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UPSC PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2025

TEST - 31
FULL LENGTH TEST - 8
{COMPLETE SYLLABUS}
(Indian Constitution, Political System and Governance +
Geography + History of India + Indian Economy & Social
Development + Ecology & Environment + General Science +
Current Affairs)

2025
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Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2025 – Test – 4731

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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1. Consider the following statements regarding 4. Consider the following pairs:
the homeostasis: Constitution Provisions
1. It is the tendency for a biological system Amendment Act
1. 25th Constitutional : Amendment in
to resist changes.
Amendment Act Article 368
2. All birds and mammals are capable of
2. 52nd Constitutional : Amendment to
thermoregulation and osmoregulation. Amendment Act the eighth
Which of the statements given above is/are schedule of the
correct? Constitution
(a) 1 only 3. 84th Constitutional : Freeze the
Amendment Act number of seats
(b) 2 only
of the Lok
(c) Both 1 and 2
Sabha until the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 first census
after 2026
2. Consider the following statements regarding 4. 93rd Constitutional : Reservations
the Cooperative boards under Part IX of the Amendment Act for OBCs in
educational
Indian Constitution:
institutions
1. If a Cooperative Board is dissolved
How many of the pairs given above are
before completing its tenure, fresh correct?
elections are held, and the newly elected (a) Only one
board serves only for the remainder of (b) Only two
the original tenure. (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. In case of suspension of a Cooperative
Board, the affairs of the board are
5. Consider the following pairs:
managed by a body appointed by the Folk Associated State
State Government. Theatre/Drama
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Rammat : Rajasthan
correct? 2. Villu Pattu : Tamil Nadu
3. Karyala : Karnataka
(a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) 2 only
matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. In the context of medieval paintings, 'Lady (d) 1, 2 and 3

with the Myna Bird' is associated with which

6. Darien Gap, which is recently seen in news
school of painting?
connects:
(a) Golconda School (a) United States of America And Mexico
(b) Pahadi school (b) Panama and Colombia
(c) Mughal painting (c) Mexico and Guatemala
(d) Rajasthani school (d) America and Canada
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7. With respect to Cold Desert Biosphere 10. Which of the following mechanism leads to
Reserve, consider the following statements: allopatric speciation?
1. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is home
to Tibetan antelopes (Chiru). (a) The gradual accumulation of genetic
2. Pin Valley National Park and Kibber differences within a single population.
Wildlife Sanctuary are parts of this (b) The separation of a population into two
biosphere reserve.
or more geographically isolated groups.
3. No river flows through this biosphere
reserve. (c) The hybridization of two distinct
How many of the statements given above are species.
correct?
(d) The sudden change in environmental
(a) Only one
(b) Only two conditions due to a natural disaster.
(c) All three
(d) None
11. With reference to the BioE3 (Biotechnology
8. With reference to the Himalayas and the for Economy, Environment, and
Eastern Hills, consider the following Employment) Policy, which one of the
statements:
following statements is correct?
1. The Lushai Hills are at the confluence of
the Patkai Bum and the Naga Hills. (a) It aims to foster high-performance
2. The 'Valley of Flowers' is located in the manufacturing of products ranging from
Dhauladhar range of the Himalayas.
medicine to materials.
3. The Kangtu Peak is located in the
Sikkim Himalayas. (b) It is primarily focused on agricultural
4. The Nagtibha is the part of the Lesser biotechnology.
Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
(c) It does not consider environmental
How many of the statements given above are
correct? sustainability.
(a) Only two (d) It is aimed only at boosting employment
(b) Only three
in the healthcare sector.
(c) All four
(d) None
12. In the context of ecology, which of the
9. Consider the following statements regarding following best defines "edge effect"?
the Autonomous District Councils
constituted under the Sixth Schedule of the (a) It refers to the changes in population or
Indian Constitution: community structures that occur at the
1. The Autonomous District Councils have boundary of two habitats.
the power to make laws on subjects like
land, forests (excluding reserved (b) It refers to the effect of climate change
forests), inheritance, and social customs. on apex predatory species in the highest
2. The laws made by these District trophic levels.
Councils require prior approval of the
President of India to come into effect. (c) It refers to the reduction in species
Which of the statements given above is/are variety at the edge of the Earth’s polar
correct? areas.
(a) 1 only
(d) It refers to the near extinction of a
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 particular species owing to imbalances
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in a food web.
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13. Which of the following best describes the 15. Consider the following statements regarding
term “Sachetisation of Mutual Funds”, Mammatus clouds:
recently seen in the news? 1. Mammatus clouds are commonly
(a) Breaking down mutual fund units into associated with thunderstorm clouds,
smaller denominations to make them particularly cumulonimbus.
more accessible to retail investors.
2. They form due to strong updrafts in
(b) A process where mutual fund houses
storm clouds, pushing warm air upward
bundle multiple funds into a single
to create large bulges.
portfolio to reduce risk.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Introducing a new category of mutual
correct?
funds that exclusively invest in short-
(a) 1 only
term government securities.
(b) 2 only
(d) A regulatory mechanism that limits the
(c) Both 1 and 2
maximum amount an investor can invest
in a single mutual fund scheme." (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements regarding 16. Which of the following organizations has
the reservation of seats in the Panchayati Raj released the ‘India Employment Report
Institutions (PRIs): 2024’, recently seen in the news?
1. Unlike Lok Sabha, reservation for (a) Ministry of Labour and Employment &
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
in the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) (b) International Labour Organization (ILO)
has no time limit. & Institute for Human Development
2. One-third of seats for women are
(IHD)
reserved within the reserved seats of
(c) NITI Aayog & National Statistical
Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes
Office (NSO)
in the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
(d) World Bank & Confederation of Indian
3. The Constitution allows the state
Industry (CII)
legislature to make provisions for the
reservation of seats in favor of backward
17. “Candle,” “Not Evil,” and “Ahmia, which
classes (OBCs) in the Panchayati Raj
are recently seen in the news, primarily refer
Institutions (PRIs).
Which of the statements given above are to

correct? (a) Blockchain technology

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Dark Web search engines

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Cybersecurity and ethical hacking tools
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Artificial Intelligence-based web
(d) 1, 2 and 3 crawlers"
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18. Consider the following statements regarding 20. Consider the following methods of digital
National Parties in India: transactions:
1. The detailed criteria for a party to be
1. Interactive Voice Response (IVR)
recognized as a national party are
numbers
outlined in the Representation of
People’s Act 1951. 2. Missed call-based payments
2. The Election Commission of India (ECI) 3. OEM-embedded applications in feature
is responsible for granting the status of
phones
National Parties.
4. Sound-based payment technology
3. National Parties get a common election
symbol across India, which cannot be How many of the above methods are

used by any other party or candidate. supported under the UPI 123Pay facility?
4. Once a party is recognized as a National (a) Only one
Party, it retains this status permanently,
(b) Only two
irrespective of future election
(c) Only three
performance.
How many of the statements given above are (d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one 21. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Only two
the GlobE (Global Operational Network of
(c) Only three
Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement
(d) All four
Authorities) network:
19. Consider the following statements regarding 1. It was established in 2021 as an
the Household Consumption Expenditure
intergovernmental organization
Survey 2023-24:
independent of the UN.
1. The survey revealed that the average
monthly per capita consumption 2. It has 121 member countries including

expenditure (MPCE) in rural India India.

increased at a faster rate than in urban 3. The Ministry of Law and Justice serves
India.
as the Central Authority of the GlobE
2. The rural-urban consumption
network in India.
expenditure gap has widened
significantly compared to 2011-12. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3 only

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22. Consider the following statements regarding 24. With reference to National Science Day in
the Mines and Minerals (Development and India, consider the following statements:
Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957: 1. It is celebrated annually on February 28
1. The Act mandates the auction process as to commemorate the discovery of the
the sole method for granting mining ‘Raman Effect’ by Sir C.V. Raman.
leases for all minerals. 2. The theme for National Science Day
2. It is mandatory for the state governments 2025 is Indigenous Technologies for
to establish District Mineral Foundations Viksit Bharat
(DMFs) in districts affected by mining Which of the statements given above is/are
activities to work for the benefit of local correct?
communities. (a) 1 only
3. As per the 2015 amendment to the act, (b) 2 only
the National Mineral Exploration Trust (c) Both 1 and 2
(NMET) established to boost domestic (d) Neither 1 nor 2
mineral production is funded through a
levy imposed on the holders of mining 25. With reference to the artificial
leases. photosynthesis, consider the following
How many of the statements given above are statements:
correct? 1. It mimics natural photosynthesis to
(a) Only One produce fuels like ethane and methanol
(b) Only two for human consumption.
(c) All three 2. It uses solar energy to produce hydrogen
(d) None from water.
Which of the statements given above is/are
23. Consider the following statements regarding correct?
the power of the Parliament to legislate on (a) 1 only
the State list under Article 249: (b) 2 only
1. The resolution in Rajya Sabha under (c) Both 1 and 2
Article 249 requires the same majority (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as that of the removal of the Vice
President in Rajya Sabha 26. Consider the following statements regarding
2. A law made by Parliament on the matter the Lake-Effect Snow recently seen in the
provided in the resolution remains in news:
force in perpetuity even after the 1. It occurs when cold air passes over
expiration of the resolution warmer lake waters, leading to heavy
3. When Parliament legislates on a matter snowfall.
in State list, it takes away the power of 2. This phenomenon is commonly
the State Assembly to legislate on the observed near large lakes, such as the
same matter Great Lakes in North America.
How many of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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27. Consider the following statements: 29. He was a 19th-century Marathi writer who
Statement-I: The Constitution of India vests played a significant role in introducing
Western literary critique to Indian readers.
all resources of the continental shelf and the
He co-founded major periodicals like Kesari
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) with the and Mahratta and established printing
Union, except for fisheries. presses to promote nationalist literature. He
Statement-II: Fisheries is a State Subject launched Nibandhamala, a monthly
publication known for tackling political and
under Entry 21 of the State List in the
social issues. Additionally, in 1878, he
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of created another monthly publication,
India. Kavyetihas Sangraha, to familiarize readers
Which one of the following is correct in with the poetry and history of Maharashtra
and instill national pride.
respect of the above statements?
Who is the personality being described in the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
above passage?
correct and Statement-II is the correct (a) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
explanation for Statement-I. (b) Vishnushastri Krushnashastri
Chiplunkar
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
correct but Statement-II is not the
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 30. Consider the following rivers:
incorrect. 1. Chambal
2. Godavari
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
3. Ghagra
is correct. 4. Gandak
How many of the above rivers are the natural
28. Consider the following statements regarding habitats of the Gharials?
(a) Only one
the Inner Line Permit (ILP) system in India:
(b) Only two
1. The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is issued (c) Only three
under the provisions of the Bengal (d) All four
Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR),
31. In the context of Alexander's conquest,
1873.
consider the following statements:
2. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not 1. Porus, the ruler of Taxila, surrendered to
eligible for the inner line permit system. Alexander and welcomed him with gifts.
3. Currently, ILP is applicable in all 2. The Battle of the Hydaspes took place
between Alexander and Ambhi.
Northeastern states of India.
3. Alexander established Greek settlement
How many of the statements given above are Bucephala near the Jhelum river.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1 and 2 only
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32. Consider the following statements regarding 35. Which of the following best describes the
Rangpur Rebellion of 1783 : term “Hush Money,” recently seen in the
1. It was led by Debi Singh. news?
(a) A form of illicit payment made to
2. The peasants initially sent a petition to
silence individuals from disclosing
the East India Company's government
sensitive or damaging information.
asking for redress. (b) A government-sanctioned fund used to
3. In course of the revolt, the peasants compensate whistleblowers.
started their own government and levied (c) A financial incentive provided by
charges to meet the costs of the revolt. companies to encourage employees to
Which of the statements given above is/are report corporate fraud.
(d) A legal fund allocated by courts to settle
correct?
defamation lawsuits.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 36. Which among the following best describes
(c) 2 and 3 only the term ‘QNodeOS’, seen recently in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 news?
(a) Lockheed Martin's latest 5th generation
33. The Technology Security Initiative (TSI) is a aircraft
(b) Huawei's latest 6th-generation wireless
collaboration to increase cooperation in
technology
emerging technologies between:
(c) Pfizer's latest AI based oral cancer
(a) India and UK detection system
(b) IPEF countries (d) World's first operating system designed
(c) India and US for quantum networks
(d) EU countries
37. Recently, released Fiscal Health Index (FHI)
Report 2025 throws light on fiscal status at
34. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru
the sub-national level and guide policy
Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), consider the
reforms for sustainable and resilient
following statements: economic growth. Which of the following
1. It aims to provide cash incentives to organisations published this?
pregnant and lactating mothers for (a) Reserve Bank of India
meeting their nutritional needs. (b) NITI Aayog
2. It is a Direct Benefit Transfer scheme (c) Department of Economic Affairs
(d) Ministry of Statistics and Program
under which cash benefits are provided
Implementation
to pregnant women in their bank account
directly. 38. Which of the following books were banned
3. The eligible beneficiaries also receive by the British government in colonial India?
cash incentive under Janani Suraksha 1. Soz-e-Watan
Yojana (JSY). 2. Pather Dabi
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Discovery of India
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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39. Which of the following best describes the 42. With reference to the Diego Garcia, consider
term ‘Surveillance Pricing’, recently seen in the following statements:
the news? 1. It is the only inhabited island of the
(a) A pricing strategy where companies
British Indian Ocean Territory.
monitor competitors’ prices and adjust
2. It hosts one of four dedicated ground
accordingly.
(b) The practice of using personal data to set antennas that assist in operating the GPS
individualized prices for consumers. navigation system.
(c) A government-regulated pricing model 3. In 2024, Britain ceded complete control
to prevent unfair pricing. of Diego Garcia to Mauritius.
(d) A system where prices fluctuate only How many of the above statements are
based on supply and demand.
correct?
(a) Only one
40. Consider the following statements regarding
the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) (b) Only two
of India: (c) All three
1. The CAG prescribes the format in which (d) None
the Accounts of the Union and States are
maintained. 43. Consider the following statements regarding
2. With regard to the accounts of the
India's external debt:
government, the CAG conducts only
1. The majority of India's external debt is
compliance audits and not performance
audits. denominated in US Dollar, followed by
3. The CAG is also bestowed with the the Indian rupee.
responsibility of compiling and 2. The external debt-to-GDP ratio has been
maintaining the accounts of the Union consistently increasing over the past five
Government. years.
How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements about the
Unified Genomic Chip, which has recently
44. In the context of ancient india, which of the
seen in the news:
following personalities were associated with
1. It is part of the Human Genome Project,
which identifies genetic disorders in Nalanda University?
humans. 1. Dharmakirti
2. It is developed by the Department of 2. Silabhadra
Biotechnology (DBT), the Ministry of 3. Kumara Gupta
Science and Technology. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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45. The “Cali Fund,” recently seen in the news, 48. With reference to mitochondria, consider the
is associated with: following statements:
(a) supporting climate resilience initiatives. 1. They are known as the "powerhouse of
the cell".
(b) ensuring equitable sharing of profits
2. They do not contain DNA.
from digitally sequenced genetic data. 3. They are found in all eukaryotic cells.
(c) providing financial assistance for post- Which of the statements given above is/are
disaster recovery. correct?
(d) promoting biodiversity conservation (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
programs.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
46. The President of India, as the constitutional
head of the state, appoints several key 49. Consider the following pairs :
officials. Some of these appointments are Jain Religious Sites State
made "by warrant under his hand and seal," 1. Sonagiri Jain Temples : Madhya
Pradesh
signifying their constitutional importance
2. Kulpakji or Kolanupaka : Telangana
and formal recognition.
Jain Temple
Which of the following officials are 3. Ranakpur Jain Temple : West
appointed by the President of India by Bengal
warrant under his hand and seal? Which of the pairs given above are correctly
1. Chairman of Finance Commission matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
2. Judges of the Supreme Court
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. Attorney General for India
(c) 2 and 3 only
4. Chairperson of the National Commission (d) 1, 2 and 3
for Backward Classes
Select the correct answer using the code 50. Consider the following statements regarding
given below. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation (DICGC):
(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
1. DICGC is a wholly-owned subsidiary of
(b) 2, and 3 only the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
(c) 2, and 4 only 2. It provides deposit insurance coverage
(d) 1,2, 3, and 4 for savings, fixed, current, and recurring
deposits, subject to a maximum limit per
depositor.
47. The term ‘DOJO SYSTEM’ seen recently in
3. Primary cooperative societies are not
the news is associated with which among the
covered under DICGC’s deposit
following? insurance scheme.
(a) Google self-learning neural network Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) NVIDIA's latest chip fabrication module correct?
(c) ISRO space docking software (a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) TESLA machine learning training
(c) 1 and 3 only
application
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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51. Consider the following statements regarding 54. Consider the following statements regarding
Poshan Abhiyaan (National Nutrition
the National Agricultural Cooperative
Mission):
1. It is a central sector scheme to improve Marketing Federation of India Ltd
nutritional outcomes for children,
(NAFED):
pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
2. The scheme is implemented by the 1. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
operative Societies Act.
3. The scheme follows a targeted approach
to reduce stunting, undernutrition, 2. It functions under the Ministry of
anemia, and low birth weight in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Cooperation.
correct? 3. It was established to promote
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only cooperative marketing and ensure fair
(c) 3 only prices for farmer's produce.
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
52. Consider the following transactions: correct?
1. Merchandise Exports and Imports
2. Inward and Outward Remittances for (a) 1 only
Salaries
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Interest Payments on External Loans
4. Non-Resident Indian deposits (c) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above transactions come
(d) 1, 2 and 3
under the Current Account in India’s
Balance of Payments (BoP)?
(a) Only one
55. Arrange the given stages of primary
(b) Only two
(c) Only three succession in water from phytoplankton to
(d) All four
forest in ascending order:

