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XII MCQ - MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER – SET B

+ 2 6 2
If
=
 Find values of a and b
5  5 8
1.

(A) A=5 and b=1 or a=1 and b=5 (B) a=3 and b=7 or a=7 and b=3
(C) a=1; b=1 (D) a=4 and b=7 or a=7 and b=4

2. If a function F:R → R be defined by   =   + 5 + 9 ℎ 

9
(A) {0,-4} (B) {0, -6} (C) {0, -5} (D) {0, -1}

3. The law a+b =b+a is called

(A) Closure law (B) Associative law
(C) communicative law (D) distributive law

#
4. If sin⁻¹  −  !−1  = 6 ℎ  =

 √3 
  
(A) (B) (C) - (D) None of these

5 
A =& ) and A = *+ then
' 0
5.

(A) X=0, y=5 (B) x + y=5 (C) x=y (D) None of these

6. If A and B are square matrices of order 2 then det (A+B) = 0 is possible when
(A) det (A) = 0 or det (B)=0 (B) det (A) + det (B)=0
(C) det (A) = 0 and det (B)=0 (D) A+B=0

 0 0
7. * = ,0  0- ℎ ./0 |23*| is
0 0 
(A)  4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 

8. The system of equation  + ' + 7 = 2; 3 − ' + 27 = 6 2 3 + ' + 7 = −18 ℎ!

(A) a unique solution (B) no solution
(C) an infinite number of solution (D) zero solution as the only solution

9. If 9   =  + 1:;<= be continuous at  = 0 ℎ 9 0>0/ 


?
(A) 0 (B) (C) e (D) None of these
   + 1  > 1
Let , 9  = @ 1 ℎ 9 C! 2DC./   = 1 C
+2  ≤1
10.



(A) a =2 (B) a = 1 (C) a = 0 (D) a =
1 1
 H , K C!
FG
For the curve √ + E' = 1 ;
F= 4 4
11.

(B) −2 (C) −1 (D) 2

(A)

12. If 9   = / L=² / L ℎ 9 N    =  C!

 
? ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D)

2²'
13. If '  =   +  + , ℎ '³ P 2 Q
²

(A) constant (B) a function of x- only

(C) a function of y only (D)  0C   2 '

4 FS
If R = #D³ at what rate in cubic units is V increasing when r=10 and
3 F<
14. =0.01
TU
V
(A) π (B) 4π (C) 40π (D)

15. If there is an error of 2.1 in measuring the length of a simple pendulum then percentage error in its
period is
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
16. The equation of the normal to curve ' = sin   0,0C!
(A)  = 0 (B) ' = 0 (C) x+y= 0 (D) x-y= 0

17. X| |V 2 is equal to

⁴ |=|⁴ =⁴
(A) − 4 +  + +
T T
(B) (C ) (D) None of these

:;Z √
The value of X 2 C!
√
18.

\]^ =
(A) 2 !√ +  (B) [ _
+c (C) !C√ +  (D) 2!C√ + 

 
In a ∆ABC if C is a right angle then tan⁻¹ H K + ⁻¹ H K =
+ +
19.
U U bU U
V T  6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. The maximum value of  /= ;  > 0 C!

1 d
(A) /? (B)H K

(C) 1 (D) None of these


21. The value of integral X | 1 − ²|2 is

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) −2 (D) 0

√3 1
X 2 is equal to
1+²
22.

U U U U
 6 T V
(A) (B) (C) (D)

e
23. Xd  2 C! >0/ 
e
(A) 2 Xd  2 (B) 0
e e
(C) Xd ƒ  2 + Xd ƒ 2 −  2 (D) None of these

24. The area of region bounded by x-axis and curve ' =  ! gℎ 0 ≤  ≤ 2# is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

FG G
25. The general solution of differential equation F= = = C!

(A) log ' = k (B) y = k (C)' = k (D) ' = k/ L

26. If m, nm, m are three non-zero vector, no two of which are collinear and the vector m + nm is
collinear with m , nm + m collinear with m then m + nm + m =?
(A) m (B) nm (C) m (D) None of these

27. The integrating factor of differential equation  2'

2
− ' = 2²

(A)  = (B)  G (C) =
(D) 

28. If point * 60C + 33; o 40C − 832 p C − 523D  //CD ℎ  C! >0/ 

(A) 40 (B) -40 (C) 20 (D) -20

29. OACB is a parallelogram with qp nnnnnm = nm ℎ q*

nnnnnm = nnnm 2 *o nnnnnm C!
(A) m + nm (B) m − nm (C) nm − m m − nm
 
 
(D)

