DELHI UPSC SECRETS

UPSC CSE-2024 (Set-A)  QUESTION BANK

1. Consider the following statements : How many of the above are products of
volcanic eruptions ?
Statement - I : The atmosphere is heated
more by incoming solar radiation than by (a) Only one
terrestrial radiation. (b) Only two
Statement - II : Carbon dioxide and other (c) Only three
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are (d) All four
good absorbers of long wave radiation.
4. Which of the following is/are correct
Which one of the following is correct in inference/inferences from isothermal
respect of the above statements ? maps in the month of January?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 1. The isotherms deviate to the north
are correct and Statement-II explains over the ocean and to the south over
Statement-I the continent.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 2. The presence of cold ocean currents,
are correct, but Statement-II does Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift
not explain Statement-I make the North Atlantic Ocean colder
(c) Statement-I is correct, but and the isotherms bend towards the
Statement-II is incorrect north.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Select the answer using the code given
Statement-II is correct below :
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2. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 only

Statement-I: Thickness of the (b) 2 only
troposphere at the equator is much (c) Both 1 and 2
greater as compared to poles. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-II: At the equator, heat is 5. Which of the following countries are
transported to great heights by strong well known as the two largest cocoa
convectional currents. producers in the world?
Which one of the following is correct in (a) Algeria and Morocco
respect of the above statements ?
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana
are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I (d) Madagascar and Mozambique
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers
are correct, but Statement-II does joining the Ganga downstream of
not explain Statement-I Prayagraj from West to East, which one
(c) Statement-I is correct, but of the following sequences is correct ?
Statement-II is incorrect (a) Ghaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
Statement-II is correct
(c) Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak
3. Consider the following : (d) Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds

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7. Consider the following statements: (a) Only one

Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the (b) Only two
reasons for weathering of rocks. (c) All three
Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon (d) None
dioxide in solution.
10. Consider the following information :
Statement-III: Rain water contains
atmospheric oxygen.
Region Name of Type of
Which one of the following is correct in
the moun- moun-
respect of the above statements?
tain range tain
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III Central Vosges Fold
1.
are correct and both of them explain Asia mountain
Statement-I
2. Europe Alps Block
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-
mountain
III are correct, but only one of them
explains Statement-I 3. North Appala- Fold
(c) Only one of the Statements II and America chians mountain
III is correct and that explains 4. South Andes Fold
Statement-I America mountain
(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-
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III is correct In how many of the above rows is the

given information correctly matched ?
8. Consider the following countries :
(a) Only one
1. Finland (b) Only two
2. Germany (c) Only three
3. Norway (d) All four
4. Russia
11. Consider the following airports :
How many of the above countries have
a border with the North Sea ? 1. Donyi Polo Airport
(a) Only one 2. Kushinagar International Airport
(b) Only two 3. Vijayawada International Airport
(c) Only three In the recent past, which of the above
have been constructed as Greenfield
(d) All four
projects ?
9. Consider the following information : (a) 1 and 2 only
Waterfall Region River (b) 2 and 3 only
Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada (c) 1 and 3 only
1.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Hundru Chota Sub- 12. With reference to “water vapour”,

Nagpur arnarekha which of the following statements is/
are correct?
3. Gersoppa Western Netravati
Ghats 1. It is a gas, the amount of which
decreases with altitude.
In how many of the above rows is the
given information correctly matched ? 2. Its percentage is maximum at the
poles.

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Select the answer using the code given (c) 3 and 4

below :
(d) 2 and 4
(a) 1 only
16. One of the following regions has the
(b) 2 only
world’s largest tropical peatland,
(c) Both 1 and 2 which holds about three years worth
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of global carbon emissions from fossil
fuels; and the possible destruction of
13. Consider the following description :
which can exert detrimental effect on
1. Annual and daily range of the global climate. Which one of the
temperatures is low. following denotes that region ?
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the (a) Amazon Basin
year.
(b) Congo Basin
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm -
(c) Kikori Basin
250 cm.
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin
What is this type of climate ?
(a) Equatorial climate 17. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and
polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that
(b) China type climate
are used in making many consumer
(c) Humid subtropical climate products, consider the following
(d) Marine West coast climate statements :
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14. With reference to “Coriolis force”, 1. PFAS are found to be widespread

which of the following statements is/ in drinking water, food and food
are correct ? packaging materials.
1. It increases with increase in wind 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the
velocity. environment.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead
absent at the equator. to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Select the answer using the code given Which of the statements given above
below : are correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

15. On June 21 every year, which of the 18. Consider the following :
following latitude(s) experience(s) a 1. Carabid beetles
sunlight of more than 12 hours ? 2. Centipedes
3. Flies
1. Equator
4. Termites
2. Tropic of Cancer 5. Wasps
3. Tropic of Capricorn Parasitoid species are found in how
4. Arctic Circle many of the above kind of organisms ?
Select the correct answer using the (a) Only two
code given below:
(b) Only three
(a) 1 only (c) Only four
(b) 2 only (d) All five
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19. Consider the following plants : (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
1. Groundnut are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I
2. Horse-gram
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
3. Soybean
are correct, but Statement-II does
How many of the above belong to the not explain Statement-I
pea family?
(c) Statement-I is correct, but
(a) Only one Statement-II is incorrect
(b) Only two (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but
(c) All three Statement-II is correct
(d) None 23. Consider the following pairs :
20. Consider the following statements :
Country Animal found in its
Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is natural habitat
placed under the “vermin” category in the 1. Brazil Indri
Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II : The Indian Flying Fox 2. Indonesia Elk
feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Madagascar Bonobo
respect of the above statements ?
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(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

How many of the pairs given above are
are correct and Statement-II explains
correctly matched ?
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (a) Only one
are correct, but Statement-II does (b) Only two
not explain Statement-I (c) All three
(c) Statement-I is correct, but (d) None
Statement-II is incorrect
24. Consider the following statements
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but regarding World Toilet Organization:
Statement-II is correct
1. It is one of the agencies of the United
21. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper Nations.
and Pond skater” are : 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet
(a) Birds Day and World Toilet College are
the initiatives of this organization,
(b) Fish
to inspire action to tackle the global
(c) Insects sanitation crisis.
(d) Reptiles 3. The main focus of its function is to
grant funds to the least developed
22. Consider the following statements:
countries and developing countries
Statement-I : Many chewing gums found to achieve the end of open defecation.
in the market are considered a source of Which of the statements given above
environmental pollution. is/are correct?
Statement-II: Many chewing gums (a) 2 only
contain plastic as gum base. (b) 3 only
Which one of the following is correct in (c) 1 and 2
respect of the above statements ? (d) 2 and 3
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25. Consider the following statements : How many of the above are considered
“Distributed Energy Resources” ?
1. Lions do not have a particular
breeding season. (a) Only one
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs (b) Only two
do not roar. (c) Only three
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do (d) All four
not proclaim their territory by scent
marking. 28. Which one of the following shows a
unique relationship with an insect
Which of the statements given above that has coevolved with it and that is
are correct? the only insect that can pollinate this
(a) 1 and 2 only tree ?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Fig
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Mahua
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Sandalwood
26. Which one of the following is the (d) Silk cotton
correct description of “100 Million
Farmers” ? 29. Consider the following :

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the 1. Butterflies

2.
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transition towards food and water Fish

systems that are net-zero (carbon), 3. Frogs
nature-positive and that aims to How many of the above have poisonous
increase farmer resilience. species among them ?
(b) It is an international alliance (a) Only one
and a network of individuals and
(b) Only two
farming organisations interested in
supporting and strengthening the (c) All three
development of the organic animal (d) None
husbandry.
30. Consider the following :
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated
with service providers and built on 1. Cashew
blockchain that lets buyers, sellers 2. Papaya
and third parties trade fertilizers 3. Red sanders
quickly and securely.
How many of the above trees are
(d) It is a platform with the mission of actually native to India ?
encouraging the farmers to form
Farmer Product Organisations or (a) Only one
Agribusiness Consortiums, thus (b) Only two
facilitating the access to global open (c) All three
markets to sell their products. (d) None
27. Consider the following : 31. With reference to radioisotope
1. Battery storage thermoelectric generators (RTGs),
consider the following statements:
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units 2. RTGs are used for powering the
onboard systems of spacecrafts.

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3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, (a) Only one

which is a by-product of weapons (b) Only two
development. (c) All three
Which of the statements given above (d) None
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 35. Consider the following aircraft :
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Rafael
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. MiG-29
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Tejas MK-1
32. Consider the following statements : How many of the above are considered
fifth generation fighter aircraft ?
Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer (a) Only one
than dwarf stars.
(b) Only two
Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, (c) All three
giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear
reactions. (d) None

Which one of the following is correct in 36. In which of the following are hydrogels
respect of the above statements ? used ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
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are correct and Statement-II explains 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

Statement-I 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Select the correct answer using the
are correct, but Statement-II does code given below:
not explain Statement-I
(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct, but
Statement-II is incorrect (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but (c) 2 and 3 only
Statement-II is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Which one of the following is 37. Which one of the following is the
synthesised in human body that dilates exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell
blood vessels and increases blood Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen
flow? ?
(a) Nitric oxide (a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Nitrous oxide (b) Hydronium
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide (d) Water vapour
34. Consider the following activities : 38. Recently, the term “pumped-
storage hydropower” is actually and
1. Identification of narcotics on appropriately discussed in the context
passengers at airports or in aircraft. of which one of the following?
2. Monitoring of precipitation.
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
3. Tracking the migration of animals.
(b) Lift irrigation of-cereal crops
In how many of the above activities can
the radars be used ? (c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system
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39. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often 43. In India, which of the following
discussed in the context of: can trade in Corporate Bonds and
Government Securities ?
(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies 1. Insurance Companies
(c) Vaccine production technologies 2. Pension Funds
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies 3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the
40. With reference to the Indian economy, code given below:
“Collateral Borrowing and Lending
Obligations” are the instruments of: (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Bond market
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Forex market
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Money market
(d) Stock market 44. Consider the following :