53. Consider the following: 1. Reed swampy stage

1. Transfer incomes
2. Marsh meadow stage
2. Goods for self-consumption
3. Service for self-consumption 3. Submerged plant stage
4. Income earned from illegal activities
4. Scrub stage
5. Income earned through the sale and
purchase of second-hand goods Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the following items
are not included in the computation of given below.
national income using the Value-Added (a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
Method?
(a) 4 and 5 only (b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
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56. As per the Indian constitution, consider the 58. Consider the following Pairs:
following statements: Quantum Associated
Computing Chip Company
1. The constitution of India mandates that
1. Ocelot : Amazon
all proceedings in the Supreme Court 2. Majorana 1 : Microsoft
and High Courts shall be conducted in 3. Sycamore : Google
English. How many of the above are correctly
matched with their respective companies?
2. The President in consultation with the
(a) Only one
governor of the states may authorize the (b) Only two
use of Hindi or any other official (c) All three
language for judgments, decrees, or (d) None

orders passed by the High Courts in the

59. Consider the following statements regarding
corresponding states. the Producer Price Index (PPI):
3. Laws, rules, and official documents at 1. PPI measures the average change in
both the Union and State levels must be prices received by producers for their
output over time.
in English unless Parliament decides
2. Unlike the wholesale Price Index, PPI
otherwise. includes cover services.
How many of the statements given above are 3. In India, PPI is currently published on a
correct? monthly basis by the National Statistics
Office.
(a) Only one
How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
57. Consider the following statements regarding
All India Judicial Service (AIJS): 60. Consider the following statements with
1. The Constitution of India under Article respect to the Inter-State Council and the
Zonal Councils:
312 provides for the establishment of All
1. The Inter-State Council is a
India Judicial Service. Constitutional body, whereas the Zonal
2. The Constitutional Amendment to Councils are statutory bodies.
2. The Prime Minister of India is the
initiate All India Judicial Service does
chairperson of both the Inter-State
not require state consultation. Council and the Zonal Councils.
3. All India Judicial Service (AIJS) does 3. The recommendations of the Inter-State
not include any post inferior to that of a Council on the inter-state disputes are
binding on States, whereas the
District Judge.
recommendations of the Zonal Councils
Which of the statements given above are are advisory in nature.
correct? Which of the following statements given
(a) 1 and 2 only above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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61. Consider the following statements about 63. Consider the following statements regarding

Subhas Chandra Bose's collaboration during the PM-WANI (Prime Minister Wi-Fi

World War II: Access Network Interface) scheme:

1. The scheme aims to provide broadband
1. He established the Free India Centre in
connectivity through Public Data Offices
Berlin and recruited Indian (Prisoners of
(PDOs) without licensing fees.
war) POWs for the Free India Legion.
2. The scheme is implemented by the
2. He met Adolf Hitler in 1942 to seek Ministry of Electronics and Information
German support against the British. Technology (MEITY).
3. He established the Provisional 3. PM-WANI is a component of the Bharat
Government of Free India (Azad Hind) Net project and is directly funded by the

in Singapore. government.
How many of the statements given above are
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None
64. Consider the following statements with

62. With reference to Central Bank Digital respect to Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
(AIF):
Currencies (CBDCs), consider the following
1. It aims at providing short term debt
statements:
financing facilities through interest
1. They are universally built on blockchain
subvention and credit guarantee.
technology to ensure transparency.
2. Agricultural Produce Marketing
2. They can facilitate cross-border Committees (APMCs) are eligible
transactions without relying on beneficiaries to utilize Agriculture
traditional systems like SWIFT. Infrastructure Fund.

3. China was the first country to officially 3. It is a central sector scheme under the
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’
launch a CBDC.
Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
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65. Consider the following statements about the 68. Consider the following statement with
Revolt of Dewan Velu Thambi (1808-1809): respect to forest cover:
1. The interference of British resident in 1. National Forest Policy (NFP) 1988
Travancore’s internal matters played a envisages that 33% of the geographical
role in causing the revolt. area should be under forest or tree cover.
2. Kundara Proclamation was issued by 2. At present, no Indian states/UTs have
Dewan Velu Thambi udring this revolt. above 33 percent of the geographical
3. The state of Travancore had signed a area under forest cover.
treaty of Subsidiary alliance with the Which of the statements given above is/are
British before the revolt. correct?
How many of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
69. With reference to the Electrojet Zeeman
Imaging Explorer (EZIE), consider the
66. With reference to the fishing cats, consider
following statements:
the following statements:
1. It is a European Space Agency mission
1. The fishing cat is the state animal of
to image the magnetic fingerprint of the
West Bengal.
auroral electrojets.
2. It is listed as criticaly endangered in the
2. Electrojets are low-altitude currents
IUCN Red List.
creating the largest ground magnetic
3. World's first Fishing cat census is done
disturbance in the Earth's environment.
at Ranthambore tiger reserve.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Consider the following statements regarding 70. Which of the following travelers gave not
the implications of the 44th Amendment Act only an account of the military discipline
on the right to property: and governance, but also a detailed physical
1. The aggrieved individual no longer description of the emperor Sri
enjoys the right to move the Supreme Krishnadevaraya?
Court and High Court under Article 32 (a) Domingo Paes
and Article 226, respectively. (b) Francois Bernier
2. After it, the individual’s right to property (c) Al-Biruni
is no longer a guarantee against the (d) Nicolo de Conti
Parliament in respect of any
compensation for loss of such property. 71. The Trends in World Military Expenditure,
Which of the following statements given 2023 Report was released by:
above is/are correct? (a) Stockholm International Peace Research
(a) 1 only Institute (SIPRI)
(b) 2 only (b) UN Securty Council
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Fraser Institute
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) RAND Corporation
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
72. Consider the following statements regarding 75. Consider the following statements about
UPI Circle, which was recently launched by International Solar Alliance (ISA):
NPCI: 1. ISA is a global initiative launched in
1. UPI Circle allows a primary user to 2015 by India and France.
delegate transaction authority from their 2. All member states of the United Nations
UPI account to a secondary user. are eligible to join the ISA.
2. In UPI Circle, the primary user must 3. ISA is the first international
authenticate every transaction initiated intergovernmental organisation to be
by the secondary user. headquartered in India.
3. The secondary user must have a Bank Which of the statements given above are
account linked on UPI. correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All three
(d) None 76. Consider the following statements regarding
Parliamentary Secretariat:
73. Consider the following statements: 1. Each House of the Parliament in India
1. Ganges River Dolphins has a distinct secretarial staff as per
2. Asian Elephants Article 98 of the Constitution.
3. Snow Leopards 2. The recruitment and conditions of
India is home to more than half of the global service for both Lok Sabha and Rajya
population of which of the above species? Sabha Secretariats are governed by a law
(a) Only one passed by Parliament.
(b) Only two 3. Secretary-Generals of both houses
(c) All three occupy the same rank as the Union
(d) None Cabinet Secretary in the table of
precedence.
74. Consider the following statements about How many of the above statements are
Indian Rhinoceros: correct?
1. Indian rhinos are known for their single (a) Only one
horn and thick, armor-like skin. (b) Only two
2. Indian rhinos are the largest of the three (c) All three
Asian species. (d) None
3. Assam is collectively home to 80% of
the global population of Indian rhino. 77. The phenomenon of mirage observed in
Which of the statements given above is/ are deserts is primarily due to:
correct? (a) Simple reflection of light
(a) 3 only (b) Bending of light due to atmospheric
(b) 1 and 3 only layers
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) Scattering of light
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
78. Which of the following places are famous 81. Which of the following best describes the
for having Pallava style temples? “South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA)” recently
1. Mandagappattu observed by NASA?
(a) A region of intensified volcanic activity
2. Mahendravadi
beneath the Atlantic Ocean affecting
3. Tiruchirapalli
marine ecosystems.
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) A region of weakening magnetic field
given below. strength causing increased radiation
(a) 1, 2 and 3 risks to satellites and spacecraft.
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) A vast area of ocean currents altering
(c) 1 and 3 only marine biodiversity patterns in the
(d) 1 and 2 only Atlantic Ocean.
(d) An atmospheric phenomenon causing
sudden changes in weather patterns over
79. Consider the following statements about
the southern hemisphere.
Important Marine Mammal Areas (IMMAs):
1. They are recognized by International 82. Consider the following statements regarding
Union for Conservation of Nature the Faizpur Session of the Indian National
(IUCN). Congress (1936):
2. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve 1. Tej Bahadur Sapru was the President of
the session.
is identified as a Marine Mammal
2. A resolution was passed condemning
Protected Area.
Japanese aggression on China and Italian
Which of the statements given above is/are
aggression on Abyssinia.
correct? 3. The Congress demanded the formation
(a) 1 only of a Constituent Assembly to frame a
(b) 2 only constitution of their own.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
80. With reference to Prime Minister's Office
(c) 2 and 3 only
(PMO), consider the following statements:
(d) 3 only
1. It is a constitutional body and enjoys the
status of a government department. 83. Consider the following:
2. It oversees the implementation of 1. Trends in capital flows
policies and programmes by various 2. Level of interest rates
government departments and ministries. 3. Movement in crude prices
4. Current account deficit
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above factors are likely to
correct?
influence the exchange rate of the INR?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four
16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
84. Which of the following is/are the objectives 87. Consider the following pairs:
of Atal Jyoti Yojana? Ocean Associated Warm/Cold
1. To reduce the cost of solar power Currents Ocean Gyres Currents

generation in the country 1. Kuroshio North Pacific Warm

Current Gyre Current
To provide solar street lighting systems
2. Gulf North Atlantic Warm
for public use
Stream Gyre Current
2. To develop the skills of youth in the
3. Agulhas Indian Ocean Cold
renewable energy sector Current Gyre Current
3. To promote the use of electric energy in 4. Benguela South Atlantic Cold
urban areas Current Gyre Current
Select the correct answer using the code In how many of the above rows is the given
given below. information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(a) 2 only
(b) Only two
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three
(c) 1 only (d) All four
(d) 2 and 4 only
88. Which one of the following phenomena best
85. In the context of ancient India. the terms describes the term “Grasshopper effect”?
(a) Moving of persistent organic pollutants
palliccanda, kavimurruttu and vettaperu
(POPs) across vast distances from the
refer to
southern hemisphere to the northern
(a) coins hemisphere.
(b) tax free villages (b) Significant increase in temperature of
(c) revenue officials Arctic region than the global average.
(d) religious sects (c) Decline in population of grasshopper
due to changes in temperature and
precipitation patterns.
86. Consider the following statements about the
(d) Impact of climate change on planktons
economic and agrarian system during the in which a plankton bloom is replaced
Gupta period: by a few surviving planktons.
1. The King's income from royal lands and
forests was considered as his personal 89. With reference to the Fog, consider the
income. following statements:
1. Fog is more common in tropical regions
2. Land under cultivation was usually
than in temperate zones.
called Kshetra, whereas lands not under 2. Radiation fog forms when warm, moist
cultivation were called Khila or air passes over a cool surface.
Aprahata. 3. Fog formation typically requires low
Which of the statements given above is/are relative humidity of air mass.
correct? How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
90. Osmolytes are small molecules that: 93. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Cause proteins to misfold, leading to the judicial oversight on the Directorate of
Enforcement (ED) and the Central Bureau of
cellular stress
Investigation (CBI) in India
(b) Help stabilize proteins and maintain 1. The ED has the power to arrest
their proper function under stress individuals for violations under the

(c) Accelerate the degradation of cellular PMLA and FEMA without a formal FIR.
2. Both the Supreme Court and High
proteins
Courts can authorize CBI investigations
(d) Prevent cells from surviving under without requiring state consent.
extreme conditions Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
91. With reference to the Banni Grasslands,
(b) 2 only
consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is a largest tracts of arid grasslands in (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Kachchh district.
94. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary is located
the Kurdistan Region:
here. 1. The Tigris and Greater Zab Rivers flow
3. It is home to the Maldhari tribes. through this region, supporting
agriculture and settlements.
How many of the statements given above are
2. The Hindu Kush mountain range
correct? dominates the topography of this region.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two correct?
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
92. Consider the following:
95. Consider the following statements about
1. Special drawing rights (SDRs)
Muhammad Gawan of Bahmani Kingdom :
2. Gold 1. He was the Prime Minister under the
3. Foreign currency assets Bahmani ruler Muhammad Shah III.

Arrange the above-given assets in the correct 2. He established the Madrasa at Bidar as a
major center of learning.
ascending order of their share in India's
3. He captured Goa from Vijayanagara.
foreign exchange reserves. How many of the statements given above are
(a) 3-2-1 correct?
(a) Only one
(b) 2-3-1
(b) Only two
(c) 2-1-3
(c) All three
(d) 1-2-3 (d) None
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96. Which of the following substances will turn 99. Consider the following pairs:
red litmus blue? Book on Music Author
(a) Vinegar 1. Brihaddeshi : Lochan Kavi
(b) Lemon juice
2. Raag Tarangini : Matanga Muni
(c) Baking soda solution
3. Swaramela Kalanidhi : Ramamatya
(d) Hydrochloric acid
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
97. Ecotypes refers to the species having a wide matched?
range of distribution which evolve (a) 3 only
genetically adapted local populations. In this (b) 1 and 2 only
context, consider the following statements
(c) 1, 2 and 3
with reference to Ecotypes:
(d) 1 and 3 only
1. Ecotypes differ from each other on the
basis of morphological and
physiological characters. 100. Recently, during a tubewell drilling
2. Different ecotypes of a species are inter- operation in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, water
fertile. began gushing out uncontrollably from the
Which of the statements given above is/are ground. Which geological phenomenon best
correct?
explains this incident?
(a) 1 only
(a) Formation of a sinkhole
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Activation of an artesian aquifer
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Occurrence of a geyser
(d) Subsurface volcanic activity
98. Consider the following pairs:
Sea Location
1. Kara Sea : Arctic Ocean
2. Weddell Sea : South Pacific Ocean
3. Aegean Sea : South Atlantic Ocean
4. Barents Sea : Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

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 o

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4731 (2025)

Q 1.C
• Homeostasis in Ecosystem:
o In ecology, homeostasis is the tendency for a biological system to resist changes. Ecosystems can
maintain their state of equilibrium. They can regulate their own species' structure and functional
processes. This capacity of the ecosystem of self-regulation is known as homeostasis. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
 For example, in a pond ecosystem, if the population of zooplankton increases, they consume
much phytoplankton, and as a result, food would become scarce for zooplank-ton. When the
number of zooplankton is reduced because of starvation, the phytoplankton population increases.
After some time, the population size of zooplankton also in-creases, and this process continues at
all the trophic levels of the food chain.
 Cooling one's body through sweating processes. Organisms try to maintain the constancy of their
internal environment despite varying external environmental conditions that tend to upset their
homeostasis.
o In a homeostatic system, a negative feedback mechanism (an increase in one factor causes a decrease
in another, and vice versa) induced by the limiting resource here, its scarcity of food) is responsible
for maintaining stability in an ecosystem. However, the homeostatic capacity of ecosystems is not
unlimited as well as not everything in an ecosystem is always well-regulated.
o Some organisms can maintain homeostasis by physiological means (sweating to cool the body,
increase in metabolism to keep the body warm, etc.), and sometimes by behavioural means (animals
migrating to under tree shade to avoid the summer heat), which ensure constant body temperature,
constant osmotic concentration, etc.
 All birds and mammals and a very few lower vertebrate and invertebrate species are indeed
capable of such regulation (thermoregulation and osmoregulation). Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 2.D
• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 introduced Part IXB in the Constitution (Articles
243ZH to 243ZT) to provide a constitutional framework for cooperative societies in India.
• This amendment aimed to promote the voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control,
and professional management of cooperatives. It also empowered states to enact laws for the governance
of cooperative societies while ensuring their democratic and autonomous functioning.
• Article 243ZL deals with the supersession and suspension of the Board of a cooperative society. Key
provisions include:
• Supersession of Board: If the Board of a cooperative society is superseded or dissolved before
completing its tenure, fresh elections must be conducted within six months from the date of supersession
or dissolution.
• The constitution does not mention if the newly elected Board will serve for the full term of the
Board or just the remainder of the original tenure. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Suspension of Board: In case of suspension, the affairs of the cooperative society are managed by an
administrator, provisions of which are decided by the state legislature by law. However, this
committee or administrator cannot function for more than six months.
• The constitution doesn't mention administrators being directly appointed by the state government.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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Q 3.A
• Deccan painting or Deccani painting is the form of Indian miniature painting produced in the Deccan
region of Central India, in the various Muslim capitals of the Deccan sultanates that emerged from the
break-up of the Bahmani Sultanate by 1520. These were Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and
Berar.
• In Bijapur, painting was patronised by Ali Adil Shah I (1558-80 A.D.) and his successor Ibrahim II (1580-
1627 A.D.). An encyclopaedia known as the Najum-al-ulum (Stars of Sciences), preserved in the
Chester Beatty Library, Dublin, was illustrated in 1570 A.D. in the reign of Ali Adil Shah I
o The ladies appearing in the illustrations are tall and slender and are wearing the South Indian dress.
One of the miniatures illustrated here shows the “Throne of Prosperity”. There is influence of the
Lepakshi mural painting on the female types.
• Ibrahim II (1580-1627 A.D.) was a musician and author of a book, the Naurasnama., on the subject.
It is believed that a number of the Ragamala paintings were commissioned in various museums and
private collections. A few contemporary portraits of Ibrahim II are also available in several museums.
• Lady with the Myna Bird belongs to the Golconda school of Deccan school of painting, not Bijapur.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o Golconda paintings are refined, delicate, and Persian-influenced, distinct from Bijapur’s bold and
dynamic style.
• Abul Hasan, Mansur and Bishan Das are the famous painters of Mughal Emperor Jahangir
Court.

