Pinnacle History

Civilization were found in Harappa Sol.8.(d) Circular. Granaries of the Indus

History only. Valley Civilization were discovered in two
key regions: Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
Ancient History Sol.4.(c) Harappa was discovered in Mohenjodaro, located south of the Indus
1921-22 by Daya Ram Sahni. It is located River, is a major site where the Great
Prehistoric And Indus Valley on the banks of the Ravi River in Sahiwal Granary, the largest building, was found.
(formerly Montgomery) district, Punjab,
Q.1. Which of the following sites would Pakistan. The city is divided into three Q.9. Which was the prominent
be suitable for observing the architecture main sections: the Citadel, the architectural feature of the Indus Valley
of the Harappan civilisation? Middletown, and the Lower Town. The towns and cities?
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) Harappans sourced copper from Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Sunabeda (b) Sanchi present-day Rajasthan. Significant (a) Citadel (b) Pyramids
(c) Banawali (d) Valparai findings include two rows of six (c) False Arch (d) Stupas
granaries, workers' quarters, two
Sol.1.(c) Banawali, located in the Sol.9.(a) Citadel. In 1921, Dayaram Sahni
sandstone statues depicting human
Fatehabad district of Haryana, has discovered Harappa, followed by R.D.
anatomy, a sculpture of a dog attacking a
revealed a three-fold cultural sequence Banerjee's discovery of Mohenjodaro in
deer, and small bullock carts (known as
through excavations: Pre-Harappan 1922. Key features of major cities
ekkas).
(Early Harappan), Harappan, and Bara include grid-based town planning, the
(Post-Harappan) phases. The site was Q.5. Drains exiting from Mohenjo-Daro use of burnt bricks, underground
excavated by Dr. R.S. Bisht. It comprises had ________ doors that were probably drainage systems (like Dholavira's water
a citadel and a lower town, both of which closed at night to prevent vagrants or reservoirs), and fortified citadels (except
are fortified. negative elements from entering the city Chanhudaro). Stupas - Buddhist

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through that access. architecture. Pyramids - Ancient Egypt.

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Q.2. The Iron Age site named Tekwada is SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (1st Shift)
located in _________. Q.10. Select the correct alternative on
(a) wooden (b) sandstone
the basis of the given statements on the

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SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) mud (d) iron
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra cities of Harappan civilisation.
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Sol.5.(a) wooden. Statement I: Most of the Harappan cities
ap
Mohenjo-Daro, discovered by R.D. Banerji were divided into two parts: Higher Town
Sol.2.(b) Maharashtra. The Iron Age is a in 1922, is located on the right bank of and Lower Town.
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time period when iron became the the Indus River in southern Pakistan. Statement II: The archaeologists
primary material for tools and weapons. describe the lower part of the towns as
Some Iron Age sites in India: Hallur Q.6. In which Harappan site was a paved Citadel.
TG

(Karnataka), Adichanallur and bathroom found? SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)

Mayiladumparai (Tamil Nadu), Raja Nal Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
ka Tila (Uttar Pradesh). (a) Banawali (b) Mohenjodaro true.
on

(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira (b) Only Statement II is true.

Q.3. Which of the following statements
(c) Only Statement I is true
is/are true about the Iron Age? Sol.6.(b) Mohenjodaro. It is situated on
h

(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

1. The establishment of large cities took the banks of Indus River in present-day
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is true.
place on the basis of sizeable surplus. Pakistan. Significant discoveries from
a

2. The ceramic associated with this age Mohenjodaro include the bronze statue Sol.10.(c) Only Statement I is true. The
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was Painted Grey Ware. of a dancing girl, the sculpture of a Harappan cities were typically structured
3. The Indus Valley Civilization flourished bearded priest, and the Great Granary. into two distinct sections. The part to the
during the Iron Age. west was generally smaller in area but
Q.7. At which of the following places in
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift) higher in elevation, which archaeologists
the Indus valley civilisation a brick
(a) Only 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 refer to as the Citadel. In contrast, the
structure has been identified as a
(c) All 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 section to the east was larger in size but
dockyard meant for berthing ships and
lower in elevation, commonly known as
Sol.3.(b) Only 1 and 2. The Indus Valley handling cargo ?
the Lower Town.
Civilization flourished during the Bronze Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Age, not the Iron Age. The civilisations (a) Mohanjodaro (b) Dhaulavira Q.11. Fire altars were found in which of
that flourished during the Iron Age were (c) Rakhigarhi (d) Lothal the following groups of Harappan cities?
Greece, Rome, Persia and India. SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.7.(d) Lothal (Gujarat). Location: Bank
(a) Kalibangan and Lothal
Q.4. Which of the following statements is of the Bhogwa River. Features : Evidence
(b) Banawali and Chanhudaro
correct ? of the earliest cultivation of rice, Served
(c) Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (3rd Shift) as a seaport for the Indus Valley people.
(d) Mohenjo-Daro and Dholavira
(a) Harappan culture spread only to
Q.8. In Harappa, the granary had rows of
Sindh and Punjab. Sol.11.(a) Kalibangan and Lothal.
_________ brick platforms for threshing
(b) The script of the Harappan culture Findings of different Indus valley
the grains.
has been deciphered by historians. civilization sites : Kalibangan - Lower
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(c) At burials in Harappan sites the dead fortified town, Boustrophedon style,
(a) diagonal (b) spherical
were generally laid in pits. Wooden drainage, Copper Ox, Evidence
(c) rectangular (d) circular
(d) Granaries in the Indus Valley of earthquake, Wooden plough, Camel’s
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 Pinnacle History
bone. Lothal - Port Town, Evidence of monument. Type - Clairn Circles type of Q.20. In which of the following sites of
Rice, Graveyard, Ivory scale, Copper dog. Megalith (grave/memorial) were the jadeite stone was found?
Mohenjo-Daro - Prepared Garments, stone pieces set in a circular shape SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Temple-like Palace, Pashupati seal, around the grave. Menhir (standing (a) Mahagara (b) Mehrgarh
Statue of a dancing girl, The Great Bath, stone), Capstone (Single megaliths (c) Hallur (d) Daojali Hading
The Great Granary etc. placed horizontally over burial
chambers), Dolmen (A large capstone on Sol.20.(d) Daojali Hading - A neolithic
Q.12. Which of the following statements two or more support stones creating a site in Dima Hasao District of Assam.
is true about the Great Bath of the Indus chamber). Megalith Sites - Nilaskal Situated near Brahmaputra valley close
Valley Civilisation ? (Karnataka), Hanamsagar (Karnataka), to routes leading into China and
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Junapani (Maharashtra), Hire Benakal Myanmar.
(a) It was used for grain storage. (Karnataka), etc. Q.21. Which of the following metals was
(b) It was used for farming.
used to make weapons and tools in
(c) It was used as the water tank of the Q.16. Cotton was probably grown at
Harappan cities?
city. Mehrgarh from about ________.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(d) It was probably used for religious SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) Silver (b) Gold (c) Copper (d) Iron
purpose. (a) 7000 years ago (b) 8000 years ago
(c) 6000 years ago (d) 5000 years ago Sol.21.(c) Copper was the first metal
Sol.12.(d) "Great bath" is a public water
used in Indus Valley (Bronze Age
tank located in Mohenjo Daro (Pakistan). Sol.16.(a) 7000 years ago. It is the
civilization) to make tools, utensils, and
It was a large rectangular tank in a oldest agricultural settlement in the
other objects. Other metals used were
courtyard surrounded by a corridor on all Indian subcontinent.
lead, gold, bronze and silver.
four sides. There were two flights of

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steps on the north and south leading into Q.17. Which of the following Harappan
Q.22. The Harappan brought Gold from
town was located on Khadir Beyt in the

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the tank, which was made watertight by present-day _______ in India.
setting bricks on edge and using a Runn of Kutch and was divided into three
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
parts?

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mortar of gypsum. There were rooms on (a) Telangana (b) Tamil Nadu
three sides, in one of which was a large SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
(a) Sotka - koh (b) Chanhudaro
ap
well.
(c) Surkotada (d) Dholavira Sol.22.(c) Karnataka. Gold ornaments
Q.13. Which of the following Indus Valley
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are found at both Mohenjo-daro and

sites is now located in Pakistan ? Sol.17.(d) Dholavira. Discovered in 1968
Harappa. Other materials they imported:
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift) by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi. Fifth
Copper - Brought from present-day
(a) Harappa (b) Lothal largest metropolis of Indus Valley
TG

Rajasthan, and from Oman in west Asia.

(c) Alamgirpur (d) Kalibangan Civilization, 40th Indian site on UNESCO’s
Tin - Brought from present-day
World Heritage list. Surkotada:
Sol.13.(a) Harappa. The Indus valley Afghanistan and Iran. Precious stones -
Discovered in 1964-68 by Jagat Pati
on

civilization (Bronze Age) is also called Brought from present-day Gujarat, Iran
Joshi, located in northeast Bhuj in
the Harappan culture. Other Important and Afghanistan.
Gujarat. Chanhudaro: Discovered in 1931
Sites : Sutkagendor (Dast river,
h

by N. G. Majumdar, located in Sindh, Q.23. Which of the following types of

Balochistan); Chanhudaro (Pakistan,
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Pakistan. Sotka koh - Discovered by house remains were found in Mehrgarh

Indus river); Kalibangan (Rajasthan, George F. Dales, located on the Makran site of Harappan civilization?
a

Ghaggar river); Lothal (Gujarat, Bhogva coast, near the city of Pasni, Balochistan SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift)
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river); Alamgirpur (Meerut, Hindon river). (Pakistan). (a) Triangular or circular

Q.14. Pottery was first traceable to which (b) Rectangular or circular
Q.18. Bhimbetka, a noted site of the
period of ancient Indian history? (c) Square or rectangular
Palaeolithic period, is located in which
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (d) Circular or square
state of India?
(a) Chalcolithic (b) Palaeolithic SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023 Sol.23.(c) Square or rectangle. Major
(c) Neolithic (d) Mesolithic (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh findings at Mehrgarh are evidence of
Sol.14.(c) Neolithic. Pottery has been (c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh animal bones and the remains of houses.
discovered in the early villages of Mehrgarh was discovered in 1974 by
Sol.18.(d) Madhya Pradesh. Bhimbetka
Mehrgarh. The Palaeolithic (the first and Jean-Francois Jarrige. It is the first place
is located in the Vindhya ranges of
longest part of the Stone Age) was a where people started growing barley and
Madhya Pradesh. It was discovered by V.
period of prehistory when humans made wheat, reared the sheep and goat as it
S. Wakankar in 1957.
stone tools. was one of the oldest villages.
Q.19. During which of the following
Q.15. In India, the practice of erecting Q.24. The duration of the Mesolithic
period Ostriches were found in India?
megaliths began about __________ ago. period is from about ______ years ago to
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening) ____ years ago.
(a) Mesolithic (b) Chalcolithic
(a) 3000 years (b) 2000 years SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(c) Neolithic (d) Palaeolithic
(c) 500 years (d) 1000 years (a) 14000, 10000 (b) 17000, 12000
Sol.19.(d) Palaeolithic age. Large (c) 12000, 10000 (d) 10000, 7000
Sol.15.(a) 3000 years. A megalith is a
quantities of ostrich egg shells found at
large stone that has been used to Sol.24.(c) 12000, 10000. The Mesolithic
Patne, Maharashtra.
construct a pre - historic structure or Period (Middle Stone Age) is the earliest
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 Pinnacle History
Holocene culture. Feature: Microliths, apauruṣeya, which means "not of a man, SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
technological innovations (bow and superhuman" and "impersonal, (a) Craftsman (b) Priests
arrow for hunting, querns, grinders, etc.), authorless". The Rigveda is the oldest (c) Ordinary people (d) Warriors
Excavated sites (Tilwara, Bagor, Tarsang, Veda and contains 1,028 hymns (suktas)
Morkhana, Lekhahia, Birbhanpur, etc.). comprising about 10,600 verses. Sol.34.(a) Craftsman. The Rigvedic
society was structured into three main
Q.25. Most Harappan seals made of ____. Q.30. Which Rigvedic God is considered varnas : Priests, who performed rituals
SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Evening) an intermediary between God and men? and offered spiritual guidance; Warriors,
(a) Bricks (b) Granite (c) Steatite (d) Brass SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (2nd Shift) who governed and protected the tribe
(a) Indra (b) Agni (c) Varuna (d) Yama and Ordinary People comprising farmers,
Sol.25.(c) Steatite (a kind of soft stone). traders, and artisans engaged in
Some seals were also made of Sol.30.(b) Agni. The Rigveda, with over a
economic activities.
terracotta, gold, agate, chert, ivory, and thousand hymns, praises deities like:
faience. Two important seals were the Agni - the god of fire; Indra - the warrior Q.35. A large number of words are
Pashupati seal and the Unicorn seal. god; and Soma - a sacred plant from derived from the word ‘Go’ meaning cow.
which a special ritual drink was prepared. A wealthy person was known as ________
Q.26. A celt is ______ from the Neolithic in Vedic times.
Q.31. According to the Ashrama system
period. SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of Vedic life, which of the following was
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) (a) Gomat (b) Gotra
the third stage of life?
(a) a tomb (b) a house (c) a tool (d) an urn (c) Gabaksha (d) Gaveshana
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.26.(c) a tool. The term Neolithic (a) Grihastha (b) Sanyasa Sol.35.(a) Gomat. The term Gomat was
Period refers to the last stage of the (c) Brahmacharya (d) Vanaprastha derived from the Sanskrit word 'gomati'

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Stone Age. which means possessing or having
Sol.31.(d) Vanaprastha, where a person
cows. Gotra : It refers to people who are

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Q.27. Which of the following is a handed over household responsibilities
to the next generation, took an advisory descendants of a common ancestor
Palaeolithic site of archaeological
role, and gradually withdrew from the through their father's side. Gaveshana:

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importance in India?
world. The four stages of the ashrama This means "search for cows," but it can
SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Afternoon)
system are : Brahmacharya (Student's also refer to battle.
ap
(a) Chirand (b) Burzahom
(c) Hunasagi (d) Mehrgarh life), Grihastha (household life), Q.36. How many Mandalas were in Rig
Vanaprastha (retired life), Sannyasa
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Vedic Samhita?
Sol.27.(c) Hunasagi. Some Old Stone (renounced life). SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Age stone-cutting equipment has been
Q.32. The Vedangas are Hindu auxiliary (a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 20
found and kept in the Hunasagi Gram
TG

Panchayat office. disciplines that originated in ancient

Sol.36.(b) 10. Rig Veda is the oldest of
times and are linked to the study of the
the four Vedas. It is a collection of
Q.28. Which of the following Harappan Vedas. These are _________ in number.
10,600 verses and 1,028 hymns. The
on

sites is located in Afghanistan? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)

Famous Gayatri mantra is in Rig Veda
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening) (a) five (b) seven (c) four (d) six
Mandala 3. Each mandala consists of
h

(a) Shortughai (b) Balakot

Sol.32.(d) Six. Vedanga literally means Suktas which are basically eulogies. The
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(c) Nageswar (d) Kalibangan

"limbs of the Vedas," and refers to the six 10th mandala contains the Purusha
disciplines connected with studying the Sukta which explains the four Varnas
a

Sol.28.(a) Shortughai was a trading post

Vedas, the ancient Indian spiritual were born from the mouth, arms, thighs
Se

of Harappan times and it seems to be

connected with lapis lazuli mines located writings. The six Vedangas are as and feet of the Brahma or Purusha.
in the surrounding area. follows: Shiksha (phonetics), Kalpa Mandala 9 is completely devoted to
(ritual), Vyakarana (grammar), Nirukta Soma.
(etymology), Chandas (meter), and
Vedic Age Q.37. Which of the following is the
Jyotisha (astronomy).
(1500 BC to 600 BC) earliest literary record of Indian culture?
Q.33. According to the Varna system that Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Q.29. Consider the following statements was prevalent in the Vedic period, which (a) Yajurveda (b) Rigveda
in the context of the Vedas. of the following was NOT a Varna? (c) Atharvaveda (d) Samaveda
1.The Vedas are called Shruti. SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Brahmanas (b) Kshatriyas Sol.37.(b) Rigveda. There are four
2.The Rigveda consists of ten Mandalas.
(c) Samiti (d) Vaishyas Vedas: Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda,
Which of the statements given above
and Atharvaveda.
is/are correct? Sol.33.(c) Samiti. The traditional caste
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) system consists of a hierarchy of four Q.38. Asikni, which was a part of
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2 castes (varnas) - Brahmins (priests and Sapta-Sindhu, is the name of which of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 teachers), Kshatriyas (rulers and the following rivers in present times ?
warriors), Vaishyas (merchants and SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.29.(c) Both 1 and 2. Vedas are sruti
cultivators), and Shudras (servants). (a) Jhelum (b) Beas
("what is heard") distinguishing them
(c) Chenab (d) Ravi
from other religious texts, which are Q.34. Which among the following was
called smrti ("what is remembered"). NOT a part of the three sections of the Sol.38.(c) Chenab. Ancient names of
Hindus consider the Vedas to be Rigvedic tribe? Indian Rivers - Vitasta (Jhelum), Purushni
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 Pinnacle History
(Ravi), Shatudri (Satluj), Vipasha (Beas), Mimamsa and Karma Mimamsa (‘Study SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning)
Sadanira (Gandak), Drishdvati of Actions’). The six principal Hindu (a) Men and women were expected to
(Ghaghara). darshans are Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, marry within the same gotra.
Vaisheshika, Mimamsa, and Vedanta. (b) People belonging to the same gotra
Q.39. Which of the following Vedas is Badarayana - Author of Brahma Sutra or were regarded as descendants of the
found in two recensions, black and white, Vedanta Sutra. Patanjali - Philosophy of person after whom the gotra was
and is full of rituals to be performed Yoga sutra. Kapila - Philosophy of named.
publicly or individually? Sankhya. Vyasa - Author of the (c) Women retained their father’s gotra
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Mahabharata, Vedas and Puranas. after marriage.
(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda (d) Each gotra was named after a
(c) Yajurveda (d) Samaveda Q.44. India was named 'Bharat' after the
famous king.
name of the Bharat clan. In which of the
Sol.39.(c) Yajurveda :
following Vedas is this clan first Sol.48.(b) Gotra originally referred to the
Notable Upanishads of Yajurveda -
mentioned ? seven lineage segments of the Brahmans
Brihadaranyaka, Isha, Taittriya, Katha,
and Maithri. Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) (priests), who trace their derivation from
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Yajurveda seven ancient seers: Atri, Bharadvaja,
Q.40. In which of the following Vedas (c) Samaveda (d) Rigveda Bhrigu, Gotama, Kashyapa, Vasishtha,
was Dasarajna war (the war of ten kings) and Vishvamitra.
mentioned? Sol.44.(d) Rigveda. There are 1028
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift) Suktas in 10 Mandals (Chapters). Q.49. ‘Purusha Sukta’ is a hymn from
(a) Yajurveda (b) Samaveda which Veda?
Q.45. The language of the Aryan texts
(c) Rigveda (d) Atharvaveda SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon)
was:
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Yajurveda

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Sol.40.(c) Rigveda (Book of Mantras). Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
(a) Ardh-Magadha Prakrit (b) Prakrit (c) Rigveda (d) Samaveda
Dasarajna war was fought between King

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(c) Persian (d) Sanskrit
Sudas of the Bharata tribe and a Sol.49.(c) Rigveda. The most commonly
confederation of ten tribes, including the Sol.45.(d) Sanskrit was the first used portion of the Sukta contains 24
Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina,
Paktha, Bhalanas, Shiva, and Vishanin. na
language spoken in India. Ardhamagadhi
Prakrit was a Middle Indo-Aryan
mantras or stanzas. Purusha Suktam is
dedicated to Lord Vishnu, who is
ap
The battle took place on the banks of the language. Prakrit is a group of vernacular described as the great Purusha in the
Parushni (Ravi) river. Middle Indo-Aryan languages spoken in hymn. Purusha Suktam is one of the
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India between the third and seventh Pancha Suktam (5 Suktams) – Purusha
Q.41. The main (chief) social unit of the Suktam, Vishnu Suktam, Sri Suktam, Bhu
century BCE.
Aryans was______ . Suktam, and Nila Suktam.
TG

SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.46. As per the Rigvedic or Early Vedic
(a) Rajan (b) Parishad (c) Gana (d) Jana Period (1500-1000 BC), who among the
following was a River Goddess?
Jainism
on

Sol.41.(d) Jana (Tribes). Gana - Tribal or

SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon)
clan based assemblies, Parishad - A Q.50. With reference to Ajivikas, consider
(a) Agni (b) Sindhu (c) Arika (d) Usha
small body similar to Samitis/sabhas the following statements:
h

consisting exclusively of Brahmins, Rajan Sol.46.(b) Sindhu. The seven rivers a) Makkhali Gosala was the prominent
rc

- A kind of Chief or King. mentioned in the Rig-Veda - Sindhu teacher of this sect.
(Indus), Vitasta (Vehit/Jhelum), Asikni
a

b) Ajivikas believed in fatalism.

Q.42. Which of the four Vedas contains a (Chenab), Prusni/Eravati (Ravi) Vipasha
Se

Which of the above statements is/are

collection of magic spells and charms to (Beas), Sutudri (Sutlej) and Sarasvati correct?
fend off evil spirits and diseases? (which dried up). Agni (fire-god of SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) Hinduism), Usha (Goddess of Dawn), (a) Both a and b (b) Neither a nor b
(a) Rig Veda (b) Sama Veda Arika (God of Beauty). (c) Only b (d) Only a
(c) Yajur Veda (d) Atharva Veda
Q.47. In the Rig Veda there is a hymn in Sol.50.(a) Both a and b. Ajivika - It was a
Sol.42.(d) Atharva Veda (‘Book of magic the form of a dialogue between Sage school of thought that developed in India
spells’) - Has 730 hymns/suktas, 5987 Vishvamitra and two rivers that were during the same time as Jainism and
mantras, and 20 books (Khandas). Sama worshipped as goddesses. Which are Buddhism. It is one of the schools under
Veda (‘Book of Chant’) - The earliest these rivers? Nastika philosophy (it does not believe in
reference for singing; 1875 verses. Yajur SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning) the authority of Vedas). It was founded
Veda (‘Book of Rituals’) - Has two types, (a) Alakananda and Bhagirathi
by Goshala Maskariputra. The sect is
Krishna (or black) and Shukla (or white). (b) Ravi and Chenab
seen as professing total determinism in
(c) Ganga and Yamuna
Q.43. The Purva Mimansa school of the transmigration of souls, or series of
(d) Beas and Sutlej
philosophy was founded by ________ in rebirths.
ancient India. Sol.47.(d) Beas and Sutlej. The most
Q.51. Mahavir Jayanti celebrates the
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) prominent river in the Rig Veda is
birthday of Lord Mahavira who is the ____
(a) Vyasa (b) Kapila Saraswati.
Tirthankara of Jainism.
(c) Patanjali (d) Jaimini
Q.48. Which of the following statements SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.43.(d) Jaimini. Purva Mimansa about the ‘Gotra’ practice in ancient India (a) 23rd (b) 26th (c) 24th (d) 25th
(‘Prior Study’) also known as Dharma is true?
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.51.(c) 24th. Lord Mahavir was born (Madhya Pradesh) is known for its early Q.60. The location of ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is:
on the 13th day of the Chaitra month Buddhist reliefs and carvings. Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(March - April) of the Hindu calendar in (a) Shravasti (b) Kushinagar
540 BC. Birthplace - Vaishali in Q.56. During which of the following rules (c) Sarnath (d) Bodh Gaya
present-day Bihar. ‘Kaivalya’ or did Buddhism get split into two schools -
Hinayana and Mahayana in the fourth Sol.60.(c) Sarnath. The Dhamek Stupa
omniscience - Age of 42. Moksha
Buddhist council? was built in 500 CE to replace an earlier
(liberation from the cycle of birth and
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) structure commissioned by the great
death) - Age of 72 in 468 BC (Pavapuri
(a) Kushana (b) Parthian Mauryan king Ashoka in 249 BCE.
near modern Rajgir in Bihar). The first
tirthankara - Rishabhanatha. (c) Gupta (d) Shaka
Q.61. Which of the following Indo-Greek
Sol.56.(a) Kushana. The Fourth Buddhist kings was mentioned in the Buddhist text
Q.52. The Jain temple at Pattadakal was
Council was held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Milindapanho as Milinda?
built by ________.
Kashmir, under the Kushan king Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Kanishka. It was led by Vasumitra, with (a) Demetrius I (b) Antiochus II
(a) Chalukyas (b) Cholas
Asvaghosa as his deputy, and marked (c) Strato II (d) Menander I
(c) Rashtrakutas (d) Hoysalas
the division of Buddhism into two sects:
Sol.61.(d) Menander I. The Milinda
Sol.52.(c) Rashtrakuta. Other temples Mahayana and Hinayana.
Panha is a dialogue between the Indian
made by Rashtrakutas - The
Q.57. The Shailendra kings who had Buddhist sage Nagasena and the
Kailasanatha Temple in Ellora, the
close contacts with the Indian rulers 2nd-century BC Indo-Greek king
Navalinga Temples in Pattadakal.
were followers of which of the following Menander I.
Q.53. Name the holy city recognized as religions?
Q.62. Select the INCORRECT statement

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the birthplace of the first and fourth Jain SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
from among the following.
Tirthankaras. (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism

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Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Morning) (c) Shaivism (d) Vaishnavism (a) ‘Sanchi Stupa’ is situated in Madhya
(a) Varanasi (b) Dwaraka

na
Sol.57.(a) Buddhism. The rulers of the Pradesh.
(c) Ayodhya (d) Gaya (b) ‘Bavikonda Stupa’ is situated in
Sailendra built many temples and
ap
monuments, including the Borobudur Andhra Pradesh.
Sol.53.(c) Ayodhya is recognized as the
stupa, which is now a UNESCO World (c) ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is situated in Uttar
birthplace of the first (Rishabhdev) and
Pradesh.
:@

fourth (Abhinandannath) Jain Heritage Site. The Shailendra empire was

based in Java and spread to other parts (d) ‘Piprahwa Stupa’ is situated in Sikkim.
Tirthankaras.
of Southeast Asia, including Sumatra, Sol.62.(d) Piprahwa Stupa is located in
TG

Buddhism Bali, and parts of modern-day Malaysia Uttar Pradesh near the town of Piprahwa,
and Thailand. close to the India-Nepal border, this site
Q.54. Which of the following describes is renowned for its archaeological
on

Q.58. Stupas are a symbol of which of

the Medhi part in Buddhist structure? significance.
the following religions ?
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Q.63. Which of the following is the
h

(a) The circular terrace between the

(a) Hinduism (b) Jainism largest Stupa in India?
rc

railing and dome

(c) Buddhism (d) Sikhism SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Ceremonial gateways in front of
a

Sol.58.(c) Buddhism. Stupas were burial (a) Kesariya Stupa (b) Shanti Stupa
stupas
Se

mounds prevalent in India from the vedic (c) Sanchi Stupa (d) Maha Stupa
(c) A low wall to enclose the structure
(d) The umbrella-shaped structure placed period. Stupas typically consist of Sol.63.(a) Kesariya Stupa (Bihar): It was
at the top of the structure several elements, including a circular discovered in 1958 during an excavation
base or platform, a hemispherical dome led by K.K Muhammed. Shanti Stupa
Sol.54.(a) All forms of Buddhist or Anda, a spire or Harmika, and a (Leh): It was built in 1991 by Japanese
architecture include three primary parasol or Chhatra. Sanchi Stupa in Buddhist Bhikshu Gyomyo Nakamura.
structures: vihara, stupa, and Madhya Pradesh is the most famous of
chaitya-griha. the Ashokan stupas. Q.64. Who among the following has
written the biography of Buddha,
Q.55. Which of the following statements Q.59. The tall sculptures on the Bharhut Buddhacharita ?
is/are correct in context of Buddhist Stupa are the depictions of ________. SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
architecture? Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (a) Ashvaghosha (b) Nagarjuna
i. The Uddeshika stupa was created as a (a) Mahavira (b) Yakshas and Yakshinis (c) Vasumitra (d) Charaka
memorial. (c) Buddha (d) Bodhisattvas
ii. Paribhogika stupa contained the Sol.64.(a) Ashvaghosha. He was the
buried bodily remains of Buddh. Sol.59.(b) Yakshas and Yakshinis. court poet of king Kanishka. Other
iii. Bharhut stupa is situated in Uttar (nature spirits in Indian mythology linked writers and books: Nagarjuna -
Pradesh. to prosperity and fertility). These figures Mulamadhyamakakarika. Vasumitra -
SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (3rd Shift) symbolize the connection between the Mahavibhasa. Charaka - Charaka
(a) Only i and ii (b) i, ii and iii spiritual and natural worlds and Samhita.
(c) Only i and iii (d) Only i showcase the integration of local
traditions into Buddhist art. Q.65. Which is the oldest Stupa of the
Sol.55.(a) Only i and ii. Bharhut stupa Buddhist Period?
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 Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) rainy season. Important Buddhist viharas I. Gautama Buddha belonged to a small
(a) Dhamek Stupa (b) Mahabodhi Stupa - Ajanta, Ellora. Nasik, Karle, Kanheri, gana known as the Sakya gana and was
(c) Kesariya Stupa (d) Sanchi Stupa Bagh. a Kshatriya.
II. Gautama Buddha passed away at
Sol.65.(d) Sanchi Stupa was built by the Q.70. Buddha meditated for days on end Kusinara.
Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the 3rd under a peepal tree at _____ where he SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
century BC in Madhya Pradesh. It was attained enlightenment. (a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II
declared a world heritage site by SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Only II (d) Both I and II
UNESCO in 1989. (a) Sarnath (b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Kushinagar (d) Ujjain Sol.74.(d) Both I and II. Important places
Q.66. _______ was the first woman to be related to the life of Buddha are - Birth
ordained as a bhikkhuni in Buddhism. Sol.70.(b) Bodh Gaya. Gautam Buddha (Lumbini); Enlightenment (Bodh Gaya at
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) (Siddharta, Sakyamuni & Tathagata). Bihar); His first Sermon also known as
(a) Dhammananda Bhikkhuni Father: Suddhodana, Mother: Mayadevi. Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (Sarnath); His
(b) Sujata Birth Place (563 B.C.): Lumbini (Nepal), death or Mahaparinirvana in Kushinagara
(c) Mahapajapati Gotami Capital of Sakya republic. Teachers: (Pali: Kusinārā), Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Sanghamitta Alarakalama and UdrakaRamputra.
Enlightenment : At age of 35 under the Q.75. The earliest Buddhist texts were
Sol.66.(c) Mahapajapati Gotami. Peepal tree at Uruvela (Bodhgaya) on written in:
Sanghamitta was an Indian Buddhist nun banks of river Niranjana (Falgu). SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Afternoon)
and the eldest daughter of Ashoka. Mahaparinirvana (483 B.C.): At (a) Pali (b) Apabhramsha
Sujata fed Gautama Buddha a bowl of Kushinagar at age of 80. Sign:- Lotus and (c) Prakrit (d) Sanskrit
kheera, a milk-rice pudding, ending his Bull - Birth, Horse - Renunciation, Bodhi

df
six years of asceticism. Venerable Sol.75.(a) Pali. Pali canon, also called
Tree - Enlightenment, Dhammachakra
Dhammananda Bhikkhuni is the first fully Tipitaka (Pali: “Triple Basket”), is the

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Pravartana (Sarnath) - First sermon.
ordained Theravadin nun in Thailand. complete canon, first recorded in Pali, of
Q.71. What was the pedestrian path for the Theravada (“Way of the Elders”)

na
Q.67. With reference to Buddhist devotees to wave in homage to Stupa branch of Buddhism.
architecture, what does chaitya mean? called in Buddhist architecture?
ap
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.76. The ‘Gandhara’ School of Art was
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Buddha Relics influenced by the art from which of the
(a) Medhi (b) Torana (c) Anda (d) Chattra
:@

(b) Temple entrance following European countries?

(c) Prayer Hall Sol.71.(a) Medhi. Features of Stupa - SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
(d) Residence/Monastery Medhi (A circular terrace), Toranas (wall (a) Italy (b) Belgium
TG

with decorated gateways), Anda (c) Hungary (d) Greece

Sol.67.(c) Prayer Hall. It is a rectangular
(hemispherical mound), Chattra (A Sol.76.(d) Greece. Gandhara School of
hall with a semi-circular apse at one end,
central pillar supporting a triple-umbrella Art : Features - Grey-sandstone is used,
on

which contains a stupa or relic chamber.

form), and Harmika (A square railing). Mainly Buddhist images are found,
Other types of architecture : Stupa - It
contained the Buddha's ashes. Vihara - Patron - Kushanas, Found in north-west
Q.72. Ramabhar Stupa, which marks the
h

Residence hall for the monks. India.

site where Lord Buddha was cremated, is
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situated in which state of India?

