Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST – 9 Time : 2 12 Hrs.

SECTION - A
Analytical Ability

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Questions : 75
( i ) Data Sufficiency
Marks : 75
(Marks : 20)
Note :- In questions numbered 1 to 20, a question is followed by data in the form of
two statements labelled as I and II. You must decide whether the data given
in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Using the data
make an appropriate choice from (1) to (4) as per the following guidelines:
(a) Mark choice (1) if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Mark choice (2) if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
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(c) Mark choice (3) if both the statements I and II together are sufficient to an-

E swer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient.

(d) Mark choice (4) if both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to
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answer the question and additional data is required.
1. All the state capitals are mutually interlinked by a 'No-Delay system'. Is Q a
ee

state capital ?
I. N is a state capital II. Q is not linked with N by the system
2. Is f : A  B an onto function ?
I. f ( A)  B II. f ( A)  B
3. If the present age of my father is 39 years and my present age is X years, What is
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X?
I. Next year my mother will be 4 times as old as I would be
II. My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my
mother.
4. Given n is a natural number is n(n2 - 1) divisible by 24 ?
I. n is odd II. n is multiple of 3
5. Is X > 0 ?
I. X4 - 16 = 0 II. X3 - 8 = 0
6. In the expression 7x + 4y < z, then is y positive?
I. z = 41 II. x = 30
7. In the expression, 3x - 2y < z, is y positive ?
I. x = 3 II. z = 17
8. what is the cost price of an article ?
I. The article is sold for Rs.20.
II. The percentage lost, is as much as the cost price of the article.
9. How many boxes can be made by workers in factory A on the average in a day?
I. In another factory, twice the no. make 300 boxes in a day.
II. The workers in a factory 'A' made 10000 boxes in 25 working days lost month.
10. A student has to pass in both English & Maths. How many of the 32 students
were promoted. If nobody failed in both the subjects.
I. 22 pass in English II. 22 passed in Maths

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

11. Is Z lessthan W ? Z & W are real nos?

I. Z2 = 25 II. W = 9
12. What is the volume of cube X?
I. The diagonal of one of the faces of X is 2 times the side of the cube.
II. The diagonal of the cube from the upper rear left corner to the lower front right
corner is 3

13. Find the length of one side of the square ABCD ?, where E is the centre.

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14.
I. BE = ED
Is the 14th term of an AP odd ?
II. BE = 3 cm
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1. The 17th term is odd II. The first term is odd
15. Is x > y ?

E I. x + 3y = 7 II. 4y - x = 7
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16. Is a > 1 ?
I. a > 0 II. a3 + 1 = 0
17. Is a2 an integer ?
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I. a is a negative integer. II. 4a2 is an integer.

18. What is the value of X ?
I. 2X + 3Y - 5 = X +3Y - 2 II. X - 2Y + 7 = Y + X - 3
19. In ABC , ABC = ?
I. ACB  750 II. BAC  450
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20. Is Raju over 40 years of age?

I. The average age of 20 employees in his office is 48.
II. Raju is among the oldest 3 employees in his office in which the retirement age
is 60.
(ii) Problem Solving (Marks : 55)
(a) Sequence and Series (Marks : 25)
Note :- In each of the questions numbered 21 to 35 a sequence of numbers or
letters that follow a definite pattern is given. Each question has a blank
space. This has to be filled by the correct answer from the four given options
to complete th sequence without breaking the pattern
21. 46, 56, 67, 80, 88, ---
1) 98 2) 108 3) 104 4) 112
22. 15, 31, 56, 92, 141, ---, 286
1) 200 2) 195 3) 215 4) 205
23. 7, 21, 19, 57, 55, ---, 163
1) 160 2) 155 3) 170 4) 165
24. 76, 298, 520, 742, 964, ---
1) 1104 2) 1072 3) 1186 4) 1060
25. 2, 27, 76, 197, 366, ---
1) 529 2) 510 3) 655 4) 490
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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

26. C, F, I, L, ---, ---

1) O, Q 2) P, R 3) O, R 4) P, Q
27. BCD, FGH, JKL, ---
1) MNO 2) NOP 3) OPQ 4) PQR
28. A, D, I, P, Y, J, ---
1) U 2) V 3) W 4) X
29. M, P, K, R, I, T, ---
1) U 2) V 3) G 4) W
30. E, I, L, P, S, ---
1)X 2) V 3) W 4) U
31. 15 : 240 : : 20 : ---

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1) 441
32. 3 : 28 : : 4 : ---
1) 17
33. 6 : 10 : : 8 : ---
1) 15
2) 484