Q 4.B
• The 25th Amendment Act of 1971 amended Article 31C to curtail the right to property and gave primacy
to the Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) over Fundamental Rights under Articles 14, 19, and 31.
This amendment was passed to nullify the Supreme Court’s judgement in the Golaknath Case. On the
other hand, the 24th Amendment Act was related to amendments in Articles 13 and 368. Hence, pair 1 is
not correct.
• The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law and added the Tenth Schedule to
the Constitution. It had no connection with the Eighth Schedule, which deals with the recognised
languages of India. The Eighth Schedule is presented in the original Constitution, and the 71st and 92nd
Amendments are connected to the Eighth Schedule. Hence, pair 2 is not correct.
• The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 froze the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha and
State Assemblies based on the 1971 until the first Census after 2026. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
• The 93rd Amendment Act of 2005 introduced reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in
educational institutions. It amended Article 15(5), allowing reservation in admission to private educational
institutions, except minority institutions. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Q 5.B
• Rammat is a folk theatre form of Rajasthan, predominantly performed in the western part of the
state.
o It is a combination of dance, drama, and music with themes revolving around mythological stories,
historical legends, and social issues.
o It is performed during religious festivals and fairs, particularly in rural Rajasthan.
o Costumes, dialogues, and energetic performances are key elements of Rammat.
o Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Villu Pattu (literally meaning "Bow Song") is a unique musical storytelling tradition from Tamil
Nadu.
o The name is derived from the primary instrument used—Villu (a large bow-like string instrument),
which is played rhythmically to accompany the narration.
o The performance is led by a main singer (narrator) and accompanied by a group of supporting artists
who provide chorus and commentary.
o Villu Pattu narrates stories from epics like the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and regional folklore, often
with a moral or religious lesson.
o Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Karyala is a folk theatre form of Himachal Pradesh, particularly popular in the Kangra, Mandi,
and Solan regions.
o It is humorous and satirical, often dealing with social and political issues, making it a powerful
medium of public discourse.

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 o The performances take place during Dussehra, Diwali, and village fairs.
o It is performed when agricultural prosperity is achieved in the region or personal wishes are fulfilled.
o Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 6.B
• Introduction
o The Darién Gap is a dense, undeveloped tropical jungle region connecting South America and Central
America, specifically Panama and Colombia. It is one of the most challenging and dangerous
terrains in the world due to its harsh geography, lack of roads, and the presence of armed groups and
criminal organizations. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
o The region has been frequently in the news due to its role in migration, with thousands of people
attempting to cross it each year to reach North America, particularly the United States.
• Where is the Darién Gap Located?
o The Darién Gap forms a natural land bridge between South America and Central America.
o It lies between Panama (North) and Colombia (South), covering approximately 160 km (100
miles) of dense jungle.
o It is the only missing link in the Pan-American Highway, which otherwise runs from Alaska to
Argentina.
• Why is it Called a “Gap”?
o The Pan-American Highway, which is supposed to connect the entire American continent, is
interrupted in this region due to the challenging landscape and environmental concerns. This break in
the highway is known as the Darién Gap.

Q 7.B
• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve stretched along the Western Himalayas, from Ladakh to Kinnaur, in
Himachal Pradesh. Declared a biosphere reserve in 2009, it comprises the Pin Valley National Park and
its surroundings, Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary, Sarchu and Chandratal. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is home to Tibetan antelopes, along with other rare and endangered
species like the snow leopard and Himalayan wolf. Tibetan antelopes inhabit an area of approximately
1,600 km across the Tibetan Plateau with its eastern limit near Ngoring Hu (China) and the western
limit in Ladakh, India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Nubra, Changthang, Zanskar, and Suru regions, including the Suru River, are located within
this bioshpere reserve. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Q 8.D
• The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas:
o This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the
east. It is drained by two major river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga.
o Tributaries of the Indus include the river Ravi, the Beas, and the Satluj, and the tributaries of Ganga
flowing through this region include the Yamuna and the Ghaghara.
o The northernmost part of the Himachal Himalayas is an extension of the Ladakh cold desert, which
lies in the Spiti subdivision of district Lahul and Spiti.
o All three ranges of Himalayas are also prominent in this section. These are the Great Himalayan
range, the Lesser Himalayas (which is locally known as Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and
Nagtibha in Uttarakhand), and the Shiwalik range from the North to the South.
o The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the
‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Hence statement 4 is not correct.
o In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotias. These are nomadic
groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer grasslands in the higher reaches) during the summer
months and return to the valleys during winter. The famous ‘Valley of Flowers’ is also situated in
this region (Uttarakhand). Dhaoladhar range is in Himachal Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
o This part also contains places of pilgrimage, such as Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, Badrinath, and
Hemkund Sahib. The region is also known for its five famous Prayags (river confluences).
• The Arunachal Himalayas:
o These extend from the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to the Diphu Pass in the east. The general
direction of the mountain range is from southwest to northeast. Some of the important mountain peaks
of the region are Kangtu and Namcha Barwa. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o These ranges are dissected by fast-flowing rivers from the north to the south, forming deep gorges.
The Brahmaputra flows through a deep gorge after crossing Namcha Barwa. Some of the important
rivers are the Kameng, the Subansiri, the Dihang, the Dibang, and the Lohit. These are perennial with
the high rate of fall, thus, having the highest hydroelectric power potential in the country.
o An important aspect of the Arunachal Himalayas is the numerous ethnic tribal communities inhabiting
in these areas. Some of the prominent ones from west to east are the Monpa, Abor, Mishmi, Nyishi,
and Nagas. Due to rugged topography, the inter-valley transportation linkages are nominal. Hence,
most of the interactions are carried through the Duar region along the Arunachal-Assam border.
• The Eastern Hills and Mountains:
o These are part of the Himalayan mountain system having their general alignment from the north to the
south direction. They are known by different local names. In the north, they are known as Patkai
Bum, Naga Hills, the Manipur Hills, and in the south Mizo or Lushai Hills. These are low hills,
inhabited by numerous tribal groups practicing Jhum cultivation. Most of these ranges are separated
from each other by numerous small rivers. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Q 9.A
• The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram, according to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution.
• It empowers the Governor to create Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Autonomous
Regional Councils (ARCs) in these four states.
• Under Paragraph 3 of the Sixth Schedule, Autonomous District Councils have legislative powers
over subjects such as land, forests (excluding reserved forests), inheritance, and social customs, but
these laws require the assent of the Governor before coming into force.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct.

Q 10.B
• Allopatric speciation :
o Speciation, the process by which new species arise from existing ones, is a fundamental concept in
evolutionary biology. Allopatric speciation is one of the most common modes of speciation,
occurring when a population of organisms becomes separated into two or more geographically
isolated groups. Over time, these isolated populations evolve independently, accumulating genetic
differences that eventually prevent them from interbreeding if they come back into contact. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
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 • Mechanism of Allopatric Speciation:
o The primary mechanism of allopatric speciation is the physical separation of a population into
different, isolated regions. This separation can result from various factors, including the formation of
geographical barriers such as mountains, rivers, or other environmental features that prevent the
gene flow between the isolated groups. The process unfolds as follows:
 Geographical Isolation: A physical barrier arises, dividing a population into two or more
isolated groups. This separation inhibits the exchange of genetic material between the
populations.
 Independent Evolution: Once separated, each population undergoes independent evolutionary
changes. The isolated groups experience distinct environmental pressures, leading to genetic
divergence over time.
 Accumulation of Genetic Differences: The lack of gene flow between the isolated populations
allows for the accumulation of genetic differences. Mutations, genetic drift, and natural selection
act independently in each group, contributing to the development of unique genetic traits.
 Reproductive Barriers: Over time, as genetic differences accumulate, reproductive barriers
emerge. These barriers can be pre-zygotic (before fertilization) or post-zygotic (after fertilization),
preventing successful interbreeding between the populations.
 Speciation: Eventually, the genetic differences become significant enough that the isolated
populations are considered distinct species. If, after a period of separation, individuals from the
two populations are brought back into contact and cannot produce viable, fertile offspring, they
are considered reproductively isolated species.

Q 11.A
• BioE3 Policy
o Context: Cabinet recently approves BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and
Employment) Policy.
o Aim:
 Foster High Performance Biomanufacturing. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
 High Performance Biomanufacturing
o Ability to:
 Produce a range of products, from medicine to materials
 Address farming and food challenges
 Promote the manufacturing of bio-based products through advanced biotechnological processes
o Ministry: Ministry of Science & Technology
o Focusing Sectors
 High value bio-based chemicals
 Biopolymers & enzymes
 Smart proteins & functional foods
 Precision biotherapeutics
 Climate resilient agriculture
 Carbon capture & its utilization
 Marine and space research
o Features
 Innovation-driven support for R&D and entrepreneurship across thematic sectors
 Establishment of Biomanufacturing & Bio-AI hubs and Biofoundry to accelerate technology
development and commercialization
 Prioritization of regenerative bioeconomy models and green growth
 Expansion of India’s skilled workforce and increase in job creation

Q 12.A
• Edge effects refer to the changes in population or community structures that occur at the boundary
of two habitats. Areas with small habitat fragments exhibit especially pronounced edge effects that may
extend throughout the range. As the edge effects increase, the boundary habitat allows for greater
biodiversity. Those species which occur primarily or most abundantly in the ecotones are called
"edge" species. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Although ecotones support an increase in density for some species, other species need interior habitat
blocks to survive and show avoidance or poor survival on edges.

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 • An increase in anthropogenic fragmentation of landscapes creates more ecotones, which may result in an
increased occurrence of edge species while simultaneously resulting in increased negative effects for
interior species.

Q 13.A
• Introduction
o The concept of Sachetisation of Mutual Funds has recently been in the news, with regulatory bodies
and mutual fund houses exploring ways to make investment products more accessible to retail
investors. This term is inspired by the broader concept of sachetisation in the consumer goods
industry, where products are made available in small, affordable units to increase penetration in
lower-income segments.
o In the financial sector, sachetisation refers to the process of breaking down investment products into
smaller units, enabling micro-investments and expanding retail participation in financial markets.
• What is Sachetisation of Mutual Funds?
o Sachetisation of Mutual Funds involves breaking down mutual fund units into smaller
denominations, making them affordable for a larger section of the population, particularly
small and first-time investors. It allows investors to buy fractional units of mutual funds,
significantly lowering the minimum investment barrier. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o This approach is aligned with India’s financial inclusion agenda, aiming to bring more retail investors
into the capital markets by enabling them to start with small-ticket investments.
• Key Features of Sachetisation of Mutual Funds
o 1. Low Minimum Investment
 Investors can start with a minimal amount, making it easier for those with limited savings to
participate in the mutual fund market.
o 2. Encourages Financial Inclusion
 Similar to sachetisation in FMCG (Fast-Moving Consumer Goods), this model helps investors
who may not have the financial means to make large lump-sum investments.
o 3. Promotes Systematic Investment Planning (SIP)
 Allows individuals to invest in mutual funds in micro-amounts, encouraging a culture of
disciplined and regular investing.
o 4. Retail Market Expansion
 Helps asset management companies (AMCs) reach a larger base of customers who were
previously excluded due to high investment thresholds.

Q 14.D
• The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX to the Indian Constitution, providing constitutional status
to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI).
• Article 243D provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every panchayat in proportions of their
population. Reservation in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for SCs and STs was originally
introduced for 10 years but has been extended multiple times. However, reservation in panchayats (Article
243D) has no time limit in the Constitution and remains until amended. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Article 243D(3) states that one-third of the total number of seats in Panchayats, including those reserved
for SCs and STs shall be reserved for women. This means that women’s reservation applies within the
already reserved seats for SCs and STs as well as general seats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Article 243D(6) provides that state legislature have the power to reserve seats for backward classes
(OBCs) in Panchayats if they choose to do so. Unlike ST/ST reservations, OBC reservations are optional
and depend on state governments. Some of the states like Tamil Nadu have implemented it. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.

Q 15.A
• Mammatus clouds:
o Mammatus clouds, named after the Latin word “mamma” meaning “udder” or “breast,” are distinctive
cloud formations characterized by their pouch-like, bulging undersides. These formations are
typically associated with the anvil clouds of severe thunderstorms, particularly cumulonimbus
clouds. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Contrary to common cloud formation processes that involve rising warm air, Mammatus clouds
form due to descending cold air. As cold air sinks from the anvil of a cumulonimbus cloud, it
creates pockets of cooler air that descend into warmer air below, leading to the characteristic pouch-
like structures. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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 o While their dramatic appearance may suggest severe weather, Mammatus clouds themselves are not
harbingers of impending storms. Instead, they often appear after the most intense phase of a
thunderstorm has passed. However, their presence indicates a turbulent atmosphere and can be
associated with severe weather conditions.
o These clouds can persist for extended periods and are often illuminated in striking colors during
sunrise or sunset, enhancing their visual prominence. Their unique formation and association with
turbulent weather patterns make them a subject of interest in meteorological studies.

Q 16.B
• India Employment Report 2024:
o The Indian government has raised objections to the India Employment Report 2024, jointly released
by the International Labour Organization (ILO) and the Institute for Human Development
(IHD). The government’s concerns center on perceived inconsistencies in data interpretation and the
omission of certain employment sectors. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Key Points of Contention:
o 1. Data Inconsistencies: The government disputes the report’s findings, particularly the claim that
83% of the unemployed are youth. Officials argue that this statistic does not align with national data
sources and may misrepresent the employment scenario.
o 2. Omission of Gig and Platform Workers: The report has been criticized for not accounting for the
growing number of gig and platform workers in India. The government believes that excluding this
segment provides an incomplete picture of the current employment landscape.
o 3. International Mobility Overlooked: Concerns have been raised about the report’s failure to
consider international labor mobility, which plays a significant role in employment trends and
remittances in India.

Q 17.B
• The Dark Web:
o The dark web is a hidden part of the internet that is not indexed by traditional search engines like
Google or Bing.
o It requires special browsers such as Tor (The Onion Router) to access.
o The dark web offers anonymity and privacy through encryption and multiple layers of rerouting,
making it attractive for both legitimate and illegal activities.
o While the dark web is often associated with illegal markets and hacking forums, it is also used for
secure communication, whistleblowing, and accessing censored information.
• Candle:
o Candle is a lightweight and ad-free dark web search engine designed to provide a distraction-free
environment.
o It does not track user activity or store search history, ensuring higher user privacy.
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 • Not Evil:
o Not Evil is one of the most popular dark web search engines.
o It has a vast index of "clean" .onion sites that don’t contain illegal content.
o It does not track user queries or gather personal information, maintaining strong user anonymity.
o Operates without ads, which reduces the risk of exposure to malicious links.
• Ahmia:
o Ahmia works with both the surface web and the dark web.
o It allows users to search for .onion URLs through its surface web interface, but access requires using
the Tor browser.
o Ahmia aims to make dark web browsing safer by excluding malicious or fake sites.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 18.B
• A political party is recognized as a national party if it meets any of the three conditions outlined in
the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968:
• First, it must receive at least six percent of the votes cast in four or more states in Lok Sabha or assembly
elections, and it must also have at least four Lok Sabha members.
• Second, it holds at least two percent of the Lok Sabha seats and has candidates from at least three states.
• Third, at least four states recognize it as a state party.
• The country now has six national parties: Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Congress, Bahujan Samaj Party
(BSP), Communist Party of India (CPI), National People’s Party (NPP) and AAP.
• Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) grants, revokes, or modifies the National Party status
based on election performance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• If a party is granted national status, it has specific benefits and advantages, such as reserved party
symbols, and its candidates get more coverage on television and radio during elections. The right to use a
reserved symbol is granted to a national party for all elections held throughout the country. This emblem
is unique to the party and may not be used by anyone else. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• National Party status is not permanent; a party can lose its recognition if it fails to meet the
required criteria in subsequent elections. E.g. Trinamool Congress lost its National Party status in
2023. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Q 19.A
• The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24:
o The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24, released by the Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), provides crucial insights into spending
patterns, rural-urban disparities, and changing consumption behaviors in India. This survey is
particularly significant as it offers a comprehensive assessment of household expenditures across
different income groups and regions.
• Key Findings of the Survey
o Increase in Rural and Urban Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE)
 The MPCE in rural India increased to ₹4,122 in 2023-24, marking a 9.3% rise from ₹3,773 in
2022-23.
 In urban areas, MPCE rose to ₹6,996, showing an 8.3% increase from ₹6,459 in 2022-23.
 Rural MPCE grew at a faster rate than urban MPCE, narrowing the expenditure gap
between rural and urban households. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Narrowing of the Rural-Urban Consumption Gap
 The difference in average MPCE between rural and urban households decreased from 71.2% in
2022-23 to 69.7% in 2023-24.
 In comparison, the gap was much wider at 83.9% in 2011-12, reflecting significant
improvement in rural spending over time. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Food vs. Non-Food Expenditure Trends
 The share of food expenditure in the total consumption basket rose for both rural (47.04%) and
urban (39.68%) households in 2023-24.
 Processed food and beverages accounted for the highest share of food expenditure, while
spending on sugar and salt declined over the years.

