.D
• Dachigam National Park (Jammu & Kashmir) [34.1°N]
o Located near Srinagar, it is famous for the Kashmir Stag (Hangul), the only surviving subspecies of
Red Deer in India.
o It features alpine meadows, coniferous forests, and steep slopes, providing an ideal habitat for
Himalayan wildlife.
• Gangotri National Park (Uttarakhand) [30.9°N]
o Located in the Garhwal Himalayas, it includes Gaumukh Glacier, the origin of the Ganga River.
o Home to Snow Leopard, Himalayan Thar, Musk Deer, and rare medicinal plants.
• Khangchendzonga National Park (Sikkim) [27.7°N]
o A UNESCO World Heritage Site, home to Mt. Khangchendzonga (India’s highest peak after K2).
o Known for Red Panda, Snow Leopard, Himalayan Black Bear, and diverse Himalayan flora.
• Dibru-Saikhowa National Park (Assam) [27.0°N]
o Located near the Brahmaputra River, it is a unique floodplain ecosystem.
o It is famous for Feral Horses, Gangetic Dolphins, and migratory birds.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 10.B
• In the 1920s, astronomers including Edwin Hubble discovered that galaxies seem to be moving away from
us, and the farther they are, the faster they recede. Combined with Einstein’s general theory of relativity,
researchers concluded that the universe is expanding, carrying galaxies along with it.
• Then in 1998, two independent groups of researchers announced they had measured cosmic expansion to
a higher degree of precision, and found that it was getting faster. This acceleration implies some unknown
force is counteracting gravity to make the universe expand at a greater rate.
• We call that mysterious force “dark energy”. Despite the name, dark energy isn’t like dark matter,
except that they’re both invisible. Dark matter pulls galaxies together, while dark energy pushes
them apart. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Astronomers measure the expansion of the universe using the explosions of white dwarfs, called type Ia
supernovas, which led to the discovery of dark energy in 1998. They also use thousands of galaxies to
map sound waves called baryon acoustic oscillations (BAO) produced when the universe was young,

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 which stretch as the universe expands. In addition, CMB measurements show dark energy contributes
about 68% of the total energy content of the universe.
• Antigravity is a theoretical concept that describes the ability to create a place or object that is free from
the force of gravity and is unrelated to the observed acceleration.
• Cosmic Inflation refers to a brief period of rapid expansion in the early universe, not the current
acceleration observed today.

Q 11.A
• Context: The IUCN has also raised concerns about frankincense-producing trees (Boswellia
species).
o Most frankincense comes from about five species of Boswellia trees, found in North Africa and India,
but also in Oman, Yemen, and western Africa. The trees look gnarled and knotty, like a desert bonsai.
To collect frankincense, harvesters make incisions into the trunks and scrape out the oozing sap,
which hardens into frankincense resin. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Frankincense trees thrive in dry, arid, rocky environments—not dense tropical rainforests. These trees
are often found growing in harsh, desert-like conditions, typically on rocky slopes with very low
rainfall. Their ability to grow in such extreme conditions is part of what makes them so unique and
their resin valuable. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Frankincense resin has been prized for centuries across cultures:
> As incense: used in religious ceremonies and rituals (notably in Christianity, Hinduism, and
ancient Egyptian practices).
> In perfumes: for its aromatic qualities.
> In traditional medicine: especially in Ayurveda, Chinese medicine, and Middle Eastern healing,
where it is believed to have anti-inflammatory and anti-arthritic properties. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.

Q 12.B
• Malabar Civet
o IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
o Distribution: Western Ghats: Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
o The Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) is highly endangered and endemic to the Western Ghats.
o Threats: Habitat loss, poaching, and deforestation. Hence, row (1) is correctly matched.
• Snow Leopard
o IUCN Status: Vulnerable
o Distribution: Himalayas: Ladakh, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Arunachal, Sikkim
o The Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) was downgraded from Endangered to Vulnerable by the IUCN in
2017. Hence, row (2) is not correctly matched.
o Threats: Climate change, habitat fragmentation, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.
• Lesser Florican
o IUCN Status: Critically Endangered
o Distribution: Western India: Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
o The Lesser Florican (Sypheotides indicus) is one of the most endangered bustards in India.
o Threats: Habitat destruction, agricultural expansion, and predation.

Q 13.C
• Warrant of Precedence lays down the relative precedence in terms of ranks of important functionaries
belonging to the executive, legislative, and judicial organs of the state, including members of the
foreign diplomatic corps. Warrant of precedence is a Table with respect to the rank and precedence
of the persons named therein is approved by the President.
• It is issued/published by the President’s secretariat and serves as an official ranking system for
government functionaries and dignitaries.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) maintains it and circulates it to state governments for
reference.
• The order in this Table of Precedence applies only to State and Ceremonial occasions and has no
bearing on the day-to-day functioning of the government.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Q 14.B
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was originally established as the Special Police
Establishment (SPE) in 1941 to investigate corruption cases. It was later formalized through the Delhi
Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, which still governs its functioning.
• Despite being India’s premier investigative agency, the CBI has no independent statutory status and
functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.
• The CBI is subject to dual supervision—the CVC oversees cases under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, while the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions exercises control
over other investigations and administrative matters. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The deputation of IPS and state police officers to the CBI requires the approval of the respective
state government as per Rule 6 of the Indian Police Service (Cadre) Rules, 1954. The Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA) has urged states to expedite officer deputations to address vacancies in the
agency. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The CBI does not primarily investigate terrorism cases. Such cases are under the jurisdiction of the
National Investigation Agency (NIA), which was established after the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks. The
CBI mainly deals with corruption, economic offences, and serious organized crimes, but not terrorism-
related cases. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q 15.D
• In the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), the offences are divided into two categories: one Cognizable and
the other Non-cognizable. The police is empowered to register the FIR and investigate only the cognizable
offences. Police can arrest an accused involved in a cognizable crime without a warrant from the
Court. Theft, robbery, murder and rape are some instances of cognizable offences.
• The category of offences as per the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) in which Police can neither
register the FIR nor can investigate or effect arrest without the express permission or directions
from the court are known as Non-cognizable offences. These mostly include minor offences such as
abusing each other, minor scuffles without injuries, intimidation etc. Now, you can also file online
complaints. Your complaint shall be referred to the concerned Police Station, where you may be
called for further clarification and/or to give a statement. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 16.A
• Volcanic Mountains and Their True Locations:
o Volcanoes, scattered across tectonic plate boundaries and hot spots, are often associated with specific
countries due to their location, activity, or historical eruptions. However, confusion often arises
regarding their exact national locations. Let’s explore four notable volcanoes and clarify their correct
geographical associations.
• Mount Spurr
o Mount Spurr is a stratovolcano located in Alaska, USA, and not in Russia as commonly mistaken. It
lies about 130 km west of Anchorage and is part of the Aleutian volcanic arc, which has several active
volcanoes due to the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the North American Plate. Hence, pair 1
is not correctly matched.
o Recent Update: Mount Spurr has shown signs of renewed seismic activity and gas emissions in 2025,
raising concerns of a potential eruption in the coming months.
• Mount Lewotobi
o Mount Lewotobi is a twin volcano system in Flores, Indonesia, comprising Lewotobi Laki-Laki (Male
Lewotobi) and Lewotobi Perempuan (Female Lewotobi). Indonesia lies on the Pacific “Ring of Fire”
and has the highest number of active volcanoes globally. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Recent Event: On March 20, 2025, Lewotobi Laki-Laki erupted, sending ash clouds up to 8
kilometers into the sky.
• Mount Erebus
o Mount Erebus is located on Ross Island, Antarctica, and is the southernmost active volcano on Earth.
Unlike Icelandic volcanoes, Erebus is renowned for its persistent lava lake and unique gas
emissions. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
o Interesting Fact: It emits gas plumes containing microscopic gold crystals, estimated to release nearly
80 grams of gold per day, valued around $6,000 daily.
• Mount Kanlaon
o Mount Kanlaon is one of the most active volcanoes in the Philippines, located on the island of Negros.
It is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire and frequently experiences eruptions. Hence, pair 4 is not
correctly matched.

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 o Recent Activity: The volcano erupted on December 9, 2024, with ash plumes reaching 2.5 miles into
the atmosphere, triggering mass evacuations in nearby communities.

Q 17.C
• Glaciers of the Karakoram: Understanding Sasaini, Hispar, and Khordopin
o The Karakoram Range, straddling the borders of Pakistan, India, and China, is home to one of the
densest concentrations of glaciers outside the polar regions. Spanning over 16,000 square kilometers,
it holds nearly half of the total glaciated area of the entire Himalayan region. These glaciers are not
only critical reservoirs of freshwater but also vital components of the ecological and hydrological
systems of South and Central Asia.
o Among the most significant glaciers in the Karakoram region are Hispar, Khordopin, and Sasaini,
each known for its unique characteristics and geographical significance.
• Hispar Glacier
o Located in Gilgit–Baltistan, Pakistan, the Hispar Glacier stretches over 49 kilometers, making it one
of the longest glaciers in the region.
o It connects with the Biafo Glacier at Hispar Pass, creating one of the longest continuous glacial
systems outside the poles—spanning over 100 kilometers.
o This confluence is of immense glaciological and mountaineering interest and is often described as an
icy highway between the Nagar and Baltistan regions.
• Khordopin (or Khurdopin) Glacier
o Also situated in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Pakistan, the Khordopin Glacier is notable for its surge-
type behavior.
o Surge-type glaciers periodically advance at unusually fast rates, leading to landscape changes and
posing risks such as glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs).
o The Khordopin Glacier’s periodic surges have drawn scientific attention due to their potential to
disrupt communities and reshape valley systems.
• Sasaini (Ghulkin) Glacier
o The Sasaini Glacier, also referred to as the Ghulkin Glacier, is one of the glaciers that feeds into the
Hunza Valley of the Karakoram Range.
o It lies alongside the Pasu Glacier (25 km long), both playing important roles in the local hydrology
and ecology.
o These glaciers contribute meltwater that supports agriculture and livelihoods in the otherwise arid
Hunza region, forming an essential part of the Indus River system.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 18.B
• Hyperinflation is a condition of extremely rapid and uncontrollable price increases. It reflects a complete
breakdown in a country's monetary system and brings with it a cascade of adverse economic
consequences.
• Encourages Hoarding and Capital Flight
o One of the immediate behavioral responses to hyperinflation is hoarding of goods. As people
expect prices to rise dramatically, they rush to buy and store essential items before they become
unaffordable.
o This creates artificial scarcity, further driving up prices and fueling the inflation spiral.
o Simultaneously, hyperinflation prompts capital flight, where both domestic and foreign
investors shift their assets out of the country.

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 o People often convert their savings into more stable foreign currencies (such as the U.S. dollar or
euro) or invest abroad to preserve value.
o This exodus of capital weakens the domestic financial system, making it harder for the government to
stabilize the economy.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Erodes Real Wages and Savings
o Hyperinflation hits the average citizen hard. Though nominal incomes may rise, they rarely
keep pace with skyrocketing prices, leading to a fall in real wages. Workers find that their
income buys less and less each day.
o Additionally, savings are decimated. For example, if inflation is running at 100% monthly, a
person’s life savings lose half their value in just one month unless they are protected through
inflation-indexed or foreign-denominated assets.
o Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Hyperinflation does Not Lead to Overvaluation of the Domestic Currency
o A common misconception is that inflation may cause a currency to become overvalued.
However, in reality, hyperinflation results in the devaluation of the domestic currency.
o Trust in the currency erodes, and it rapidly loses value both domestically and internationally.
o A classic example is Zimbabwe in the 2000s, where the Zimbabwean dollar became practically
worthless
o Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Weakens Central Bank Credibility
o Hyperinflation almost always reflects the failure of a country’s central bank to maintain
monetary discipline.
o Often caused by excessive money printing to fund government deficits, this situation
undermines the institution’s authority.
o Once inflation spirals out of control, the public begins to distrust the central bank’s ability to maintain
price stability or manage monetary policy effectively.
o Restoring this lost credibility is difficult and often requires painful economic reforms and
international assistance.
o Hence statement 4 is correct.

Q 19.C
• Warren Hastings-First Governor General of Bengal (1773 to 1785).
o He ended the Dual System in Bengal which was started by Robert Clive and made Calcutta the
capital of Bengal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o He stopped Mughal emperor’s ₹26 lakh annual pension, after Shah Alam II was broken free from
Allahabad Fort, by Mahadji Scindia.
o He established the Board of Revenue, to perform EIC’s Diwani work and also appointed
‘collectors’ and other revenue officials. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o He started the Lease/Ijaredari system (also known as farming system) where lands in Bengal were
to be leased for 5 years to the highest bidder in auctions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o He ordered the codification of Hindu laws and digests of Muslim law books.
He also unified currency systems. He created an efficient postal service and also backed a proper
cartographical survey of India by James Rennell.
o He built a series of public granaries, including the great Gola at Patna, to make sure the famine of
1770–71 was never repeated.
o He enforced a uniform tariff of 2.5 % for Indian and non-Indian goods.
o In 1781 – Hastings founded the Calcutta Madrasa for promotion of Islamic studies. This was the
first educational institute established by the EIC’s government.

Q 20.C
• POLG mitochondrial disease:
o Prince Frederik of Luxembourg battled POLG mitochondrial disease, which is a genetic disorder
affecting mitochondria—the powerhouse of the cell responsible for energy production.
o POLG disease results from mutations in the POLG gene, which encodes DNA polymerase gamma—
the enzyme required for replicating and maintaining mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA).
o When mtDNA replication fails, mitochondria cannot produce enough ATP (energy), leading to
progressive organ dysfunction.