41. The total fertility rate in an economy is 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

defined as: 2. Motor vehicles
(a) the number of children born per 3. Currency swap
1000 people in the population in a Which of the above is/are considered
financial instruments?
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year.
(b) the number of children born to a (a) 1 only
couple in their lifetime in a given (b) 2 and 3 only
population. (c) 1, 2 and 3
(c) the birth rate minus death rate. (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) the average number of live births a
woman would have by the end of her 45. With reference to the sectors of the
child-bearing age. Indian economy, consider the following
pairs :
42. Consider the following statements :
Economic activity Sector
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial
Companies can access the Liquidity 1. Storage of agricultural Secondary
Adjustment Facility window of the produce
Reserve Bank of India. 2. Dairy farm Primary
2. In India, Foreign Institutional
Investors can hold the Government
3. Mineral exploration Tertiary
Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer
separate trading platforms for debts. 4. Weaving cloth Secondary
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? How many of the pairs given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correctly matched ?
(b) 3 only (a) Only one
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) All four

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46. Consider the following materials : 49. With reference to the rule/rules
imposed by the Reserve Bank of India
1. Agricultural residues while treating foreign banks, consider
2. Corn grain the following statements:
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
1. There is no minimum capital
4. Wood mill waste requirement for wholly owned
Which of the above can be used as banking subsidiaries in India.
feedstock for producing Sustainable 2. For wholly owned banking
Aviation Fuel? subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of
(a) 1 and 2 only the board members should be Indian
(b) 3 and 4 only nationals.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
47. With reference to physical capital in
Indian economy, consider the following (b) 2 only
pairs : (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Items Category
50. With reference to Corporate Social
1. Farmer’s plough Working capital
Responsibility (CSR) rules in India,
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2. Computer Fixed capital consider the following statements:

3. Yarn used by the Fixed capital 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures
weaver that benefit the company directly or
4. Petrol Working capital its employees will not be considered
as CSR activities.
How many of the above pairs are
correctly matched? 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum
spending on CSR activities.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above
(b) Only two is/are correct?
(c) Only three
(a) 1 only
(d) All four
(b) 2 only
48. Which one of the following words/ (c) Both 1 and 2
phrases is most appropriately used to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
denote “an interoperable network of
3D virtual worlds that can be accessed 51. Consider the following statements:
simultaneously by millions of users,
Statement-I : If the United States of
who can exert property rights over
America (USA) were to default on its debt,
virtual items” ?
holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be
(a) Big data analytics able to exercise their claims to receive
(b) Cryptography payment.
(c) Metaverse Statement-II: The USA Government debt
(d) Virtual matrix is not backed by any hard assets, but only
by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements ?

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(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (c) 2 and 4 only

are correct and Statement-II explains (d) 1, 2 and 4
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 54. With reference to ancient India,
are correct, but Statement-II does Gautama Buddha was generally known
not explain Statement-I by which of the following epithets ?
(c) Statement-I is correct, but 1. Nayaputta
Statement-II is incorrect 2. Shakyamuni
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but 3. Tathagata
Statement-II is correct Select the correct answer using the
52. Consider the following statements : code given below:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads (a) 1 only

the risk of borrower default across (b) 2 and 3 only
multiple lenders. (c) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II : The syndicated loan can (d) None of the above are epithets of
be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but Gautama Buddha
cannot be a credit line. 55. Consider the following information :
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? Archaeo- Site State De-
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logical scription
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II explains 1. Chandra- Odisha Trading Port
Statement-I ketugarh town
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 2. Inamgaon Maharashtra Chalcolithic
are correct, but Statement-II does site
not explain Statement-I 3. Mangadu Kerala Megalithic
(c) Statement-I is correct, but site
Statement-II is incorrect 4. Salihun- Andhra Rock-cut
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but dam Pradesh cave shrines
Statement-II is correct In which of the above rows is the given
information correctly matched ?
53. Consider the following statements in
respect of the digital rupee : (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in (c) 3 and 4
alignment with its monetary policy. (d) 1 and 4
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s 56. Who of the following rulers of
balance sheet. medieval India gave permission to the
3. It is insured against inflation by its Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ?
very design.
(a) Krishnadevaraya
4. It is freely convertible against
commercial bank money and cash. (b) Narasimha Saluva
Which of the statements given above (c) Muhammad Shah III
are correct? (d) Yusuf Adil Shah
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

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57. With reference to revenue collection 60. Which one of the following was the
by Cornwallis, consider the following latest inclusion in the Intangible
statements: Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ?
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of (a) Chhau dance
revenue collection, the peasants (b) Durga puja
were exempted from revenue (c) Garba dance
payment in case of bad harvests or
natural calamities. (d) Kumbh mela
2. Under the Permanent Settlement 61. Who was the Provisional President of
in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to the Constituent Assembly before Dr.
pay his revenues to the state, on or Rajendra Prasad took over ?
before the fixed date, he would be
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
removed from his Zamindari.
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 62. With reference to the Government of
(c) Both 1 and 2 India Act, 1935, consider the following
statements :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1.
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It provided for the establishment of

58. Consider the following statements :
an All India Federation based on the
1. There are no parables in Upanishads. union of the British Indian Provinces
2. Upanishads were composed earlier and Princely States.
than the Puranas. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were
Which of the statements given above kept under the control of the federal
is/are correct? legislature.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
59. Consider the following statements : 6 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India is a member of the International 63. Which one of the following is a work
Grains Council. attributed to playwright Bhasa ?
2. A country needs to be a member
of the International Grains Council (a) Kavyalankara
for exporting or importing rice and (b) Natyashastra
wheat. (c) Madhyama-vyayoga
Which of the statements given above (d) Mahabhashya
is/are correct?
64. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist
(a) 1 only monk, who travelled to China at the
(b) 2 only end of the fourth century AD, was the
(c) Both 1 and 2 author of a commentary on :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga

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(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya (c) 2 and 4 only

(d) Lalitavistara (d) 3 and 5 only
65. Consider the following properties 68. Which of the following statements are
included in the World Heritage List correct in respect of a Money Bill in the
released by UNESCO: Parliament?
1. Shantiniketan 1. Article 109 mentions special
2. Rani-ki-Vav procedure in respect of Money Bills.
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at in the Council of States.
Bodhgaya 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve
How many of the above properties the Bill or suggest changes but
were included in 2023 ? cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill
(a) Only one suggested by the Rajya Sabha have
(b) Only two to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
(c) Only three Select the answer using the code given
(d) All four below :
66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution (a) 1 and 2 only
of India, the Parliament may amend (b) 2 and 3 only
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any provision of the Constitution by (c) 1, 2 and 3

way of : (d) 1, 3 and 4
1. Addition 69. Which of the following is/are correctly
2. Variation matched in terms of equivalent rank
3. Repeal in the three services of Indian Defence
Select the correct answer using the forces ?
code given below:
Army Airforce Navy
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Briga- Air Com- Commander
(b) 2 and 3 only dier modore
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Major Air Vice Vice Admiral
(d) 1, 2 and 3 General Marshal
67. Consider the following countries : 3. Major Squadron Lieutenant
Leader Commander
1. Italy
2. Japan 4. Lieu- Group Captain
3. Nigeria tenant Captain
Colonel
4. South Korea
5. South Africa Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
Which of the above countries are
frequently mentioned in the media (a) 1 and 4
for their low birth rates, or ageing (b) 1 and 3
population or declining population ? (c) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5

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70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was 73. Consider the following pairs :
established by the North Eastern
Council Act, 1971 Subsequent to Party Its Leader
the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, 1. Bharatiya Jana Dr.Shyama Prasad
the Council comprises which of the Sangh Mukherjee
following members ?
2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari
1. Governor of the Constituent State Congress for Jagjivan Ram
3.
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent Democracy
State
4. Swatantra Acharya Narendra
3. Three Members to be nominated by Party Dev
the President of India
4. The Home Minister of lndia How many of the above are correctly
Select the correct answer using the matched?
code given below: (a) Only one
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Only three
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) All four
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 74. Which of the following statements
71. How many Delimitation Commissions are correct about the Constitution of
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have been constituted by the India?

Government of India till December 1. Powers of the Municipalities are
2023 ? given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
(a) One 2. Emergency provisions are given in
(b) Two Part XVIII of the Constitution.
(c) Three 3. Provisions related to the amendment
of the Constitution are given in Part
(d) Four XX of the Constitution.
72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Select the answer using the code given
Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule below :
to the Constitution to include which of (a) 1 and 2 only
the following languages?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Konkani (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Manipuri (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Nepali
75. Which one of the following statements
4. Maithili is correct as per the Constitution of
Select the correct answer using the India ?
code given below:
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 State subject under the State List.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Inter-State migration is a State
(c) 1, 3 and 4 subject under the State List.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union
subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject
under the State List.

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76. Under which of the following Articles 80. Which of the following statements
of the Constitution of India, has the about the Ethics Committee in the Lok
Supreme Court of India placed the Sabha are correct?
Right to Privacy ?
1. Initially it was-an ad-hoc Committee.
(a) Article 15 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha
(b) Article 16 can make a complaint relating to
(c) Article 19 unethical conduct of a member of
(d) Article 21 the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any
77. What are the duties of the Chief of matter which is sub-judice.
Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Select the answer using the code given
Department of Military Affairs? below :
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of (a) 1 and 2 only
Staff Committee (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Exercise military command over the (c) 1 and 3 only
three Service Chiefs
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence
Minister on all tri-service matters 81. Consider the following statements
Select the correct answer using the regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan
code given below: Adhiniyam’ :
2024

(a) 1, 2 and 3 1. Provisions will come into effect from

(b) 1 and 2 only the 18th Lok Sabha.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. This will be in force for 15 years after
(d) 1 and 3 only becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the
78. Operations undertaken by the Army reservation of seats for Scheduled
towards upliftment of the local Castes Women within the quota
population in remote areas to include reserved for the Scheduled·Castes.
addressing of their basic needs is Which of the statements given above
called : are correct?
(a) Operation Sankalp (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Operation Maitri (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Operation Sadbhavana (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Operation Madad (d) 1 and 3 only
79. The longest border between any two 82. Which of the following statements
countries in the world is between : about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are
(a) Canada and the United States of correct?
America 1. This was a joint military exercise .
(b) Chile and Argentina between India and Bangladesh.
(c) China and India 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation 3. Joint response during counter-
terrorism operations was a goal of
this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this
exercise.