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  In non-food categories, spending on medical care, rent, education, and durable goods witnessed
fluctuations across income groups.
o Regional Disparities in Consumption Expenditure
 Higher-than-average MPCE was recorded in western, northern, and southern states such as
Maharashtra, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka, Haryana, Gujarat, and Andhra
Pradesh.
 Lower-than-average MPCE was noted in eastern and central states, including West Bengal, Bihar,
Assam, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh.
 Sikkim recorded the highest MPCE in both rural and urban areas, while Chhattisgarh had the
lowest.
o Income-Based Consumption Trends
 The bottom 5% of the rural and urban population witnessed the highest percentage increase in
MPCE.
 Surprisingly, the top 5% of earners saw a decline in consumption spending in 2023-24 compared
to 2022-23.
 The gap in MPCE between the richest and poorest households narrowed over the years.

Q 20.D
• Introduction
o UPI 123Pay is an innovative digital payment solution introduced by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions on feature
phones. Unlike traditional UPI, which requires an internet connection and a smartphone, UPI 123Pay
provides multiple offline payment methods, making digital transactions more inclusive for users
without smartphones or reliable internet connectivity.
• Supported Payment Methods Under UPI 123Pay
o UPI 123Pay supports the following four key methods to enable seamless transactions for feature
phone users:
 Interactive Voice Response (IVR) Numbers
✓ Users can call a pre-defined IVR number, follow voice-based instructions, and authenticate
transactions using a UPI PIN.
✓ This method is particularly useful for users unfamiliar with digital payments but comfortable
with telephonic instructions. Hence option 1 is correct.
 Missed Call-Based Payments
✓ Users can initiate a transaction by giving a missed call to a specified number linked to the
merchant.
✓ The system automatically processes the payment once the user confirms it via an incoming
call or SMS authentication.
✓ This method is useful for making quick payments without requiring any app installation.
Hence option 2 is correct.
 OEM-Embedded Applications (Feature Phone Apps)
✓ Certain Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) integrate UPI-enabled apps into feature
phones, allowing users to perform transactions through simple menu-based navigation.
✓ These apps provide a graphical interface for easier UPI transactions, including balance
inquiries, fund transfers, and merchant payments. Hence option 3 is correct.
 Sound-Based Payment Technology
✓ This method enables payments using ultrasonic sound waves transmitted via speakers to
securely process transactions without needing the internet.
✓ The feature is particularly useful for proximity-based merchant transactions, allowing users to
pay by simply bringing their phone near the payment terminal. Hence option 4 is correct.
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Q 21.B

• The Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities (GlobE

Network) is an initiative by the UNODC, launched in 2021. It aims to enhance cross-border cooperation
by connecting anti-corruption agencies worldwide, promoting information exchange, and strengthening
efforts to combat corruption through collaboration and shared expertise.
• India is a member of the Global Operational Network of Anti-Corruption Law Enforcement Authorities
(GlobE Network).
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 22.B
• The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act) is the principal
legislation governing the mining sector in India. It regulates the exploration, development, and
regulation of mines and minerals, ensuring sustainable mining practices and equitable distribution of
mineral resources.
• The MMDR Act classifies minerals into: Major minerals e.g. iron ore, bauxite, gold, etc. (Regulated
by the central government), and Minor minerals e.g., sand, marble, granite, etc. (Regulated by the
state governments).
• The MMDR Act, 1957, was amended in 2015 to introduce the auction process for granting mining
leases. However, this applies only to major minerals and not to minor minerals.
• Section 10B of the MMDR Act mandates the auction process for granting mining leases for major
minerals. Minor minerals are governed by state governments and their lease allocation methods
vary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Section 9B of the MMDR Act, introduced through the 2015 amendment, mandates the
establishment of District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) in any district affected by mining activities.
• The primary objective of DMFs is to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by
mining-related operations. Funds collected by DMFs are used for infrastructure development, healthcare,
education, and other welfare activities in mining-affected areas.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Section 9C of the MMDR Act, introduced through the 2015 amendment, provides for the
establishment of the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET). NMET is funded through a 2%
levy on the royalty paid by holders of mining leases. The funds are used to promote regional and
detailed mineral exploration in the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.

Q 23.D
• Article 249 empowers Parliament to make laws on subjects in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution by a special majority, declaring that it is necessary to do so in the national interest.
• The removal of the Vice President (Article 67(b)) requires a resolution passed by a majority of "all the
then members" of the Rajya Sabha. It is commonly referred to as the effective majority, which is 50% of
the total membership, excluding vacant seats. However, Article 249 requires only a "two-thirds majority
of the members present and voting" in the Rajya Sabha. These two types of majorities are different from
each other. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The resolution under Article 249 remains valid for one year and can be extended further by another
resolution. However, any law made under this provision remains valid even after the resolution expires,
but it does not remain in force in perpetuity. The law ceases to exist six months after the resolution's
expiration. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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 • When Parliament makes a law on a State List subject under Article 249, it does not completely take away
the power of the State Legislation. The State Legislature can still legislate on the same subject, but its law
will be subject to the law made by Parliament. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 24.A
• National Science Day:
o National Science Day is celebrated every year on 28th February to commemorate the discovery of
the ‘Raman Effect’ by Sir C.V. Raman in 1928 at the Indian Association for the Cultivation of
Science, Kolkata. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 for this discovery.
o The theme for National Science Day 2025 is "Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership
in Science & Innovation for Viksit Bharat." Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• About National Science Day:
o Established: First celebrated on February 28, 1987.
o Objective:
 To spread awareness about the significance of science in daily life.
 To highlight India's achievements in science and technology.
 To inspire young minds to take up scientific research.
o Significance of Raman Effect:
 The Raman Effect explains the scattering of light when it passes through a transparent medium,
leading to a change in the wavelength of the scattered light.
 This discovery significantly contributed to the field of spectroscopy.

Q 25.C
• Artificial photosynthesis mimics natural photosynthesis to store solar energy into energy-rich chemical
fuels. It is a promising method for providing a carbon-neutral, renewable, and scalable energy source.
Unlike regular photosynthesis, which produces carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water,
artificial photosynthesis could produce ethanol, methane, or other fuels. Though it has a long way to
go before it can produce energy on a commercial scale, chemists at the University of Chicago show an
innovative new system for artificial photosynthesis that is more productive than previous artificial systems
by an order of magnitude. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In Artificial Photosynthesis, solar energy is used to produce hydrogen from water. By using this
hydrogen and the CO₂ emitted from factories and power plants to produce olefin, a large shift will be
made to a CO₂ absorption process from chemical product production processes that previously emitted
CO₂. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 26.C
• Lake-Effect Snow:
o Lake-effect snow is a meteorological phenomenon that occurs when cold air passes over large,
relatively warm water bodies, leading to intense, localized snowfall. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o This event is most commonly observed near large lakes such as the Great Lakes in North
America, particularly during the late fall and winter seasons. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
o Recently, Lake-Effect Snow has been in the news due to severe snowstorms in parts of the United
States and Canada, where such occurrences have caused travel disruptions, power outages, and
record-breaking snowfall levels.
• What is Lake-Effect Snow?
o Lake-effect snow occurs when cold, dry air masses, typically from Arctic regions, move over
large, unfrozen lakes. As the cold air passes over the warmer water surface, the following process
occurs:
o Step-by-Step Formation Process
 Heat and Moisture Transfer – The warm lake water warms and humidifies the cold air, increasing
its moisture content.
 Rising Air and Cloud Formation – The now warmer and more humid air rises, condenses, and
forms cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.
 Snowfall Development – As the moist air cools rapidly, it produces narrow bands of heavy
snowfall on the leeward (downwind) side of the lake.

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  Localized Impact – The snowfall is often highly concentrated, meaning one area can receive
intense snowfall while a nearby area remains clear.
• Key Features of Lake-Effect Snow
o Occurs in late fall and winter when the lake is still warm compared to the overlying air.
o Commonly observed near large lakes, especially in North America, Japan, and Russia.
o Localized and intense, with snowfall rates of 2-3 inches per hour or more.
o Heavily dependent on wind direction, meaning some areas receive significantly more snow than
others just a few miles away.
o Can cause blizzards, reduced visibility, and hazardous road conditions.

Q 27.A
• Article 297 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that all resources in India's territorial waters,
continental shelf, and EEZ vest with the Union Government. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Based on the ‘model bill’ circulated by the Union Government in 1979, the coastal states/Union
Territories (UTs) have enacted their Marine Fishing Regulation Act (MFRA) for regulation and
management of fisheries within their territorial waters.
• Though Article 297 mentions "resources", the Supreme Court has clarified that fisheries are not
included within its scope, as fisheries are a State subject (Entry 21 of List II, Seventh Schedule).
Hence, Statement II is correct and it is the correct explanation of Statement I.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer

Q 28.B
• An inner Line Permit (ILP) is a travel document issued by the Government of India that allows an
Indian citizen to enter a protected area for a limited time. Indian citizens from outside those states
must obtain a permit before entering the protected state. The objective of ILP is to protect the indigenous
tribal culture and demographics of certain regions. The ILP system is governed by the Bengal Eastern
Frontier Regulation (BEFR), 1873, a colonial-era law. It was introduced by the British to restrict the
movement of outsiders in certain areas to protect their economic and commercial interests. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order of 1958, all regions located between the Inner Line and
the International Border of a State are designated as Protected Areas. Meanwhile, areas situated between
the Inner Line and the territory inhabited by indigenous tribes are classified as Restricted Areas.
• NRIs (Indians who are staying abroad for more than 6 months), PIO Card holders, and OCI holders
are not eligible for Inner Line Permit. They will have to apply for a regular protected/ Restricted Area
Permit. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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 • As of now, ILP is required in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Manipur (Introduced in
2019). Other northeastern states, such as Assam, Tripura, and Meghalaya, do not have ILP
requirements. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 29.B
• Vishnushastri Krushnashastri Chiplunkar (1850-1882), a 19th-century Marathi writer, was born in
Pune, Maharashtra, to social reformer and scholar Krushnashastri Chiplunkar.
• He taught for several years in Pune before beginning his career as a writer in 1868, with articles in
Shalapatrak, a newspaper owned by his father.
o During this time, however, his critical reviews of the Sanskrit poets Kalidas, Bhavabhuti, Bana,
Subandhu, and Dandin were notable because they introduced readers to the concept of the ‘western’
literary critique tradition.
• In 1874, he started the monthly Nibandhamala, which he is known for even today. Chiplunkar used
his writings to tackle political disputes and highlight social injustices while contributing to Marathi
literature.
• With Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, he co-founded two major periodicals,
Kesari and Mahratta.
• In addition, Chiplunkar created another monthly publication, Kavyetihas Sangraha, in 1878, to
further familiarize readers with the poetry and history of Maharashtra to instill in them a sense of national
pride.
• In the same year, he founded two printing presses, Aryabhushan Press and Chitrashala Press. While the
latter specialized in producing chromolithographs and postcards, the former predominantly printed
newspapers and books.
• The following year, he opened a bookshop named Kitabkhana to make nationalist and inspirational
books available to Marathi readers. Thus, Chiplunkar built the foundation for contemporary and younger
minds to write, express, and contribute to the literature.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 30.C
• The Indian Gharial, a critically endangered crocodile species, has been sighted last year in the
Greater Kaziranga landscape for the third consecutive year.
o Kaziranga’s abundance of freshwater fish species makes it one of the best habitats for gharials.
o The Indian gharial, also known as the fish-eating crocodile or gavial, is a crocodilian that lives
in the Indian Subcontinent. It is one of the largest crocodilians.
o The gharial has a uniquely long and thin snout, with a large bulb at the tip called the “ghara”.
o The gharial is the most aquatic of all crocodilians, as it never moves far from the water.
o Habitats include: Fresh waters of the northern India – Chambal river, Ghagra, Gandak river and
the Sone river (Bihar). Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
o Population of Gharials is a good indicator of clean river water.
o India has three species of Crocodilians namely:
 Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus): IUCN Red List- Critically Endangered
 Mugger crocodile (Crocodylus palustris): IUCN- Vulnerable.
 Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus): IUCN- Least Concern.
o All three are listed on Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act,
1972.

Q 31.B
• Porus was not the ruler of Taxila; he ruled the Paurava kingdom, located between the Jhelum and Chenab
rivers.
o The ruler of Taxila was Ambhi, who surrendered to Alexander without resistance and even
provided assistance to his army.
o Ambhi’s cooperation helped Alexander secure a safe passage and supplies for his troops. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
• The Battle of the Hydaspes (326 BCE) was fought between Alexander and Porus near the Jhelum
River (Greek: Hydaspes).
o Porus resisted Alexander’s invasion fiercely but was eventually defeated.
o However, Alexander was impressed by Porus’s bravery and reinstated him as a vassal ruler. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
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 • After the Battle of Hydaspes, Alexander founded a new city named Bucephala (or Bucephalia) near
the Jhelum River, in honor of his beloved horse Bucephalus, which died from exhaustion or injuries
sustained in battle.
o Another city, Nicaea, was also established nearby to commemorate his victory. Hence statement 3 is
correct.

Q 32.C
• The Rangpur Rebellion, or Rangpur Dhing, was a peasant uprising in the Rangpur district of Bengal in
1783, sparked by the British East India Company's high revenue demands and exploitation of local
zamindars and peasants.
• In the early days of revenue farming system, the peasantry was oppressed by the revenue contractors and
company officials, impos- ing high revenue demands and often collecting illegal cesses.
o The worst offenders were revenue contractors like Debi Singh or Ganga- gobinda Singh, who
had unleashed a reign of terror in the villages of Rangpur and Dinajpur districts. It was led by
Dirjinarain (or Dhiraj Narayan). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The peasants initially sent a petition to the Company's government asking for redress. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• But when their appeal for justice went unheeded, they organised themselves, elected their own leader,
raised a huge army, equipped themselves with primitive bows, arrows and swords and attacked the local
cutchery (a court of law), looted grain stores and forcibly released prisoners.
• Both Hindu and Muslim peasants fought side by side and stopped paying revenue.
o The rebels sought to legitimise their movement by invoking "the symbols of the pre-colonial state
system".
o They called their leader "nawab", started their own government and levied charges to meet the
costs of their movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• On Debi Singh's appeal, the Company's government under Warren Hastings sent troops to put down the
rebellion. Its brutal suppression was, however, followed by some reforms in the revenue farming system.

Q 33.A
• The Technology Security Initiative (TSI) is an India-UK initiative launched to enhance cooperation in
Critical and Emerging Technologies (CET). Focus areas: Telecom, critical minerals, semiconductors, AI,
and quantum technology. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 34.D
• Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a
flagship scheme of the Government for pregnant women and lactating mothers. The Maternity Benefit
Programme is implemented in all the districts of the country. PMMVY is a direct benefit transfer
(DBT) scheme under which cash benefits are provided to pregnant women in their bank account
directly to meet enhanced nutritional needs and partially compensate for wage loss.
• The programme is named as ‘Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’ (PMMVY). Under
PMMVY, a cash incentive of ` 5000/- is provided directly to the Bank / Post Office Account of
Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM) for the first living child of the family subject
to fulfilling specific conditions relating to Maternal and Child Health. PMMVY is implemented using
the platform of the Anganwadi Services scheme of Umbrella ICDS under the Ministry of Women and
Child Development.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the ‘Scheme’, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers (PW&LM) receive
a cash benefit of Rs. 5,000 in three instalments on fulfilling the respective conditionality, viz. early
registration of pregnancy, ante-natal check-up and registration of the birth of the child and
completion of the first cycle of vaccination for the first living child of the family. The eligible
beneficiaries also receive cash incentive under Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). Thus, on average, a
woman gets Rs. 6,000.

Q 35.A
• What is Hush Money?
o Hush Money refers to a form of illicit payment made to silence individuals from disclosing
sensitive or potentially damaging information. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o These payments are often given in exchange for confidentiality agreements, ensuring that the recipient
does not speak publicly or take legal action regarding the matter. While hush money itself is not

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 necessarily illegal, it can lead to legal consequences if it involves fraud, coercion, or an attempt to
obstruct justice.
• Key Characteristics of Hush Money:
o Purpose: Used to prevent the disclosure of sensitive or damaging information.
o Common in: Politics, business, entertainment, corporate scandals, and legal disputes.
o Legality: May be legal if disclosed properly but illegal if used to commit fraud, evade taxes, or
interfere with judicial processes.
o Forms: These can be paid in cash, assets, legal settlements, or secret transactions.
• Recent Case in the News
o Hush money has been a central issue in various legal proceedings, particularly in political and
corporate corruption cases. Some of the recent instances include:
o Donald Trump Hush Money Case: The former U.S. President was charged in connection with
alleged hush money payments made to silence individuals ahead of the 2016 elections. The case
revolved around financial misreporting and possible election law violations.