Q.68. The rules made for the Buddhist Mahajanapadas
a

SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Evening)

"Sangha” were written down in a book
Se

(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Bihar

called ________ . Q.77. When did the second urbanisation
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) in Ganga Valley take place ?
(a) Abhidhamma Pitaka (b) Sutta pitaka Sol.72.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Important SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Vinaya pitaka (d) Milinda Panha places related to Lord Buddha (Founder (a) 5th Century BCE (b) 3rd Century BCE
of Buddhism): Mahabodhi Temple, Bodh (c) 6th Century BCE (d) 2nd Century BCE
Sol.68.(c) Vinaya Pitaka. Buddhist Gaya (He attained enlightenment);
teachings were divided into Three Dhamekh Stupa, Sarnath (He gave his Sol.77.(c) 6th Century BCE. This era
Pitakas at the First Buddhist Council in first sermon to his five disciples witnessed the development of kingdoms
483 BC. Vinaya Pitaka: It consists of post-enlightenment). and Mahajanapadas like Magadha,
rules of conduct and discipline Kosala, and Vatsa, alongside
applicable to the monastic life of the Q.73. The Lion Capital was built to advancements in agriculture, trade, and
monks and the nuns. It was compiled by commemorate the historical event of administration. The First urbanisation in
Upali, and was written in Pali language. _________ of Buddha. India took place during the Harappan
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) civilization.
Q.69. In Buddhist architecture, which (a) Home abandonment
among the following are meditation cells (b) acquisition of knowledge Q.78. What was the name of the first
and living quarters for the monks? (c) death dynasty that ruled over Magadh kingdom ?
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) (d) First Sermon Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) Viharas (b) Chaitya Grihas (a) Nanda dynasty
(c) Pietra dura (d) Stupas Sol.73.(d) First sermon. (b) Mauryan dynasty
(c) Shishunga dynasty
Sol.69.(a) Viharas were dwelling places Q.74. Which of the following statements
(d) Haryanka dynasty
used by wandering monks during the is correct?
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.78.(d) Haryanka dynasty : The these rivers and fertility of land. Now defining Dhamma as compassion and
capital of this dynasty was Rajagriha. Magadha is a part of Bihar region. truthfulness. Pillar Edict VII, Ashoka
Bimbisara was the first king of Magadha, describes all sect's desire for self-control
starting the Haryanka dynasty, which Q.83. Rulers of Mahajanapadas in and purity of mind. The Rummindei
lasted from 544 BC to 412 BC. ancient India collected taxes on crops at Inscription marks his visit to Buddha's
the rate of _____ of what was produced. birthplace, Lumbini, while the Kandahar
Q.79. How many Mahajanapadas were SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening) Greek Edicts, written in Greek and Prakrit,
there during the age of Buddha? (a) 1/3rd (b) 1/5th (c) 1/6th (d) 1/4th were found in 1963.
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) 15 (b) 26 (c) 16 (d) 9 Sol.83.(c) 1/6th. Rulers of Q.87. The name ‘Piyadassi’ is associated
mahajanapadas in ancient India with whom among the following Mauryan
Sol.79.(c) 16. The references of 16 collected a tax called 'Bhaga' from the kings?
Mahajanapadas are found in Anguttara Farmers in their region. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Nikaya (Buddhist literature) and (a) Bindusara (b) Brihadratha
Bhagwati Sutra (Jain texts). The list of Q.84. Which of the following pairs of
(c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta Maurya
the 16 Mahajanapadas includes: Anga ‘Name of Ruler – Empire’ is correctly
(Champa), Magadh (Rajgriha/Girivraja, matched? Sol.87.(c) Ashoka. "Piyadasi" is an
later Pataliputra), Kasi (Kasi), Vatsa I. Mahapadma Nanda – Magadha Empire honorific epithet that means "He who
(Kausambi), Kosala (Sravasti), Saurasena II. Ajatasatru – Maurya Empire regards others with kindness", "Humane",
(Mathura), Panchala (Ahichchhatra), Kuru SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) or "He who glances amiably".
(Indraprastha), Matsya (Viratnagar), (a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II
(c) Both I and II (d) Only I Q.88. Deimachus, who was a Greek
Chedi (Sothivati/Banda), Avanti
ambassador, came to India during the
(Ujjain/Mahishmati), Gandhara (Taxila,

df
Sol.84.(d) Only I. Mahapadma Nanda reign of the Mauryan king, _________.
Purushapura), Kamboj (Rajapura), established the Nanda dynasty in Eastern SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)

_p
Asmaka (Paithan/Pratisthan), Vajji Magadha. He established Pataliputra (a) Shatadhanvan
(Vaishali), Malla (Kusinara). (Patna, Bihar) as his kingdom's capital. (b) Bindusara

na
Q.80. Kosala Mahajanapada (6th century (c) Ashoka
BCE) is a part of modern day: Mauryan Dynasty (d) Chandragupta Maurya
ap
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift) Sol.88.(b) Bindusara also known as
(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana Q.85. With reference to the city
:@

"Amitrochates" or "Amitragata" by the

(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh administration of Mauryan Empire,
Greeks, was the son of Chandragupta
consider the following statements.
Maurya. Bindusara patronized the
Sol.80.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Modern day A) Megasthenes put light on the Mauryan
TG

Ajivikas and was taught by the Ajivika

names of other Mahajanapadas: Munger city administration.
Brahmin Pingalavatsa.
and Bhagalpur (Anga), Gaya and Patna B) The city council was divided into six
(Magadha), Banaras (Kashi), Prayagraj committees. Q.89. In which of the following Major
on

(Vatsa), Malwa and Madhya Pradesh C) City administration was well planned. Rock Edicts of Ashoka is the Kalinga war
(Avanti), Rawalpindi (Gandhara), North Which of the above statements is/are mentioned?
h

Bihar (Vajji), Jaipur (Matsya), Meerut and correct? SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
rc

Haryana (Kuru), Western Uttar Pradesh (a) XII (b) X (c) XIII (d) XI
(Shurasena and Panchala), Bundelkhand (a) B, C (b) A, B (c) A, B, (d) C, A
a

region (Chedi), Rajouri, Hajra and North Sol.89.(c) XIII. Major Rock Edict XIII of
Se

-West Frontier Province (Kamboja), Sol.85.(c) A, B, C. The Mauryan Empire, Ashoka discusses the Kalinga War,
Banks of Godavari (Asmaka or Assaka), founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 expressing remorse for the loss of life
Deoria and Uttar Pradesh (Malla). BCE, was the first major empire in India. and suffering it caused. It announces his
It stretched from the Oxus Valley to the conversion to Buddhism and
Q.81. Iron mines in Jharkhand attributed Kaveri Delta, covering most of the commitment to non-violence,
to the rise of which of the following subcontinent, with its capital at highlighting the importance of Dharma
kingdoms in ancient India? Pataliputra, a city fortified with 64 gates (righteous living). Major Rock Edict XII:
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) and 570 towers. Megasthenes, a Greek Deals with Ashoka's tolerance and
(a) Kuru (b) Magadha (c) Kashi (d) Kushan historian, documented India in his work respect for other religions. Major Rock
Indica. Edict X : Discusses Ashoka's duties as a
Sol.81.(b) Magadha.
ruler and his commitment to Dharma.
Q.86. Which of the following edicts of
Q.82. Magadha Mahajanapada was Major Rock Edict XI : Explains the
King Ashoka describes the Kalinga war?
surrounded by the rivers______. principles of Dharma and moral conduct.
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Rock edict XIII (b) Pillar edict III Q.90. Who among the following generally
(a) Ganga and Jhelum (c) Rock edict II (d) Pillar edict IV used to head the provincial
(b) Ganga and Yamuna
administration under the Mauryas?
(c) Ganga and Son Sol.86.(a) Rock edict XIII. The Edicts of
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(d) Ganga and Ghaghara Ashoka, issued during his reign
(a) Dandapala (b) Kumara
(268–232 BCE), are inscriptions on
Sol.82.(c) Ganga and Son. Magadha (c) Samaharta (d) Prashasti
pillars, boulders, and caves. Key edicts
became the most powerful among the include Pillar Edict I, emphasizing Sol.90.(b) Kumara. The 18 Tirthas were
mahajanapadas in 6th Century AD due to protection of people, and Pillar Edict II, key officials in ancient administration,
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 Pinnacle History
including roles like Mantrin (Chief Q.94. Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and Q.99. Who among the following Mauryan
Minister), Purohita (Priest), Senapati daughter Sanghmitra to spread the rulers was the first, who tried to convey
(Army Commander), Yuvaraja (Prince), message of Dhamma to which of the his messages to his subjects concerning
Dauvarika (Chief of Palace Attendants), following countries? the idea and practice of dhamma through
Antarvamsika (Chief of the King’s SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) inscriptions?
Guards), Prasasta (Magistrate), (a) Burma (b) China Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Samahata (Collector General), (c) Afghanistan (d) Sri Lanka (a) Brihadaratha
Samnidhata (Chief Treasurer), and (b) Ashoka
Pradesta (Commissioner). Other roles Sol.94.(d) Sri Lanka. Ashoka (272 BCE (c) Dasaratha
included Nayak (Town Guard), Paur –232 BCE) was the third king of the (d) Chandragupta Maurya
(Town Chief), Karmanta (Mines Mauryan dynasty (Founder -
Superintendent), Dandpala (Army Chandragupta Maurya). Sol.99.(b) Ashoka was the third emperor
Officer), and Durgapala (Fort Guardian). of the Mauryan Dynasty. To propagate
Q.95. Bhabru-Bairat rock edicts mainly the policy of dhamma, he used the
Q.91. Which of the following was NOT depicting Ashokas' conversion to medium of edicts. These edicts were
one of the basic attributes of Ashokas' Buddhism are found in ___________. used to communicate between the King
Dhamma? Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (Ashoka) and his subjects. Few
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh inscriptions were addressed to the
(a) Political unification (b) Ahimsa (c) Bihar (d) Odisha Buddhist Samgha.
(c) Celibacy (d) Secularism Sol.95.(a) Rajasthan. Bhabru is the only
Q.100. Which of the following was a
inscription in the Boustrophedon script
Sol.91.(c) Celibacy. Ashoka's Dhamma, Ceylonese chronicle that acted as an
(bi-directional script from right to left and
as outlined in his Edicts, emphasized the important literary source of the Mauryan

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left to right in an alternate line).
following basic attributes: Ahimsa empire?

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(Non-violence), Secularism (Separation Q.96. Who requested the Syrian king to SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
of religion and state), Political unification send a Greek philosopher? (a) Indica (b) Mudrarakshas

na
(Unity and harmony among subjects). Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (c) Mahavamsa (d) Arthasastra
(a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Bindusara
Q.92. Who among the following envoys Sol.100.(c) Mahavamsa - It was written
ap
(c) Ashok (d) Kunal
was sent by Seleucus I to the court of by Mahanama in Pali language. Literary
Chandragupta Maurya? Sources of Mauryan Period:
:@

Sol.96.(b) Bindusara was the second

SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Mauryan Empire, father of Ashoka, and "Arthashastra” (Kautilya), “Indica”
(a) Fa-Hien (b) Al-Biruni son of Chandragupta (founder of (Megasthenes).
(c) Megasthenes (d) Deimachus
TG

Mauryan empire). Syrian King Antiochus-I

Q.101. Who among the following
sent his ambassador Deimachus to the
Sol.92.(c) Megasthenes. He was an Mauryan kings fasted to death and died
court of Bindusara.
ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and at Shravanabelagola?
on

ethnographer who authored the famous Q.97. Barabar Cave, famously known for SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
work “Indica”, providing valuable insights depicting Ashokas' inscription, is (a) Bindusara (b) Dasharatha
h

into the Mauryan Empire, including its situated at_______. (c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta Maurya
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administration, society, geography, and Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)

culture. Sol.101.(d) Chandragupta Maurya: His
(a) Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh
a

Greek name was Sandrocottos. He was

(b) Rampurva, Bihar
Se

Q.93. Which of the following Ashokan the founder of the Mauryan Empire. He
(c) Gaya, Bihar
rock edicts declares prohibition of animal occupied Patliputra (Magadh Empire) in
(d) Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh
sacrifice ? 322 B.C by defeating Dhanananda of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Sol.97.(c) Gaya, Bihar. The Barabar Nanda Empire. During his tenure
(a) Major Rock Edict - IV Caves, located in the Makhdumpur Megasthenese (Greek Historian) visited
(b) Major Rock Edict - I region of Jehanabad district, Bihar, date India. He used to follow Jainism.
(c) Major Rock Edict - II back to the Mauryan period (3rd century
(d) Major Rock Edict - III Q.102. What was the function of an
BCE) and were built by Emperor Ashoka
officer called Samaharta?
for Ajivaka ascetics. The caves include
Sol.93.(b) Major Rock Edict - I. There are SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Karan Chaupar, Lomas Rishi, Sudama,
14 Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka in three (a) Reserve the state treasury
and Visvakarma Caves.
languages (Prakrit, Aramaic and Greek) (b) Tax assessment
and two scripts (Brahmi and Kharosthi). Q.98. Who among the following rulers (c) Security assurance
Major Rock Edicts: II - It mentions social was defeated in the battle for Pataliputra (d) To correspond
welfare under Dhamma. Major Rock by Chandragupta Maurya ?
Edict III - It declares that respect for Sol.102.(b) Tax assessment. Officers
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
parents and for all living things, including during the Mauryan administration:
(a) Megasthenes (b) Dhana Nanda
Brahmanas and Sramanas, is a virtue. Shulkadhyaksha (Officer-in-charge of
(c) Seleucus Nicator (d) Elara
Major Rock Edict IV - Consideration and royal income), Koshadhyaksha (Treasury
non-violence to animals and courtesy to Sol.98.(b) Dhana Nanda. He was the last officer), Lakshanadhyaksha (Coin
relations. Major Rock Edict XIII - It ruler of the Nanda dynasty, and his minting), Rajjukas (Land measurer),
mentions Ashoka’s victory over Kalinga. defeat marked the establishment of the Yukta (Subordinate revenue officer),
Mauryan Empire in India. Sannidata (Treasury head),
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 Pinnacle History
Panyadhyaksha (Office of commerce during the Mauryan empire? Q.112. Which of the following places
department). Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) does not contain the major inscription of
(a) Brihat Samhita (b) Nitisara Ashoka ?
Q.103. Emperor Ashoka conquered (c) Shulba Sutra (d) Arthashastra SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Kalinga after how many years of his (a) Girnar (b) Kandahar (c) Sanchi (d) Kalsi
coronation? Sol.107.(d) Arthashastra - It focused
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) primarily on principles and practice of Sol.112.(c) Sanchi. It is a famous
(a) 5 years (b) 8 years statecraft, Written in the Sanskrit Buddhist site with several stupas and
(c) 11 years (d) 15 years language by Kautilya (Chanakya monasteries. Language used in Ashoka’s
/Vishnugupta), who was the Prime inscriptions - Prakrit. Ashoka's name is
Sol.103.(b) 8 years. Ashoka fought the Minister under Chandragupta Maurya’s only used in four of these locations:
Kalinga War in 261 BC. King Ashoka reign. Maski, Brahmagiri (Karnataka), Gujjara
(268 - 232 BC) was the third king of the (Madhya Pradesh) and Nettur (Andhra
Mauryan Empire. Q.108. Nagarjuni Caves were donated to Pradesh).
which of the following sects by
Q.104. How many classes of Indian Mauryans? Q.113. What was the purpose behind the
society are mentioned in Megasthenes Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 2) Pillars of Ashoka?
book Indica? (a) Ajivika (b) Buddhism SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 ( 3rd shift) (c) Lokayat (d) Jainism (a) To spread bherighosha
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 7 (b) To spread mass conversion
Sol.108.(a) Ajivika - It was founded by (c) To spread sectarian faith
Sol.104.(d) 7. They were Brahmins
Goshala Maskariputra. It is based on the (d) To spread the dharma policies
(upper class), Philosophers, Farmers,
philosophy that the affairs of the entire

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Herders, Artisans, Military, Overseers, Sol.113.(d) To spread the dharma of
universe were ordered by a cosmic force
Councillors and Assessors. policies. Pillars are inscribed with edicts
called Niyati that determined all events,

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including an individual’s fate. The seven by the 3rd Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the
Q.105. According to Kautilya's
caves were created by Mauryan time for Great (c. 268 to 232 BCE). There are

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Arthashastra, the Commanding Officer of
the Ajivika Sect. seven pillar edicts. The Seventh Pillar
the cavalry in the Mauryan administration
Edict mentions Dhamma Mahamattas
ap
was known as:
Q.109. As per the contents mentioned in and it is the longest pillar almost of all.
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift)
Asokan inscriptions, how many major
:@

(a) Rathadhyaksha (b) Hastyadhyaksha Q.114. Which caves are considered as

political centres were there in the
(c) Ashwadhyaksha (d) Patyadhyaksha the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in
Mauryan empire?
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) India dating back to the Maurya period?
Sol.105.(c) Ashwadhyaksha. Officers in
TG

(a) five (b) six (c) four (d) three SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
Mauryan Empire: Mantrin (Chief
(a) Barabar and Nagarjuni caves
Minister), Senapati (Commander-in
Sol.109.(a) Five. The five major political (b) Bagh Caves
-Chief), Yuvraj (Crown prince),
on

centres of the Mauryan empire were (c) Elephanta Caves

Shulkadhyaksha (Officer in-charge of
located at Pataliputra, Taxila, Ujjain, (d) Ajanta and Ellora Caves
royal income), Prashasti (Prison head),
Tosali and Suvarnagiri.
h

Koshadhyaksha (Treasury officer), Sol.114.(a) Barabar and Nagarjuni caves

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Vyabharika (Chief Judge), Dandapala Q.110. Which Mauryan ruler was called - Located in Jehanabad district of Bihar,
(Head of Police), Annapala (Head of food Amitrochates by the Greeks? Constructed by Emperor Ashoka for the
a

grains department), Pradeshika (District SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) benefit of Ajivika ascetics. They were cut
Se

administrator), Hastyadhyaksha (Chief (a) Samudragupta (b) Kanishka from a single solid granite block.
Commander of Elephant Corps), (c) Bindusara (d) Chandragupta Ⅰ
Rathadhyaksha (Chief Commander of Q.115. Somewhat before the time of the
Chariot Corps) and Nayaka (City security Sol.110.(c) Bindusara. He was the son of Mauryan empire, about _______ years
officer). Chandragupta Maurya and was the ago, emperors in China began building
second Mauryan emperor of India whose the Great Wall.
Q.106. The Mauryan pillar capital found reign from 297 - 273 BCE. SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
at _______ is popularly known as the Lion (a)1200 (b) 3500 (c) 2400 (d) 600
Capital. Q.111. There were several cities in the
Mauryan empire. Which of the following Sol.115.(c) 2400. Emperor Qin Shi
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
cities was located on the southernmost Huang ordered construction of the Great
(a) Bhabru (b) Bairat
side? Wall around 221 B.C. It was meant to
(c) Sanchi (d) Sarnath
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) protect the northern frontier of the
Sol.106.(d) Sarnath Lion Capital - (a) Girnar (b) Topra empire from pastoral people.
Erected by Ashoka (Around 250 BCE) in (c) Brahmagiri (d) Rupnath
commemoration of Dhammachakra Q.116. Pushyamitra, who was the
pravartana or the first sermon of Buddha. Sol.111.(c) Brahmagiri. The Maurya commander of Brihadratha, the last
The Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath is Empire: Founder - Chandragupta Maurya, Mauryan emperor, killed the king and
the Indian National Emblem. Capital - Pataliputra (modern Patna). established a new dynasty. Which of the
Three important rulers of the Mauryan following was his dynasty?
Q.107. Which of the following texts lays Empire - Chandragupta, his son SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
down minute details of the Bindusara, and Bindusara’s son, Ashoka. (a) Shunga (b) Kanva
administrative and military organisation (c) Satavahana (d) Chedi
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.116.(a) Shunga Dynasty Founder - 'Kantakasodhana' was prevalent in the (a) Dandin (b) Bhavabhuti
Pushyamitra Sunga. Ruled - From 185 ______ Empire. (c) Kshemendra (d) Harisena
BCE to 73 BCE. Last Ruler - Devabhuti. SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning)
Kanva Dynasty Founder - Vasudeva (a) Kushana (b) Mauryan Sol.124.(d) Harisena. He was a Sanskrit
Kanva. Ruled - From 73 BCE to 28 BCE. (c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta writer and poet in the court of
Last Ruler - Susarma. Satavahana Samudragupta. "Brihat Katha Kosh" is a
Dynasty Founder - Simuka . Famous Sol.120.(b) Mauryan Empire. It literally collection of ancient Indian folk tales and
Ruler - Gautamiputra Satakarni. means ‘removal of the thorns’ and was legends. Bhavabhuti is believed to be the
used in reference to criminal justice in court poet of King Yashovarman of
Q.117. Ashoka appointed ______ to solve ancient India. Kautilya also mentioned Kannauj. His famous plays are
the social problems in his region. the cases that are subject to Kantaka Mahaviracharita, Malatimadhava.
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Shodhana in his book Arthashastra.
(a) samaharta (b) nyayadhish Q.125. Kalidasa was a famous poet in
(c) amatya (d) dhamma mahamatta Q.121. Who among the following the court of________.
published a set of Ashokan inscriptions Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.117.(d) Dhamma Mahamatta. in 1877 ? (a) Kanishka
Tirthas: The highest category of officials SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Afternoon) (b) Pushyamitra Shunga
in the administration. There were 18 (a) DC Sircar (c) Harshavardhana
Tirthas. Amatyas: High ranking officials (b) MS Vats (d) Chandragupta II
almost like present-day secretaries. The (c) Alexander Cunningham
important officials in the revenue (d) Colin Mackenzie Sol.125.(d) Chandragupta II, also known
department are Sannidhata: Chief as Vikramaditya, ruled from 380 to 415
treasury, Samaharta: collector general of Sol.121.(c) Alexander Cunningham. He CE and was a renowned patron of arts

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revenue. Yuktas: Subordinate officers was the founder of the Archaeological and literature. Kalidasa's notable works,
Survey of India. such as "Abhijnanasakuntalam",

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responsible for the Empire’s revenue.
Rajjukas: Officers in charge of land "Meghaduta", and "Raghuvamsa",
Gupta Dynasty showcase his mastery of Sanskrit

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measurement and boundary-fixing.
literature.
Q.118. Which of the following
ap
Q.122. Rudrasena II of which of the
statements is correct? Q.126. Harisena, the author of Prayag
following dynasties married
I. Most of Ashoka’s inscriptions were Prashasti, was the court poet of which of
Prabhavatigupta, the daughter of
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written in Brahmi script. the following Gupta emperors ?

Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty?
II. Many of Chanakya’s ideas were written Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
down in a book called the Arthashastra. (a) Samudraguta (b) Kumaragupta I
TG

(a) Pushyabhuti (b) Vakataka

SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Ramagupta (d) Skandagupta
(c) Chalukya (d) Pallava
(a) Only II (b) Only I Sol.126.(a) Samudragupta. He was the
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II Sol.122.(b) Vakataka. The Vakataka
on

son and successor of Chandragupta I

dynasty: Founded by Vindhyashakti
Sol.118.(d) Both I and II. Brahmi Script and was the greatest ruler of the Gupta
around 250-270 CE. The Vakatakas ruled
dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar inscription,
h

was deciphered by James Prinsep. over Central and Western India.

also called Prayag Prashasti, was
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Q.119. Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts are Q.123. The ________ were tributary chiefs composed by Harishena.
a

found in different parts of India. Which of of the Gupta dynasty. They established
Q.127. Gupta emperor Chandragupta I
Se

the following is NOT a find spot of an independent kingdom in western

Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts in was the first ruler to adopt which of the
India. Dhruvasena II was the most
Karnataka? following titles?
important ruler of this kingdom.
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Brahmagiri (b) Gavimath (a) Maharajadhiraja (b) Parmeshvara
(a) Maitrakas (b) Maukharis
(c) Rupnath (d) Maski (c) Mahendraditya (d) Vikramaditya
(c) Pushyabhutis (d) Gurjara Pratiharas
Sol.127.(a) Maharajadhiraja.
Sol.119.(c) Rupnath. Minor rock edicts Sol.123.(a) Maitrakas established
Chandragupta I, the son of Gupta king
of Ashoka - Kandahar (Afghanistan), Valabhi as their capital and ruled until the
Ghatotkacha and grandson of the
Lampaka (Afghanistan), Bahapur (Delhi), middle of the eighth century. Dhruvasena
dynasty's founder Sri Gupta, is referred to
Bairat (Rajasthan), Bhabru (Rajasthan), II was a contemporary of
as Maharaja in the Allahabad Pillar
Gujarra (Madhya Pradesh), Rupnath Harshavardhana and was married to his
inscription, while his successor,
(Madhya Pradesh), Panguraria (Madhya daughter. Hsuan Tsang tells us that
Kumaragupta, adopted the title
Pradesh), Sasaram (Bihar), Barabar Dhruvasena II attended Harsha’s
"Mahendraditya."
Caves (Bihar), Rajula-Mandagiri, Andhra assembly at Prayaga (Allahabad).
Pradesh, Suvarna Giri (Andhra Pradesh), Maukharies ruled over Kannauj, a city in Q.128. The Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Fa
Brahmagiri (Karnataka), Jatina- western Uttar Pradesh, they were also Hien visited India during the reign of
Rameshwara, Karnataka, Siddapur the subordinate rulers of the Guptas and which of the following Gupta emperors?
(Karnataka), Maski (Karnataka), Nittur used the title of samanta. Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(Karnataka), Udegolam (Karnataka), (a) Vishnugupta (b) Chandragupta I
Palkigundu and Gavimath (Karnataka). Q.124. Who among the following was the
(c) Ghatotkacha (d) Chandragupta II
author of 'Brihat Katha Kosh'?
Q.120. A type of court called SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.128.(d) Chandragupta II, also known
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 Pinnacle History
as Vikramaditya, was the third ruler of (d) Lucknow pillar inscription (c) Skandagupta (d) Kumaragupta I
the Gupta Empire. He is often identified
with King Chandra from the Delhi iron Sol.132.(a) Allahabad pillar inscription Sol.137.(b) Chandragupta II - He was the
pillar inscription. Notable Travellers and composed in Sanskrit by Harishena, the son of Samudragupta and Datta Devi. He
Their Visits - Abdul Razzak (Iran): Deva court poet of Samudragupta. ruled the Gupta Empire from 380 to 415
Raya II. Francois Bernier (France): Shah AD during the Golden Age of India. He
Q.133. Who was the court poet of established the Mehrauli iron pillar.
Jahan, Ibn Batuta (Morocco): Harshavardhana?
Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Megasthenes SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.138. Who among the following
(Greece): Chandragupta Maurya, (a) Hema Saraswati (b) Parmanand succeeded Ghatotkacha, the Gupta ruler?
Thomas Roe and William Hawkins (c) Banabhatta (d) Sri Ponna SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
(Britain): Jahangir, Hwien Tsang (China): (a) Kumaragupta I (b) Chandragupta I
Harsha Vardhana. Sol.133.(c) Banabhatta - His teacher's (c) Chandragupta II (d) Skandagupta
name was Bhatsu or Bharvu.
Q.129. The paintings in the Bagh caves Banabhatta's three works are famous - Sol.138.(b) Chandragupta I. Founder - Sri
belong to which of the following periods? “Harshacharita”, “Kadambari” and Gupta, Next Successors - Ghatotkacha,
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) “Chandishtak”. Harshvardhan was the Chandragupta I, Samudragupta,
(a) Maukhari (b) Maurya ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty of Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta I (founded
(c) Chola (d) Gupta Thaneshwar. Nalanda University).
Sol.129.(d) Gupta. Bagh Caves are Q.134. Who among the following Q.139. Ruler of which dynasty built the
located in Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh). Navratnas from Chandragupta II court famous Iron pillar in Delhi?
These are a group of nine rock-cut wrote 'Mantrashastra’ ? SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift)
monuments. These caves were founded

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SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) (a) Gupta (b) Pallava
by the Buddhist monk Dataka. Caves in (a) Kalidasa (b) Ghatakarapara (c) Maurya (d) Pushyabhuti

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India - Undavalli caves (Andhra Pradesh), (c) Vetala Bhatta (d) Amarasimha
Barabar Caves (Bihar), Badami Cave Sol.139.(a) Gupta dynasty. In Mehrauli

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Temples (Karnataka), Udaygiri Caves Sol.134.(c) Vetala Bhatta. Nine jewels (Delhi) an iron pillar was constructed by
(Madhya Pradesh), Ajanta Caves and (Navratna) of Chandragupta II - the famous king Chandragupta II, India,
ap
Ellora Caves (Maharashtra). Amarasimha, Dhanvantari, Harisena, notable for the rust-resistant
Kalidasa, Kshapanaka, Shanku, composition of the metal used in its
Q.130. The Vakataka dynasty was
:@

Varahamihira, Varuchi, Vetala-Bhatta. construction. The inscription on the pillar

directly related to which Gupta emperor? is in Sanskrit, about Gupta emperor
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.135. The reign of Kumaragupta I the Chandragupta II.
(a) Chandra Gupta I (b) Shree Gupta son and successor of _____ was one of
TG

(c) Samudra Gupta (d) Chandra Gupta II peace and relative inactivity. Q.140. Which of the following offices
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) was NOT held by the poet Harishena?
Sol.130.(d) Chandra Gupta II. Vakataka (a) Chandragupta I (b) Skandagupta SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
on

dynasty : Founded by Vindhyashakti in (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta (a) Sandhi-vigrahika

250 CE. Ajanta caves (numbers ⅩⅥ, (b) Maha-danda-nayaka
h

ⅩⅦ, ⅩⅨ) are the best examples of Sol.135.(c) Chandragupta II (successor (c) Nagara-shreshthi
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Vakataka excellence in the field of of Samudragupta). Kumaragupta I : He (d) Kumar-amatya

painting. was also known as Shakraditya and
a

Mahendraditya. He founded Nalanda Sol.140.(c) Nagara-shreshthi (Chief

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Q.131. In which period is the first Mahavihara in 5th century CE. His banker or merchant). Offices held by
inscriptional example of the practice of successor - Skandagupta. Poet Harishena: Maha-danda-Nayaka
Sati found? (Chief Judicial Officer), Kumar-amatya
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.136. Which king was shown on his (Important minister) and a sandhi -
(a) Maukhari (b) Vardhana coins as a Veena player? vigrahika (Minister of War and Peace).
(c) Satavahana (d) Gupta SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
(a) Ashoka Q.141. Fa Xian began his journey back
Sol.131.(d) Gupta. Practice of Sati has (b) Chandragupta Maurya home from which of the following Indian
been found in the Eran Pillar Inscription (c) Samudragupta state?
of Bhanugupta, Madhya Pradesh. Sati (d) Chandragupta I SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Movement : Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra
described ‘Sati’ as ‘murder’ according to Sol.136.(c) Samudragupta - He was a (c) Bengal (d) Odisha
every shastra. By his efforts, Bengal Sati ruler of the Gupta dynasty. On several of
Regulation Act was passed to criminalize his coins, he was depicted as seated on Sol.141.(c) Bengal. Fa-Xian (Chinese
the practice of Sati in 1829. a sofa and playing a Veena. He is known traveller) started his journey back home
as the Napoleon of India. He was given from Bengal by boarding a merchant
Q.132. The famous source of the Gupta the title of Kaviraj. ship. He traveled from China to India on
empire, the Prayaga Prashasti is also foot to acquire Buddhist texts. He came
known as the ________. Q.137. After the victory over Sakas, who to India, under the reign of Chandragupta
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) among the following adopted the title of II, and arrived at Pataliputra from the
(a) Allahabad pillar inscription 'Vikramaditya"? northwest.
(b) Ahmedabad pillar inscription SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Bithur pillar inscription (a) Chandragupta I (b) Chandragupta II Q.142. Samudragupta's mother belonged
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 Pinnacle History
to which of the following gana? AD) belonged to the Pushyabhuti Harshavardhan sent an envoy to Taizong
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) dynasty, also known as the Vardhana (Tai-Tsung), the Tang emperor of China
(a) Koliya (b) Lichchhavi (c) Sakya (d) Vajji dynasty. He wanted to extend his power and in return, the Chinese ruler sent three
in the Deccan but he was defeated by embassies to Harsha court.
Sol.142.(b) Licchavi. Samudragupta (335 Pulakesin II, the Chalukya ruler, on the
-375 CE, Kaviraja) was the son of bank of river Narmada. The river thus Q.151. After about 75 years of
Chandragupta I and Queen Kumaradevi became the southern boundary of his Harshavardhana's death ______ rose to
(Licchavi clan). He is called ‘Napoleon of kingdom. Vardhana dynasty: Founder - power in Kannauj.
India’ by V.A. Smith. Pushyabhuti. Capital: Thanesar SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
(Thaneshwar), later Kannauj (a) Yashovarman (b) Yadagiri
Q.143. In the context of Gupta (c) Mahendravarman (d) Pulakeshin II
administration, the term 'vithi' referred to (Kanyakubja).
a/an: Sol.151.(a) Yashovarman. He was the
Q.147. Pushyabhuti dynasty, after
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) founder of the Varman dynasty of Kanauj
Prabhakarvardhana, strengthened its
(a) elephantry unit and surrounding areas during the 8th and
position in the regions of Punjab and
(b) administrative unit the 9th centuries.
Haryana after defeating which of the
(c) personal guard of the king following dynasties? Q.152. What was the period of
(d) soldier SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Harshavardhana's reign?
Sol.143.(b) Administrative unit. In (a) Maukharis (b) Hunas SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Gupta's period, there was a hierarchy of (c) Chalukyas (d) Maitrakas (a) 647 CE to 700 CE
administrative divisions from top to (b) 570 CE to 610 CE
Sol.147.(b) Hunas. The Pushyabhuti (c) 606 CE to 647 CE
bottom. The empire was called by dynasty (Vardhana dynasty) ruled

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various names such as Rajya, Rashtra, (d) 545 CE to 570 CE
northern India during the 6th and 7th
Desha, Mandala, Prithvi, and Avani. It was

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centuries, emerging after the Gupta Sol.152.(c) 606 CE to 647 CE.
divided into provinces, which were Empire's decline. Its core territory was in Harshavardhana - Last ruler of the
further divided into Vishayas. A

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present-day Haryana, with Sthanishvara Vardhana Empire (Pushyabhuti dynasty);
Vishayapati administered the Vishaya. A (Thaneshwar) as the capital. The dynasty Undisputed ruler of Thaneshwar (modern
part of the Vishaya was called Vithi.
ap
reached its peak under Harsha Vardhana, -day Haryana). He was author of three
who reigned from 606 to 647 AD. Sanskrit plays - Nagananda, Ratnavali,
Q.144. Who among the following Gupta
:@

Priyadarshika.
rulers married a girl from the Lichchhavi Q.148. Thaneswar where the Vardhana
clan? dynasty ruled around the present-day Q.153. King Shashanka, against whom
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon) state of _______. Harshvardhana declared war, was a ruler
TG

(a) Samudragupta (b) Sri Gupta Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) of the ______ kingdom.
(c) Chandragupta-I (d) Ramagupta (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat (a) Kanyakubja (b) Junagarh
on

Sol.144.(c) Chandragupta-I. The

(c) Magadha (d) Gauda
Lichchhavi clan was headquartered at Sol.148.(b) Haryana.
Vaishali in present-day Bihar during the
h

Sol.153.(d) Gauda. Karnasubarna was

time of Gautama Buddha. Q.149. According to which of the
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the capital of Gauda Kingdom during the

following foreign travellers did
reign of Shashanka, the first important
a

Vardhana Dynasty Dhruvasena II attend Harsha’s assembly

king of ancient Bengal who ruled in the
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at Prayag (Allahabad)?
7th century.
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
Q.145. Which of the following plays was
(a) Marco Polo (b) Hiuen Tsang
NOT written by Harshavardhana ? Chola Dynasty
(c) Fa-Hien (d) I-tsing
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Vikramorvasiyam (b) Ratnavali Sol.149.(b) Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang) - Q.154. With reference to medieval
(c) Nagananda (d) Priyadarshika Chinese Buddhist monk who travelled history, consider the following
from China to India to study Buddhism statements.
Sol.145.(a) Vikramorvasiyam is a
and obtain Buddhist scriptures during the 1. The founder of the Chola dynasty
romantic play written by Kalidasa, based
reign of King Harsha Vardhan. Assembly called the ‘Imperial Cholas’ was
on the legend of King Pururava and an
of Prayag (Maha Moksha Parishad) - Vijayalaya (9th century AD).
Apsara named Urvashi. Kalidasa's works
Harsha Vardhan gave all his belongings 2. One of the important dynasties which
include: Abhijnanasakuntalam,
in charity for the welfare of the public. ruled in northern India was
Malavikagnimitram, Kumarasambhavam.
Gurjara-Pratiharas.
Q.150. Who sent an envoy to the Chinese
Q.146. Pulakeshin II assumed the title of 3. Palas ruled in western India and
court in 641 AD?
‘Dakshinapatheshvara’ (lord of the south) Rashtrakutas ruled in southern India in
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
after defeating which of the following the early years (750 -1000).
(a) Narsimhavarman I
rulers of north India? Which of the given statement(s) is/are
(b) Harsha Vardhan
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) correct?
(c) Narsimhavarman II
(a) Rudrasena II (b) Harshavardhana SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (1st Shift)
(d) Pulakesin I
(c) Dhruvasena II (d) Prabhakarvardhana (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Sol.150.(b) Harsha Vardhan. In 641 AD (c) 2 only (d) 1 only
Sol.146.(b) Harshavardhana (606-647
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.154.(a) 1 and 2 only. The successors celebrated of the Chola kings and Sol.163.(a) Land gifted to Brahmans.
of Vijayalaya expanded the Chola ascended the throne in 985 AD. Rajendra There were five types of 'land gifts' that
kingdom by annexing Pandyan and I, the son of Rajaraja I, became the first Chola kings gave to their people on the
Pallava territories. Rajaraja I, who Chola king to venture to the banks of the basis of Chola inscriptions : Vellanvagai -
became king in 985, strengthened and Ganges, earning the title "Victor of the For non-Brahmana, peasant proprietors.
reorganized the empire. His son, Ganges." Shalabhoga - For the maintenance of a
Rajendra I, further extended the Chola school. Devadana or Tirunamattukkani -
influence with expeditions to the Ganga Q.159. Name the Chola inscription that Land gifted to temples. Pallichchhandam
valley, Sri Lanka, and Southeast Asia, provided details of the way in which the - Land donated to Jaina institutions.
supported by a powerful navy. Palas sabha was organised in the local
ruled in eastern India and Rashtrakutas administration in the Chola empire. Q.164. The Airavatesvara Temple in
ruled in the Deccan region. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Tamil Nadu was built by _________ .
(a) Thirunanthikarai inscription SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.155. One of the greatest of Chola (b) Thiruvalangadu inscription (a) Rajaraja Chola II
rulers, Rajaraja I ruled from 985 AD to (c) Darsanam Koppu inscription (b) Rajaraja Chola I
______. (d) Uttaramerur inscription (c) Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Maharaja Pratap Singh
(a) 1015 AD (b) 1017 AD Sol.159.(d) Uttaramerur inscription. It
(c) 1014 AD (d) 1018 AD dated 919 CE and 921 CE of the Chola Sol.164.(a) Rajaraja Chola II.
king Parantaka I provides evidence of Airavatesvara Temple is a Hindu temple
Sol.155.(c) 1014 AD. The Chola Empire
India's long history of democratic built in the Dravidian style of architecture.
was founded by Vijayalaya. Rajaraja I
government. Dedicated to - Lord Shiva.
was known for his conquests of South