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Select the answer using the code given (a) 1 only

below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
86. Who of the following is the author of
(d) 2, 3 and 4
the books “The India Way” and “Why
83. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued Bharat Matters”?
by the Supreme Court or High Courts
(a) Bhupender Yadav
to :
(b) Nalin Mehta
(a) a government officer prohibiting (c) Shashi Tharoor
him from taking a particular action.
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly
to pass a law on Prohibition. 87. Consider the following pairs :
(c) the lower court prohibiting
Country Reason for being in
continuation of proceedings in a
the news
case.
1. Argentina Worst economic crisis
(d) the Government prohibiting it from
following an unconstitutional policy.
2. Sudan War between the
2024

84. Consider the following statements : country’s regular

1. It is the Governor of the State army and paramilitary
who recognizes and declares forces
any community of that State as a 3. Turkey Rescinded its mem-
Scheduled Tribe. bership of NATO
2. A community declared as a How many of the pairs given above are
Scheduled Tribe in a State need not correctly matched ?
be so in another State.
(a) Only one pair
Which of the statements given above
(b) Only two pairs
is/are correct?
(c) All three pairs
(a) 1 only
(d) None of the pairs
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 88. Consider the following statements :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic
route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas
85. With reference to Union Budget,
shipments to Europe.
consider the following statements :
Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects
1. The Union Finance Minister on the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
behalf of the Prime Minister lays the
Annual Financial Statement before Which one of the following is correct in
both the Houses of Parliament. respect of the above statements ?
2. At the Union level, no demand for (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
a grant can be made except on the are correct and Statement-II explains
recommendation of the President of Statement-I
India. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Which of the statements given above are correct, but Statement-II does
is/are correct? not explain Statement-I
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(c) Statement-I is correct, but 92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I : India does not import
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II is correct
Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits
89. Consider the following statements : the import of Genetically Modified food
without the approval of the competent
1. The Red Sea receives very little authority.
precipitation in any form.
Which one of the following is correct in
2. No water enters the Red Sea from
respect of the above statements ?
rivers.
Which of the statements given above (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
is/are correct? are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I
(a) 1 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(b) 2 only are correct, but Statement-II does
(c) Both 1 and 2 not explain Statement-I
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Statement-I is correct, but
90. According to the Environmental Statement-II is incorrect
Protection Agency (EPA), which one of (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but
the following is the largest source of Statement-II is correct
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suIphur dioxide emissions? 93. With reference to the Speaker of the

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels Lok Sabha, consider the following
(b) Ships using fossil fuels statements :
(c) Extraction of metals from ores While any resolution for the removal of
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under
consideration :
91. Consider the following statements :
1. He/She shall not preside.
Statement-I: There is instability and 2. He/She shall not have the right to
worsening security situation in the Sahel speak.
region. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote
Statement-II : There have been military on the resolution in the first instance.
takeovers / coups d’etat in several Which of the statements given above
countries of the Sahel region in the recent is/are correct?
past.
(a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in (b) 1 and 2 only
respect of the above statements ?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (d) 1, 2 and 3
are correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I 94. With reference to the Indian
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Parliament, consider the following
are correct, but Statement-II does statements :
not explain Statement-I 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha
(c) Statement-I is correct, but lapses on its dissolution.
Statement-II is incorrect 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on
Statement-II is correct the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
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3. A bill in regard to which the President (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
of India notified his/her intention to are correct and Statement-II explains
summon the Houses to a joint sitting Statement-I
lapses on the dissolution of the Lok (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Sabha. are correct, but Statement-II does
Which of the statements given above not explain Statement-I
is/are correct? (c) Statement-I is correct, but
(a) 1 only Statement-II is incorrect
(b) 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but
(c) 2 and 3 Statement-II is correct
(d) 3 only 97. Consider the following statements :
95. With reference to the Parliament Statement - I : Recently, Venezuela
of India, consider the following has achieved a rapid recovery from
statements: its economic crisis and succeeded in
preventing its people from fleeing/
1. Prorogation of a House by the emigrating to other countries.
President of India does not require
the advice of the Council of Ministers. Statement-II : Venezuela has the world’s
2. Prorogation of a House is generally largest oil reserves.
done after the House is adjourned Which one of the following is correct in
2024

sine die but there is no bar to the respect of the above statements?
President of India prorogating the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
House which is in session. are correct and Statement-II explains
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done Statement-I
by the President of India who, save (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
in exceptional circumstances, does are correct, but Statement-II does
so on the advice of the Council of not explain Statement-I
Ministers.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but
Which of the statements given above Statement-II is incorrect
is/are correct?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but
(a) 1 only Statement-II is correct
(b) 1 and 2
98. With reference to the Digital India Land
(c) 2 and 3 Records M;odernisation Programme,
(d) 3 only consider the following statements:
96. Consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the
Statement-I: The European Parliament Central Government provides 100%
approved The Net-Zero Industry Act funding.
recently. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps
are digitised.
Statement-II : The European Union
intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 3. An initiative has been undertaken
2040 and therefore aims to develop all of to transliterate the Records of
its own clean technology by that time. Rights from local language to any
of the languages recognized by the
Which one of the following is correct in Constitution of India.
respect of the above statements ? Which of the statements given above
are correct?

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(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
99. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri
Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider
the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum
package of antenatal care services
to women in their second and third
trimesters of pregnancy and six
months post-delivery health care
service in any government health
facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector
health care providers of certain
specialities can volunteer to provide
services at nearby government
health facilities.
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Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. With reference to the Pradhan
Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-
SYM) Yojana, consider the following
statements :
1. The entry age group for enrolment
in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be
made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme
shall receive a minimum pension of
3,000 per month after attaining the
age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the
spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

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 DELHI UPSC SECRETS UPSC CSE-2024 (Set-A)  SOLVED PAPER
1. Explanation: (D) Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Terrestrial Radiation: 3. Explanation: (D)
• The maximum part of the insolation is • The material in the upper mantle i.e.
in short wavelengths and gases of the asthenosphere portion is called magma.
atmosphere absorbs less amount of short when it starts moving towards the crust and
wavelengths, thus there is less heating of it reaches the surface, it is referred to as
the atmosphere by the direct sunlight. lava. The material that reaches the ground
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. as a volcanic eruptions contains lava flows,
• The earth after getting heated becomes a pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash and
dust and gases such as sulphur compounds,
radiating body and it radiates heat energy
nitrogen compounds and minor amounts
to the atmosphere in long wave form. of chlorene, hydrogen and argon.
This energy heats up the atmosphere from • So, all of the above are products of volcanic
below. This process is known as terrestrial eruptions. Therefore, option (d) is the
radiation. i.e The earth radiates heat like correct answer.
all other hot objects. This is known as 4. Explanation: (A)
terrestrial radiation .
• Isotherms are imaginary lines that connect
• This long wave radiation is absorbed by
points having the same temperature at a
the atmospheric gases,more specifically by
given time.
carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
Thus, the atmosphere is indirectly heated • These lines are used to represent temperature
2024

by the Earth’s radiation. Hence, statement distributions across geographical areas.

2 is correct. • In January the isotherms deviate to the
north over the ocean and to the south over
2. Explanation: (A) the continent. This is seen on the North
• The lower latitudes have stronger Atlantic Ocean. Hence, statement 1 is
convectional currents because of intense correct.
heating (Eqautorial regions are more • The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf
heated through insolation) . Hoter the Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the
air,it rises high. As warm air rises, it gets Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the
cools. hence there is decline of temperature isotherms bend towards the north. Hence,
at greater heights(16 – 18 Kms) over the statement 2 is not correct. Understand
equator. At higher latitudes, convection are the difference of lines here in statement 2
weaker and warm air rises does not reach Hence, option A is correct.
to much heights. There is less decrease of
5. Explanation: (C)
temperature at upper lattitude (over poles
– upto 8 -1 0 Kms). Hence statement 2 is Use of cocoa :
correct. • Dried and fermented seeds- chocolate
• The troposphere is the lowermost layer Making
of the atmosphere. Its average height is • Beans fat – cocoa butter which is Used as
12 km and it is at height of 8 km near the moisturizer to the skin and hair and as a
poles and about 18 km at the equator. The food for cooking.
thickness of the troposphere is greatest at • Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana are the two largest
the equator compared to the poles because cocoa-growing countries, accounting for
heat is transported to great heights by nearly 60% of global cocoa production,
strong convectional currents. So, both and next is Ecuador . West Africa hosts the
Statements-I and Statements- II are correct world’s leading cocoa-producing countries.
and Statements-II explains Statement-I. In Asia, Indonesia is the largest producer.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer
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6. Explanation (B) 7. Explanation: (A)
• Ganga basin is the largest river basin • Weathering is the breaking down or
in India in terms of catchment area, dissolving of rocks and minerals on the
constituting 26% of the country’s land mass surface of Earth. Water, ice, acids, salts,
and supporting about 43% of its population. plants, animals, and changes in temperature
River Ganga, originates at Gangotri Glacier are all agents of weathering.
at Gaumukh having lenght 2525 kms before • Weathering of Rocks is affected Mainly By
flowing into Bay of Bengal Rainfall and temperature. Hence statement
• The Ganga river system is the largest in I is correct.
India having a number of perennial and • Weathering can be biological, chemical or
non-perennial rivers originating in the physical. High temperatures and greater
Himalayas in the north and the Peninsula rainfall increase the rate of chemical
in the south, respectively. weathering
• The important left bank tributaries are the • Rocks in tropical regions are exposed to
Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara, the abundant rainfall and hot temperatures,
Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda. they weather much faster than rocks in
• The river finally discharges into the Bay of cold, dry regions.
Bengal. • Carbon dioxide in the air is mixed with
• Gomati is a tributary of Ganga river and an rainwater, making it slightly acidic. Normal
alluvial river of the Ganga Plain. rain has a pH of about 5.6, it is slightly acidic
• It originates near Mainkot, from Gomat because carbon dioxide (CO2) dissolves
2024