2) 129

2) 14
34. KWMT : MXOU : : --- : RTCR
1) PSBQ 2) PQAR
3) 400

3) 65

3) 18

3) PQBR
4) 420

4) 37

4) 17

4) PSAQ
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35. RNIF : MSDK : : TROK : ---
1) OWJO 2) OXJO 3) OWJP 4) OXJP

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Note : -In questions 36 to 45 pick the odd thing out.
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36. 1) 18 2) 21 3) 48 4) 53
37. 1) 3116 2) 1315 3) 5364 4) 3449
38. 1) 9789 2) 8379 3) 7573 4) 6159
ee

39. 1) 1011 2) 11001 3) 1101 4) 11101

40. 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
41. 1) EV 2) IR 3) KP 4) FT
42. 1) DR 2) FT 3) JW 4) KY
43. 1) CCFR 2) DDHX 3) BBDL 4) PPFL
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44. 1) YX 2) UT 3) QP 4) XW
45. 1) BD 2) CI 3) DP 4) EV
(b) Data Analysis (Marks : 10)
Directions (46-50) : Answer questions based on the following chart shows the
spending of a country on various sports

Others
310 Hockey
Golf 630
360
Tennis Foot Ball
450 540

Cricket Basket Ball

810 500

46. How much percent of the total spends on Tennis ?

1 1
1) 45% 2) 22 % 3) 12 % 4) 25%
2 2
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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

47. how much percent more is spent on hockey than Golf ?

1) 27% 2) 35% 3) 37.5% 4) 75%
48. How much % less is spent on football than that of Cricket ?
1 1
1) 27% 2) 33 % 3) 37.5% 4) 22 %
3 9
49. If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 2 crores. The amount
spent on Cricket and Hockey together ?
1) Rs. 80,000 2) Rs. 80,00,000 3) Rs. 1,60,000 4) Rs. 16,00,000
50. If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 1,80,00,000. The amount
spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by

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1) Rs. 2,50,000 2) Rs. 3,60,000 3) Rs. 3,75,000 4) Rs. 4,00,000
Directions (51-55) :Study the following graph carefully and answer the following
question:

500
India’s Biscuit Export

Quantity in lakh
500
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450 400
tons
400

E 350 Value in crores of 330

d
300 rupees
250
200
200
ee

150 150 150 160

150
100
100 75
50
0
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1983 1984 1985 1986 1987

51. In which year was the value per ton minimum ?

1) 1983 2) 1984 3) 1985 4) 1986
52. What was the difference between the biscuits exported in 1985 and 1986 ?
1) 10 2) 1000 3) 100000 4) 1000000
53. What was the approximate percent increase in export value from 1984 to 1987 ?
1) 350 2) 300 3) 43 4) 230
54. What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1983 to 1984 ?
1) 75% 2) nil 3) 25% 4) 50%
55. If in 1986 the goods were exported at the same rate per ton as that in 1985 what
would be the value in crores of rupees of export in 1986 ?
1) 400 2) 352 3) 375 4) 330
(c) Coding and Decoding Problems (Marks : 10)
56. In a certain code language, if MASTER is written as IVGHZN, then how is the
word
STUDENT written in that language ?
1) HGFWVMG 2) HGFGMVW 3) GMVWFGH 4) HGFGMVV
57. In a certain code language, if PEN is written as KVM, then how is the word
PENCIL written in that language ?
1) XORKUM 2) KUMXOR 3) KVMXRO 4) KVMYRO

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

58. In a certain code language, if the word ENTROPY is coded as CKOKDCH, then
how is the word LIBERTY coded in that language ?
1) NLGLCGP 2) NKIKDHR 3) JFXWGGH 4) JFWXGGH
59. In a certain code language, if the word GALLANTRY is coded as YRTNALLAG, then
how is the word POLITICIAN coded in that language ?
1) NAHBHTJLOQ 2) NAICITILOP 3) NAPBPSJKOP 4) NAJDJTILOQ
60. In a certain code, if the word DISCIPLE = 77 and FAMOUS = 57, then what is the
value of MATURE in that code ?
1) 87 2) 24 3) 20 4) 78
61. In a certain code language, if the word PERIMETER is coded as QDSDLHQDO,
then how is the word SCULPTURE coded in that language ?

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62.

63.
1) DSVQUMTBR 2) DSTSQMVDT

2) ITIMDVQ
3) DQTSOKTBR

3) ITBMJVS

how is the word RESERVATI coded in that language ?

