Writing Sample

Instructions: Read the following prompt, taking a few moments to plan a response. Then,
write your response in essay form.

Prompt: Climate change is constant and natural.

Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Use examples from history, literature, or your
own personal experience to support your point of view.
 Section 1 ‐ Quantitative (Math)
1. Two even integers and one odd integer are multiplied together. Which of the following
could be their product?
(A) 3.75
(B) 9
(C) 16.2
(D) 24
(E) 69

2. If 520ൊx = 40n, then which of the following is equal to nx?

(A) 13
(B) 40nx
(C) 26
(D) 40
(E) 13x

3. In Figure 1 (pictured below), the distance from i4 to D is 48. The distance from A to B is
equal to the distance from B to C. If the distance from C to D is twice the distance of A to B,
how far apart are B and D?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 26
(E) 36

4. Linda had 76 books at her yard sale. She had 16 customers. If 12 books remain unsold,
what is the average number of books purchased by each customer?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 12

5. Class starts at 9:00 a.m. John arrives 26 minutes early. The teacher arrives 30 minutes
later. What time does the teacher arrive at class?
(A) 9:04 p.m.
(B) 8:34 a.m.
(C) 9:34 a.m.
(D) 9:00 a.m.
(E) 9:04 a.m.
6. Which of the following is NOT less than 0.33?
(A) 4/15
(B) 13/45
(C) 26/81
(D) 2/6
(E) 4/9

7. If a ‐ 16 = 8b + 6, what does a + 3 equal?

(A) b + 3
(B) 8b + 9
(C) 8b + 22
(D) 8b + 25
(E) 25

8. In Figure 2 (pictured below), angles b and d are equal. What is the degree measure of
angle d?

(A) 240°
(B) 120°
(C) 80°
(D) 60°
(E) 30°

9. A man walked continuously across a desert at 2.5 miles per hour for 3 days. How many
miles did he walk?
(A) 180 miles
(B) 120 miles
(C) 90 miles
(D) 12 miles
(E) 7,5 miles

10. Janice weighs x pounds. Elaina weighs 23 pounds more than Janice. June weighs 14
pounds more than Janice. In terms of x, what is the sum of their weights minus 25 pounds?
(A) 3x + 37
(B) 3x+ 12
(C) x + 12
(D) 3x‐25
(E) x=4

11. A bag contains 14 blue, 6 red, 12 green and 8 purple buttons. 25 buttons are removed
from the bag randomly. How many of the removed buttons were red if the chance of
drawing a red button from the bag is now 1/3?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

12. The graph in Figure 3 (pictured below) shows the monthly stable expenses for
Samantha’s horse. If she spends $350 for feed and board, how much does she spend on
veterinary bills?

(A) $200
(B) $250
(C) $275
(D)$325
(E)$375

13. A washing machine makes 85 revolutions per minute on the spin cycle. If the washing
machine spends 15 minutes on the spin cycle per wash, how many washes will it take to
reach 100,000 revolutions (rounded to the nearest whole number)?
(A) 1,275
(B) 1,175
(C) 100
(D) 78
(E) 35

14. There are 80 mg / 0.8 ml in Acetaminophen Concentrated Infant Drops. If the proper
dosage for a four year old child is 240 mg, how many milliliters should the child receive?
(A) 0.8 ml
(B) 1.6 ml
(C) 2.4 ml
(D) 3.2 ml
(E) 5.2 ml

15. Solve the following equation: (y + 1)(y + 2)(y + 3)

(A) y2 + 3y + 2
(B) 3y2 + 6y + 3
(C) 2y2 + lly
(D) y3 + 6y2 + 11y + 6
(E) 8y3 + 6y + 8

16. What is the area of the parallelogram in Figure 4 (pictured below)?

(A) 10 square feet

(B) 12 square feet
(C) 16 square feet
(D) 24 square feet
(E) 36 square feet

17.50 students are enrolled in both English and Math. 90 students are enrolled in either
English or Math. If 25 students are enrolled in English, but not Math, how many students
are enrolled in Math but not English?
(A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 65
(E) 90

18.If a savings account earns 3.75% simple interest, how much interest will a deposit of
$2,500 earn in one month?
(A) $93.75
(B) $666.67
(C) $2,503.75
(D) $2,593.75
(E) $9,375.00
19. In Figure 5 (pictured below), AD = 5 and AB = 12, what is the length of AC (not shown)?