Taala lake. into it forming weak carbonic acid. Hence,

• The Ghaghara originates near statement II is correct.
Mapchachungo Glacier, having tributaries • In this process reaction occurs when the
Tila, Seti, and Beri. rainwater comes into contact with minerals
• The Gandak consists of the Kaligandak in the rock, causing weathering.
and Trishulganga streams. It originates in • Gases which dissolve in rainwater before
the Nepal Himalayas between Dhaulagiri it reaches the ground: Oxygen, Nitrogen,
and Mount Everest, enters in Bihar’s Carbon dioxide.
Champaran district, and joins the Ganga at • Rain water can dissolve more amount
Sonpur near Patna. of oxygen than ordinary water due to
• The Kosi, an antecedent river, originates condensation of water droplets in the
north of Mount Everest in Tibet with atmosphere having no dissolved salts like
its main stream Arun, then in Nepal it is ordinary water. Also rainwater is in contact
joined by the Son Kosi from the west and with atmospheric air. Hence, it contains
the Tamur Kosi from the east, forming the more percentage of oxygen. Therefore,
Sapt Kosi after merging with the Arun. option (a) is the correct answer.
• It is called as sorrow of Bihar because of its 8. Explanation: (B)
flood proneness and heavy devastation in
Bihar state. • The North Sea is one of the seas in the
Atlantic Ocean. It is part of the North-East
• The correct order from West to East is: Atlantic Region and opens into the Atlantic
Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi. Ocean via the English Channel.
• Trick - HI RAM (RAMGANGA) GOMATI • The North Sea region borders some of the
KA GHAGRA GANDA (GANDAK) strong economies in Europe.
KAISE (KOSI) HUA
• West- Great Britain UK (Scotland and
England) and Norway

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• East- Germany, Belgium, France, 11. Explanation: (A)
Netherlands
• Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar: It is the
• South - Denmark first greenfield airport in Arunachal
• North - Faroe Islands and Norway’s Pradesh, this airport is suitable for all
Svalbard archipelago weather day operations. The airport
• Finland and Russia do not share a border terminal is a modern building promotes
with the North Sea. Hence, option B is energy efficiency, renewable energy and
correct. the recycling of resources. It reflects the
people’s reverence of the Sun (Donyi) and
9. Explanation: (A) the Moon (Polo), and symbolizes the rich
• Malwa region - Dhuandhar falls on the cultural heritage of the State. So statement
Narmada River in Jabalpur. So, pair 1 is 1 is correct.
not correctly matched. • Kushinagar Airport in Kushinagar district
• The Hundru Falls in Ranchi is created on of Uttar Pradesh is a Greenfield Airport.
the course of the Subarnarekha River, It is • Airports Authority of India has undertaken
located in the Chotanagpur region. So, pair development/ expansion Vijayawada
2 is correctly matched. Airport in Andhra Pradesh. It is not a
• Gersoppa Falls, also known as Jog Falls, greenfield project. So statement 2 is
lies on the Sharavati River in the Western correct and 3 is not correct.
Ghats. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched. • Therefore, option (A) is the correct
10. Explanation: (B) answer.
2024

• There are three types of mountains- 12. Explanation: (A)

a) Fold Mountains Water Vapour :

b) Block Mountains • Water vapor is water in gaseous form. It is
Earth’s most abundant greenhouse gas.
c) Volcanic Mountains.
• It is also a variable gas in the atmosphere,
• The Himalayan Mountains, Alps and Andes which decreases with altitude.
are young fold mountains
• Warm and wet tropics- 4 %
• The Aravali range in India is one of the
• Dry and cold areas of desert and polar
oldest fold mountain systems in the world.
regions- less than one per cent of the air.
The range has majorly worn down due to
the processes of erosion. • Water vapour also decreases from the
equator towards the poles. Therefore,
• Andes Mountains are a mountain system of
option (a) is the correct answer.
South America and one of the great natural
features on Earth. 13. Explanation: (D)
• Appalachians in North America and Marine West Coast Climate:
the Ural mountains in Russia are fold
mountains. • It is located poleward from the
Mediterranean climate on the west coast of
• Block Mountains are created when large
the continents.
areas are broken and displaced vertically.
The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts • The main areas are: Northwestern Europe,
and the lowered blocks are called graben. the west coast of North America, north of
California, southern Chile, southeastern
• The Rhine Valley and the Vosges mountain
Australia and New Zealand.
in Europe are Block Mountains. Therefore,
option (b) is the correct answer. • Due to marine influence, the temperature
is moderate and in winter, it is warmer than
its latitude.

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• The mean temperature in summer months • As a large portion of the Northern
ranges from 15°-20°C and in winter 4°- Hemisphere is getting light from the sun,
10°C. it is summer in the regions north of the
• The annual and daily ranges of temperature equator. The longest day and the shortest
are small. Precipitation occurs throughout night at these places occur on 21st June.
the year. Precipitation varies greatly from • At this time in the Southern Hemisphere all
50-250 cm. Therefore, option (d) is the these conditions are reversed. It is winter
correct answer. there. The nights are longer than the days.
This position of the earth is called the
14. Explaination: (C)
Summer Solstice.
• The Coriolis force is an apparent force that • Hence, option (d) is correct.
acts on objects moving within a rotating
reference frame, such as the surface of the 16. Explanation: (B)
Earth. • The Congo Basin is home to the world’s
• It is named after the French mathematician largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil
and engineer Gaspard-Gustave de Coriolis, and Indonesia. The peat swamp forest of
who first described it mathematically in the the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion
early 19th century. tons of carbon – approximately equivalent
• It deflects the wind to the right direction to three years’ worth of global greenhouse
in the northern hemisphere and to the left gas emissions – and the Basin as a whole
in the southern hemisphere. The deflection absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon
is more when the wind velocity is high. dioxide a year.
2024

Hence, statement 1 is correct. • The Basin stretches across six countries-

• The Coriolis force is directly proportional Cameroon, Central African Republic,
to the angle of latitude and velocity of Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo,
moving object. It is maximum at the poles Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
and is absent at the equator. Hence option (b) is correct answer.
• At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero
17. Explanation: (D)
and the wind blows perpendicular to the
isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead • Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS)
of getting intensified. That is the reason are chemicals that resist grease, oil, water,
why tropical cyclones are not formed near and heat which are used in stain- and
the equator. Hence, statement 2 is correct. water-resistant fabrics and carpeting,
Hence, option (c) is correct. cleaning products, paints, and fire-fighting
foams. Certain PFAS are also authorised by
15. Explaination: (D) the FDA for limited use in cookware, food
• On 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is packaging, and food processing equipment.
tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun • PFAS are found majorly in drinking water,
fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a foods, food packaging materials and other
result, these areas receive more heat. The consumer products. Hence, statement 1 is
areas near the poles receive less heat as correct.
the rays of the sun are slanting. The North • Chemically, PFAS have a carbon-fluorine
Pole is inclined towards the sun and the bond, which is very strong and therefore,
places beyond the Arctic Circle experience they do not degrade easily. Hence,
continuous daylight for about six months. statement 2 is correct.
• The further north one moves from the • Accumulation of certain PFAS has also
equator, the more light one receives during been shown through blood tests to occur
the summer solstice. At the Arctic Circle, in humans and animals. Over time,
the sun never sets during the solstice. people may take in more of the chemicals

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than they excrete, a process that leads • Pteropus giganteus, is listed as a ‘vermin’ in
to bioaccumulation in bodies. Hence, the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
statement 3 is correct. as the orchards farms. Hence, statement I
18. Explanation: (B) is correct.
• These bats are endemic to South Central
• Parasitoids are insect whose larvae live as
Asia. Indian flying foxes maintain a
parasites which eventually kill their hosts.
frugivorous diet, adding insects and flowers,
• Parasitoids eventually kill the host they feed containing juice and nectar.Favorite fruits
on, opposed to parasites like fleas and ticks, are figs, the animals also consume mango,
which typically feed upon hosts without guava, bananas, and various cultivated
killing them. fruits. Hence, statement II is not correct.
• Parasitoids include species of wasps, flies
(e.g. tachinid flies), beetles (carabid beetles) 21. Explanation: (C)
and worms (e.g. gordian worms). • Cicadas are insects having family
• Centipedes are exclusively predatory. They Cicadoidea who spend most of their lives
eat most anything that is small enough and underground as nymphs, feeding off the
soft bodied, which includes insects and sap of tree roots. Froghopper is an insect
other small animals. Hence, they cannot be having family Cercopoidea.
considered parasitoids. • They have pointed heads and tapered bodies
• The food of termites is mainly cellulose, that are raised at the head end, looking not
which is obtained from wood, grass, leaves, unlike a frog that is about to jump.
humus, manure of herbivorous animals, • A pond skater, (water strider) is a family of
2024

and materials of vegetative origin (e.g., long-legged insects that live on the surface
paper, cardboard, cotton). Hence, termites of the water. Order- Hemiptera - aphids,
cannot be categorised as parasitoids. bed bugs, and cicadas. Hence, Option (c)
• Only three of the given options are is correct.
parasitoids. Hence, option (b) is correct 22. Explanation: (A)
19. Explanation: (C) • Chewing gums found in the market are
• Peanut or groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) non-biodegradable. Gum is considered a
is a species in the legume or “bean” - source of environmental pollution due to
Fabaceae family (commonly known as the the it’s stickiness and non-biodegradable
pea family). nature. They are considered as non-
• India is the second-largest producer of digestible and water-insoluble. Hence,
groundnuts in the world. statement-I is correct.
• Horse gram (Macrotylomauniflorum) • Many chewing gums contain plastic in their
belongs to the family Fabaceae and is one gum base, which is usually polyvinyl acetate
of the minor legumes cultivated in Asian (PVA) hence chewing gum residue can be
and African countries. regarded as a dangerous environmental
pollutant. Hence, statement-II is correct.
• Soybean belongs to the pea family and
is an edible seed. It is economically the • Both Statement I and Statement-II are
most important bean in terms of highest correct and Statement-II is the correct
protein content (42%). Hence, option (c) explanation for Statement I. Hence, option
is correct. (A) is correct