'−2 7−3
= −4 = −6 D
= G r =
30. The line  =  = V 2 

(A) p CC2 (B) skg (C) tD!CL (D) uD///

31. Then equation of plane which cuts equal intercept of units length on the co-ordinate axes is
(A)  + ' + 7 = 1 (B)  + ' + 7 = 0 (C)  + ' − 7 = 1 (D)  + ' + 7 = 2

32. Which of the following sets are convex

(A) { , ';   + '  ≥ 1} (B) { , '; '  ≥ }
(C) { , '; 3  + 4'  ≥ 5 (D) { , '; ' ≥ 2, ' ≤ 4}

33. Out of 30 consecutive integers 2 are choosen at random. The probability that their sum is
odd is
T 6 b d
5 5 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. The probability that a leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is

 V T 
4 4 4 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. If X is a random- variable with probability distribution as given below

y = z 0 1 2 3
u y = ₁ k 3k 3k k

The value of k and it’s variance are

   V  T  V
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
| 4 | 4 | 4 | T

= G r
= =
  V
36. Image of (1,6,3) in the line
(A) (0,1,7) (B) (1,7,0) (C) (1,0,7) (D) (7,7,0)

37. Equation of y – axis in 3D is

= G r = G r = G r
= = = = = = (D) ' = 0
d  d   d d d d
(A) (B) (C)

38. D.C ‘s of x – axis are

(A) 1,0,0 (B) 0,1,0 (C) 0,0,1 (D) 0,0,0

39. Direction angle of z – axis are

(A) 0°,90°,90° (B) 90°,90°,0° (C) 0°,90°,0° (D) 0°,0°,90°

40. Angle between 2 diagonals of a cube is

  
(A) !C H K (B)  !  H K (C) !C H K
V V V
(D) None of these

41. Angle between the vectors with drs proportional to 4,-3,5 & 3,4,5, is
U U U U
T 6  V
(A) (B) (C) (D)
42. }~̂€̂k ] =
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) -1

43. }~̂~̂~̂] =

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) -1

44. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. If X denotes the number of sixes then ‚   =
  
V V 
(A) 3 (B) (C) (D)

45. In a single throw of a dice, if X denotes the number on its upper face, then mean of X is
 4  
4  4 
(A) (B) (C) (D)

46. A dice is thrown thrice getting an even number is considered as success, then variance
of the binomial distribution is
  V
(B) 3
 T T
(A) (C) (D)

47. For a binomial distribution if mean is 4 & variance 3, then number of trials is
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 4

48. Which of the following does not represent a CONVEX set?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49. In LPP if there is no solution, then the condition is known as

(A) Condition of feasibility (B) Condition of infeasibility
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

50. LPP can be solved using

(A) Iso – profit method (B) Iso – cost method
(C ) Corner Point Method (D) All of the above
 XII MCQ - BIOLOGY
QUESTION PAPER – SET B

1. Crassulacean acid metabolism operates in

(A) In succulents (B) in hydrophytes
(C) in mesophytes (D) In non-succlents

2. Which of the following is correct?

(A) ZIFT - Gamete Intra fallopian transfer
(B) AI - Artificial insemenation
(C) IUI - Inter -uterine insemination
(D) ICSI - Inter cytoplasmic sperm injection

3. A chlorophyll molecule has the magnesium located in the

(A) Phytol chamber (B) Centre of porphyrin
(C) Corner of porphyrin (D) Isocyclic ring

4. To evolve pureline in animals which breeding method is required ?

(A) Cross-breeding (B) In-breeding
(C) Out-Crossing (D) Interspecific hybridisation

5. R.Q is measured by
(A) Auxanometer (B) Ganong’s potometer
(C) Ganong’s respirometer (D) Darwin’s porometer
. / Senior Batch / MCQs Test - II / Biology
6. Read the following statements
(I) After implantation finger like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi
(II) Placenta acts as an endocrine gland
(III) The placenta facilitate the supply of carbondioxide and nutrients to the embryo How
many of the above statements are not correct
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) zero

7. In amoeboid type of tapetum, the cell fuse to form

(A) Plasmodium (B) Proubisch bodies (C) Ubisch bodies (D) None of these

8. Find the incorrect match

(A) Haemophilia - Sex linked recessive
(B) Pattern baldness - Sex linked dominant
(C) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal dominant
(D) Myotonic dystrophy - Autosomal recessive

9. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from

(A) Fungi (B) Actinomycetes (C) Cyanobacteria (D) A and B
1
10. Human blood group is example of
(A) Dominance (B) Codominance
(C) Multiple allelism (D) All of these