1) NOITAVRES 2) OPJUBWSFT 3) MNHSZUQDR
4) FSVUQMVDT
In a certain code language, if the word COLUMN is coded as ONVMPD, then how
is the word PUBLISH coded in that language ?
1) ITJMCVQ 4) ITKMDVQ
In a certain code language, if the word MONITOR is coded as LNMHSNQ, then

4) QDRDQUZSH
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64. In a certain code language, if the word SALARY is coded as QCJCPA, then how is
the word SPONGE coded in that language ?

E 1) QROPGE 2) QRMPEG 3) TMPKJD 4) UNQLIC

d
65. In a certain code language, if the word MOMENTUM is coded as EMMMNOTU,
then how is the word SUBMARINE coded in that language ?
1) ABEIMNRSU 2) USRNMIEBA 3) ABEMNIRSU 4) AEIBNRSU
ee

(d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems (Marks : 10)

66. Mrs. Kaveri sees Mr. Ranjit in a cinema-hall and makes this statement. “He is
the brother-in-law of my mother’s daughter.” How is Mr. Ranjit related to Mrs.
Kaveri ?
1) Brother-in-law 2) Husband 3) Cousin 4) Cannot say
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Direction (67-69) : Read the given information and answer the questions that
follow.
In a certain code if
‘>’ is called ‘<’ ‘<’ is called ‘=’ ‘  ’ is called ‘>’ ‘+’ is called ‘  ’
‘x’ is called ‘–’ ‘–’ is called ‘x’ and ‘  ’ is called ‘+’
67. What is the simplified version of the expression ?
111 + 3  38 – 3  121 + 11 – 15 + 3  11 x 6 ?
1) 125 > 56 2) 182 > 98 3) 151 > 60 4) 198 > 79
68. What is the simplified version of the expression ?
529 + 23 x 18 – 36  15 > 15  10 – 6 x 18 + 9 ?
1) –610 < 73 2) –760 < 103 3) –586 < 63 4) –514 < 123
69. What is the simplified of the expression ?
28 + 4 x 9 – 16  8 < 37  73 – 3 x 154 + 14 ?
1) – 107 = 238 2) –96 = 212 3) –129 = 245 4) –136 = 274
70. In a year, if the 1st of June is a Sunday, then on which day of the week will
February start in the next year ?
1) Sunday 2) Friday 3) Thursday 4) Cannot say
71. Eight boys ––– A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, not necessar-
ily in the same order. If B sits exactly in between H and D, C sits exactly in
between H and A then who sits opposite to D ?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) B

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

72. If 1st January 2000 is Saturday, what will be 23rd January 2002 ?
1) Monday 2) Tuesday 3) Wednesday 4) Thursday
73. What is the angle between the minutes and the hours hand of a clock when the
clock shows 4.40 pm ?
1) 90 2) 100 3) 110 4) 120
74. What is the angle covered by the hours hand in 30 minutes ?
1) 30 2) 25 3) 20 4) 15
75. A girl starts walking from her house and travels a distance to 10 km to the
Narth. Then she takes a right turn and travels 5 km after which she travels 20
km South. What is the approximate distance between her house and the final
distination ?

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1) 13km

QUESTIONS : 75
(i) Arithmetical Ability
2)11.2km

76. Find the sum of odd numbers from 15 to 29.

1) 162 2) 155
3) 12km
SECTION - B
MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

3) 176
4) 10km

4) 189
MARKS : 75
(Marks : 30)
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77. Adding 10% of a to a is equivalent to multplying a by what
1) 2 2) 1 3) 1.1 4) 1.5

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78. A solution of 25 litres contain 20% sugar. If 10 litres of the solution is evoporated.
d
Find the percentage of sugar in the final solution
1
1) 33 % 2) 40% 3) 50% 4) 60%
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3
79. Two whole numbers whose sum in 42 cannot be in the ratio
1) 1: 1 2) 2 : 3 3) 4: 3 4) 5 : 1
80. Rs. 6000 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A receives 2/3 of what B
and C receive together. What is the share of A
1) 1200 2) 2400 3) 3600 4) 4000
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81. In what ratio should rice at Rs. 120 kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 150 kg to get the
price of mixture Rs. 140kg
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
82. The difference between father’s age and son’s age at present is 14 years. After 11
years the ratio of their ages will be 4 : 3 how old is son now ?
1) 22years 2) 51 years 3) 28 years 4) 31 years
83. A, B and C rented a pasture. A puts in 12 cows for 6 months B puts 8 cows for 7
months and C put in 6 cows for 8 months. If the rent of the field is Rs. 396. What
is the rent paid by A
1) 126 2) 108 3) 162 4) 168
84. If the cost price of 20 tables is equal to the selling price of 25 tables the loss
percent is
1) 5% 2) 10% 3) 15% 4) 20%
85. A tradesman by means of a false balance defrauds to the extent of 10% buying
goods and also defrauds to 10% in selling find his gain percent
1) 20% 2) 21% 3) 22% 4) 18%
86. What profit percent is made by selling an article at a certain price. If by selling at
2/3rd the price. there would be a loss of 20%
1) 20% 2) 30% 3) 15% 4)25%