20. Explanation: (C) 23. Explanation: (D)

• Pteropus giganteus, commonly known as • Indri is endemic to Madagascar. Indri is

the Indian flying fox, is a remarkable bat considered to be the largest of the surviving
species native to the Indian subcontinent lemur species. They are diurnal and
and is one of the largest. arboreal.They are found in the northeastern
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part of Madagascar. It is an endangered the main focus of WTO. Hence, statement
species. Hence, pair one is not correctly 3 is not correct.
matched. • Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer
• Elk (red deer) is found in North America
25. Explanation : (A)
and in the high mountains of Central Asia.
• Elk have been introduced to Ireland, • Lions have no particular breeding season,
Argentina, Chile, Australia and New and often synchronize breeding. Cubs are
Zealand. Hence, pair two is not correctly produced roughly every two years. The
matched. Elk are primarily found in average gestation is between three and four
western North America, especially in months. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
mountainous such as Wyoming’s National • Cheetahs belong to the “purring cats”
Elk Refuge and Yellowstone National Park. subfamily and as such do not roar.
• Bonobo is a species of ape found only in • The cheetah’s voice box form a fixed
lowland rainforests along the south bank structure. This design enables these cats
of the Congo River in the Democratic to purr continuously, it limits the range of
Republic of the Congo. Hence, pair three other sounds and prevents them from being
is not correctly matched. able to roar. “Roaring cats” are lions, tigers,
• Hence, option (d) is correct jaguars, and leopards have an incompletely
ossified hyoid, which in theory allows them
24. Explanation : (A) to roar but not to purr. Hence, statement 2
World Toilet Organization (WTO): is correct.
2024

• It is a global non-profit Organization • Lions proclaim their territory by roaring

dedicated to enhancing toilet and sanitation and by scent marking. Their very particular
conditions worldwide which is founded on roar is generally delivered in the evening
November 19, 2001. The WTO educate and before a night’s hunting and again before
agitate individuals by providing education, getting up at morning.
training, and developing local market • Both sexes of Leopards use urine to mark
opportunities, enabling them to advocate their territories, and often after urinating a
for clean and safe sanitation facilities male will then scrape the ground to transfer
within their communities. It was granted the scent of his urine onto his feet to be
consultative status with the United Nations carried during territorial Boundry patrols..
Economic and Social Council in 2013. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. • Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
• WTO established World Toilet Day and 26. Explanation : (A)
the World Toilet Summit in 2001; this was
followed by the World Toilet College in • 100 Million Farmers is a platform
2005. Through its various initiatives, WTO supporting private and public leaders to
continues to provide an international position food and farmers as central pillars
platform for toilet associations, on the global climate and nature agenda,
governments, academic institutions, and accelerate collective action to scale
foundations, UN agencies and corporate climate and nature friendly agricultural
stakeholders to exchange knowledge and practices.
leverage media and corporate support to • It has bold objectives for accelerating the
promote clean sanitation and public health transition towards food and water systems
policies. Hence, statement 2 is correct. that are net-zero, nature-positive, and that
• Granting funds to the least developed increase farmer resilience.
countries and developing countries to • It has Targets having a fifth of the world’s
achieve the end of open defecation is not farmer population, aims to reach one
hundred million farmers to reach a top

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notch point that could shape the future of • Eg. Bruno’s casque-headed frog
food and water systems. (Aparasphenodon brunoi) and Greening’s
• Hence, Option (a) is correct. frog (Corythomantis greeningi). Hence,
Option (c) is correct.
27. Explanation : (D)
30. Explanation : (A)
• Distributed energy resources (DER) refers
to often smaller generation units that are • The cashew (Anacardium occidentale )is
located on the consumer’s side of the meter. native to northeastern Brazil. Portuguese
• Examples of distributed energy resources missionaries took it to India during the late
16th century, where it has took home near
Battery storage - Biomass generators, the seacoast. Hence, 1 is not correct.
which are fuelled with waste gas or in-
• Papaya originated from southern Mexico,
dustrial and agricultural by-products.
Central America, and northern South
Fuel cells - Rooftop solar photovoltaic America. It is now cultivated in most
units, wind generating units, Open and tropical countries. Hence, 2 is not correct.
closed cycle gas turbines, Hydro and • Red Sanders is an Indian endemic tree
mini-hydro schemes etc. Hence, Option species, with a restricted geographical
(d) is correct. range in the Eastern Ghats.It is native
28. Explanation : (A) to Andhra Pradesh. On the amendment
to the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in
• The banyan fig tree (Ficus Microcarpa) December 2022, Red Sanders is now listed
which is famous for its aerial roots, sprout in Schedule IV. Hence, 3 is correct.
2024

from branches and eventually and finally

• Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
reach the soil.
• The tree also has a unique relationship 31. Explanation : (B)
with a wasp that has evolved with it and • Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators
is the only insect that can pollinate it. The (RTGs) are lightweight, reliable, compact
relationship between figs and wasps also and having longevity also durable power
presents an intriguing scientific challenge. systems that support spacectraft systems.
• The body shapes and sizes of the wasps They are also known as “nuclear batteries”.
correspond exactly to those of the fig Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
fruits, and each species of fig produces a • RTGs are mainly used where solar power is
unique perfume to attract its specific wasp impractical, such as deep space exploration.
pollinator. Therefore, option (a) is the RTGs have been successfully employed by
correct answer. US spacecraft for eg Voyage Cassini and
29. Explanation : (C) Curiosity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• RTGs provide electrical power using heat
• Many butterflies are armed with poisonous
from the natural radioactive decay of
chemicals. The bright colors warn predators
plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium
of the danger.
oxide and then they are converted into
• Pollen is converted in its body by them electric energy. Hence, statement 3 is
to harmful toxins called cyanogenic correct.
glycosides.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• Various species of fish contain poisonous
biotoxins. Pufferfish is the most poisonous 32. Explanation : (D)
fish. Stonefish have venomous spines. • Giant stars use up the hydrogen fuel in their
• Some frogs can be poisonous- Produce and core to burn it much faster, hence they live
store alkaloid poisons and toxins in their much shorter lives than dwarf stars. Hence,
body majorly are poison arrow frogs or statement 1 is not correct.
poison dart frogs.
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• Giant stars have heavy masses therefore 35. Explanation : (D)
these massive stars have hotter and denser
• Fifth generation fighter jets have high stealth
cores than dwarf stars. Therefore, giant
capabilities and cruise at supersonic (super
stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions
cruise) speeds and advanced avionics.
that light up stars. Hence, statement 2 is
correct. • At Present, Fifth generation jets are
possessed by Russia (Sukhoi Su 57), China
33. Explanation : (A) (Chengdu J-20), and the US (F-35 & F-22).
• Nitric oxide is an essential molecule Therefore, none of the above aircraft are
required for health. NO is synthesized 5th generation fighter aircraft.
in human body. Nitric oxide performs • Rafale is 4th generation fighter jet of France
function of vasodilator which helps the • MiG-29 also 4th generation fighter jet of
blood vessels to relax and expand. Russia
• This effect allows blood, nutrients, and • Tejas MK-1 is 4th generation indigenous
oxygen to flow freely to every part of the fight jet of India
body. But when nitric oxide production • Hence, option (d) is correct.
is decreased, your health can become
deterioted. 36. Explanation : (D)
• For this purpose it is important to achieve • Hydrogels having water absorbent
and maintain optimal levels of nitric oxide properties, low degradation, and ability
in the body. Nitric oxide dilates blood to protect labile drugs (Drugs that are
vessels, raising blood supply and lowering destroyed in acidic environments),
2024

blood pressure. hydrogels are increasingly important as

• Hence, option (a) is correct. local drug delivery systems include wound
dressing, drugs and tissue engineering
34. Explanation : (C) that’s why are used in biotechnology and
• Radar (Radio Detection and Ranging) nanotechnology too. Hence, statement 1 is
systems use radio waves to detect and correct.
identify objects. They work by emitting • Hydrogels can be used in mobile air-
radio waves and capturing the reflected conditioning systems. They can absorb
signals to determine the position, speed, and release moisture, which can be useful
and characteristics of objects. in humidity control, a crucial aspect of air-
• Traditionally, radar is used for air conditioning. They are majorly used gels in
traffic control, weather monitoring, and market in air conditioning system because
navigation, monitoring and tracking of of high water content with passive cooling
precipitation, the intensity of rainfall, system. Hence, statement 2 is correct
and predicting weather patterns. Hence, • Hydrogels have received extensive
statement 2 is correct. attention as functional lubricants because
• Extending its use to passenger identification of their excellent anti friction and anti-wear
involves radar scanners which are used in properties reducing friction and wear tear
airports for body scans, detecting objects controlling viscosity, tunable tribological
without physical contact. Hence, point 1 is performances, and effectiveness in good
correct. lubrication. Hence, statement 3 is correct
• Radars can be used to track the migration • Hence, option (d) is correct.
of animals, mainly birds and bats and also 37. Explanation : (D)
their flights and ranges they flight. Hence,
statement 3 is correct. • Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are
powered by hydrogen. They are more
efficient than conventional internal

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combustion engine vehicles as they produce children per woman. Hence, option (d) is
no harmful emissions. correct.
• They only emit water vapour and warm 42. Explanation : (D)
air making cleaner air in cities. Therefore,
option (d) is the correct answer. • A Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is
a monetary policy tool used in India by
38. Explanation : (C) the RBI through which it adds or subtract
• Pumped storage hydropower is a type liquidity into or from the banking system
of hydroelectric energy storage that uses and thereby overall economy.
water stored in two different reservoirs at • LAF is used to aid banks in resolving short-
different elevations to generate electricity term cash shortages of funds. Since NBFCs
as water moves down from one to the other are not banking entities, they cannot access
through turbine. the LAF window of the RBI (exceptions
• It simply means store power when in excess Covid). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
and then release it when needed. • Foreign investors, whether registered as
• Hence, Option (c) is correct. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) or
FPI may also invest in treasury bills and
39. Explanation : (D) governmant securities with some terms
• Membrane bioreactor (MBR) technology is and conditions put forth by SEBI AND
an efficient hybrid of traditional biological RBI. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
plus membrane processes that is used in • In 2018, the National Stock Exchange (NSE)
both municipal and industrial wastewater launched the country’s first dedicated debt
2024

treatment. trading platform.