11. MOET is a method of

(A) Fish cultivation (B) Birth control in humans
(C) Cloning in sheep (D) Hybridization in cattles
II Std. / Senior Batch / MCQs Test - II / Biology

12. If heterozygous tall and yellow seeded plant is crossed with dwarf and green seeded plant the
progeny will be obtained in the ratio of
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 12 : 3 : 1

13. GAATTC is the recognition site of which of the following restriction endonuclease.
(A) Hird III (B) Eco RI (C) Bam I (D) Hae III

14. Which class of tissue seems to be the most primitive among all types of tissues ?
(A) Fibres (B) Vessels (C) Parenchyma (D) Sieve tubes

15. The sequence of DNA not translated is

(A) Introns (B) Exons (C) Cistrons (D) Recons

16. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the incorrect
ones only.
(a) Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different species to be combined.
(b) Wax is the food of high nutritive value and is used in the preparation of cosmetics and polishes of
various kinds.
(c) Pisciculture is an industry devoted to the catching processing or selling of fish, shellfish or
other aquatic animals.
(d) Controlled breeding experiments are carries out using artificial inseminatism
Options :
(A) Statement (b), (c) and (d) (B) Statement (a) and (d)
(C) Statement (c) and (d) (D) Statement (a), (c) and (b)

17. The gene that encodes for BT protein, specific to co on bollworm is

(A) Cry I AC (B) Cry II ABC (C) Cry II AC (D) Cry II AB
Std. / Senior Batch / MCQs Test - II / Biology
18. Read the following statements (I-IV)
(I) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed during fourth month
(II) SAHELI a new oral contraceptive for the females
(III) MTPs are considered relatively safe during the second trimester
(IV) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium
2
 How many statement are incorrect ?
(A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One

19. The growth of a population is determined by

(A) Natality rate (B) Mortality rate
(C) Vital index (D) Population density

20. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of

(A) Specific natural immunity (B) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(C) Artificially acquired passive immunity (D) Artificially acquired active immunity

21. Streptokinase � TPA� helps in

(A) Cleaning blood clots (B) Increasing plasma
(C) Dissolving tissue (D) Increasing O.P of cell

22. In Drosophilia the genes for eye colour and body colour are present on ___________ and distance
between the genes is ____________ cM
(A) X chromosome, 1.3 (B) X chromosome, 37.2
(C) Autosome, 1.3 (D) Autosome, 37.2

23. The polyembryony was first observed in

(A) Coconut (B) Cycas (C) Citrus (D) Tomato enior Batch /
MCQs Test - II / Biology
24. Which of the following is properly matched
(A) Membrane Attack complex - Natural killer cells
(B) Phagolysosomes - Hydrolytic enzymes
(C) Active immunity - Immediately effective
(D) MHC-I Antigen presenting cells - Only on antigen

25. Given below are four methods (1-4) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow
Method Mode of Action
1. The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
2. Condom (b) Prevents implantation
3. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
4. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms
Matching :-
(A) 1 - (c), 2 - (d), 3 - (a), 4 - (b) (B) 1 - (b), 2 - (c), 3 - (a), 4 - (d)
(C) 1 - (c), 2 - (a), 3 - (d), 4 - (b) (D) 1 - (d), 2 - (a), 3 - (b), 4 - (c)

3
26. Ranikhet disease is caused by
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Fungus (D) Parasite

27. Mendel’s work remain unrecognised till 1900 due to all except
(A) His work could not be widely publicised
(B) His work was not supported with required data
(C) He could not provide any proof for existence of factors
(D) His concept of gene was not accepted by his contemporaries
28. The initiation codon in protein synthesis is
(A) AUG only (B) GUG only (C) Met (D) AUG or GUG

29. What is the figure given below showing in particular?

(A) Tubectomy (B) Vasectomy (C) Ovarian cancer (D) Uterine cancer

30. Double fertilization occurs in

(A) Ovule (B) Embryo (C) Ovary (D) Embryo Sac

31. Which of the following diagnostic test is performed for analysis of typhoid ?
(A) Widal test (B) PSMP
(C) ELISA test (D) Western blot test

32. PCR technique discovered by

(A) Hamilton Smith (B) Watson and Crick (C) Mendel (D) Mullis

33. Consider the following four statements (I-IV) and select the option which includes all the incorrect
ones only.
(I) Amount of glucose is maximum in honey.
(II) Honey is the food of high nutritive value and is used in the preparation of cosmetics and
polishes of various kinds.
(III) Pisciculture is an industry devoted to the catching processing or selling of fish, shellfish or
other aquatic animals.
(IV) Honey bee are the pollinaters of many of our crops.
Options :
(A) Statement (II), (III) and (IV) (B) Statement (I) and (IV)
(C) Statement (III) and (IV) (D) Statement (I), (II) and (III)