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 o Symptoms include muscle weakness, epilepsy, ophthalmoplegia (eye movement disorder), and liver
failure, highlighting multi-organ involvement due to mitochondrial dysfunction.
o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 21.D
• Harappa was the first discovered site of this civilization excavated in 1921 by a team led by Daya
Ram Sahni. It was a major urban centre during its mature phase surrounded by extensive walls. It is
located in Punjab Province, Pakistan, on an old bank of the River Ravi. Hence pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
• Mohenjo-Daro (mound of the dead) was excavated by a team led by R.D. Banerjee in 1922. It is
located in the Larkana District of Sindh Pakistan on the bank of Indus River. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
• Lothal is located in Ahmadabad, Gujarat. It was a coastal town and had a different type of town
planning. The city was divided into six sections and each section was built on a wide platform of
unripe bricks. Entry to the houses was on Main Street while other sites of IVC have lateral entry. It
was discovered by SR Rao in 1954. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

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Q 22.C
• Agate Production:
o Gujarat is renowned for its agate production, particularly in the Khambhat region.
o The state is recognized as the sole producer of agate in India.
• Chalk Production:
o Gujarat is identified as the sole producer of chalk in the country.
o Gujarat is the sole producer of agate, chalk, perlite and is the principal producer of fluorite (graded),
china clay (kaolin), silica sand, lignite, laterite, petroleum & natural gas and marl in the country. The
State is the sole holder of the country's perlite resources and is said to possess 66% fluorite, 28%
diatomite, 24% bentonite, 18% granite and 12% wollastonite.
o Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Tin Production:
o Chhattisgarh is the sole producer of tin concentrate in the country. Chhattisgarh is the only state in
India producing tin concentrates, with mining activities primarily in the Bastar and Dantewada
districts.
o In India, tin ore is found associated with granite, pegmatites and quartz veins and also in placer
deposits. Resources are spread over in Bastar and Dantewada districts of Chhattisgarh, Tosham
deposit in Bhiwani district of Haryana and Malkangiri district of Odisha.
o Concentrates: The production of tin concentrates in 2018-19 was at 21,211 kg as against 16,758 kg
in the preceding year. One Public Sector and three Private Sector mines reported production in 2018-
19. All these mines are located in Chhattisgarh.
o Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 23.D
• The concept of delegated legislation was not mentioned specifically in the Indian Constitution it can
be understood by interpreting Article 312 of the given Constitution. This Article gives right to the
Rajya Sabha to open a new branch of All India Service with a majority of two-thirds majority

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 vote. This means that some powers of legislation will be delegated to the new recruiter of All India
Service. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
• There are several reasons why delegated legislation is important. Firstly, it avoids overloading the limited
Parliamentary timetable as delegated legislation can be amended and/or made without having to pass an
Act through Parliament, which can be time consuming. Changes can therefore be made to the law without
the need to have a new Act of Parliament and it further avoids Parliament having to spend a lot of their
time on technical matters, such as the clarification of a specific part of the legislation.
• Secondly, delegated legislation allows law to be made by those who have the relevant expert knowledge.
By way of illustration, a local authority can make law in accordance with what their locality needs as
opposed to having one law across the board which may not suit their particular area. A particular Local
Authority can make a law to suit local needs and that Local Authority will have the knowledge of what is
best for the locality rather than Parliament.
• Thirdly, delegated legislation can deal with an emergency situation as it arises without having to wait for
an Act to be passed through Parliament to resolve the particular situation. Finally, delegated legislation
can be used to cover a situation that Parliament had not anticipated at the time it enacted the piece of
legislation, which makes it flexible and very useful to law-making.

Q 24.C
• Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer (1985): The Vienna Convention is a
landmark international treaty adopted in 1985 to protect the Earth's ozone layer from depletion caused by
harmful chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Although it does not set binding limits, it provides a
framework for international cooperation in research, data exchange, and monitoring. It led to the adoption
of the Montreal Protocol (1987), which successfully phased out many ozone-depleting substances and is
considered one of the most successful environmental agreements in history.
• Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS or Bonn Convention)
(1983): The CMS, also known as the Bonn Convention, was established in 1979 and came into force in
1983 to conserve migratory species that cross national boundaries. It promotes coordinated conservation
efforts among range states through agreements and action plans.
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2001): Adopted in 2001, the Stockholm
Convention seeks to eliminate or restrict the use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)—toxic chemicals
that persist in the environment and pose serious health risks to humans and wildlife. Initially targeting the
"Dirty Dozen," including chemicals like DDT and PCBs, the convention obliges countries to manage,
reduce, or eliminate these substances.
• Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013): Named after the tragic Minamata mercury poisoning in
Japan, the Minamata Convention was adopted in 2013 to address the risks posed by mercury pollution. It
aims to reduce mercury use, emissions, and releases across its entire life cycle—from mining and product
manufacturing to waste management.

Q 25.B
• Recently, scientists from Ohio University, Argonne National Laboratory, and the University of
Illinois-Chicago have X-rayed the first atom. This is a groundbreaking advancement, as understanding
an atom at its most minuscule could lead to advancements in medical and environmental sciences. In
2008, physicists imaged a hydrogen atom using an electron microscope. In 2013, scientists glimpsed an
atom’s electrons using a quantum microscope. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• X-rays are well-suited for investigating atoms, as their wavelength distribution mimics the size of an
atom. Before the recent discovery, the smallest X-ray possible only had the resolution to make images
clear down to the size of an attogram, or about 10,000 atoms. Understanding atoms and their chemical
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 states at their most fundamental will allow scientists to manipulate better materials—such as the rare-earth
metals found in nearly every electronic device—to make them more efficient. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• In their study, Argonne National Laboratory researchers and the team used an Iron (Fe) atom and
a terbium (Tb) atom—both housed in a supramolecule host—and a complex technique known
as synchrotron X-ray scanning tunneling microscopy (SX-STM). This process works by running a
sharp tip over a surface and generating an image from the tip. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 26.D
• Recent context: SEBI Introduces Mark-to-Market Basis Valuation for Repo Transactions by Mutual
Funds
• Tri-party repo is a type of repurchase agreement where a third-party agent—called a Tri-Party Agent—
acts as an intermediary between the borrower and lender. This agent facilitates key services like collateral
selection, payment and settlement, custody, and collateral management throughout the life of the
transaction.
• In India, the Tri Party Repo Dealing System (TREPS), operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Ltd.
(CCIL), is the electronic platform for such transactions in government securities. CCIL acts as both the
Central Counterparty and the Triparty Repo Agent.
• All repo-eligible entities are permitted to participate in TREPS. These include:
o Public Sector Banks
o Private Banks
o Foreign Banks
o Co-operative Banks
o Financial Institutions
o Insurance Companies
o Mutual Funds
o Primary Dealers
o NBFCs
o Corporates
o Pension/Provident Funds
o Payment Banks
o Small Finance Banks
• TREPS enables anonymous order-matching for borrowing and lending of funds, with settlement types of
T+0 and T+1. Additionally, funds borrowed through repos (including tri-party repos) in government
securities are exempt from CRR/SLR computation, and the securities acquired are SLR-eligible, provided
they qualify under the applicable law.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 27.D
• The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 paved the way for introducing a new tax regime (i.e., goods and
services tax - GST) in the country. This tax's smooth and efficient administration requires cooperation and
coordination between the center and the states. To facilitate this consultation process, the amendment
provided for establishing a Goods and Services Tax Council or the GST Council. The amendment
inserted a new Article 279-A in the Constitution. This Article empowered the President to constitute a
GST Council by an order. Accordingly, the President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the
Council. The Secretariat of the Council is located in New Delhi. The Union Revenue Secretary acts as
the ex-officio Secretary to the Council. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The decisions of the Council are taken at its meetings. One-half of the total number of members of the
Council is the quorum for conducting a meeting. Every decision of the Council is to be taken by a
majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the
meeting. The decision is taken in accordance with the following principles:
o The vote of the central government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in
that meeting.
o The votes of all the state governments combined shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total
votes cast in that meeting.
• Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 28.D
• The Golden Quadrilateral Project was launched in the year 2001 under the National Highways
Development Project (NHDP) by the Government of India.
o It aimed to connect Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata with high-quality highways forming a
quadrilateral.
o It became India’s largest highway project at the time and was implemented by the National Highways
Authority of India (NHAI).
• India’s financial markets witnessed a revolutionary change with the launch of the National Stock
Exchange (NSE). NSE was incorporated in 1992. It was recognised as a stock exchange by SEBI in
April 1993 and commenced operations in 1994 with the launch of the wholesale debt market,
followed shortly after by the launch of the cash market segment.
• Introduced in 1998, the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was a policy tool aimed at improving
credit accessibility for Indian farmers.
o Initiated by NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development), the KCC scheme
was designed to provide timely and adequate credit for crop production and related activities.
o Over time, KCC has expanded to include fishermen, dairy farmers, and other rural entrepreneurs. It
remains one of the most successful schemes in India’s effort to enhance financial inclusion in the
agricultural sector.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 29.C
• The Sanyasi-Fakir rebellion commenced in northern Bengal and adjacent areas of Bihar between 1763
to 1800. The Sannyasis were descendents from the ten branches, of the Adwait school founded by
Shankarachaya in the ninth century. They were belonged to Dasnami order. These ten groups of
Dasnamis were divided up into four monasteries located in Dwarka, Jagannath puri, Badrinath, and
Sringeri. Hence the statement 1 is correct.
• The Dasnami Sanyasis, known for their martial tradition, were involved in landholding, moneylending
and trade of raw silk, copper, spices etc. Even the Persian source like Tarikh-i- Ahmadshahi and
Marathi sources like Prithwi Gir etc demonstrate that the Sannyasis were economically active in
Northern India. Hence the statement 3 is correct.
• The Madariyas Fakirs, who traced their origin from the Sufi order, enjoyed rent-free tenures and
retained armed during the Mughal times. The guru of Madariyas Fakir was Badi-u-din Shah-I Madar
who travelled from Arabia and Syria and finally settled in India. The government regulation also put
Fakir in a disadvantageous position as they also enjoyed rent-free land tenure as well. In response
they reacted with incursion in various sarkar of the East India Company. So, it was a combined
armed resistance by Sanyasis and Muslim Fakir against the East India Company of India. Hence the
statement 2 is correct.
• The Sanyasi used to receive sanads from the Governor of Bengal. The sanads granted permitted them
to travel freely. Both the Sannyasis and Fakirs used to enjoy rent-free lands tenures as religious
grants. After the battle of Buxar, the East India company acquired the Dewani rights of Bengal, Bihar
and Orrisa. Now to get more revenue the East India Company was unwilling to grant this rent-free
land tenure. Even through Regulations of 1788, the government wanted to control their pilgrimage
place and put a stop to their practice of carrying arms. Both Sannysis and Fakir resist such
regulations. Hence the statement 4 is correct.
• Majnum Shah, Chirag Ali, Musa Shah, Bhawani Patak and Debi Chaudhurani were prominent leaders
associated with the movement. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote a novel ‘Anandamath’ based on
the Sanyasi revolt. Bankim Chandra also wrote a novel ‘Devi Chaudhaurani’ as he saw the
importance of women too taking up struggle against an alien ruler.
Q 30.C
• Understanding the Given details:
o High-altitude wetland and breeding ground for Black-necked Crane:
> The Black-necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) is found in high-altitude wetlands of the Tibetan
Plateau and Ladakh region.
> It is critically dependent on specific wetlands for breeding, particularly in Tso Kar Wetland
Complex in Ladakh.
o Extreme cold desert conditions with freezing temperatures for most of the year:
> The Ladakh region experiences harsh winter conditions with sub-zero temperatures for most of
the year.

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 > Tso Kar Wetland, being in Ladakh, falls under these cold desert conditions.
o Located in a rain-shadow region, making it one of the driest wetlands in India:
o Ladakh lies in the rain-shadow area of the Himalayas, meaning very little precipitation occurs.
o This makes Tso Kar one of the driest Ramsar wetlands in India.
• Analysis of other options:
o Loktak Lake (Manipur)
> It is not a high-altitude wetland but rather a low-altitude freshwater lake.
> Located in Northeast India, which receives high rainfall, making it not a dry wetland.
> It is famous for its phumdis (floating biomass islands) and Keibul Lamjao National Park (home to
the endangered Sangai deer).
o Wular Lake (Jammu & Kashmir)
> It is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, located in the Kashmir Valley.
> The lake is not in an extreme cold desert region.
> Not a primary breeding ground for the Black-necked Crane.
o Chandra Taal Wetland (Himachal Pradesh)
> It is a high-altitude wetland in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
> However, it is not a significant breeding ground for the Black-necked Crane.
> It is smaller and more of a glacial-fed lake than a major wetland complex like Tso Kar.
• About Tso Kar Wetland Complex
o Location: Ladakh, India
o Declared as Ramsar Site: December 2020
o Type: High-altitude wetland, saltwater lake
o Key Biodiversity:
> A major breeding ground for the Black-necked Crane (Grus nigricollis), an IUCN Vulnerable
species.
> Other species found: Bar-headed geese, brown-headed gulls, and Great crested grebes.