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India and parts of Sri Lanka. He built the Q.160. In the 11th century, the army of Q.165. The term "Vetti" in Chola empire
great Brihadisvara Temple at the Chola which of the following Cholas reached is related to ___________

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capital Thanjavur. upto Ganga to invade Bengal? SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) part payments (b) army

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Q.156. Which of the following animals
(a) Rajendra I (b) Rajaraja I (c) forced labour (d) gold coins
was the emblem of the Chola dynasty?
(c) Vijayalaya (d) Rajadhiraj I
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SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.165.(c) Forced labour. Some types of
(a) Wolf (b) Horse (c) Elephant (d) Tiger Sol.160.(a) Rajendra I (1014 and 1044 taxes in Cholas empire: Kadmai or Irai -
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CE) - He was also known as Tax on land; Pattam and ayam - Taxes
Sol.156.(d) Tiger. Three dynasties ruled
Gangaikonda Chola. He defeated imposed on non-agricultural professions
during the Sangam Age. Cheras:
Mahipala, the Pala king of Bengal and like artisans and merchants; Nirvilai or
Modern-Day City (Kerala), Ancient Capital
TG

Bihar. nirkkirai - Water tax; Ulku and sungam -

(Vanji), Important Ports (Musiri, Tondi),
Emblem (Bow and Arrow). Cholas: Toll tax; Tattar-pattam - A tax levied on
Q.161. Who among the following rulers
Modern-Day City (Tamil Nadu), Ancient gold -smiths; Sangam - Export and
on

invaded Malaya to liberate their trade

Capital (Uraiyur, Puhar), Important Ports import taxes; Kannala Kanam - Marriage
with China?
(Kaveripattinam). Pandyas: Modern-Day tax; Poorvi - War tax.
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift)
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City (Tamil Nadu), Ancient Capital (a) Pallava (b) Chola Q.166. Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a
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(Madurai), Important Ports {Muziris (c) Chalukya (d) Rashtrakuta contemporary of which Chola king?
(Muchiri), Korkai, Kaveri}, Emblem (Carp).
a

SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift)

Sol.161.(b) Chola dynasty.
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Q.157. Brihadiswara Temple of Tanjore (a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra II

was built by which of the following Chola Q.162. Sabha and Ur, two kinds of village (c) Rajadhiraja (d) Rajendra I
emperors? assemblies are referred to in which of the
Sol.166.(d) Rajendra I who ruled from
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) following dynasties?
1014 to 1044 CE. Ghazni invaded India
(a) Vijayalaya (b) Chamunda Raya SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
seventeen times. In 1018 he plundered
(c) Rajendra I (d) Raja Raja Chola (a) Chola (b) Rashtrakuta
the holy city of Mathura and also
(c) Gurjara Pratihara (d) Chalukya
Sol.157.(d) Raja Raja Chola. The attacked Kannauj.
Brihadisvara Temple (Dravidian-style) Sol.162.(a) Chola. Ur - Assembly of
Q.167. In the early eleventh century, the
also known as Raja Rajeswara Temple is common villagers. Sabha - Assembly in
Chola king Rajendra I built a Shiva temple
dedicated to Shiva. It was declared a the villages which were inhabited
and filled it with a Sun-pedestal seized
UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987. predominantly by the Brahmanas.
from the ______.
Nagaram - Assembly of merchants,
Q.158. Which among the following Chola SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
traders and artisans.
emperors defeated the Pandya king (a) Palas (b) Vakatakas
Maravarman Rajsimha II in the battle of Q.163. "Brahmadeya", a type of land (c) Chalukyas (d) Kalingas
Vellore? during the Chola Period was the ________.
Sol.167.(c) Chalukyas. Chola king
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC MTS 10/05/2023
Rajendra-I (reigned between 1014 and
(a) Parantaka I (b) Rajendra I (a) land gifted to Brahmans
1044 CE) built a Shiva temple in his
(c) Rajaraja I (d) Vijayalaya (b) land of non-Brahmana peasant
capital, Gangaikondacholapuram (north
proprietors
Sol.158.(a) Parantaka I. Rajaraja I, the Tamil Nadu) and filled it with prized
(c) land gifted to temples
son of Parantaka II, is the most statues seized from defeated rulers such
(d) land of royal person
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 Pinnacle History
as Sun-pedestal (Chalukyas), a Ganesha Q.172. Puhar or Kaveripattinam, was the Sol.175.(d) Raja Bhimdev I. He was a
statue and several statues of Durga, a port of which of the following dynasty? Chaulukya king who ruled parts of
Nandi statue, an image of Bhairava and SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift) present-day Gujarat, India. The Sun
Bhairavi (Kalingas of Orissa), and a Kali (a) Cheras (b) Cholas Temple of Modhera, dedicated to the
statue (Palas of Bengal). (c) Pandyas (d) Vakatakas solar deity Surya, is located in Modhera
village, Mehsana district, Gujarat, on the
Q.168. Who among the following Sol.172.(b) Cholas (8th-12th century AD) bank of the river Pushpavati.
belonged to the ancient chiefly family of was founded by Vijayalaya in the 8th
the Cholas from Uraiyur, captured the century. Rajaraja Chola (greatest king of Q.176. Kautilya has mentioned the
Kaveri delta from the Muttaraiyar in the the Chola Empire) reigned between 985 concept of Saptanga Rajya to understand
middle of the ninth century ? and 1014 C.E. the State with seven organs and one of
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (1st Shift) them is Danda, which means:
(a) Gandaraditya (b) Vijayalaya Miscellaneous SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
(c) Parantaka I (d) Aditya I (a) Ministers (b) Ally (c) Fort (d) Force

Sol.168.(b) Vijayalaya founded the Chola Q.173. With which of the following relief Sol.176.(d) Force. Kautilya, also known
Empire and captured Thanjavur (Capital sculptures were the walls of the great as Chanakya, outlined the Saptanga
of Chola Empire) in 850 CE. He Stupa of Amaravati in the Lower theory of the state in the Arthashastra,
constructed a temple for the goddess Godavari region adorned? identifying seven key components:
Nishumbhasudini in Thanjavur. SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) Swami (King), Amatya (Minister),
(a) Sunken relief (b) Freestanding Janapada (Territory), Durga (Fort), Kosa
Q.169. Which of the following towns was (c) Alto-relievo (d) Bas relief (Treasure), Danda (Army or Force), and
grown as a temple town during the Chola Mitra (Ally).

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dynasty? Sol.173.(d) Bas relief. The Amaravati
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) school of art flourished under the Q.177. The Dhakeshwari Temple in

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(a) Bhillasvamin (b) Ajmer patronage of the Satavahanas in the present day Bangladesh has been
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Ahmednagar Andhra region. Nagarjunkonda, another constructed under the rule of which

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notable site, is renowned for its Buddhist dynasty?
Sol.169.(a) Bhillasvamin. Famous Chola architecture. SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
ap
dynasty temples: Moovar Koil
(a) Chandela (b) Parmara
(Kodumbalur), Koranganatha (Musiri), Q.174. Select the correct alternative on
(c) Rashtrakuta (d) Sena
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Valisvara Temple, Kampaheswarar the given statements based on Ashoka's

Temple (Thirubuvanam). All temples Lion capital and India's State Emblem. Sol.177.(d) Sena. The National Temple
mentioned above are in Tamil Nadu. Statement I: In the original Ashoka's Lion of Bangladesh is the Dhakeshwari
TG

Capital, there are four lions mounted Temple, located in the capital, Dhaka.
Q.170. Which of the following territories back- to-back on a circular abacus that Dhakeshwari means "Goddess of Dhaka"
to the south and north were made part of itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus. and was built in the 12th century by King
the Chola kingdom by the successors of
on

Statement II: The State Emblem is an Ballal Sen of the Sena dynasty.
the ruler Vijayalaya? adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) at Sarnath in which the bell-shaped lotus Q.178. Nataraja represents the dancing
h

(a) Pallava and Chera was omitted. figure of which Hindu deity?
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(b) Pandyan and Pallava SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
(c) Rashtrakuta and Chera
a

(a) Only Statement II is true. (a) Kartikeya (b) Vishnu

(d) Vakataka and Satavahana (c) Shiva (d) Ganesh
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(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are

Sol.170.(b) Pandaya and Pallava. The true.
Sol.178.(c) Shiva. Nataraja is a depiction
Pallava dynasty (275 CE to 897 CE, (c) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
of Shiva performing the cosmic dance of
Capital - Kanchipuram) ruled in Deccan is true.
creation and destruction, known as the
(Tondaimandalam). Pandya (Capital - (d) Only Statement I is true.
Tandava, while surrounded by flames.
Madurai). The Cheras (Capital - Vanji),
Sol.174.(b) Both Statement I and Q.179. The excavated ruins of the
Greatest ruler of Cheras - Senguttuvan,
statement II are true. The Lion Capital of Nalanda University indicate that bright
also known as Red Chera.
Ashoka, carved around 250 BCE, is the red _____ was/were used in its
Q.171. Which dynasty bronze statues head of a column erected by Emperor construction.
were made using the "lost wax" Ashoka at Sarnath, near Varanasi, India. SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (1st Shift)
technique? Ashoka, the 3rd ruler of the Mauryan (a) stone (b) bricks (c) granite(d) marble
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Empire (c. 268–232 BCE), governed a
(a) Chola (b) Pandya (c) Chalukya (d) Pala vast territory that stretched from Sol.179.(b) bricks. The Ancient Nalanda
present-day Afghanistan to Bangladesh, University was founded by Kumaragupta
Sol.171.(a) Chola. Bronze is an alloy of with Pataliputra as its capital. I. Nalanda University was destroyed in
copper and tin. The lost wax technique is 1193 CE by Bakhtiyar Khilji, a Turkish
a method of metal casting in which Q.175. Sun temple at Modhera was built military general. The Chinese scholars
molten metal is poured into a mold that by which of the following rulers? I-Qing and Xuan Zang visited Nalanda in
has been created by means of a wax SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) the 7th century CE. The ancient Nalanda
model. Examples: Nataraja Bronze (a) Govinda II (b) Aditya I was a centre of learning from the 5th
Casting, Shiva and Parvati (Sivagami, (c) Krishna Deva Raya (d) Raja Bhimdev I century CE to 12th century CE. Located
1012 CE), etc. in present day Rajgir, Bihar.
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 Pinnacle History
Q.180. Who excavated the Chira Tope established Islam. He was born around SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
stupa at Taxila? 570 AD in Mecca. In 622 AD, he (a) Pallava (b) Maukhari
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift) completed the Hegira, his migration from (c) Vakataka (d) Chalukya
(a) James Mill Mecca to Medina, to escape persecution.
(b) James Princip Sol.189.(c) Vakataka dynasty originated
Q.185. Gautamiputra Satakarni titled from the Deccan in the mid-3rd century
(c) Alexander Cunningham
Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which CE. Vakatakas were the most important
(d) John Marshall
of the following dynasties? successors of the Satavahanas in the
Sol.180.(d) John Marshall. Dharmarajika SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Deccan and coexistent with the Guptas
Stupa in Taxila, Pakistan is also known (a) Shunga (b) Pandya in northern India.
as Chir Tope, which means "Scarred hill". (c) Satavahana (d) Shaka
Q.190. An inscription, Takht-i-Bahi
Q.181. Which among the following Sol.185.(c) The Satavahana Dynasty, recovered from Mardan near Peshawar,
dynasties originated from the Yueh-chih founded by Simuk, primarily indicates the rule of which of the
tribe of China? encompassed present-day Andhra following dynasties in north-western area
SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Telangana, of present Pakistan?
(a) Guptas (b) Satavahanas along with portions of Gujarat, Karnataka, SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Parthians (d) Kushanas and Madhya Pradesh. (a) Bactrian (b) Sakas
(c) Indo-Greek (d) Parthians
Sol.181.(d) Kushanas. They migrated Q.186. Valabhi, a city of ancient India
from China to Bactria, then to areas of was the capital of the __________ dynasty Sol.190.(d) Parthians (247 BC - 224 AD).
Afghanistan and finally into India around from the 5th to 8th Century CE. It was founded by Arsaces I of Parthia
the 1st century CE. SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) when he rebelled against the Seleucid

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(a) Maitraka (b) Chalukya Empire. They replaced the Sakas in
Q.182. Details about Sudarshana lake
(c) Pallava (d) Vakataka North-Western India. The Takht-i-Bahi

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are given in a rock inscription at Girnar
inscription, dated in 45 AD, refers to
(Junagarh), which was composed to Sol.186.(a) Maitraka. The Maitraka
Gondophernes as a Parthian ruler.

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record the achievements of the Shaka dynasty was founded by Senapati
ruler _________. Bhatarka. The decline of the Gupta Q.191. The Maukharis ruled over which
ap
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Empire led to the rise of various ruling of the following cities in western Uttar
(a) Rudrasimha III (b) Rudradaman I dynasties across northern India. Among Pradesh that over the time replaced
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(c) Chashtana (d) Maues the most notable were the Pushyabhutis Pataliputra as a political centre of north
of Thanesar, the Maukhari of Kanauj, and India?
Sol.182.(b) Rudradaman I. Junagadh
the Maitrakas of Valabhi. SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
inscription is written in the Sanskrit​
TG

language. It is located near Girnar hill (a) Kannauj (b) Bareli (c) Agra (d) Kanpur
Q.187. Vasudeva I who issued coins in
near Junagadh in Gujarat. The Junagadh gold (dinars and quarter dinars) and Sol.191.(a) Kannauj. The Maukharis,
rock contains inscriptions of Ashoka
on

copper (single denomination) was a initially vassals of the Guptas and titled
(one of the fourteen Major Rock Edicts of ________ king. Samantas, gained independence in the
Ashoka), Rudradaman I and SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) mid-6th century as the Gupta Empire
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Skandagupta. (a) Shunga (b) Vakataka declined.

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(c) Shaka (d) Kushana

Q.183. Silappathikaram (the Jewelled Q.192. Under which of the following Pala
a

Anklet), the earliest epic poem in Tamil Sol.187.(d) Kushana. Vasudeva I was the king's patronage the Vikramshila
Se

was written in the 5th - 6th Century CE by last of the "Great Kushans." He ruled in university in 8th century India was
_________. Northern India and Central Asia, where founded?
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) he minted coins in the city of Balkh. The SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Tolkappiyar (b) Ilango Adigal Kushana dynasty was founded by Kujula (a) Gopala (b) Mahipala I
(c) Sittalai Sattanar (d) Tirumalisai Alwar Kadphises. (c) Devapala (d) Dharmapala
Sol.183.(b) Ilango Adigal. Ancient Tamil Q.188. Who among the following is the Sol.192.(d) Dharmapala, the second ruler
literature is known as Sangama hero of the Sanskrit historical poem, the of the Pala Dynasty, ascended the throne
Literature. The Sangam literature 'Ramacharita' written by Sandhyakar around 780 AD after Gopala and
includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Nandi? expanded the empire significantly. He
Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) defeated Indrayudha of Kanauj, installing
epics named – Silappathikaram, and (a) Gopala (b) Devapala Chakrayudha as his nominee, but later
Manimegalai (Written by Sittalai (c) Ramapala (d) Dharmapala faced defeat by Rashtrakuta king Dhruva
Sattanar). The earliest known work in near Monghyr, Bihar.
ancient Tamil is Agastyam. Sol.188.(c) Ramapala was the successor
to the Pala king Shurapala II in the Q.193. Three Poets Pampa, Ponna and
Q.184. In the 7th Century AD, a new Bengal region of the Indian subcontinent, Ranna are called as the ‘Three Jewels’ of:
religion called Islam was born in _______ . and 15th ruler of the Pala line. SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sandhyakar Nandi was patronaged by (a) Kannada Literature
(a) Malaysia (b) South Africa Madanapala, ruler of Pala Dynasty. (b) Telugu Literature
(c) Arabia (d) Indonesia (c) Tamil Literature
Q.189. Vindhyashakti was the founder of
Sol.184.(c) Arabia. Prophet Muhammad (d) Sanskrit Literature
which of the following dynasties?
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.193.(a) Kannada Literature. Pampa, Vidarbha? Brihadratha Maurya. He ruled from 184
also known as Adi Pampa, is renowned SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) BC to 75 BC, driving out the Greeks
for his literary works, including (a) Vakatakas (b) Maukharis through the Shunga-Greek war. The
"Vikramarjuna Vijaya" and "Adi Purana." (c) Maitrakas (d) Chalukyas capital of the Shunga Empire was
Ponna, often referred to as Ponna Pataliputra.
Sol.197.(a) Vakatakas. Vindhyashakti
Kavishwara, served as a court poet for
founded the Vakataka dynasty in the Q.202. Who among the following Pallava
Rashtrakuta king Krishna III and is best
third century. Their history is mainly kings occupied Vatapi (Badami) and
known for his epic "Shantipurana." Ranna
known through land grant charters defeated the Chalukyas?
was a court poet of the Western
issued to Brahmanas. The Maukhari SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Chalukya Empire, and his most
dynasty ruled over (modern day) Uttar (a) Sivaskanda Varman
celebrated work is "Gadayuddha."
Pradesh and parts of Bihar. (b) Parameswaravarman
Q.194. Which of the following kingdoms (c) Simhavarman
Q.198. In 10th century India, Queen Didda
was divided into subdivisions called (d) Narasimhavarman
became the ruler of which of the
Aharas or Rashtras that meant districts?
following regions of north India? Sol.202.(d) Narasimhavarman. Pulakesin
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) II, a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty, reigned
(a) Kushana (b) Parthian
(a) Kannauj (b) Malwa from 610 CE to 642 CE, expanding his
(c) Satavahana (d) Shaka
(c) Delhi (d) Kashmir empire across much of the Deccan
Sol.194.(c) Satavahana : Period : 60 BC - region. However, in 642-643 CE, Pallava
Sol.198.(d) Kashmir. Didda was the ruler
225 AD; Capital - Pratishthana (Paithan) king Narasimha Varman I defeated
of Kashmir from 980 CE to 1003 CE.
and Amravati; Founder - Simuka. The Pulakesin II when his general,
Most knowledge relating to Didda is
lowest level of administration was a Shiruttondar Paranjoti, captured the

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obtained from the Rajatarangini. Ashish
grama which was under the charge of a Chalukya capital, Vatapi. Simhavishnu is
Kaul's novel Didda: The Warrior Queen of

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Gramika. There were also officers called regarded as the founder of the Pallava
Kashmir is based on Didda's life.
amatyas who were perhaps ministers or dynasty, a Tamil dynasty that ruled parts

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advisors of the king. Revenue was Q.199. Mahendravarman I who wrote of South India from the 3rd to the 9th
collected both in cash and kind. It Mattavilasa-prahasana is related to century.
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majorly comprised present Andhra which of the following ruling dynasties?
Pradesh, Telangana, and Maharashtra. Q.203. In the context of Mathura school
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
of Art, during which of the following
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(a) Maitraka (b) Pallava

Q.195. ______, authored by Tolkappiyar is periods were a number of sculptures of
(c) Pushyabhuti (d) Chalukya
the earliest Tamil literature. Brahmanical deities, such as Kartikeya,
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.199.(b) Pallava dynasty (275 CE to Vishnu and Kubera carved?
TG

(a) Tolkappiyam (b) Ettutogai 897 CE) - They ruled a significant portion SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Kalittogai (d) Narrinai of the Deccan, also known as (a) Shaka (b) Parthian
Tondaimandalam, which covered parts of (c) Satavahana (d) Kushana
on

Sol.195.(a) Tolkappiyam. Tamil has a present-day Tamil Nadu and Andhra

literary tradition that goes back to the Pradesh. Founder - Simha Vishnu Sol.203.(d) The Kushan Empire was a
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period of the Sangams. The most (Avanisimha). syncretic empire established by the
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well-known surviving works from this Yuezhi in the Bactrian territories in the
period are the Tolkappiyam (a book of Q.200. The Pratiharas who first had their early 1st century. The Mathura School of
a

grammar attributed to Tolkappiyar), Ettu capital at Bhinmal gained prominence Art flourished under the Kushana
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Togai (Eight Anthologies), Pattu Pattu during the rule of: emperor Kanishka during the first century
(Ten Idylls). SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) AD.
(a) Nagabhatta I (b) Nagarjuna
Q.196. The Pandya Kingdom was first (c) Devpala (d) Kanishka Q.204. Which power were the Badami (or
mentioned by Megasthenes, who said Vatapi) Chalukyas originally subjects of ?
that their kingdom was famous for Sol.200.(a) Nagabhatta I (Reign : 730 - SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
pearls. Their capital was : 760 AD) laid the foundation of the (a) Hoysalas (b) Pandyas
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Pratihara dynasty's power. He is best (c) Kadambas (d) Pallavas
(a) Thanjavur (b) Uraiyur known for defeating the Arabs during
(c) Madurai (d) Kaveripatnam their expansion and building an empire Sol.204.(c) The Kadambas ruled from
that stretched from Gujarat to Gwalior, Banavasi in present-day Karnataka,
Sol.196.(c) Madurai. Megasthenes: A stopping further Arab invasions in marking a significant period in the early
Greek diplomat and historian who eastern Sindh. medieval history of the Deccan region.
mentioned the Pandya Kingdom in his Badami was the capital of the early
book Indica around 300 BCE. The Pandya Q.201. According to the inscriptions, Chalukyan dynasty, which governed the
Kingdom was an ancient Tamil kingdom Pushyamitra Shunga was a devotee of area from 543 to 598 CE. With the
that ruled parts of southern India, which of the following Gods? decline of the Vakataka rule, the
especially Tamil Nadu, from the 6th SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Chalukyas established their dominance
century BCE to the 15th century CE. (a) Rama (b) Shiva (c) Krishna (d) Indra in the Deccan.

Q.197. In peninsular India, which of the Sol.201.(c) Krishna. Pushyamitra Q.205. Which of the following
following kingdoms was the local power Shunga founded the Shunga Empire after statements about the Pala Dynasty of
that ruled over northern Maharashtra and assassinating the last Mauryan emperor, eastern India is INCORRECT?
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 Pinnacle History
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.209.(b) Korkai. Pandya dynasty (4th Sol.213.(a) Rashtrakuta. Dantidurga was
(a) Devapala was the grandson of century BCE to the 17th century CE): the founder of the Rashtrakuta empire
Gopala. Capital - Madurai, Founder - who fixed his capital at Manyakheta or
(b) Dharmapala founded the Valabhi Mudathirumaran. Malkhed near modern Sholapur.
university.
(c) The Pala kings were the followers of Q.210. Dantivarman or Dantidurga was Q.214. During the reign of which of the
Buddhism. the founder of which of the following Pallava kings was the shore temple at
(d) The Pala dynasty was founded by dynasties ? Mahabalipuram built ?
Gopala. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Rashtrakuta (b) Chera (a) Paramesvaravarman I
Sol.205.(b) The Vallabhi University was (c) Pala (d) Pratihara (b) Mahendravarman II
founded by Bhattarka, the king of the (c) Narasimhavarman I
Maitraka Empire, not Dharmapala. Pala Sol.210.(a) Rashtrakuta. Manyakheta
(d) Narasimhavarman II
Dynasty: The Pala dynasty was founded was the capital of the Rashtrakuta
by Gopala, probably around 750 AD. kingdom. The Elichpur clan, initially a Sol.214.(d) Narasimhavarman II, also
Dharmapala was the second ruler of the feudatory of the Badami Chalukyas, rose known as Rajasimha, ruled the Pallava
Pala Empire. to power under Dantidurga by dynasty from 700 to 728 CE. He also
overthrowing Chalukya ruler Kirtivarman constructed the Kailasanatha Temple in
Q.206. Who among the following rulers II and establishing an empire in the Kanchipuram.
was a part of the Tripartite Struggle for Gulbarga region. This clan became
the possession of Kannauj? known as the Rashtrakutas of Q.215. Rajataranagini, the book authored
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Manyakheta, who emerged as a by Kalhana in 12th Century was originally
(a) Prithvi Raj III (b) Yashovarman significant power in written in which of the following

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(c) Dharmapala (d) Mahendra Pal Maharashtra-Karnataka region. languages?
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)

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Sol.206.(c) Dharmapala. The Tripartite Q.211. Krishna III of Rashtrakuta dynasty (a) Tamil (b) Telugu
Struggle, also known as the Kannauj established a victory pillar and a temple (c) Sanskrit (d) Shaurseni

na
Triangle Wars, took place in the 8th and at which of the following cities of south
9th centuries, between the three India after defeating the Chola ruler Sol.215.(c) Sanskrit. The word
ap
dynasties - The Palas of Bengal, The Parantaka I ? "Rajatarangini" means "River of Kings."
Pratiharas of Central India and The SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) This book chronicles the history of the
:@

Rashtrakutas of Deccan. (a) Poompuhar (b) Udaiyalur northwestern Indian subcontinent,

(c) Takkolam (d) Rameswaram specifically the kings of Kashmir. It
Q.207. The founder of the Pallava
contains 7,826 verses divided into eight
TG

dynasty was: Sol.211.(d) Rameswaram. Krishna III sections known as Tarangas (waves).
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) whose Kannada name was Kannara (939
(a) Balasimha (b) Simharaj – 967 C.E.) was the last great warrior Q.216. Who among the following was the
on

(c) Singhamvishnu (d) Simhavishnu and able monarch of the Rashtrakuta founder of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty
dynasty {Founder: Dantivarman}. Its in the region of Malwa in the eighth
Sol.207.(d) Simhavishnu (575-590 AD).
Capital - Manyakheta. Parantaka I was century?
h

He was the first Pallava monarch whose

known as the destroyer of Madurai (the Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
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domain extended beyond Kanchipuram

capital city of the Pandyas). (a) Vatsaraja (b) Mahendrapala I
(Kanchi) in the South. Rise : Defeating
a

(c) Nagabhatta I (d) Mihira Bhoja

Kalabhras inaugurated the rule of Q.212. In Andhra region, who among the
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imperial Pallavas. Royal Titles: following translated a few portions of Sol.216.(c) Nagabhatta I. The Gurjara -
Avanisimha (lion of the Earth). His court Mahabharata in Telugu? Pratiharas Dynasty (8th-11th Century
poet Bharavi - Wrote Kiratarjuniya. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) A.D.) ruled over northern and western
(a) Nanniah (b) Tikkanna India. Nagabhatta I established an
Q.208. Bilhan was a court poet in which
(c) Pampa (d) Kamban empire extending from Gujarat to Gwalior
of the following kingdoms ?
and defied the Arab invasions towards
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.212.(a) Nanniah (Nannayya) is
further east of Sindh.
(a) Vijayaditya VII (b) Vikramaditya VI regarded as the first poet of Telugu
(c) Kulottunga I (d) Rajaraja II literature and is part of the famous Q.217. Which of the following
"Trinity of Poets" (comprising Nannaya, statements are true regarding the Ravana
Sol.208.(b) Vikramaditya VI. The
Tikkana and Erra Pragada) in Telugu Phadi cave at Aihole.
Chalukya dynasty was established by
literature. He began the translation of the 1. Nataraja is the important structure at
Pulakeshin I in 543. He took Vatapi
Mahabharata from Sanskrit into Telugu this site.
(modern Badami in Bagalkot district,
during the 11th century under the 2. This Nataraja image is surrounded on
Karnataka) under his control and made it
patronage of the Eastern Chalukya king, the right by four large saptamatrikas and
his capital. He and his descendants are
Rajaraja Narendra. on the left by three large ones.
referred to as "Chalukyas of Badami".
Q.213. Manyakheta or Malkhed was the 3. The figures have slim, graceful bodies
Q.209. Which of the following was the capital of which of the following with long oval faces.
port-city of the Pandyan Kingdom? kingdoms? 4. The temple shows a distinct feature of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) Pandya architecture of mixing and
(a) Dindigul (b) Korkai (a) Rashtrakuta (b) Shaka incorporation of several styles.
(c) Tenkasi (d) Virudhunagar (c) Satavahana (d) Kushan Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
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 Pinnacle History
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Q.221. Which of the following (c) Maukharis (d) Gaudas
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 statements about the Kushana dynasty is
INCORRECT? Sol.224.(a) Senas Dynasty: A hindu
Sol.217.(d) 1, 2 and 3. The Ravan Phadi Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) dynasty that ruled over eastern Bengal
cave, located in Aihole, Karnataka, is an (a) The Kushanas were a major ruling and western Bihar for about two
example of early Chalukyan architecture. group in the post-Mauryan period. centuries. Important Rulers - Vijaya Sena,
The First capital of the Chalukya Dynasty (b) Many Kushana rulers also adopted Ballal Sena, Lakshmana Sena. Deva
was Aihole which is clear from the the title ‘devaputra’, or ‘son of god’. dynasty - Ruled over eastern Bengal after
inscriptions found in the caves of Aihole. (c) The First Buddhist Council was the Sena dynasty.
The bronze sculpture of Nataraja was organised by Kanishka.
cast during the period of the Cholas Q.225. Who had Sialkot as his capital ?
(d) Asvaghosha, the author of the SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
dynasty. Buddhacharita, was the court poet of (a) Menander (b) Demetrios
Q.218. Consider the following Kanishka. (c) Eukratides (d) Pushyamitra
statements regarding Kailashnath Sol.221.(c) The First Buddhist Council
Temple, Ellora. Sol.225.(a) Menander: A Greek king who
was held during the reign of King
1. It is built completely in the Dravidian ruled over the Indo-Greek kingdom.
Ajatashatru of the Haryanka Dynasty in
style. Demetrios (Greek king): His capital was
Rajgriha. Kanishka belonged to the
2. Its main deity is Lord Shiva. Takshashila. Eucratides: Expanded the
Kushan dynasty, which was founded by
3. This temple was carved out of a Indo-Greek territories into Bactria and the
Kujula Kadphises. The Fourth Buddhist
portion of a hill. northern regions of India. Pushyamitra
Council was held under the patronage of
4. It was built during the Chola phase at Sunga - An Indian king who ruled over the
Kanishka in Kashmir.
Ellora. Sunga dynasty. His capital was

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Which of the given statements is correct ? Q.222. Which of the following rulers is Pataliputra.

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Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) considered as the greatest king of
Q.226. To which of the following
(a) Only 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 Satavahana dynasty and is described as
dynasties were the Vatapi Chalukyas

na
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 1, 3 and 4 the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas and
tributary princes?
Pahlavas?
Sol.218.(b) Only 1, 2 and 3. The Kailasa SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
ap
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
temple at Ellora was built by the (a) Kalyani Chalukyas (b) Cholas
(a) Simuka
Rashtrakuta king Krishna I in the 8th (c) Pallavas (d) Kadambas
:@

(b) Hala
century. Located in Cave 16, it is (c) Gautamiputra Satakarni Sol.226.(d) Kadamba dynasty (Founder -
dedicated to Lord Shiva and was carved (d) Yajna Sri Satakarni Mayurasharma) was an ancient Indian
from a single rock. Named after Mount
TG

dynasty that ruled over parts of South

Kailash, it is the largest of the 34 Sol.222.(c) Gautamiputra Satakarni. He
India, particularly the present-day
Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu cave temples is renowned for his military conquests
Karnataka region, from the 4th to the 6th
at Ellora and was designated a UNESCO and is described in the Nasik inscription
on

centuries CE.
World Heritage site in 1983. as the "destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas,
and Pahlavas." He also used the title of Q.227. Which of the following pairs of
h

Q.219. Who among the following 'Ekabrahaman,' which means the locations are famous for Buddhist
rc

Kushana kings was the founder of the Peerless Brahman. Simuka was the railings and gateways?
Kushana dynasty? founder of the Satavahana dynasty. Hala SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
a

Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) was the seventeenth king of the (a) Bharhut and Amravati
Se

(a) Vasudeva I (b) Vima Kadphises Satavahana Dynasty. (b) Patna and Rajgir
(c) Huvishka (d) Kujula Kadphises (c) Parasnath and Ajanta
Q.223. Who was the author of
Sol.219.(d) Kujula Kadphises. Kushan (d) Sarnath and Kushinagar
“Mahabhashya”?
Dynasty (First-Third Century) : Kanishka - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.227.(a) Bharhut and Amravati.
He administered the territory from two (a) Bana (b) Panini Bharhut Stupa is located in Satna,
capitals : Purushapura (now Peshawar in (c) Patanjali (d) Kautilya Madhya Pradesh. It was discovered in a
northern Pakistan) and Mathura. ruined state by Alexander Cunningham
Vasudeva I - Last Kushana Ruler. Sol.223.(c) Patanjali. “The Yoga Sutra”
and his team. The discovered railing and
was also written by Patanjali. Authors
gateway are now on display at the Indian
Q.220. Kathasaritasagara, a collection of and their books: Kalhana -
Museum (Kolkata). Amravati Stupa was
stories, was written in which of the “Rajatarangini”. Vatsayana - “Kamasutra”.
discovered by Colin Mackenzie (1797).
following languages? Vishnu Sharma - “Panchatantra”. Kautilya
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) - “Arthasastra”. Panini - “Ashtadhyayi”. Q.228. Which of the following is the
(a) Pali (b) Sanskrit Megasthenes - “Indica”. Jayadeva - oldest dated fort in India ?
(c) Prakrit (d) Persian “Gitagovinda”. Sri Harsha - “Naishadha SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Charita”. Banabhatta - “Harshacharita”, (a) Kangra Fort
Sol.220.(b) Sanskrit. The
“Kadambari”. (b) Mehrangarh Fort
Kathasaritsagara (Ocean of Story)
(c) Srirangapatna Fort
written in the 11th century by Somadeva. Q.224. Which of the following dynasties
(d) Golconda Fort
Other Sanskrit Literature: Buddhacarita - succeeded the Palas of Bengal ?
Ashvaghosa; Malavikagnimitram - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.228.(a) Kangra Fort (Nagarkot Fort).
Kalidasa; Harshacharita - Banabhatta. (a) Senas (b) Devas This fort was built by Susharm Chand
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 Pinnacle History
(Katoch Dynasty). Mohammed Ghazni in Sol.232.(a) Pala Dynasty. Temples and Founder - Chandradeva. After the failure
1009 A.D plundered the Shahi treasury at their associated Dynasty: Khajuraho of the Pratiharas, the Gahadavalas
Kangra, Himachal Pradesh. The Katoch Temple (Madhya Pradesh) - Bundelas or established themselves on the throne of
dynasty traces its origins to the ancient Chandelas; Kailash Temple Kanauj. Jai Chand - The last great ruler of
Trigarta Kingdom, mentioned in the (Maharashtra) - Rashtrakutas; Thousand this dynasty. He was killed in the Battle
Mahabharata epic. Forts in India: Pillared Temple, Ramappa Temple of Chandawar in 1194 AD by Mohammad
Golconda Fort - Hyderabad, Mehrangarh (Telangana) - Kakatiyas; Brihadeeswara Ghori.
Fort - Jodhpur (Rajasthan), Srirangapatna Temple (Tamil Nadu) - Cholas;
Fort - Karnataka, Panhala Fort - Kailashnath Temple, Shore Temple Q.237. Alvars were the devotees of
Maharashtra, Daulatabad Fort - (Tamil Nadu) - Pallavas; Dilwara Temple which South Indian cult?
Aurangabad (Maharashtra). (Rajasthan) - Solankies; Virupaksha SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
Temple (Karnataka) - Chalukyas; Sun (a) Shaktism (b) Saivism
Q.229. Brihat Samhita was the treatise of (c) Jainism (d) Vaishnavism
Temple (Gujarat) - Solankis.
which of the following subjects ?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Q.233. Malavikagnimitra, a drama of the Sol.237.(d) Vaishnavism. Nayanars and
(a) Botany (b) Astronomy 5th century CE, was written by Alvars saints belonged to South India.
(c) Geography (d) Natural History SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Some famous Vaishnava devotees :
(a) Kalidasa (b) Harisena Ramanuja, Madhvacharya, Chaitanya
Sol.229.(b) Astronomy. Brihat Samhita - Mahaprabhu, Nimbarkacharya. Jainism -
It is the noted work of Varahamihira. It is (c) Bhavabhuti (d) Pingala
Devotees of Jainism are called Jains
an important encyclopedic text in Sol.233.(a) Kalidasa. He was a court such as Rishabhadeva, Parshvanath,
Sanskrit. Other Samhitas - Jaya Samhita poet of Chandragupta-II (Vikramaditya). Bhadrabahu. Shaktism - Devotees of
(Mahabharat), Charak Samhita Other Books: Meghaduta, Shaktism are called Shaktas. Famous

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(Medicinal Science), Sushruta Samhita Kumarasambhava, Raghuvaṃsa, and Shaktas: Adi Shankaracharya, Sarada
(Book on Surgeries and related science).