4
34. The first artificial cloning vector was
(A) pBR322 (B) (C) Cosmid (D) Phagemid

35. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?
(A) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised

(B) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone

(C ) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle

(D) Secretory Phase : Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone

36. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by

(A) Consumers (B) Decomposers (C) Producers (D) ParasiteXII Std. /
Senior Batch / MCQs Test - II / Biology
37. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) :
(A) prevent ovulation
(B) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(C) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(D) suppress sperm motility

38. Silencing of m-RNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to
(A) Bollworms (B) Nematodes (C) White rusts (D) Bacterial blights

39. Most severe symptom of salmonellosis (enteric fever) is

(A) Immuno deficiency (B) Anaphylactic shock
(C) Intestinal perforation (D) RBC hemolysis

40. Bioreactor is a
(A) Atomic reactor (B) Large vessel to grow cells
(C) BOD incubator (D) COD incubator

41. In a lake phytoplankton grow in abundance in

(A) Littoral zone (B) Limnetic zone (C) Profundal zone (D) Benthic zone

42. Which of the following is the infective stage of the malarial parasite (Plasmodium) ?
(A) Gametocyte (B) Merozoite (C) Sporozoite (D) Trophozoite

43. Second trophic level in lake is

(A) Fishes (B) Phytoplankton (C) Zooplankton (D) Benthos

5
 II Std. / Senior Batch / MCQs Test - II / Biology

44. Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of
its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together.

(A) Developmental stage - Blastocyst; Site of occurrence - Uterine wall

(B) Developmental stage - 8 - celled morula; Site of occurrence - Starting point of Fallopian tube
(C) Developmental stage - Late morula; Site of occurrence - Middle part of Fallopian tube
(D) Developmental stage - Blastula; Site of occurrence - End part of Fallopian tube
45. Climax community is in a state of
(A) Non-equilibrium (B) Equilibrium
(C) Disorder (D) Constant change

46. Fruit fly was suitable for Morgan’s work because it

(A) Is bisexual
(B) Complete life cycle in two days
(C) Has many type of hereditary variations
(D) All of these

47. Maximum energy amongst ecosystem is contributed by

(A) Crops (B) Forests (C) Corals (D) Fuelgas

48. Females produce two types of gametes in

(A) Hen (B) Human beings (C) Cockroach (D) Honey Bee

49. Mycorrhiza shows

(A) Symbiotic relationship (B) Proto-co-operation
(C ) Commensalism (D) Ectoparasitism

50. Consider the given sequence carefully.

(a) Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla

(b) Spermiation → Semination → Ejaculation
(c) Mature follicle→LH surge → Ovulation
(d) Fertilization→Cleavage → Embryo formation
Which of the above are not correct
(A) a, b, c, d (B) a, b (C) a, b, c (D) None of these

6
7
 XII MCQ - CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER – SET B

1. Which of the following compound is gas at room temperature?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. Arrange these compounds according to their b.p.

(A) 2  1  3  4 (B) 4  3  2  1 (C)1  2  3  4 (D) 1  4  2  3

3. Write the IUPAC name of

(A) Vinyl Ethyl Ketone (B) Pent-1-en-3-one
(C) 3-keto pent-1-ene (D) None of these

4. Which of the following does not have α-H

(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Acetone (D) Acetophenone

5.  effect is shown by

(A) ₂ (B) –  (C)  (D) – ₃ ₂

6. Which of the following is paramagnetic

(A) N2 (B) NO (C) CO (D) O3

7. Reaction of cold dil. NaOH with Cl2 gives

(A) Cl− ,ClO− (B) ClO2−,ClO3−

(C ) Cl− ,ClO3− (D) None of these

8. Which of these pairs have same bond order

(A) N2 ,CO (B) CO, NO (C) O2 , NO (D) O2 , H2

9. After removing the hard shell of an egg by  it is kept in a saturated NaCl solution, the size of
the egg will
(A) Shrink (B) Grow (C) Remain same (D) None of these

10. 250 ml of Na2CO3 (M.w. = 106 g/mol) solution has 2.65 gms of Na2CO3. If we take 10 ml of this
solution and dilute it to 1 lit., what will be the resultant molarity of the solution
(A) 0.1 M (B) 0.01 M (C) 0.001 M (D) 0.0001 M