Q 36.D
• Quantum Internet Alliance (QIA) researchers at TU Delft, QuTech, University of Innsbruck, INRIA,
and CNRS recently announced the creation of the first operating system designed for quantum
networks: QNodeOS.
• The research, published in Nature, marks a major step forward in transforming quantum networking from
a theoretical concept to a practical technology that could revolutionize the future of the internet.
• The quantum network operating system, known as QNodeOS, is fully programmable, meaning that
applications can be run at a high level, just like on classical operating systems such as Windows or
Android. Unlike previous systems, which required coding specific to each experimental setup, QNodeOS
makes it easy to operate quantum processors on a network, regardless of the hardware platform used.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 37.B
• Recently, NITI Aayog released Fiscal Health Index (FHI) Report 2025 to throw light on fiscal status
at the sub-national level and guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth.
• Fiscal Health Index 2025
• The Index ranks States on the basis of a composite fiscal index, which is based on five major sub-indices
and nine minor sub-indices. It will offer data-driven insights that will be leveraged for informed state-
level policy interventions to improve overall fiscal governance, economic resilience, and stability of the
nation.
• States have been classified on the basis of the FHI score:
o Achiever: Greater than 50
o Front Runner: Greater than 40 & less than equal to 50.
o Performer: Greater than 25 & less than equal to 40
o Aspirational: Less than equal to 25
• Key Findings of FHI 2025
o Top Performing States: Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Goa.
o Non-tax revenue: Odisha, Jharkhand, Goa, and Chhattisgarh demonstrated strong non-tax revenue
generation, accounting for 21% of their total revenue.
o Capital expenditure: Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Goa, Karnataka, and UP demonstrated stronger capital
investment by allocating 27% of their development funds to capital expenditure.
o Debt Sustainability: West Bengal and Punjab showed concerning fiscal trends with increasing debt-to-
GSDP ratios, raising serious questions about their long-term debt sustainability.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 38.B
• Soz-e-Watan," meaning "Sorrow of the Nation" or "Patriotic Heart," was a collection of short
stories published in 1907 by Dhanpat Rai Srivastava also known as Premchand.
o It was a collection of patriotic short stories that promoted nationalist ideas and criticized British rule.
o The stories symbolically depicted India’s struggle against colonial oppression, which alarmed the
British authorities.
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 o The British confiscated copies of the book and banned it.
• Pather Dabi was written by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay.
o Pather Dabi (meaning "Right of Way") was a revolutionary novel about an underground organization
fighting against British rule.
o The protagonist, Sabyasachi, is portrayed as a radical revolutionary who inspires people to overthrow
colonial rule, making the book highly controversial.
o The British government saw it as a direct threat to their authority and banned it soon after its
publication.
• Discovery of India was written by Jawaharlal Nehru
o Written by Nehru during his imprisonment (1942–1946) in Ahmednagar Fort, the book provides a
historical and cultural perspective on India’s past, present, and future.
o It was not banned by the British government.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 39.B
• Surveillance Pricing:
o The term “Surveillance Pricing” has gained prominence in recent discussions about digital
commerce and consumer privacy. It refers to the practice where companies leverage personal
data, browsing habits, and behavioral analytics to determine individualized prices for
consumers. This strategy has sparked ethical and regulatory concerns due to its potential impact on
pricing fairness and consumer rights.
• Understanding Surveillance Pricing
o Surveillance pricing is a data-driven pricing mechanism where businesses track and analyze
consumer information to personalize pricing in real time. Hence option (b) is the correct
answer.
o Unlike traditional pricing models, which are based on supply and demand, surveillance pricing relies
on personal data collected through cookies, location tracking, purchasing history, and even device
type.
• How Does Surveillance Pricing Work?
o Data Collection:
 Companies track user behavior through websites, apps, and digital footprints (e.g., search history,
past purchases).
 Personal information such as income levels, spending patterns, and browsing habits are used to
assess the consumer’s ability to pay.
o Dynamic Price Customization:
 Algorithms set different prices for the same product or service based on the consumer profile.
 Factors influencing prices may include location, previous interactions, and urgency of purchase
(e.g., booking flights close to departure dates).
o Personalized Offers & Discounts:
 Some users may see lower prices if they are more price-sensitive.
 Others may face higher prices if algorithms detect a higher willingness to pay.
• Example of Surveillance Pricing in Action
o Ride-hailing apps: Prices may fluctuate based on past ride history, phone battery levels, and urgency
of booking.
o E-commerce platforms: Online stores might offer different discounts based on whether a user is
logged in, their purchase history, or their device type.
o Hotel and airline bookings: Travel platforms may increase prices for users who repeatedly check
fares without booking, indicating high intent.

Q 40.D
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), established under Article 148 of the Constitution,
is the Supreme Audit Institution (SAI) of India, responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of
the Union and State governments
• Article 150 of the Constitution states that the president can prescribe the format of maintaining
accounts of the government on the advice of CAG. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The CAG has the power to conduct both compliance audits and performance audits. Performance
audits are an integral part of the CAG's functions as clarified by the Office memorandum of the Finance
Ministry in 2006. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
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 • The CAG (Duties, power, and Conditions of Service) Amendment, 1976, relieved the CAG from the
responsibility of compiling and maintaining the accounts of the Union Government, which is now
handled by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA). It is placed under administrative control of ,
Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q 41.D
• Introduction
o The Unified Genomic Chip, recently launched by the Prime Minister of India, is a breakthrough in
genetic profiling and breed improvement for Indian livestock.
o Unlike genomic technologies used in humans, this chip is specifically designed for cattle and
buffaloes, enhancing their genetic potential, productivity, and disease resistance. Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
o This initiative aligns with the Rashtriya Gokul Mission and aims to empower dairy farmers by helping
them identify high-yielding cattle early in their life cycle.
• What is the Unified Genomic Chip?
o The Unified Genomic Chip is a Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) chip that enables DNA-based
genomic selection in Indian cattle and buffaloes.
• Key Features of the Chip:
o Designed for genomic profiling and genetic evaluation of Indian dairy animals.
o Helps in early identification of high-quality cattle for breeding purposes.
o Improves milk yield, disease resistance, and overall livestock productivity.
o Supports farmers in making informed decisions for dairy farming.
• Types of Unified Genomic Chips
o 1. Gau Chip (For Cattle)
 Used for genetic improvement and conservation of indigenous cattle breeds.
 Helps in identifying high-milk-producing cows and disease-resistant varieties.
o 2. Mahish Chip (For Buffaloes)
 Developed for genomic selection in buffalo breeds.
 Supports breed improvement and enhanced dairy production.
• It is developed by a consortium led by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD),
Ministry of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries. Hence statement 2 is also not correct.
• Key collaborators include the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and National Institute of
Animal Biotechnology (NIAB).

Q 42.B
• Formerly administered as part of the British Crown Colony of Mauritius, the British Indian Ocean
Territory (BIOT) was established as an overseas territory of the UK in 1965. A number of the islands in
the territory were later transferred to the Seychelles when it gained independence in 1976. Subsequently,
BIOT has consisted of the six main island groups that make up the Chagos Archipelago. Only Diego
Garcia, the largest and most southerly of the islands, is inhabited. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Diego Garcia contains a joint UK-US naval support facility and hosts one of four dedicated ground
antennas that assist in the operation of the Global Positioning System (GPS) navigation system -- the
others are on Kwajalein (Marshall Islands); at Cape Canaveral, Florida (US); and on Ascension
Island (Saint Helena, Ascension, and Tristan da Cunha). The US Air Force also operates a telescope
array on Diego Garcia as part of the Ground-Based Electro-Optical Deep Space Surveillance System
(GEODSS) for tracking orbital debris, which can be hazardous to spacecraft and astronauts. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• Britain recognized Mauritius’ claim over all of the Chagos, including Diego Garcia, through a bilateral
agreement between the United Kingdom and Mauritius in 2024. However, the deal said that the UK
would, for a 99-year initial period, exercise “the sovereign rights [over Diego Garcia], and authorities of
Mauritius are required to ensure the continued operation of the base well into the next century.” Mauritius
could “implement a resettlement program on the islands of the Chagos Archipelago, other than Diego
Garcia”. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 43.A
• India’s external debt has remained stable over the past few years. A stable external debt position has
helped maintain external sector stability, significantly when the rest of the world is affected by
geopolitical headwinds. In FY24, India’s external debt to GDP ratio that has been in a downtrend since
2021 has further declined to 18.7 per cent of the GDP from 19 per cent in the FY23. It was a record 13-
year low after 18.6 per cent recorded in 2011. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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 • Across currencies, the external debt remained primarily denominated in the US Dollar (53.4 %), followed
by the INR (31.2 %), SDR (5 %), and the Euro (3 %). Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 44.D
• Dharmakirti (7th century CE) was a Buddhist philosopher and logician who studied and taught at
Nalanda University.
o He contributed significantly to Buddhist logic and epistemology, writing influential texts such as
Nyayabindu (A Drop of Logic).
o His teachings influenced later Buddhist and Hindu philosophers.
• Śīlabhadra (7th century CE) was the head of Nalanda University.
o A highly respected Buddhist monk and philosopher, Śīlabhadra specialized in Yogācāra Buddhism (a
major Mahayana school).
o He played a crucial role in preserving and transmitting Buddhist teachings to students from across
Asia.
• Kumara Gupta I
o He was a Gupta ruler (c. 415–455 CE) credited with founding Nalanda University.
o His patronage transformed Nalanda into a major Buddhist learning center, attracting scholars from
across the world.
o The Nalanda seal bearing his name confirms his association with its establishment.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 45.B
• A new international fund has been created to help protect biodiversity. The ‘Cali Fund’ was
launched on February 25, 2025, at the resumed 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the United
Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in Rome.
o It was first introduced at the UN’s Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Summit in Cali,
Colombia, during the 16th United Nations Biodiversity Conference (COP16).
• It will collect money from private companies. These companies use genetic data from nature in their
businesses. This marks an important step in ensuring industries benefiting from biodiversity also
contribute to its conservation.
• The Cali Fund will receive money from businesses that rely on Digital Sequence Information (DSI).
o DSI includes genetic data from plants, animals, and microorganisms. Industries like pharmaceuticals,
cosmetics, agriculture, and biotechnology use DSI to develop products.
o Under this new system, they will now have to contribute a part of their revenue to support biodiversity
efforts.
• The money collected will be used in several ways. It will support biodiversity conservation projects, help
developing countries implement their biodiversity action plans, and fund scientific research to improve
how genetic data is stored and used.
• At least 50 per cent of its resources will go to indigenous peoples and local communities, recognising their
crucial role in protecting nature.
• This is the first time that a global biodiversity fund under the UN will receive direct contributions
from businesses.
• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and United Nations Environment
Programme will manage the fund. The Multi-Partner Trust Fund Office (MPTFO) will handle
administrative tasks.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q 46.C
• A warrant under his hand and seal means the appointment letter bears the signature of the
President himself/herself and this function is not delegated to any other authority. This signifies the
highest level of constitutional authority and formal recognition of the appointment, ensuring that the
officeholder is directly appointed by the head of the state.
• Chairman of Finance Commission: The Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the
President under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. However, the appointment is not made by
warrant under his hand and seal. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of tax
revenues between the Union and States and among the States themselves. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• Judges of the Supreme Court: The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority in India, responsible
for interpreting the Constitution, safeguarding fundamental rights, and resolving disputes between the
Union and States. Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President by warrant under his
hand and seal (Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution). Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Attorney General for India: The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India
and represents the government in the Supreme Court. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the
President under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution. However, the appointment is not made by
warrant under his hand and seal. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
• Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): The Chairperson of the
NCBC is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 338B(3) of the
Indian Constitution). The NCBC investigates and monitors matters related to the welfare of socially and
educationally backward classes and advises the government on their inclusion in the list of backward
classes. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Q 47.D
• The Tesla-built DOJO system is a scalable solution targeted towards machine learning training
applications. It is based on the D1 custom compute chip which packs together 354 independent
processors, resulting in 362 TFLOPS of compute and 440 MB of internal static random-access memory
storage. While maintaining full programmability, DOJO emphasizes the distribution of resources and an
extremely high bandwidth interconnect, allowing it to scale from small systems all the way to exaFLOP
supercomputers.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 48.A
• Mitochondria are called the "powerhouse of the cell" because they produce Adenosine Triphosphate
(ATP), the primary energy molecule required for various cellular processes.
o This energy is generated through cellular respiration, mainly via oxidative phosphorylation in the
inner mitochondrial membrane. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Mitochondria contain their own DNA (mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA), which allows them to synthesize
some of their own proteins and enzymes.
o This feature supports the Endosymbiotic Theory, which suggests that mitochondria originated from
ancient bacteria that were engulfed by a primitive eukaryotic cell.
o Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• While most eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria, they are absent in some specialized cells such as
mature red blood cells (RBCs) in mammals.
o Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 49.B
• Sonagiri, meaning "Golden Peak," is a significant Jain pilgrimage site located in the Datia district
of Madhya Pradesh.
o It consists of over 100 temples, with Temple No. 57 being the most prominent.
 The temple is dedicated to Lord Chandraprabhu, the 8th Tirthankara of Jainism.
o It is believed that many Jain saints attained salvation (Moksha) here.
o The temple complex is famous for its white marble architecture, reflecting the purity of Jainism.
o Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Kulpakji or Kolanupaka Jain Temple is located in Kolanupaka village of Telangana. It is believed to
be over 2000 years old and is associated with the early spread of Jainism in South India.
o The temple enshrines three main deities: Lord Mahavira (the 23rd Tirthankara) Lord Neminatha (the
22nd Tirthankara) Lord Rishabhanatha (Adinatha) (the 1st Tirthankara)
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 o It features beautiful red sandstone carvings and intricate wooden sculptures.
o The temple is an important pilgrimage center for Jains of both Digambara and Svetambara sects.
o Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Ranakpur Jain Temple is one of the largest and most magnificent Jain temples in India. Located in
Pali district of Rajasthan, it is dedicated to Tirthankara Adinatha (Rishabhanatha).
o The temple was built in the 15th century by a Jain businessman named Dharna Shah under the
patronage of Rana Kumbha, a Mewar ruler.
o It is famous for its intricately carved marble pillars, halls, and domes—each with unique designs.
o The temple is a masterpiece of Māru-Gurjara architecture and remains a popular pilgrimage site.
o Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 50.D
• The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC):
o The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), responsible for providing deposit insurance to bank depositors. It
ensures that depositors do not lose their savings in the event of a bank failure or liquidation. The
recent proposal by the Government of India to increase deposit insurance coverage has brought
DICGC into the spotlight.
• Key Aspects of DICGC
o Ownership and Regulation
 DICGC is a 100% subsidiary of RBI, established under the Deposit Insurance and Credit
Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961.
 It functions under the supervision of the RBI, ensuring the financial security of depositors in
insured banks.
 Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Deposit Insurance Coverage
 DICGC insures savings, fixed, current, and recurring deposits of customers across
commercial banks, regional rural banks, and cooperative banks. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
 However, it does not cover deposits of primary cooperative societies or those held by foreign
governments, central and state governments, and interbank deposits. Hence statement 3 is
not correct
 As per the current deposit insurance scheme, a depositor is insured up to ₹5 lakh per bank.
o Working of DICGC’s Insurance
 If a bank fails or undergoes liquidation, DICGC compensates eligible depositors up to ₹5 lakh
per depositor across all accounts in a particular bank.
 Banks pay a premium to DICGC for providing this insurance coverage.
 The deposit insurance covers both principal and interest within the limit.
o Recent Developments:
 Proposal to Increase Deposit Insurance Cover:
✓ The Government of India is considering increasing the deposit insurance coverage beyond
the existing ₹5 lakh limit.
✓ This move is aimed at enhancing depositor confidence and ensuring greater financial
security.
✓ The last revision was in February 2020, when the limit was increased from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh
following the Punjab & Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank crisis.
 New India Cooperative Bank Crisis:
✓ Recently, RBI imposed restrictions on New India Cooperative Bank due to poor governance
and financial instability.
✓ Under Section 18A of the DICGC Act, depositors of this bank are eligible to receive
insurance payments from DICGC within 90 days of filing claims.

Q 51.C
• Poshan Abhiyaan was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 8th March 2018 in the Jhunjhunu
district of Rajasthan. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) wherein both the Central and State
governments share the funding responsibilities. The focus of Abhiyaan is to lay emphasis on the
nutritional status of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children from 0-6
years of age. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
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 • The program, through the use of technology, convergence, and community involvement with a targeted
approach strives to reduce the level of stunning, under-nutrition, Anemia, and low birth weight in
children, as also focus on adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers, thus holistically
addressing malnutrition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Mission POSHAN 2.0: Launched in 2021, it amalgamated various programs with similar objectives such
as the Supplementary Nutrition Programme and POSHAN Abhiyaan under one umbrella.
• Poshan Abhiyaan is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 52.C
• Balance of Payments (BoP) is classified into Current Account or Capital Account.
• Current Account records transactions that do not create liabilities and include trade in goods, services,
income, and transfers.
o Merchandise Exports and Imports: Exports and imports of physical goods are recorded under the
Trade Balance in the Current Account. Hence Point 1 is correct.
o Inward and Outward Remittances for Salaries: Remittances, such as salaries, pensions, and personal
transfers (e.g., money sent home by workers abroad), come under the Current Account under the
Transfers and Income sub-component. Hence Point 2 is correct.
o Interest Payments on External Loans: Interest payments on external debt fall under the Income
Component of the Current Account, as they represent payments for the use of capital. Hence Point 3
is correct.
• Capital Account records transactions that create financial liabilities or assets, such as Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) and loans. Under the capital account, both equity and debt flows are covered. Debt
flows comprise commercial borrowings, external assistance, short-term trade credits and Non-Resident
Indian (NRI) deposits, while the equity flows comprise Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and portfolio
investment. Hence Point 4 is not correct.