Q 31.C
• Mangrove ecosystems, found in tropical and subtropical coastal areas, are characterized by salt-tolerant
trees and shrubs adapted to intertidal zones, featuring unique root systems and playing a vital role in
coastal protection and biodiversity.
• Characteristics of mangrove ecosystems:
o Coastal Habitats: Mangroves thrive in intertidal zones, where freshwater mixes with seawater, often in
sheltered areas like estuaries, mudflats, and tidal creeks.
o Tropical and Subtropical Regions: They are primarily found in tropical and subtropical regions with
warm temperatures.
o Saline and Waterlogged Conditions: Mangrove ecosystems are adapted to high salinity and
waterlogged, muddy soils. Hence, point 3 is correct.
o Salt Tolerance (Halophytes): Mangroves are highly adapted to tolerate saline conditions, with some
species capable of growing in soils with very high salinity levels.
o Pneumatophores (Aerial Roots): Many mangrove species have specialized roots called
pneumatophores that protrude above the water or mud surface to facilitate oxygen uptake in
the anoxic (oxygen-poor) soils. Hence, point 1 is correct.
o Vivipary: Mangrove trees exhibit vivipary, where seeds germinate while still attached to the
parent tree, increasing their chances of survival in the harsh environment. Hence, point 2 is
correct.
o Salt Excretion: Some mangroves have mechanisms to excrete excess salt from their leaves, helping
them maintain their salt balance.
o Biodiversity Hotspot: Mangrove ecosystems support a wide variety of plant and animal species,
including fish, birds, crabs, and other marine life. Hence, point 4 is not correct.
o Water Quality: Mangroves help filter pollutants and sediments from the water, improving water
quality and supporting healthy aquatic ecosystems.
o Fisheries Support: Mangrove forests serve as nurseries and feeding grounds for many commercially
important fish species.
Q 32.C
• Investment lies at the heart of economic development, influencing the pace, direction, and sustainability
of growth.
• Induced investment refers to the portion of total investment that responds directly to changes in
income or economic activity.
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 o This type of investment is closely linked to the business cycle. As consumer demand rises during
periods of economic expansion, businesses respond by increasing their investments—be it in
machinery, new plants, or workforce training.
o Conversely, in a slowdown, these investments are scaled back.
o Hence, induced investment is pro-cyclical, reflecting shifts in aggregate demand and profit
expectations.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Autonomous investment is the portion of investment that remains independent of current income
levels and economic fluctuations.
o Often undertaken by the public sector or socially-driven organizations, autonomous investment serves
foundational roles in the economy.
o These investments are motivated not by profit but by necessity, strategic importance, or long-
term benefit.
o Even during recessions or stagnation, autonomous investment is typically sustained or even increased
to stimulate demand and prevent economic collapse.
o Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Impact investment is made with the dual objective of achieving measurable social or environmental
impact alongside financial returns.
o Impact investing has gained prominence as investors, especially institutional and ethical ones, look
beyond profits to evaluate how their money can positively influence society.
o It’s considered a subset of socially responsible investing, but with more emphasis on intentional
impact and performance measurement.
o Impact investment spans sectors such as clean energy, education, healthcare, and affordable housing.
o Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Real Investment: Involves expenditure on physical assets like machinery, buildings, or infrastructure. It
adds to productive capacity and is vital for long-term economic growth.
• Financial Investment: Involves the purchase of financial assets like stocks, bonds, or mutual funds. It may
not directly create physical assets but supports liquidity and capital mobilization.

Q 33.B
• India has been actively working to enhance women’s participation in entrepreneurship through targeted
policy reforms, access to finance, and legal support for innovation.
• Under the Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs), 2012, revised in
2018, it is mandated that 25% of annual procurement by CPSEs must be from MSMEs.
o Out of this, 3% is earmarked for women-owned MSMEs, not 50%.
o This policy aims to promote market access for women entrepreneurs in public procurement processes.
It recognizes the systemic barriers women face in accessing supply chains and attempts to correct this
with a sub-target within the larger procurement mandate.
o Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) is a ₹10,000 crore initiative under Startup India, managed by
SIDBI.
o Official guidelines provide for 10% of this corpus to be earmarked for women-led startups
through Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) supported by the fund.
o This initiative helps bridge the gender financing gap in the startup ecosystem by directing institutional
capital toward women-led ventures, encouraging innovation and entrepreneurship among women in
high-growth sectors.
o Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under Patents Rules, 2003 (amended) expedited examination of patent applications is allowed if at
least one applicant is a woman.
o Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Other initiatives
• Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP): The Government launched WEP in 2018 as an aggregator
platform with the aim to overcome information asymmetry in the women entrepreneurial ecosystem.
o By showcasing all existing initiatives and providing domain knowledge it works towards empowering
both prospective and present women entrepreneurs.
• Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme: This flagship programme is a credit-linked
subsidy programme for aspiring micro entrepreneurs to start their own enterprises in rural and urban areas.
Women applicants are provided a higher subsidy than the general applicants.

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 • ZED Certification: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme of Ministry of MSME, all Women
owned manufacturing MSMEs registered in Udyam Portal are eligible for 100% (free) subsidy on cost of
ZED certification w.e.f. 11th November, 2023.

Q 34.C
• Macquarie Microplate:
o The Macquarie microplate is located to the south of Tasmania and is part of the seafloor spreading
boundary between the Australian and Pacific Plates. It is associated with the Macquarie Ridge
Complex, a tectonically active zone that experiences frequent seismic activity. This microplate plays
an important role in the complex plate interactions in the Southern Ocean and southwest Pacific
region.
o Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Capricorn Microplate:
o The Capricorn microplate lies between the Indian Plate and the Australian Plate, which were once part
of a single Indo-Australian Plate. Over time, these two massive plates have begun to drift apart due to
internal deformation and stress, leading to the identification of the Capricorn microplate as a distinct
entity. Its presence explains some of the diffuse seismicity observed in the Indian Ocean and helps
geologists understand the dynamics of plate fragmentation.
o Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Pontous:
o The term “Pontous” does not correspond to any recognized tectonic microplate in the South China Sea
or elsewhere. This pair is a distractor or may be based on a misinterpretation. The South China Sea
region is tectonically complex, with interactions involving the Eurasian Plate, Philippine Sea Plate,
and various micro-blocks, but “Pontous” is not one of them. Therefore, this pair is incorrectly
matched.
o Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Why This Matters
o Understanding the distribution and behavior of microplates is essential for assessing seismic risks,
predicting volcanic activity, and studying continental drift. Microplates, though small, can act as
buffers or stress relievers between major tectonic plates and often lie at seismically active boundaries,
making them crucial in geological research and disaster risk management.

Q 35.A
• Isohaline is a term used in oceanography and hydrology to describe lines on a map connecting points
of equal salinity in a body of water. These lines help scientists visualize and understand the distribution
of salt concentrations in the ocean or other bodies of water. Salinity is a crucial parameter in marine
environments as it affects the density of water, which in turn influences ocean circulation patterns and
marine life. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Isohyte area line on a map that connects points experiencing equal amounts of rainfall over a specific
period. Isohyets are essential for visualizing spatial variations in precipitation, aiding in various
hydrological studies and applications. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Isohel are line on a climate map connecting points of equal average sunshine duration. Hence pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 36.C
• Context: A recent review article published in the Nature Reviews Earth & Environment highlights
the way seagrass beds support biodiversity and ecosystem services, their dominant threats, and
opportunities.
o Seagrasses are found in shallow salty and brackish waters in many parts of the world, from the tropics
to the Arctic Circle. Antarctica is the only continent without seagrasses. Seagrasses are so-named
because most species have long green, grass-like leaves. They are often confused with seaweeds, but
are actually more closely related to the flowering plants that you see on land. Hence, statements 1
and 2 are correct.
o Seagrasses can form dense underwater meadows, some of which are large enough to be seen from
space. Although they often receive little attention, they are one of the most productive ecosystems in
the world.

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 o Seagrasses provide shelter and food to an incredibly diverse community of animals, from tiny
invertebrates to large fish, crabs, turtles, marine mammals and birds. Seagrasses provide many
important services to people as well, but many seagrasses’ meadows have been lost because of human
activities. Work is ongoing around the world to restore these important ecosystems.
o Seagrasses grow both vertically and horizontally—their blades reach upwards and their roots down
and sideways—to capture sunlight and nutrients from the water and sediment. They spread by two
methods: asexual clonal growth and sexual reproduction. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 37.B
• The primary market plays a crucial role in a country’s capital formation by facilitating the first-time
issuance of securities by companies or governments. It is the market for new issues where entities raise
capital directly from investors.
• Initial Public Offer (IPO)
o This is the first time a company offers its shares to the public.
o An IPO helps a private company become publicly listed on a stock exchange.
o Retail investors, institutional investors, and HNIs (High Net-Worth Individuals) can participate
in IPOs. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Follow-on Public Offer (FPO)
o An FPO is when an already-listed company issues additional shares to raise more capital.
o Since it's a new issuance (even though the company is already listed), it belongs to the primary
market.
• Rights Issue
o In a rights issue, shares are offered to existing shareholders, usually at a discount.
o It is a way to raise capital without bringing in new investors, preserving ownership structure.
• Preferential Allotment
o This involves the issue of shares to a specific group of investors, often at a pre-agreed price.
o It’s used for quick capital raising and is regulated to ensure transparency.
• Both Rights Issue and Preferential Allotment are part of Primary Markets. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• Private Placement
o This is when securities are sold directly to a small group of investors, like banks or mutual funds.
o It avoids public offering and is often faster and less expensive.

Q 38.C
• Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between
the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The provision of joint sitting applies to ordinary or financial
bills only and not to money or Constitutional amendment bills. If the bill (under dispute) has
already lapsed due to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, no joint sitting can be summoned. But, the
joint sitting can be held if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the President has notified his intention to
summon such a sitting (as the bill does not lapse in this case). After the President notifies his intention to
summon a joint sitting of the two Houses, none of the Houses can proceed further with the bill. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker in
his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at
the joint sitting presides over the meeting. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint
sitting as he is not a member of either House of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two
Houses. The joint sitting is governed by Lok Sabha's Rules of Procedure and not Rajya Sabha's
Rules. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 39.B
• Green Credit Programme (GCP) - Indian Initiative
o Launched in 2023 by the Government of India under the Environment Ministry.
o It aims to incentivize environmentally positive actions through a market-based green credit
mechanism.
o Encourages tree plantations, water conservation, waste management, and pollution reduction.

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 • International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) - Indian Initiative
o Launched by India in 2023 to protect big cats (tigers, lions, leopards, cheetahs, etc.).
o Aims to bring together 97 range countries for conservation efforts.
o India pledged $100 million for five years to support the alliance.
• One Trillion Trees Initiative - NOT an Indian Initiative
o Global initiative launched by the World Economic Forum (WEF) in 2020.
o Aims to plant 1 trillion trees by 2030 worldwide.
o India supports tree plantation efforts but did not launch this initiative.
• High Ambition Coalition for Nature and People - NOT an Indian Initiative
o A global initiative launched at COP25 (2019) by Costa Rica and France.
o Aim: To protect 30% of the world's land and oceans by 2030 (30x30 goal).
o India joined the coalition in 2021, but it did not launch it.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 40.D
• Recently, the 55th meeting of the GST Council was held in December 2024.
• It introduced a range of impactful reforms focused on tax rate rationalization, promoting ease of doing
business, streamlining compliance, and boosting trade.
• The Council recommended reducing the GST rate on Fortified Rice Kernels (FRK) to 5% (not fully
expempted) and fully exempted gene therapy from GST, acknowledging its healthcare significance.
o Contributions made by general insurance companies from third-party motor vehicle premiums to the
Motor Vehicle Accident Fund were also exempted.
• Transactions in vouchers are not considered a supply of goods or services, thereby making them non-
taxable under GST.
• Additionally, penal charges collected by banks and NBFCs for non-compliance with loan terms
were also clarified to be outside the GST ambit.
• The Council shifted the GST applicability on hotel restaurant services from the “declared tariff” system to
the actual value of supply, applicable from April 1, 2025.
• A critical reform included the decision to implement a Track and Trace Mechanism through Section 148A
of the CGST Act, introducing Unique Identification Marking on high-risk goods to curb evasion.
• Autoclaved Aerated Concrete (ACC) blocks containing more than 50% fly ash content will fall under HS
6815 and attract 12% GST.
• Pepper whether fresh green or dried pepper and raisins when supplied by an agriculturist is not liable to
GST.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 41.D
• Externalities are the unintended side effects of an economic activity that affect third parties who are not
directly involved in the transaction. They can be positive (benefits, like education improving societal
productivity) or negative (costs, like pollution harming public health). Since these effects are not reflected
in market prices, they often lead to market failure. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 42.C
• The Global Methane Pledge (GMP) was launched at COP26 (Glasgow, 2021) by the U.S. and EU.
o Objective: To reduce global methane emissions by 30% by 2030 from 2020 levels.
o Over 150 countries have signed the pledge, but India, China, and Russia have not signed it. Hence,
statement I is correct.
• Methane (CH4) is actually a short-lived climate pollutant, not a long-lived one.
o It has a lifetime of about 10-12 years in the atmosphere, whereas CO₂ stays for centuries.
o However, methane has a very high global warming potential (GWP):
o ~80 times that of CO2 over a 20-year period
o ~28-34 times over a 100-year period
o Despite its shorter lifetime, it contributes significantly to near-term warming.
o Hence, statement II is not correct.
Q 43.A
• The 'Jalvahak' scheme was launched on 15th December 2024 to incentivize the movement of long-
haul cargo via NW-1 (River Ganga), NW-2 (River Brahmaputra), and NW-16 (via IBP route, River
Barak). Hence statement 1 is correct.
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 • The ‘Jalvahak’ scheme encourages to reduce logistics costs, decongest road and railways, and adapting to
a sustainable mode of transportation.
• The Scheme, valid for a period of three years, is expected to incentivize incremental modal shift of 6.51
Lakh tonnes of cargo to waterways in three years period.
• The ‘Jalvahak’ scheme offers reimbursement upto 35% of total operating expenditure incurred
while transporting cargo via waterways on NW 1 (Ganga river), NW 2 (Brahmaputra river) & NW
16 (Barak river) via Indo Bangladesh Protocol (IBP) route. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• To encourage the business proposition of vessel operators, the scheme encourages cargo owners to hire
vessels owned or operated by organisations other than IWAI or ICSL. The incentive scheme is ideal for
major shipping companies, freight forwarders, trade bodies and associations that handle bulk and
containerised cargo.