11. Which of the following pair shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law ?

(A) H2O/HCl (B) C6H6/CH3OH (C) H2O/HNO3 (D) CH3COCH3/CHCl3

1
12. The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 gm of Glucose in 100g of solvent is
The molal elevation constant of the liquid is

(A) 0.01 K/m (B) 0.1 K/m (C) 1 K/m (D) 100 K/m

13. The unit of the rate constant for first order reaction is

(A) mol-1 (B) sec-1 (C) sec-1 mol-1 dm3 (D)sec-1 mol dm3

14. Which of the following statement is correct

(A) Molarity does not change with temperature
(B) Molality does not change with temperature
(C) Normality does not change with temperature
(D) None of these

15. For a reaction product. On doubling the conc. of keeping the conc. of same rate
is doubled. On doubling the conc. of both & rate increases 8 times. rate law can be given as

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

16. For the reaction

Which of the relation is true?

17. A ligand can be regarded as

(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base (C) Bronsted acid (D) Bronsted base

18. Primary and secondary valency of platinum in the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2] are
(A) 4 ,6 (B)2 ,6 (C)4, 4 (D) 6, 4

19. How many different carbonyl compound will form in the reaction?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

20. Which of the following statement is not true about Benzene?

(A) It is planar
(B) There are two types C-C of bond, 3 single bond, 3 double bond
(C) All the C- atoms are sp 2 hybridised
(D) It has 6 delocalizing π -electrons

21. The EAN of [Mn(Cl)6]4- is

(A) 33 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 36

2
 22. How many double bonds are present in C6H10Cl2Br2

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

23. In hcp arrangement atoms present at the corners are shared by how many cells

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

24. What % of space is free in BCC arrangement

(A) 12 (B) 22 (C) 32 (D) 42

25. In a molecule atoms of A are arranged in FCC and atoms of B are located in all
the octahedral voids. The molecular formula of the compound is

(A) A₈B (B) AB ₈ (C) AB (D) None of these

26. How many tetrahedral sites are there in FCC unit cell

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

27. What is the distance between two nearest atom in BCC arrangement if the side length of
The unit cell is ‘a’
√
(A) a (B) √3 (C)

(D) 3√3

28. Cinnabar and Bauxite are ores of

(A) Hg & Fe (B) Al & Fe (C) Fe & Al (D) Hg & Al

29. Mg2+ is isoelectronic with

(A) Ca2+ (B) Na+ (C) Ba2+ (D) Cu 2+

30. Bakelite is formed from the reaction of Phenol with

(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3OH

31. Nylon is not a

(A) Co-polymer (B) Polyamide
(C) Condensation polymer (D) Natural polymer

32. Monomers of Buna -S- rubber are

(A) Butadiene , isoprene (B) Butadiene , styrene
(C) Butadiene , toluene (D) Butadiene , vinyl chloride

33. Which of the polymer is used for non-stick coating on cooking wares
(A) PVC (B) Teflon (C) Backelite (D) Buna - S- rubber

3
34. Which of the following statement is false
(A) Catalysts are selective (B) Catalysts affect the equilibrium
(C) Catalysts affect the activation energy (D) Catalysts affect the mechanism

35. If KMnO4 is reduced to oxalic acid in an acidic medium, then oxidation no. of Mn changes
from
(A) 4 to 2 (B) 6 to 4 (C) 7 to 2 (D) 7 to 4

36. Temperature of a system decreases in

(A) Adiabatic compression (B) Adiabatic expansion
(C) Isothermal compression (D) Isothermal expansion

37. Which of the following species has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 25°C
(A) H2O (g) (B) Cl2 (g) (C) Br2 (g) (D) CH4 (g)

38. For a reversible reaction at temperature T , ∆H and ∆S both are positive. If Te is the
Equilibrium temp. then the reaction would be spontaneous at

(A) Te = T (B) Te < T (C) Te > T (D) None of these

39. The activation energy of forward reaction and ∆H is

-20 KJ Mol-1. The activation energy for the reverse reaction is

(A) 60 KJ Mol-1 (B) 60 KJ Mol-1 (C) 80 KJ Mol-1 (D) 20 KJ Mol-1

40. The impurities associated with mineral used in metallurgy are called collectively
(A) Slag (B) Gangue (C) Flux (D) Froth

41. Calcination is used in metallurgy for the removal of

(A) water and sulphide (B) water and H2S
(C) water and CO2 (D) water and CO

42. If a gas expands at constant temperature then

(A) No. of the molecules of the gas increases
(B) K.E. of the molecules increases
(C) K.E. of the molecules decreases
(D) K.E. of the molecules remains the same