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

87. The rational number representing 5.243 is

5238 5243 5243 5242

1) 2) 3) 4)
999 999 900 990
88. If GCD. of a, b is 1 then GCD of a + b, a-b is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 or 2 4) 1 or 3
89. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 3 and their LCM is 48 find the HCF of the two
numbers.
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 48
90. If the side of a square is doubled, then the ratio of the areas of resulting square to

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91.

92.
that of the given square is
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 3 : 1

per metre is Rs. 36. The breadth of the room is

1) 6m 2) 8m 3) 10m
4) 4 : 1
The cost of carpenting a room 9 metres long with a carpet 75cm wide at 30 paise

4) 12m
There is a road of 1.5 m wide inside of a rectangular field of 53m x 48m. Find the
area of the road
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1) 2250m2 2) 294m2 3) 2544m2 4) 398m2

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93. The circumference of a semicircle is 360m . Find its Area
d
1) 6600m2 2) 7700m2 3) 2200m2 4) 5000m2
94. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi- circle of radius r
cm is
ee

1) 2r cm2 2) r2 cm2 3) 2r2 cm2 4) 1/2r2 cm2

95. The maximum length of a stick that can be kept in a rectangular box of dimen-
sions 5cm x 4cm x 3cm is
1) 12 2) 9 3) 8 4) 5 2
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96. The radius of the base of a right circular cone is 6 cm and its slant height is 28
cm. The curved surface area of the cone is
1) 268 cm2 2) 528 cm2 3) 168 cm2 4) 658 cm2
97. If the base radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their heights are in the
ratio 9 : 5 then the ratio of their volumes is
1) 11 : 8 2) 4 : 5 3) 1 : 4 4) 5 : 14
98. 12 men can do a piece of work in 15 days. How many men are required to com-
plete work in 10 days
1) 18 2) 24 3) 25 4) 10
99. If 10 men (or) 15 women can do a piece of work in 55 days then in how many days
will 4 men and 5 women do the same work
1) 90 days 2) 85 days 3) 60 days 4) 75 days
100. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively both together
can fill it in
1
1) 12 hr 2) 6 hrs 3) 5 hrs 4) 8 hrs
2
101. A train running at the rate of 54 kmph passes a mile stone in 10 sec. The length of
the train is
1) 100 mt 2) 200mt 3) 150 mt 4) 250mt

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

102. The speed of a boat in still water is 12kmph. If its upstream speed be 10 kmph.
Then speed of the stream is
1) 3kmph 2) 2kmph 3) 1 kmph 4) 4 kmph

103. One fifth of a certain number decreased by 3 is equal to 1. What is the number
1) 16 2) 15 3) 13 3) 20
104. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 6 hours while pipe B can empty the full tank in 7
hours. If both are opened in the empty tank it will be full in
1) 13 2) 21 3) 28 4) 42
105. A trains passes over a bridge of length 200m in 40 seconds. If the speed of the

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train is 72 kmph the length of the train
1) 900 mt

1
4
1
6
2 , 4 , 6 ,8
1
8
2) 1800mt
(ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability
106. Which of the following is greatest ?
1
10
3) 700mt 4) 600mt
(Marks : 35)
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1 1 1 1
1) 4 2) 6 3) 6 8 4) 810
2 4

E 1
d
107. If x = 10 + 3. 11 then x   ____
x
1) 17 2) 18 3) 19 4) 20
ee

x 2
108. If x = 196  200 then 2  x  _____

1) 2. 49 2) 7 3) 2. 50 4) 50
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x4 y4 z4
109. x + y + z = 0, then x 2 yz xy 2 z xyz 2 = ________
a a a
1) 1 2) a 3) a2 4) a3
110. If log x+2 (2x - 2) = 1 then x = _____________
1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
111. Which of the following is a statement ?
1) crow is a bird 2) what has salman been drinking ?
3) Is n’t the car expensive 4) please give me your pen
112. The truth value of the statement ‘ The binary system has two symbols and 3 is an
irrational
1) T 2) F 3) cannot say 4) F  T
113. If f(x) = |x + 5| - |x - 7|, then number of solutions of f(x) = 0 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
12
 b 
114. The coefficient of x in the expansion of  ax  3 
-4
 x 
12
1) c2 a 8 b 4 2) 12
c6 a 8b 4 3) 12
c8 a8b 4 4) 12
c4 a 4 b 8
115. The number of terms in the expansion of (2x - 3y + z)8
1) 9 2) 45 3) 56 4) 12
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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