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Vikramorvasiya. Harisena - Court poet of Devi, Paramahansa Yogananda.
Q.230. Which ruler of the Chahamana Samudragupta and composed Prayag
Q.238. In the middle of which century did

na
dynasty made Ajmer his capital? pillar inscription in Sanskrit. Bhavabhuti -
A great playwright, best known for his the Arab traveller Sulaiman visit India?
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
ap
(a) Prithviraj III (b) Prithviraj II play Uttara-Ramacharitam (latter part of
Rama's life). Pingala - Ancient Indian poet (a) 15th (b) 9th (c) 11th (d) 6th
(c) Arnoraj (d) Ajayaraja
:@

and mathematician, and the author of the Sol.238.(b) 9th. Travellers Who Visited
Sol.230.(d) Ajayaraja. Chahamanas or Chandaḥsastra. India: Hiuen Tsang (China) - During the
Chauhans dynasty: Chauhans of Delhi
Q.234. The star-shaped temples were reign of Harshavardhana. Al Biruni
TG

and Ajmer, also known as the

built during the reign of: {Khwarizm (present-day Uzbekistan)} - In
Chahamanas of Shakambhari, ruled over
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) 11th century. During the reign of Sultan
part of modern-day Rajasthan. Important
(a) Hoysala (b) Chalukya of Mahmood Ghaznavi. Ibn Battuta
on

Kings : Vasudeva, Ajayaraja, Arnoraja,

(c) Badami (d) Cholas (Morocco) - During the reign of
Vigraharaja IV, Prithviraj Chauhan III, and
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, Marco Polo
Hariraja.
h

Sol.234.(a) Hoysala. Hoysala (Italy) - During the reign of Pandya

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Q.231. Prithviraj Raso, an epic poem Architecture Temples: Aralaguppe is the Kingdom. Megasthenes (Greece) - During
about the life of the 12th century Indian temple dedicated to Lord the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. Abdur
a

king, Prithviraj Chauhan, was written by: Channakeshava (Vishnu). The temple Razzaq (Persia) - During the reign of
Se

SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) was built during the rule of the Hoysala Deva Raya II (Sangama dynasty). Fa Hien
(a) Chand Bardai (b) Banabhatta Empire King Vira Someshwara. (China) - During the reign of
(c) Bharavi (d) Ashvaghosa Chandragupta II. Al Masudi (Arab) - In
Q.235. Which of the following was the 10th century AD.
Sol.231.(a) Chand Bardai. Indian Epics capital of the Hindu Shahi Kingdom?
and writers - Mahabharata (Sage Ved SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.239. The rulers of which of the
Vyasa), Ramayana (Valmiki), (a) Srinagar (b) Lahore following Rajput dynasties patronised
Raghuvamsa (Kalidasa), Buddhacharita (c) Waihind (d) Multan Jainism and one of them is reported to
(Asvogosha), Silapadikaram (Ilango have accepted Jainism under the
Adigal in Tamil), Ramcharitmanas Sol.235.(c) Waihind. Hindu Shahi influence of a Jain scholar
(Tulsidas in Awadhi), Kumarasambava kingdom was founded by Kallar. It ruled Hemachandra?
(Kalidasa in Sanskrit). Banabhatta wrote over Kabul and the old province of SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
Harshacharita and Bharavi wrote Gandhara from the decline of the Kushan (a) Pratihara (b) Parmara
Kiratarjuniya. empire. This kingdom was known as the (c) Chalukya (d) Chahman
Kabul Shahi dynasty.
Q.232. Siddheshwar Mahadev Temple in Sol.239.(c) Chalukya. Pratihara dynasty
Bengal depicts the architecture of which Q.236. The Gahadavalas ruled over - Nagabhatta I was the founder. The
dynasty.? which region of India ? Pratiharas who ruled over Kannauj for a
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift) long time are also called Gurjara-
(a) Pala Dynasty (a) Ajmer (b) Malwa (c) Kanauj (d) Patan Pratiharas. Parmar dynasty - Founded by
(b) Hussain Shahi dynasty Upendra or Krishnaraja. Capital: Ujjain,
Sol.236.(c) Kanauj. Gahadavalas or
(c) Chalukya dynasty Later - Dharan Nagari (Dhar).
Rathors of Kanauj (1090-1194 AD):
(d) Shunga Dynasty
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 Pinnacle History
Q.240. Alha and Udal, who gave stiff SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.248. The Rampurva bull that was part
resistance to the enemy, belonged to (a) Pushya mitra (b) Bhavbhuti of a Mauryan pillar found in Rampurwa,
which of the following Rajput States? (c) Shashanka (d) Devabhuti Bihar is now placed at _______.
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift) SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.244.(d) Devabhuti. He was
(a) Parmar (b) Kalchuri (a) Pradhan Mantri Bhavan
assassinated by his minister (Vasudeva
(c) Chandella (d) Gahadavala (b) Sansad
Kanva). Other Kings of Shunga Dynasty:
(c) Rajpath
Sol.240.(c) Chandella (Founder - Pushyamitra Shunga (Founder of Shunga
(d) Rashtrapati Bhawan
Nannuk). They were originally vassals of Dynasty), Agnimitra, Vasujyeshtha,
the Gurjara - Pratiharas. The Chandelas Vasumitra, Bhagabhadra. Shashanka: Sol.248.(d) Rashtrapati Bhawan. The
initially ruled as feudatories of the The first king of ancient Bengal, governed Pillars of Ashoka are the most famous
Gurjara-Pratiharas of Kanyakubja the Gauda Kingdom from 600 to 625 AD. examples of Mauryan art. The
(Kannauj). Original capital - Khajuraho. Bhavabhuti: A famous Sanskrit Rashtrapati Bhavan houses the imposing
The last King of this dynasty - Paradidev playwright who wrote famous plays like 3rd century BC Ashoka pillar of
(Parmadi). His generals - Alha and Udal. Mahaviracharita, Malatimadhava etc. sandstone known as the Rampurva bull.
Battle of Mahoba: Fought between It got its name from the place of its
Q.245. Of which of the following
Paradidev and Prithviraj Chauhan-III in discovery, Rampurwa in Bihar.
Pratihara kings was Rajashekhara, the
1182 AD.
famous poet and dramatist, the court Q.249. Who among the following was the
Q.241. The Pala Dynasty rulers were poet? last Pallava king?
primarily patrons of which religion? SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 2nd shift) SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Rajapala (b) Devapala (a) Mahendravarman - I
(a) Buddhist (b) Jain (c) Ramabhadra (d) Mahendrapala (b) Aparajitavarman

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(c) Hindu (d) Islam Sol.245.(d) Mahendrapala (885-910 AD). (c) Narasimhavarman - I

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Works of Rajshekhara: (d) Simhavishnu
Sol.241.(a) Buddhist. Pala Dynasty -
Viddhashalabhanjika, Balabharata,
Founded by Gopala, in 750 AD. They were Sol.249.(b) Aparajitavarman. Pallava

na
Karpuramanjari, Balaramayana,
staunch supporters of Mahayana dynasty (275 CE to 897 CE) - Also known
Kavyamimamsa. Gurjara Pratihara
Buddhism. They were in a tripartite as Tondaimandalam. Founder - Simha
ap
dynasty (8th to 11th century): Founder -
struggle between the Palas, the Vishnu (Avanisimha). Mahendravarman -
Harichandra. Mihira Bhoja (836-885 AD) -
Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas for the He defeated the Kalabhras and
:@

Most powerful Partihara king. Yashpala

control of Kanauj and North India. re-established the Pallava kingdom.
(1024- 1036) - last ruler of the Gurjara
Narashimhavarman-1 - Son of
Q.242. Who among the following was the Pratihara dynasty.
Mahendravarman.
TG

author of the play 'Mrichchhakatika'?

Q.246. Who were the first to make land
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.250. The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
grants to Brahmins?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Amarasimha was constructed in 999 A.D. by the king
on

Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)

(c) Shudraka (d) Bhasa Dhangadeva of ______ dynasty.
(a) Sakas (b) Satavahanas
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.242.(c) Shudraka. Mrichchhakatika (c) Guptas (d) Kushans
h

(a) Chandela (b) Pala (c) Pallava (d) Chola

play was translated into English by Arthur
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Sol.246.(b) Satavahanas (1st Century BC

W. Ryder in 1905 as “The Little Clay Cart”. to 3rd Century AD): Simuka was the Sol.250.(a) Chandela. Kandariya
a

Other Sanskrit plays of Shudraka: founder. Sakas (2nd century BCE to the Mahadeva temple - built at Khajuraho
Se

“Vinavasavadatta”, “Padmaprabhritaka”, 4th century CE) - The most famous (Madhya Pradesh), made up of
“a bhana” (short one -act monologue). Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman sandstone. Its first mention is found in ‘al
(130 A.D to 150 A.D.), came to an end Biruni’ And ‘Ibn Battuta’ work. It follows
Q.243. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini is a the Nagara Style of architecture and was
renowned work on ______. with the defeat of the last Shaka ruler,
Rudrasimha III by Chandragupta-II (Gupta recognized by UNESCO as a world
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift) heritage site in 1986. Other temples built
(a) Mauryan Polity dynasty). Kushans (First – Third
Centuries) - Founded by Kujula by Chandela dynasty (Founder - Nanuka):
(b) Gupta Administration Devi Jagdamba Temple, Chitragupta
(c) Medicine Kadphises.
Temple, Laxmana Temple.
(d) Sanskrit Grammar Q.247. During the reign of which of the
following Pallavas, Hiuen Tsang visited Q.251. In the mid-eighth century,
Sol.243.(d) Sanskrit Grammar. Ancient Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief,
Authors and books : (Kautilya) the Pallava capital Kanchi?
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) overthrew his Chalukya overlord and
Chanakya's work - “Arthashastra” (on performed a ritual literally called a ______.
(a) Narasimhavarman I
statecraft, political science, economic SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Narasimhavarman II
policy and military strategy). Maharshi (a) Prarthna sabha (b) Golden womb
(c) Mahendravarman II
Charak - “Charaka Samhita” (a famous (c) Horse ride (d) Subsidiary alliance
(d) Mahendravarman I
text of ayurveda) - Ayurveda. “Sushruta
Samhita” - A comprehensive textbook on Sol.247.(a) Narasimhavarman I. He was Sol.251.(b) Golden womb
medicine and surgery. also known as Mahamalla or Mamalla, (Hiranyagarbha). This ritual was
which means "great wrestler”. He took performed with the help of Brahmanas, it
Q.244. Who was the last king of the was thought to lead to the “rebirth” of the
the title Vatapikonda (the conqueror of
Shunga dynasty? sacrificer as a Kshatriya, even if he was
Vatapi).
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 Pinnacle History
not one by birth. The first known ruler of (a) Three taxes (b) Three ports Q.260. Who among the following was the
the dynasty was Dantidurga who (c) Three chiefs (d) Three horses founder of the Kanva dynasty?
conquered Badami in 752 A.D., defeating SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
the Chalukyas. Sol.256.(c) Three chiefs. It is a reference (a) Narayana (b) Susharman
to the three ruling families of Tamil Nadu (c) Vasudeva (d) Devabhuti
Q.252. The emblem of the Chera Dynasty during the Sangam period: the Cholas,
that controlled the central and northern the Cheras, and the Pandyas. Sol.260.(c) Vasudeva Kanva (73-63 BCE)
parts of Kerala and the Kongu region of founded the Kanva dynasty (72–28 BCE,
Tamil Nadu was _________ . Q.257. The term 'Kammakaras' in ancient Kanvayanas). Rulers of the Kanva
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) times is related to ________. dynasty - Bhumimitra (64-50 BCE),
(a) birds (b) fish SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) Narayana (50-38 BCE), Susarman (38-28
(c) bow and arrow gan (d) tiger (a) Landless agricultural labourers BCE). Capital: Patliputra . Devabhuti - the
(b) Craftsmen last ruler of the Sunga Dynasty.
Sol.252.(c) Bow and Arrow Gan. The (c) Tax collecting officer
symbol also appears on the coins the (d) Goldsmith Q.261. The rulers of which of the
dynasty minted. The dynasty controlled following dynasties built the Khajuraho
the central and northern parts of Kerala Sol.257.(a) Landless agricultural temples between 950 to 1050 A.D in
and the Kongu region of Tamil Nadu. labourers. Terminologies related in central India?
Their capital was Vanji, Tamil Nadu. ancient times - Shrenis: In ancient times, SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
crafts persons and merchants formed (a) Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty
Q.253. Which of the following is NOT associations. Samaharta and Sanidata - (b) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
part of six schools of Indian Philosophy? Tax collecting officers in ancient times. (c) Pala Dynasty
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) Sonalika is a Sanskrit word that refers to (d) Chandela Dynasty

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(a) Samkhya (b) Yoga a goldsmith. Grihapatis- independent
(c) Nyaya (d) Dravida farmers. An agrahara was land granted Sol.261.(d) Chandela Dynasty. The

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to a Brahmana. Khajuraho Group of Monuments are a
Sol.253.(d) Dravida. Samkhya: Founded
group of Hindu and Jain temples in

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by - Kapila (Book - Samkhya sutra) : It Q.258. Who among the following gave up Chhatarpur district, Madhya Pradesh,
holds that reality is constituted of two his traditional professions and took to Known for its Erotic Sculpture. The
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principles of one female (Prakriti) and the arms, successfully established a Pratiharas, also known as the Gurjara
other male (Purusha). Yoga - Union of the kingdom in Karnataka? -Pratiharag (Founder - Harichandra). The
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two principal entities. Nyaya: A technique SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) most well-known king of this dynasty
of logical thinking. Author of the Nyaya (a) Vasudeva Kanva was Bhoja or Mihira Bhoja.
Sutras - Gautama. (b) Gurjara-Pratihara Harichandra
TG

(c) Pushyamitra Shunga Q.262. In which of the following

Q.254. The Amaravati School of art was
(d) Kadamba Mayurasharman languages did Amoghavarsha write
developed under the patronage of _____ .
Kavirajamarga?
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
on

Sol.258.(d) Kadamba Mayurasharman SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)

(a) Cholas (b) Cheras was a Brahmana. The Kadamba (a) Tamil (b) Sanskrit
(c) Satavahanas (d) Palas Mayurasharman (345–365 C.E.) was the
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(c) Kannada (d) Telugu

founder of the Kadamba Kingdom of
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Sol.254.(c) Satavahanas. Different

Banavasi (Karnataka). Kadimi Chettu Sol.262.(c) Kannada. Amoghavarsha
School of arts: Gandhara School of Art
a

(story of Mayur Sharma) was written by (Rashtrakuta ruler) also wrote

(Kushana) - It developed in the North
Se

Visawanatha Satyanarayana {Padma ‘Prasnottara Ratna Malika’ (Sanskrit). He

West Frontier, in the modern-day
Bhushan (1970), Jnanpith Award (1971)}. patronized many Indian scholars
Kandahar region. Mathura School of Art
including mathematician Mahaviracharya
(Kushana) - It developed around Mathura. Q.259. Ravikirti was the court poet of , who wrote Ganita -sara- samgraha,
which of the following dynasty rulers ? Jinasena, Virasena, Shakatayan, and Sri
Q.255. Who among the following was a
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) Vijaya (a Kannada language theorist). He
famous ruler of the Pandya dynasty of
(a) Cholas (b) Cheras held titles such as Nrupathunga,
South India?
(c) Pallavas (d) Chalukyas Atishadhavala, Veeranarayana,
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) Nedunjeliyan II (b) Karikala Sol.259.(d) Chalukya dynasty. The Jain Rattamarthanda , and Srivallabha during
(c) Ashoka (d) Nizam Shah poet Ravikirti was the court poet of his reign. Historian Panchamukhi called
'Pulakeshin II' (610 to 642 CE), the first him the ‘Ashoka of South’.
Sol.255.(a) Nedunjeliyan II. He was
sovereign ruler of the Chalukya dynasty Q.263. Which king of the Pala dynasty
made ‘Pandya supreme in the south’. He
of Vatapi (modern Badami). Ravikirti's defeated Indrayudh and made
defeated a confederacy of the Cholas
Aihole inscription (a nineteen-line Chakrayudha as the ruler of Kannauj?
and Cheras at Talaiyalanganam near
Sanskrit inscription), in honour of his Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Tiruvarur. His deeds have been described
patron king, is found in the Meguti Jain (a) Dharmapala (b) Mahendrapala
in the Maduraikkanci. Pandya Empire -
temple at Aihole, Karnataka. Chalukya (c) Devapala (d) Gopala
Established by King Kadungon in the 6th
dynasty (between 6th and 12th
century AD. Capital - Korkai, Madurai.
centuries). Pallava dynasty (275 CE to Sol.263.(a) Dharampala (770-810)
Q.256. Sangam poems mention a Tamil 897 CE). Chera dynasty (in the Sangam founded the Vikramshila University
word 'Muvendar' which means ________. period and before). Chola dynasty (300 (Bhagalpur, Bihar) and built Somapuri
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning) BCE to 1279 CE). monastery, Bihar. In 750 AD, Gopala
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 Pinnacle History
founded the Pala dynasty. Capital: Sol.268.(a) Lord Shiva. The caves of the second phase of excavation under
Muddagiri/ Munger (Bihar). Elephanta were built by the Rashtrakuta the patronage of King Harisena of the
rulers. They are on Elephanta Island, or Vakataka dynasty.
Q.264. Mukteshwara Temple is a Gharapuri, in Mumbai Harbour. There are
10th-century Hindu temple dedicated to about 34 caves. These are declared a Q.273. Kolathunadu, Valluvanad and
Shiva, located in _______. World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1987. Thekkumkoor were ancient small-time
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Afternoon) kingdoms in which state of India?
(a) Assam (b) Odisha Q.269. In which of the following temples SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning)
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat will you find Gopurams? (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Afternoon) (c) Kerala (d) Bihar
Sol.264.(b) Odisha (Bhubaneswar).
(a) Shiva Temple, Chidambaram
Ancient temples - Virupaksha Temple, Sol.273.(c) Kerala. Kolathunadu - land
(b) Bhabatarini Temple, Dakshineswar
Hampi (Built by Lakkan Dandesha, a lying between Perumba river in the north
(c) Golden Temple, Amritsar
chieftain under the ruler Deva Raya II), and Putupattanam river in the south.
(d) Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu
Ellora Kailashanatha Temple (Krishna I of Valluvanad (Founder - Ilayi Raja) - Region
Rashtrakuta), Sun Temple Konark Sol.269.(a) Shiva Temple, between Meenachil and Pamban rivers.
(Eastern Ganga King Narsimhadeva-1). Chidambaram. A gopuram or gopura is a Thekkumkoor - The region between the
monumental tower, usually ornate, at the Nila river and Panthaloor Hills.
Q.265. Queen Rudramadevi belonged to
entrance of any temple, especially in
which dynasty of India?
Southern India. They are a prominent
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) Medieval History
feature of koils, Hindu temples built in
(a) Chola (b) Kakatiya
the Dravidian style. They are topped by
(c) Chalukya (d) Chera Foreign Invasions
the kalasam, a bulbous stone finial.

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Sol.265.(b) Kakatiya. Marco Polo Nataraja temple in Chidambaram, Tamil

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mentioned her in his writings. Rudradeva Nadu is one of the famous examples of Q.274. In which of the following battles
I was the first independent ruler of this Gopuram. did Muhammad of Ghor defeat

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kingdom of Warangal. Their capital was Jayachandra of Gahadavala dynasty in
Orugallu, now known as Warangal. In Q.270. Who among the following wrote 1194 AD?
the basic text of Vaisheshika philosophy? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
ap
1323 Prince Jaunakhan (Muhammad bin
Tughlaq) defeated Prataparudra Deva SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Morning) (a) First battle of Tarain
(a) Kanada (b) Shankaracharya (b) Battle of Chandawar
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(the last ruler of this kingdom) and

annexed their kingdom (c) Patanjali (d) Jaimini (c) Battle of Anhilwara
(d) Second battle of Tarain
Q.266. Which place had a water Sol.270.(a) Kanada. It is an ancient
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harvesting system channeling the flood Sanskrit text at the foundation of the Sol.274.(b) Battle of Chandawar. Mu'izz
water of the Ganga river in the first Vaisheshika school of Hindu philosophy. ad-Din Muhammad, also known as
century B.C ? Vaisheshika is one of the six classical Muhammad Ghori, was the Sultan of the
on

SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Evening) schools of Indian philosophy, often Ghurid Empire. First battle of Tarain
(a) Kanpur (b) Gorakhpur referred to as "Darshanas." (1191) - Prithviraj Chauhan's Rajput
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(c) Mirzapur (d) Sringaverapura forces defeat Muhammad Ghori's Ghurid

Q.271. Yashovigraha, Mahichandra and
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army. Second battle of Tarain (1192) -

Sol.266.(d) Sringaverapura (near Chandradeva were the first three rulers of
Mohammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj
a

Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh). Water ______ dynasty.

Chauhan. Battle of Anhilwara (1178) -
Se

harvesting in India - Dholavira in SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon)

Mohammad Ghori was defeated by
Harappan civilization, Bhopal Lake (built (a) Maratha (b) Chauhans
Gujarat king Mularaja II.
by the Paramara Raja Bhoj in 11th (c) Gahadavala (d) Wadiyar
century), Iltutmish constructed a tank in Q.275. In the 11th century, under
Sol.271.(c) Gahadavala. Yashovigraha
Hauz Khas for supplying water to the Siri Maḥmud of Ghazni, Ghazni, a small town
was the founder of the Gahadavala
Fort (14th century). in ______, became the capital of the vast
dynasty. The majority of the Gahadavala
empire of the Ghaznavids.
Q.267. Which state of India was ruled by epigraphic records were discovered in
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
the Ningthouja dynasty? Uttar Pradesh.
(a) Egypt (b) Persia
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.272. In which of the following caves is (c) Afghanistan (d) Turkey
(a) Manipur (b) Haryana
(c) Gujarat (d) Assam the painting named ‘Padmapani
Sol.275.(c) Afghanistan. Mahmud of
Bodhisattva’ found?
Ghazni was a Turkish conqueror who
Sol.267.(a) Manipur . It has 125 SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon)
attacked India 17 times between 1000 to
extended families. It was apparently (a) Ajanta Cave No. 4
founded by King Nongda Lairen 1027 AD. In 1018 he plundered the holy
(b) Ajanta Cave No. 2
Pakhangba in 33 CE. city of Mathura and also attacked
(c) Ajanta Cave No. 3
Kannauj. In 1019 and 1029 he undertook
Q.268. The Caves of Elephanta are (d) Ajanta Cave No. 1
two raids on Gangetic valley. In 1025 he
predominantly dedicated to which of the attacked Somnath (a town on the coast
Sol.272.(d) Ajanta Cave No. 1. The
following deities? of Kathiawar).
iconic Ajanta paintings Padmapani and
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Vajrapani glorify the walls of the Cave 1
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Krishna Q.276. In which year Timur's invasion of
of Ajanta. Cave 1 of Ajanta was built in
(c) Lord Rama (d) Lord Ganesha Delhi took place?
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 Pinnacle History
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Qutb-ud-din Aibak, who became the first Rajasekhara), Saluva Dynasty (Saluva
(a) 1398 (b) 1221 (c) 1492 (d) 1526 Sultan of Delhi in 1206. The dynasty Narasimha, Sadasiva), Tuluva Dynasty
ruled Delhi from 1206 to 1290. Khilji (Rama, Venkata), Aravidu Dynasty
Sol.276.(a) 1398. Timur invaded India in Dynasty: The second dynasty of the Delhi (Tirumala Raya, Sriranga III).
1398 during the reign of Nasir-ud-Din Sultanate, ruling from 1290 to 1320.
Mahmud Shah Tughluq of the Tughlaq Tughlaq Dynasty: The third dynasty of the Q.284. Which of the following systems of
Dynasty. After the invasion, Timur Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1320 to the Delhi sultanate had a influence on the
appointed Khizr Khan as the ruler of 1414. Lodi Dynasty: The last dynasty of Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms?
Punjab. Khizr Khan later founded the the Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sayyid Dynasty (1414–1451). 1526. (a) Walis (b) Chahalgani
(c) Bitikchi (d) Iqtadari
Q.277. The famous Arabic scholar Al Q.281. Ibn Battuta, who visited India
Biruni came into contact with India during Delhi Sultanate, originally Sol.284.(d) Iqtadari System:- Introduced
through _____ in the eleventh century A.D. belonged to which country? by Shamsuddin IIltutmish (3rd Sultan of
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Delhi). Provision - Under this system, the
(a) Abdullah Shah Ghazi (a) Russia (b) Morocco land of the empire was divided into
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi (c) England (d) Egypt several large and small tracts called Iqta
(c) Al-Walid I and assigned these Iqtas to his soldiers,
(d) Muhammad Bin Qasim Sol.281.(b) Morocco. Ibn Battuta visited officers and nobles. Administrative
India in 1333 during the reign of Terms used in Sultanate Period: Dabir
Sol.277.(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi Muhammad bin Tughlaq, who appointed (Secretary), Faujdar (Commander of
(998 - 1030 AD) attacked India 17 times him as the qazi (judge) of Delhi. Other army), Sipahsalar (Commander), Amil
between 1000 to 1027 AD. Al-Biruni’s notable foreign travelers : Hiuen Tsang (Revenue officer), Diwan (Office: the

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Books: Kitab-ul-Hind and Tahkik-e- Hind. (China) - Harshavardhana's court; central secretariat).

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Al-Beruni (Persia) - Came with Mahmud
Q.278. When did the Mongol ruler Q.285. During the Sultanate of Delhi, the
of Ghazni; Francois Bernier (France) -
Genghis Khan die? term "Ulema" was associated with ______.

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Shahjahan and Aurangzeb's court.
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) 1219 (b) 1210 (c) 1235 (d) 1227 Q.282. In reference to the Delhi (a) Learned theologians and Jurists
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Sultanate, what was the ‘Group of Forty’? (b) Commander-in-chief
Sol.278.(d) 1227. Genghis Khan (original
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (c) Postal officer
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name Temujin) was a Mongolian

(a) They were mostly powerful Turkish (d) Village Revenue officer
warrior-ruler, one of the most famous
slaves of Iltutmish, who took power
conquerors of history, who consolidated Sol.285.(a) Learned theologians and
in the interregnum following Sultana
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tribes into a unified Mongolia and then Jurists. Officers in Delhi Sultanate - State
Raziyya’s killing.
extended his empire across Asia to the Level: Amil (Revenue Officer), Barid
(b) They were forty military archers who
Adriatic Sea. His last campaign against (Intelligence agents), Khwaja (Accounts
distinguished themselves by their
on

the Western Xia. Officer), Kotwal (Head of city law and

bravery in the Delhi Sultanate.
Q.279. Who among the following was the (c) They were forty banjara leaders who order), Muhatasib (Head of municipality
h

best-known Chahamana ruler? transferred military supplies in times law and order), Muftis (Expounder of
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SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) of war. law).

(a) Prithviraja III (b) Vigraharaja II (d) They were forty Rajput nobles who
a

Q.286. Who among the following was the

(c) Prithviraja l (d) Vasudeva planned a coup to dethrone Qutb ud
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daughter of Iltumish, a ruler of Slave

Din Aibak in 1210.
Sol.279.(a) Prithviraj III (1168-1192). He Mamluk dynasty?
defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori in Sol.282.(a) The 'Group of Forty' (Chalisa) SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
1191 (first Battle of Tarain), but he was in the Delhi Sultanate was a council of (a) Kubra Noorzai (b) Harkha
defeated by Ghori in 1192 (second Battle powerful Turkish slaves, formed by (c) Razia Sultan (d) Shafiqa Ziayee
of Tarain). Vigraharaja II {(971-998), Iltutmish to assist in governance.
Sol.286.(c) Razia Sultan. In 1236, Razia
Chahamana dynasty}. Prithviraj I {(1090 Sultan (Mamluk dynasty), succeeded her
Q.283. Who was the Sultan of Delhi at
-1110), Chahamana dynasty}. Vasudeva father to the Sultanate of Delhi. She sent
the time of the establishment of
{(73 BCE to 28 BCE), founder of Kanvas an expedition against Ranthambore to
Vijayanagara Empire?
Dynasty}. control the Rajputs. Mamluk dynasty
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Nasiruddin Mahmud (1206 to 1290) - Founded by Qutbuddin
Delhi Sultanate (b) Iltutmish Aibak (Lakh Baksh).
(1206 AD to 1526 AD) (c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Q.287. Under the Delhi Sultanate, a
(d) Alauddin Khilji
religious tax ________ was imposed on
Q.280. Which was the first dynasty of the
Sol.283.(c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq . the wealthy and rich Muslims in India.
Delhi Sultanate?
Vijaynagar Empire: Established - 1336 by SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Harihara and Bukka. Capital - Hampi. The (a) Firuz (b) Mamluk (c) Zakat (d) Kismat
(a) Mamluk dynasty (b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khilji dynasty (d) Lodi dynasty Empire stretched from Krishna river in
Sol.287.(c) Zakat. Zakat tax was
the north to extreme south of the
abolished by Sikander lodi. Firoz Shah
Sol.280.(a) Mamluk dynasty: Also known peninsula. Dynasties with first and last
Tughlaq introduced four types of taxes
as the Slave Dynasty, founded by rulers - Sangama Dynasty (Harihara I,
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 Pinnacle History
based on the Quran. They were Kharaj Amir Khusrau (Books - ‘Tughlaq Nama’, Sol.295.(b) Balban. Ghiyasuddin Balban
(Land tax), Khams (Tax on booty ‘Nuh Sipihr’, ‘Khazain ul Futuh’ ). (Reigned : 1266–1287) was the ninth
captured in war), Jizya (Imposed on non sultan of the Slave dynasty of Delhi. He
muslim), and Zakat. Q.292. Who was the ruler of Delhi belonged to the famous group of 40
sultanate when Ibn Batuta came to India? Turkic slaves of Iltutmish. He was the
Q.288. Who composed Tabaqat-i-Nasiri SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon) first Muslim ruler to formulate the 'theory
in the Delhi Sultanate period? (a) Alauddin Khilji of kingship' similar to the 'theory of the
SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023 (b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq divine right of the kings'. He established
(a) Hasan Nizami (b) Amir Khusrau (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq the military department “Diwan-i-Arz”.
(c) Minhaj-us-Siraj (d) Ziauddin Barani (d) Ibrahim Lodi
Q.296. Raziya Sultan was the first and
Sol.288.(c) "Tabaqat-i-Nasiri'' (1260) was Sol.292.(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was only female ruler of the Sultanate, who
written by Minhaj-i-Siraj in Persian the ruler of the Delhi sultanate when Ibn ascended the throne in:
language. He was a chronicler during the Batuta came to India. Muhammad bin SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
rule of Sultan Iltutmish. Hasan Nizami Tughluq was the Sultan of Delhi from (a) 1238 AD (b) 1236 AD
(Persian language poet) wrote 1324 to 1351 from the Tughlaq Dynasty. (c) 1241 AD (d) 1242 AD
Tajul-Maasir (the first official history of
the Delhi Sultanate). Sufi poet Amir Slave Dynasty Sol.296.(b) 1236 AD. Razia Sultana was
Khusro was the court poet of Alauddin the daughter of Iltutmish and served as
Khilji. His famous works: Tughluq Nama, Q.293. Who was appointed as the the Sultan of Delhi from 1236 to 1240.
Wast-ul-Hayat, Nuh Sipihr, Ashiqa, governor of Bengal by Sultan Balban She was married to Malik Altunia, the
Khamsa, Baqia-Naqia. Ziauddin Barani after the revolt and subsequent death of governor of Bathinda. She was buried in
(Muslim political thinker of Delhi Tughril Beg? Kaithal, Haryana. She was imprisoned by

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Sultanate) wrote Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (1st Shift) Malik Ikhtiyar-ud-din Altunia in the Qila

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Fatwa-i-Jahandari. (a) Zafar Khan (b) Bughra Khan Mubarak Fort (Bathinda). The book
(c) Khizr Khan (d) Mahmud Khan "Razia Queen of India" was written by
Q.289. Zafar khan was a famous General

na
Rafiq Zakaria about her life.
of which of the following rulers of the Sol.293.(b) Bughra Khan. After
Delhi Sultanate? Nasir-ud-din Mahmud died in 1266, Q.297. Which of the following Delhi
ap
SSC CGL Tier II 03/03/2023 Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-1287) sultans introduced two coins, namely
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Iltutmish ascended the throne. He was also the silver tanka and copper jital?
:@

(c) Muhammad bin Tughluq (d) Balban first muslim ruler to formulate the ‘theory SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
of Kingship’. Balban introduced the (a) Qutbuddin Aibak (b) Bahlul Lodi
Sol.289.(a) Alauddin Khilji’s Generals : practice of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (c) Ghiyasuddin Balban (d) Iltutmish
TG

Hizabruddin (Zafar Khan), Almas Beg (kissing the feet of Monarch). Tughril Beg
(Ulugh Khan), Malik Kafur (Taj al-Din Izz revolted against Balban, Sultan of Delhi, Sol.297.(d) Iltutmish (1210 - 1236). He
al-Dawla), Nusrat Khan (Malik Nusrat and declared himself as an independent was a slave and son-in-law of
on

Jalesari). Muhammad bin Tughlaq ruler of Bengal in 1279. Qutubuddin Aibak, considered the real
(Jauna Khan): Introduced token currency. founder of Delhi Sultanate.
Q.294. Which of the following
h

Q.290. Who among the following rulers departments of Delhi Sultanate was Q.298. Balban followed the tradition of
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ruled before Prithviraj Chauhan over reorganized by Balban? ‘Sijda and Pabos’ from which of following
a

Delhi? SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) traditions?