Q 44.C
• Expedition 72:
o Expedition 72 is the 72nd long-duration mission to the International Space Station (ISS), involving a
crew of astronauts and cosmonauts conducting scientific research and maintaining the station.
o NASA astronauts Sunita “Suni” Williams and Barry “Butch” Wilmore have experienced an extended
stay on the ISS due to technical issues with Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft, which was initially intended
to return them to Earth. Originally scheduled for a brief mission, their stay has been prolonged to over
nine months.
o On March 16, 2025, the SpaceX Crew-10 mission successfully docked with the ISS, bringing new
crew members. It facilitated the departure of Crew-9 members, including Williams and Wilmore.
o Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 45.B
• Context: Recently, a new species of snakehead fish was identified in Meghalaya.
o Channa nachi was found in a shallow stream that feeds into the Simsang River system. The habitat
features sand, leaf litter, and pebbles, ideal for various lesser-known aquatic species. The stream
also houses other fish species, but Channa nachi stands out due to its unique characteristics.
o Channa nachi exhibits several distinguishing traits. It has a slender body with a bicolor
appearance, transitioning from creamish-yellow to rich blue. Key features include pale-blue
marbling and distinct saddles on its dorsal half. These traits make it an attractive option for the
ornamental fish trade.
o The name “nachi” is derived from the Garo language, reflecting the indigenous culture’s
connection to local biodiversity. This marks the importance of integrating local knowledge into
scientific research and species identification.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 46.C
• The worship of yakshas, yakshis, nagas, nagis, and goddesses were the natural source of the devotional
(bhakti) elements that became so pervasive in Indian religions. The worship of yakshas and yakshis
implied temples, puja (devotional worship with offerings), and a cult. Yakshas were deities connected
with water, fertility, trees, the forest, and the wilderness. Yakshis or yakshinis, the female counterpart
of yakshas, were originally benign deities connected with fertility. Many of the shalabhanjikas—a generic
term for sensuous sculptural representations of women grasping the branch of a tree—found in diverse
religious establishments across the subcontinent, were yakshis. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Yakshas and yakshis appear often in Brahmanical, Buddhist, and Jaina texts, generally as demonic and
frightening creatures. Their worship was eventually absorbed into and marginalized by the dominant
religious traditions, but the frequent references to them show just how popular and widespread this
worship once was. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The many imposing stone images of yakshas and yakshis from Mathura and elsewhere were products of
urban workshops produced for urban clients. Yaksha figures found at Besnagar and Pawaya in Madhya
Pradesh hold a money bag in their left hand, indicating their connection with wealth. The colossal figure
of Yaksha Manibhadra is found at Parkham near Mathura. Literary and epigraphic evidence indicates
that Manibhadra was a deity for the protection of merchants and travelers, especially worshipped in
important trading centers. Hence statement 3 is correct.

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Q 47.D
• The Rig Vedic people possessed better knowledge of agriculture. Ploughshare is mentioned in the earliest
part of the Rig Veda though some consider it an interpolation. They were acquainted with sowing,
harvesting and threshing and knew about the different seasons. Agriculture was also well known to the
pre-Aryans who lived in the area associated with the Vedic people. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Rig Vedic Aryans can be called predominantly pastoral people. Most of their wars were fought for
the sake of cows. The term for war in the Rig Veda is “gavishthi” or search of cows. The cows seem to
have been the most important form of wealth. Whenever we hear of gifts made to priests they usually
consist of cows and women slaves and never of land. The Rig Vedic people may have occasionally
occupied pieces of land for grazing, cultivation, and settlement but the land did not form a well-
established type of private property. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Aryans or the Vedic people were acquainted more with land routes because the word “Samudra”
mentioned in the Rig Veda mainly denotes a collection of water. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 48.C
• Honeybees (Apis species) play a crucial role in pollination for over 70% of global crops, including
fruits, vegetables, and nuts.
• Their decline could significantly reduce agricultural yields of crops such as:
o Apples
o Almonds
o Coffee
o Sunflowers
o Mustard
o Cotton
• A study by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) suggests that a decline in pollinators
could reduce global food production by up to 35%.
• In India, honeybees are critical for crops like mango, coconut, and mustard. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• While other pollinators like butterflies, beetles, and birds also contribute to pollination, their numbers are
unlikely to increase sharply due to honeybee decline.
• Reasons:
o Different pollinators have different plant preferences—they cannot fully replace honeybee pollination.
o Ecosystem disruption due to honeybee loss could negatively impact all pollinators.
o Many flowering plants rely on specific pollinators, and honeybees often play the dominant role.
o Some alternative pollinators (like wild bees or hoverflies) might increase locally, but this does not
mean a sharp increase overall. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Honeybees are a food source for many species, including:
o Birds (like bee-eaters)
o Mammals (such as bears and badgers)
o Insects (such as wasps and spiders)
• Declining honeybee populations could lead to food shortages for these species.
• Additionally, the decline in honeybees could disrupt plant reproduction, leading to:
o Fewer flowers and fruits, affecting herbivores.
o A cascade effect in the food chain, impacting predators and ecosystem balance.
• Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 49.B
• Phos-Chek: A Critical Fire Retardant in Wildfire Suppression
o Phos-Chek recently made headlines for its extensive use in wildfire management, especially in the
western United States. As climate change fuels more frequent and intense wildfires, chemical fire
retardants like Phos-Chek have become crucial tools for firefighting agencies.
• What is Phos-Chek?
o Phos-Chek is a fire retardant widely used by firefighting agencies to control and suppress
wildfires. It is primarily composed of ammonium phosphate or ammonium polyphosphate, which
slows the combustion of vegetation by inhibiting the chemical reactions that occur during
burning. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 • Composition and Mechanism:
o Primary Ingredients: Ammonium phosphate compounds (similar to fertilizers), water, thickening
agents (like clay), and red dye for visibility.
o Function: Phos-Chek is dropped from aircraft to create firebreaks ahead of an advancing wildfire.
When vegetation is coated with Phos-Chek, it becomes less flammable.
o Color: It is usually pink or red, helping pilots see where it has been dropped.
• Environmental Concerns:
o While effective, the use of Phos-Chek has also sparked environmental debates. Critics argue that:
> It can contaminate waterways and affect aquatic life.
> The fertilizer-like chemicals can promote the growth of invasive species after wildfires.
> Its use is restricted near protected habitats and water bodies.

Q 50.A
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in its pursuit to internationalize the Indian Rupee (INR), has introduced
a novel arrangement for international trade settlement in INR.
• The Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) is a dedicated account opened by a foreign bank with
an Indian Authorized Dealer (AD) bank, specifically for trade settlement in INR.
o SRVA requires prior approval from the RBI, unlike traditional Rupee Vostro accounts. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
o It is intended exclusively for trade settlement under the INR mechanism.
o It enables trade without using freely convertible currencies, thus acting as a parallel settlement
system to the existing dollar/euro-based trade infrastructure.
> Thus, the settlement of international trade through Indian Rupees (INR) is an additional
arrangement to the existing system of settlement. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The SRVA initiative is part of a strategic shift in India’s external trade policy.
o It aims to:
> Reduce exchange rate risk for Indian traders by allowing invoicing and payment in INR.
> Strengthen India’s position in the global financial system by promoting the rupee as a settlement
currency.
• The arrangement is bank-centric, not a direct intergovernmental agreement. It operates similarly to
correspondent banking, where foreign banks open accounts with Indian banks to facilitate international
settlements.
• Contrary to common assumptions, the RBI does not fix exchange rates in this mechanism. The
exchange rate between INR and the partner currency is:
o Market-driven, or Cross-currency derived (via USD, EUR, etc.) if direct currency pairs are
unavailable. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Balances in SRVA can be repatriated in freely convertible currencies or in the foreign partner’s currency.
Surplus balances can be used for FDI, ECB, or other permissible transactions under FEMA.
• Foreign banks do not need FPI registration to invest SRVA balances in Indian government securities.

Q 51.D
• At the Nagpur session of Indian National Congress in December 1920, C.R. Das moved the main
resolution on non-cooperation. The programme of non-cooperation included within its ambit the surrender
of titles and honours, boycott of government affiliated schools and colleges, law courts, foreign cloth, and
could be extended to include resignation from government service and mass civil disobedience including
the non-payment of taxes. This led to the launch of Non-Cooperation Movement (not Civil Disobedience
Movement). Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• Also, at the Nagpur session, the goal of the Congress was changed from the attainment of self-government
by constitutional and legal means to the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means. Hence,
option 2 is correct.
• There was also changes in organisational structure. The Congress was now to have a Working Committee
of fifteen members to look after its day-to-day affairs. Also, the Provincial Congress Committees were
now to be organized on a linguistic basis, so that they could keep in touch with the people by using the
local language. Hence, option 3 is correct.
Q 52.A
• BharatNet operates as the world’s largest rural broadband connectivity program. The primary goal
of BharatNet is to provide high-speed broadband to all gram panchayats in India. Hence, statement
1 is correct.

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 • The project is being implemented in three phases to ensure nationwide broadband connectivity in rural
areas.
• Phase I: Focused on laying optical fiber cables to connect 1 lakh Gram Panchayats by utilizing existing
infrastructure. Completed in December 2017, this phase established the foundational network.
• Phase II: Expanded the coverage to an additional 1.5 lakh Gram Panchayats using optical fiber, radio,
and satellite technologies. This phase incorporated collaborative efforts with state governments and
private entities.
• Phase III: Aims at future-proofing the network by integrating 5G technologies, increasing bandwidth
capacity, and ensuring robust last-mile connectivity. This phase is ongoing, with a focus on improving
accessibility and reliability.
• The project is being executed by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), namely Bharat Broadband
Network Limited (BBNL), under the Ministry of Communications. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
• The network’s core relies on optical fiber cables, satellite links for remote regions, and wireless
technologies for last-mile connectivity. Implemented under the Universal Service Obligation Fund
(USOF), BharatNet adopts a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model to ensure efficient execution and
maintenance.
• In August 2023, the government approved the Amended BharatNet Program (ABP). The program
provides for internet access by Optical Fibre (OF) connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs in ring topology and also
to provide OF connectivity to the remaining non-GP villages (approx. 3.8 lakhs) on a demand basis. The
design improvement, at a cost of Rs. 1,39,579 crores.

Q 53.D
• The Judges Protection Act, 1985 provides immunity to judges for judicial acts done in good faith, while
the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968 establishes the process for investigating misconduct allegations against
higher judiciary members.
• Section 2 of the Judges Protection Act, 1985, extends to tribunals or authorities performing judicial
functions. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Act provides immunity to a person who is or was a judge for his/her acts done in their judicial
capacity. The protection applies only if the acts were done in good faith. Retired judges are not
immune from non-judicial or malicious acts. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The Act does not prescribe any procedure for registering an FIR against judges. Instead, the
Supreme Court’s guidelines in the Veeraswami Judgment, 1991, mandate prior permission from
the CJI (for sitting Supreme/High Court judges) or the Chief Justice of the High Court (for
subordinate judges) to initiate criminal proceedings. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q 54.B
• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced a new digital platform, MITRA, to assist
investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios.
• The objective of the platform, Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant, is to
encourage investors to search for forgotten MF investments and update KYC as per the current
norms.
• The platform addresses a growing concern wherein investors, over time, lose track of their mutual fund
investments lack of updated contact information, or unawareness of investments made in their name.
• MITRA will allow investors to identify the overlooked investments or any investments made by any other
person for which he/she may be rightful legal claimant.
• The criteria for classifying a folio as inactive include an absence of investor-initiated transactions,
financial or non-financial, for a period of ten years, despite having a unit balance.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 55.A
• The Non - Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 in response to various
issues such as Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and Resultant Punjab Disturbances, Dissatisfaction with
Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, Rowlatt Act, Khilafat Agitation. It is regarded as the first mass movement
organized nationwide during India's struggle for freedom.
• Many organisations including revolutionary groups gave support to the movement. However at this stage
some leaders like Annie Besant, Mohammad Ali Jinnah, B.C. Patel left the congress and emphasised the
constitutional struggle.
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 • Statement 1 is correct: The Anti-Non-Cooperation Association 1920 was started against the Non-
Cooperation/Khilafat Movement by big businessmen of Bombay which includes Jamnadas Dwarkadas,
Purshottamdas Thaukrdass, Cowasji Jehangir, Pheroze Sethna and Setalvad. They were afraid of labour
unrest in their factories and felt that the movement would encourage labour strikes.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Foreign Cloth Boycott Committee was organised before the Civil
disobedience movement in 1929 under the chairmanship of Mahatma Gandhi. The main aim of the
organisation is to propagate the programme of boycotting foreign clothes. It was demonstrated by the
public burning of foreign cloths by Gandhiji in Calcutta and was arrested.

Q 56.B
• Understanding Doon Valleys:
o Doon valleys, such as the well-known Dehradun, represent a unique topographical feature found
within the Himalayan mountain system. These valleys are long, flat-bottomed and often fertile areas
located between two mountain ranges, specifically between the Shivaliks (Outer Himalayas) and the
Lesser Himalayas (also known as the Middle Himalayas).
• What is a Doon Valley?
o The term “Doon” is derived from the local Himalayan dialect, meaning a valley that lies between two
mountain ranges.
o These valleys are typically formed due to tectonic activity and erosional processes, creating wide
depressions that collect alluvial soil and water flow from the surrounding hills.