116. The polynomial f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by (x
+ 1) and remainder of 6 when divided by (x - 1), the the value of (a + c ) x (b + d) =
________
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 4
117. The trace of a skew symmetric matrix of order 5 x 5 is _________
1) 5 2) 25
3) 0 4) cannot be determined

 2 1  3 4   1 1
118. If A =   ,B=   and C=   then 2A + B - C ________
0 4   1 2  0 1

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1) 
1 2 

1 9 

of the set is
1) 12
2) 

2) 7
2 9

1 1
3) 
2 1

1 9

3) 10
4) 
2 1

4) 8

2 9
119. If the letters of the word ‘SREEDHAR’S CCE’ are written as a set, then cardinality

120. Which of the following is an identity relation defined on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} ?
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1) {(1, 1)} 2) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 2), (4, 4)}

E 3) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (3, 2)} 4) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4)}
d
121. The number of onto fucntions from a set ‘A’ with ‘k’ elements to another set B
with 2 elements is 30. Then k = ___________
ee

1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 10
122. If f : R  R and f(x) = x3, then ‘f’ is
1) one one 2) onto 3) bijective 4) into
123. If R = {(x,y) / x + y =100} where x, y  z then the relation R is
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1) Only reflexive 2) Only symmetric 3) Only transitive 4) equivalence

124. If sin (A + B) = 1 and cot (A - B) = 3 , then the value of ‘A’ is
1) 00 2) 300 3) 600 4) 450
125. The tangents of angles of elevation of two poles through a point, mid way between
2 4
the ploes is and . If the distance between the two poles is 40m, then the
3 5
difference of the heights of two poles is ________
8 16 8 16
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
9 3 3 9
 7
126. cos , cos , cos4  are in ___________
3 4
1) A. P 2) G.P 3) H.P 4) A.G.P
127. If ‘  ’ is eliminated from the euations x = a sec  and y = b tan  , we have
1) b2 x2 - a2y2 = 1 2) x2 - y2 = 1
3) b2x2 - a2y2 = a2b2 4) a2x2 - b2y2 = a2b2

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

lim x 3  7. 7
128. x 7
 ___
x 7
1)7 2) -7 3) 21 4) -21
dy
129. If y = 1-4x + 6x2 - 4x3 + x4, then  ___
dx
3 3
1) 4 1  x  2) 4  x  1

C ar’s3) 4 x3  12 x 2  12 x  4

130. If y = 1-2x + 3x2 - 4x3 + ....  , then

1) 1  x
 
1
3 2) 1  x
 
1
3
dy
dx
4) 4 x 3  12 x 2  12 x  4

 ___

3) 1  x
 
2
3
2
4) 1  x 3
 
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131. The points (11, 8), (8, 11) (2, 5) and (5, 2) taken in order form
1) parallelogram 2) rectangle 2) rhombus 4) square

E
132. Area of the triangle formed by the lines x = 4 and y = 3 with 2x + 3y = 12 in sq.
d
units is
12 24 13 25
1) 2) 3) 4)
ee

25 25 25 12
133. A straight line passing through (-50, 50) is such that every point on it is equidis-
tant from both the coordinate axes. The equation of the straight line is
1) x - y + 100 = 0 2) x - y = 0 3) x + y = 0 4) x + y = 100
2
134. The roots of p(q - r)x + q (r - p)x + r(p - q) = 0 are equal. Which of
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the following always holds true ?

2 pr
1) 2q = p + r 2) q2 = pr 3) q = 4) q = r
pr
135. If  and  are the roots of x2 - 4x - 5 = 0, then the value of

  3   3    5   5 
 3 3   5 5 
 ____
        
1) -125 2) 125 3) 25 4) 625
136. If sum of ‘n’ terms of 2, 2, 2. 2,... is 30+ 15 2, then the value of ‘n’ is ______
1) 4 2) 8 3) 6 4) 9
1 1 1
137. If p, q, r are in A. P, then , and will be in
qr rp pq
1) A. P 2) G.P 3) H. P 4) A.G.P
138. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle of radius 12 cm. Then the perim-
eter of the triangle is ________
1) 36cm 2) 36 3cm 3) 24cm 4) 24 3cm