• This method use advanced membranes • The separate debt trading platform
which acts as a barrier to remove suspended provides an opportunity to retail investors
solids, eliminating the need for a bulky to invest in corporate bonds on a liquid
clarification. Hence, Option (d) is correct. and transparent exchange platform for
better price discovery and liquidity. Hence,
40. Explanation : (C)
statement 3 is correct.
• A collateralized borrowing and lending
43. Explanation : (D)
obligation (CBLO) is used in context of a
money market instrument. • Corporate bond market functions:
• It graphs an obligation between a borrower i) an alternative to bank finance
and a lender w.r.t. the terms and conditions ii) lower the cost of long-term funding
of a loan. iii) Quicker issuing time
• When borrower provides collateral (eg. iv) cost-effective source of longer-term
government securities) the lender gave funds for corporates
cash in exchange.
• Banks play a less crucial role in long-term
• It is short tem instrument of borrowing and liabilities because of shorter tenure.
lending. Hence, Option (d) is correct.
• In India, all three categories - Insurance
41. Explanation : (D) Companies, Pension Funds and Retail
• Total Fertility Rate (TFR): The average Investors - can trade in Corporate Bonds
number of children a hypothetical cohort and Government Securities.
of women would have at the end of their • Therefore, option (d) is the correct
reproductive period if they were subject answer.
during their whole lives to the fertility
rates of a given period and if they were
not subject to mortality. It is expressed as

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44. Explanation : (D) • Forestry residues
• Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treat-
• A financial instrument refers to any type
ment sludge)
of asset that can be traded by investors,
• Dedicated energy crops.
whether it’s a tangible entity like property
or a debt contract. • Hence, option (c) is correct.
• Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): 47. Explanation : (B)
These are investment funds that track a • Fixed Capital: Fixed capital refers to long-
basket of securities like stocks, bonds, term tangible assets and permanent assets.
or commodities. They trade on stock (usually more than one year) used in the
exchanges like individual shares, and production process. Tools, machines,
investors can buy or sell units of the ETF. buildings, ploughs, generators, turbines,
So 1 is correct. computers, etc can be used in production
• Motor Vehicles: Cars, trucks, and other over many years, and so are called fixed
motor vehicles considered physical assets capital
and are not financial instruments. Hence, • Working Capital: Working capital refers
statement 2 is not correct. to short-term assets (usually less than one
• Currency Swap: This is a financial year). and liabilities that a company uses in
agreement between two entity to exchange its day-to- day operations.
cash flows in different currencies. It allows • Farmer’s plough - Fixed capital : These
management of risk or speculations of are long-term assets used for long time in
foreign exchange. Hence, statement 3 is a farming. A farmer’s plough is a farming
2024

correct. tool used again and again in the production

• Therefore, option (d) is the correct process. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
answer. • Computer - Fixed capital : These are
45. Explanation : (B) tangible and permanent assets with a
relatively long lifespan (more than one
• Storage of agricultural produce - Tertiary year) used in the production process. So,
Sector ( service to support production) pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Dairy Farm - Primary Sector • Yarn used by the weaver - Working capital
• Mineral exploration - Primary Sector : Yarn is a raw material directly used in
(Mining ) weaving cloth. Raw materials are current
• Weaving cloth - Secondary Sector assets within working capital. Only one
(Transforming raw material to finished use in production process. So, pair 3 is not
goods ) correctly matched.
• Therefore, option (b) is the correct • Petrol - Working capital : It’s a short-term
answer. asset used in production which entirely
consumed within a short period. So, pair 4
46. Explanation : (C)
is correctly matched.
• Sustainable Feedstocks for Producing • Therefore, option (b) is the correct
Sustainable Aviation Fuel: Low answer.
environmental impact using renewable
source of fuel or Biofuel. 48. Explanation : (C)
• Oil seeds • The most appropriate word/phrase to
• Algae describe the given concept is “metaverse”.
• Other fats, oils, and greases • The term “metaverse” refers to an
• Agricultural residues interconnected network of 3D virtual
• Corn grain worlds that can be accessed by millions of
• Municipal solid waste streams users simultaneously.
• Wood mill waste
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• The metaverse is a shared environment that 52. Explanation : (C)
spans a multitude of 3D virtual worlds.
• A syndicated loan is granted to a borrower
option (c) is the correct answer.
by two or more banks controlled by a single
49. Explanation : (B) loan agreement administered by one bank.
Rules for Wholly Owned Subsidiaries • Syndicated lending has main objective of
(WOS) by foreign banks in India: distribution of the risk of a borrower across
numerous lenders, banks, or institutional
• The initial minimum paid-up equity capital investors, such as pension funds and hedge
requirements for a WOS shall be 5 billion. fund. Hence, statement I is correct.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Borrower can be individual corporate and
• For setting up of wholly owned subsidiaries government too.
by foreign banks in India, RBI mandate that
• The loan can be fixed amount of funds, a
not less than 50 percent of the directors
credit line, or a combination of the two.
should be Indian nationals resident in
Hence, statement II is not correct.
India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.
50. Explanation : (A)
53. Explanation : (D)
• Rule 2(1)(d)(iv) of the Companies (CSR
Policy) Rules, 2014 states that, any activity • The digital rupee, like physical currency,
designed exclusively for the benefit of is issued by the RBI and is aligned with
employees shall be considered as an its monetary policy. So, statement 1 is
“activity benefiting employees” and will not correct.
2024

qualify as permissible CSR expenditure. • The issuance of digital currency would be

Hence, statement 1 is correct. recorded as a liability on the RBI’s balance
• The Board of Directors of every company sheet, similar to physical currency. So,
(Companies meeting the criteria set by statement 2 is correct.
the Companies Act, 2013) for which the • The digital rupee, like physical currency,
CSR provisions apply must ensure that the is not inherently insured against inflation.
company spends in every financial year Inflation management is achieved through
at least 2% of its average net profits made broader monetary policy measures, not
during the immediately preceding three through the design of the currency itself.
financial years as per its CSR policy. Hence, So, Statement 3 is incorrect.
statement 2 is not correct. • The digital rupee is designed to be freely
• Hence, option (a) is correct. convertible with commercial bank money
and cash, maintaining the same value and
51. Explanation : (D) usability. So, Statement 4 is correct.
• If the United States of America is default • Therefore, option (d) the correct answer.
on its debt, holders of US Treasury bonds
will still have the legal right to claim for 54. Explanation : (B)
receiving payment. If there is default on • Under Jain texts, the epithet Nataputta or
one government bill does not trigger a Nayaputta was referred to Mahavira. So 1
default across all of the government’s debt, is not correct.
known as “cross default. Hence, statement
• The epithets of Tathagata & Shakyamuni is
I is not correct.
associated with Buddha where he is called
• The U.S. Government debt, including as:
Treasury bonds, bills, and notes, is not
backed by any specific hard assets. Instead, Tathagata: “One who has thus gone” or
it is backed by the “full faith and credit” of liberated himself from endless cycle of
the U.S. government (superpower). Hence, Samara or Death & Birth (Mokshaprapti).
statement II is correct. So 3 is correct.
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Shakyamuni: Because Buddha belonging • Permanent settlement was designed by John
to the shakya clan. So 2 is correct. Shore & implemented by Lord Cornwallis
• Therefore, option (b) is the correct in 1793.
answer. • In permanent settlement revenue was fixed
at 45% of the produce of which 10/11th
55. Explanation : (B) share was fixed for the Company & 1/11th
1. Chandraketugarh : An ancient share went to Zamindars. This amount to
archeological trade center and port site be paid was fixed permanently
of Gupta period in present day North 24 • Under the Sunset Law 1793, If a Zamindar
Parganas in West Bengal & not Odisha. So, failed to pay revenue in the British to state
pair 1 is not correctly matched. on time, he would be removed from his
2. Inamgaon: It is a famous Chalcolithic site zamindari. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
in the Pune district of state of Maharashtra. 58. Explanation : (B)
Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• PARABLE is a usually short fictitious
3. Mangadu: The megalithic monuments at story that illustrates a moral attitude or a
Mangadu consists of Urn burial sites found religious principle.
in1000 B.C. to 100 B.C, near Ashtamudi • The Parable of the Two Birds are seen in
Lake in Kerala. Hence, pair 3 is correctly the Upanishads. Hence, statement 1 is not
matched. correct.
4. Salihundam: It is a Buddhist site where • Period of the compilation of the Upanishads,
various important Buddhist Stupas
2024

roughly between the 7th and 5th BCE.

are found located on the banks of the • However, Puranas composed between
Vamsadhara River, but not rock cut cave the 3rd and 10th centuries CE. Hence,
shrine present in Salihundam, which is in statement 2 is correct.
Andhra Pradesh. Hence, 4 is not correctly
matched. 59. Explanation : (A)
• So, only two of the above pairs are correctly • The International Grains Council (IGC)
matched. Therefore, option (b) is the is an intergovernmental organisation that
correct answer. seeks to:
56. Explanation : (A) i) Further international cooperation in
grains trade;
• Bhatkal is port in Uttara Kannada district
in Karnataka. It is located on river Sharabi. ii) Promote expansion, openness and
• Bhatkal came into focus when Portuguese fairness in the grains sector;
arrived in India. From that time of iii) Contribute to grain market stability
Bhatkal chiefs were paying tributes to the and enhance world food security.
Portuguese rulers. • India is a member of the International Grain
• Emperor Krishnadevaraya allowed the Council. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Portuguese to build a fort here in 1510. • A country need not be a member of the
Hence, option (a) is correct. International Grains Council for exporting
57. Explanation : (B) or importing rice and wheat. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
• Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
collection, peasants were not exempted
from revenue payment in case of bad 60. Explanation : (C)
harvests or natural calamities. Hence,
• The latest cultural heritage included in the
statement 1 is not correct.
list is Garba, a traditional dance form from
Gujarat in December, 2023.
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• Garba is a devotional dance performed on • Hence, option (c) is correct.
Navaratri festival , which is dedicated to the
63. Explanation : (C)
worship of feminine energy or ‘Shakti’.
• Chhau dance- 2010 • Bhasa was the first known Sanskrit
• Durga puja- 2021 dramatist. He wrote 5 plays based
• Kumbh mela- 2017 on Mahabharata episodes like
• Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Madhyamavyayoga, Pancharatra,
Duta Vakyam, Duta Ghatotkacham,
61. Explanation : (D) Karnabharam, Urubhangam, Hence,
• The Constituent Assembly first convened Option (c) is correct.
on 9th December 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda • Bhamaha – Kavyalankara.
Sinha was elected as a Provisional President • Bharata-Natyashastra .
to the Constituent Assembly from Bihar on • Patanjali –Mahabhashya.
a Congress Party ticket. 64. Explanation : (C)
• He served as interim President of the
Assembly, subsequently Rajendra Prasad Sarvastivada Vinaya:
was formally appointed as President, while • The Sarvastivada Vinaya is the Chinese
H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari Buddhist canon.
were elected as Vice-Presidents, giving the • Sanghabhuti is the author of a commentary
Assembly two Vice-Presidents. on the Sarvastivada Vinaya. Hence, Option
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct C is correct.
answer.
2024