(A) 10
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 60
(E) 169

20. A recipe that serves 2 calls for 1.5 teaspoons of salt. How much salt should be added if
the recipe is altered to serve 5?
(A) 1 3/4 teaspoons
(B) 2 teaspoons
(C) 2 1/2 teaspoons
(D) 3 teaspoons
(E) 3 3/4 teaspoons

21. Convert 12.5% to a fraction.

(A) 1/3
(B) 1/8
(C) 3/8
(D) 5/8
(E) 7/8

22. A sweater was originally priced at $50.00. If it was discounted to $37.50, what was the
rate of discount?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
(E) 35%

23. Rick scores 95%, 68%, 86%, 83%, 64%, 92%, and 79% on his math tests over the semester.
When calculating students' semester averages, Rick’s teacher disregards each student’s
highest and lowest score. What is Rick’s average test score?
(A) 57.71%
(B) 75.5%
(C) 80.8%
(D) 81%
(E) 81.6%
24. A regular toilet uses 3.2 gallons of water per flush. A low flow toilet uses 1.6 gallons of
water per flush. What is the difference between the number of gallons used by the regular
toilet and the low flow toilet after 375 flushes?
(A) 100 gallons
(B) 525 gallons
(C) 600 gallons
(D) 1,200 gallons
(E) 1,800 gallons

25. Five dice are rolled together one time. What is the probability of rolling five 6s?
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/30
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/1,000
(E) 1/7,776
 Section 2 ‐ Verbal

For questions 1‐30: Select the synonym. Each question has a word in all capital letters
followed by five answer choices in all lower‐case letters. Select the answer choice with a
definition closest to the capitalized word.

1. BANISH:
(A) eject
(B) stamp
(C) atone
(D) ease
(E) cull

2. RESPECT:
(A) encourage
(B) expose
(C) relax
(D) revere
(E) award

3. HARVEST:
(A) plague
(B) reap
(C) plant
(D) harass
(E) deduce

4. PETITION:
(A) apply
(B) pronounce
(C) request
(D) corrupt
(E) issue

5. SHACKLE:
(A) chain
(B) exodus
(C) brawl
(D) picket
(E) peg

6. ELABORATE:
(A) beaming
(B) effeminate
(C) intricate
(D) alive
(E) liable
7. DISGUISE:
(A) detriment
(B) slant
(C) disposal
(D) distrust
(E) mask

8. ESSENTIAL:
(A) substantial
(B) worthy
(C) indispensable
(D) final
(E) equal

9. DESPAIR:
(A) violation
(B) cessation
(C) hopelessness
(D) scheme
(E) passion

10. BURST:
(A) explode
(B) distract
(C) collide
(D) execute
(E) muffle

11. TIMBER:
(A) music
(B) current
(C) bond
(D) forest
(E) tone

12. SIGNIFICANT:
(A) mournful
(B) noticeable
(C) meaningful
(D) foolish
(E) uniform

13. STUDIO:
(A) victor
(B) citizen
(C) fashion
(D) workshop
(E) trick

14. GLEAN:
(A) emit
(B) gather
(C) bestow
(D) reveal
(E) allot

15. VIRTUE:
(A) vision
(B) maiden
(C) peak
(D) expert
(E) quality

16. COURIER:
(A) goddess
(B) messenger
(C) inquisitive
(D) artist
(E) beggar

17. SCRUPULOUS:
(A) meager
(B) shabby
(C) subservient
(D) timely
(E) honest

18. UTENSIL:
(A) implement
(B) cavity
(C) trick
(D) chime
(E) machine

19.ALOFT:
(A) below
(B) sufficient
(C) well
(D) sociable
(E) overhead

20.OFFENDER:
(A) dweller
(B) officer
(C) employer
(D) lawyer
(E) criminal

21.GIMMICK:
(A) grant
(B) attribute
(C) sign
(D) ploy
(E) spirit

22. HEAVE:
(A) cure
(B) launch
(C) mound
(D) weigh
(E) badger

23. LULL:
(A) calm
(B) bait
(C) bedtime
(D) haul
(E) endure

24. WRY：
(A) bread
(B) intent
(C) irate
(D) cynical
(E) sodden

25. CLIMAX:
(A) hindrance
(B) culmination
(C) enigma
(D) closure
(E) facade

26. ARROGANT:
(A) proud
(B) intelligible
(C) dominant
(D) erect
(E) fabricated

27. INAUGURATION:
(A) president
(B) induction
(C) stimulus
(D) grade
(E) annoyance

28. MAUDLIN:
(A) immature
(B) pragmatic
(C) gaunt
(D) sentimental
(E) eloquent

29. PIOUS:
(A) pathetic
(B) shrill
(C) snide
(D) petty
(E) devout

30. RESUSCITATE:
(A) revere
(B) breathe
(C) revive
(D) answer
(E) commence
For questions 31‐60: These questions ask you to identify and compare relationships between
pairs of words. Select the answer that best completes the comparison.