Q 53.B
• To ensure accurate computation of national income using the Value-Added Method, the following
precautions should be taken:
o Only factor incomes earned through productive services should be included. Transfer incomes should
be excluded. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Income earned from illegal activities such as smuggling or theft should be excluded. Hence option 4
is correct.
o Income earned through the sale and purchase of second-hand goods should be excluded from national
income. However, commissions and brokerage paid for facilitating such sales should be included.
Hence option 5 is correct.
o The imputed rent of self-occupied buildings should be included. Whether a house is rented or self-
occupied does not make any difference.
o The value of production for self-consumption should be included. For example, a farmer retains part
of his produce for personal consumption. This does not enter the market, but it contributes to output.
o Household work performed by family members, such as cooking, is not included in national income.
However, the same work done by a domestic helper who is paid for it is included in the GDP.
o Production of services for self-consumption (domestic services) like housework, gardening, etc. is not
included in the national income as it is challenging to measure their market value. These services are
produced and consumed at home and never enter the market, so they are considered non-market
transactions. It's important to note that paid services like the services of maids, drivers, private tutors,
etc., should be included in the national income. Hence option 3 is correct.
o Production of goods for self-consumption will be included in the national income as they contribute to
the current output. However, their value must be estimated or imputed as they are not sold in the
market. Hence option 2 is not correct.

Q 54.B
• The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED):
o The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) is a crucial apex
cooperative organization in India that plays a significant role in agricultural marketing and
procurement. It was established to promote cooperative marketing and ensure fair prices for
farmers’ produce. NAFED plays a pivotal role in stabilizing prices and maintaining the supply chain
of essential commodities. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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 • Legal Status and Registration
o NAFED is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o This Act governs multi-state cooperatives that operate across multiple states in India, allowing them
to function under a unified regulatory framework.
o NAFED operates as a cooperative organization that supports farmers by aggregating their produce
and ensuring better market access.
• Administrative Control and Functioning
o Contrary to common misconception, NAFED functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmers Welfare, not the Ministry of Cooperation. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The Minister of Agriculture is responsible for answering NAFED-related queries in the Indian
Parliament.
o It primarily supports farmers and agricultural cooperatives by handling the procurement, storage,
distribution, and export of agricultural products.

Q 55.C
• In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, they are replaced with time by
rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed-
swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax community is a forest. With time the
water body is converted into land. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 56.B
• Article 348(1)(a) states that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in
the English language unless Parliament by law otherwise provides. This ensures uniformity in legal
proceedings across India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Article 348(2) allows the Governor of a state, with the permission of the President, to authorize the
use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings of the High
Court. However, judgments, decrees, and orders must still be in English unless Parliament provides
otherwise. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Article 348(1)(b) states that the authoritative text of all Bills, Acts, Ordinances, Orders, Rules, and
Regulations at both the Union and State levels shall be in English until Parliament provides
otherwise by law. This ensures clarity and consistency in legal documents. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• Article 348(3) allows State Legislatures to adopt Hindi or any other official language for official purposes
within the state.
• Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.

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Q 57.D
• All India Judicial Service (AIJS) is a proposed service that aims to create a centralized recruitment system
similar to the Indian Administrative Service and Indian Police Service.
• Article 312(1) of the Indian Constitution states that Parliament may create an All India Service
(AIS) by passing a resolution in the Rajya Sabha. The Constitution of India explicitly allows the
creation of the All India Judicial Service under Article 312(3). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Article 312(1) states that Parliament may create an All India Service (including AIJS) if the Rajya Sabha
passes a resolution with a two-thirds majority. Once Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution, Parliament can
enact a law to create an All India Judicial Service. Article 312 (4) itself provides that such an amendment
is not considered as an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368. Hence, it does not require state
ratification. However, the term ‘administration of justice’ is in the state list, which makes state
consultation necessary but not necessarily state ratification (a similar analogy can be drawn with Article
4). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The All India Judicial Service is meant only for the recruitment of District judges and higher posts. Article
312(3) of the Constitution explicitly mentions that the All India Judicial Service shall not include any post
inferior to that of a district judge as defined in Article 236. Article 236 covers only District Judges and
higher positions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 58.C
• Amazon – Ocelot:
o Ocelot is Amazon's first in-house quantum computing chip.
o It is a nine-qubit chip designed to improve quantum error correction efficiency by up to 90%.
o Ocelot aims to reduce the resource requirement for error correction, accelerating the timeline for a
practical quantum computer by up to five years.
o The chip is designed to combine cat qubits (inspired by Schrödinger's cat experiment), which
intrinsically suppress certain types of errors.
o Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Microsoft – Majorana 1:
o Microsoft launched Majorana 1 on 21 February 2025 as the world’s first quantum chip based on a
new Topological Core architecture.
o It uses the first-ever topoconductor (topological superconductor), which creates a new state of matter
— topological state — not a solid, liquid, or gas.
o Material Composition:
 Made from indium arsenide (a semiconductor) and aluminum (a superconductor).
 Uses a superconducting nanowire to observe the particles, which can be controlled using standard
computing equipment.
o Majorana fermion:
 Majorana 1 relies on the existence of Majorana fermion, a particle that is both a particle and its
antiparticle.
 First theorized in the 1930s.
o Significance of Majorana 1:
 Requires fewer qubits than competitors like Google's Willow and IBM's quantum chips.
 Error rates are lower, making it more stable and scalable.
 Potential applications include combining with AI to develop solutions like breaking down
microplastics into harmless byproducts.
o Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Google – Sycamore:
o Google’s Sycamore quantum chip is a 67-qubit processor that achieved quantum supremacy.
o Sycamore demonstrated the ability to perform complex calculations that would take classical
computers thousands of years.
o It operates in a "weak noise phase" to maintain computational accuracy, enabling it to outperform the
fastest classical supercomputers.
o Google Quantum AI researchers are working on improving the error correction mechanisms to
stabilize quantum operations.
o Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 59.B
• The Producer Price Index (PPI) is a critical economic indicator that measures the average change over
time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output. It reflects price changes from
the perspective of the seller, offering insights into inflationary trends within the production sector. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• It measures the average change in the price a producer receives for his goods/services sold in the domestic
market/ exports.
• Two types:
o Output PPI: Measures the average price change of all covered goods and services resulting from an
activity and sold on the domestic/ export markets.
o Input PPI: Measure the change in the prices of all intermediate inputs used in production by a
specified sector of the economy. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India excludes services,
focusing mainly on the price movement of goods. However, PPI covers both goods and services,
making it a broader measure of price trends in an economy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India does not currently publish a formal Producer Price Index (PPI). Instead, it relies on the WPI, which
is published monthly by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Ministry of Commerce and
Industry. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 60.C
• India, being a federal polity, requires institutional mechanisms to ensure coordination and cooperation
between the Union and the States as well as among the States themselves. Two such mechanisms are the
Inter-State Council and the Zonal Councils.
• The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body, explicitly mentioned in Article 263 of the Constitution.
For the first time, the President of India constituted the Inter-State Council in 1990. On the other hand, the
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, as they were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 and
not directly by the Constitution. Later in 1971, a North-Eastern Council was created under the North-
Eastern Council Act, 1971. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the Inter-State Council. However, the Zonal Councils are
chaired by the Union Home Minister, not the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The recommendations of both the Inter-State Council and the Zonal Councils are advisory in nature,
meaning they are not enforceable. They are just to foster cooperation among States and hence their
recommendations are not binding on States. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 61.C
• During World War II, Subhas Chandra Bose sought international support to achieve India's independence.
After escaping from British surveillance in India in 1941, he collaborated with Axis powers, mainly
Germany, Italy, and Japan, to organize an armed struggle against British rule.
• Bose reached Berlin, Germany, in April 1941, after traveling through Afghanistan and the Soviet Union.
• He established the Free India Centre in Berlin, which acted as a diplomatic and propaganda hub for Indian
independence.
• With German support, he formed the Free India Legion (Legion Freies Indien), also known as the
Azad Hind Legion, in 1942.
o The legion comprised about 4,500 Indian POWs (Prisoners of War) captured by Nazi Germany
from British forces in North Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Legion was trained and equipped by the German Army, with plans to invade British India via Iran
and Afghanistan.
• Bose met Adolf Hitler in May 1942 to seek German military assistance in fighting the British in
India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Hitler was skeptical of Bose’s plans and did not offer direct military intervention.
o Instead, Hitler suggested that Bose seek help from Japan, as Japan was advancing in Southeast Asia
and had already captured British territories.
• By 1943, it was clear that Germany's military situation was deteriorating (due to losses in the Soviet
Union). Japan was actively fighting British forces in Asia and had captured Singapore, Malaya, and
Burma.
o With the help of German and Japanese submarines, Bose traveled to Japan via Sumatra in 1943.
• On 21 October 1943, Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Free India
(Azad Hind) in Singapore. This government was recognized by Axis powers. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Japan provided Bose with military support to organize the Indian National Army (INA). INA had been
originally formed by Rash Behari Bose and Mohan Singh but was reorganized and led by Subhas Chandra
Bose after 1943.

Q 62.A
• Context: Recently, US President issued an executive order for banning the establishment of USA’s
Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), i.e., 'Digital Dollar'
• It is a legal tender and a central bank liability in digital form denominated in sovereign currency and
appearing on central bank balance sheet. While some CBDCs (such as China’s Digital Yuan trials) use
Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT), not all CBDCs are built on blockchain. CBDCs can be
implemented using various technologies, including centralized digital ledger systems, depending on the
country's regulatory framework and objectives. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Types of CBDCs
o Wholesale CBDCs: Used among banks and other licensed financial institutions for interbank
payments and securities transactions.
o Retail CBDC: It is available to general public via digital wallets, smartphone apps, etc. Two models
of retail CBDC:
o Token-based CBDCs: Enables anonymous transactions through private and public key authentication.
o Account-based CBDCs: Requires user digital identification for account access. e.g., DCash of Eastern
Caribbean.
• Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are a form of digital currency issued by a country's central bank.
They are similar to cryptocurrencies, except that their value is fixed by the central bank and equivalent to
the country's fiat currency. Countries will be able to directly exchange digital currencies in a bilateral way
and without going through SWIFT or similar settlement systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In 2020, The Bahamas became the first country to officially launch a CBDC with its “Sand Dollar.” This
digital currency is issued by the Central Bank of The Bahamas and is pegged to the Bahamian dollar,
which is tied to the U.S. dollar. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 63.A
• The PM-WANI scheme was launched to increase broadband access through a decentralized and
unlicensed model of Public Wi-Fi networks. It allows Public Data Offices (PDOs) to set up Wi-Fi
hotspots without any licensing fee. The scheme aims to enhance the proliferation of public WiFi
hotspots to create robust digital communications infrastructure in the country, especially in rural
areas. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• PM-WANI ecosystem consists of four parts: Public Data Office (PDO), Public Data Office Aggregator
(PDOA), App Provider, and Central Registry.
• The scheme is implemented by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of
Communications. PM WANI framework takes forward the goal of the National Digital Communications
Policy, 2018 (NDCP) of creating a robust digital communications infrastructure. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• PM-WANI is not a component of the BharatNet project. While BharatNet provides fiber-optic
infrastructure for rural broadband and seeks to provide broadband connectivity to all gram panchayats in
India. PM-WANI focuses on public Wi-Fi hotspots that can use BharatNet’s network for last-mile
connectivity. However, PM-WANI operates independently and does not receive direct government
funding. The scheme encourages local shops and establishments to provide Wi-Fi for last-mile
internet delivery which does not require a licence or charge a registration fee. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.

Q 64.B
• Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) is a Central Sector Scheme, under the Ministry of
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The aim is to provide medium - long term debt financing facilities through interest subvention and
credit guarantee. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Beneficiaries include farmers, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS), Farmer Producers
Organizations (FPOs), Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups, Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored
Public-Private Partnership Projects, APMCs, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Eligible projects include: Post Harvest Management Projects like Supply chain services including e-
marketing platforms, Warehouses, Silos, Sorting &grading units, Cold chains, Logistics facilities,
etc. Building community farming assets like Organic inputs production, Infrastructure for smart and
precision agriculture, supply chain infrastructure for clusters of crops including export clusters, etc.
25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • AIF is managed and monitored through an online Management Information System (MIS) platform.
• National, State, and District Level Monitoring Committees will ensure real-time monitoring and effective
feedback about the implementation of the scheme.

Q 65.C
• The Revolt of Dewan Velu Thambi occurred in Travancore state that encompasses several southern
districts of present-day Kerala. Velu Thambi was the Dewan (minister) of Travancore. Initially, the
Travancore State and the British shared an amicable relationship.
• However, Velu Thambi soon realised that the trust they had placed in the British was misplaced. The
British signed a treaty with Travancore that imposed the subsidiary alliance system, causing a financial
burden on the state.
• The interference of the British Resident in Travancore's internal affairs was a major cause of the
revolt. The British imposed heavy subsidies on Travancore as per the Treaty of 1805, which created
resentment among the local rulers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Dewan Velu Thambi opposed this interference and led the rebellion against the British.
• The Kundara Proclamation (1809) was issued by Dewan Velu Thambi, calling upon the people of
Travancore to unite and resist British domination. This proclamation was a significant moment in
the revolt, urging locals to fight for their sovereignty. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In 1809, Trivandrum (the capital of Travancore) fell into British hands, and Velu Thambi died of serious
injuries.
• The State of Travancore had signed a Subsidiary Alliance Treaty with the British in 1805, before
the revolt of Dewan Velu Thambi (1808-1809). Under this treaty:
o Travancore agreed to accept British protection and maintain British troops at its own expense.
o The British Resident gained significant influence over Travancore’s internal administration.
o The state had to pay a huge subsidy to the British for the stationed troops.
• Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 66.C
• The fishing cat (Prionailurus viverrinus) is a medium-sized wild cat of South and Southeast Asia.
o It is mostly found in wetlands, swamps and mangroves. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
o The fishing cat is nocturnal (active at night) and apart from fish also preys on frogs, crustaceans,
snakes, birds, and scavenges on carcasses of larger animals.
o They spend most of their lives in areas of dense vegetation close to water bodies and are excellent
swimmers.
• The fishing cat is the state animal of West Bengal; and is listed as ‘Vulnerable’ in the IUCN Red
List. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• The Wildlife Institute of India (WII-Dehradun) Conservation Biologists will begin collaring ten
Fishing Cats (Prionailurus viverrinus) in the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS) in Andhra
Pradesh.
• Habitat:
o Fishing cats have a patchy distribution along the Eastern Ghats. They abound in estuarine floodplains,
tidal mangrove forests and also inland freshwater habitats.
o Apart from Sundarbans in West Bengal and Bangladesh, fishing cats inhabit the Chilika lagoon
and surrounding wetlands in Odisha, Coringa and Krishna mangroves in Andhra Pradesh.
• Conservation Efforts:
o According to a census conducted by Chilika Development Authority, the Chilika Lake has 176
Fishing Cats.
o The Census was conducted in Collaboration with The Fishing Cat Project (TFCP). This is the
world’s first population estimation of the fishing cat, which has been conducted outside the
protected area network. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
o Spatially Explicit Capture Recapture (SECR) method was used to analyze the data. SECR is used to
estimate the density of an animal population from capture–recapture data collected using an array of
'detectors'.
o Earlier, Chilika Development Authority had declared its intent to adopt a five year action plan for
fishing cat conservation in Chilika.
o The Fishing Cat Project, launched in 2010 started raising awareness about the Cat in West
Bengal.

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 o In 2012, the West Bengal government officially declared the Fishing Cat as the State Animal
and the Calcutta Zoo has two big enclosures dedicated to them.
o In Odisha, many NGOs and wildlife conservation Societies are involved in Fishing Cat research and
conservation work.