Prajnaparamita Sutras:
62. Explanation : (C) • The Prajnaparamita Sutras are one of the
oldest Mahayana Sutras having base of
Government of India Act (1935):
Mahayana Buddhist philosophy.
• It provided for the establishment of an All- • Nagarjuna, founder of school of philosophy
India Federation consisting of provinces called Madhyamika is developed from the
and princely states as units. Hence, Prajnaparamita Sutras.
statement 1 is correct.
Visuddhimagga:
• It introduced bicameralism in six out of
eleven provinces. • Visuddhimagga, summary of the
• The Government of India Act (1935) teaching of the Mahavihara school of
categorised subjects into three lists: the Theravada Buddhism written by Buddhist
central list, the state list, and the concurrent commentator Buddhaghosa.
list. Lalitavistara:
• The federal (central) list, comprising 59 • Lalitavistara is a Sanskrit Buddhist text.
items of national significance, includes The Lalitavistara is not a unified text nor it
defence, foreign affairs, finance, railways, is a composition of one author.
currency, and the press. Hence, statement
65. Explanation : (B)
2 is correct.
• The state list, with 54 items of regional • According to the UNESCO website, as of
importance, covers education, medicine, January 2024, there are around 1,199 World
agriculture, law and order, and local Heritage Sites, 42 of which are in India.
government. Santiniketan, West Bengal :
• The concurrent list includes 36 items such • Santiniketan established by Rabindranath
as electricity, marriage, divorce, labour, and Tagore was a residential school and center
criminal law. for art as vision of the unity of humanity in
• The remaining subjects were assigned to the religious and cultural boundaries.
Governor-General under residual powers.
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• Santiniketan has been recognized by • Therefore, option (d) is the correct
UNESCO as India’s 41st World Heritage answer.
Site in the year 2023. Hence, statement 1
67. Explanation : (A)
is correct.
Rani-ki-Vav,Gujarat : • Italy, Japan and South Korea are frequently
shown in the media for their low birth rates,
• Rani-ki-Vav, on the banks of the Saraswati aging population or declining population.
River, was built as a memorial to a king in
the 11th century AD. • South Korea’s fertility rate is the lowest in
the world. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Rani-ki-Vav has been recognized by
UNESCO as India’s 32nd World Heritage • Japan is facing a significant demographic
Site in the year 2014. Hence, statement 2 is challenge with lowest birth rates for the
NOT correct. eighth consecutive year. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
Hoysala - style temple complexes,
• Italy’s birth rate dropped to a record low in
Karntaka
2023. The fertility rate fell to 1.20 children
• Hoysala temples of Belur, Halebid and per woman. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Somanathapur in Karnataka added to the • South Africa not facing problem of lowering
United Nations Educational, Scientific working-age population. Hence, statement
and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) 5 is not correct.
World Heritage list in the year 2023. This
inclusion marks the 42nd UNESCO World • Nigeria is the largest and most populous
Heritage Site in India. Hence, statement 3 country in Africa, and the seventh largest in
2024

is correct. the world, and it currently has a population

of 215 million. Hence, statement 3 is not
Mahabodhi Temple Complex, Bodh correct.
Gaya :
68. Explanation : (C)
• The Mahabodhi Temple Complex is holy
site related to the life of the Lord Buddha, • Article 109 of the Constitution mentions a
and particularly to the Enlightenment of special procedure in respect of Money Bill.
lord buddha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Mahabodhi Temple Complex has • Money Bills should only be introduced in
been recognized by UNESCO as India’s the Lok Sabha and cannot be introduced in
23rd World Heritage Site in the year 2002. the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Hence,
Hence, statement 4 is not correct. statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, Option (b) is correct. • The Rajya Sabha can only make
recommendations on a Money Bill but
66. Explanation : (D)
does not have the power to amend or reject
• According to Article 368 in Part XX of the it. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Constitution of India, Parliament may in • Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by
the exercise of its constituent power amend Rajya Sabha, While the Lok Sabha has the
by way of addition, variation or repeal any option to accept or reject the amendments
provision of this Constitution in accordance suggested by the Rajya Sabha, it is not
with the procedure laid down in this article. obligated to accept them. Hence, statement
So, points 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 4 is not correct.
• The Parliament can amend the provisions • Hence, Option (c) is correct.
of the Constitution but cannot destroy
its ‘Basic Structure’. This was ruled by the 69. Explanation : (D)
Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati • The equivalent rank in the three services of
case (1973). Indian defence forces are as follow:

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Air Force Army Navy has enacted the Delimitation Commission

Acts in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
Squadron Major Lieutenant
Leader Commander • Hence, Option (d) is correct.
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct 72. Explanation : (A)
answer.
Eighth Schedule:
70. Explanation : (D) • It has the official languages Part XVII of the
• The North Eastern Council (NEC) is Indian constitution deals with the official
not a constitutional body, but a statutory languages in Articles 343 to 351.
organization established under the North • The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in specifies 22 languages (originally 14
2002. languages). These are Assamese, Bengali,
• According to the THE NORTH EASTERN Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi,
COUNCIL (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2002, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili
following shall be the composition of the (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi,
council : Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali,
Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
i) The Governor of the Constituent
States. • Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment
Act of 1967.
ii) the Chief Ministers of the States of
• Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
2024

Sikkim and Tripura. • Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were

added by the 92nd Amendment Act of
iii) Three members to be nominated by 2003. Hence, Option (a) is correct
the President Of India.
73. Explanation : (B)
iv) The President shall nominate the
Chairman of the Council. • Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Syama Prasad
Mukherjee- 1951. Hence, pair 1 is
v) The Union Home Minister is ex-
correctly matched.
Officio Chairman and the Minister
DoNER is the ex-Officio Vice- • The Socialist Party -Jai Prakash Narayan,
Chairman of the NEC. So, point 4 is Ram Manohar Lohia, and Acharya
correct. Narendra Dev-1934 Hence, pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
• Hence, option D is correct
• Congress for Democracy (CFD) - Jagjivan
71. Explanation : (D) Ram -1977. Hence, pair 3 is correctly
• Delimitation means the act of process of matched.
fixing the number of seats and limits or • Swatantra Party - C Rajagopalachari, Minoo
boundaries of territorial constituencies in Masani and N G Ranga -1959. Hence, pair
each State for the Lok Sabha and Legislative 4 is not correctly matched
assemblies. • Hence, Option (b) is correct.
• Under Article 82 and 170 of the 74. Explanation : (D)
Constitution provide that the number of
seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative • Part IXA of the Constitution- local self-
assemblies territorial constituencies shall government at the urban level or for the
be readjusted after each Census. municipalities. Hence, statement 1 is
• This ‘delimitation process’ is performed by correct.
the ‘Delimitation Commission’ that is set up • Part XVIII of the Constitution - emergencies
under an act of Parliament. The Parliament i.e. national, state and financial emergencies.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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• Article 368 in Part XX – Power of Council chaired by Hon’ble Defence
parliament to amend the Constitution minister. So, statement 3 is correct.
and its procedures. Hence, statement 3 is • Therefore, option (d) is the correct
correct. answer.
• Hence, Option (d) is correct.
78. Explanation : (C)
75. Explanation : (C)
• “Operation Sadbhavana” is a humanitarian
• Inter-state trade and commerce is entry initiative of the Indian Army aimed
42 under Union list (not State List) of at improving the social and economic
Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India. conditions of the people of remote areas to
Hence option 1 is Incorrect. include their basic needs. Hence, option
• Inter- state migration is a subject under (c) is correct.
entry 81 of Union list (not state list) of 79. Explanation : (A)
Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India.
Hence option 2 is Incorrect. • The longest land border between two
• Inter-State quarantine is under entry 81 countries is the border between Canada and
of Union list. Thus, it is a union subject of the United States, which is 8,890 kilometers
Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India. long which includes Alaska and northern
Hence option 3 is Correct. Canada, and Canada and the United States.
• Corporation Tax is entry 85 of Union Other long borders :
List (not State list) of Schedule 7 of the i) Russia and Kazakhstan: 6,846
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Constitution of India. Hence option 4 is kilometers

Incorrect.
ii) Chile and Argentina: 5,308 kilometers
76. Explanation : (D) iii) India and Bangladesh: 4,142
• In the landmark case of Justice K.S. kilometers
Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India • Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(2017), proclaimed that the right to privacy
is protected as an intrinsic part of the right 80. Explanation : (C)
to life and personal liberty under Article 21 History of Ethics Committee in LokSabha:
of the Constitution of India.
• The Committee of Privileges recommended
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct the constitution of an Ethics Committee
answer. during the 13th Lok Sabha. The late Speaker,
77. Explanation : (D) G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc
Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a
• The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) serves as permanent part of the House only in 2015.
the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Staff Committee (COSC), consist of three
Service Chiefs (Army, Navy, Air Force). So, Procedure for Complaints:
statement 1 is correct. • Any person or member may make a
• The CDS does not exercise military complaint relating to unethical conduct of
command over the three Service Chiefs. He a member of Lok Sabha. Provided that if a
ensures coordination over joint operations. complaint is made by any person, it shall be
So, statement 2 is not correct. forwarded by a member. So, statement 2 is
not correct
• The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) acts as the
Principal Military Advisor to the Defence • The Committee on Ethics shall not take up
Minister on all tri-service matters. He also any matter which is sub - judice and the
Administer the Tri-Service organizations. decision of the Committee as to whether
He is a member of the Defence Acquisition such matter is or is not sub-judice shall for

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the purposes of these rules be treated as Article 32) can empower any other court to
final. So, statement 3 is correct. issue these writs.
81. Explanation : (C) • PROHIBITION: Prohibition Literally, it
means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 : court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent
• The Constitution (106th Amendment) the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction
Act, 2023, reserves one-third of all seats or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not
for women in Lok Sabha, State legislative possess.
assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly • The writ of prohibition can be issued
of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, only against judicial and quasi-judicial
including those reserved for SCs and STs. authorities. It is not available against
• After the 18th Lok Sabha election, Census administrative authorities, legislative
and delimitation will be done immediately bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
and the Act will be implemented only after Hence, option (c) is correct.
that it will commence after 2026. Hence, 84. Explanation : (B)
statement 1 is not correct.
• The reservation will be effective after Definition of Scheduled Tribes :
the publication of the census conducted • The Constitution of India in Article 366
following the Act’s commencement and in (25) prescribe that the Scheduled Tribes
force for a 15-year period after becoming means such tribes or tribal communities
an act. Hence, statement 2 is correct. as are deemed under Article 342 of the
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• There are provisions for reservation of seats Constitution to be Scheduled Tribes.