31. Elevator is to building as

(A) seat is to theater
(B) apple is to core
(C) fence is to fence post
(D) plumber is to pipes
(E) pilot is to airplane

32. Coarse is to fine as

(A) soil is to earth
(B) buoyant is to airy
(C) fool is to foolish
(D) deliberate is to accidental
(E) burden is to bicycle

33. Ice is to skate as water is to

(A) lake
(B) wash
(C) drink
(D) drown
(E) swim

34. Driver is to truck as

(A) horse is to rider
(B) hiker is to trail
(C) waiter is to restaurant
(D) engineer is to train
(E) mother is to baby

35. Snow is to avalanche as

(A) hail is to rain
(B) lightening is to thunder
(C) water is to river
(D) wind is to tornado
(H) door is to knob

36. Cry is to sadness as

(A) fear is to function
(B) yell is to anger
(C) happiness is to smile
(D) doubt is to confusion
(E) bandage is to pain

37. Water is to thirst as food is to

(A) crop
(B) feast
(C) hunger
(D) fire
(E) dishes

38. Bunch is to flowers as

(A) bale is to hay
(B) walnut is to shell
(C) cake is to party
(D) butterfly is to wing
(E) roof is to house

39. Grapes are to wine as

(A) catsup is to French fries
(B) coffee is to cup
(C) chair is to table
(D) knife is to fork
(E) wheat is to bread

40. Mock is to jest as

(A) resume is to cease
(B) bowl is to cereal
(C) encompass is to surround
(D) swelter is to freeze
(E) grass is to green

41. Exercise is fitness as

(A) wing is to bird
(B) horse is to saddle
(C) laziness is to activity
(D) study is to knowledge
(E) milk is to cow

42. Foundation is to building as

(A) roots are to tree
(B) fence is to yard
(C) low is to high
(D) hill is to slope
(E) green is to grass

43. Pregnancy is to birth as

(A) chick is to hatch
(B) child is to grow
(C) appetizer is to meal
(D) flute is to music
(E) door is to open
44. Faint is to bright as
(A) creep is to crawl
(B) window is to door
(C) bone is to body
(D) cheerful is to happy
(E) crisp is to flaccid

45. Combustion is to burn as

(A) field is to mouse
(B) decay is to rot
(C) fruit is to mold
(D) fire is to wood
(E) gas is to ignite

46. Joy is to ecstasy as

(A) healthy is to illness
(B) sorrow is to misery
(C) massive is to large
(D) help is to assist
(E) improve is to better

47. Rooster is to crow as dog is to

(A) cat
(B) poodle
(C) bark
(D) leash
(E) wag

48. Burden is to encumber as

(A) end is to enemy
(B) drip is to bore
(C) collapse is to rebuild
(D) drudge is to idle
(E) chortle is to laugh

49. Paltry is to cheap as

(A) potent is to powerful
(B) premeditated is to spontaneous
(C) despair is to hope
(D) wall is to water
(E) lock is to fire

50. Hat is to head as shoe is to

(A) sock
(B) foot
(C) lace
(D) tread
(E) box

51. Equine is to horse as reptilian is to

(A) cold‐blooded
(B) gecko
(C) pest
(D) desert
(E) mammal

52. Mushroom is to spore as

(A) fern is to frond
(B) horse is to foal
(C) plant is to seed
(D) bud is to flower
(E) water is to ice

53. Magnet is to metal as

(A) iron is to nail
(B) engine is to railroad
(C) element is to chemistry
(D) flower is to bee
(E) rose is to thorn

54. Clock is to time as

(A) pentameter is to poetry
(B) future is to past
(C) calculator is to math
(D) language is to communication
(E) metronome is to rhythm

55. Snow is to ski as

(A) track is to run
(B) mitt is to baseball
(C) golf is to club
(D) court is to net
(E) race is to hurdle

56. Desire is to crave as

(A) depose is to inaugurate
(B) occasion is to oddity
(C) depart is to exit
(D) disgrace is to honor
(E) resurrect is to reflect

57. Vault is to valuables as

(A) necklace is to jewelry
(B) refrigerator is to food
(C) coin is to money
(D) victory is to defeat
(E) cupboard is to kitchen

58. Bandage is to wound as

(A) crutch is to walk
(B) gold is to silver
(C) pain is to suffer
(D) seatbelt is to passenger
(E) ointment is to heal

59. Yarn is to knit as

(A) fabric is to sew
(B) needle is to hay
(C) wool is to sweater
(D) sock is to shoe
(E) dye is to color

60. Monotonous is to novel as inconspicuous is to

(A) obscure
(B) vague
(C) prominent
(D) exact
(E) punish
 Section 3 ‐ Reading Comprehension

Read each passage closely and answer the associated questions. Be sure to choose the
answer that BEST answers the question being asked.