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

139. P, Q and R are points on the circumference of a circle with centre O. If

POR  1100 , then PQR  ____ (assume O and Q lie on the same segment PQR)
1) 1250 2) 550 3) 450 4) 1350
140. If AC = 18cm, BE = 5cm and AD = 9cm then
length of BC = _______

1) 10 cm 2) 14cm 3) 12cm 4) 16cm

141. A two digit number is selected at random. The probability that the number con-
tains repeated digit is

C ar’s
1)
1
11
2)
1
9

coins are of different face values is

1 1
3)
1
10

3
4)
9
10
142. A man’s pocket has 7 five rupee coins, 5 two rupee coins and 3 one rupee coins. If
he chooses 3 coins from the pocket at random, then the probability that the three

6
C h
1) 2) 3) 4)
13 26 13 23

E
143. The probability that a leap year will contain 52 mondays and 52 tues days is
d
4 3 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 7 7 7
ee

144. A number is chosen at random from 1 to 50. What is the probability of getting a
composite number ?
18 17 7 8
1) 2) 3) 4)
25 25 10 25
Sr

145. If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.3 and p( A  B )  0.7 find p(B) if A, B
are disjoint
1) 0.1 2) 0.3 3) 0.4 4) 0.5
146. Consider the following data 2, 4, 12, 8, 10, 12, 8, 9.5, 9.99, 10, 15, 20, 27, 13, 9.4.
Inclusive frequency of 5 - 10 is ..............
1) 6 2) 5 3) 7 4) 9
147. Mean of first 20 even numbers ...........
1) 20 2) 21 3) 22 4) 11
148. Harmonic mean of 1, 1/2, 1/3,.....1/n.
1 1 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
n 1 n n 1 n
149. Quartile deviation of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 is..........
1) 3.5 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
150. Correclation coefficient (r) lie between
1) 0 to 1 2) -1 to 1 3) 0 to  4) -1 to 0.

11
Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

SECTION - C
COMMUNICATIVE ABILITY

QUESTIONS : 50 MARKS : 50
PART - 1
Choose the correct meaning for the following words:
151. Contrition
1) innocence 2) guiltlessness 3) purity 4) guilt
152. Animus
1) good will 2) friendship 3) enmity 4) affinity

C ar’s
153.

154.

155.

156.
Banality
1) originality
Decrepitude
1) infirmity
Sacrosanct
1) inviolable
Climactic
2) dullness

2) strength

2) unholy
3) novelty

3) firmness

3) godless
4) creativity

4) steadiness

4) heartless
C h
1) thrilling 2) boring 3) tedious 4) dreary

E Fill in the blanks choosing the correct word:

d
157. We have tried to get along with them but they are a rebellious and ___ crowd
1) intransigent 2) inexorable 3) relentless 4) spurious
158. His ___ criticism hurt the sucess of the play
ee

1) sardonic 2) vindictive 3) fervid 4) imperious

159. The ____ manner in which he served us slightly sickening
1) unctuous 2) imperturbable 3) dolorous 4) avaricious
160. Hindus are ___ worshippers.
Sr

1) idle 2) idol 3) ideal 4) idea

PART-2
Choose the correct answer :
161. Data is a _________
1) Information 2) ram fact a figure 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
162. what does 'P' stand for in DBPS.
1) Processing 2) Pixel 3) Program 4) None
163. Find the odd man out
1) DOS 2) MS-DOS 3) VDU 4) LINUX
164. Techinical Name of website address is
1) VRL 2) HTML 3) HTTP 4) WWW.
165. GUI stand for
1) General User Interpretation 2) Global User Interface
3) Graphical User Interface 4) Generalised User Information
166. Assets which are in the form of case are called
1) Current assets 2) Tangible Assets 3) Liquid assets 4) None
167. Which of the Following is known as Banker's Bank ?
1) SBI 2) RBI 3) PNB 4) IBRO

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Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

168. A meeting of the Board of Directors must be held every year _______
1) Two months
2) Four months and as least three such meetings trust be held every year.
3) Three months and at least Four such meetings must be held every year
4) Six months.
169. A white paper is _______ !
1) paper used for printing currency notes.
2) a paper which the government brings out on some policy matter.
3) Fine paper for printing 4) None

C ar’s
170. Bull Market means.
1) Falling Prices 2) Rising prices

Choose the Correct answer :

171. “I would rather die than marry him.”
In this sentence the speaker expresses
1) his wish 2) his choice
3) Selling Bears
PART - 3

3) his ability
4) Buying Bulls

4) his inability
C h
172. “I must go to ooty in the summer, whatever happens.”