43. Faraday’s constant is defined as

(A) Charge carried by 1 electron (B) Charge carried by 1 mol of electrons
(C) Charge carried by 1 gm of electrons (D) none of these

44. How many moles of pt will be deposited on cathode when 0.80 F electricity is passed
through 1M solution of Pt4+
(A) 0.80 mol (B) 8 mol (C) 0.20 mol (D) 1 mol

45. Bell metal is an alloy of

(A) Cu, Zn and Sn (B) Cu and Sn (C) Cu and Zn (D) Sn and Zn

4
46. Which of these has highest packing efficiency
(A) SCC (B) BCC (C) FCC (D) ECC (Edge centred)

47. Which of these is correct IUPAC name

(A) Prop-2 ene (B) Pentan -3- al (C) Pentan -1 -one (D) Pentan -2- one

48. Which of the following is most acidic

49. Faraday’s first law of electricity states :

(A) For the same electrolyte, the mass of a substance produced or consumed at an electrode
directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the elctrolyte cells

(B) For the same electrolyte, the mass of a substance produced or consumed at an electrode
is inversly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the elctrolytic cell

(C) When the same quantity of electricity is passed through different electrolytes, the
amounts of products obtained are proportional to their equibalent weights

(D) When same quantity of electricity is passed through different electrolytes, the amounts
of products obtained are proportional to their molecular masses

50. Boiling point ______ as a result of Intramolecular H- bonding

(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains the same (D) None of these

5
 XII MCQ - PHYSICS
QUESTION PAPER – SET B

1. A thin rod of length /3 lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. One end of
its magnified image touches an end of the rod. The length of the image is:
 
(A)  (B)  (C) 2 (D) 
 

2. In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance  from the focus and the real image
is formed at a distance  from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is :

(A)   (B)   (C)  +  /2 (D)  

3. Refractive index of diamond is 2.41. What is the minimum angle of incidence of a ray to get
totally internally reflected in diamond?

(A) 42° (B) 35° (C) 24.5° (D) 48.4°

4. A plano convex lens has focal length f = 20 cm. If its plane surface is silvered, then new
focal length will be

(A) 20 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 25 cm

5. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, i, one face of prism of angle A (assumed
to be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the
prism is µ, the angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to:

(A) µ  (B) (C)  /µ (D A /2 µ


6. For an angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the
prism must be made of a material whose refractive index:
(A) Lies between √2 and 1 (B) lies between 2 and √2
(C) is less than 1 (D) is greater than 2

7. In Young’s double slit expt., the intensity is I at a point where the path difference is λ/6,
where λ is wavelength of light used. If I₀ denotes the maximum intensity, then I/I₀ is
equal to

(A) 3/4 (B) 1/√2 (C) √3/2 (D) 

8. Two periodic waves of intensities I and I pass through a region at the same time in the
same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

 
(A)  :  (B) ( √ + √  (C) ( √ − √  (D) 2 √ + √ 

1
9. At two points P and Q on screen in Young’s double slit experiment, waves from slits 

and  have a path difference of 0 and 
respectively, the ratio of intensities at P and Q
will be

(A) 3:2 (B) 2:1 (C) √2: 1 (D) 4 : 1

10. Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of
25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500
nm wavelength is

(A) 1 µm (B) 30 µm (C) 100 µm (D) 300 µm

11. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ


and .If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3

times that of first case, the work function of the material is
(h = plank’s constant c = speed of light)
   
(A) 
(B)  (C) 
(D) 

12. If  and  are maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted when light of
wavelength  and  respectively are incident on a metallic surface. If  = 3  then
# #
(A)  > " $% (B)  < " $% (C)  = 3 (D)  = 3
 

13. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photo-electrons from a metal verses the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight
line whose slope.
(A) depends on the nature of the metal used
(B) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(D) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

14. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 х 10 )* and 2.2 х 10 )*. Two
identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are
emitted in (take h = 6.6 х 10, -⁄)

(A) B alone (B) A alone

(C) Neither A nor B (D) Both A and B

15. The figure 7(CF).1 shows the variation of photo current with anode potential for a photo-
sensitive surface for three different radiations. Let I/ , I0 , and I1 be the intensities and f/ ,
f0 , and f1 be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively.