Questions 1‐4 refer to the following passage:

Sequoia and Kings Canyon National Parks support a wide diversity of

animal species, reflecting the range in elevation, climate, and habitat
variety here. Over 260 native vertebrate species are in the parks;
numerous additional species may be present but have not been
5 confirmed. Of the native vertebrates, five species are extirpated
(extinct here), and over 150 are rare or uncommon. There have been
some studies of invertebrates here, but there is not enough
information to know how many species occur in the parks. Many of
the parks' caves contain invertebrates, some of which occur only in
10 one cave and are known nowhere else in the world. Plant life in the
foothills, where summers are hot and dry and winters are mild, is
largely chaparral on the lower slopes, with blue oak and California
buckeye in the valleys and on higher slopes. A number of animals live
in this area year‐round; some breed here, while others winter here.
15 Local species include the gray fox, bobcat, striped and spotted skunks,
black bear, woodrat, pocket gopher, white‐footed mouse, California
quail, scrub jay, lesser goldfinch, wrentit, acorn woodpecker, gopher
snake, California kingsnake, striped racer, western whiptail lizard, and
the California newt.

1. This passage is mainly about

(A) animals in caves.
(B) extinct animals.
(C) animal species in two National Parks.
[D) plant life in the foothills.
(E) elevation and climate in two National Parks.

2. How is this passage structured?

(A) cause and effect
(B) main idea and detail
(C) chronological order
(D) compare and contrast
(E) proposition and support

3. Why are the parks' caves important?

(A) vertebrates live in them
(B) five species are extirpated
(C) they provide a year‐round home
(D) they are at a high elevation
(E) they are home to unique species

4. What was the author's purpose in writing this passage?

(A) to entertain the reader
(B) to bore the reader
(C) to persuade the reader
(D) to inform the reader
(E) to humor the reader
 Questions 5‐9 refer to the following passage:

From 1892 to 1954, over twelve million immigrants entered

the United States through the portal of Ellis Island, a small island in
New York Harbor. Ellis Island is located in the upper bay just off the
New Jersey coast, within the shadow of the Statue of Liberty. Through
5 the years, this gateway to the new world was enlarged from its
original 3.3 acres to 27.5 acres by landfill supposedly obtained from
the ballast of ships, excess earth from the construction of the New
York City subway system and elsewhere.
Before being designated as the site of one of the first Federal
10 immigration station by President Benjamin Harrison in 1890, Ellis
Island had a varied history. The local Indian tribes had called it
"Kioshk" or Gull Island. Due to its rich and abundant oyster beds and
plentiful and profitable shad runs, it was known as Oyster Island for
many generations during the Dutch and English colonial periods. By
15 the time Samuel Ellis became the island's private owner in the 1770's,
the island had been called Kioshk, Oyster, Dyre, Bucking and
Anderson's Island. In this way, Ellis Island developed from a sandy
island that barely rose above the high tide mark, into a hanging site
for pirates, a harbor fort, ammunition and ordinance depot named
20 Fort Gibson, and finally into an immigration station.

5. Which of the following is true about Ellis Island?

I. It houses the Statue of Liberty.
II. The local Indian tribes called it Oyster Island.
III. It was expanded using dirt from the construction of the subway system.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) III only
(E) I, II, and III

6. The word “portal” in the first paragraph most likely means

(A) island.
(B) gateway.
(C) boat.
(D) subway.
(E) beach.

7. The style of this passage is most like that found in a(n)

(A) immigrant's diary.
(B) business letter.
(C) history textbook.
(D) persuasive essay.
(E) short story.
8. How did the island get its current name?
(A) It was named after its private owner, Samuel Ellis.
(B) It developed from a sandy island to an immigration station.
(C) It was named after its abundant oyster beds.
(D) It was an ordinance and ammunition depot.
(E) The local Indian tribes named the island.

9. The author probably included the different names of Ellis Island to show
(A) how many owners the island had.
(B) that pirates used the island.
(C) that its size was increased.
(D) it was occupied during the Dutch and English colonial periods.
(E) the rich and varied history of the island.
 Questions 10‐13 refer to the following passage:

"His pride,” said Miss Lucas, "does not offend me so much as

pride often does, because there is an excuse for it. One cannot wonder
that so very fine a young man, with family, fortune, everything in his
favour, should think highly of himself. If I may so express it, he has a
5 right to be proud.”
“That is very true,” replied Elizabeth, “and I could easily forgive
his pride, if he had not mortified mine."
"Pride,” observed Mary, who piqued herself upon the solidity of
her reflections, “is a very common failing I believe. By all that I have
10 ever read, I am convinced that it is very common indeed, that human
nature is particularly prone to it, and that there are very few of us
who do not cherish a feeling of self‐complacency on the score of some
quality or other, real or imaginary. Vanity and pride are different
things, though the words are often used synonymously. A person may
15 be proud without being vain. Pride relates more to our opinion of
ourselves, vanity to what we would have others think of us.”