• Dehradun: A Classic Example

o Dehradun, the capital of Uttarakhand, is the most prominent and classic example of a Doon valley.
o It is situated between:
> Shivalik Hills in the south (the outermost range of the Himalayas)
> and the Lesser Himalayas in the north. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Hence, it represents the typical geographical location of Doon valleys.

Q 57.A
• Hard Fork:
o A hard fork is a change in a blockchain’s programming that is incompatible with the old version.
o It creates two separate blockchains:
> One that follows the previous protocols.
> One that follows the new version.
> Participants must upgrade their software to the new version to stay on the updated blockchain.
> Example:
✓ Ethereum blockchain was hard-forked after the DAO hack to recover lost funds,
creating Ethereum Classic and Ethereum.
• Soft Fork:
o A soft fork is a backward-compatible change in the blockchain’s programming.
o In a soft fork, nodes running the old version can still participate in the network.
o Example:
> Bitcoin's SegWit (Segregated Witness) upgrade was a soft fork.
• Key Differences Between Hard Fork and Soft Fork:

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 58.B
• Simply speaking, the word bargi referred to cavalrymen in the Maratha and Mughal armies. The word
comes from the Persian “bargir”, literally meaning “burden taker”, notes historian Surendra Nath Sen in
his 1928 work “The Military System Of The Marathas”. But in the Mughal and Maratha armies, the term
signified a soldier who rode a horse furnished by his employer. In the Maratha cavalry, any able-bodied
person could enlist as a bargir, unless he had the means to buy a horse and military outfit. Both the bargirs
and silhedars were under the overall control of the Sarnobat (Persian for “Sar-i-Naubat”, or Commander
in Chief).
• The term ‘Bargi’is of special significance in Bengal’s history. It is a reference to the several Maratha
invasions of West Bengal between 1741 and 1751, which resulted in looting, plundering and
massacres of what was then Mughal territory. The happenings of this specific period have affected
Bengal’s consciousness so much that they have an established presence in Bengali folklore and literature.
Today this term is used as a casual reference to troublesome outsider forces.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 59.A
• A British committee of the Indian National Congress was established in London in 1889 which had
India as its organ. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Dadabhai Naoroji spent a substantial portion of his life and income campaigning for India’s case abroad.
• In 1890, it was decided to hold a session of the Indian National Congress in London in 1892, but
owing to the British elections of 1891 the proposal was postponed and never revived later. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
Q 60.A
• A floor test (also called a ‘trust vote’) is held in legislative bodies, to find out whether the government that
is suspected to have lost the majority still retains the confidence of the House. This is done through a vote
among the members. When the House is in session, it is the Speaker who can call for a floor test. But
when the Assembly is not in session, the Governor’s residuary powers under Article 163 allow him to call
for a floor test.
• In case the majority held by the government is questioned, the leader of the party which claims to have the
majority has to move a vote of confidence and prove a majority among those present and voting.
• Voting can be conducted by either a voice vote, in which MLAs respond to the motion verbally. Voting
electronically involves the casting of votes by pressing a button, after which the numbers for each side are
displayed on a board. In a physical division of votes, lawmakers cast votes in a ballot box, which are then
counted.
• There is another test, the Composite Floor Test, which is conducted only when more than one
person stakes a claim to form the government. When the majority is not clear, the governor might
call for a special session to see who has the majority. The majority is counted based on those present
and voting. This can also be done through a voice vote where the member can respond orally or
through division voting. Some legislators may be absent or choose not to vote. Hence, option (a) is
the correct answer.

Q 61.D
• Anushakti Vidhyut Nigam Ltd (Ashvini):
o ASHVINI is a joint venture between NPCIL and NTPC, with NPCIL holding the majority stake. The
Government approved the formation of ASHVINI as a joint venture between Nuclear Power
Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and NTPC Ltd., with NPCIL holding a 51% stake and NTPC
holding 49%. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o ASHVINI will function under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. ASHVINI is established to operate
under the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o It is established to build, own, and operate nuclear power plants in India. ASHVINI has been
approved to build, own, and operate nuclear power plants in India. Hence statement 3 is also
correct.

Q 62.B
• Whistleblowing is the act of drawing attention to an authority figure or public, to perceived wrongdoing,
misconduct, Corruption, fraud unethical activity within public, private or third-sector organizations.
• Whistleblowing mechanism in India is detailed under Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014.

24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o It provides protection from harassment to persons making disclosure of corruption, willful misuse of
power, or arbitrary use of discretion of any power by any public servant, besides keeping the identity
of the whistle-blowers secure.
o It provides a broad definition of a whistleblower that goes beyond government officials and includes
any other person or non-governmental organization. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The person may make a public interest disclosure to a competent authority even if they are prohibited
under the Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923.
o It also provides for a system to encourage people to disclose information about corruption or the
wilful misuse of power by public servants, including ministers.
o It does not apply to the armed forces of the Union. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Disclosures can be made in writing or by email message and contain full particulars and be
accompanied by supporting documents, or other material. In further instruction, it was clarified
that no action should be taken on an anonymous/pseudonymous complaint except filing it for
the record. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Any person aggrieved by any order of the Competent Authority may prefer an appeal to the High
Court within a period of sixty days from the date of the order.
o Central Government shall ensure that no person or a public servant who has made a disclosure under
this Act is victimized by the initiation of any proceedings.
o Any person who negligently reveals the identity of a complainant will be punishable.

Q 63.B
• Batik art has its roots in ancient textile traditions, and the art was influenced heavily by Indonesia,
where it was born. In India, it was during the 19th century that this craft found importance, particularly in
Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
• In India, batik is often associated with traditional practices and is used to create vibrant textiles for
clothing, home décor, and ceremonial purposes. The technique involves using wax to resist dye on
fabric, allowing artisans to create intricate patterns and designs. It is a method of dyeing in which
patterned areas are covered with wax so they will not receive the color.
• The process is applied primarily to cotton and in the traditional colors of blue, brown, and red.
• Indian batik has evolved over time, incorporating local motifs and styles that reflect the diverse cultural
heritage of the country.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 64.B
• Retributive justice: Retributive justice is concerned with punishment or retribution for wrongdoing.
It involves the notion that individuals who commit wrongful acts deserve to suffer some form of
punishment or penalty.
o While retributive justice is an important aspect of the legal system, it is not the primary focus of the
term "justice" as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• Distributive justice: Distributive justice relates to the fair allocation of resources, opportunities, and
benefits within a society. It emphasizes equitable distribution to ensure that all individuals have
access to essential goods, services, and opportunities.
o The term "justice" in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution primarily refers to distributive
justice. It underscores the commitment to achieving social and economic justice by ensuring that
wealth, resources, and opportunities are distributed fairly among all citizens.
• Corrective justice: Corrective justice pertains to rectifying or remedying injustices or wrongs that
have occurred. It involves the idea of providing compensation or restitution to individuals who have
been wronged.
o While corrective justice is an important aspect of legal systems, it is not the primary focus of the term
"justice" as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• Procedural justice: Procedural justice concerns the fairness and impartiality of procedures used in
legal and administrative processes. It emphasizes adherence to fair and transparent procedures that
ensure due process and protect individuals' rights.
o While procedural justice is crucial for upholding the rule of law, it is not the primary focus of the term
"justice" as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 65.D
• Cloud computing distributes computer services such as servers, storage, databases, networking,
software, analytics, and intelligence through the Internet (“the cloud”) to enable quicker
innovation, more flexible resource allocation, and cost savings.
o It eliminates the need for individuals and businesses to self-manage physical resources themselves and
only pay for what they use.
• Applications of Cloud Computing:
o Media Streaming: Platforms like Netflix and Spotify host streaming services for video and music.
o Virtual Meetings: Services like Microsoft Teams host virtual meetings and conferences.
o Secure Storage: Cloud services like Dropbox and Google Drive offer secure and easily accessible
data storage from anywhere.
o Telemedicine: Cloud-based apps, like Teladoc, facilitate remote medical consultations and services.
o Online Marketplaces: E-commerce platforms use cloud computing to host and manage online stores.
o Public Records Management: Secure cloud databases, such as those used by the National Archives
and Records Administration (NARA) in the US, manage public records.
o Device Management: Platforms like IBM Watson, manage and analyse IoT device data and
operations.
• Edge computing refers to a distributed information technology architecture wherein data
undergoes processing at the network's periphery, positioned as close as feasible to the source of
origin. Generally, the data source for edge computing is an Internet of Things (IoT) sensor. It is an
extension of cloud computing and differs in terms of time taken in processing the information.
o Edge computing enables faster and more extensive data processing with low latency and at less cost
than cloud computing, resulting in real-time action-led outcomes.
o Edge Computing is not a specific technology in itself but an architectural approach to improve the
overall performance of computing. Examples of edge use cases include self-driving cars, smart grids,
autonomous robots, data from smart equipment, and automated retail.
• Applications of Edge Computing: Edge computing offers numerous applications across various sectors,
including industries and business, education and entertainment, and disaster response.
o Optimization of industrial process: Edge computing enables more efficient localized solutions,
helping to avoid industrial disasters. For example, sending alarms for various critical parameters and
initiating shutdown systems through quicker processing and response.
o Autonomous Vehicles: Autonomous vehicles need instant decision-making, and relying on a remote
server isn't practical. Edge technology allows efficient vehicle communication, enhancing interactions
without the need to send data to a remote server first.
o Disaster management: It allows for more efficient and rapid insights from satellite data. This
capability enables real-time disaster response through cloud detection, road network and building
footprint identification, water-body detection, and image template matching for change
detection. Example: SatSure Analytics, an India-based company, has deployed edge computing in
space to meet national security needs, including quick disaster response.
o Medical Devices and Surgery: It is crucial to prevent fatal delays caused by transmitting data to the
cloud before making decisions. Example: Robot-assisted surgery must process data more precisely in
real-time, made possible by edge computing, rather than relying on clouds, which could be fatal.
o Entertainment and educational industries: It enables the low-latency online streaming of
content. For example, OTT platforms like Amazon and Netflix, as well as EdTech companies, deliver
content by leveraging edge computing.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

26 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 66.D
• In Vijayanagara city there were certain industries that were agro-based like textile industries, oil
pressing, sugar and jaggery industries, etc and some other important industries that were not based on
agriculture like mining, leather work, carpentry, salt making, manufacture of perfumes etc.
• Agro-based Industries: The Vijayanagara city and its surrounding area were fertile. In and around the
capital city water supply through irrigational facilities from the river Tungabhadra, dams, tanks and wells
promoted agriculture on a large scale. Commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane, groundnut were
cultivated in the region. Small scale industries like textile, manufacture of jaggery and oil mills were
developed to meet the demands of the city. Silk was brought to the city from the southern parts of the
kingdom.
o As cotton was produced on a large scale, textile industries emerged there. It was one of the
foremost industries and which engaged considerable a number of artisans. Consequently a number of
weavers, dyemakers, bleachers came and settled in the city. They had a separate colony in the city.
They also formed an association which was known as weavers guild.
• Sugar and Jaggery Industry: The articles of consumption made of agricultural products were many,
most important one was sugar. Sugar industry was an important industry during Vijayanagara period.
Sugarcane plantation gave rise to two industries, manufacture of jaggery and sugar. According to Barbosa,
it was in a powdered form, for the people knew not how to make it into waves and they wrapped it up in
small packets as it was in powder form.
• Oil Pressing: Another important industry in the city that depended on agriculture was the oil pressing
industry. Oil was used in houses for cooking and lighting purposes and it was also used in temple rituals.
Sum of money was deposited in the temple treasury with the stipulation of making certain offerings like
lighting of lamps in temples. Hence, many oil mills were established. Oil was extracted froma four
agricultural products namely, coconut, groundnut, gingelly and castor. The oil crushing industry was
subjected to a number of taxes levied by the state. Epigraphs of the period refer to the taxes levied on
oil-mill known as Ganasidhaya.
• Manufacture of Weapons: The rulers of Vijayanagara extended their empire not only in Karnataka but
also in Andhara, Tamilnadu and Orissa. Especially during the rule of Devaraya II, Krishnadevaraya and
Ramaraya, a large army was maintained. Often they were in conflict with the Bahmani Sultans. So,
a large number of weapons like spears, bows and arrows, swords, daggers, shields, javelins, battle
axes with shaft were manufactured on a large scale.
• Manufacture of Perfumes: Another important industry was the manufacture of scents. Rich people and
members of the royal family used perfumes for fragrance. They anointed themselves after their bath with
perfumes made out of sandalwood, aloes, camphor, musk, saffron and kneaded with rose water.
• Leather Industry: Yet another important industry was the leather industry. Leather was used to make a
variety of things like footwear, agricultural requirements, industrial goods, instruments of music
and arts, domestic articles and goods in the military camps.
• Salt was manufactured along the western coast. And places like Honnavara, Bhatkal, Mangalore,
Barakur, Ankola were not only important port centres but also leading salt producing places in the
Vijayanagara empire, through which foreign trade was carried out. Salt manufactured in the coastal
region was supplied to the interior towns by local merchants.