Se

SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (a) Diwan-i-Ishtiaq (b) Diwan-i-Arz SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban (c) Diwan-i-Risalat (d) Diwan-i-Mustakhraj (a) Persian (b) Roman
(b) Ananga Pala (c) Mangol (d) Chinese
(c) Jalaluddin Khalji Sol.294.(b) Diwan-i-Arz (Department of
(d) Qutbuddin Aibak Military). Central Departments of Delhi Sol.298.(a) Persian. 'Sijda' refers to the
Sultanates: ‘Diwan-i-Risalat’ - Department act of prostration or bowing down, and
Sol.290.(b) Ananga Pala Tomar - of Appeals, ‘Diwan-i-Bandagan’- 'Pabos' refers to the kissing of the
founded Delhi in 1052. An inscription of Department of Slaves, monarch's feet.
Vikram Samvat 1383 in the Delhi ‘Diwan-i-Qaza-i-Mamalik’ - Department of
Museum confirms the founding of Delhi Q.299. Who among the following Delhi
Justice, ‘Diwan-i-Ishtiaq’ - Department of
by the Tomars. Sultanate rulers took the policy of ‘blood
Pensions, ‘Diwan - i - Mustakhraj’-
and iron’ to deal with the Mewati
Departments of Arrears, ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’
Q.291. Who was the author of Tarikh - i - community?
- Department of Charity, ‘Diwan-i-Kohi’-
Mubarak Shahi which is a Persian SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
Department of Agriculture, ‘Diwan
language chronicle of the Delhi (a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Rajiya
-i-Wizarat’ - Head Wazir, ‘Diwan -i-Waqoof’
Sultanate? (c) Balban (d) Iltutmish
- Department of Revenue.
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Jawahar-fi-Jawahir Sol.299.(c) Balban. The policy of 'blood
Q.295. Which of the following Sultans of
(b) Khazain-ul-Futuh and iron' implied being ruthless to the
Delhi primarily adopted a policy of
(c) Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi enemies, use of sword, harshness and
consolidation rather than expansion?
(d) Yahya bin Ahmad Sirhindi strictness and shedding blood. Ghiyas ud
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
din Balban was the ninth sultan of the
(a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Balban
Sol.291.(d) Yahya bin Ahmad Sirhindi. Mamluk/Slave dynasty of Delhi.
(c) Alauddin Khalji (d) Bahlol Lodi
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 Pinnacle History
Q.300. Mameluke style of architecture (d) Qutb ud-Din Aibak initially a slave who rose to become the
belongs to which dynasty? Sultan of Delhi, ruling from 1266 to 1287
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Sol.304.(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud CE. He was known for his theory of
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Slave dynasty (1246-1266 AD) - Eighth ruler of Slave kingship and strong centralized
(c) Khilji dynasty (d) Tughlaq dynasty dynasty (Mamluk dynasty). Minhaj -i-Siraj administration.
was his court historian. Balban
Sol.300.(b) Slave dynasty (1206 - 1290) - (1266-1287 AD) : He pursued the policy Q.309. Quwwat al-Islam mosque and
It is also known as the Mamluk Dynasty. of ‘blood and iron’. Razia Sultan minaret, built during the last decade of
Established by - Qutbuddin Aibak (1206 - (1236-1240 AD) : First muslim woman to the ______ century.
1210). Capitals - Lahore . Famous rule over Delhi sultanate. SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
buildings built by rulers of the slave (a) eleventh (b) thirteenth
dynasty: Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Qutub Q.305. Who among the following
(c) fourteenth (d) twelfth
Minar, Adhai Din ka Jhonpra, Tomb of revolted against Balban, Sultan of Delhi,
Nasir-ud-Din Mohammed, Tomb of and declared himself as an independent Sol.309.(d) Twelfth. Quwwat-ul-Islam
Shams-ud-Din Iltutmish. ruler of Bengal in 1279? Mosque (1192-1198) built by Qutubuddin
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift) Aibak. Other Monuments of Qutub
Q.301. The Delhi sultan, who succumbed (a) Muhammad Khan complex - Alai Darwaza (by Ala-ud-din
to injuries as a result of his fall from (b) Tughril Beg Khalji in 1311 AD). Tomb of Iltutmish
horse, was __________ . (c) Bughra Khan (1235). Tomb of Imam Zamin (1537).
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Behram Shah Q.310. What is the approximate height
(c) Balban (d) Iltutmish Sol.305.(b) Tughril Beg. Balban (in metres) of the Qutub Minar situated in
(Mamluk dynasty or Slave Dynasty) - Delhi ?

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Sol.301.(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (Known as Ghiyas-ud-Din Balban appointed his own SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Lakh Baksh). He was the slave of son Bughra khan as governor of Bengal. (a) 75 (b) 77 (c) 73 (d) 71

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Muhammad Ghori and was the first Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq also
sultan of Delhi Sultanate. He established known as Nasiruddin, was the last sultan Sol.310.(c) 73 (239.5 ft. approx). Qutub

na
the slave dynasty (Mamluk dynasty). of the Tughlaq dynasty. Minar has five storeys. It was started in
Famous Ruler of Slave Dynasty (1206 1199 by Qutb ud-Din Aibak, completed in
ap
AD-1290 AD): Qutbuddin Aibak Q.306. Who occupied Badaun (A.D. 1220 by his son-in-law Iltutmish.
(1206-1210), Shamsuddin Iltutmish 1197-98) and appointed Iltutmish as its UNESCO (1993). Other Important Minars
:@

(1210-1236), Raziya Sultan (1236-1240), first Muslim Governor? - Charminar, Hyderabad (1591) by
Balban (1266-1287). SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, height is
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan 48.7 m (160 ft).
TG

Q.302. The Tomb of Iltutmish was built in (b) Maharana Pratap

which year? (c) Muhammad Ghori Q.311. Who among the following was the
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Qutbuddin Aibak Wazir of Sultan Iltutmish?
on

(a) 1458 AD (b) 1388 AD Graduate Level 05/08/2022 ( Shift - 3)

(c) 1235 AD (d) 1199 AD Sol.306.(d) Qutbuddin Aibak {1206- (a) Sai’d Fakhr-I-Mudabbir
1210 (First ruler of Slave Dynasty (b) Malik Naik
h

Sol.302.(c) 1235 AD. Iltutmish (Reign /Mamluk Dynasty)}: He established the (c) Nizam ul-Mulk Junaidi
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1210 - 1236 AD) introduced silver coin first Muslim dynasty and was also known (d) Nusrat Khan
(Tanka) and copper coin (Jital), and
a

as Lakh Baksh. He died in Lahore,

completed the construction of Qutub
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Pakistan after falling from a horse ride. Sol.311.(c) Nizam ul-Mulk Junaidi.
Minar. He also constructed a large
Iltutmish is known as the real founder of
reservoir Hauz-i-Sultani just outside Q.307. Qutub Minar is an example of
Delhi Sultanate who occupied the throne
Dehli-i-Kuhna. ______ architecture.
in 1210 AD after KIlling Aram Bakshsh.
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.303. Who started the practice of He shifted his capital from Lahore to
(a) Indo-Islamic (b) Dravidian
celebrating Nauroz during the Delhi Delhi.
(c) Sufi (d) Mauryan
Sultanate period?
Sol.307.(a) Indo - Islamic. Indo-Islamic Q.312. Ghiyasuddin Balban, ruler of the
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Sikandar Sur architecture is the architecture of the Slave dynasty, took up the title of _______.
(b) Shamsuddin Iltutmish Indian subcontinent produced for Islamic SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Morning)
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban patrons and purposes. Famous (a) Nur-al-Din (light of the faith)
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Examples - City of Mandu (Madhya (b) NurMahal (light of the palace)
Pradesh), Taj Mahal (Agra), Gol Gumbaz (c) Zil-i-Ilahi (shadow of God)
Sol.303.(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban. Nowruz (d) JahanPanah (protector of the world)
(Karnataka), Jama Masjid (Delhi) etc.
is the Iranian New Year, also known as
the Persian New Year. Q.308. Who had assumed the title of Sol.312.(c) Zil-i-Ilahi (shadow of God).
Balban? Ghiyas ud din Balban - Abolished
Q.304. Balban served as naib to which of Chahalghani (Council of 40 nobles),
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
the following sultans of Delhi? Introduced Persian customs as sizdah
(a) Kabir Khan (b) Farid Khan
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) (c) Ulugh Khan (d) Ayaz Khan (prostration), paibos (kissing feet of
(a) Iltutmish sultan), established Diwan-i-Ariz (defence
(b) Razia Sol.308.(c) Ulugh Kha, whose original
department).
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud name was Ghiyas ud din Balban, was
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 Pinnacle History
Q.313. In which of the following forts Sol.316.(c) Alauddin Khilji. Malik Kafur - SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
was Razia Sultan imprisoned by Malik also known as 'Hazar Dinari’ was a slave (a) Alauddin Khalji
Ikhtiyar-ud-din Altunia? of Ala-ud-din Khilji who led his army in (b) Balban
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) the battle against Ramachandra of (c) Iltutmish
(a) Qila Mubarak in Bathinda Devagiri. Administrative Reforms - (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(b) Jaigarh fort in Jaipur implemented the system of "dagh Pratha
(c) Golconda fort in Golconda ," branding horses, and "Huliya Pratha (a Sol.320.(a) Alauddin Khalji (1296 -
(d) Mehrangarh fort in Jodhpur system of ranks)" keeping records of 1316). He was the second ruler of Khilji
soldiers. dynasty after Jalaluddin Khilji (Founder -
Sol.313.(a) Qila Mubarak in Bathinda, ‘Khalji Dynasty’). He was also appointed
built by Raja Dab. Jaigarh fort in Jaipur Q.317. Which of the following Sultans of Arizi-i-Mumalik (Minister of War) during
was built in 1726 AD by Jai Singh II. Delhi set up the officers like Barid the reign of Jalaluddin Khilji and laid the
Golconda fort in Golconda was built by (intelligence officer) and Munhiyans foundation of his capital Siri in 1303 A.D.
Qutb Shahi dynasty. Mehrangarh fort in (secret spies) to control the market?
Jodhpur was built by Rao Jodha. Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.321. Who was the first to mention the
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban incident of Jauhar in Persian ?
(b) Alauddin Khalji SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Khilji Dynasty (a) Ibn Batutah (b) Amir Khusrau
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish (c) Ziauddin Barani (d) Hasan Nizami
Q.314. To control the prices, which of the
following Sultans of Delhi set up three Sol.321.(b) Amir Khusrau. ‘Jauhar’ - The
Sol.317.(b) Alauddin Khalji, ruler of the
different markets for different collective self-immolation by women in
Delhi Sultanate, is known for
commodities in Delhi ? order to escape capture and forced into
implementing significant market reforms

df
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (3rd Shift) slavery by invaders in face of imminent
and establishing strict price controls and
(a) Alauddin Khalji defeat.

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market regulations.
(b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban Q.318. Who among the following Sultans Q.322. During Alauddin Khilji's reign, the

na
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish framed a series of regulations to weaken cloth market was known as______.
the power of nobles? SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift)
ap
Sol.314.(a) Alauddin Khalji. Alauddin set (a) Sarai-i-Adl (b) Mandi
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
up three different markets for different (c) Munhiyans (d) Shahna-i-Mandi
(a) Muhammad bin Tughluq (b) Balban
:@

commodities in Delhi. These markets

(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Iltutmish Sol.322.(a) Sarai-i-Adl (Place of justice).
were the grain market (Mandi), cloth
market (Sarai Adl) and the market for Sol.318.(c) Alauddin Khilji (Khilji Dynasty Alauddin Khilji, under his market policy,
TG

horses, slaves, cattle, etc. To ensure 1290-1320): He made nobles pay land built three markets of foodgrain, precious
implementation, Alauddin appointed a tax for their holdings. This curbed the clothes and slave cattle near Kushke
superintendent (Shahna-i-Mandi) who excess of wealth owned by nobles. The Sabz (Hara Rajmahal) within the Badaun
on

was assisted by an intelligence officer. nobles were also ordered not to have gate in Delhi. These were government -
social gatherings or intermarriages aided markets.
Q.315. The first southern campaign of
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without his permission. The group of Q.323. Who was the first Sultan of the
Alauddin Khilji in 1307-08 AD was led to
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nobles, called "The Forty". Delhi Sultanate to start military

which of the following regions?
expeditions into southern India?
a

SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.319. Who among the following
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
Se

(a) Devagiri (b) Warangal classical poets of the Sultanate period in

(c) Dwar Samudra (d) Madura India popularized Qawwali, a form of (a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
music which derived its name from the (b) Alauddin Khalji
Sol.315.(a) Devagiri (modern-day (c) Muhammad Tughluq
Arabic word ‘qaul’, meaning ‘to speak’?
Daulatabad, Maharashtra). This (d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
campaign marked the beginning of the
(a) Jalal al-Din Muhammad Rumi
Delhi Sultanate's expansion into southern Sol.323.(b) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Amir Khusrau
India. Alauddin Khilji (1296 -1316) was (1296-1316):- He was the second ruler of
(c) Nizam al-Din Awliya
the second sultan of the Khilji dynasty. the Khilji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
(d) Shams al-Din Muhammad Hafiz
Campaigns of Alauddin Khilji: Gujarat
Q.324. Which monument of Khilji dynasty
(1299), Ranthambore (1301), Chittor Sol.319.(b) Amir Khusrau - He was also
in Delhi has the utilization of red
(1303), Malwa (1305), Madurai (1311), known as Tuti-e-Hind (Parrot of India). He
sandstone?
Dwarasamudra (1310-1311). was the court musician of Alauddin Khilji.
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
He also lived in courts of different rulers
Q.316. Who amongst the following Delhi (a) Moti Masjid (b) Victoria memorial
such as Balban, Muhammad, Cakubad,
Sultanate rulers sent his army under (c) Charminar (d) Alai Darwaza
Jalaluddin Khilji, Mubarak Shah Khaliji,
Malik Kafur’s command to conquer
and Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq . He was also a Sol.324.(d) Alai Darwaza. Built by
South India?
disciple of Nizammuddin Auliya. Allaudin Khilji the Sultan of Delhi in 1311
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
AD. Moti Masjid - Aurangzeb (Delhi).
(a) Iltutmish Q.320. Which of the following Sultans of
Victoria memorial - George V (Kolkata).
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban Delhi was appointed as Amir-i-Tuzuk
Charminar - Mohammed Quli Qutub
(c) Alauddin Khilji (Master of Ceremonies) before
Shah (Hyderabad).
(d) Qutub-al-din Aibak becoming the Sultan?
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 Pinnacle History
Q.325. Which officer under Alauddin Khilji (c) Diwan-i-Insha (d) Diwan-i-Risalat Sol.333.(d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351 -
was required to maintain a register of 1388). He was known as the father of the
merchants to ensure an adequate supply Sol.329.(b) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi. The irrigation approach in India. Diwan
of goods? Diwan-i-Kohi aimed to increase land -e-Khairat which was built for collecting
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) under cultivation. Muhammad Tughlaq money for charitable work.
(a) Nazir (b) Rais Parwana also promoted agriculture by abolishing
(c) Muhtasib (d) Shahna-i-Mandi or reducing agrarian cesses and Q.334. Who amongst the following
introducing agricultural loans called raised the banner of revolt against
Sol.325.(d) Shahna-i-Mandi. Alauddin Sondhar. Nasiruddin Khusrau?
set up three markets at Delhi - First for SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
food-grains, the second for cloth, sugar, Q.330. Which amongst the following (a) Nasiruddin Tughlaq
ghee, oil, dry fruits and the third for Sultans shifted his capital from Delhi to (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
horses, slaves and cattle. Daulatabad? (c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Q.326. How many types of taxes were in (a) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
the reign of the ruler Alauddin Khalji? (b) Ibrahim Lodhi Sol.334.(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq or
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (c) Sikandar Lodhi Ghazi malik (1320-1324 AD) - He was
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2 (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq the governor of Punjab during the reign
of Allauddin khilji. He was the founder of
Sol.326.(a) 3 types of taxes: Jaziya Sol.330.(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq: He the Tughlaq dynasty who fought against
(religious tax on Hindu community), shifted his capital from Delhi to the more Mongols, and started Tughlaqabad Fort
Ghari tax (tax on Houses), and Chari tax centrally located Devagiri in Maharashtra, construction.
(tax on cattles). which was renamed Daulatabad. His Five

df
Disastrous Projects are: Taxation in the Q.335. Who among the following
Tughlaq Dynasty Doab, Transfer of Capital, Khurasan appointed Aziz Khummar a wine distiller

_p
Expedition, Qarachil Expedition, to high administrative post?
Q.327. The Begumpuri mosque was built Introduction of Token Currency. SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
during the reign of which of the following
rulers of the Delhi Sultanate? na
Q.331. Who invaded India during the rule
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Muhammad Tughluq
ap
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) of Tughlaq Dynasty? (c) Jalaluddin Khalji
(a) Sikandar Lodhi SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (d) Firuz Shah Tughluq
:@

(b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (a) Timur

(c) Bahlul Lodhi (b) Chengiz Khan Sol.335.(b) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq (c) Muhammad Ghori (1324 -1351) - He was the eldest son of
TG

(d) Mahmud of Ghazni Ghiyasuddin Tughluq (founder of the

Sol.327.(d) Muhammad Tuglaq . He was Tughlaq dynasty). He appointed Firuz
the eighteenth Sultan of Delhi, ruling Sol.331.(a) Timur. During the reign of Hajjam - A barber, Mank a Tabbakh - a
on

from February 1324 to 1351. The eldest Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Tughlaq, Timur cook, and two gardeners - Ladha and
son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, founder of invaded India in 1398 A.D., leading to the Pira, to high administrative posts. He
decline of the Tughlaq dynasty.
h

the Tughlaq dynasty, he built the also decided to transfer his capital from
rc

Begumpur Mosque (Jam'i Masjid of Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).

Jahanpanah) in the capital, Jahanpanah. Q.332. Which of the following cities of
a

Delhi was founded by Ghiyasuddin Q.336. Ziyauddin Barani wrote his

Se

Q.328. Who among the following was the Tughlaq ? chronicle first in 1356 and another
first sultan of Delhi Sultanate to visit the SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) version _____ years later.
Ajmer shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin (a) Siri (b) Jahanpanah SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Chishti? (c) Qila-i-Rai Pithora (d) Tughlaqabad (a) three (b) eight (c) two (d) five
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.332.(d) Tughluqabad. Ghiyasuddin Sol.336.(c) Two. Ziauddin Barani
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
Tuglaq (reign period : 1320-1324) - (1285–1358 AD) was a prominent
(b) Jalaluddin Khalji
Founder of Tughlaq dynasty (1320-1414 Muslim political thinker of the Delhi
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
AD). Tughalq was the longest-ruling Sultanate during the reigns of
(d) Khizr Khan
dynasty of Delhi sultanate. City and Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Firoz Shah.
Sol.328.(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq, founder: Siri - Alauddin khilji; Jahanpanah Other Books: Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi and
originally known as Junakhan, ascended - Muhammad bin Tughlaq; Qila-i-Rai Fatwa-i-Jahandari, Sana-i- Muhammadi,
the throne in 1324. He is remembered for Pithora - Prithviraj Chauhan. Tarikh-i-Barmaki, etc.
his efforts to maintain the administrative
and political unity of India. In 1327 A.D., Q.333. Who among the following was the Sayyid Dynasty
he successfully captured Warangal, a successor of Muhammad-Bin Tughlaq to
the throne? Q.337. The author of Tarikh-i-Mubarak
significant event in his reign.
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Shahi, Yahya Sirhindi claims that the
Q.329. To promote agriculture, (a) Ghiyath-ud-din Tughlaq Shah II founder of ________ dynasty of Delhi
Muhammad Tughlaq founded which of (b) Abu Bakr Shah Tughlaq sultanate was a descendant of Prophet
the following new ministries? (c) Nais-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq Muhammad.
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) (d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Diwan-i-Arz (b) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi (a) Mamluk (b) Khalji (c) Sayyid (d) Lodhi
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.337.(c) Sayyid. Khizr Khan defeated (c) Sayyid dynasty (d) Tughluq dynasty Mughal Period
Sultan Daulat Khan and occupied Delhi,
and founded the Sayyid dynasty in 1414. Sol.341.(a) Lodi dynasty (1451 - 1526). It
Q.346. Consider the following
Capital : Delhi. Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi was founded by Bahlul Lodi (1451 to statements in the context of the Mughal
contains the history of Muhammad Ghori 1489 AD). Sultan Sikandar Lodi founded Rule.
and his rulers up to the third ruler of the Agra in 1504. Famous Historic City and 1. The Mansabdari System was
Sayyid dynasty. their Founder: Fatehpur Sikri (Uttar introduced by Akbar in 1571.
Pradesh) - Akbar, Hampi (Karnataka) - 2. The Second Battle of Panipat was
Q.338. Who was the first ruler of the Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, Udaipur fought in 1556.
Sayyid Dynasty? (Rajasthan) - Udai Singh II, Warangal 3. Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar was
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning) (Telangana) - Kakatiya dynasty. a contemporary of Babur.
(a) Khizr Khan Which of the statements given above
(b) Alauddin Alam Shah Q.342. Which of the following is/are correct?
(c) Muhammad Shah mosques/masjids was built during the SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Mubarak Khan reign of Lodi dynasty of the Delhi (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
Sultanate? (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sol.338.(a) Khizr Khan (In 1414 A.D) - He SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Sol.346.(b) Both 1 and 2. Maharana
captured the Delhi sultanate from the (a) Begumpuri mosque, Delhi
Pratap Singh was a contemporary of the
Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq (b) Quwwat al-Islam, Delhi
third Mughal emperor Akbar. He is
(Tughlaq dynasty) and founded the (c) Lal Masjid, Delhi
notable for leading the Rajput resistance
Sayyid Dynasty. He was succeeded by (d) Moth ki Masjid, Delhi
against Akbar's expansionist policies,
Mubarak Shah (first Sultan ruler to
Sol.342.(d) Moth ki Masjid, Delhi. It was including in the Battle of Haldighati
appoint Hindu nobles in the court of

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built in 1505 by Wazir Miya Bhoiya. (1576) and the Battle of Dewair (1582).
Delhi) and constructed “Mubarakbad”
Begumpuri mosque (Delhi) - It was The Second Battle of Panipat was fought

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City.
constructed by Muhammad Tughluq . between Akbar and Hemu. The
Lodi Dynasty mansabdari system was basically a

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Q.343. “Double Dome” feature of grading system in order to rank the
Indo-Islamic architecture was introduced officers based on their ranks and
Q.339. Which of the following dynasties
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by which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate? salaries.
of the Delhi Sultanate finally annexed
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
Jaunpur into the empire of Delhi
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(a) Slave Dynasty (b) Khilji Dynasty Q.347. Who among the following was the
Sultanate?
(c) Tughlaq Dynasty (d) Lodi Dynasty guru of Tansen?
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Khalji dynasty
TG

Sol.343.(d) Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526). (a) Abul Fazal (b) Shaukat Mian
(c) Tughlaq dynasty (d) Sayyid dynasty Double dome - Built of two layers. There (c) Makarand Mishra (d) Swami Haridasa
is one layer inside which provides a
Sol.339.(a) Lodi dynasty was founded by
ceiling to the interior of the building. The Sol.347.(d) Swami Haridasa. The
on

Bahlol Lodi, the last ruling dynasty of the

other layer is the outer one which crowns famous musician Tansen was one of the
Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to
the buildings. Example - Humayun's Navratnas (nine gems) in the court of
1526. In AD 1476, Bahlol Lodi defeated
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Tomb. Emperor Akbar, who bestowed the title

the Sultan of Jaunpur and annexed it to
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'Mian' upon him.

the Delhi Sultanate. He also brought the Q.344. Bahlol Lodi was succeeded by his
a

ruler of Kalpi and Dholpur under the son __________under the title of Sultan Q.348. Who among the following was
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Suzerainty of Delhi. Sikandar Shah in 1489. given the charge of looking after the
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) imperial household during the Mughal
Q.340. Who among the following was the
(a) Nizam Khan (b) Khizr Khan administration?
last sultan of Delhi sultanate?
(c) Bahlul Shah (d) Sher Shah SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Mir Saman (b) Mir Bahri
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq Sol.344.(a) Nizam Khan {assumed the (c) Mir Bakshi (d) 'Mir-e-aatish'
(b) Sikandar Lodi title Sikandar Shah,founded Agra in 1504,
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq relocated the capital from Delhi to Agra, Sol.348.(a) Mir Saman. Mir Bahri
(d) Ibrahim Lodi pen name Gulrukh}. (mir-i-bahr) - Responsible for the
maintenance of the river and seaports.
Sol.340.(d) Ibrahim Lodi was the last Q.345. The _____ sultanate is ruled by the Mir Bakshi - Headed military department,
Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate Sharqi dynasty. nobility, information and intelligence
(1206–1526), he became Sultan in 1517 SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon) agencies. Mir-e-aatish - Head of the
after the death of his father Sikandar (a) Agra (b) Delhi ordinance department.
Khan Lodi. In 1526, he was defeated and (c) Jaunpur (d) Bharatpur
killed in the Battle of Panipat by Babur, Q.349. Name the French jeweler who
giving way to the emergence of the Sol.345.(c) The Jaunpur sultanate was traveled to India at least six times during
Mughal Empire in India. ruled by the sharqi dynasty. It was the Mughal period.
founded by Khwajah-i-Jahan Malik SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q.341. Which of the following dynasties of Sarwar in 1394. In 1479, Sultan Hussain (a) Antonio Monserrate
Delhi Sultanate founded Agra city? Khan was defeated by the forces of (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Afghan chieftain Bahlul Lodhi and this (c) Seydi Ali Reis
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Khalji dynasty dynasty came to an end. (d) Peter Mundy
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.349.(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier. He actual collection. The Jama was the Q.359. Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan
came to India during the reign of Shah amount assessed whereas the Hasil was Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi joined
Jahan. Antonio Monserrate : A Spanish the amount received or collected. Banjar Rana Sanga with their forces to fight
missionary, came during the reign of was the worst kind of land that was left against which of the following Mughal
Akbar. Seydi Ali Reis : He was a Turkish out of cultivation for five years or rulers?
traveler who visited India in the 16th upwards. SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
century. Peter Mundy : A European (a) Babur (b) Akbar
philosopher and foreign traveler came to Q.355. Which Mughal prince translated (c) Aurangzeb (d) Humayun
India during the reign of Shah Jahan. the Upanishads into Persian in 1657?
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.359.(a) Babur. He was a descendant
Q.350. Who built the Pathar Ki Masjid in (a) Sultan Luftallah (b) Dara Shikoh of Genghis Khan and Timur, founded the
Patna, Bihar? (c) Murad Mirza (d) Shah Suja Mughal Empire in northern India .
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Feroz shah Tughlaq (b) Parwez Shah Sol.355.(b) Dara Shikoh. He was the Q.360. The battle of Khanwa was fought
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Alauddin Khilji eldest son and heir-apparent of the between the forces of the Babur and the
Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. He Rajput forces led by:
Sol.350.(b) Parwez Shah (Son of Mughal completed the translation of fifty Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Emperor Jahangir) built “Pathar Ki upanishads from their original Sanskrit to (a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Rana Sanga
Masjid” on the banks of River Ganga, Persian in 1657 so that they could be (c) Medini Rai (d) Mahmud Lodi
Patna (Bihar) in 1621. studied by muslim scholars.
Sol.360.(b) Rana Sanga.
Q.351. On 12 August ________ the Mughal Q.356. Who was the Mughal Emperor at
emperor appointed the East India the time of Battle of Plassey? Q.361. Who made the use of Gunpowder

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Company as the Diwan of Bengal. SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Evening) common in North India to defeat
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift) (a) Alamgir II (b) Siraj- Ud- Daulah enemies?

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(a) 1765 (b) 1768 (c) 1772 (d) 1760 (c) Mir Qasim (d) Shah Alam II SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Babur

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Sol.351.(a) On 12 August 1765, the Sol.356.(a) Aziz-ud-din Alamgir II. (c) Rana Sanga (d) Daulat Khan Lodi
Mughal emperor (Shah Alam II) Alamgir II (Reign - 1754-1759) was the
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appointed the East India Company as the fifteenth Mughal Emperor. Sol.361.(b) Babur (1526-1530): The first
Diwan of Bengal. Mughal emperor, succeeded to the
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throne of Ferghana in 1494, when he was

Babur
Q.352. _______ in Gujarat was the only 12 years old.
emporium of western trade during the Q.357. Which of the following battles Q.362. Who was the eldest of four sons
TG

Mughal Period. was fought between Babur and Rana

SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) of Babur?
Sanga in 1527? SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Navasari (b) Narmada SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) Askari (b) Humayun
on

(c) Porbandar (d) Surat (a) Battle of Bayana (c) Hindal (d) Kamran
Sol.352.(d) Surat. It grew famous for all (b) Battle of Khanwa
h

types of textiles, particularly cotton (c) Second battle of Panipat Sol.362.(b) Humayun - The second ruler
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textiles. (d) Battle of Chanderi of the Mughal empire. The Afghan

soldier Sher Shah Suri defeated him at
a

Q.353. The Mughal court chronicles are Sol.357.(b) Battle of Khanwa : Babar the war in Chausa 1539 and Kannauj in
Se

written in _____ emerged victorious against Rana Sanga. 1540. Humayun was the first person who
SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Afternoon) Battles of Babar - First Battle of Panipat developed a citadel in Delhi, named as
(a) Arabic (b) Persian (c) Turkish (d) Urdu (1526) : Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodi. “Din Panah”.
Battle of Chanderi (1528): Babar won
Sol.353.(b) Persian. Mughal chronicles against Madiniray. Battle of Ghaghra Q.363. The first battle of Panipat took
such as the Akbar Nama were written in (1529): Babar triumphed over Mahmud place between Babur and _________.
Persian. Some of the famous Books Lodi. SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
during Mughal Reign are Humayun Nama (a) Medini Rai (b) Sikandar Lodi
was written by Gulbadan Begum, Tuzuk - Q.358. The real name of Babur, the (c) Ibrahim Lodi (d) Rana Sanga
E Babari - Babur, Akbar Nama- Abul Fazl, founder of Mughal dynasty in India was:
Tarikh E Akbari - Abul Fazl, Tahakik E SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.363.(c) Ibrahim Lodi. The First
Hind- Albiruni, Laila Majnu- Amir Khasuru, (a) Zahiruddin Muhammad Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526.
Shahnamah- Firdousi etc (b) Irfanuddin Muhammad Second Battle of Panipat (1556): Hemu
(c) Zainuddin Muhammad Vikramaditya and Akbar . Third Battle of
Q.354. With reference to the Land (d) Ruknuddin Muhammad Panipat (1761): Marathas and Ahmad
Revenue System of Mughal Empire, the Shah Abdali.
term ' was the amount assessed. Sol.358.(a) Zahiruddin Muhammad. Real
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) names of some Mughal emperors Q.364. Who among the following Mughal
(a) Banjar (b) Polaj (c) Hasil (d) Jama include: Humayun - Nasir al-Din Emperors had assumed the title of
Muhammed, Akbar - Jalal- ud-din Padshah?
Sol.354.(d) Jama. The arrangements for Muhammad Akbar, Jahangir - SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
collection of land revenue consisted of Muhammad Salim, Aurangzeb - (a) Jahangir (b) Babur
two stages : first assessment and then Muhi-ud-din-Muhammad. (c) Humayun (d) Akbar
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.364.(b) Babur. He was the first was born Nasir-ud-Din Muhammad in the construction of sarais (shelter) for
Timurid ruler who, after his conquest of Kabul. Humayun was the second the convenience of travellers ?
Kabul (1507), assumed the title of Emperor of the Mughal Empire, ruling SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
Padshah which means "king of kings" or over present-day Pakistan, Northern (a) Babur (b) Sher Shah Suri
"emperor in persian". India, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh from (c) Akbar (d) Humayun
1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to
Q.365. After years of wandering Babur 1556. Sol.374.(b) Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545):
seized Kabul in_________. Administrative reforms - Introduction of
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Q.370. In 1539, the Battle of Chausa was Rupiya, Built Grand-Trunk Road, Staged
(a) 1501 (b) 1504 (c) 1503 (d) 1502 fought between Humayun and ______. Dak-Chowkis in Sarais.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.365.(b) 1504. (a) Ibrahim Lodhi (b) Sher Shah Suri Q.375. The historical Sher-Shah Suri
(c) Sikandar Suri (d) Rana Sanga Marg runs between ___________.
Q.366. The famous monument, Aram SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Bagh, was built by Babur. It is located in Sol.370.(b) Sher Shah Suri (Farid Khan, (a) Kanpur and Kanyakumari
__________.
1540-1545) - Founder of the Sur Empire, (b) Delhi and Manali
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
constructed the Grand Trunk Road, (c) Delhi and Amritsar
(a) Delhi (b) Uttar Pradesh
introduced the first Rupee (silver coin, (d) Lucknow and Kolkata
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
Rupia). He defeated Humayun in 1539
Sol.366.(b) Uttar Pradesh. Aram Bagh - and 1540 in the battle of Chausa and Sol.375.(c) Delhi and Amritsar. The
Built by Babur in 1528 in Agra. Kannauj respectively. Grand Trunk Road (formerly known as
Monuments Built by Babur: The avenue Uttarapath, Sarak-e-Azam and Badshahi
Q.371. Sher khan defeated Humayun in Sarak) - Part of National Highway (12, 27,
garden in Kabul, the Panipat Mosque and

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the battle of Chausa and Kanauj and 19, 44, 3) in India.
the Kabuli Bagh Mosque.
forced him to flee to________.

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Q.367. Where was Babur buried for the Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.376. Humayun’s Tomb situated in Delhi
first time in 1530 ? (a) Turkey (b) Iraq (c) Iran (d) Uzbekistan is built by ______ .

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Graduate Level 02/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 ) SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.371.(c) Iran. Sher Khan, an ethnic (a) Gulbadan Begum (b) Biga Begum
(a) Kabul (b) Agra (c) Delhi (d) Fargana
ap
Pashtun, defeated Humayun in the (c) Hamida Begum (d) Maham Begum
Sol.367.(b) Agra. On December 26, 1530, battles of Chausa (1539) and battles of
:@

Babur died at Agra. His body was first Bilgram/Kannauj (1540), forcing Sol.376.(b) Biga Begum. The architect
laid at Arambagh in Agra but was later Humayun to flee to Iran. After these was Mirak Mirza Ghiyath.
taken to Kabul, where it was buried. victories, Sher Khan crowned himself
Q.377. Mirza Kamran was the brother of
TG

Farid al-Dīn Sher Shah and founded the

which of the following Mughal emperors?
Humayun and Sher Shah Suri Sur Dynasty.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
on

Q.372. Which of the following cities was

Q.368. Who among the following was the built by Humayun in Delhi? (c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan
successor of Mughal Emperor, Babur? SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
h

SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.377.(a) Humayun and son of Babur
(a) Akbarabad (b) Dinpanah
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(a) Shahjahan (b) Humayun and Gulrukh Begum. He came to India in

(c) Muhammadabad (d) Siri
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb 1538.
a

Sol.372.(b) Dinpanah. Humayun’s

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Sol.368.(b) Humayun. Babur (Founder of Contribution to Architecture: Humayun's Akbar

Mughal emperor) was descended from Tomb (UNESCO World Heritage Site in
Timur and Genghis Khan. Mughal 1993) - It was built by his widow Biga Q.378. Akbar’s first expedition towards
emperors chronologically : Babur → Begum (Hajji Begum), Purana Quila Deccan was sent to Ahmednagar under
Humayun → Akbar → Jahangir → (Delhi) - Built as a part of the new city the leadership of Prince Murad and _____.
Shah-Jahan → Aurangzeb etc. Dinpannah. SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Birbal
Q.369. As per the Timurid tradition, Q.373. In which State of India is Sher (b) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan
Humayun had to share power with his Shah's Tomb located? (c) Adham Khan
brothers. Humayun had the control of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) (d) Man Singh
Delhi, Agra and Central India, while his (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh
brother Kamran controlled which of the (c) Punjab (d) Bengal Sol.378.(b) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan.
following regions? Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, and
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.373.(a) Bihar (Sasaram). Tombs of
he ruled over India from 1556 to 1605.
(a) Afghanistan and Punjab Mughal Emperors - Gardens of Babur
(b) Deccan (Kabul, Afghanistan), Humayun's Tomb Q.379. Who was the revenue minister
(c) Gujarat and Rajasthan (New Delhi), Akbar's Tomb (Sikandra, during the reign of Akbar?
(d) Bengal and Bihar Uttar Pradesh), Tomb of Jahangir SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(Lahore, Pakistan), The Taj Mahal (Agra), (a) Todar Mal (b) Abdul Rahim
Sol.369.(a) Afghanistan and Punjab. Tomb of Aurangzeb (Ahmednagar). (c) Mulla Do-Piyaza (d) Tansen
Kamran Mirza was the second son of
Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire. Q.374. Who among the following Sol.379.(a) Todar Mal. Navratnas of
He was the brother of Humayun, who medieval rulers focused his attention on Akbar : Abul Fazl - Prime Minister and
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 Pinnacle History
chief advisor. Faizi - Education Minister. called ‘Din-e-Ilahi’. The theory of It was founded by Malik Raja Faruqi.
Birbal - Foreign Minister. Raja Man Singh Din-e-Ilahi means belief in one God. The Major military campaigns by Akbar - In
- Chief of Staff of Akbar’s Mughal Army. first initiated disciples of Din-i-Ilahi during 1568 the Sisodiya capital of Chittor was
Tansen - Culture Minister and Singer. emperor Akbar included Birbal, Prince seized and in 1569 Ranthambore.
Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana - Defence Salim, and Abul-Fazl ibn Mubarak.
Minister. Mullah Do Piyaza - Home Q.388. Jaimal and Patta were the
Q.384. Who amongst the following warriors who were given charge of
Minister. Fakir Aziao-Din - Religious
Mughal emperors got classical Hindu defending the fort of ______
Minister.
mythological texts Ramayana and SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q.380. After the death of Humayun, the Mahabharata translated into Persian ? (a) Raisen (b) Ajmer
13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Udaipur (d) Chittor
at Kalanaur in ________. (a) Jahangir (b) Aurangzeb
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan Sol.388.(d) Chittor. Siege of Chittorgarh
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (1567 - 1568) - It was a military
Sol.384.(c) Akbar was the 3rd Mughal expedition of the Mughal Empire under
(c) Bengal (d) Punjab
emperor (1556 to 1605). The Akbar against the Mewar kingdom that
Sol.380.(d) Punjab. Akbar was crowned Mahabharata was translated by Faizi and commenced in 1567 during which the
at Kalanaur on February 14, 1556, `Abd al-Qadir Bada'uni and named Mughals successfully captured the fort
following the sudden death of Humayun, Razmnama. Literature under the rule of of Chittorgarh.
who died after falling from the stairs of Akbar: Akbarnama (Autobiography of
the Dinpanah library. At just 13 years old, Akbar) and Ain-i-Akbari written by Q.389. Tansen, the music legend, was a
Akbar came to power under the guidance Abu'l-Fazl. courtier in which of the following courts
of his guardian, Bairam Khan. He later before coming to Akbar ?