10. Why doesn’t the gentleman's pride offend Miss Lucas?

(A) She admires his vanity.
(B) He offended Elizabeth.
(C) It is human nature to be proud.
(D) He is poor and homeless.
(E) He handsome and rich.

11. What are Elizabeth's feelings towards the gentleman?

(A) She is offended by him.
(B) She enjoys his company.
(C) She is proud of him.
(D) She wants to get to know him better.
(E) She is glad he is rich.

12. Which sentence best states the theme of this passage?

(A) Pride and vanity are offensive.
(B) Fame and fortune can make a person proud.
(C) Every person is proud in one way or another.
(D) Pride can bring you fortune.
(E) If you have a fortune, you deserve to be proud.

13. According to the passage, what is the difference between pride and vanity?
(A) Pride relates to a person’s abilities; vanity relates to a person’s looks.
(B) Men are proud; women are vain.
(C) Pride and vanity are synonymous.
(D) Pride is what you think of yourself; vanity is what you want others to think of you.
(E) Pride is part of human nature; vanity is not.
Questions 14‐19 refer to the following passage:

Tips for Eating Calcium Rich Foods

• Include milk as a beverage at meals. Choose fat‐free or low‐fat milk.
• If you usually drink whole milk, switch gradually to fat‐free milk to
lower saturated fat and calories, Try reduced fat (2%), then low‐fat
(1%), and finally fat‐free (skim).
• If you drink cappuccinos or lattes—ask for them with fat‐free (skim)
milk.
• Add fat‐free or low‐fat milk instead of water to oatmeal and hot cereals
• Use fat‐free or low‐fat milk when making condensed cream soups (such
as cream of tomato).
• Have fat‐free or low‐fat yogurt as a snack.
• Make a dip for fruits or vegetables from yogurt.
• Make fruit‐yogurt smoothies in the blender.
• For dessert, make chocolate or butterscotch pudding with fat‐free or
low‐fat milk.
• Top cut‐up fruit with flavored yogurt for a quick dessert.
• Top casseroles, soups, stews, or vegetables with shredded low‐fat
cheese.
• Top a baked potato with fat‐free or low‐fat yogurt.

For those who choose not to consume milk products

• If you avoid milk because of lactose intolerance, the most reliable way
to get the health benefits of milk is to choose lactose‐free alternatives
within the milk group, such as cheese, yogurt, or lactose‐free milk, or to
consume the enzyme lactase before consuming milk products.
• Calcium choices for those who do not consume milk products include:
o Calcium fortified juices, cereals, breads, soy beverages, or rice
beverages
o Canned fish (sardines, salmon with bones) soybeans and other
soy products, some other dried beans, and some leafy greens.

14. According to the passage, how can you lower saturated fat and calories in your diet?
(A) Add fat‐free milk to oatmeal instead of water.
(B) Switch to fat‐free milk.
(C) Drink calcium‐fortified juice.
(D) Make yogurt dip.
(E) Choose lactose‐free alternatives.

15. What device does the author use to organize the passage?
(A) headings
(B) captions
(C) diagrams
(D) labels
(E) bold print
16. How much fat does reduced fat milk contain?
(A) 0 percent
(B) 1 percent
(C) 2 percent
(D) 3 percent
(E) 100 percent

17. Which of the following is true about calcium rich foods?

I. Canned salmon with bones contains calcium.
II. Cheese is a lactose‐free food.
III. Condensed soup made with water is a calcium rich food.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) III only
(E) I, II, and III

18. What information should the author include to help clarify information in the passage?
(A) The fat content of yogurt.
(B) How much calcium is in fortified juice.
(C) Which leafy greens contain calcium.
(D) The definition of lactose intolerance.
(E) Where you can buy rice beverages,

19. The style of this passage is most like that found in a(n)
(A) tourist guidebook.
(B) teen magazine.
(C) encyclopedia.
(D) friendly letter.
(E) health textbook.
 Questions 20‐ 24 refer to the following passage:

Harriet Tubman was a runaway slave from Maryland who

became known as the "Moses of her people." Over the course of 10
years, and at great personal risk, she led hundreds of slaves to
freedom along the Underground Railroad, a secret network of safe
5 houses where runaway slaves could stay on their journey north to
freedom. She later became a leader in the abolitionist movement, and
during the Civil War she was a spy for the federal forces in South
Carolina as well as a nurse.
Harriet Tubman's name at birth was Araminta Ross. She was
10 one of 11 children of Harriet and Benjamin Ross born into slavery in
Dorchester County, Maryland. As a child, Ross was "hired out" by her
master as a nursemaid for a small baby. Ross had to stay awake all
night so that the baby wouldn't cry and wake the mother. If Ross fell
asleep, the baby's mother whipped her. From a very young age, Ross
15 was determined to gain her freedom.
As a slave, Araminta Ross was scarred for life when she refused
to help in the punishment of another young slave. A young man had
gone to the store without permission, and when he returned, the
overseer wanted to whip him. He asked Ross to help but she refused.
20 When the young man started to run away, the overseer picked up a
heavy iron weight and threw it at him. He missed the young man and
hit Ross instead. The weight nearly crushed her skull and left a deep
scar. She was unconscious for days, and suffered from seizures for the
rest of her life.
25 In 1844, Ross married a free black named John Tubman and
took his last name. She also changed her first name, taking her
mother's name, Harriet. In 1849, worried that she and the other slaves
on the plantation were going to be sold, Tubman decided to run away.
Her husband refused to go with her, so she set out with her two
30 brothers, and followed the North Star in the sky to guide her north to
freedom. Her brothers became frightened and turned back, but she
continued on and reached Philadelphia. There she found work as a
household servant and saved her money so she could return to help
others escape.

20. This passage is mainly about

(A) slaves in the Civil War.
(B) how slaves escaped along the Underground Railroad.
(C) Harriet Tubman's role as an abolitionist leader.
(D) Harriet Tubman’s life as a slave.
(E) how Harriet Tubman became a nurse.

21. The author of the passage describes Harriet Tubman’s life as a slave to show
(A) why she wanted to escape slavery.
(B) why she was a spy during the Civil War.
(C) why she suffered from seizures.
(D) how she loved babies.
(E) why she left her husband.

22. Harriet Tubman’s seizures were caused by

(A) a whipping.
(B) a severe head injury.
(C) loss of sleep.
(D) a birth defect.
(E) her escape to freedom.

23. How is this passage structured?

(A) cause and effect
(B) problem and solution
(C) chronological order
(D) compare and contrast
(E) proposition and support

24. How did Araminta Ross come to be known as Harriet Tubman?

(A) She took her husband’s last name and changed her first name to her mother’s name.
(B) She was named after the plantation owner’s wife.
(C) She changed her name because she was wanted as an Underground Railroad runner.
(D) She changed her name to remain anonymous as a Civil War spy.
(E) The overseer began calling her Harriet Tubman.
 Questions 25‐29 refer to the following passage:

There will come soft rains and the smell of the ground,
And swallows circling with their shimmering sound;
And frogs in the pools singing at night,
And wild plum trees in tremulous white;
5 Robins will wear their feathery fire
Whistling their whims on a low fence‐wire;
And not one will know of the war, not one
Will care at last when it is done,
Not one would mind, neither bird nor tree
10 If mankind perished utterly;
And Spring herself, when she woke at dawn,
Would scarcely know that we were gone.

25. How many stanzas does this poem have?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 10
(E) 12

26. Which line uses personification?

(A) Line 2
(B) Line 4
(C) Line 7
(D) Line 10
(E) Line 11

27. The “we” used in line 12 refers to

(A) all of mankind.
(B) the victors of the war.
(C) Americans.
(D) the poet and the reader.
(E) the animals.

28. This poem is an example of a(n)

(A) sonnet.
(B) rhymed verse.
(C) free verse.
(D) lyric.
(E) epic.

29. Which of these statements offers the best summary of the poem?
(A) Nature does not care about the affairs of mankind.
(B) It is the government's responsibility to fight a war.
(C) War has a devastating impact on nature.
(D) Wars should not be fought in the spring.
(E) Robins will sing about the war.
 Questions 30‐35 refer to the following passage:

George Washington Carver was always interested in plants.

When he was a child, he was known as the "plant doctor." He had a
secret garden where he grew all kinds of plants. People would ask him
for advice when they had sick plants. Sometimes he'd take their plants
5 to his garden and nurse them back to health.
Later, when he was teaching at Tuskegee Institute, he put his
plant skills to good use. Many people in the South had been growing
only cotton on their land. Cotton plants use most of the nutrients in
the soil. (Nutrients provide nourishment to plants.) So the soil
10 becomes "worn out" after a few years. Eventually, cotton will no
longer grow on this land.
This was especially bad for poor African American farmers,
who relied on selling cotton to support themselves. Carver was
dedicated to helping those farmers, so he came up with a plan.
15 Carver knew that certain plants put nutrients back into the soil.
One of those plants is the peanut! Peanuts are also a source of protein.
Carver thought that if those farmers planted peanuts, the
plants would help restore their soil, provide food for their animals,
and provide protein for their families—quite a plant! In 1896 peanuts
20 were not even recognized as a crop in the United States, but Carver
would help change that.
Carver told farmers to rotate their crops: plant cotton one year,
then the next year plant peanuts and other soil‐restoring plants, like
peas and sweet potatoes. It worked! The peanut plants grew and
25 produced lots of peanuts. The plants added enough nutrients to the
soil so cotton grew the next year.