Q 67.A
• Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Rajasthan. It is spread over the world's oldest mountain
range- the Aravallis. It covers an area of 800 sq.km. It is the first reserve in the world to successfully
relocate tigers. It possesses a rocky landscape, scrub thorn arid forests, grasses, hilly cliffs, and semi
deciduous wood. The vegetation of Sariska corresponds to Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and
Northern Tropical Thorn Forest. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Valmiki Tiger Reserve forms the eastern most limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India and is the only
tiger reserve of Bihar. Situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country, the forest has
combination of bhabar and terai tracts. Valmiki Tiger Reserve lies in the north-western (mostly in the
West Champaran) district of Bihar. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Satkosia Tiger Reserve is located in the heartland of Odisha and spread over four districts, viz. Angul,
Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh. Satkosia is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India; the
Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats. The forest vegetation comprises North Indian tropical moist
deciduous forests and Moist peninsular low-level sal. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 68.D
• Tribunals are specialized quasi-judicial bodies that deal with specific matters outside the jurisdiction of
regular courts.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, introduced Part XIV-A (Articles 323A and 323B) to
provide for the establishment of tribunals in India.
• Article 323A allows for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals that deal exclusively with service
matters of government employees. It applies to employees of the Union Government, State Governments,
PSUs, and Local Authorities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Article 323B allows for the establishment of tribunals for a variety of matters, not just service disputes.
Unlike Article 323A, which provides for only one type of tribunal (Administrative Tribunals), Article
323B allows multiple levels of tribunals at both central and state levels. So, it provides for a hierarchy of
tribunals at both the Union and State levels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Tribunals under Article 323A can be established only by Parliament, meaning that states do not have the
power to create these tribunals. On the other hand, tribunals under Article 323B can be established by
both Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 69.C
• The First Ministerial Conference of the WTO was held in Singapore in December 1996.
o It marked a significant early milestone in the functioning of the WTO, which was established in 1995
as the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
o The Singapore meeting is also historically notable for introducing the controversial "Singapore
Issues" (investment, competition policy, transparency in government procurement, and trade
facilitation), which sparked debate between developed and developing countries.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As of now, no World Trade Organization (WTO) Ministerial Conference has been held in India.
o The WTO Ministerial Conference is the organization’s highest decision-making body, typically held
every two years, and hosted by different member countries.
o While India has been an active participant in WTO negotiations and discussions, it has not yet hosted
one of these conferences.
o Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) was the most significant outcome of the 9th WTO
Ministerial Conference held in Bali, Indonesia, in December 2013.
o It was the first multilateral agreement concluded since the WTO’s inception.
o The TFA aims to simplify, modernize, and harmonize export and import processes, making global
trade faster, cheaper, and more efficient.
o Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 70.A
• The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) stands as a ray of hope and empowerment for millions of young
girls across India, encapsulating the Government’s unwavering commitment to nurturing their dreams and
aspirations. Launched on 22nd January 2015 as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Campaign, this
visionary scheme weaves together the threads of financial security and social empowerment. This year
22nd January 2025, marks the 10 years of Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana encouraging families to invest in
the bright futures of their daughters, fostering a culture of inclusion and progress.
• About Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana:
o The guardian can open the account immediately after the birth of the girl child till she attains
the age of 10 years. Any girl child who is a resident Indian from the time of opening the account till
the time of maturity/closure is eligible for the scheme. Only one account is allowed per child. Parents
can open a maximum of two accounts for each of their children. However, there is an exception
allowed for more accounts in case of twins or triplets. The account can be transferred to anywhere
in India. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
o This scheme allows parents to open a Sukanya Samriddhi account for girls at any post office or
designated commercial bank branch, starting with a minimum initial deposit of ₹250, and subsequent
deposits can be made in multiples of ₹50, provided that at least ₹250 is deposited in a financial year.
The total annual deposit limit is capped at ₹1,50,000; any excess amount will not earn interest and
will be returned. Deposits can be made for a period of up to fifteen years from the account opening
date.

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 o The account is managed by the guardian until the girl child reaches the age of eighteen. This
allows the guardian to oversee the savings and ensure that the funds are utilized effectively for the
child’s education and future needs. Upon turning eighteen, the account holder can take control of the
account herself by submitting the necessary documents.
o The account matures upon the completion of twenty-one years of the account holder from its
opening date. However, early closure is permitted under specific circumstances, particularly if the
account holder intends to marry before reaching maturity.

Q 71.D
• Recently, the Kerala state assembly unanimously passed a bill on establishing an elderly
commission. It will be India's first such commission. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
• The southern state is ageing more rapidly than all of India, if state planning board data is anything to go
by. In 1961, people over 60 in Kerala made up 5.1 per cent of the total population, just below the national
average of 5.6 per cent. However, by the 1980s, the state overtook the rest. Now, the southern state has
some 4.8 million people aged 60 years and above. Moreover, 15 per cent of the elderly group is over 80
years old, making it the fastest-growing age group among older people. There are more women than men
in the 60-plus category and a majority of them are widows.
• The commission’s main mission will be to protect the rights and welfare of senior citizens. It will address
various issues, including rehabilitation, social inclusion and harnessing older people's skills for society’s
benefit. the commission will provide recommendations and guidelines for the welfare and protection of
senior citizens. Its objectives include facilitating the rehabilitation of destitute veterans, extending legal
aid as needed and proposing measures to incorporate the skills of senior citizens into community
development.
• Additionally, the commission will be responsible for submitting its findings and recommendations to the
government for action or conflict resolution regarding issues affecting older individuals.

Q 72.C
• Bhakti Movement:
• Vallabha, also known as Vallabhācārya (1478 CE - 1530 CE), was an Indian saint and philosopher. He
founded the Krishna -centered Puṣṭimārga sect of Vaishnavism in the Braj (Vraja) region of India, and
propounded the philosophy of Śuddhādvaita.
• Surdas was the disciple of Vallabhacharya and he popularized Krishna cult in north India. He was a
16th-century blind Hindu devotional poet and singer, who was known for his works written in
praise of Krishna, the supreme lord.
• Gnanadeva was the founder of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra in the thirteenth century. It
was called Maharashtra dharma. He wrote a commentary of Bhagavat Gita called Gnaneswari.
• Basava (1131–1196), also called Basavēśvara and Basavaṇṇa, was an Indian philosopher, poet,
Lingayat social reformer in the Shiva-focused bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social
reformer during the reign of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty. Basava was active during
the rule of both dynasties but reached the peak of his influence during the rule of King Bijjala II in
Karnataka, India.
o Basavnna spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. He rejected
gender or social discrimination, superstitions and rituals but introduced Ishtalinga necklace, with an
image of the lingam to every person regardless of their birth, to be a constant reminder of one's bhakti
(devotion) to Shiva. A strong promoter of ahimsa, he also condemned human and animal sacrifices.
As the chief minister of his kingdom, he introduced new public institutions such as the Anubhava
Mantapa (or, the "hall of spiritual experience"), which welcomed men and women from all socio-
economic backgrounds to discuss spiritual and mundane questions of life, in open.

29 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 73.C
• The Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360.
These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively. The
rationality behind the incorporation of these provisions in the Constitution is to safeguard the sovereignty,
unity, integrity and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
• Under the Part XVIII, the provisions that are covered are:
o Proclamation of emergency (Article 352): the President can declare a national emergency when the
security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. It may
be noted that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war
or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger. Hence
option 1 is correct.
o Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States (Article 356): Article 355 imposes a
duty on the Centre to ensure that the government of every state is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution. It is this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the
government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is
popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional
Emergency’. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Provisions as to financial emergency (Article 360): Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a
Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or
credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Article 365 says that where any state has failed
to comply with (or to give effect to) any directions given by the Centre, it will be lawful for the
President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on
in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It means that, in such a situation, the President’s
rule can be imposed in the state under Article 356. Hence option 3 is correct.

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Q 74.D
• The Delhi Sultanate was founded in 1206 by the Turkic general Qutb ud-Din Aibak, who became
the first sultan of Delhi. The dynasty reached its zenith under the third sultan, Ala ud-Din Khalji
(ruled 1296–1316), and declined after his death. It was eventually overthrown by the Mughal Empire in
1526. During the three centuries of its existence, the Delhi Sultanate witnessed a great deal of
architectural activity.
• Architectural style known as Trabeate gained popularity during Delhi sultanate period.
o Under the Trabeate style roofs, doors, and windows were made by placing a horizontal beam
across two vertical columns. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The architecture of the Delhi Sultanate was heavily influenced by Islamic styles from Persia and
Central Asia. However, there was also a significant Indian element to many of the buildings
constructed during this period. This can be seen in the use of local materials, such as sandstone and
marble, as well as in the incorporation of Hindu architectural features into Muslim buildings.
• After some time, came a new Architectural style known as the Arcuate style, also known as the Indo-
Saracenic style, which replaced the Trabeate pattern at that time. It was first seen in monuments
under the Mamluk Sultans.
• It is noted that the Hindus used square pillars which supported their temple roofs. On the other hand,
the Delhi sultans used the arches. Besides arches, they also used domes over their buildings and
minarets on sides. The use of arch and dome added charm to the Muslim buildings and also enabled them
to dispense with the need of a large number of pillars to support the roof. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The style of decoration used on these arches is very interesting: no human or animal figures were used
since it was considered to be un-Islamic to do so. Instead they used scrolls of flowers and verses of the
Quran which were intertwined in a very artistic manner. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Features of The Delhi Sultanate Architecture
o Use of local materials such as sandstone and marble
o Incorporation of Hindu architectural features into Muslim buildings
o Construction of new cities, such as Jahanpanah and Firozabad
o Development of a unique Islamic style that blended elements from Persia and Central Asia with
Indian influences.
o Arch and Dome’s construction was popular
o Pillars, Jalis, and Chhatris were used for decoration
o Minarets were used to call people to prayer
o Slab and Beam construction was used for roofs

Q 75.A
• Article 257(1) states that the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to
a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.
• Under Article 257(2), the executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions
to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the
direction to be of national or military importance. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Under Article 257 (3), the executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions
to a State as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State. Hence,
option 2 is correct.
• Further Article 257(4) mentions that if a State incurs extra costs while following the Union's directions
related to the construction or maintenance of communication systems, or the protection of railways (as
mentioned in clauses 2 and 3), the Union Government must reimburse the State for these additional costs.
The amount to be paid will be agreed upon by both the Union and the State. If they cannot agree on the
amount, an arbitrator, appointed by the Chief Justice of India, will determine the sum to be paid for the
extra costs incurred by the State.
• Executive directions of the Union to states specifically related to the Allocation of resources for
State development, Regulation of minerals and mineral resources, and Protection of national parks
and wildlife sanctuaries aren’t specifically mentioned under Article 257 of the Indian Constitution.
Hence, options 3, 4, and 5 are not correct.
• Hence, option(a) is the correct answer.

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Q 76.B
• Bengali architecture is a unique blend of Islamic, Hindu, and Buddhist influences, with a rich
history that dates back centuries.
o The Pasha Chala style is perhaps the most well-known style of Bengali architecture,
characterized by its sloping roofs with eaves that extend outward to provide shade and
protection from the rain. This style of architecture is typically seen in rural areas of Bengal and is
commonly used for residential buildings. The name “Pasha Chala” comes from the Bengali words
“pasha” (meaning “wing”) and “chala” (meaning “roof”).
o Another popular style of Bengali architecture is the Dobar or Jor-Bangla style, which features a
double roof with an open space in between that allows for natural ventilation. This style is commonly
seen in temples, palaces, and other public buildings. The name “Dobar” comes from the Bengali word
for “double,” while “Jor-Bangla” refers to the two buildings that are connected by a common roof.
o The At-Chala style is a popular style of architecture used for temples and mosques, characterized by
its roof with eight slopes. The name “At-Chala” comes from the Bengali words “at” (meaning
“eight”) and “chala” (meaning “roof”). This style of architecture is often seen in the terracotta temples
of Bishnupur in West Bengal, where it has become a signature feature of the region’s cultural
heritage.
o The Chaala style is characterized by its single sloping roof and is commonly used for residential
buildings. This style of architecture is often seen in rural areas of Bengal and is known for its
simplicity and elegance. The name “Chaala” comes from the Bengali word for “roof,” reflecting the
importance of this architectural element in this style of architecture.
o The Nava-Ratna style is characterized by its nine-tower design and is commonly used for temples.
The name “Nava-Ratna” comes from the Bengali words “nava” (meaning “nine”) and “ratna”
(meaning “jewel”). This style of architecture is often seen in the terracotta temples of Bishnupur,
where it is used to create stunning and intricate designs.
o The Ratna-Tray style is similar to the Nava-Ratna style but features a three-tower design. This style
is commonly used for temples and palaces and is known for its intricate and ornate designs. The name
“Ratna-Tray” comes from the Bengali words “ratna” (meaning “jewel”) and “tray” (meaning “three”).
o The Dalaan style is characterized by its raised platform with a sloping roof and is commonly used for
public gathering places such as markets and community centers. This style of architecture is often
seen in rural areas of Bengal and is known for its simple and functional design. The name “Dalaan”
comes from the Bengali word for “platform".
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 77.B
• Coffee Board
o The Coffee Board is a statutory organization under the control of Ministry of Commerce &
Industry, Government of India constituted under the Coffee Act 1942, an Act enacted by the
parliament.
o The Board comprises 33 members including a non-Executive Chairman, the Secretary, who is the
Chief Executive, appointed by the Government of India, and remaining 31 members comprising
Members of the Parliament, official members representing the interests of Coffee Growing States and
members representing various interests of the Coffee Industry.
o The Coffee Board functions with its Head office in Bengaluru.
• Rubber Board
o The Rubber Board is a statutory body constituted under Section (4) of the Rubber Act, 1947
and functioning under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
o The Board is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government and has 28 other members
including the Executive Director, Members of Parliament (two from House of People and one from
Council of States) and representatives of various interests of natural rubber industry such as rubber
growing sector, rubber manufacturing industry, labour interest, representatives of Governments of
principal rubber growing states.
o The Board's headquarter is located at Kottayam in Kerala.
• Tea Board
o The Tea Board is a statutory body constituted under section 4 of the Tea Act, 1953 and
functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
o The Tea Board comprises of Chairman, Deputy Chairman and 30 members appointed by Government
of India representing different sections of the industry including Members of Parliament.
o The Head office of the Board is located in Kolkata, West Bengal.
32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Government of India set up coir board in 1954 under an Act of Parliament viz, Coir Industry Act,
1953 for the development of coir industry in India for the promotion of domestic as well as export
markets of coir and coir products under the aegis of Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium
Enterprises.
o It is Headquartered at Coir House, Kochi in Kerala.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 78.D
• The three philosophical schools, Advaita Vedanta, Dvaita Vedanta, and Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, are
important branches of Hindu philosophy, each offering a unique perspective on the nature of reality, the
self, and the path to liberation.
• Advaita Vedanta:
o The philosophy is founded by Adi Shankaracharya in the early 8th century CE. Hence pair 1 is
not correctly matched.
o Philosophy of Non-Dualism (Advaita):
> It emphasizes the unity of the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman).
> Teaches that the phenomenal world is an illusion (Maya) and the only reality is the formless,
attributeless Brahman.
> Liberation (Moksha) is achieved through self-realization, understanding the oneness of Atman
and Brahman, and transcending the cycle of birth and death.
• Dvaita Vedanta:
o The philosophy is founded by Madhvacharya (Madhva) in the 13th century CE. Hence pair 2 is
not correctly matched.
o Philosophy of Dualism (Dvaita) :
> It posits a clear distinction between the individual soul (Jiva) and the ultimate reality (Brahman).
> It emphasizes the supreme nature of God (Vishnu) and the individual soul's eternal dependence on
God for liberation.
> It teaches that devotion (Bhakti) to God is the means to attain liberation and leads to eternal union
with God.
• Vishishtadvaita Vedanta:
o The philosophy is founded by Ramanujacharya (Ramanuja) in the 11th century CE. Hence
pair 3 is not correctly matched
o Philosophy of Qualified Non-Dualism (Vishishtadvaita) :
> It recognises the distinction between the individual soul (Jiva) and the ultimate reality (Brahman),
while also asserting their essential connection.
> It teaches that the individual soul is a part of Brahman and exists in a qualified non-dual
relationship with it.
> It emphasizes devotion (Bhakti) to the personal form of God (Vishnu) as the means to attain
liberation and eternal service to God in a blissful state.