(A) f/ = f0 and I/ ≠ I0 (B) f/ = f1 and I/ = I1

(C) f/ = f0 and I/ = I0 (D) f/ = f1 and I0 = I1

2
16. Consider 3rd orbit of Helium. Using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this
orbit will be [given K = 9 X 104 , Z = 2 and h = 6.6 х 10, -5 ]

(A) 1.46 x 106 m/s (B) 0.73 x 106 m/s

(C) 3 x 107 m/s (D) 2.92 x 106 m/s

17. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the
longest wavelength in the Balmar Series is :
8  4 9
(A) 9
(B) 4 (C)  (D) 8

18. Binding energy per nucleon in Deutron (₁) ) and Hellium (₂He⁴) atoms is 1.1 Me V and 7.0
Me V respectively. If two deutron atoms combine to form a single helium atom, then
energy released is:

(A) 13.9 MeV (B) 19.2 MeV (C) 23.6 MeV (D) 26.9 MeV

19. Nuclear reactor in which uranium – 235 is used as fuel, uses 2 kg of uranium – 235 in 30
days. The power output of the reactor will be (given Energy released per fission = 185
MeV)

(A) 43.5 MW (B) 58.5 MW (C) 69.6 MW (D) 73.1 MW

20. The thermal neutrons in a nuclear reactor may be regarded as a gas at a temperature T°K,
which obeys the laws of kinetic theory. Then the de-Broglie wavelength of such thermal
neutrons in terms of temperature T, mass of neutron m is given by
 
(A ) λ = (B) λ =
√: #; √6: #;

 
(C ) λ = (D) λ =
√8: #; √: #;

21. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased.

22. A sinusoidal voltage of r.m.s. voltage of 200 volt is connected to the function diode and a
capacitor C in the circuit shown in figure. so that half wave rectification occurs. The final
potential difference in volt across C is

(A) 500 (B) 283 (C) 200 (D) 41

3
23. The semiconductor X is made by doping a germamium crystal with arsenic (Z = 33). A
second semiconductor Y is made by doping germanium with indium (Z = 49). The two are
joined end to end and connected to a battery as shown, which of the following statements
is correct?

(A) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is forward biased.

(B) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is forward biased.

(C) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is reverse biased.

(D) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is reverse biased.

24. Electromagnetic wave of frequencies higher than 9√2 MHz are found to be not reflected
by the ionosphere on a particular day at a place. The maximum electron density in the
ionosphere is:

(A) √5 x 10 >, (B) √2 x 10 >,

(C) 2 x 10 > , (D) 5 x 10 >,

25. An EM wave of maximum frequency 300 kHz and critical frequency 100 kHz is to
transmitted to a height equal to 150 km. Calculate the skip distance.

(A) 624 km (B) 849 km (C) 636 km (D) 942 km

26. Three point charges Q, –2Q and –2Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side r. The work done to increase their separation to 2r is

?$ ? $ √? $
(A) Zero (B) @A₀C (C) @A₀C (D) @A₀C

27. A metal sphere of radius R carries a charge Q, electric field on its surface is E and the
electric potential is V. If R is doubled keeping Q the same, then new values of E and V will
be
D E D E
(A) and (B) and (C) 4E and 2V (D) 2E and 4V
   

28. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the
three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
? ? ? ?
(A) – (B) – (C) + (D) +
   

29. Three positive charges of equal value q, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
The resulting lines of force should be sketched as in (see figure)

4
30. A spherical capacitor consists of an inner sphere of radius F = F and the outer sphere of
radius FG 2C . The capacitance is H when the inner sphere is charged and the outer sphere
is earthed and H when the inner sphere is earthed and the outer sphere is charged. The
ratio I ⁄I is
 
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
 

31. In the circuit shown in figure H = 3µJ and H = 9µJ. The charge on capacitor H is

(A) 9µI (B) 18µI (C) 27µI (D) 81µI

32. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are connected in parallel and
charged to potential difference V by a battery. The battery is then disconnected and the
space between the plates of capacitor of capacitance C is completely filled with a material
of dielectric constant K. The potential difference across the capacitors now becomes
V V V V
(A) KO
(B) KO (C) KO (D) KO

33. A parallel plate capacitor of place area A has a charge Q. The force on each plate of the
capacitor is

Q$ Q$ Q$
(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
Q₀ A Q₀ A Q₀ A

34. In n drops, each capacitance C, coalesce to form a single big drop, the capacitance of the
big drop will be

(A) S I (B) nC (C) S8/ : 1 (D) S  : 1

35. Figure shows three capacitors connected to a 6V power supply. What is the charge on the
2µF capacitor?

(A) 1µI (B) 2µI (C) 3µI (D) 4µI

5
36. Two wires of equal lengths, equal diameters and having resistivities U and U are
connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is
 VW OV$
(A) U + U (B) U + U (C) (D) UU
 VW OV$