30. Why was George Washington Carver known as the “plant doctor”?
(A) He studied medicine in college.
(B) He grew peanuts on sick soil.
(C) He was a plant pathologist.
(D) He could nurse sick plants back to health.
(E) He knew plants could put nutrients back into the soil.

31. How is this passage structured?

(A) cause and effect
(B) problem and solution
(C) chronological order
(D) compare and contrast
(E) proposition and support

32. According to the passage, what problem were cotton farmers facing?
(A) They needed food for their animals.
(B) Peanuts were not recognized as a crop in the United States.
(C) They were growing too much cotton.
(D) Tuskegee Institute needed more teachers.
(E) The cotton had stripped the land of its nutrients.

33. How did Carver resolve the farmers' problem?

(A) He told the farmers to rotate their crops.
(B) He came up with a plan.
(C) He invented the peanut
(D) He gave advice to farmers with sick plants.
(E) He provided protein for the farmers' families.

34. This passage is mainly about

(A) how George Washington Carver invented the cotton gin.
(B) how George Washington Carver became a teacher at the Tuskegee Institute.
(C) how George Washington Carver helped farmers improve their crop production.
(D) why George Washington Carver studied plants.
(E) how George Washington Carver made peanuts a recognized crop in the United States.

35. According to this passage, “crop rotation” can be described as

(A) planting a soil depleting crop like cotton one year, and then planting a soil restoring
plant like peanuts, the next year.
(B) growing only one crop on the land year after year.
(C) nursing sick plants back to health
(D) studying plants at an institute.
(E) planting a large garden
 Questions 36‐40 refer to the following passage:

Grapes are one of the oldest cultivated fruits. Hieroglyphics

show that Egyptians were involved in grape and wine production.
Also, the early Romans were known to have developed many grape
varieties.
5 Grapes have been grown in California for more than 200 years.
The tradition of viticulture (growing grapes) began in 1769 when
Spanish friars established missions throughout California.
In California, the boom in grapes planted for eating arose in the
early 1800s.William Wolfskill, founder of California’s citrus industry,
10 planted the first table grape vineyard in 1839 near Los Angeles.
By the 1850s, the United States had officially acquired
California from Mexico and 80,000 gold prospectors had moved to the
region, a few of them realizing that there was money in grapes as well
as in gold.
15 Today, California wine, table grapes and raisins are all
important agricultural commodities, with approximately 700,000
acres planted in vineyards.
About 85% of California’s table grape production is in the
southern San Joaquin Valley region with the Coachella Valley region
20 accounting for most of the remaining production.

36. This passage is mainly about

(A) how Egyptians grew wine grapes.
(B) how to make raisins from grapes.
(C) William Wolfskill’s life as a farmer.
(D) the history of growing grapes in California.
(E) how grapes were involved in the Gold Rush.

37. The best title for this passage is

(A) Early Wine Production.
(B) California Table Grapes.
(C) Egyptian Hieroglyphics.
(D) The California Missions.
(E) Viticulture in California.

38. Most of California's table grapes are grown in

(A) the San Joaquin Valley region.
(B) the Coachella Valley region.
(C) Los Angeles.
(D) the California missions.
(E) Rome.

39. William Wolfskill is credited with

(A) deciphering hieroglyphics about grape and wine production.
(B) helping the United States acquire California.
(C) planting the first table grape vineyard in California.
(D) farming 700,000 acres of vineyards.
(E) growing citrus in the San Joaquin Valley.

40. The author most likely wrote this passage to

(A) entertain the reader.
(B) persuade the reader.
(C) humor the reader.
(D) inform the reader.
(E) sway the reader.
 Section 4 ‐ Quantitative (Math)

Read each question, perform the appropriate calculations, and determine the correct
answer.

1. Simplify the following equation: 4(6 – 3)2 ‐ (‐2)

(A) 34
(B) 38
(C) 42
(D) 48
(E) 62

2. On a highway map, the scale indicates that 1 inch represents 45 miles. If the distance on
the map is 3.2 inches, how far is the actual distance?
(A) 45 miles
(B) 54 miles
(C) 112 miles
(D) 144 miles
(E) 168 miles

3. A pair of hiking boots that normally sells for $129.00 is being discounted by one‐ third.
Rounded to the nearest dollar, how much will the buyer save with this discount?
(A) $43
(B) $54
(C) $65
(D) $72
(E) $86

4. In Figure 6 (pictured below), find the value of x:

(A) 30
(B) 60
(C) 100
(D) 120
(E) 180

5. In the number 6,502,104.9738, what digit is in the thousandths place?

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 9

6. Tim can make 5 pies with 2 pounds of flour. If he needs to make 7 pies, how many pounds
of flour does he need?
(A) 2 1/2
(B) 2 4/5
(C) 3
(D) 3 3/8
(E) 3 7/8