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Q.385. Which of the following SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
defeated Hemu in the Second Battle of
statements about Akbar are true? (a) Rewa (b) Benaras

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Panipat, securing control over Delhi.
1 He introduced the Mansabdari system. (c) Gandhara (d) Maghad
Q.381. Who among the following was 2 He defeated and merged the state of

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one of the Navratnas of Akbar? Bijapur in his empire. Sol.389.(a) Rewa. Tansen was initially
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) 3 He made Fatehpur Sikri his capital. the court singer of King Ram Chand. His
ap
(a) Purandar Das (b) Swami Haridas SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) original name was RamaTanu Pandey.
(c) Tansen (d) Amir Khusro (a) All 1, 2, 3 (b) Only 1 and 3 Tansen was the title given to him by Raja
:@

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2 Vikramjit of Gwalior.

Sol.381.(c) Tansen. Mian Tansen,
originally named Ramtanu Pandey is a Sol.385.(b) Only 1 and 3. The Q.390. During the reign of Akbar,
TG

legendary figure in Hindustani Classical Mansabdari system was a system of _________ was the land that has lain
Music. He is known as the "Sangeet ranking government officials and military fallow for three or four years.
Samrat," or "Monarch of Hindustani generals in the Mughal Empire, which SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
on

Music. was introduced by Emperor Akbar in (a) Parauti (b) Polaj (c) Chachar (d) Banjar
1571. Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal
Q.382. Who among the following was the Sol.390.(c) Chachar. Parauti - The land
emperor (1658-1707), sent his armies to
h

Vakil under the reign of Mughal Emperor kept out of cultivation temporarily in
conquer the Deccan Sultanates. He
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Akbar, who received the title of order to recoup its lost fertility. Polaj -
annexed Bijapur in 1685 and Golconda in
The ideal and best type of land
a

Khan-i-Khanan ? 1687.
throughout the empire and it was
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SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)

(a) Mulla do-Piyaza (b) Birbal Q.386. When Akbar introduced cultivated always and was never allowed
(c) Raja Todar Mal (d) Bairam Khan Mansabdari system, _______ was the to lie fallow.
lowest grade of Mansabdar.
Sol.382.(d) Bairam Khan. A prominent Q.391. Which of the following cities was
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Mughal noble and military commander (a) fifty (b) one hundred the first planned city of the Mughals?
who served as Akbar's regent and chief (c) ten (d) one thousand SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
minister during the early years of his (a) Mirzapur (b) Fatehpur Sikri
Sol.386.(c) Ten. The term mansabdar (c) Lucknow (d) Lahore
reign.
refers to an individual who holds a
Q.383. Which amongst the following mansab, meaning a position or rank. It Sol.391.(b) Fatehpur Sikri. It is located
statements is correct about Mughal was a grading system used by the near Agra in Uttar Pradesh. It was built by
emperor Akbar? Mughals to fix rank, salary and military the Mughal Emperor Akbar in the 16th
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) responsibilities. During Akbar's reign, the century. Fatehpur Sikri was built during
(a) He founded a new religion called lowest rank allotted was 10, and the 1571 and 1585. Fatehpur Sikri was
‘Din-e Ilahi’. highest was that of 10,000. declared as UNESCO World Heritage
(b) He fought and won the third battle of Sites in 1986.
Q.387. When was Khandesh merged into
Panipat against the Hindu King Hemu Q.392. When was the Battle of Tukaroi
the Mughal empire by Akbar ?
(c) He was declared emperor in 1602. fought where Akbar defeated the
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
(d) He was highly educated and knew Sultanate of Bengal and Bihar?
(a) 1595 (b) 1601 (c) 1597 (d) 1605
many languages. SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.387.(b) 1601. Khandesh was (a) 1564 (b) 1582 (c) 1575 (d) 1591
Sol.383.(a) He founded a new religion
situated in the Tapti valley, Maharashtra.
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.392.(c) 1575. The Battle of Tukaroi Q.397. As described in ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ by Timurid dynasty, and held administrative
(Battle of Bajhaura/ Moghalmari) - Abul Fazl-i-Allami, ‘gaz’ (unit of and military posts under his father Shah
Fought at Balasore (Odisha) in which measuring length) was divided into equal Jahan (1628 – 1658).
Akbar (Mughal Emperor) defeated Daud parts called ______.
Khan Karrani (Ruler of Bengal). The battle SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) Q.402. Who succeeded in securing
led to the Treaty of Katak in which Daud (a) tassuj (b) liksha (c) rajahkan (d) angul trading concessions for the East India
Khan Karrani ceded the whole of Bengal Company from Mughal Emperor
and Bihar, retaining only Odisha. Sol.397.(a) tassuj. Jahangir?
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.393. _________ administration became Q.398. Who among the following issued (a) John Mildenhall (b) Captain Hawkins
the model followed by the great emperor Mahzarnama in 1579 ? (c) Captain Best (d) Thomas Roe
Akbar when he consolidated the Mughal SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Evening)
Empire. (a) Humayun (b) Jahangir Sol.402.(d) Thomas Roe was an English
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift) (c) Shah Jahan (d) Akbar diplomat sent by the East India Company
(a) Sher Shah Suri's in 1615. John Mildenhall was the first
Sol.398.(d) Akbar issued Mahzarnama in British explorer to make an overland
(b) Alauddin Khalji's 1579. It is a declaration that gives
(c) Muhammad Tughluq's journey to India. Captain William
authority to change the religious laws of Hawkins was an English sea captain who
(d) Genghis Khan's Islam. visited the court of Jahangir in 1608.
Sol.393.(a) Sher Shah Suri's. Although Q.399. Which Mughal emperor built the
the Suri dynasty ruled for only a short Q.403. Who among the following wrote
city called 'Makhsudabad' later popularly the biography of Jahangir known as
period i.e. 15 years, it introduced an known as Murshidabad?
administration that borrowed elements Iqbalnama-i Jahangiri?

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SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning)
from Alauddin Khilji and made them (a) Bahadur Shah Zafar (b) Humayun (a) Mutamid Khan (b) Inayat Khan

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more efficient. (c) Akbar (d) Shah Jahan (c) Abdul Rahim Khan (d) Abul Fazl
Q.394. Ain-i Akbari, a document on life of

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Sol.399.(c) Akbar. Murshidabad was Sol.403.(a) Mutamid Khan. He was in the
Mughal ruler Akbar does not contain named by Nawab Murshid Qulī Khan.
information about _________ court of Mughal Emperor Jahangir (4th
ap
Akbar (reign - 1556 - 1605) - Constructed Mughal ruler, 1605 to 1627). ‘Iqbalnama-i
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift) Fatehpur Sikri (made it his capital in
(a) Revenues (b) Ancestors Jahangiri’ book was written in Persian
:@

1569), Started a new religion Din-i Ilahi and it covers the first 19 years of
(c) Army (d) Administration (1582), His biography titled Akbarnama Jahangir's reign. Inayat Khan wrote”
Sol.394.(b) Ancestors. Abul Fazl (Wrote by Abul Fazl). Shajahanama”. Abdul Rahim Khan
TG

(Akbar’s court historian) wrote a Q.400. In the context of Mughal translated “Babarnama” to the Persian
three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, administration, which of the following is language.
titled Akbar Nama. The first volume the most appropriate definition of
on

(Akbar’s ancestors), second volume Q.404. Sarai Nurmahal is a centrally

‘Abwab’? protected monument of India. It is
(events of Akbar’s reign) and The third SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening) situated in which state of India?
h

(the Ain-i Akbari). Ain-i Akbari is divided (a) A clerk in the government treasury SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon)
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into five volumes . (b) A court jester (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal
(c) A tax levied on the lands over and
a

Q.395. Ajmer became the suba (c) Punjab (d) Himachal Pradesh
above the original rent
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headquarters under the ______.

SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) (d) A reward for good governance Sol.404.(c) Punjab (Jalandhar). Shalimar
(a) Pallavas (b) Cholas Bagh, the Begum Shahi Mosque, and the
Sol.400.(c) A tax levied on the lands over Bachcha Taj are the monuments built by
(c) Mughals (d) Delhi Sultanate and above the original rent in Mughal the Jahangir (Fourth Mughal emperor).
Sol.395.(c) Mughals. Ajmer Subah - One India all temporary and circumstantial
of the original 12 subahs of Mughal taxes and impositions levied by the Q.405. Mehrunnisa married Emperor
Empire (1526 - 1858). It was established government over and above regular taxes Jahangir in ______.
during Akbar's administrative reforms of were called “abwab”. SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)
1572–1580. The last Mughal - Bahadur (a) 1620 (b) 1602 (c) 1611 (d) 1603
Shah Zafar. Jahangir Sol.405.(c) In 1611, Jahangir married
Q.396. In which year was Kashmir Mehrunnisa who was known as Nur
Q.401. The Sisodiya ruler of Mewar,
annexed to the Mughal Empire by Akbar? Jahan (Light of World). She encouraged
Amar Singh, accepted Mughal service
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Persian art and culture in the court.
during the reign of_________.
(a) 1586 (b) 1590 (c) 1592 (d) 1580 Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Jahangir (b) Shah Jahan
Shah Jahan
Sol.396.(a) 1586. Military Conquests of
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Akbar
Akbar (Mughal Emperor, 1556-1605): Q.406. Identify the Mughal emperor who
Malwa (conquered in 1562), Gondwana Sol.401.(a) Jahangir. Amar singh was was imprisoned for the rest of his life in
region of central India (1564), Gujarat the eldest son and successor of Agra after the war of succession among
(1573), Mewar (1576), both Bihar and Maharana Pratap. Akbar (1556–1605). his sons.
Bengal (1576). Aurangzeb belonged to the aristocratic Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
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 Pinnacle History
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Bahadur Shah I by the Mughals in_______ in the north-west against the Yusufzai
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Jahandar Shah SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) and the Sikhs were temporarily
(a) 1627 (b) 1632 (c) 1630 (d) 1635 successful.
Sol.406.(c) Shah Jahan (Mirza
Shahab-ud-din Baig Muhammad Khan Sol.411.(b) In 1632, during the period of Q.416. Under which of the following
Khurram). He was the fifth Mughal Shah Jahan, Ahmednagar was merged Mughal emperors were the Marathas a
emperor and reigned from 1628 to 1658. into the Mughal empire. Malik Ahmed major challenge to the sovereignty of the
Aurangzeb declared himself emperor in was the founder of Ahmednagar Mughals?
1658 and imprisoned Shah Jahan in Agra (Maharashtra), who established the Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Fort until his death in January 1666. Nizam Shahi dynasty. (a) Humayun (b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir (d) Babur
Q.407. Who among the following was Q.412. Who among the following had
chosen by Shahjahan as his successor to been given the title of ‘Sultan Buland Sol.416.(b) Aurangzeb (Reign :
the Mughal throne? Iqbal’ by Shah Jahan? 1658-1707) - He was the sixth Mughal
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) Emperor and also known as Zinda Pir
(a) Murad Bakhsh (b) Aurangzeb (a) Shuja (b) Murad (living saint), Fakir, and Darbesh. He gave
(c) Shah Shuja (d) Dara Shikoh (c) Dara (d) Aurangzeb the French permission to build a factory
in Surat in 1667.
Sol.407.(d) Dara Shikoh. The Battle of Sol.412.(c) Dara Shikoh (Eldest Son of
Deorai was fought between Aurangzeb Shah Jahan). Sultan Buland Iqbal (Prince Q.417. Under whose reign was the
and Dara Shikoh. It was fought in 1659. of High Fortune) - Title given on 10 maximum number of books in Persian on
Dara Shikoh was defeated by Aurangzeb September 1642. His works - Majma classical Indian Music written?
in this Battle. -ul-Bahrain (Mingling of Two Oceans), SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift)

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Sirr-i-Akbar (Great Mystery). He was (a) Shah Jahan (b) Jahangir
Q.408. Who among the following has executed in 1659 by Aurangzeb in the (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb

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written the ‘Badshah Nama’? war of succession.
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 Sol.417.(d) Aurangzeb (1658 - 1707). He

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(a) Babur (b) Abdul Hamid Lahori Aurangzeb reimposed Jizya and Pilgrim tax in 1679
(c) Inayat Khan (d) Abul Fazl and ended the celebration of Navroz.
ap
Q.413. Which Mughal ruler was
Sol.408.(b) Abdul Hamid Lahori - A responsible for the execution of Guru Q.418. Which Mughal Emperor has
:@

historian and traveler who later became a Tegh Bahadur in the year 1675 ? attempted to vandalise the Kailash
court historian of Shah Jahan. “Badshah SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) Temple at Ellora?
Nama” (Padshahnama) is the official (a) Jahangir (b) Akbar SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening)
TG

history of Shah Jahan. (c) Aurangzeb (d) Shahjahan (a) Aurangzeb (b) Humayun
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Babur
Q.409. The mausoleum of the Taj Mahal Sol.413.(c) Aurangzeb. Guru Tegh
was designed by ____________. Sol.418.(a) Aurangzeb {Alamgir, original
on

Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru, often

SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) venerated as the ‘Protector of Humanity’ name MuḥI al-Din Muḥammad (1658 to
(a) Bhaktiyar Lahori (Srisht-di-Chadar) by the Sikhs. He 1707)} - He stopped music and alcohol in
h

(b) Mohammad Isha founded Anandpur Sahib. the court and also the activities of
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(c) Shah Jahan ‘jharokha’ (public audience).

(d) Ustad Ahmad Lahori Q.414. Under whose rule did the Mughal
a

empire achieve its largest territorial Sikh Guru

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Sol.409.(d) Ustad Ahmad Lahori was the limits?

chief Mughal architect during the reign of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Q.419. Gurpurab is celebrated to
Shah Jahan. He was responsible for the (a) Shah Jahan (b) Bahadur Shah II commemorate the birthday of Guru
construction of the Taj Mahal in Agra and (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb Nanak dev ji. He was the _________ guru
the Red fort in Delhi. of Sikhs?
Sol.414.(d) Aurangzeb (1658 - 1707)
Q.410. The art of decoration, called SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
ascended the throne in 1658 after
Pietra dura became popular during (a) second (b) first (c) fourth (d) third
eliminating all competitors, including
whose reign? Dara Shukoh, Shuja, and Murad, in a war Sol.419.(b) First. Guru Nanak Dev, the
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift) of succession. founder of Sikhism, was born on April 15,
(a) Jahangir (b) Sher Shah Suri 1469, in Talwandi, now known as
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Akbar Q.415. Which Mughal rulers intervention
Nankana Sahib, Pakistan.
in the succession and internal politics of
Sol.410.(c) Shah Jahan. Pietra dura - An the Rathor Rajputs of Marwar led to their Q.420. After the death of Shri Guru
inlay technique using cut and fitted, rebellion? Gobind Singh, the Sikhs revolted against
highly polished colored stones to create Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) the ______ under the leadership of Banda
images. Some other buildings and (a) Aurangzeb (b) Babur Bahadur.
monuments by Shah Jahan:- Red Fort (c) Akbar (d) Shah Jahan SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(Delhi), Jama Masjid (Delhi), Shish (a) Gurkhas (b) Mughals
Mahal (Agra) and Shalimar Bagh Sol.415.(a) Aurangzeb (1658-1707). His
(c) British (d) Marathas
(Lahore). Military Campaigns : In the north-east,
the Ahoms were defeated in 1663, but Sol.420.(b) Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh
Q.411. Ahmadnagar was finally annexed rebelled again in the 1680s. Campaigns is famous for his creation of the Khalsa
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 Pinnacle History
(Pure) , the military brotherhood of the Vishwanath. He was the Seventh Peshwa Q.428. Which of the following was the
Sikhs. (Prime Minister) of the Maratha Empire last dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire?
and one of the greatest exponents of SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.421. Who among the following Sikh Guerrilla tactics after Shivaji. Maratha (a) Tuluva dynasty (b) Saluva dynasty
spiritual gurus is said to have assisted families: Shindes (Gwalior), Holkars (c) Sangam dynasty (d) Aravidu dynasty
Khusrau, the rebellious son of Jahangir? (Indore), Gaikwads (Baroda), Bhosles
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.428.(d) Aravidu dynasty. The
(Nagpur), Peshwas (Poona).
(a) Guru Angad Dev (b) Guru Ramdas Vijayanagara Empire had four dynasties:
(c) Guru Amar Das (d) Guru Arjun Dev Q.425. Who among the following was a Sangama dynasty (1336-1485 CE),
famous ruler of the Maratha dynasty? Saluva dynasty (1485-1505 CE), Tuluva
Sol.421.(d) Guru Arjan Dev assisted SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift) dynasty (1505-1570 CE), Aravidu dynasty
Khusrau, the rebellious son of Jahangir. (a) Porus (1570-1646 CE).
He compiled the first official edition of (b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, Q.429. Which of the following kings of
(c) Man Singh
which later expanded into the Guru Vijayanagara took the title of ‘establisher
(d) Prithviraj Chauhan
Granth Sahib. He completed the of the Yavana kingdom’?
construction of the Golden Temple in Sol.425.(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Amritsar. The Maratha Empire formerly existed (a) Vira Narasimha Raya
from 1674 with the coronation of (b) Achyuta Deva Raya
Q.422. Who among the following Sikh Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and ended in (c) Krishna Deva Raya
Gurus laid the foundation of ‘Khalsa 1818 with the defeat of Peshwa Bajirao II (d) Sada Siva Raya
Panth’ ? at the hands of the British East India
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.429.(c) Krishna Deva Raya : He
Company. Wars fought by Shivaji - Battle

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(a) Guru Gobind Singh (b) Guru Arjan Dev founded a suburban township near
of Pratapgad (1659), Battle of Purandar
(c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) Guru Nanak Dev Vijayanagar called Nagalapuram after his

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(1665), Battle of Sinhagad (1670), Battle
Mother. He wrote the epic Telugu poem
Sol.422.(a) Guru Gobind Singh laid the of Sangamner(1679), etc.
Amuktamalyada.

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foundation of ‘Khalsa Panth’ on April 13,
1699, situated in Punjab. It is a name Vijaynagar Empire Q.430. The Vijayanagara empire included
ap
given to the religious structure and the people from different cultural regions.
community that manages the affairs of Q.426. The founders of Vijayanagar Which of the following regions was NOT
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the global Khalsa community. empire, Harihara and Bukka Raya were a part of it?
the ministers of: Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Maratha Empire SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Tamil (b) Karnataka
TG

(a) Kampili (b) Kadamba (c) Telugu (d) Maratha

Q.423. Twenty five percent of the land (c) Western Chalukya (d) Eastern Ganga
Sol.430.(d) Maratha. The Vijayanagara
revenue collected by Marathas in the
on

Sol.426.(a) Kampili. The Vijayanagara Empire primarily included the regions of

Deccan was __________ .
Empire was established in 1336 by the Tamil, Karnataka, and Telugu-speaking
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
brothers Harihara and Bukka Raya of the areas. Maratha region was ruled by the
h

(a) Bhoga (b) Sardeshmukhi

Sangama dynasty, who belonged to the Yadava Dynasty and later the Bahmani
(c) Chauth (d) Bhaga
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Yadava clan of the Chandravamsa Sultanate during Vijayanagara's peak.

lineage. Between 1336 and 1565,
a

Sol.423.(c) Chauth - It was paid to the

Vijayanagara was ruled by three different Q.431. What was the dominant source of
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Marathas in order to avoid the Maratha

dynasties: the Sangama, Saluva, and income in the Vijaynagar Empire?
raids. It was levied on the lands which
Tuluva dynasties. The last dynasty was SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
were under the nominal Mughal rule.
the Aravidu dynasty, which ruled until the (a) Mining (b) Industrial duty
Sardeshmukhi was an additional ten
seventeenth century. (c) Land revenue (d) Import duty
percent levy on lands on which the
Marathas claimed hereditary rights. Sol.431.(c) Land revenue. Vijayanagar
Q.427. Who among the following
Bhoga (Gupta period) refers to the tax on empire: Sources of income - Land
Portuguese travellers visited the
gifts, flowers, wood, fruits, etc. Bhaga Revenue, tributes, and gifts from vassals
Vijayanagar empire during the reign of
(Mauryan period) - Tax on agricultural and feudal chiefs, customs at ports.
Krishnadevaraya ?
land levied at the rate of 1/6th.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.432. Who among the following
Q.424. Baji Rao I or Baji Rao Ballal was (a) Domingo Paes
Vijaynagar rulers married his daughter to
the son of ________. (b) Nicolo de Conti
Firuz Shah Bahmani?
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Ludovico de Varthema
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath (d) Athanasius Nikitin
(a) Deva Raya II (b) Deva Raya I
(b) Raghunath Rao (c) Krishna Deva Raya (d) Bukka I
Sol.427.(a) Domingo Paes. Foreign
(c) Shivaji
Travellers in India: Megasthenes, Greece Sol.432.(b) Dev Raya I. In 1406 -07, Firuz
(d) Madhav Rao
(Chandragupta Maurya); Deimachus, Shah the ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate,
Sol.424.(a) Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath Greece (Bindusara); Fa-Hien, China defeated Deva Raya-I, the ruler of the
(1713- 1720). He was the first of a line of (Chandragupta II); Niccolò de' Conti, Italy Vijayanagara Empire. Dynasty and Ruler:
hereditary Peshwas from the Bhat family. (Devaraya I); Fernao Nuniz (Achyuta Deve Sangama Dynasty - Harihara I and Bukka
Baji Rao I (1720-40) - Succeeded Balaji Raya). ; Saluva dynasty - Narasimha Deva Raya,
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 Pinnacle History
Thimma Bhupala, Narasimha Raya II. (c) ordinary peasants Sol.442.(a) Vijayanagar Empire
Tuluva dynasty- Krishnadeva Raya. (d) military commanders Architectural Wonders of Vijayanagara:
Queen’s Bath, Lotus Mahal, Elephant
Q.433. The founders of Vijayanagara Sol.438.(d) Military commanders. They stables, Royal platform, Water tanks.
Empire were the feudatories of which of were given territories to govern by the
the following dynasties? Raya and used to collect taxes and other Q.443. The Anantraj Sagar Tank was
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) dues from the peasants, traders and built by the __________rulers.
(a) Hoysala (b) Pandya craftspersons of the area. Gramas SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Kakatiya (d) Chola (villages), Gauda (village headman), (a) Vijayanagara (b) Maratha
Sthalas (sub districts), Nadus (districts), (c) Pala (d) Chola
Sol.433.(c) Kakatiya. {Mandalams or rajyas (provinces)}, Land
tax (sist). Sol.443.(a) The Vijayanagara empire
Q.434. The origin of 'Carnatic music' is built the Anantraj Sagar water storage
related to which of the following Q.439. While historians use the term tank using a 1.37 km long dam on the
Dynasties ? Vijayanagara Empire and contemporaries Maldevi river. Maldevi river runs through
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) of this empire described it as the _______. the Nellore district in the Indian state of
(a) Bahamani (b) Chola SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift) Andhra Pradesh and empties into the
(c) Pandya (d) Vijayanagar (a) Gajapati Samarajya Pennar river.
Sol.434.(d) Vijayanagar. Carnatic Music: (b) Karnataka Samrajyamu
Purandara Dasa - A poet-composer of (c) Andhra Samarajyu Wars and Treaties
Vijayanagar is the ‘Father of Carnatic (d) Sthalapati Samrajya
Q.444. Which Peshwa signed the treaty
Music’. Sol.439.(b) Karnataka Samrajyamu. of Bassein with the East India Company?

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Vijayanagara Empire (1336 -1646) - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q.435. Vijayanagara emperor
Established by Harihara and Bukka on

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Krishnadeva Raya founded a suburban (a) Raghunath Rao (b) Narayan Rao
the banks of river Tungabhadra. (c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhav Rao
township near Vijayanagara called

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Nagalapuram after his __________. Q.440. Raichur doab, the land between Sol.444.(c) Baji Rao II. The Treaty of
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) Krishna and Tungabhadra was a reason Bassein (1802): It was signed between
ap
(a) father (b) teacher (c) sister (d) mother of conflict between the kings of Lord Wellesley and Baji Rao II. Other
Vijayanagar and _________ . Treaty: Treaty of Surat (1775) was signed
Sol.435.(d) Mother.
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Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) between Raghunath Rao and the British.
Q.436. The local communities of (a) Malwa (b) Golconda
The Treaty of Salbai (1782) was signed
merchants were known as _________ in (c) Bahamani (d) Bengal
between the Maratha Empire and the
TG

the Vijayanagara empire. Sol.440.(c) Bahamani . The Bahmani British East India Company.
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) -Vijayanagar conflict started during the
(a) Rachavarus (b) Narapattis Q.445. Which king of Punjab signed a
period of HariHara Raya I. Both kingdoms
on

(c) Kudirai Chettis (d) Gajapattis tripartite treaty with Shah Shujah and the
wanted to control the fertile and rich
English Company ?
Raichur doab lying between rivers
Sol.436.(c) Kudirai Chettis (Horse SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
h

Krishna and Tungabhadra.

merchants). Rachavarus (Rajulu) - (a) Ranjit Singh (b) Lal Singh
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Associated with the ruling dynasty (rulers Q.441. Which battle led to the (c) Kharak Singh (d) Dileep Singh
a

and generals were actually Sudras). destruction of the Vijayanagara empire?

Sol.445.(a) Ranjit Singh. The Tripartite
Se

Narapati (Rayas) - Lord of Men. Gajapati - SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)

lord of elephants. Treaty was signed by Shah Shujah, Ranjit
(a) Battle of Raichur
Singh and Lord Auckland (Governor
(b) Battle of Haldighati
Q.437. The 'Pattanulkars' migrated from -General of India) in 1838.
(c) Battle of Talikota
the Gujarat region to the Vijayanagar
(d) Battle of Arcot Q.446. In 1850, Kashmir was sold under
state. They Were ___________ .
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 3rd shift) Sol.441.(c) Battle of Talikota which of the following treaties to the
(a) goldsmiths (b) cotton traders (Rakshasi–Tangadi) - It was fought on 23 Dogra dynasty of Jammu ?
(c) silk weavers (d) diamond makers January 1565 between the Vijayanagara SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Empire and an alliance of the Deccan (a) Treaty of Allahabad
Sol.437.(c) silk weavers. Important (b) Treaty of Sugauli
sultanates. Aliya Rama Raya (King of the
terms related to Medieval history:- (c) Treaty of Amritsar
Vijaynagar Empire) was defeated and
Bargir - Cavalrymen, Din - Religion, (d) Treaty of Purandar
killed in the battle, which eventually led to
Gomashta - Commercial agent, Shiqdar -
the political collapse of the Vijayanagara
Head of Administrative unit (Shiqq), Sol.446.(c) Treaty of Amritsar - It was
Empire. The Battle of Raichur - Fought
Subhas - Provinces, Zawabit - Secular executed by the British East India
between the Vijayanagara Empire and the
law. Company and Raja Gulab Singh of
Sultanate of Bijapur in 1520.
Jammu after the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Q.438. The Amara-Nayakas were Treaty of Allahabad : Signed in - 1765
Q.442. Provida style of architecture
in the Vijayanagara Empire. between the Mughal emperor Shah Alam
belongs to which empire?
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) II and Lord Clive of the British East India
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) forced laborers Company. Treaty of Sugauli - signed
(a) Vijayanagar Empire (b) Gupta Empire
(b) finance officers (c) Mauryan Empire (d) Bahmani Empire between Nepal and the East India
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 Pinnacle History
Company in 1815 and ratified by 4 March British East India Company led by Robert the invasion of which of the following
1816. Treaty of Purandar – Signed Clive and the Nawab of Bengal aggressors against India?
between Jai Singh I and Chhatrapati Siraj-ud-daula and his French allies. The SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Shivaji Maharaj in 1665. Battle of Sindhuli was part of the (a) Nadir Shah (b) Nasir Khan
unification of Nepal led by Prithvi (c) Ahmad Shah Abdali (d) Shah Shuja
Q.447. French possessions in India were Narayan Shah, King of Gorkha (later King
restored after the Battle of Wandiwash of Nepal). Battle of Tiruvannamalai Sol.454.(a) Nadir Shah. The Battle of
by the Treaty of __________ signed in the (1767) - Fought between the forces of Karnal - Fought between Nadir Shah
year 1763 between Britain and France. the East India Company and the Kingdom (Persian Empire of the Afsharid dynasty)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) of Mysore, led by Hyder Ali. and Muhammad Shah (Mughal Emperor)
(a) Purandar (b) Paris in 1739. Nadir Shah emerged victorious
(c) Tordesillas (d) Surat Q.451. Which of the following in the battle. He took the famous Koh - i -
Anglo-Maratha wars resulted in merging Noor diamond and Shah Jahan's
Sol.447.(b) Paris. The Battle of the Peshwas' territories with the Bombay jewel-studded Peacock Throne. He was
Wandiwash was fought in Vandavasi, Presidency? the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of
Tamil Nadu between the French and the SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) Iran.
British in 1760. This battle was part of (a) Fourth (b) Third (c) Second (d) First
the Third Carnatic War. The British Q.455. Who was the Mughal emperor
defeated the French. Sol.451.(b) Third (1817-1819). Anglo during the third battle of Panipat?
-Maratha war (The Great Maratha War) - SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q.448. The seven years of war in the The War was fought over territorial (a) Akbar II
18th century was fought between Britain disputes, political dominance, and (b) Shahalam II
and ________. control over resources. First (1775-1782) (c) Bahadur Shah I

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SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) - The Marathas won, Second (1803-1805) (d) Bahadurshah Jafar
(a) Germany (b) Portugal

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- The British won.
(c) France (d) Spain Sol.455.(b) Shahalam II (Ali Gauhar) -
Q.452. Mir Qasim name is associated Son of Alamgir II. Third Battle of Panipat

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Sol.448.(c) France. The Seven Years’ with which of the following battles of (14 January, 1761): Between Maratha
War, which took place between India? Empires and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
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1756-1763, was a global conflict that SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) (Victory - Ahmad Shah Abdali).
spanned five continents, though it was (a) Battle of Kirkee (b) Battle of Buxar
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known in America as the ‘French and (c) Battle of Plassey (d) Battle of Lahore Q.456. The Battle of Khatoli fought was
Indian War’. It solidified Britain’s stance in 1517 between the kingdom of Mewar
as the most dominant European country Sol.452.(b) Battle of Buxar (1764) : It under Rana Sanga and ______.
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in the world. Reason behind the Seven was fought between the forces of the SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
Years War - Both England and France British East India Company (led by (a) Sikander Lodi (b) Babur
wanted territories in North America. Hector Munro) and the combined army (c) Ibrahim Lodi (d) Mahmud Lodi
on

of an alliance of Shuja-ud-Daulah,
Q.449. Who was the Iranian ruler who Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Mir Sol.456.(c) Ibrahim Lodhi. The Lodi
attacked the city of Delhi and took away dynasty (1451 - 1526, an Afghan dynasty
h

Qasim. The Treaty of Allahabad (1765)

an immense amount of wealth in 1739 ? was the fifth and final dynasty of the
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was signed after this Battle.

SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Delhi Sultanate.
a

(a) Ahmad Shah Qajar (b) Nadir shah Q.453. The second Anglo-Mysore War
Q.457. In which of these battles the
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(c) Ahmad Shah Abdali (d) Abbas | came to an end by signing which of the
following treaties? involvement of the Mughal army was not
Sol.449.(b) Nadir Shah. Battle of Karnal SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) there?
(1739) : Fought between - Nadir Shah (a) The Treaty of Arcot SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
and Muhammad Shah. Victory - Nadir (b) The Treaty of Madras (a) Battle of Haldighati
Shah easily outnumbered the Mughal (c) The Treaty of Wandiwash (b) Battle of Buxar
forces and the Mughal emperor (d) The Treaty of Mangalore (c) Second Battle of Panipat
surrendered. Nadir Shah took the famous (d) Battle of Aliwal
Kohinoor diamond from India and Shah Sol.453.(d) The Treaty of Mangalore
Jahan's jewel studded peacock from the (1784). The second Anglo-Mysore War Sol.457.(d) Battle of Aliwal (1846) -
throne. (1780 - 84) was fought by Hyder Ali, the British (led by Sir Harry Smith) defeated
Nizam and the Marathas against the Sikh forces (led by Ranjodh Singh
Q.450. Which of the following was the British. Anglo-Mysore Wars : First (1767 Majithia).
first major and decisive victory for the - 69) - Between Hyder Ali and the British,
East India Company on the soil of India? Q.458. Which of the given statements is
concluded with the Treaty of correct?
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Madras.Third (1790 - 92) - The British,
(a) Battle of Sindhuli I. When Alivardi Khan died in 1756,
the Nizam and the Marathas fought Siraj-ud-daulah became the nawab of
(b) First Anglo-Maratha War together against Tipu Sultan, concluded
(c) Battle of Plassey Bengal.
with the Treaty of Seringapatam. Fourth II. In 1757, Robert Clive led the
(d) Battle of Tiruvannamalai (1798 - 99) - Between Arthur Wellesley company’s army against Siraj-ud-daulah
Sol.450.(c) Battle of Plassey (1757). and Tipu Sultan (Died). at Plassey.
This battle was fought between the Q.454. The Battle of Karnal is known for SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Afternoon)

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 Pinnacle History
(a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II Sol.463.(c) British. After Malhar Rao II Sol.468.(b) Siraj-ud-Daula . The Treaty
(c) Only I (d) Both I and II was defeated in the battle of Mahidpur of Alinagar was signed on 9 February
(1817) the treaty of Mandsaur was 1757 between Robert Clive of the British
Sol.458.(d) Both I and II. Battle of signed. East India Company and the Nawab of
Plassey (23 June 1757) - Bengal (led by Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Ud Daula.
Siraj ud-Daulah - last independent Nawab Q.464. Which of the following battles did Based on the terms of the accord, the
of Bengal) annexed by the British East Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah fight, defeating Nawab would recognize all the
India Company (led by Robert Clive - First the forces under Henry Lawrence? provisions of Mughal Emperor
British Governor of the Bengal SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Evening) Farrukhsiyar farman of 1717.
Presidency). (a) Battle of Kintoor
(b) Battle of Saragarhi
Q.459. In which year did Tipu Sultan die (c) Battle of Chinhat
Miscellaneous
defending his capital Seringapatam? (d) Battle of Najafgarh
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Afternoon) Q.469. The Dravidian style of temple
(a) 1799 (b) 1802 (c) 1792 (d) 1794 Sol.464.(c) Battle of Chinhat. In the architecture can be largely seen from
Battle of Chinhat, Barkat Ahmad was which part of India?
Sol.459.(a) 1799. He is known as Tiger declared Chief Army Officer of the rebels. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was inspired by The Battle of Chinhat was fought on the (a) Western India (b) Northern India
the Ideals of the French Revolution. Daria morning of 30 June 1857, between (c) Eastern India (d) Southern India
Daulat Bagh is known as Tipu Sultan’s British forces and Indian rebels.
Summer Palace. He was finally defeated Sol.469.(d) Southern India. Dravidian
at the hands of Lord Wellesley. Q.465. In the Battle of Swally (1612) the style of temple Features: Vimana,
British fought against the ______. Shikhara, Gopurams. Hindu temples can

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Q.460. Who emerged victorious in ‘The SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) be characterised under 3 broad
Siege of Arcot’ in 1751 AD ? (a) Danish (b) Portuguese categories - Nagara Style (northern

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SSC MTS 05/10/21 (Afternoon) (c) French (d) Dutch India), Dravida, and Vesara style
(a) French (b) Dutch (combination of both Nagara and

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(c) Portuguese (d) British Sol.465.(b) Portuguese. The battle took Dravida, its superstructure is
place on 29–30 November 1612 off the bell-shaped).
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Sol.460.(d) British. The Siege of Arcot
coast of Suvali, a village near Surat city.
was the battle between British and Q.470. Diwan-I-Am, containing the
This relatively small naval battle is
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combined forces of French and Nawab marble canopy ornamented with

historically important as it marked the
of Arcot. Robert Clive captured the Arcot beautiful panels of pietra dura work, is a
beginning of the end of Portugal’s
after the battle. The war ended with the part of which monument?
commercial monopoly over India and the
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Treaty of Pondicherry in 1754 which SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)

beginning of the ascent of the English
made Mohammad Ali Khan Walajah as (a) Bibi ka Makbara (b) Red Fort
East India Company’s presence in India.
Nawab of Arcot. (c) Taj Mahal (d) Humayun Tomb
on

Q.466. The Battle of Bedara was fought

Q.461. In which year was the Treaty of Sol.470.(b) Red Fort. The Diwan-i-Am
between the British Army and the Dutch
Versailles signed? (Hall of Public Audience) is part of the
Army in:
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SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening) Red Fort in Delhi. It is a significant

SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Afternoon)
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(a) 1921 (b) 1919 (c) 1933 (d) 1940 structure that was used by the Mughal
(a) 1760 (b) 1759 (c) 1772 (d) 1764
a

emperors for public meetings. Pietra

Sol.461.(b) 1919. The defeated Germany
Sol.466.(b) 25 November 1759, during
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dura is an Italian term that refers to a

after the First World War signed the
the Seven Years' War between a force of decorative art technique of inlaying cut,
Treaty of Versailles on 28 June 1919.
British troops mainly of the British East polished, colored stones into marble or
Q.462. Which of the following regions India Company and a force of the Dutch other hard surfaces to create images.
was annexed by the British East India East India Company.
Q.471. Which red and buff sandstone is
Company through the Treaty of Yandabo Q.467. The British annexed Punjab after the tallest tower in India built in the
(1826) ? defeating the Sikhs in the Anglo-Sikh War thirteenth century?
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) in the year ______. SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Assam (b) Kashmir SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening) (a) Shaheed Minar (b) Chand Minar
(c) Odisha (d) Ladakh (a) 1835 (b) 1839 (c) 1849 (d) 1845 (c) Jhulta Minar (d) Qutub Minar
Sol.462.(a) Assam. Treaty of Yandabo Sol.467.(c) 1849. This war resulted in Sol.471.(d) Qutub Minar (Delhi). It has a
was the peace treaty that resulted at the the fall of the Sikh Empire and The East diameter of 14.32 m at the base and
end of the First Anglo Burmese War. It India Company annexed Punjab and it about 2.75 m on the top with a height of
was signed between the British and became part of North West Frontier 72.5 m. Qutbu'd-Din Aibak laid the
Burmese. Province. foundation of Minar in AD 1199.
Q.463. In 1818, the Holkar Dynasty Q.468. Who signed the treaty of Alinagar Q.472. Which of the following
signed the Treaty of Mandsaur with the with the British? statements is/are correct temples of
______. SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Afternoon) Khajuraho?
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Mir Qasim (b) Siraj-ud-Daula a) Equal importance is given to human
(a) Danish (b) Dutch (c) British (d) French (c) Alivardi Khan (d) Mir Jafar experience and spiritual pursuit.
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 Pinnacle History
b) Jain and Hindu temples are also found SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.479. Who was the founder of the
at Khajuraho. (a) Isami (b) Hasan Nizami Bahmani Sultanate?
c) Chausanth Yogini temple is one of the (c) Ibn Batuta (d) Al Biruni SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
important temples here. (a) Muhammad Shah
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.475.(c) Ibn Battuta, a traveler from (b) Feroz Shah Bahmani
(a) All a, b and c (b) Only a and b Morocco, authored a book of travels (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Only c and a (d) Only b and c called Rihla, which is written in Arabic (d) Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah
and provides rich and fascinating details
Sol.472.(a) All a, b and c. Khajuraho’s about the social and cultural life in the Sol.479.(d) Alauddin Hasan Bahman
temples are also known for their subcontinent during the 14th century. Shah founded the Bahmani Sultanate in
extensive erotic sculptures. Khajuraho’s Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was the ruler of 1347. Its capital was Ahsanabad
sculptures are highly stylised with typical the Delhi sultanate when Ibn Batuta (Gulbarga) from 1347 to 1425, later
features. Notable examples include the came to India. The Sultan was impressed shifted to Muhammadabad (Bidar).
Kandariya Mahadeo temple, dedicated to by his scholarship, and appointed him
Lord Shiva, and the Lakshmana temple, the qazi or judge of Delhi. Q.480. Which State was founded by
dedicated to Vishnu. Nizam-ul-Mulk in 1724?
Q.476. Chand Bardai’s famous literary SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.473. The title of ‘Chief of the work ________, mentions Prithviraj (a) Mysore (b) Hyderabad
Merchants’ or ‘Malikut-Tujjar’ was Chauhan‘s love story and heroic deeds. (c) Bengal (d) Awadh
conferred on Mahmud Gawan by which SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
of the following Bahamani kings ? (a) Harakeli Nataka Sol.480.(b) Hyderabad. Nizam-ul-Mulk
SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) Abhidhana Chintamani Asaf Jah (Chin Qilich Khan) was one of
(a) Mohammad Shah the most powerful members at the court
(c) Prithviraj Raso

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(b) Humayun Shah of the Mughal Emperor Farrukh Siyar. He
(d) Rajamartanda
(c) NizamuddinAhmad III was entrusted first with the governorship

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(d) Bahman Shah Sol.476.(c) Prithviraj Raso. It is a Braj of Awadh, and later given charge of the
language epic poem about the life of Deccan.

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Sol.473.(b) Humayun Shah. Mahmud
Prithviraj Chauhan. Other Ancient Books
Gawan (Khawaja Mahmud Gilani), a Q.481. Under the Bahmani kingdom, the
and Authors : ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ - Abul Fazl,
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Persian trader who arrived in Deccan, provinces were administered by_______
‘Mahabharata’ - Vyasa, ‘Ramayana’ -
rose to prominence in the Bahmani SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Valmiki, ‘Shakuntala’ - Kalidasa, and
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kingdom. Under Humayun Shah's reign, (a) Amirs (b) Afaquis

‘Mudrarakshas’ - Vishakhadatta.
he was appointed as Prime Minister with (c) Khalisa (d) Tarafdars
complete control over military affairs and Q.477. Who among the following rulers
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received the title 'Malik-ut-Tujjar' (Chief of Sol.481.(d) Tarafdars. The Bahmani

built five astronomical observatories at
Merchants). Kingdom, established in 1347 by
different places in north India?
Ala-ud-din Hassan Bahman Shah after
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
on

Q.474. Match the following books with revolting against the Delhi Sultanate. It
(a) Sawai Mansingh
their respective authors. was divided into four administrative
(b) Maharana Pratap
Book Author regions known as "taraf." These regions
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(c) Sawai Jaisingh II

a) Tajul Ma'asir i) Yahya bin Ahmad included Daulatabad, Bidar, Berar, and
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(d) Madho Singh

Sirhimdi Gulbarga, each governed by a tarafdar or
a

b) Khazain-ul Futuh ii) Hasan Nizami Sol.477.(c) Sawai Jaisingh II founded subedar.
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c) Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi iii) Ziauddin Barani the city of Jaipur on 18 November 1727

Q.482. Who among the following is
d) Tarikh-i- iv) Amir Khusrav AD. He was appointed the Subedar
known as Tuti-e-Hind ?
Mubarakshahi (governor) of Agra in 1722. He
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) established five Jantar Mantar
(a) Surdas (b) Tansen
(a) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii (b) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i observatories, located in Delhi, Jaipur,
(c) Amir Khusro (d) Naubat Khan
(c) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii (d) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi.
Sol.482.(c) Amir Khusro is one of India's
Sol.474.(b) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i. Some Q.478. Which of the following dynasties’
greatest Persian-language poets. His
other ancient books and their authors : genealogy was found in the Bijolia
books - Tughlaq Nama, Khazain-ul-Fatuh.
‘Akbar-Namah’ - Abul Fazal, inscription?
Other writers: Surdas - Sur Sagar,
‘Buddhacharita’ - Ashvaghosha, ‘Prithviraj SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sur-Saravali. Tansen -
Raso’ - Chand Bardai, ‘Geet Govinda’ - (a) Gahadavala (b) Parmara
Tashrih-ul-moosiqui.
Jaidev, ‘Rajtarangini’ - Kalhana, (c) Chandela (d) Chahamana
‘Kumarasambhavam’ - Kalidasa, Q.483. Which of the following forts was
Sol.478.(d) Chahamana. Bijoliya
‘Ashtadhyayi’ - Panini, and ‘Mahabhasya’ - built by Raja Rai Singh in 1588?
Inscription reveals that Chauhans are
Patanjali. Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Vats Gotriya Brahman. This inscription
(a) Junagarh Fort (b) Amer Fort
Q.475. According to which of the provides information about the names of
(c) Sonar Kila (d) Kumbhal Garh
following foreign travellers, people of Jabalipur, Shakmbhari, Srimal. An
Delhi used to write letters containing inscription of Vikram Samvat 1226 Sol.483.(a) Junagarh Fort. It is located in
abuses to the Sultan, therefore, in order Falgun Krishna Tritiya is inscribed on a Bikaner, Rajasthan. It was originally
to punish them Sultan decided to shift rock near the northern wall of the ancient called Chintamani and later renamed to
the capital? Parshvanath temple located in Bijolia. mean "Old Fort." Amer Fort: It is situated
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 Pinnacle History
in Amer near Jaipur, was initially built by Q.488. Select the INCORRECT pair of a Q.492. Who composed 'Shahnama" ?
Raja Man Singh and expanded by Sawai famous minaret and its construction year SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
Jai Singh. Kumbhalgarh Fort: It is located in India. (a) Abdulla (b) Alberuni
in Rajsamand district, was constructed SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (c) Ferdowsi (d) Utbi
by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century, with (a) Shaheed Minar–1828 CE
chief architect Mandan showcasing his (b) Char Minar–1664 CE Sol.492.(c) Ferdowsi (Court poet of
style in Raja Vallabh. (c) Chand Minar–1435 CE Mahmud of Ghazni) - A Persian poet and
(d) Jhulta Minar–1452 CE the author of Shahnameh ("Book of
Q.484. After the breakup of the Bahmani Kings''), which is one of the world's
kingdom, how many independent states Sol.488.(b) Char Minar–1664 CE. It was longest epic poems created by a single
arose? built by Sultan Mohammed Quli Qutb poet, and the greatest epic of
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) Shah in 1591. It was built in honour of his Persian-speaking countries.
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5 wife, Bhagmati in Hyderabad. Shaheed
Minar: It was built in the memory of Q.493. Malik Ambar, who resisted
Sol.484.(d) 5. After the death of Major-general Sir David Ochterlony, Mughals in Deccan, was an able
Muhammad Shah-III (ruler) in 1482, the commander of the British East India administrator of which state?
Kingdom was disintegrated into five Company. SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift)
kingdoms: Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Bera, (a) Bidar (b) Bijapur
Golconda and Bidar. Q.489. What did the term 'bhoga' refer to (c) Golconda (d) Ahmednagar
during the medieval period?
Q.485. Who among the following SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.493.(d) Ahmednagar. Malik Ambar
Bahmani sultans transferred his capital (a) Revenue assignments was an African-origin statesman and
from Gulbarga to Bidar? (b) Donations to temples military leader who served as the regent

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SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (c) A festival of the Nizam Shahi dynasty in the
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Humayun Deccan, of Ahmednagar (now part of

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(d) Religious function
(c) Mujahid Shah (d) Firuz Shah Maharashtra).
Sol.489.(a) Revenue Assignment. Other

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Sol.485.(a) Ahmad Shah (1422-1435). Type of Tax : Kara - It was a generic term Q.494. The Imadshahi family was known
Bahmani sultanate was established by used for taxes. Hiranya - Tax on special for the foundation of which state?
ap
Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (Zafar produce taken in cash. Chat - Security SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
Khan) in 1347. Bahmani kingdom Tax. Prataya -Toll Tax. (a) Berar (b) Bidar
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comprises the parts of the current day’s (c) Ahmednagar (d) Golkonda
Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Q.490. Joseph Francois Dupleix was the
Pradesh. Governor General of which of the Sol.494.(a) Berar (Maharashtra). Imad
TG

following East India companies in India? Shahi Dynasty: Established by - Fathullah

Q.486. Europeans entered India with a SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Imad Ul Mulk (1490). He fortified
mindset of trading only. This streak was (a) Dutch (b) French Gavilgad and Narnala. Berar Sultanate
on

initiated by which of the following (c) English (d) Portuguese was annexed by Sultan Murtaza Shah of
European nations ? Ahmednagar Kingdom in 1574. Capital -
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.490.(b) French (Last European to Ellichpur.
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(a) Dutch (b) French arrive in India). Governor-General Dupleix

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(c) British (d) Portuguese was appointed in 1742. French East India Q.495. In the 15th century, a text called
_____ is ascribed popularly to Lochan Kavi.
a

Company : Established in - 1664. The

Sol.486.(d) Portuguese - They were the SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
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First French Factory - Surat (1668),

first Europeans to come to India by Sea Second Factory - Masulipatam (1669), (a) Hridayprakash (b) Sangeet Darpan
routes in 1498, led by Vasco da Gama at Headquarters - Pondicherry. Europeans (c) Anup Vilas (d) Raag Tarangini
Calicut (Kerala). European nations in India - Portuguese (1498), Dutch
arrived in India after Portuguese: Dutch, Sol.495.(d) Raag Tarangini - Initiated an
(1602), British (1608), Danes (1616). alternative system of the division of rags,
English, Danish, and French. The
Portuguese were also the last to leave Q.491. Rajaram was the leader of which 'the Thaat system'. Lochan Kavi (Lochan
India in 1961. of the following revolts against the Panḍit) belonged to the Mithila region
Mughlas? (Bihar). “Sangeet Darpan” was written by
Q.487. Who succeeded Alivardi Khan as SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) Damodar Pandit. “Anup Rag Vilas” is
Nawab of Bengal ? (a) Satnami (b) Bundela written by Kumar Gandharva.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Jat (d) Munda
(a) Shaukat Jang (b) Siraj-ud-Daulah Q.496. Who founded the independent
(c) Mir Kasim (d) Mir Jaffar Sol.491.(c) Jat revolt (Mathura). In 1669 State of Bengal?
CE against Aurangzeb. Satnami revolt SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.487.(b) Siraj-ud-Daulah (Reign: 1756 (1672) - The Satnamis were a sect (a) Alivardi khan (b) Murshid Quli Khan
-1757) - Last independent Nawab of comprising peasants, artisans and (c) Sarafraz Khan (d) Shuja-ud-Din
Bengal. Alivardi Khan - Nawab of Bengal untouchables who rebelled against the
from 1740 to 1756. He is known for his Sol.496.(b) Murshid Quli Khan (Zamin Ali
Aurangzeb in Narnaul (Haryana).
victory during the battle of Burdwan Quli) was born as Surya Narayan Mishra;
Bundela Rebellion (1842) - Jawahar
against Maratha Empire during the the first Nawab of Bengal (1717 to 1727).
Singh Bundela of Chandrapur and
Maratha invasion of Bengal. Mir Qasim - He built the Katra Masjid (1723-1724)
Madhukar Shah of Narhat were the
Nawab of Bengal (1760-1763). where he was buried after his death.
leaders of the revolt.
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 Pinnacle History
Q.497. Who among the following was the Sol.501.(a) Dark Schist Stone. The (c) Chanting (d) Ritual
Maharana of Mewar and composed a temples were known for its pillared hall
book on music called 'Sangeet Raj' ? and stellate plan. Capital of Hoysala - Sol.506.(a) Dancing. Medieval Terms
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) Dorasamudra (Dwarasamudra). and Meaning: Amils (Revenue), Bargir
(a) Maharana Sanga (Cavalrymen), Daam (Coin), Dhimmis
(b) Maharana Pratap Q.502. Udaipur was founded by _________ (Non-Muslims people), Din (Religion),
(c) Maharana Kumbha after the fall of Chittor to Akbar in 1568. Diwan (Function of finance), Wilayat (The
(d) Maharana Udai Singh SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon) spiritual territory of a Sufi).
(a) Sawai Jai Singh (b) Raja Bharmal
Sol.497.(c) Maharana Kumbha (c) Man singh (d) Rana Udai Singh Q.507. Bhakti saints, Nayanars were
(1433-1468 AD) belonged to the Sisodia devotees of which of the following gods?
clan of Rajputs. Titles of Maharana Sol.502.(d) Rana Udai Singh. Udaipur is SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
Kumbha: Abhinav Bhattacharya, Rajguru, known as 'Venice of the East' and the city (a) Murugan (b) Shiva (c) Vishnu (d) Indra
Daanguru, Halguru, Rano Raso. of lakes.
Sol.507.(b) Shiva. The Nayanars were a
Q.498. Name the Bhakti Saint from South Q.503. Which architectural style of India group of 63 saints devoted to Lord Shiva
India who was initially a Jaina and a was distinguished by the use of who lived during the 6th to 8th centuries
minister in the court of a Chalukya king in overhanging balconies and arched CE. The Alwars were Tamil poet-saints of
the twelfth century. cornices? South India who espoused devotion to
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) Lord Vishnu.
(a) Karaikkal Ammaiyar (a) Rajput (b) Sikh (c) Nagar (d) Mughal
Q.508. Which among the following forts
(b) Basavanna
Sol.503.(a) Rajput. The Rajput fort ‘Hawa was principal capital of Qutb Shahi
(c) Eknath

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Mahal’ (Jaipur) is an example of Rajput dynasty in Hyderabad?
(d) Tallapaka Annamacharya
Architecture. Hawa Mahal was built by SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift)

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Sol.498.(b) Basavanna - Founder of Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh in Jaipur. (a) Chiktan Fort (b) Rajgad Fort
Lingayatism; Prime minister of Sikh Style - The Harimandir Sahib (c) Red Fort (d) Golconda Fort

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Kalachurya king Bijjala (1157-1167); (Golden Temple). Mughal Style - Taj
Founded the Anubhava Mantapa. Mahal, Humayun’s Tomb, Agra Fort. Sol.508.(d) Golconda Fort - It was built
ap
by the Kakatiya Dynasty. It was the
Q.499. The eleventh century structure of Q.504. Ananga Pala was a ruler of which principal capital of the Qutb Shahi
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Bhojshala in the state of Madhya dynasty ? dynasty in Hyderabad. Rajgad Fort -

Pradesh was constructed under the SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening) Pune ( Maharashtra). Chhatrapati Shivaji
patronage of which dynasty? (a) Rajput Dynasty renovated this fort and made it his
TG

Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) (b) Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty capital in 1674 AD. Chiktan Fort - Kargil
(a) Chandela (b) Paramara (c) Pallava Dynasty (Ladakh).
(c) Nanda (d) Gurjara-Pratihara (d) Khilji Dynasty
Q.509. Which of the following books was
on

Sol.499.(b) Paramara. 'Bhojshala' is an Sol.504.(a) Rajput Dynasty - It was written by the Roman writer Pliny the
ancient and the only temple of Mata founded by Simharaj, who is famously elder?
h

Saraswati. It is located in Dhar district of known as the founder of the city of SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
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Madhya Pradesh. The Paramara dynasty Ajmer. Ananga Pala - He was a king of (a) Indica
(Rajput) ruled Malwa and the adjacent the Tomara dynasty, who ruled over (b) Natural History
a

regions in west-central India from the 9th areas of Delhi in India. (c) Geographica
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century to the 14th century. Founder - (d) Periplus of the Erythraean Sea
Upendra or Krishnaraja. Q.505. The Ahom Kingdom in India was
located in the _______. Sol.509.(b) Natural History. Important
Q.500. In which of the following places is SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) Books and Authors: “Gathasaptashati” -
the Tomb of Ahmad Shah Al Wali (a) Chota Nagpur plateau Hala, “Indica” - Megasthenes,
Bahmani built ? (b) Vindhayas “Geographica” - Strabo, “Periplus of the
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1) (c) Brahmaputra valley Erythraean Sea:” - William H Schoff,
(a) Fatehpur Sikri (b) Agra (d) Coastal Odisha “Kathasaritsagara” - Somadeva,
(c) Ashtoor (d) Ajmer “Mudrarakshasa” - Vishakhadatta,
Sol.505.(c) Brahmaputra valley. “Rajtarangini” - Kalhana.
Sol.500.(c) Ashtoor. Ahmed Shah Al Wali Chaolung Sukapha founded the Ahom
Bahamani (1422 to 1436, Bahmani kingdom (13th century) that ruled Assam Q.510. Which of the following cities
Sultanate) - Ashtoor is an important for six centuries. It was annexed by became the capital of Bengal in 1704 ?
center of Indo-Saracenic monuments. British India in 1826 with the signing of SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Twelve imposing mausoleums are the Treaty of Yandaboo. Lachit (a) Howrah (b) Murshidabad
located at Ashtur east of Bidar. Borphukan (military general of Ahom (c) Kharagpur (d) Kolkata
kingdom) defeated mughal forces in the
Q.501. The Hoysaleshvara temple was Sol.510.(b) Murshidabad. Murshid Quli
Battle of Saraighat 1671.
built with which of the following stones Khan (Zamin Ali Quli) transferred his
by a Hoysala king in 1150? Q.506. What did the medieval term capital to the then Mukhsusabad later
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) "Raqs" mean ? came to be known after Murshid Quli
(a) Dark Schist Stone (b) White Marble SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) Khan as Murshidabad in 1704 A.D.
(c) Sandstone (d) Grey Basalt (a) Dancing (b) Singing Murshidabad (West Bengal) on the banks
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 Pinnacle History
of the Bhagirathi became the center of (a) Henry Irwin Q.518. Who among the following was
silk. Murshid Quli Khan (1717-1727) was (b) William Emerson given the title of ‘Uttarapatha Swamin’ ?
the first Nawab of Bengal. (c) Frederick William Stevens SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) Edwin Lutyens (a) Mahipala (b) Devapala
Q.511. Which of the following statement (c) Dharmapala (d) Gopala
is correct with respect to the Prashastis Sol.514.(a) Henry Irwin. Mysore Palace
and land grants? (also known as Amba Villas) is a Sol.518.(c) Dharmapala assumed the
I. Prashastis were composed by learned historical palace at Mysore in Karnataka. title of Uttarapatha Swamin, Parama
Brahmanas. It was the official residence of the Bhattaraka, Paramesvara, and
II. Kings often rewarded Brahmanas by Wadiyar dynasty. Mysore Palace was Maharajadhiraja. He was the successor
grants of land which were recorded on constructed in Indo-Saracenic style of Gopala (founder of the Pala empire).
copper plates. architecture. He was a pious Buddhist. He founded
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Vikramshila University in Bhagalpur,
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II Q.515. The Vimana in the Dravidian style Bihar.
(c) Only II (d) Neither I nor II of temple architecture is usually in which
shape? Q.519. Who was the ruler of Mysore in
Sol.511.(b) Both I and II. Prashastis Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) 1761 ?
(metal plates) were written by Brahmans (a) Semi-Circular (b) Cylindrical SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
in Sanskrit or any regional language. (c) Pyramidal (d) Rectangular (a) Baji Rao (b) Murshid Quli Jafar Khan
They have been written in the 1st (c) Hyder Ali (d) Nizam-ul-Mulk
millennium and onwards in the form of Sol.515.(c) Pyramidal. Gopuram
(entrance gateway in the center of the Sol.519.(c) Hyder Ali. In 1769, he
prose or poetry. Example: Allahabad
front wall). Antarala (vestibular tunnel), defeated the British forces several times
Pillar Inscription Sanskrit poem (by

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garbhagriha (the innermost sanctuary of and reached the Madras walls. In the
Harishena in praise of King
a Hindu and Jain temple). Famous second Anglo-Mysore War, he died in

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Samudragupta). Agrahara (Agraharam,
Dravidian Temples - Rajarajeswara or 1782 and was succeeded by his son
Ghatoka, Boya) refers to the land, village,
Brihadeshwara temple (Rajaraja Chola at Tipu.

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or fields that were given to Brahmans.
Thanjavur), Gangaikondacholapuram
Q.520. In 1590, the Govind Deva temple
Q.512. The craftspersons of Bidar were temple (Rajendra I), Annamalaiyar
ap
of Vrindavan, near Mathura was
so famed for their inlay work in ______. Temple (Tiruvannamalai, Tamil Nadu),
constructed from ______ sandstone.
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu),
:@

SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)

(a) Gold and Bronze (b) Bronze and Silver Airavatesvara Temple (Tamil Nadu) etc.
(a) yellow (b) black (c) white (d) Red
(c) Gold and Copper (d) Copper and Silver
Q.516. Consider the following
TG

Sol.520.(d) Red. The Govind Deva temple

Sol.512.(d) Copper and Silver. Work of statements about a fort:
was built by the king of Jaipur, Man
Bidar (Karnataka) craftsperson called 1. It was originally known as Mankal.
Singh, in 1590 in Vrindavan in Uttar
BIdri. Bidar was the capital of Bahmani 2. It was built on a hilltop in 1143.
Pradesh.
on

Kingdom in the 14th century. Bidar fort In the above mentioned sentences, forts
was built by Ahmad Shah Wali Bahman. is being talked about? Q.521. The book ‘Man Kautuhal’ was
h

Bidar is also considered one of the SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening) compiled by which of the following kings
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holiest places for Sikh pilgrimage. (a) Chitradurg Fort (b) Daulatabad Fort of Medieval India?
(c) Fort Aguada (d) Golconda Fort SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
a

Q.513. In 1342, one of the nobles, Haji

(a) Raja Mansingh Tomar
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Ilyas Khan united Bengal and became its Sol.516.(d) Golconda fort (Hyderabad;
(b) Krishna II
ruler under the title of __________and laid Built by the Qutb shahi dynasty).
(c) Parantaka Viranarayana
the foundation of the Ilyas Shah dynasty. Chitradurga fort (Karnataka; built by the
(d) Rajashekhara Varman
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) Chalukyas and Hoysalas, later the
(a) Shams-ud-din Iliyas Shah Nayakas of Chitradurga of the Sol.521.(a) Raja Mansingh Tomar. He
(b) Ghiyasuddin Azam Vijayanagar Empire. Daulatabad fort was the ruler of Gwalior. He was a patron
(c) Sultan Abu al-Mujahid (Maharashtra; built by Yadava dynasty), of the Dhrupad genre from Hindustani
(d) Sultan Sayf ad-Din and Aguada Fort (Goa; built by Classical Music. He built Gwalior fort
Portuguese). (Gujari Mahal and Man Mandir Palace).
Sol.513.(a) Shams-ud-din Ilyas Shah The founder of the Tomar dynasty in
{(founder of Bengal Sultanate and Ilyas Q.517. The ancient Neemrana Baori is India was Anangapala I.
Shahi dynasty (First dynasty of Bengal)}. located in which of the following districts
Dynasties of Bengal Sultanate - Ilyas of Rajasthan? Q.522. King Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled
Shahi (1342-1415), Ganesha (1414 SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) over ______.
-1435), Restorer of Ilyas Dynasty (a) Ajmer (b) Alwar (c) Bikaner (d) Jaipur SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening)
(Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah-I, 1435 (a) Gujarat (b) Sikkim
-1487), Habshi rule (Shahzada Barbak, Sol.517.(b) Alwar. Famous Baori in India (c) Kerala (d) Kashmir
1487-1494) and Hussain Shahi dynasty - Chand Baori (Rajasthan), Agrasen Ki
Baoli (New Delhi), Rani ki Vav (Gujarat), Sol.522.(d) Kashmir. Aḥmad Shah I was
(Alauddin Hussain Shah - 1494-1519).
Pushkarani (Karnataka), Baoli Ghaus Ali the first independent sultan of Gujarat,
Q.514. Who was the architect of the Shah (Haryana), Mata Bhavani ni Vav who founded Ahmedabad (1411).The
famous Mysore Palace in Karnataka? (Gujarat), Rajon ki Baoli (New Delhi), Chogyal (king who governs with
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Surya Kund (Gujarat). righteousness) Palden Namgyal Thodup
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 Pinnacle History
was crushed in 1975 and Sikkim merged Rang Ghar, constructed by the Ahom SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
with India as its 22nd state. King King Swargadeo Promotta Singha. (a) Alfred Foucher (b) HH Cole
Mahabali ruled over Kerala. (c) John Marshall (d) Rajendra Lal Mitra
Q.528. Who among the following was the
Q.523. Chandannagar was established founder of the Bhakti sect named Sol.533.(b) HH Cole. He was a British
as a French colony in 1673, obtaining 'Pushtimarg'? civil servant and inventor who facilitated
permission from______ the then Nawab SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) many innovations in commerce and
of Bengal, to establish a trading post on (a) Vallabhacharya (b) Kabir Education.
the right bank of the river Hooghly. (c) Shankaracharya (d) Ramanuja
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening) Q.534. Who among the following was a
(a) Mansur Ali Khan Sol.528.(a) Vallabhacharya founded the Portuguese writer who wrote about the
(b) Murshid Quli Khan Krishna-centered PushtiMarg sect of trade and society in South India?
(c) Ibrahim Khan Vaishnavism in the Braj region of India, SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning)
(d) Mir Zafar and the philosophy of Shuddha advaita (a) Niccolao Manucci
(Pure Nondualism). Pushtimarg is a form (b) Francois Bernier
Sol.523.(c) Ibrahim Khan. French of Krishna worship for adoration. (c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Colonies In India- Pondicherry, Karaikal, (d) Duarte Barbosa
Yanam (Andhra Pradesh) on the Q.529. Who among the following was the
Coromandel Coast, Mahe on the Malabar founder of the Suryavamsi Gajapati Sol.534.(d) Duarte Barbosa was the
Coast and Chandernagor in Bengal. dynasty that ruled parts of Orissa and Portuguese writer who visited India
Andhra Pradesh in the 15th century? during (1500-1516) and wrote about the
Q.524. Hafiz (Hafez) was a ______ SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) trade and society in South India in his
century poet whose collection of poems (a) Bhanu Deva (b) Vasu Deva manuscript, ‘The Book of Duarte

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is known as 'Diwan' or 'Diwan-e-Hafiz'. (c) Surendra Deva (d) Kapilendra Deva Barbosa’.
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)

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(a) 14th (b) 15th (c) 16th (d) 17th Sol.529.(d) Kapilendra Deva was the Q.535. Who among the following was the
founder of the Suryavamsi Gajapati first Portuguese viceroy of India?

na
Sol.524.(a) 14th-century '. Hafez was an dynasty that ruled parts of Orissa and SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
Iranian poet. His collection of poems Andhra Pradesh in the 15th century (a) Alfonso de Albuquerque
ap
‘Diwan’ is in Persian language. Most of (1434–66 CE). (b) Duarte de Menezes
the parts of ‘Diwan’ are Ghazals. (c) Francisco de Almeida
:@

Q.530. Who among the following was the (d) Lopo Soares de Albergaria
Q.525. In the context of Sufi traditions, Nizam of Hyderabad in 1947?
what is the meaning of the word 'sama'? SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.535.(c) Francisco de Almeida was
TG

SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Mir Mahbub Ali Khan (b) Osman Ali the first Portuguese viceroy of India in
(a) recitation of sacred songs (c) Akbar Ali Khan (d) Nasir Jung 1505. He was given the credit of
(b) Magical feat Portuguese possession in India. His
Sol.530.(b) Osman Ali. He was the last
on

(c) disciple policy was to maintain a strong naval

(d) Ashram Nizam (ruler) of the Princely State of army over the Indian ocean. Portuguese
Hyderabad. He ruled the Kingdom of Governor Afonso de Albuquerque
h

Sol.525.(a) recitation of sacred songs. Hyderabad between 1911 and 1948. captured Goa from the Adil Shahis in
rc

Sufism (tasawwuf) is a mystic sect of 1510 AD.

Islam that emphasizes introspection and Q.531. Which of the following is the
a

spiritual closeness with God. meaning of ‘Pishtaq’ in the context of

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medieval Indo-Islamic Architecture? Modern History

Q.526. ______ was one of the first Indian SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
rulers to lead an armed rebellion against (a) Dome (b) Tall gateway
The Revolt of 1857
the British East India Company in 1824 (c) True arch (d) Water tank
against the implementation of the
Sol.531.(b) tall gateway. Pishtaq is a Q.536. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of
Doctrine of Lapse.
Persian/Farsi word that means ‘front of 1857, on which of the following dates did
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
arch’. It is a rectangular frame around an the soldiers at Meerut start their journey
(a) Kittur Chennamma (b) Titumir
arched opening of a building like to Delhi?
(c) Jayi Rajaguru (d) Pazhassi Raja
mosques and palaces. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.526.(a) Kittur Chennamma was one (a) 10 May (b) 19 April
of the first Indian rulers to lead an armed Q.532. Prophet Muhammad founded the (c) 2 June (d) 29 March
rebellion against the British East India faith of Islam in the ______ century.
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.536.(a) 10 May. The Revolt of 1857,
Company in 1824 against the
(a) sixth (b) eighth (c) seventh (d) ninth the first major rebellion against the
implementation of the Doctrine of Lapse.
British East India Company, began in
Q.527. 'Rang Ghar', one of Asia's oldest Sol.532.(c) Seventh century. Islam is the Meerut. The immediate cause of this
amphitheatres, was built by the king of 2nd largest religion in the world. Largest revolt was the introduction of the Enfield
the ___dynasty. religion - Christianity. rifle and its greased cartridges. In March
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) 1857, Mangal Pandey, a sepoy in
Q.533. Who among the following was
(a) Sen (b) Ahom (c) Mughal (d) Gupta Barrackpore, refused to use the new
appointed as the curator of ancient
cartridges because of the rumor that
Sol.527.(b) Ahom Dynasty. monuments in 1880?
they were greased with pork and beef fat,
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 Pinnacle History
which violated their religious beliefs, and Q.541. Who among the following leaders Company, making the revenue payable to
he attacked his officers, which led to his led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? the company a permanent, unchanging
execution on April 8. On 9th May, 85 SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) sum.
soldiers in Meerut refused the new rifles (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Devi Singh
and were imprisoned. Lord Canning was (c) Rajkumar Shukla (d) Kunwar Singh Q.547. Who among the following devised
the British viceroy during the revolt. the system of ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?
Sol.541.(d) Kunwar Singh. SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.537. The revolution of 1857 started in (a) Lord Wellesley
May from which of the following Q.542. Nana Sahib, a rebel at Kanpur (b) Lord Canning
cantonments in India? was the son of which of the following (c) Lord William Bentinck
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Peshwas? (d) Lord Dalhousie
(a) Kanpur (b) Jhansi SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Lucknow (d) Meerut (a) Baji Rao I (b) Balaji Baji Rao Sol.547.(a) Lord Wellesley : He devised
(c) Baji Rao II (d) Balaji Vishwanath the Subsidiary Alliance as a system in
Sol.537.(d) Meerut. The 1857 Revolution, 1798. Under this system, Indian rulers
also known as the Indian Mutiny, began Sol.542.(c) Bajirao II (10 January 1775 –
were required to maintain British forces
in Meerut on May 10 and spread to Delhi, 28 January 1851) was the last Peshwa of
within their territory and adhere to British
Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow. It was the Maratha Empire.
political advice. States that accepted the
suppressed after the rebels were Q.543. Which Mughal ruler contributed to alliance included Hyderabad (1798),
defeated in Gwalior on June 20, 1858. the revolt of 1857 ? Mysore (1799), Awadh (1801), Peshwa
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) (1802), Bhosle and Scindia (1803).
Q.538. When did the first War of Indian
Independence (Sepoy Mutiny) start? (a) Shahalam II (b) Bahadur shah I
Q.548. Which Governor-General of British

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SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Alamgir II (d) Bahadur shah II
India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally
(a) 1839 (b) 1857 (c) 1887 (d) 1819 abolish the Sati practice?