Q 79.A
• Understanding the Major Geological Systems of India
o India’s geological structure is one of the most diverse in the world, featuring some of the oldest rock
formations on Earth. Among the prominent geological systems are the Archaean, Dharwar, Cuddapah,
and Vindhyan rock systems, each with unique characteristics and spatial distribution. These systems
not only tell us about the geological history of the subcontinent but also have important economic and
cultural significance.
• Archaean Rock System: Foundation of the Peninsular Shield
o The Archaean rock system represents some of the oldest rock formations, dating back over 2.5 billion
years. These rocks include gneisses and schists and serve as the basement complex of the Indian
subcontinent.
o Geographical Spread:
> The Archaean rocks occupy nearly two-thirds of the Peninsular Indian landmass, forming the
bedrock of states such as Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and
parts of Rajasthan.
o Significance:
> They form the core of the Indian Shield, serving as the platform upon which other rock systems
have been deposited.
> Hence, statement 1 is correct.
33 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Dharwar System: India’s Oldest Metamorphosed Sediments
o Named after the Dharwar region in Karnataka, the Dharwar system consists of highly metamorphosed
sedimentary rocks, formed between 4 billion and 1 billion years ago.
o Key Features:
> These rocks are rich in metallic minerals like iron ore, manganese, copper, lead, and gold, making
them economically important.
o Distribution:
> The Dharwar rocks are found in scattered patches across India. Apart from Karnataka and Tamil
Nadu, they are also present in the Chotanagpur Plateau, Meghalaya Plateau, and the Mikir Hills.
Importantly, they extend as far north as the Aravalli ranges in Rajasthan and parts of the
Himalayan region.
o Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Cuddapah System: Misconceptions Around Red Sandstone
o The Cuddapah system, named after the Cuddapah district in Andhra Pradesh, comprises sedimentary
and metamorphic formations like shales, slates, limestone, and quartzite.
o While the Cuddapah rocks are significant in terms of age and mineral content, they are not known for
red sandstone.
o The red sandstones widely used in the construction of historical monuments such as Qutub Minar,
Agra Fort, and Jama Masjid were sourced from the Vindhyan rock system, not the Cuddapah.
o Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

34 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 80.A
• About Maritime Development Fund: The Budget has proposed the setting up of a Maritime
Development Fund (MDF) to support India's maritime sector by providing financial assistance.
• For long-term financing for the maritime industry with a corpus of ₹ 25,000 crore will be set up.
• This will have up to 49% contribution by the Government and the balance will be mobilized from ports
and private sector. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• It provides stable, predictable, and lower taxation for vessel owners, reducing their financial burden.

Q 81.A
• Recent context: Card tokenisation has witnessed exponential growth in India, with over 91 crore tokens
issued up to December 2024.
• Tokenisation refers to replacement of actual card details with an alternate code called the “token”, which
shall be unique for a combination of card, token requestor (i.e. the entity which accepts request from the
customer for tokenisation of a card and passes it on to the card network to issue a corresponding token)
and device (referred hereafter as “identified device”).
o Conversion of the token back to actual card details is known as de-tokenisation.
• The card holder can get the card tokenised by initiating a request on the app provided by the token
requestor. The token requestor will forward the request to the card network which, with the
consent of the card issuer, will issue a token corresponding to the combination of the card, the token
requestor, and the device.
o The customer need not pay any charges for availing this service. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Tokenisation has been allowed on consumer devices like mobile phones, tablets, laptops, desktops,
wearables (wrist watches, bands, etc.), Internet of Things (IoT) devices, etc, for all use cases /
channels such as contactless card transactions, payments through QR codes, apps etc.
o Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Tokenisation and de-tokenisation can be performed by the authorised card network or by the card
issuer. Approval of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is not needed. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
• A customer can request for tokenisation of his / her card on any number of devices.
• A customer can request for tokenisation of any number of cards.

Q 82.A
• Milk Production in India
o Total milk production in the country is 239.30 million tonnes during 2023-24.
o India ranks 1st in the world in terms of total milk production.
o The per-capita availably of milk is 471 grams per day.
o Top 5 Milk producing States are:
> Uttar Pradesh (16.21%)
> Rajasthan (14.51%)
> Madhya Pradesh (8.91%)
> Gujarat (7.65%)
> Maharashtra (6.71%)
o They together contribute 53.99% of total Milk Production in the country.
o Hence option 1 is not correctly matched.
• Eggs Production
o The total egg production in India during 2023-24 is 142.77 billion nos.
o India ranks 2nd in the world in terms of total egg production.
o The total egg production from commercial poultry is 120.77 billion nos, and from backyard poultry is
22.01 billion nos.
o The top 5 egg-producing states are:
> Andhra Pradesh (17.85%)
> Tamil Nadu (15.64%)
> Telangana (12.88%)
> West Bengal (11.37%)
> Karnataka (6.63%).
o These states together contribute 64.37% of the total egg production in the country.
o Hence option 2 is correctly matched.

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 • Wool Production
o The total wool production in the country is 33.69 million Kgs.
o The Wool production has registered growth 0.22% in the year 2023-24.
o The top 5 wool producing States are
> Rajasthan (47.53 %)
> Jammu & Kashmir (23.06 %)
> Gujarat (6.18%)
> Maharashtra (4.75 %)
> Himachal Pradesh (4.22 %)
o They contribute 85.76% of total wool production in the country.
o Hence option 3 is not correctly matched.
• Meat Production
o The total meat production in the country is 10.25 million tonnes during 2023-24.
o India ranks 4th in the world in terms of total Meat production after China, USA, Brazil.
o The top 5 meat producing States are
> West Bengal (12.62%)
> Uttar Pradesh (12.29%)
> Maharashtra (11.28%)
> Telangana (10.85%)
> Andhra Pradesh (10.42%).
o They together contribute 57.46% of total meat production in the country.
o Hence option 4 is not correctly matched.

Q 83.D
• The Rashtrakutas widely patronized the Sanskrit literature. There were many scholars in the Rashtrakuta
court.
• Trivikrama wrote Nalachampu and the Kavirahasya was composed by Halayudha during the reign
of Krishna III.
• The Jain literature flourished under the patronage of the Rashtrakutas. Amogavarsha I, who was a Jain
patronized many Jain scholars.
• His teacher Jinasena composed Parsvabhudaya, a biography of Parsva in verses. Hence statement 2
is correct.
• Another scholar Gunabhadra wrote the Adipurana, the life stories of various Jain saints. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Sakatayana wrote the grammer work called Amogavritti.
• The great mathematician of this period, Viracharya was the author of Ganitasaram.
• The Kannada literature saw its beginning during the period of the Rashtrakutas.
• Amogavarsha’s Kavirajamarga was the first poetic work in Kannada language. Hence statement 3
is correct.
• Pampa was the greatest of the Kannada poets. His famous work was Vikramasenavijaya.
• Ponna was another famous Kannada poet and he wrote Santipurana.

Q 84.A
• Sangam literature is an important source of the early history of South India. This literature is believed to
have been composed between 300 BC and 300 AD in the assemblies of poets held at that time.
Traditionally, three Sangams or assemblies of Tamil poets are believed to have been convened one after
the other. All the three Sangams took place at different places under the patronage of the Pandya kings of
Madurai.
• The Sangam literature can be roughly divided into two groups- narrative and didactic.
• The narrative texts are called Melkannakku or Eighteen Major Works consisting of eight anthologies and
ten idylls (short poems) the narrative texts are considered the works of heroic poetry in which heroes are
glorified and perpetual wars and cattle raids frequently mentioned. They show that early Tamil people
were primarily pastoral. Traces of early megalithic life also appear in the texts.
• The narrative Sangam texts also give some idea of the State formation in which the army consisted of
groups of warriors, and the taxation system and judiciary appeared in the rudimentary state.
• The Didactic works are called Kilkannakku or eighteen Minor Works. Didactic texts were works of the
brahmana Prakrit-Sanskrit scholars. These texts prescribe a code of conduct not only for the king and
his court but also for various social groups and occupations. Hence option (a) is correct.

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Q 85.D
• Recent Context: The Henley Passport Index (HPI) is a global ranking of countries based on the travel
freedom their citizens enjoy. Released by Henley & Partners, a leader in residence and citizenship
planning, the HPI assesses passports based on the number of destinations holders can access without a
visa. In the latest Henley Passport Index 2025, India's rank has dropped to 85th, down from 80th in 2024
giving its holders visa free access to 57 countries. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• The Henley Passport Index ranks 199 global passports (covers 227 travel destinations) based on the
number of destinations their holders can travel to without a visa, with data sourced from the International
Air Transport Association (IATA).
• Singapore leads the Index, securing rank 1. A Singapore-passport offers visa-free access to 195
countries.

Q 86.A
• In Pramati Educational Trust v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court ruled that unaided
minority institutions are exempt from Article 21A, as applying it would violate their right to administer
their institutions under Article 30. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Right to form an association or a cooperative under Article 19(1)(c) is a fundamental right. However, to
become a member of an organization or a society governed by respective statutes. Hence, statement
2 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court has clarified that Article 32 can be invoked against private entities if they
violate Fundamental Rights, especially Articles 19 and 21. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 87.A
• The Global Stocktake (GST) is a critical process under the Paris Agreement, designed to assess the
world's progress in addressing climate change.
o It happens every five years, with the first-ever GST completed at COP28 (Dubai, 2023).
o It evaluates how well countries are meeting their climate mitigation, adaptation, and financial
commitments under the Paris Agreement. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• The Global Stocktake Report (2023) at COP28 found that the world is not on track to limit global
warming to 1.5°C.
• It emphasized the need for more ambitious climate action and a faster transition away from fossil fuels.
• Analysis of Other Options:
• Tracking global biodiversity loss and conservation efforts
o Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the key report for tracking biodiversity loss.
o It is published by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), not the Paris Agreement.
• Monitoring the impact of climate change on ocean currents
o The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) focus on ocean current changes due to climate change, but this is not the primary focus of the
Global Stocktake.
• Evaluating the financial commitment of developed nations toward climate mitigation
o While climate finance is part of the Global Stocktake, the GST covers broader aspects like mitigation
and adaptation as well.
o Reports on climate finance, such as the Climate Finance Delivery Plan, focus exclusively on financial
commitments.
• Key Takeaways from the First Global Stocktake (2023, COP28)
o Global efforts fall short of Paris Agreement targets.
o Current national policies could lead to 2.5-2.9°C warming by 2100 (far above the 1.5°C goal).
o Stronger emissions reduction targets and increased climate finance are needed.

Q 88.B
• Sea otters often float at the water's surface, lying on their backs in a posture of serene repose. They sleep
this way, often gathered in groups. Otters sometimes float in forests of kelp, or giant seaweed, in which
they entangle themselves to provide anchorage in the swirling sea.
• These aquatic otters do more than sleep while floating on their backs. They are often seen with a clam or
mussel and a rock that has been deftly snared from the ocean floor. Otters will place the rock on their
chests, and repeatedly smash the shellfish against it until it breaks open to reveal the tasty meal inside.
They also dine on such aquatic creatures as sea urchins, crabs, squid, octopuses, and fish.
• Sea Otters are known for their remarkable use of tools.