37. In the circuit shown in figure, the reading of ammeter is

(A) 1A (B) 2A (C) 3A (D) 4A

38. A meter bridge is set-up as shown in figure to determine an unknown resistance ‘X’ using a
standard 10 ohm resistor. The galvanometer shows null point when tapping-key is at 52 cm
mark. The end-corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively for the ends A and B. The
determined value of ‘X’ is

(A) 10.2 ohm (B) 10.6 ohm (C) 10.8 ohm (D) 11.1 ohm

39. In figure, there are two semi-circles of radii F and F in which a current i is flowing. The
magnetic induction at centre O will be

X₀Y X₀Y X₀Y C O C$ X₀Y CW , C$

(A) (F + F ) (B) (F - F ) (C) "W % (D) " %
   CW C$  CW C$

40. Soft iron is preferred as the core of transformers due to its

(A) high retentivity, high coercivity (B) high retentivity, low coercivity
(C) low retentivity, high coercivity (D) low retentivity, low coercivity

41. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount ∆Ø in time ∆t.
Then the total quantity of electric charge Q that during this time passes any point of the
circuit is given by
Ư Ư Ư Ư
(A) Q = (B) Q = xR C) Q = +R (D) Q =
∆\ ∆\ ∆\ ]

6
42. Wavelength range for visible spectrum is,
(A) (4000 - 8000) ˚A (B) (40 - 80) ˚A (C) (1200 - 1800) ˚A (D) (8000 - 12000) ˚A

43. In Young’s experiment the distance between two slits is d / 3 and the distance between the
screen and the slits is 3D. The number of fringes in 1/ 3 m on the screen, formed by
monochromatic light of wavelength 3λ, will be
_ _ _ _
(A) 4` (B) 9` (C) 7` (D) `

44. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because

(A) It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation

(B) It is fashionable
(C) It has good colour
(D) It is cheaper

45. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
the lens. Then its focal length will

(A) become zero (B) become infinite (C) reduce (D) increase

46. A mark at the bottom of a beaker containing liquid appears to rise by 0.1 m. The depth of
the liquid is 1m. The refractive index of liquid is
4 a
(A) 1.33 (B) a (C) 4
(D) 1.5

47. If the work function of the metal is ø and the frequency of incident light is v there is no
emission of photoelectrons when
Ø Ø Ø Ø
(A) v < 
(B) v =  (C) v > 
(D) (C) v ≥ 

48. A monochromatic source of light is placed at a distance d from a metal surface.

Photoelectrons are ejected at rate n , kinetic energy being E. If the source is brought nearer
_
to distance , then the rate and kinetic energy per photoelectron becomes nearly :


(A) 2 n and 2 E (B) 4 n and 4 E (C) 4 n and E (D) n and 4 E

49. In order to carry out the nuclear reaction : ₁) + ₁) + ₁) = ₂)c  + ₁c a + energy

(A) very high temperature will only be necessary

(B) moderate temperature and very high pressure will be necessary
(C) very high temperature and relative high pressure would be necessary
(D) very high temperature and low pressure would be necessary

50. The ratio (R) of the rate of production of neutrons to the rate of leakage of neutrons from a
spherical body of uranium of radius r is proportional to
 
(A) R ∝ F (B) R ∝ (C) R ∝ F  (D) R ∝
C C$

7
 MCQ’s Answer Key of Set B

ANSWER KEY - MATHEMATICS

01. (A) 02. (C) 03. (C) 04. (B) 05. (C)
06. (D) 07. (C) 08. (A) 09. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (B)
26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D)
36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (B)
46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (D)

ANSWERKEY - PHYSICS
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D
9. B 10. B 11. B 12. B
13. D 14. B 15. A 16. A
17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. B 22. B 23. D 24. C
25. B 26. A 27. A 28. B
29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C
33. C 34. D 35. B 36. B
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. D
41. D 42. A 43. C 44. A
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C
49. C 50. A
 ANSWERKEY - BIOLOGY

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B
5. C 6. A 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. D 12. C
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D
17. D 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. A 22. A 23. C 24. B
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D
29. A 30. D 31. A 32. D
33. D 34. A 35. D 36. A
37. D 38. B 39. C 40. B
41. B 42. C 43. D 44. A
45. B 46. C 47. B 48. A
49. A 50. D

ANSWERKEY - CHEMISTRY

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. B 7. A 8. A
9. A 10. C 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. B 15. C 16. B
17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C
25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D
29. B 30. A 31. D 32. B
33. B 34. B 35. C 36. B
37. B 38. B 39. C 40. B
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. C
45. B 46. C 47. D 48. D
49. A 50. B