Q 67.B
• In the original Indian Constitution:
o Article 19(1)(f) guaranteed Indian citizens the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property.
o Article 31 protected individuals from the arbitrary acquisition of property by the government and
guaranteed compensation at a fair rate in case of expropriation by the State.
o The 44th Amendment Act removed the Right to property under Article 19(1)(f) and repealed Article
31. It placed right to property under Article 300A.
o Article 300A states that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law.” It
means the Parliament can pass a law for property acquisition without guaranteeing fair compensation.
The only requirement is that the government must acquire property using a valid law, but there is no
longer a constitutional guarantee of compensation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The removal of the Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights means that an individual can
no longer approach the Supreme Court under Article 32. However, the High Courts under Article
226 still have the power to issue writs for violations of Constitutional Rights, including property
rights under Article 300A. Therefore, an individual cannot move the Supreme Court under Article 32
but can still approach the High Courts under Article 226. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Q 68.A
• National Forest Policy (NFP) 1988 envisages that 33% of the geographical area should be under
forest or tree cover. Salient features of National Forest Policy are :
o Maintenance of environmental stability and restoration of ecological balance.
o Conservation of natural heritage.
o Checking soil erosion and denudation.
o Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover.
o Meeting the requirements of fuelwood, fodder, Non Timber Forest Product (NTFP) and small timber.
o Increasing productivity of forests. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• As per the latest India State of Forest Report ISFR), 2023 of Forest Survey of India, 19 states/UTs have
above 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Out of these, eight states/UTs namely
Mizoram, Lakshadweep, A & N Island, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur
have forest cover above 75 percent. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 69.D
• Slated to launch in Spring 2025, NASA’s Electrojet Zeeman Imaging Explorer (EZIE) will be the first
mission to image the magnetic fingerprint of the auroral electrojets. Led by the Johns Hopkins Applied
Physics Laboratory (APL), EZIE will use a trio of small satellites to characterize and record the
electrojets’ structure over space and time. It will fill gaps in our understanding of this space weather
phenomenon and provide findings that scientists can apply to other magnetized planets within and outside
our solar system. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Electrojets refer to concentrated high-latitude current flows inside the auroral oval, carrying millions of
amperes of current and creating the largest ground magnetic disturbance in the Earth's environment.
Electrojets are central to the electrical circuit, coupling the planet’s magnetosphere with its
atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 70.A
• Domingo Paes visited Vijayanagara during the reign of Sri Krishnadevaraya (1509–1529 CE).
• He provided a detailed account of the emperor’s appearance, military prowess, and administration.
• Description of Krishnadevaraya by Paes:
o He described him as a tall, strong, well-built man with a cheerful and dignified demeanor.
o Mentioned his military discipline, governance, and patronage of art and culture.
• He further describes him as "The King is of medium height and of fair complexion and good figure,
well-formed and of cheerful countenance. He is a great ruler and a man of much justice, but subject to
sudden fits of rage. He is by rank the most feared and perfect King that could possibly be; cheerful of
disposition, and very merry; he is very courteous to strangers, and he is a great ruler and a man of much
justice, but subject to sudden fits of rage. He has a grand body, well-formed and much better made than
any other man in his kingdom, and in his time he has won many victories over his enemies."
27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Niccolò de' Conti, an Italian traveler, visited the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of Deva Raya I,
not Krishnadevaraya, and his accounts don't focus on Krishnadevaraya.
• Al-Biruni did not write about Krishnadevaraya, as Al-Biruni's book, Kitab-ul-Hind, predates
Krishnadevaraya's reign by several centuries and focuses on the 11th-century Indian subcontinent. He
travelled India in the 11th century.
• Francis Bernier was a French traveler who visited India during Aurangzeb's reign (1658–1707) and
documented the Mughal Empire. Krishna Devaraya, the ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, reigned from
1509 to 1529, long before Bernier's time.

Q 71.A
• World Military Expenditure, 2023 Report published by Stockholm International Peace Research Institute
(SIPRI). Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
• In 2023, global military expenditure reached a record high of $2.44 trillion, driven by increased
tensions and conflicts, with the United States, China, and Russia being the top three spenders,
according to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).

Q 72.A
• UPI Circle:
o The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) recently introduced UPI Circle, a new
feature aimed at enhancing the flexibility and security of digital payments in India. This feature
allows a primary user to delegate controlled access to their UPI account to a secondary user, making it
useful for shared expenses, family financial management, and business transactions.
o This innovation is expected to widen digital payment adoption, particularly among individuals who
need to share financial access with dependents or trusted users.
• Key Features of UPI Circle
o Delegation of Transaction Authority
 UPI Circle enables a primary user to authorize a secondary user to initiate transactions
using the primary user’s UPI account. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 This allows controlled delegation, making it convenient for families, businesses, or financial
dependents.
o Control and Security for the Primary User
 The primary user has full control over transaction limits and authorization settings.
 They can define the scope of access, including spending limits, transaction approvals, and
permitted merchants.
o Authentication of Transactions
 The primary user does not have to authenticate every transaction manually unless they set
additional approval requirements. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
 This differs from the traditional UPI model, where only the registered user can perform
transactions.
o No Requirement for a Bank Account for Secondary Users:
 Unlike regular UPI accounts, secondary users in UPI Circle do not need to have their own UPI-
linked bank accounts. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
 This feature enables dependents, such as family members or employees, to transact without
requiring a separate UPI account.
• Use Cases of UPI Circle
o Household Management
 A parent can authorize their child to make payments using the family’s UPI account, setting
spending limits.
o Business Transactions
 Small businesses can delegate access to employees for routine transactions without compromising
full account control.
o Financial Dependents
 Elderly individuals can allow caregivers to make essential payments on their behalf.
28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 73.B
• The Snow leopard is listed as globally Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and the species is listed on
Appendix I of CITES. Sparsely distributed across 12 countries, India may be home to one-sixth to one-
ninth of the global population. China is estimated to encompass 60% of the snow leopard habitat.
The second-highest population of snow leopards lives in Mongolia, followed by India.
• India is home to approximately 90% of the world's Ganges river dolphin population, with the
species primarily found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli river systems. The Gangetic
dolphins can only live in freshwater and are essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds
waves that bounce off of fish and other prey.
• The Asian elephant is the largest land mammal on the Asian continent. They inhabit dry to wet forest and
grassland habitats in 13 range countries spanning South and Southeast. India, home to over 60% of the
global Asian elephant population. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 74.C
• The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species is the largest of
the three Asian species (Sumatran and Javan rhino) and shares its single horn characteristic with
the Javan rhino. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Sumatran rhino, in contrast, has two horns, a trait linking Asian and African rhinos. Indian rhinos are
primarily found in protected areas in Assam, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Nepal.
• The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-
brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armor-plated appearance. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze.
Males have loosely defined home ranges that are not well defended and often overlap.
• They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of
shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.
• Assam is collectively home to 80% of the global population of greater one-horned rhinos. The rhino
population has surged by approximately 170% since the 1980s, growing from 1,500 to over 4,014 today.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Indian rhinoceros, also known as the greater one-horned rhino, is currently listed as
Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

Q 75.D
• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a collaborative initiative between India and France aimed
at uniting efforts to combat climate change by implementing solar energy solutions. It was
conceptualized on the side lines of COP21 in Paris in 2015. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• With the signing and ratification of the ISA Framework Agreement by 15 countries on 6 December 2017,
ISA became the first international intergovernmental organisation to be headquartered in India.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Following a 2020 amendment to its Framework Agreement, all UN member states are now eligible to
join the Alliance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The International Solar Alliance is an international organisation with 120 Member and Signatory
countries. It works with governments to improve energy access and security worldwide and promote solar
power as a sustainable transition to a carbon-neutral future.

Q 76.A
• Recent context: The role of the Parliamentary Secretariat has gained attention with the commemoration
of 75 years of India's Parliament, highlighting its crucial role in maintaining legislative procedures and
knowledge.
• The Parliamentary Secretariat is integral to the legislative process in India, providing procedural and
administrative support to both Houses of Parliament.
• Under Article 98, each House of Parliament must have a separate secretarial staff, ensuring tailored
support for their specific functions. Thus, overarching law by Parliament governs their recruitment or
conditions of service. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The secretariats are divided into various functional services such as legislative, administrative, and
reporting.
• Secretary-Generals hold ranks akin to the Cabinet Secretary but differ in precedence, where the
Cabinet Secretary is placed higher. Hence statment 3 is not correct.
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 • The Speaker and Chairmen are authorized to create posts in secretariats, with consultation required for
key posts.

Q 77.C
• A mirage is an optical illusion where a distant object appears displaced or a non-existent pool of water is
seen on hot surfaces, such as desert sands or highways.
o It occurs due to the bending of light caused by temperature variations in different layers of air.
• How Does It Happen?
o On hot sunny days, the ground becomes extremely hot, heating the air just above it.
o The air near the ground is much hotter and less dense than the cooler air above.
o When light from the sky travels downward, it bends (refracts) gradually due to the changing density
of air.
o At a certain angle, total internal reflection occurs at the boundary between the hotter and cooler air
layers.
o The reflected light then reaches the observer's eye, creating the illusion of water.
• Why is Total Internal Reflection (TIR) the Correct Explanation?
o For total internal reflection (TIR) to occur, two conditions must be met:
o Light must travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium (Here, from cooler air to hotter air).
o The angle of incidence must exceed the critical angle, leading to complete reflection instead of
refraction. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
• Analysis of other options:
• Reflection occurs on smooth surfaces like mirrors or water bodies.
o Mirages are not caused by reflection from the ground but by light bending and reflecting within air
layers. Hence, option (a) is not the correct answer.
• Bending of light due to atmospheric layers (Partially Correct)
o This refers to refraction, which occurs before total internal reflection.
o While refraction plays a role, TIR is the dominant reason behind mirages. Hence, option (b) is not
the correct answer.
• Scattering explains phenomena like the blue color of the sky or the reddish sunset due to particles
spreading light in different directions.
o Mirages involve light bending and reflecting, not scattering. Hence, option (d) is not the correct
answer.

Q 78.A
• The Pallavas introduced the art of excavating temples from the rock. In fact, the Dravidian style of temple
architecture began with the Pallava rule.
• It was a gradual evolution starting from the cave temples to monolithic rathas and culminated in structural
temples.
• Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. This style of Pallava temples are seen at places
like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirappalli, Vallam,
Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram. Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• The second stage of Pallava architecture is represented by the Panchapandava Rathas or monolithic
rathas are found at Mamallapuram. Narasimhavarman I took the credit for these wonderful
architectural monuments.
o The five rathas, popularly called as the Panchapanadava rathas, signifies five different styles of
temple architecture.
o The mandapas contain beautiful sculptures on its walls. The most popular of these mandapas are
Mahishasuramardhini Mandapa, Tirumurthi Mandapam and Varaha Madapam
• In the next stage, Rajasimha introduced the structural temples. These temples were built by using the soft
sand rocks. The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi and the Shore temple at Mamallapuram remain the finest
examples of the early structural temples of the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram Pallavas.
• The Pallavas had also contributed to the development of sculpture. Apart from the sculptures found in the
temples, the ‘Open Art Gallery’ at Mamallapuram remains an important monument bearing the sculptural
beauty of this period. The Descent of the Ganges or the Penance of Arjuna is called a fresco Shore Temple
at painting in stone.

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 • The Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram was not built by the Pallavas but by Raja Raja Chola II in
the 12th century, and it is a part of the Great Living Chola Temples (UNESCO World Heritage
Site).

Q 79.C
• Important Marine Mammal Areas (IMMAs) are defined as discrete portions of habitat, important
to marine mammal species, that have the potential to be delineated and managed for conservation. They
are not legal designations but independent, peer-reviewed assessments based on a set of criteria supported
by scientific data.
• The IMMA initiative is the major activity of the Marine Mammal Protected Areas Task Force
(MMPATF) which was created in 2013 by the International Committee on Marine Mammal Protected
Areas (ICMMPA), the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) World Commission on
Protected Areas (WCPA) Marine Vice Chair, and members of the IUCN Species Survival Commission
(SSC) to help support a stronger global profile for the role of marine mammals in protected areas, and to
provide a stronger voice for the Marine Mammal Protected Areas.
• IMMAs are identified by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay IMMA: The Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay form a transboundary area
within the waters off India and Sri Lanka. A remnant but still breeding population of Dugongs is found in
this area. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is a marine national park in Tamil Nadu,
India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Other IMMAs in India:
o Sindhudurg-Karwar IMMA- The coastal stretch covering southern Maharashtra (Sindhudurg),
Goa and northern Karnataka (Karwar) in India hosts at least 12 species of whales and dolphins.
Among these species, Endangered Indian Ocean humpback dolphins (Sousa plumbea) and Vulnerable
finless porpoises (Neophocaena phocaenoides) are the most frequently observed.
o Gulf of Kutch IMMA- The Gulf of Kutch Marine Protected area is home to small and declining
populations of dugongs (Dugong dugon), Indian Ocean humpback dolphins (Sousa plumbea) and
finless porpoises (Neophocaena phocaenoides).

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Q 80.B
• The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is an extra-constitutional body, which finds mention in the
Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, where it has been accorded the status of a
government department. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is a staff agency, which provides secretarial assistance and advice to the Prime Minister. PMO came
into existense in 1947 by replacing the secretary to the Governer General. It was called the Prime
Minister's Secretariat and was renamed the PMO in 1977 and is headed by the Principal Secretary to
the Prime Minister.
• Functions of the PMO
o It oversees the implementation of policies and programmes by various government departments
and Ministries.Hence statement 2 is correct.
o It helps in dealing with and examining all references and files under the rules of business which have
to come to the Prime Minister.
o It helps the Prime Minister in dealing with departments which are under his direct charge like atomic
energy, space, etc.
o It helps the Prime Minister in dealing with responsibilities as the chairperson of NITI Aayog.
o lt takes care of the public relations side of the PM's job.
o Any issue that does not fall under purview of any ministry is also looked after by the PMO. Hence it
is called the 'residual legatee' of the government of India.
o PMO also manages the funds like PM Relief Fund, PM National Defense Fund, PM CARES Fund,
etc.

Q 81.B
• Introduction
o The South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) is a region over the South Atlantic Ocean where Earth’s
magnetic field is significantly weaker than its global average. This weakening exposes satellites,
spacecraft, and even the International Space Station (ISS) to increased radiation from charged
particles of the Sun. Recently, NASA and other space agencies have been closely monitoring the
SAA due to its potential risks to satellite-based technologies and space missions. Hence, option (b) is
the correct answer.
• What is the South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA)?
o The South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) is an irregularly shaped region centered over South America and
the South Atlantic Ocean, where the intensity of Earth’s magnetic field is at its lowest.
o Key Features of the SAA:
 The magnetic field in this region is weaker than usual, allowing more high-energy cosmic rays
and solar radiation to penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere.
 It is not a hole in the magnetic field, but rather a localized weakening due to variations in Earth’s
outer core dynamics and geodynamo processes.
 The anomaly shifts over time, with NASA and space agencies tracking its movement and
expansion.
• Why Does the SAA Exist?
o The SAA arises due to the complex interactions between Earth’s liquid outer core and the planet’s
magnetic field.
o Key Causes:
 Movement of the Earth’s Outer Core
✓ Earth’s magnetic field is generated by the motion of liquid iron and nickel in the outer core.
✓ Variations in this flow disrupt the symmetry of the field, weakening certain regions like the
South Atlantic.
 Earth’s Magnetic Dipole is Not Centered
✓ The geomagnetic dipole (like a bar magnet inside Earth) is slightly tilted and off-centered
compared to Earth’s rotational axis.
✓ This displacement leads to an uneven distribution of magnetic field strength, resulting in
anomalies like the SAA.
 Interaction with Solar and Cosmic Radiation
✓ Normally, Earth’s magnetosphere deflects charged particles from the Sun and cosmic rays.
✓ In the SAA, the weakened field allows high-energy particles from the Van Allen Radiation
Belts to penetrate deeper into the atmosphere
• Is the SAA Expanding?
o Studies show that the SAA is gradually shifting westward and expanding.
o Researchers are examining whether the anomaly will continue growing or stabilize over time.
32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 82.C
• The Fiftieth Congress session was held at Faizpur in December 1936 under the presidentship of
Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• A variety of issues were raised in this session. These were related to both the international and the internal
situation. Nehru attacked Fascism in his presidential speech, and the Congress passed resolutions
condemning Italian aggression of Abyssinia and Japanese aggression of China. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• In this session, the Congress demanded the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame a
Constitution of their own. The question of office acceptance was deferred again. However, the most
important thing that the Congress resolved at Faizpur was adopting an agrarian programme. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
• The major features outlined in this programme included:
o 50 per cent reduction in rent and revenue
o exemption of uneconomic holdings from reht and land tax
o taxation on agricultural income
o abolition of feudal levies and forced labour
o cooperative farming
o wiping out arrears of rent
o modification of ejectment laws
o recognition of peasant unions (Kisan Sabhas)
• This programme was however silent on the issue of the abolition of Zamindari and exploitation.

Q 83.D
• The exchange rate is determined by demand and supply dynamics in the foreign exchange market and is
influenced by several economic and global factors.
o Capital inflows (such as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), and
External Commercial Borrowings) increase the demand for INR, leading to its appreciation. Capital
outflows (such as investors withdrawing funds from Indian markets) increase demand for foreign
currency, leading to INR depreciation. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Higher interest rates in India attract foreign investors seeking better returns, leading to capital inflows
and INR appreciation. Lower interest rates may cause outflows, leading to INR depreciation. Hence
option 2 is correct.
o India is a net importer of crude oil. A rise in global crude oil prices increases India’s import bill,
raising demand for US dollars (USD) and leading to INR depreciation. Conversely, falling crude oil
prices ease pressure on the trade deficit, helping INR appreciate. Hence option 3 is correct.
o A widening CAD (when imports exceed exports) leads to higher demand for foreign currency,
causing INR depreciation. A narrowing CAD strengthens INR as export earnings rise relative to
import costs. Hence option 4 is correct.