for SCs women within quota reserved for • Article 342(1): The President with respect
SCs. Hence, statement 3 is correct. to any State/UT (after consultation with
• Hence, option (c) is correct. the Governor in case of state) may specify
the tribes/tribal communities/part of or
82. Explanation : (D) groups within tribes/ tribal communities as
Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023 : a Scheduled Tribe in that State/UT. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• The Joint Military exercise “Exercise
MITRA SHAKTI-2023” was conducted • The list of Scheduled Tribes is state/UT
between India and Sri Lanka. Hence, specific and a community declared as a
statement 1 is not correct. Scheduled Tribe in a state, need not be so
in another state/UT. Hence, statement 2 is
• It commenced in Aundh (Pune). Hence,
correct.
statement 2 is correct.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.
• The Goal of the exercise includes
synergising joint responses during counter- 85. Explanation : (B)
terrorist operations. Hence, statement 3 is • The Union Finance Minister on behalf
correct. of the President lays the annual Financial
• Indian Air Force and Sri Lanka Air Force Statement before both the Houses of
participated in the exercise. Hence, Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not
statement 4 is correct. correct.
• Hence, option (d) is correct. • As per Art.112 of Indian Constitution,
83. Explanation : (C) the President shall in respect of every
financial year cause to be laid before both
• WRITS: The Supreme Court (under Article the Houses of Parliament a statement of the
32) and the high courts (under Article estimated receipts and expenditure of the
226) can issue the writs of habeas corpus, Government of India for that year. it is also
mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo referred as the Annual financial statement.
warranto. Further, the Parliament (under
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• As per Art.113 of Indian Constitution, at • The Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline
Union Level, no demand for a grant can be (Egypt) connect the Red Sea with the
made except on the recommendation of the Mediterranean Sea. Hence, statement II is
President of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
correct. • Hence, Both statement I and statement
86. Explanation : (D) II are correct and statement II explains
statement I. Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian
diplomat and politician serving as Minister 89. Explanation : (C)
of External Affairs of the Government of • Red Sea, narrow strip of water extending
India southeastward from Suez, Egypt, for about
• He has authored the following books: 1,200 miles (1,930 km) to the Bab el-
The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain Mandeb Strait, which connects with the
World (2020), Why Bharat Matters. (2024) Gulf of Aden and then with the Arabian
• Hence, option (d) is correct. Sea.
• The Red Sea region receives very little
87. Explanation : (B)
precipitation in any form. Hence, statement
• Argentina : With one of the world’s highest 1 is correct.
inflation rates and after more than a decade • No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. The
of economic stagnation and rising poverty. Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water
The deep-rooted cause of Argentina’s in the world, owing to high evaporation and
economic distress and chronic inflation is low precipitation; no significant rivers or
2024

persistent public overspending financed by streams drain into the sea, and its southern
money creation. Hence, pair 1 is correctly connection to the Gulf of Aden, an arm
matched. of the Indian Ocean, is narrow. Hence,
• Sudan : In Sudan, the outbreak of the statement 2 is correct.
conflict in April 2023 has resulted in one
90. Explanation : (D)
of the biggest displacement crises globally,
with over 6 million people so far internally • The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere
displaced due to the conflict between the is the burning of fossil fuels by power
Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the plants and other industrial facilities. The
Rapid Support Forces (RSF). Hence, pair 2 gas contributes to the formation of acid
is correctly matched. rain and in high concentrations can cause
• Turkey : Turkey has been a member of respiratory problems.
NATO since 1952 and plays a significant Smaller sources of SO2 emissions include:
role within the alliance due to its strategic • Industrial processes such as extracting
location and military capabilities. There metal from ore.
have been tensions and disagreements • Natural sources such as volcanoes.
between Turkey and other NATO members • Locomotives, ships and other vehicles
on various issues, but Turkey has not and heavy equipment that burn fuel
withdrawn from the alliance. Hence, pair with a high sulphur content.
3 is not correctly matched. • Hence, option (d) is correct.
88. Explanation : (A) 91. Explanation : (A)
• The Suez Canal and the SUMED Pipeline • The Sahel region - Niger, Burkina Faso,
are strategic routes for Persian Gulf crude Chad, Mali, Mauritania, and Senegal, has
oil, petroleum products, and liquefied suffered political instability and worsening
natural gas (LNG) shipments to Europe. security situations and ethnic tensions.
Hence, statement I is correct. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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• Niger has witnessed military coup , Liptako 94. Explanation : (B)
instability is associated with the collapse
• The bill pending in loksabha lapses on its
of the Libyan state in 2011, which led to
dissolution (whether originating in the
the proliferation of weapons and armed
Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya
fighters in the region, Violent extremism in
Sabha). So, Statement 1 is correct.
the Lake Chad Basin. Hence, statement 2
is correct. • A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on
its dissolution.
• Hence, option (a) is correct because both
Statement-I and Statement-II are correct • A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending
and Statement-II explains Statement-I. in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution
of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 2 is
92. Explanation : (D) correct.
• India removed the “retaliatory import • A bill in regard to which the President of
duty” on US apples in September 2023. The India notified his/her intention to summon
import of US apples was a record of over the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the
7 million boxes, which dropped to 50,000 dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Statement 3
boxes in the 2022–23. It shows India import is incorrect.
apples from USA. Hence, statement 1 is • Therefore, option (b) is the correct
not correct. answer.
• In India, the Food Safety and Standards Act, 95. Explanation : (C)
of 2006, prohibits import, manufacture,
use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s • Termination of a session of the House
2024

approval. Hence, statement 2 is correct. by an Order by the President under the

• Hence, option (d) is correct because above constitutional provision is called
statement-I is incorrect and statement-II ‘prorogation’.
is correct. • Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution of
india, The President exercises this power
93. Explanation : (A) of Prorogation of the Houses only on the
• When any resolution for the removal recommendation of the Prime Minister or
of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under the Cabinet i.e. the Council of Ministers.
consideration, she/he cannot preside at the So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
sitting of the Lok Sabha but, she/he may • Prorogation generally done after house is
be present in the house. So, Statement 1 is adjourned sine die. The time-lag between
correct. the adjournment of the House sine die
• When any resolution for the removal and its prorogation is generally two to four
of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under days. Although there are instances when
consideration, she/he can speak and take the House was prorogued on the same day
part in the proceedings of the House. So, on which it was adjourned sine die,which
Statement 2 is incorrect. shows the President can also prorogue the
• When any resolution for the removal House while in session. So, Statement 2 is
of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under correct.
consideration, she/he shall entitled to vote • The President of India can dissolve the Lok
in the first instance and not in the case of Sabha before the expiry of its term on the
an equality of votes. So, Statement 3 is advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
incorrect. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. • Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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96. Explanation : (C) 99. Explanation : (B)
• The European Parliament has approved • Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
the Net-Zero Industry Act to enhance net- Abhiyan (PMSMA) was launched to
zero technology production in technology provide fixed-day assured, comprehensive
for decorbonization within the European and quality antenatal care universally to all
Union. So, statement 1 is correct. pregnant women (2nd and 3rd trimester)
• The European Union intends to achieve on the 9th of every month.
carbon neutrality by 2050 and therefore • This scheme provides, a minimum package
aims to develop all of its own clean of antenatal care services to pregnant
technology by that time. So, statement 2 is women in their 2nd/ 3rd trimesters at
not correct. Government health facilities (PHCs/ CHCs,
• Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. DHs/ urban health facilities etc) in both
urban and rural areas. But the scheme does
97. Explanation : (D) not provide Six months post delivery health
• The crisis in Venezuela continues with of care services in any government facilities.
more than 7.72 million people facing the Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
refugee crisis and is the largest displacement • The programme follows a systematic
crisis in Latin America and one of the largest approach for engagement with the private
in the world faced significant challenges sector which includes encouraging
accessing food, housing and livelihood. private practitioners to volunteer for the
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. campaign for developing strategies for
2024

• In 2022, crude oil reserves in Venezuela generating awareness and to give services
reached close to 304 billion barrels at government health facilities. A National
reporting Venezuela scores largest crude Portal for PMSMA and a mobile application
oil reserves in the world. Hence, statement have been developed to facilitate the
2 is correct. involvement of doctors from the private/
voluntary sector.
98. Explanation : (D)
• OBGY specialists/ Radiologists/physicians
• Digital India Land Records Modernization from the private sector would be
Programme (earlier National Land encouraged to provide voluntary services
Record Modernization Programme-) was at public health facilities where government
revamped as a Central Sector Scheme sector practitioners are not available or
staring from 1st April, 2016 with 100% inadequate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
funding by the Centre. So, statement 1 is
correct. 100. Explanation : (B)
• With 68.02 percent Cadastral Maps have Eligibility criteria - a person should be:
been digitized with respect to Land Records
i) An unorganised worker
under DILRM. So, statement 2 is correct.
• The Government with the technical support ii) Entry age between 18 and 40 years
of Centre for Development of Advanced iii) Monthly Income Rs 15000 or below.
Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken So, statement 1 is not correct.
an initiative to transliterate the Records of
• It is a voluntary and contributory pension
Rights available in local language to any
scheme on a 50:50 basis where prescribed
of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the
age-specific contribution shall be made
Constitution. So, statement 3 is correct.
by the beneficiary and the matching
• Therefore, option (d) is the correct contribution by the Central Government.
answer.
• Subscriber needs to contribute in the range
of Rs. 55 - Rs. 200 depending on the entry

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age. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Each subscriber would receive a minimum
assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month
after attaining the age of 60 years. So,
statement 3 is correct.
• If the beneficiary dies, the spouse of the
beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50%
of the pension as family pension. Family
pension is applicable only to spouses
(and not unmarried daughters). Hence,
statement 4 is not correct.
• Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.
2024

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