7. Solve for n in the following equation: 4n‐ p = 3r

(A) 3r/4‐p
(B) p + 3r
(C) p‐3r
(D) 3r/4 + p
(E) 3r/4 + p/4

8. A square and an equilateral triangle have the same perimeter. If one side of the triangle
measures 4 inches, how long is one side of the square?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3

9. One school bus can transport 48 students. If 218 students need to be transported, how
many buses are needed?
(A) 4
(B) 4 13/24
(C) 5
(D) 5 5/8
(E) 6 1/3

10. Which of the following fractions, when entered into the triangle, makes the statement
true?
3/8 < △ < 13/24
(A) 7/8
(B) 5/8
(C) 5/12
(D) 1/3
(E) 1/4
11. Find the value of x in Figure 7 (pictured below):

(A) 10
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 60
(E) 180

12. Susan works 24 hours per week at an hourly rate of $9.75. Her employer gives her a raise,
increasing her weekly pay to $244.80. On an hourly basis, how much was her raise?
(A) $.35
(B) $.40
(C) $.45
(D) $.50
(E) $.55

13. There are 6 blue marbles, 3 red marbles, and 5 yellow marbles in a bag. What is the
probability of selecting a blue or red marble on the first draw?
(A) 1/3
(B) 4/7
(C) 8/14
(D) 9/14
(E) 11/14

14. What is a good estimate of the circumference of the circle in Figure 8 (pictured below)?

(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36
(E) 48
15. Using the chart below, which equation describes the relationship between x and y？
(A) x = 3y
(B) y = 3x
(C) y = 1/3x
(D) x/y = 3
(E) y/x = 3

16. Paula received scores of 88, 84, and 91 on her last three math tests. What must she
score on her fourth test to average 90% for all four of the tests?
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94
(E) 93

17. Using a six‐sided die, Carlin has rolled a six on each of 4 successive tosses. What is the
probability of Carlin rolling a six on the next toss?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/30
(E) 1/3125

18.What is the product of four squared and six?

(A) 22
(B) 28
(C) 55
(D) 96
(E) 106

19.Simplify the following expression: ‐11 ‐ (16 ‐ 32)

(A) ‐59
(B) ‐27
(C) 15
(D) 5
(E) 2

20. During the season, a basketball player scored 36 of her 60 foul shots. What percentage of
her foul shots was successful?
(A) 80%
(B) 75%
(C) 70%
(D) 65%
(E) 60%

21. Because of its lower gravity, a 180‐pound man would weigh only 30 pounds on the moon.
If horse weighed 200 pounds on the moon, what would be its weight on Earth?
(A) 1,200 pounds
(B) 1,000 pounds
(C) 600 pounds
(D) 66 pounds
(E) 33 1/3 pounds

22. Solve the following equation: (y + 2)(y + 3)(y + 4)

(A) y2 + 3y + 2
(B) 3y2 + 6y + 3
(C) y3 + 9y2+ 26y + 24
(D) 8y3 + 6y + 8
(E) y3 + 6y2 + 11y + 6

23. A gas tank containing 15 gallons of gas is three‐quarters full. What is the capacity of the
tank?
(A) 15 gallons
(B) 18 gallons
(C) 14 gallons
(D) 22 gallons
(E) 20 gallons

24. The distance between two towns is 275 miles. A truck driver must leave one town and
arrive at the other at 9:30 p.m. If the trucker drives at an average rate of 55 miles per
hour, at what time should the trucker depart?
(A) 4:00 p.m.
(B) 4:30 p.m.
(C) 5:00 p.m.
(D) 4:00 a.m.
(E) 4:30 a.m.

25. Find the value of x in Figure 9 (pictured below):

(A) 239°
(B) 120°
(C) 78°
(D) 64°
(E) 59°

答案：
数学 词汇 阅读 数学
1 D A C B
2 A D B D
3 E B E A
4 B C D B
5 E A D A
6 E C B B
7 D E C E
8 D C A E
9 A C E C
10 B A E C
11 B D A A
12 B C C C
13 D D D D
14 C B B D
15 E E A B
16 D B C A
17 A E B C
18 A A D D
19 B E E D
20 E E D E
21 B D A A
22 C B B C
23 E A C E
24 C D A B
25 E B C E
26 A E
27 B A
28 D B
29 E A
30 C D
31 A B
32 D E
33 E A
34 D C
35 D A
36 B D
37 C E
38 A A
39 E C
40 C D
41 D
42 A
43 C
44 E
45 B
46 B
47 C
48 E
49 A
50 B
51 B
52 C
53 D
54 E
55 A
56 C
57 B
58 D
59 A
60 C