E In this sentence the speaker expresses his

d
1) intention 2) strong determination 3) desire 4) wish
173. “He is used to smoking.” In this sentence the speaker
1) is accustomed to smoking. 2) has the habit of smoking
ee

3) used to smoke 4) would smoke

174. “It is no use splitting hairs.” The sentence means.
1) It is no use disputing 2) It is no use quibbling about trifles
3) It is waste of time to fight 4) It is a sheer waste of time to dispute
Sr

175. “She expected to get the job.”

The passive voice form of this sentence.
1) It was expected by her that she would got the job.
2) It was expected to get the job
3) It is expected that she would get the job
4) It is expected by her that she would get the job.
176. Gopi : Could I have a word with you ?
Raja : Sure, but not now.
In the above conversation.
1) Raja is not ready to talk to Gopi.
2) Raja is ready to have a word with Gopi.
3) Raja is ready to talk to Gopi.
4) Raja is ready to talk to Gopi but later.
177. I sleep with the window open unless it is really cold. The speaker says.
1) he does not sleep with the window open if it is not really cold.
2) he can not sleep with the window open if it is really cold
3) he does not sleep with the window open if it is really cold.
4) he did not sleep with the window open if it is really cold.

13
Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

Fill in the blank with appropriate Phrase/Verb/Preposition :

178. Let’s begin reading the story _________ page 10.
1) by 2) from 3) at 4) across
179. Why are you angry _________ me ?
1) upon 2) on 3) about 4) with
180. We were intent _________ achieving our ambition.
1) from 2) by 3) for 4) on
181. He tries to _________the loss in the business.
1) make for 2) make out 3) make up 4) make off

C ar’s
182.

183.

184.
The examination has been _________ because of war.
1) held over 2) held to 3) held out
Mr. Rahul Gandhi has _________ a noble family.
1) come about 2) come round 3) come of
4) held up

4) come by
The secretary of Finance ______ suggestions that his economic policy favoured
the most weallty.
C h
1) refused 2) rejected 3) revamped 4) rearranged

E
185. He pretended _________ the book.
d
1) to had read 2) to be read 3) to have been read 4) to have read
PART – 4
Read the following passage and answer the questions (186–190).
ee

Just as some men like to play football or cricket, so some men like to climb
mountains. This is often very difficult to do, for mountains are not just big hills.
Paths are usually very steep. Some mountain sides are straight up and down, so
it may take many hours to climb as little as one hundred feet. There is always
Sr

the danger that you may fall off and be killed or injured. Men talk about conquer-
ing a mountain. It is a wonderful feeling to reach the top of a mountain after
climbing for hours and may be, even days. You look down and see the whole
country below you. You feel god-like. Two Italian prisoners of war escaped from a
prison camp in Kenya during the war. They did not try to get back to their own
country, for they knew that was impossible. Instead, they climbed to the top of
Mount Kenya, and then they came down again and gave themselves up. They had
wanted to get that feeling of freedom that one has, after climbing a difficult
mountain.
186. Some men like to climb mountains because
1) they do not like to play football or cricket
2) they want to have a wonderful feeling
3) they know the trick of climbing
4) they like to face danger
187. To climb mountains is often difficult because
1) mountains are big hills 2) it consumes more time
3) prisoners often escape from camps and set tie there
4) paths are steep and uneven

14
Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

188. It is a wonderful feeling . ‘It’ refers to

1) the steep path 2) the mountain
3) the prisoner 4) mountaineering
189. Two Italian prisoners escaped from the camp and climbed on the top of Mount
Kenya
1) to get the feeling of freedom 2) to escape to Italy
3) to gain fame as mountaineers 4) none of the above
190. Mountaineering is not a very popular sport like football or cricket because
1) it may take many hours or days

C ar’s
2) there are no spectators in this sport
3) people do not want to enjoy a god-like feeling 4) none of the above
Read the following passage and answer the questions (191 - 195).
Patriotism is a very complex feeling, built up out of primitive instincts and highly
intellectual convictions. There is love of home, family and friends, making us
peculiarly anxious to preserve our own country from invasion. There is the mild
C h
instinctive liking for compatriots as against foreigners. There is pride, which is
bound up with the success of the community to which we feel that we belong.