Q 84.A
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY) to
illuminate dark regions through the establishment of solar street lights.
• It is a sub-scheme under the off-grid and decentralized solar application scheme of MNRE.
• Under this Solar Street Light with an LED capacity of 12 W will be provided in areas that do not enjoy
adequate coverage of power.
o It is a sub-scheme under Off –a grid and Decentralized Solar Thermal Application scheme.
o The Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is its implementing agency.
• Funding: 75% of the cost of Lighting systems through the MNRE budget and the remaining 25%
would be provided from MPLADS Funds, Panchayat Funds, or Municipalities and other Urban Local
Bodies (ULBs) Funds.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 85.B
• The Chola copper plate evidence refers to the following while executing the landgrants.
o Nattar
o Brahmadeyakkilavar
 Devadana
 Palliccanda
 Kanimurruttu
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 o Vettapperu-Urkalilar
o Nagarattar
• Nattars were the representatives of nadu (locality). The brahmadeyakkilavars were the brahmana donees
of brahmadeya (lands given to the brahmanas).
• Nagarattars comprised of the trading community and belonged to the nagaram (settlement of a group of
traders).
• Devadana, palliccanda, kavimurruttu and vettaperu have been identified as tax-free villages.
• Nattars were analogous to the vellanvagai urars (peasant villages) since a number of urs constituted a
nadu. As a constituent of administrative structure the nadu was important but it incorporated and
represented the urs (vellanvagai villages).
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 86.C
• Land revenue was the main source of the state's income besides the fines. In Samudragupta's time we
hear of an officer Gopasramin working as Akshapataladhikrita.
o His duty was to enter numerous matters in the accounts registers, recover royal dues from the sureties
of servants, to check embezzlement and recover fines for loss due to neglect or fraud.
• The King had a right to forced labour (Visthi), Bali and many other types of contributions. The King's
income from royal lands and forests was considered as his personal income. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• Besides this, the King's treasury had a right to treasure troves (treasures in the forms of coin-hoards,
jewels or other valuable objects, discovered from below the earth accidentally), digging of mines and
manufacture of salt.
• Various types of land are mentioned in the inscriptions. Land under cultivation was usually called
Kshetra. Lands not under cultivation were variously called as Khila, Aprahata, etc. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• All the major categories of crops--cereals like barley, wheat and paddy, different varieties of pulses,
grams and vegetables as well as cash crops like cotton and sugarcane were known long before the Gupta
period and continued to be cultivated.

Q 87.C
• Introduction to Ocean Currents and Gyres
o Ocean currents are large-scale movements of seawater driven by wind, the Earth’s rotation (Coriolis
effect), salinity differences, and temperature gradients. These currents are categorized into surface
currents and deep ocean currents, forming large circular flow patterns called oceanic gyres.
o Gyres are large systems of circulating ocean currents, primarily driven by global wind patterns and
the Coriolis effect. Each major ocean basin has one or more gyres, which regulate climate, marine
ecosystems, and global heat distribution.
• Kuroshio Current– North Pacific Gyre
o The Kuroshio Current is a warm ocean current that flows northward along Japan’s eastern
coastline.
o It is part of the North Pacific Gyre, which consists of four major currents:
 Kuroshio Current (Western boundary)
 North Pacific Current (Northern boundary)
 California Current (Eastern boundary)
 North Equatorial Current (Southern boundary)
o The gyre influences weather patterns in East Asia and North America.
o Hence, row 1 is correctly matched.
• Gulf Stream– North Atlantic Gyre
o The Gulf Stream is a warm and fast-moving current originating in the Gulf of Mexico and flowing
across the Atlantic towards Europe.
o It is part of the North Atlantic Gyre, which consists of:
 Gulf Stream (Western boundary)
 North Atlantic Drift (Northern boundary)
 Canary Current (Eastern boundary)
 North Equatorial Current (Southern boundary)
o The Gulf Stream moderates the climate of Western Europe by transporting warm water from the
tropics.
o Hence, row 2 is correctly matched.
34 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Agulhas Current – Indian Ocean Gyre
o The Agulhas Current is a warm current flowing southward along the eastern coast of Africa.
o It is part of the Indian Ocean Gyre, which consists of:
 Agulhas Current (Western boundary)
 South Equatorial Current (Northern boundary)
 West Australian Current (Eastern boundary)
 Indian Ocean Current (Southern boundary)
o • It significantly impacts regional climate and monsoonal systems in the Indian Ocean.
o Hence, row 3 is not correctly matched.
• Benguela Current – South Atlantic Gyre
o The Benguela Current is a cold ocean current that flows northward along the southwest coast of
Africa.
o It is part of the South Atlantic Gyre, which consists of:
 Brazil Current (Western boundary)
 South Atlantic Current (Northern boundary)
 Benguela Current (Eastern boundary)
 South Equatorial Current (Southern boundary)
o This current brings cold, nutrient-rich waters to the Namibian and Angolan coasts, supporting rich
marine life.
o Hence, row 4 is correctly matched.

Q 88.A
• Persistent organic pollutants can be transported over large distances through air and water.
• These pollutants can move across vast distances from the southern hemisphere to the northern
hemisphere by what is called the Grasshopper effect”. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Therefore, persistent organic pollutants released in one part of the world can, through a repeated (and
often seasonal) process of evaporation and deposit, be transported through the atmosphere to regions far
away from the original source.
• Over the course of several years, they approach the Arctic in a series of seasonal jumps. Thereby these
chemicals threaten the environment and health of Arctic People.

Q 89.D
• Fog can occur in any season, depending on the specific atmospheric conditions, such as temperature,
humidity, and air movement. In tropical regions, fog might be less common than in temperate zones due
to higher temperatures generally reducing relative humidity, but it is not restricted solely to winter
months. Fog can occur when cool air over warm water causes water vapor to condense, or in valleys
where cooler air settles at night. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Radiation fog forms when the ground cools rapidly during the night by radiation, leading to cooling
of the air close to the surface. This type of fog typically forms under clear skies and calm winds,
35 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 allowing the temperature to fall to the dew point, thus condensing water vapour present in the air into the
fog. Advection fog forms when warm, moist air passes over a cool surface. This process is called
advection, a scientific name describing the movement of fluid. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Fog formation generally requires high relative humidity, close to 100%. When the air temperature
cools to its dew point through contact with a cooler surface or by radiative cooling, high relative humidity
facilitates the condensation of water vapour into droplets that form fog. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.

Q 90.B
• Osmolyte
o Context: Recent research reveals that small molecules known as osmolytes help proteins stay stable
and functional under stress.
o Osmolytes: These are small molecules that stabilize proteins preventing them from misfolding and
ensuring proper function. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o They help cells survive stress and maintain protein stability. This makes them potential targets for
drug development.
o Technique Used: Covalent magnetic tweezers to observe protein folding and interaction with
osmolytes.
o Findings: Different osmolytes have varied effects on proteins.
o TMAO:
 At high concentrations (1.5M), it significantly increases the strength of Protein L, enhancing its
resistance to unfolding.
 Low concentrations have minimal effect on protein unfolding.
 High levels of TMAO are associated with heart diseases.
o Trehalose: Stabilizes the unfolded state of Protein L.
o Implications: Insights into osmolyte-protein interactions can guide the development of new drugs for
neurodegenerative diseases and conditions related to protein misfolding.

Q 91.C
• Banni grasslands
o Location and Size
 Largest tracts of arid grasslands in Kachchh district, Gujarat. Hence statement 1 is correct.
 Originally covered approximately 3,800 sq. km; now reduced to about 2,600 sq. km.
o Ecosystem
 Unique combination of wetlands, grasslands, and salt pans.
 Classified under Dichanthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus type of grass cover.
o Climate
 Arid climate with temperatures reaching up to 48°C - 50°C during May and June.
 Winter temperatures range between 5°C – 8°C during December and January.
o Rainfall
 Average annual rainfall is very low at 317 mm, occurring from June to September through the
Southwest monsoon.
 Coefficient of variation is 65%.
o Wetlands
 Numerous natural wetlands present, with Chhari-Dhandh being the largest.
 Chhari-Dhandh is a saucer-shaped wetland recently declared as a Conservation Reserve.
o Fauna
 Includes Nilgai, Chinkara, Blackbuck, Wild boar, Golden jackal, Indian hare, Indian wolf,
Caracal, Asiatic wildcat, Desert fox, and Indian wild ass.
o Migratory Species
 Flamingos and migratory cranes visit during the rainfall season.
o Cheetah Reintroduction: Banni Grasslands Reserve and Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary, both in Kutch,
have been classified as the last remaining habitats of the cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) in India. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
o Breeding ground: Many bird species such as the great Indian bustard and the Bengal florican prefer
to breed in grasslands.

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 o Tribal Communities: It is home to Sindhi speaking Maldhari (cattle breeders), Halaypotra, Hingora,
Hingorja, Jat and Mutwa tribes. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 92.D
• Foreign Exchange Reserves
o India's foreign exchange reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, special drawing
rights (SDRs) and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the IMF.
o India’s foreign exchange reserves moderated to USD 640.3 billion as of the end of December 2024.
o The reserves are sufficient to External Sector cover approximately 90 % of India’s external debt.
o As of 2024, India has secured its place among the world's largest foreign exchange reserve-holding
countries, ranking 4th globally, following China, Japan, and Switzerland.
o India’s forex reserves witnessed a notable increase of USD 27.1 billion in 2024.
˃ FCA constituted the bulk of increase, strengthening India’s overall reserve position.

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 93.C
• Recent Context: The discussion of judicial oversight is framed by recent Supreme Court rulings on the
Directorate of Enforcement and the withdrawal of state consent by Tamil Nadu for the CBI.
• More on the Topic:
o Overview: Judicial oversight in India ensures checks and balances on the functions and powers of
enforcement agencies like the ED and CBI, thereby promoting accountability and transparency.
o Key Details:
˃ Directorate of Enforcement (ED): The ED has the extended power to make arrests under the
PMLA and FEMA, signifying its crucial role in handling complex financial crimes.
˃ Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Specific consent from the state is mandatory for CBI to
probe cases within state boundaries, indicating state autonomy in allowing federal level
investigations. Exceptionally, higher courts can circumvent state consent in cases of national
interest or significant legal importance.
• Analysis of Options:
o Statement 1 is Correct: The ED has the authority to arrest without a formal FIR, which highlights its
enforcement capabilities under specific laws.
o ED does not register an FIR like the police. Instead, it files an Enforcement Case Information Report
(ECIR), which is an internal document.
o The Supreme Court (Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v. Union of India, 2022) ruled that ECIR is not
mandatory to be provided to the accused, unlike an FIR.
o Section 19 allows arrest based on “reason to believe” that a person is involved in money laundering.
o The arrested person must be produced before a special PMLA court within 24 hours.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Both the Supreme Court and High Courts hold the authority to allow CBI to
conduct investigations irrespective of state consent, ensuring federal judicial oversight.

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Q 94.A
• The Kurdistan Region
o The Kurdistan Region is a culturally and historically significant area inhabited predominantly by the
Kurdish people. While Kurdistan is not an officially recognized country, it is a large geopolitical
region that spans multiple modern-day countries, primarily Turkey, Iraq, Iran, and Syria. The
region is known for its mountainous terrain, rich water resources, and strategic location in the Middle
East.
• A Transnational territory,
o The Kurdistan Region is a transnational territory, meaning it is not confined to one country but
rather extends across multiple nations:
o Eastern Turkey – The largest Kurdish population resides here, particularly in cities like Diyarbakır,
Van, and Şanlıurfa.
o Northern Iraq – The Kurdistan Regional Government (KRG) administers Iraqi Kurdistan, including
cities like Erbil (capital), Sulaymaniyah, and Dohuk.
o Western Iran – Kurdish-majority provinces include Kermanshah and West Azerbaijan.
o Northern Syria – The region of Rojava (Syrian Kurdistan) is an autonomous Kurdish-controlled area.
o Historically, the Sykes-Picot Agreement (1916) and Treaty of Lausanne (1923) divided the Kurdish
lands among these four modern states.
• Major Rivers in the Kurdistan Region:
o Tigris River – One of the most important rivers in the Middle East, it originates in Turkey and flows
through Iraqi Kurdistan, supporting agriculture and urban settlements.
o Greater Zab River – A tributary of the Tigris, it provides water resources for northern Iraq and
eastern Turkey, supporting irrigation and drinking water supplies.
o Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Mountain Ranges in the Kurdistan Region:
o Actual Mountain Ranges in the Kurdistan Region:
o Zagros Mountains – The most prominent mountain range in Kurdistan, extending across Iran, Iraq,
and Turkey.
o Taurus Mountains – Located in southeastern Turkey, partially covering the Kurdish-populated areas.
• Hindu Kush mountain
o The Hindu Kush mountain range is NOT in the Kurdistan Region.
o The Hindu Kush is primarily located in Afghanistan and extends into Pakistan.
o It is not related to the Kurdish mountainous terrain. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 95.C
• Muhammad Gawan was a Persian scholar, administrator, and reformer in the Bahmani Sultanate. He
served as the Prime Minister (Wazir) under Muhammad Shah III (r. 1463–1481 CE). He undertook
major administrative and military reforms. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Educational Reforms:
o He founded the Madrasa at Bidar (1472 CE), which became a prominent center of Islamic
learning.
o The madrasa had a vast library, lecture halls, and accommodations for scholars. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• Military and Territorial Expansion:
o Captured Goa from Vijayanagara in 1472 CE after a successful campaign. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o Strengthened the Bahmani navy to secure control over coastal trade.
o Conducted campaigns in Konkan and Orissa regions.
• He improved revenue collection and reduced the power of local governors to prevent rebellion.
• He was falsely accused of treason by rival nobles in the Bahmani court.
o Sultan Muhammad III ordered his execution in 1481 CE.
o His death weakened the Bahmani Sultanate, leading to fragmentation into the Deccan Sultanates
(Bijapur, Golconda, Ahmednagar, Berar, and Bidar).

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Q 96.C
• The litmus test is a simple and widely used method to determine whether a substance is acidic or basic. It
relies on the color change of litmus paper in different solutions.
• Litmus Test Basics:
o Red litmus paper turns blue in a basic solution (pH > 7).
o Blue litmus paper turns red in an acidic solution (pH < 7).
o If there is no color change, the substance is neutral (pH ≈ 7).
• Vinegar (Acidic - pH ≈ 2-3)
o Contains acetic acid.
o Turns blue litmus paper red.
o Does not change red litmus.
• Lemon Juice (Acidic - pH ≈ 2-3)
o Contains citric acid.
o Turns blue litmus paper red.
o Does not change red litmus.
• Baking Soda Solution (Basic - pH ≈ 8-9)
o Contains sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3), which is mildly basic. Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer.
o Turns red litmus paper blue.
• Hydrochloric Acid (Strong Acid - pH ≈ 1-2)
o Highly acidic due to HCl dissociation in water.
o Turns blue litmus paper red, does not affect red litmus.

Q 97.C
• Usually, species having a wide range of distribution evolve genetically adapted local populations, called
ecotypes. Ecotypes differ from each other on the basis of morphological and physiological characters.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Ecotypes are inter-fertile. Though the different ecotypes of a species are morphologically and genetically
distinct, yet because of their inter-fertility, they are put into one taxonomic species. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

Q 98.A
• The Kara Sea is part of the Arctic Ocean north of Siberia. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The Weddell Sea is a marginal sea of the Southern Ocean that is situated along the coast of Antarctica
south of the Atlantic Ocean. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Aegean Sea, an arm of the Mediterranean Sea, located between the Greek peninsula on the west and
Asia Minor on the east. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• The Barents Sea is a marginal sea of the Arctic Ocean, located off the northern coasts of Norway and
Russia with vast majority of it lying in Russian territorial waters. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Q 99.A
• Brihaddeshi was a Sanskrit text written by Matanga Muni and was among the first to define the
concept of raga in Indian classical music.
o Explains the Deshi (regional) and Margi (classical) styles of music.
o Discusses different musical forms and instruments of that era.
o Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Raag Tarangini was written by Lochana Kavi.
o It contains illustrations from both Jaidev (of Geet Govind) and Vidyapati.
o Explores the classification of ragas based on time theory.
o Discusses the grama (scales) and the evolution of melodic structures.
o Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Swaramela Kalanidhi was written by Ramamatya of Vijayanagar empire.
o It is a crucial work in Carnatic music theory.
o Explains the 72 Melakarta (parent) ragas, forming the basis for the modern Carnatic system.
o Describes the tuning and structure of veena, an important instrument in South Indian music.
o Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
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Q 100.B
• Incident in Jaisalmer (December 2024)
o A farmer in Mohangarh, Jaisalmer was drilling a tube well up to 850 feet deep.
o Suddenly, water began gushing out under high pressure, flooding 25 bighas of land.
o A truck and drilling machine got stuck, and non-inflammable gas was also released.
• What is an Artesian Condition?
o An artesian aquifer refers to groundwater trapped under pressure between layers of
impermeable rock (like sandstone).
o When the top layer is punctured (by drilling), the underground pressure forces water upwards
without pumping. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o This naturally flowing water is different from water extracted through regular tube wells.
o The term “artesian” comes from Artois, France, where such wells were drilled in the Middle
Ages.
• Why Did This Happen in the Desert?
o In Rajasthan’s desert region, water is confined deep below a geological layer of sandstone.
o When the layer is punctured, the pressure pushes water to the surface, causing high-pressure gushing.
o Similar artesian conditions have been observed before in Mohangarh and Nachana Samiti Panchayat,
but never with such intensity.
o Similar phenomena occur in Australia and Africa.
• Is This Linked to the Saraswati River?
o Some social media claims suggested the water was linked to the mythical Saraswati River mentioned
in the Rig Veda.
o However, scientists refuted this, stating the water is millions of years old and not connected to any
existing river system.

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