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 • They use pebbles or rocks as anvils or hammers to crack open hard-shelled prey such as mollusks, sea
urchins, and clams.
• This makes them one of the few non-human animals known to regularly use tools in the wild.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 89.D
• Understanding the Characteristics and Global Importance of Cowpea
o Recent Context: Cowpea has recently gained attention for its use in ISRO’s CROPS-1 mission
(Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies), where it successfully germinated and
reached the two-leaf stage under microgravity conditions. This experiment marks a significant
milestone in space farming and highlights cowpea’s potential as a resilient crop for future long-
duration space missions.
• Key Characteristics of Cowpea:
o Cowpea (Vigna unguiculata) is a versatile leguminous crop widely cultivated in tropical and
subtropical regions. It is a nutritious, drought-tolerant, and soil-friendly crop that plays a vital role
in food security, soil enrichment, and sustainable agriculture, especially in semi-arid areas of Africa
and Asia.
o Short growing cycle:
> Cowpea is known for its short growing cycle, typically maturing within 60–90 days. This makes it
an ideal choice for intercropping and sequential cropping systems, particularly in regions where
water and time constraints limit crop cycles. Its ability to fit between major cropping seasons adds
flexibility and efficiency to agricultural planning. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Cowpea and Soil Fertility
> As a legume, cowpea forms symbiotic associations with rhizobium bacteria in root nodules,
enabling it to fix atmospheric nitrogen. This not only reduces the need for chemical fertilizers but
also improves soil fertility for succeeding crops. It is often grown as a green manure or cover crop
for this reason, making it valuable for sustainable and organic farming systems. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
o Global Production: Nigeria’s Role.
> According to FAO data and agricultural reports, Nigeria is consistently ranked as the world’s
leading cowpea producer, accounting for over 45% of global production. Cowpea is a staple food
in Nigeria, where it is popularly known as “beans”, and forms an important source of protein in
the diet. It also holds cultural and economic significance for smallholder farmers in West Africa.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 90.A
• The Ecomark Certification is an eco-labeling scheme introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest,
and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in 1991 to help consumers identify environmentally friendly products.
• Ecomark is an eco-label awarded to products that meet specific environmental criteria.
o The goal is to help consumers make sustainable choices by identifying products that have minimal
environmental impact. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Ecomark is not limited to biodegradable products.
o It covers a wide range of products, including paints, packaging materials, textiles, electronics, and
detergents.
o The certification evaluates the overall environmental impact (such as energy consumption, pollution,
and waste generation), not just biodegradability. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for processing applications for Ecomark
certification.
o CPCB evaluates applications based on criteria set under the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) and
Quality Control Orders (QCOs). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• According to the Ecomark Rules, 2024, the Ecomark certification is valid for 3 years, not 5 years.
o After 3 years, it can be renewed if the product continues to meet environmental standards.
• Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Q 91.B
• Understanding Vermifiltration Technology: A Nature-Based Solution for Wastewater Treatment
o Vermifiltration Technology is an innovative, eco-friendly wastewater treatment method that has
recently gained attention for its application in sustainable sanitation systems.

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 o Recently this has been in the news due to its successful implementation in Aandhi village near
Jaipur, Rajasthan. This technology exemplifies how nature-based solutions can address modern
environmental challenges.
• What is Vermifiltration Technology?
o Vermifiltration is a biological wastewater treatment process that uses a combination of
earthworms and microorganisms to degrade organic pollutants in wastewater. The process is
considered a decentralized, sustainable, and low-cost approach to managing domestic and agro-
industrial wastewater. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Vermifilters leverage the symbiotic relationship between earthworms and microbial communities to
decompose organic waste and purify water. Earthworms create channels that enhance aeration and
promote microbial activity, accelerating the breakdown of organic matter.
• Operating Conditions of Vermifiltration
o Contrary to some traditional anaerobic treatments, vermifiltration functions best under aerobic
conditions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Vermifiltration requires aerobic conditions, as earthworms and the associated microbial processes
need oxygen to function optimally. Oxygen helps maintain a balanced microbial ecosystem and
supports faster degradation of organic content.
• Applications of Vermifiltration
o Vermifiltration has shown promising results in treating:
> Domestic sewage
> Agro-industrial effluents
> Wastewater from small-scale industries
o It is suitable for both centralized and decentralized systems, making it particularly effective for
rural and peri-urban areas where conventional treatment systems may not be viable. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
o The versatility of vermifiltration makes it a valuable solution for diverse wastewater types, including
those with high organic content.
• Advantages of Vermifiltration Technology
o Low energy and maintenance requirements
o Minimal environmental footprint
o Cost-effective and scalable
o Produces vermicompost as a useful byproduct
• Its successful implementation in areas like Aandhi village has demonstrated how this method can
contribute to zero-waste, sustainable sanitation systems.
Q 92.A
• Kuno National Park was in the news not for the translocation of Asiatic Lions, but for the introduction of
Cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa under Project Cheetah (2022).
• Although the translocation of Asiatic Lions from Gir (Gujarat) to Kuno was proposed, it has not yet been
implemented due to political and ecological reasons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Kuno National Park is spread across two districts of Madhya Pradesh:
o Sheopur District
o Morena District
• It is part of the Vindhya mountain range and serves as a significant corridor for wildlife movement.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Kuno National Park is NOT a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Some of India's UNESCO-listed national parks include:
o Kaziranga National Park (Assam)
o Manas National Park (Assam)
o Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal)
o Nanda Devi & Valley of Flowers National Park (Uttarakhand)
• Project Cheetah (2022):
o First-ever reintroduction of Cheetahs in India, brought from Namibia and South Africa.
o The project aims to restore India’s historical cheetah population, which went extinct in 1952.
• Asiatic Lion Translocation Project:
o Proposed but not executed due to Gujarat’s opposition.
o Gujarat argues that Gir is the only natural habitat of Asiatic Lions, and Kuno is not yet fully prepared.
• Wildlife Found in Kuno National Park:
o Cheetahs, leopards, chital, nilgai, Indian wolves, sloth bears, and striped hyenas.
39 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 93.B
• Carnatic Region-
o Carnatic was the name given by the Europeans to the Coromandel coast and its hinterland.
o The region lied between the Eastern Ghats and the Coromandel Coast in the presidency of Madras.
o In the 18th century the coastal Carnatic was a dependency of Hyderabad, within the Mughal Empire.
o Succession disputes in both the Carnatic and Hyderabad opened the door for European intervention in
support of various rival Indian claimants.
> Both the French and British sent armies to south India; the French were defeated at Wandiwash
(1760), and the British captured Pondicherry (1761). Thenceforth, the British controlled the
Carnatic through its nawab, who became deeply indebted both to the East India Company and to
its individual officers.
✓ Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.

Q 94.B
• Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List subject, but only when two or more States
request it. However, there is no provision in the Constitution that allows Parliament to authorize a
State to legislate on a Union List subject. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Article 258 empowers the Union government to delegate its executive powers to a State government
with or without the State’s consent. However, Article 258A allows State governments to entrust
their executive functions to the Union only with the Union’s consent. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q 95.B
• Mysuru Dasara is the Nadahabba of the state of Karnataka in India. It is a 10-day festival, starting
with Navaratri and the last day being Vijayadashami. The festival is observed on the tenth day in the
Hindu calendar month of Ashvin, which typically falls in the Gregorian months of September and
October. The festivities begin by lighting the lamp and offering flowers to the idol of Goddess
Chamundeshwari. The festival is being celebrated since 1610 and is patronized by the Wodeyar royal
family. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Gowri Habba or festival is celebrated a day before Ganesh Chaturthi. It is a significant festival in
parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu. Goddess Gowri, wife of Lord Shiva, the mother
40 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 of Lord Ganesha and Lord Subramanya is worshipped throughout India for her ability to bestow upon her
devotee’s power, courage, valour. She is the most powerful of all the Goddess and is the very incarnation
of Aadhi Shakthi Mahamaya.
• Bathukamma is floral festival celebrated predominantly by the Hindu women of Telangana and
some parts of Andhra Pradesh. Every year this festival is celebrated as per Shathavahana calendar for
nine days starting Bhadrapada Pournami till Durgashtami, usually in September–October of
Gregorian calendar. For one whole week, women make small ‘Bathukammas’, play around them
every evening and immerse them in a nearby water pond. On the last day, menfolk of the house go into
the wild plains and gather the flowers like ‘gunuka’ and ‘tangedu’. They bring home bagfuls of these
flowers and the entire household sits down to arrange them in stacks. The flowers are carefully arranged
row after row in a brass plate (called ‘taambalam’) in circular rows and in alternate colours. The
Bathukamma grows in size and the bigger it gets the better.
• The Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsava is an anointing ceremony of the statue of Lord Bahubali,
the son of lord Rishabhanatha who was the first of the 24 Jain Tirthankaras. Also referred as Grand
Consecration, Mahamastakabhisheka is performed once in 12 years. The 'padabhisheka' to the statue is
held every year. This year, Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsava was observed in February 2019. The
sculpture of Lord Bahubali stands for renunciation, self-control and subjugation of the ego as a reflection
of his life.

Q 96.C
• Mineral Composition of Seawater and River Water:
o Water in its natural form — whether in rivers or oceans — contains dissolved minerals that influence
its chemical composition. The difference in mineral composition between seawater and river water is
shaped by a variety of natural processes, including the source of water, duration of contact with
geological formations, and atmospheric interactions.
• Duration of Contact with Earth’s Crust
o One of the key reasons for the variation in the mineral makeup of seawater and river water is
the duration and extent of contact with the Earth’s crust. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o River water has a relatively short residence time and travels through diverse terrains. As it flows over
land, it dissolves minerals from rocks, especially carbonates (from limestone) and sulfates (from
gypsum and other minerals), which are relatively more soluble.
o In contrast, seawater represents a long-term reservoir of dissolved minerals, having accumulated ions
over millions of years through runoff, volcanic activity, and hydrothermal vents. The ocean has had
far more time to concentrate these dissolved salts, especially those that are less likely to precipitate,
such as chlorides.
o Thus, the longer interaction time of seawater with dissolved material leads to a markedly different
composition.
• Predominant Mineral Composition
o There is a clear distinction in the dominant ions found in seawater and river water:
o Seawater contains predominantly chlorides (Cl⁻) and sodium (Na⁺) ions. These account for the
majority of its salinity, giving seawater its characteristic “salty” taste.
o River water, on the other hand, is typically richer in carbonates (HCO₃⁻) and sulfates (SO₄²⁻)
due to the nature of the rocks it erodes. This reflects the dominance of chemical weathering over
long geological timescales.
o These differences are important for understanding ecosystems, biogeochemical cycles, and even
climate processes, as they impact ocean circulation and nutrient availability.
o Hence statement 2 is also correct.

Q 97.D
• Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution states, “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime
Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in
accordance with such advice”.
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act added a proviso to Article 74(1): "Provided that the
President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or
otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such
reconsideration." This means:
• The President can return the advice once for reconsideration.
• If the Council of Ministers reaffirms its decision, the President must accept it.
• This applies to all matters where the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
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 • Article 123 states that the President can promulgate an ordinance on the advice of the Council of
Ministers when Parliament is not in session. Since it is based on ministerial advice, the President can
send it back once under Article 74(1). Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Article 155: The Governor is appointed by the President, but this is done on the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers. Since it is an executive decision, Article 74(1) applies, and the President can
return the advice once. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Article 316: The President appoints the Chairman and members of UPSC. This is done on the advice
of the Council of Ministers, meaning the President can send the advice for reconsideration once,
under Article 74(1). Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Article 111 specifically mentions that the President can return a bill (except a Money Bill) for
reconsideration. If Parliament passes it again without changes, the President must give assent. The
President cannot return Constitutional Amendment Bills (Article 368) or Money Bills (Article 110).
Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Q 98.B
• Context: Major Water Body Dries up In Assam’s Wildlife Sanctuary, Experts Point Need For
Habitat Management
o Chilika Lake: Chilika Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine character
spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda and Ganjam in the state of Odisha in eastern India. Fed by
52 rivers and rivulets, the waterspread area of Chilika varies between 900 to 1165 sq. km. during
summers and monsoon respectively. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
o Tamulidoba Beel: Situated along the western boundary of Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Assam,
Tamulidoba Beel has been drying up due to heavy siltation. The wetland now resembles a field with
minimal water presence, adversely affecting the habitat of rhinos, buffalo, and various water
birds. Hence, option 2 is correct.
o Panje Wetlands: Located in Navi Mumbai, the Panje wetlands have been subjected to drying due to
the construction of sluice gates and culverts by CIDCO. These structures have blocked tidal water
flow, leading to habitat degradation and a decline in biodiversity Hence, option 3 is correct.
o Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 99.C
• Dugongs (Dugong dugon) are the only exclusively herbivorous marine mammals in India.
• They feed mainly on seagrass found in shallow coastal waters.
• They are found in:
o Gulf of Mannar & Palk Bay (Tamil Nadu)
o Andaman & Nicobar Islands
o Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)
• IUCN Status: Vulnerable. Hence, statement I is correct.

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 • Dugongs DO NOT reproduce rapidly; they have one of the slowest reproductive rates among marine
mammals.
• Females give birth to only one calf every 3 to 7 years after a long gestation period (~14 months).
• This slow reproduction makes their population highly vulnerable to threats like habitat destruction,
poaching, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets. Hence, statement II is not correct.

Q 100.A
• PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) Scheme is aimed
at ensuring energy security for farmers in India, along with honouring India’s commitment to increase the
share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as part of
Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs). The scheme aims to add solar capacity of
30,800 MW by 2022 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Crore, including service
charges to the implementing agencies. Thus, the scheme promotes solar-based irrigation and aims
to replace traditional diesel/electric pumps. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019 with 3 components:
• Component A: 10,000 MW of solar capacity through the installation of small Solar Power Plants of
individual plants of capacity upto 2 MW.
• Component B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
• Component C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps.
• The scheme is not entirely funded by the Central Government; it follows a subsidy-sharing model
between the Centre, States, and farmers. Farmers can sell excess solar power to the grid, ensuring
additional income. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for the implementation
of the scheme. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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