E There is a belief, suggested by pride but reinforced by history, that one’s own
d
nation represents a great tradition and stands for ideals that are important to
the human race. But besides all these, there is another element, at once nobler
ee

and more open to attack, an element of worship, of willing sacrifice, of joyful

merging of the individual life with the life of the nation. This religious element in
patriotism is essential to the strength of the State since it enlists the best that is
in most men on the side of national sacrifice.
191. A suitable title for the passage could be:
Sr

1) Elements of patriotism 2) Historical development of a nation

3) The role of religion and history in patriotism 4) Religion and patriotism
192. Describing the element of worship “open to attack” the author implies that it
1) is unnecessary 2) leads to national sacrifice
3) has no historical basis 4) cannot be justified on rational grounds
193. The tone of the passage can best be described as
1) critical b) descriptive c) persuasive d) analytical
194. Which of the following can easily be grouped under the “intellectual convictions”
the author mentions in the opening sentence?
1) Love of family 2) Love of compatriots
3) The element of worship 4) None of the above
195. Which one of the following statements is false?
1) We tend to like our own countrymen better than we like foreigners.
2) Nations always stand for ideals that are important to the human race.
3) It is the religious element in patriotism that motivates us for sacrificing our-
selves for our nation.
4) Our pride of the community is bound with the community’s success.

15
Sreedhar’s CCE ICET ONLINE MODEL TEST–9

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions(196–200).

Compact Discs (CDs) have revolutionised the music industry with their sur-
prisingly realistic sound. The six-inch discs look like thin plastic sandwiches
with aluminium at the centre. They have digitally recorded material that is read
by laser beams, so the sound has none of the crackling of vinyl records. CDs are
also virtu- ‘ ally indestructible, and they are lighter and smaller than conven-
tional records. Since their introduction, CDs have become more affordable and
widely available. In fact, they are now sold in electronics and video stores that
didn’t formerly carry records or cassettes.

C ar’s There has been a phenomenal growth in the sale of CDs. Sales climbed dra-
matically during the second half of the 1980s. In the 1990s sales have been
greater. CDs have all but replaced records in stores and, in spite of their being
less affordable than cassettes, continue to gain in popularity.
196. The main appeal of CDs is their
1) price 2) size 3) availability 4) sound
C h
197. The word ‘revolutionised’, as used in line 1, could best be replaced by

E 1) changed 2) taught 3) surprised 4) marked

d
198. The author refers to CDs as ‘sandwiches’ because they
1) are light 2) are small 3) are layered 4) don’t crackle
199. According to the passage, which one of the following is true?
ee

1) New kinds of stores are selling CDs

2) Stores are selling more CDs than cassettes
3) Stores are losing money on their cassettes
4) Stores are earning money on their cassettes
Sr

200. The author’s main purpose is to

1) tell how CDs are made 2) discuss the growth of CDs
3) compare CDs to sandwiches 4) describe the store that sells CDs

KEY
1.3 2.1 3.1 4.1 5.2 6.3 7.4 8.3 9.4 10.3 11.3 12.2 13.2 14.4 15.3
16.2 17.1 18.1 19.3 20.4 21.3 22.4 23.4 24.3 25.3 26.3 27.2 28.3 29.3 30.3
31.4 32.3 33.2 34.4 35.3 36.4 37.2 38.3 39.2 40.3 41.4 42.3 43.4 44.2 45.4
46.3 47.4 48.2 49.2 50.1 51.4 52.4 53.4 54.3 55.2 56.3 57.3 58.4 59.2 60.1
61.3 62.1 63.4 64.2 65.1 66.4 67.3 68.1 69.3 70.1 71.1 72.3 73.2 74.4 75.2
76.3 77.3 78.1 79.2 80.2 81.2 82.1 83.3 84.4 85.2 86.1 87.1 88.3 89.1 90.4
91.3 92.2 93.2 94.2 95.4 96.2 97.2 98.1 99.4 100.2 101.3 102.2 103.3 104.4 105.4
106.2 107.4 108.3 109.4 110.3 111.1 112.2 113.1 114.3 115.2 116.1 117.3 118.3 119.2 120.4
121.2 122.3 123.2 124.3 125.3 126.2 127.3 128.3 129.2 130.4 131.2 132.4 133.3 134.3 135.3
136.2 137.1 138.2 139.2 140.1 141.3 142.3 143.1 144.2 145.3 146.3 147.2 148.3 149.1 150.2
151.4 152.3 153.2 154.1 155.1 156.1 157.1 158.1 159.1 160.2 161.2 162.1 163.3 164.1 165.3
166.3 167.2 168.3 169.2 170.2 171.2 172.2 173.1 174.2 175.1 176.4 177.3 178.3 179.4 180.4
181.3 182.1 183.3 184.2 185.4 186.3 187.4 188.2 189.1 190.1 191.4 192.4 193.4 194.3 195.2
196.4 197.1 198.3 199.3 200.2

16