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Sol.543.(d) Bahadur Shah II (Bahadur
Shah Zafar). He was the twentieth and SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.538.(b) 1857. The revolt began on
(a) Lord Ripon

na
May 10, 1857, at Meerut as a sepoy last Mughal Emperor of India. In 1857
Bahadur Shah II was deposed by the (b) Lord Curzon
mutiny. It occurred during the reign of
(c) Lord Cornwallis
ap
Governor-General Lord Canning. British and exiled to Rangoon.
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Q.539. Which military officer led the Q.544. The sepoys of Meerut arrived at
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the Gates of Red Fort to meet the Mughal Sol.548.(d) Lord William Bentinck. He
British forces in the Battle of Chinhat
emperor, Bahadur Shah on _____________. was appointed Governor of Madras in
fought in 1857?
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) 1803 and assumed the office of
TG

SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)

(a) 11 March, 1857 (b) 10 March, 1857 Governor-General in 1828. He passed the
(a) Robert Maclagan
(c) 10 May, 1857 (d) 11 May, 1857 Bengal Sati Regulation on December 4,
(b) Charles Ellice
1829, which banned the practice of Sati
(c) Henry Lawrence
on

Sol.544.(d) 11 May, 1857. throughout British India.

(d) James George Smith
Q.545. Whose proclamation of Q.549. The Doctrine of Lapse was an
Sol.539.(c) Henry Lawrence. The Battle
h

November 1, 1858 declared that annexation policy devised by which of

of Chinhat took place on the morning of
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thereafter India would be governed by the following Governor-Generals of India?

June 30, 1857, near the village of Chinhat
a

and in the name of the British Monarch SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
in Awadh (now Uttar Pradesh),
through a Secretary of State?
Se

specifically at Ismailganj, where British (a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Dalhousie
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Lord Mayo (d) Lord Canning
forces clashed with Indian rebels during
(a) King Louis’ (b) King Philips’
the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
(c) Queen Victoria’s (d) Queen Elizabeth’s Sol.549.(b) Lord Dalhousie. The Doctrine
Q.540. Post 1857 revolt, the Peel of Lapse was an annexation policy used
Sol.545.(c) Queen Victoria’s. by the British East India Company to
commission was set up to give
recommendations on____ reorganisation expand its empire in India. Under this
of British India. Governors and Viceroys policy, if a ruler of a dependent state died
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) without a male heir, the state would be
(a) military (b) land revenue Q.546. The Permanent Settlement annexed by the British. States annexed
(c) telecom (d) trade introduced by Cornwallis was NOT under the policy: Satara (1848), Jaitpur
prevalent in which of the following and Sambalpur (1849), Baghat (1850),
Sol.540.(a) Military. Reforms After 1857: regions of India? Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1854), Nagpur
The Peel Commission was established to SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (1854), Tanjore, and Arcot (1855).
recommend changes in the organization (a) Bengal (b) Bihar
of the colonial armed forces. The (c) Odisha (d) Punjab Q.550. Who asked James Rennel to
proportion of Europeans in the British prepare the map of Hindustan?
Indian Army was increased, and artillery Sol.546.(d) Punjab. The Permanent SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
was placed exclusively under the Settlement, introduced by Lord (a) Lord Ripen (b) Warren Hastings
command of British officers. Additionally, Cornwallis in 1793, established the (c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Robert Clive
the Arms Act of 1878 was enacted to zamindars as the primary landowners
restrict the possession of weapons by and fixed the amount of land revenue Sol.550.(d) Robert Clive served twice as
'unlawful' elements. they had to pay to the East India Governor of Bengal (1758-60 and

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 Pinnacle History
1764-67) and also led the Battle of introduce the railway line in British India ? (a) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
Plassey on behalf of the British East SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) (b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
India Company in 1757. James Rennel (a) 1853 (b) 1861 (c) 1870 (d) 1849 (c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
was the first Surveyor General of Bengal (d) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
(1767-1777) and conducted the first Sol.554.(a) 1853. Lord Dalhousie
comprehensive geographical survey of (1848-1856), known as the father of Sol.558.(c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4.
much of India. He is best known for his Indian Railways, played a key role in the The first Governor of Bengal - Robert
"Bengal Atlas" (1779) and "Memoir of a establishment of the railway network. Clive. The first Governor General of
Map of Hindoostan" (1782). The first railway line in India covered 21 Bengal in 1773 - Warren Hastings
miles (34km), from Bombay to Thane. (1772-1785). The first Governor General
Q.551. The Daroga system in 1792 was The first railway line in South India was of India - William Bentinck. The first
introduced by whom among the opened in 1856. The first railway minister Viceroy of India - Lord Canning.
following Governor- Generals in India? of India was John Mathai.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.559. Identify the INCORRECTLY
(a) Lord Cornwallis Q.555. In the context of British rule in matched pair(s) of the British Governor -
(b) Lord Minto India, who among the following Governor Generals of India and the events with
(c) Lord Mayo - Generals created a professional cadre which they are associated.
(d) Lord William Bentinck of company servants making provisions i) Lord Dalhousie - Revolt of 1857
for them for generous salaries? ii) Lord Auckland - First Afghan War
Sol.551.(a) Lord Cornwallis (1786-93): Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) iii) Lord Canning - Wood’s Despatch 1854
The system of Daroga as part of Police (a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Cornwallis SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
reforms. Police of each district were (c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Warren Hastings (a) Only (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
placed under District Judge. Each district (c) Only (i) and (iii) (d) Only (i)

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Sol.555.(b) Lord Cornwallis (1786 -
was divided into Thanas/Police circles
1793). He is also regarded as the 'Father Sol.559.(c) Only (i) and (iii). Governor

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which were headed by Daroga. He also
of Civil Service in India' for his role in general and the related events: Lord
abolished District Faujdari Courts and set
shaping the civil service system. Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856) - Doctrine of

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up circuit courts in Calcutta, Dacca,
Mayo, Viceroy of India from 1869 to Lapse policy, Wood’s Despatch 1854.
Murshidabad, and Patna. During his
1872, is known for introducing the first Lord Cornwallis (1786 - 1793) -
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tenure, the Third Mysore War (1790-92)
regular census in 1872. Introduction of the Charter Act of 1793,
and Treaty of Seringapatam (1792).
the Third Anglo-Mysore War began and
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Q.556. Whom did Lord Curzon entrust as

Q.552. Who is called the father of Local ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam.
architect for Victoria Memorial Hall?
Self - Government in India? Warren Hastings (1772 - 1785) -
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) Introduction of the Regulating Act of
TG

(a) Robert Chisholm (b) William Emerson

(a) Lord Cornwallis 1773 by the British Parliament, First
(c) Herbert Baker (d) Henry Irwin
(b) Lord Wellesley Anglo-Maratha War began (ended with
(c) Lord Ripon the Treaty of Salbai). Lord Wellesley
on

Sol.556.(b) William Emerson. The

(d) Lord William Bentinck Victoria Memorial, built between 1906 (1798–1805) - The Second Anglo -
and 1921 in Kolkata, West Bengal, was Maratha War began and ended with
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Sol.552.(c) Lord Ripon. During Lord multiple treaties.

conceptualized by Viceroy George
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Ripon’s tenure (1880-84), key reforms

Curzon to commemorate Queen
included the repeal of the Vernacular Q.560. English as the official language of
a

Victoria's 25-year reign in India. The

Press Act (1881) and a resolution on India for higher education was
foundation stone was laid by the Prince
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local self-government (1882). His period incorporated in the resolution

of Wales, later King George V, in 1906,
also saw the Ilbert Bill controversy formulation by _______.
and it was opened to the public in 1921.
(1883) and the formation of the Hunter SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Commission on Education (1882). Q.557. Who among the following was the (a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Wellesley
Viceroy of British India when the Shimla (c) Lord Macaulay (d) Lord Dalhousie
Q.553. Which of the following
conference was held in 1945?
Governor-Generals of British India was in Sol.560.(c) Lord Macaulay - Considered
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
favour of free press and repealed the to be the founder of the British education
(a) Lord Linlithgow (b) Lord Willingdon
press regulations of 1823? system in India. He was also the
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Wavell
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) chairman of the first Law Commission of
(a) Lord Ellenborough (b) Lord Lytton Sol.557.(d) Lord Wavell (1944 to 1947). pre - independent India.
(c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Metcalfe The Shimla Conference was held from Q.561. The Vernacular Press Act was
Sol.553.(d) Lord Metcalfe (1835-36) is June 25 to July 14, 1945, at Viceregal enacted during the regime of which
also known as the Liberator of Indian Lodge in Shimla, India. viceroy of India?
Press. Licensing Regulation ordinance SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q.558. Match List-I with List-II.
1823 was brought out by acting (a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Lord Hastings
List-I (Governor General) List-II (Period)
Governor-General John Adams. Other (c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Lytton
A. Warren Hasting 1. 1772-1785
Governor generals: Lord Ellenborough
B. Lord Cornwallis 2. 1786-1793 Sol.561.(d) Lord Lytton (1876-1880).
(1842–1844) abolished the slavery act in
C. Sir John Shore 3. 1793-1798 Vernacular Press Act (The gagging Act)
India in 1843.
D. Lord Wellesley 4. 1798-1805 1878. The act allows the government to
Q.554. In which year did Lord Dalhousie SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 confiscate the assets of newspaper in
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 Pinnacle History
case of publishing anything (d) Bombay paramount or supreme, hence its power
“objectionable” was greater than that of Indian states.
Sol.566.(d) Bombay. Elphinstone: Known SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.562. Who among the following signed for the compilation of the Elphinstone (a) Lord Amherst (b) Lord Cornwallis
a Tripartite treaty on behalf of the British code (a uniform scheme of criminal law). (c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Auckland
Government to interfere in the affairs of In 1808 he was sent to negotiate an
Afghanistan? alliance with the Afghan ruler Shah Shoja Sol.570.(c) Lord Hastings (Anglo-Nepal
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) to prevent a Napoleonic advance upon War took place between 1814 and 1816).
(a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Auckland India.
(c) Lord Wellesly (d) Lord Canning Q.571. “A History of British India” is a
Q.567. The Viceroy who took keen work published by ______.
Sol.562.(b) Lord Auckland (1836 - interest in the restoration and protection SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
42).Tripartite treaty (1838): It was signed of historical monuments was . (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Dalhousie
between Governor - General Lord SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) (c) James Mill (d) Warren Hastings
Auckland (British), Maharaja Ranjit Singh (a) Lord Ellenborough (b) Lord Auckland
(Sikhs), and Shah Shuja (who had been (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Curzon Sol.571.(c) James Mill in 1817, a
deposed from the Afghan throne in 1809 Scottish economist and political
and had been living since then as a Sol.567.(d) Lord Curzon (1899-1905): philosopher, published a massive
British pensioner at Ludhiana). Lord Passed the Ancient Monuments three-volume work "The History of British
Mayo (1869 - 1872) - He ordered the first Preservation Act in 1904. Archaeological India". In his book history was divided
census of India in 1871. Survey of India (ASI) - Founded in 1861 into three periods: Hindu, Muslim, and
by Alexander Cunningham; British.
Q.563. Which of the following Headquarters: New Delhi. Lord

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Commissions was appointed by Lord Ellenborough (1842-1844) - Annexation Q.572. In 1856, Governor-General ______
Curzon to enquire into the working of the Of Sindh (1843). Lord Auckland (1836 - decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would

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police administration? 1842) - The first Anglo-Afghan war be the last Mughal king and after his
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) occurred during his reign. Lord Lytton death none of his descendants would be

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(a) Kitchener Commission (1876-1880) - The Great Indian Famine recognised as kings – they would just be
(b) Hunter Commission of 1876-1878. called princes.
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(c) Frazer Commission SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) MacDonnell Commission Q.568. The policy of dual system of (a) Canning (b) Cornwallis
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government of Bengal was the brainchild (c) Hastings (d) Munro

Sol.563.(c) Frazer Commission (The of which Governor-General?
Indian Police Commission of 1902-03) - SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Sol.572.(a) Lord Canning (1856-1862) -
TG

Established by the British. Headed by - (a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Clive (Last Governor-General and first viceroy
Sir Andrew Frazer and Lord Curzon. (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Dalhousie of India) - introduced Indian Penal Code
(IPC), withdrew Doctrine of Lapse.
on

Q.564. Who among the following has Sol.568.(b) Lord Clive (First governor of
been accused of committing the judicial Bengal in 1765). Dual system - The Q.573. Who among the following was the
murder of Raja Nand Kumar? administration of Bengal was divided into Viceroy of India during the formation of
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SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) two parts : Diwani - The right to collect the Indian National Congress?
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(a) Lord Wellesly (b) Lord Dalhousie revenue was given to the company, and SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
(a) Lord Lytton (b) Lord Ripon
a

(c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Warren Hastings Nizamat - Administrative rights were
(c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Mayo
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given to Nawab. Warren Hastings

Sol.564.(d) Warren Hastings. Raja Nand
abolished this system in Bengal in 1772. Sol.573.(c) Lord Dufferin (1884-1888).
Kumar (Nuncomar) was an Indian tax
collector and he was the first Indian to be Q.569. Governor general Lord Dalhousie Q.574. Which of the following Viceroys
executed by hanging. described the Kingdom of _______"as a of British India took the first step to
cherry that will drop into our mouth one separate provincial finance from central
Q.565. _______ announced the bifurcation
day". finance and introduced financial
of the British Indian Empire into a secular
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening) decentralisation in India in 1870?
India and Islamic Pakistan.
(a) Ahom (b) Mysore Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3 )
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) Awadh (d) Maratha (a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Northbrook
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Dalhousie Sol.569.(c) Awadh. Lord Dalhousie said (c) Lord Mayo (d) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Louis Mountbatten this in 1851. Awadh Kingdom was Sol.574.(c) Lord Mayo’s Resolution of
(d) Lord Curzon formally annexed to the British Empire in 1870 on Financial Decentralisation
1856. The doctrine declared that if an visualised the development of local
Sol.565.(c) Lord Louis Mountbatten (last
Indian ruler died without a male heir his self-government institutions.
Viceroy of India).
kingdom would “lapse”, that is, become
Q.566. Elphinstone was the Governor of part of Company territory Q.575. Which of the following
which province of India during 1819-27 ? statements is correct?
Q.570. Under ________ (Governor General I. Robert Clive had come to Madras from
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
from 1813 to 1823) a new policy of England in 1743 at the age of 18.
(a) North West Frontier province
"paramountcy" was initiated. Now the II. After the battle of Buxar, the East India
(b) Madras
Company claimed that its authority was Company appointed Residents in Indian
(c) Bengal
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 Pinnacle History
states. Q.579. What was the term of the Central Q.582. With reference to Morley-Minto
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Evening) Legislative Assembly under the Reforms of 1909, consider the following
(a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II Government of India Act of 1919? statements.
(c) Only II (d) Both I and II SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning) a) They are also called the Indian
(a) Three year (b) Five year Councils Act, 1909.
Sol.575.(d) Both I and II. Robert Clive (c) Two year (d) Seven year b) They increased the strength of
was a soldier and first British Legislative Councils.
administrator of Bengal, who was one of Sol.579.(a) Three year. The elections to
c) The right to separate electorate was
the creators of British power in India. the two Houses of the Indian Legislature
given to the Muslims.
were held under the Government of India
Which of the above statements is/are
Q.576. Which of the following British Act, 1919, and the new Legislative
correct ?
officers issued the infamous ‘crawling Assembly was inaugurated on 9 February
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
order’ whereby Indians had to crawl on all 1921. The First and the Second
(a) b, c (b) a, b, c (c) c, a (d) a, b
fours to pass an alley? Assemblies were dissolved within their
SSC CGL 21/04/2022(Afternoon) life term of three years. The life of the Sol.582.(b) a, b, c. The Indian Councils
(a) General Dyer (b) Warren Hastings Third, Fourth and the Fifth Assemblies Act of 1909 was introduced by the British
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Curzon were extended beyond their normal government in India as a step toward
terms. The Fifth Assembly had the including Indians in governance. Named
Sol.576.(a) General Dyer. He was longest inning of ten years. The Sixth after Viceroy Lord Minto and Secretary of
responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh Assembly 1946-1947 was, in fact, not State John Morley, the Act considerably
massacre in Amritsar. dissolved but automatically ceased to increased the size of the legislative
exist on 14 August 1947 under section 8 councils, both at the Central and
Q.577. Which of the following Viceroys

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of the Indian Independence Act, 1947. provincial levels. The number of
of India addressed the Bengal famine of
1943 by ordering the army to distribute members in the Central Legislative

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Q.580. Which of the following Acts
relief supplies to the starving rural Council was raised from 16 to 60. The
provided for a system of tribunals and a
Bengalis? act declared Delhi as the capital of

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ban on strikes?
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) British India in place of Calcutta.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Mountbatten
ap
(a) The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 Q.583. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854
(c) Lord Willington (d) Lord Linlithgow (b) Government of India Act, 1912 primarily dealt with which of the
(c) Age of Consent Act, 1891
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following subject matters?

Sol.577.(d) Lord Linlithgow was the (d) Indian Partnership Act, 1932 SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
viceroy of India during the Bengal famine
Sol.580.(a) The Trade Disputes Act, (a) Education (b) Railways
1943. It is believed that the Bengal
TG

1929 was a law that aimed to resolve (c) Finance (d) Health
famine of 1943 which is estimated to
have killed up to three million people was industrial disputes by establishing Sol.583.(a) Education. The Wood's
not caused by drought but instead was a tribunals to investigate and settle them. Despatch of 1854 was a formal letter
on

result of a "complete policy failure" of the Government of India Act, 1912 related to sent by Sir Charles Wood to Lord
then-British Prime Minister Winston the appointment of a separate Governor Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India,
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Churchill. of Bengal Province. The Age of Consent that outlined a plan for educational
Act, 1891 raised the age for the
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reform in India. It recommended that

consummation of marriage for women to
British Acts and Policies primary schools use vernacular
a

12 years. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 languages, secondary schools use both
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define and amend the Law Relating to English and vernacular languages, and
Q.578. In which year did the government
Partnership. colleges use English. It is often referred
of British India pass a law according to
which those who converted into Q.581. Under which of the following Acts to as the “Magna Carta of English
Christianity got the right in their ancestral was the power to rule India, transferred Education in India.”
property? from the English East India Company to Q.584. Under which of the following
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) the British Crown? Acts, the Board of Control was
(a) 1855 (b) 1846 (c) 1839 (d) 1850 SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) established in England to control and
(a) Charter Act of 1833
Sol.578.(d) 1850. The Lex Loci Act of supervise the administration of British
(b) Regulating Act 1773
1850 was an Indian law that allowed India?
(c) Pitt's India Act 1784
people who converted to a different faith SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(d) Government of India Act 1858
to inherit their ancestral property. The (a) Charter Act of 1813
Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850, Sol.581.(d) Government of India Act (b) Regulating Act of 1773
was a law passed in British India under 1858 had the following key provisions : (c) Charter Act of 1793
East India Company rule, that abolished The English East India Company was (d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
all laws affecting the rights of people abolished, and India came directly under
Sol.584.(d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784. It
converting to another religion or caste. British Crown rule. A new position, the
was introduced during the tenure of Lord
The new Act allowed hindus who Secretary of State for India, was created
Warren Hastings against the backdrop of
converted from Hindu religion to another in the British government to manage
growing concerns about the East India
religion equal rights under new law, Indian affairs. A 15-member council was
Company's mismanagement and
especially in the case of inheritance. established to assist the Secretary of
corruption in India. Provisions: It gave the
State.
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 Pinnacle History
British government control over the East repealed in 1952. Indian Slavery Act, is a law that regulates the printing,
India Company. The Act was also called 1843: Abolished slavery in British India. publishing, and registration of books and
‘half-loaf system. newspapers in India. The Act was
Q.588. The British Government passed a passed during the colonial era and was
Q.585. Which of the following Acts law in the year 1856. It was meant for intended to limit free speech by imposing
introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ by which among the following social many procedural requirements for
discontinuing the application of dyarchy? reforms? publishing.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Government of India Act, 1919 (a) Widow Remarriage Q.592. Under the Charter Act of 1833 in
(b) Charter Act of 1813 (b) Abolition of the Practice of Sati British India, the East India Company’s
(c) India Council Act, 1909 (c) Abolition of Practice of Child monopoly on trade with which of the
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 Marriage following countries was abolished?
(d) Law against Murdering of Female SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.585.(d) Government of India Act,
Child (a) China (b) Burma
1935. The Act introduced responsible
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
government in provinces, meaning the Sol.588.(a) Widow Remarriage. The
governor was required to act on the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856 Sol.592.(a) China. Charter Act of 1833:
advice of ministers responsible to the was enacted with the efforts of Ishwar This act marked the end of the
provincial legislature. Government of Chandra Vidyasagar. The draft of the company’s commercial operations,
India Act, 1919: Introduced dyarchy. Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 transitioning it into an administrative
Charter Act of 1813: Ended the East India was prepared by Lord Dalhousie and body overseeing British territories in
Company's trade monopoly and allowed passed by Lord Canning. India. This Act made the
Christian missionaries to promote moral Governor-General of Bengal as the

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and religious reforms in India. Q.589. Which Act was enacted by the Governor-General of India. Lord William
British which regulated the manufacture,

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Bentinck - The first Governor - General of
Q.586. Which Act was passed by the sale, possession and transport of India.
British Parliament in the year 1773 AD to firearms?

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regulate the activities of the East India SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) Q.593. In 1883, which of the following
Company? (a) Indian Arms Act, 1878 allowed Indians to try Europeans in
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SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (b) The Arms Act,1857 courts of law?
(a) Pitt’s India Act (c) The Arm Rules, 1839 Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
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(b) Indian Slavery Act (d) The Firearms Act, 1871 (a) Christian Personal Law
(c) Age of Consent Act (b) Ilbert Bill
(d) Regulating Act Sol.589.(a) Indian Arms Act, 1878. It (c) Indian Penal Code
TG

was enacted under the authority of Lord (d) Murderous Outrage Regulation
Sol.586.(d) Regulating Act. This Act was Lytton, the then Viceroy of India. It
passed in June 1773. It was a response prohibited Indians from possessing, Sol.593.(b) Ilbert Bill. The Ilbert Bill,
on

to the East India Company's producing, or selling firearms without a introduced by Sir Courtenay Ilbert in
semi-sovereign status in Bengal, Bihar, government license. The Act was 1883, during the viceroyship of Lord
and Orissa, which was created after the
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discriminatory as it did not apply to Ripon. It sought to empower Indian

battles of Plassey and Buxar. The act
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British, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and judges to try British and European

was intended to address the company's certain government personnel. citizens in criminal cases.
a

administration, but it wasn't a long-term

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solution. In 1784, the Pitt's India Act was Q.590. Warren Hastings became the Q.594. By the Act of _________, the
passed as a more radical reform. Governor-General of Bengal from Governor General in Council was given
Governor of Bengal after the passing of the power to legislate for the whole of
Q.587. Which of the following Acts gave which of the following Acts ? the British territories in India.
the government enormous powers to SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
repress political activities, and allowed (a) Charter Act, 1813 (a) Charter Act of 1833
detention of political prisoners without (b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (b) Charter Act of 1793
trial for two years? (c) Indian Council Act of 1861 (c) Charter Act of 1853
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Regulating Act, 1773 (d) Charter Act of 1813
(a) India Contract Act, 1872
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 Sol.590.(d) Regulating Act, 1773. The Sol.594.(a) Charter Act of 1833. It
(c) Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 act was the first step taken by the British established the Governor General of
(d) Indian Slavery Act, 1843 government to control and regulate the Bengal as the Governor General of India,
affairs of East India company in India. centralizing control over military and civil
Sol.587.(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 : This Act administration.
passed on March 10, 1919, was Q.591. The Press and Registration of
introduced by British colonial authorities Books (PRB) Act was enacted in which Q.595. The Ryotwari system, devised by
to suppress nationalist and revolutionary year? Thomas Munro, in which peasant
movements in India. The Act opposed by SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) cultivators had to pay annual taxes
Mahatma Gandhi. India Contract Act, (a) 1857 (b) 1877 (c) 1887 (d) 1867 directly to the government, was prevalent
1872: Regulates contracts and in which of the following present-day
Sol.591.(d) 1867. The Press and states/provinces?
agreements in India. Criminal Tribes Act,
Registration of Books (PRB) Act of 1867 Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
1871: Targeted "criminal tribes" and was
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 Pinnacle History
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha Warren Hastings was appointed as the (b) Ricardian theory of rent
(c) Rajasthan (d) Punjab Governor-General of the Presidency of (c) Malthusian theory of rent
Fort William (Bengal). (d) Marx's theory of rent
Sol.595.(a) Tamil Nadu. The Ryotwari
System (1820) was devised by Captain Q.599. When was the Defence of India Sol.603.(b) Ricardian theory of rent -
Alexander Read and Sir Thomas Munro. Act enacted? The land of higher fertility gets higher
Under the Ryotwari system, the land SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) rent than less fertile land. Ryotwari
revenue was paid by the farmers directly (a) 1920 (b) 1918 (c) 1915 (d) 1921 System - The peasants or cultivators
to the state. It was prevalent in most of were regarded as the owners of the land.
southern India, first introduced in Tamil Sol.599.(c) 1915. The Defence of India The cultivators had to pay annual taxes
Nadu. It was later extended to Act (1915) - It was an emergency law directly to the government. Introduced by
Maharashtra, Berar, East Punjab, Coorg that gave the British government in India Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in
and Assam. Mahalwari System (1822) wide powers to suppress dissent and 1820 in the Madras and Bombay
was devised by Holt Mackenzie. maintain public order during World War I. presidency.
It was passed by the then Governor
Q.596. Match the following Acts/Policies General of India Lord Hardinge. Q.604. When was the Secretary of State
with the respective years in which they for India made responsible for the
were put into place. Q.600. Which Act declared that British Government of British India by bringing
rule in India would end by 30 June 1948? about changes in the Home
Acts/Policies Year
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) Government?
A. Pitt’s India Act 1. 1784
(a) Act of 1858 (b) Act of 1947 SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
B. Permanent Settlement of 2. 1793
(c) Act of 1892 (d) Act of 1961 (a) 1858 (b) 1833 (c) 1857 (d) 1813
Bengal

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C. Introduction of the 3. 1798 Sol.600.(b) Act of 1947. The Indian Sol.604.(a) 1858. Charter Act 1858 -
Subsidiary Alliance System Independence Act 1947 was an Act of The term Governor General changed to

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D. Abolition of Sati 4. 1829 Parliament of the United Kingdom that Viceroy for the British crown. The first
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 granted independence to British India. viceroy was Lord Canning. The act ended

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(a) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D - 1 The Act was passed on July 18, 1947, ‘The Doctrine of Lapse’. It ended the Dual
(b) A – 2, B - 1, C – 4, D – 3 and came into effect on August 15, 1947. government scheme initiated due to
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(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D- 4 The Act divided British India into two Pitt’s India Act.
(d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 independent dominions, India and
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Pakistan. Q.605. In 1942, the British government

Sol.596.(d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 sent the___________mission to India.
Q.601. In India which Act divided the SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q.597. The Provincial elections were held
TG

powers between the Central and units in (a) Cripps (b) Linlithgow
for the first time in _______ under the
terms of three lists? (c) Cabinet (d) Lansdowne
Government of India Act, 1935.
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
on

(a) 1862 (b) 1919 (c) 1909 (d) 1935 Sol.605.(a) Cripps. It was sent to India to
(a) 1935 (b) 1937 (c) 1936 (d) 1938
secure Indian cooperation for the British
Sol.601.(d) 1935. Government of India war efforts. It was headed by Sir Richard
Sol.597.(b) 1937, Indian provincial
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Act, 1935 : Contain three lists, Federal Stafford Cripps. Gandhi called it 'A
elections: Elections were held in eleven
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List (for Centre containing 59 items), post-dated cheque drawn on a failing

provinces - Madras, Central Provinces,
Provincial List (for provinces containing
a

Bihar, Orissa, the United Provinces, the bank'.

54 items) and the Concurrent List (for
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Bombay Presidency, Assam, the

both containing 36 items). Q.606. The result of the English
North-West Frontier Province, Bengal,
Education Act of 1835 was to make
Punjab and Sind. The Indian National Q.602. In which of the following years did ________ as a medium of instruction for
Congress (INC) won the majority of seats the East India Company abolished the ___________ education.
in the provincial elections, and formed diarchy system of Bengal? SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
governments in seven provinces. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) vernacular, higher
(a) 1772 (b) 1765 (c) 1757 (d) 1779 (b) English, primary
Q.598. Under the Regulating Act of 1773,
the King-in-Council created a Supreme Sol.602.(a) 1772. The system of Dual (c) English, higher
Court in which of the following places? Government: Introduced in Bengal by (d) vernacular, primary
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Robert Clive of British East India
Sol.606.(c) English, Higher. English
(a) Madras (b) Bombay Company. It lasted from 1765 to 1772.
Education Act (1835) was proposed by
(c) Calcutta (d) Delhi Under this system, the administration of
William Bentinck on the Advice of
Bengal was divided into Nizamat and
Sol.598.(c) Calcutta. Regulating Act Macaulay. Reforms by William Bentick :
Diwani. The Diwani was carried out by
1773 - It was passed by the British The abolition of Sati, the suppression of
the company and the Nizamat by the
Parliament to control the territories of the female infanticide and Thuggee, the
Nizam.
East India Company majorly in Bengal. abolition of lawlessness, and the
The act provided for the appointment of Q.603. Ryotwari system of revenue abolition of human sacrifices.
a Governor-General along with four collection in India, introduced by the
Q.607. The Charter Act of 1813 extended
Councillors in the Presidency of Fort British, was based on the_______.
the East India Company's rule in India to
William (Calcutta), jointly called the SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
another _________ years.
Governor-General in Council. As per this, (a) Smith's theory of rent
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 Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) ancestors. The Charter Act of 1813 (c) Government of India Act of 1935
(a) 15 (b) 5 (c) 20 (d) 10 allowed Chirstian missionaries to enter (d) Charter Act of 1853
India and Preach Christianity. This Act
Sol.607.(c) 20. The Charter Act of 1813 asserted the Crown's sovereignty over Sol.615.(c) Government of India Act
(The East Indian Company Act 1813) - British possessions in India. 1935 were as follows: Abolition of
Features: It ended the monopoly of the provincial dyarchy and introduction of
East India Company over commercial Q.612. Which of the following Indian dyarchy at centre. Abolition of Indian
trade except trade with China and trade states was the first to sign a subsidiary Council and introduction of an advisory
in tea with India. alliance with the British? body in its place. Provision for an All
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) India Federation with British India
Q.608. The objective of Simon (a) Hyderabad (b) Cochin territories and princely states.
Commission was to________. (c) Travancore (d) Maratha
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) Q.616. Which Act was passed in 1929
(a) decide India's Political future Sol.612.(a) Hyderabad. In this system, prohibiting marriage of girls below 14
(b) decide India's Religious future an Indian ruler had to maintain British and boys below 18 years of age?
(c) decide India's Educational future troops in his state, either by giving some SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) decide India's economic future of his territories or by paying for the (a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Sharda Act
maintenance of the troops. It was first (c) Vernacular Press Act (d) Rowlatt Act
Sol.608.(a) Simon Commission - It was
introduced by the French East India
appointed by the British Government in Sol.616.(b) Sharda act. The act fixed the
Company Governor Joseph Francois
1927 under the chairmanship of John marriageable age for girls at 14 years
Dupleix, Later used by Lord Wellesley,
Simon (other members were Pathick and 18 years for boys. It was sponsor by
Governor-General of India (1798 to
Lawrence and Clement Atlee) to review Harbilas Sarda. Pitt’s India act (1784),
1805).

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the workings of Government of India Rowlatt Act (1919), Vernacular press act
(GOI) Act, 1919 and suggest measures. Q.613. What is the original name of the (1878).

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Empress of India Act and when was it
Q.609. Which act of the British Q.617. In which year through the Indian
instituted?

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Parliament was also known as East India Official Secrets Act was freedom of
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Company Act 1793? press curbed?
(a) The Royalty Act of 1876
ap
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Evening)
(b) The Royal Titles Act of 1876
(a) The Government of India Act, 1793 (a) 1919 (b) 1921 (c) 1904 (d) 1909
(c) The Royal Titles Act of 1877
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(b) The Charter Act, 1793

(d) The Titles Act of 1875 Sol.617.(c) 1904. It was enacted during
(c) The Regulating Act, 1793
(d) The Indian Councils Act, 1793 Sol.613.(b) The Royal Titles Act 1876 the time of Lord Curzon, Viceroy of India
TG

was an Act of the Parliament of the from 1899 to 1905 curbed the freedom
Sol.609.(b) The Charter Act, 1793. The of Press. Later this act was replaced by
United Kingdom which officially
act was passed by the British Parliament the Official Secrets act 1923.
recognized Queen Victoria (and
to renew the charter of the East India
on

subsequent monarchs) as “Empress of Q.618. In 1877, which of the following

Company to trade within India for next 20
India”. This act was introduced by viceroys organized a durbar to
years. It was passed during the tenure of
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Benjamin Disraeli. It was repealed on 22 acknowledge Queen Victoria as the

Sir John Shore (1793 -1798).
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June 1948. Empress of India?

Q.610. In __________, the British SSC MTS 12/10/2021(Evening)
a

Q.614. Which of the following Acts of

government enacted a legislation (a) Lord Lytton (b) Lord Ripon
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1947 regulates the Indian labor law with

banning the use of printed cotton textiles (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Dufferin
regard to trade unions as well as
- chintz - in England. Interestingly, this
individual workmen? Sol.618.(a) Lord Lytton organized a
Act was known as the Calico Act.
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Afternoon) durbar to acknowledge Queen Victoria as
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Indian Councils Act the Empress of India. This was the
(a) 1720 (b) 1700 (c) 1740 (d) 1730
(b) Charter Act culmination of the transfer of control of
Sol.610.(a) 1720. The cotton textiles (c) Rowlatt Act British India from the East India
which the Portuguese took back to (d) Industrial Disputes Act Company to the Crown.
Europe, along with the spices, came to be
Sol.614.(d) Industrial disputes Act 1947. Q.619. The capital of the British Indian
called "calico". Calico Act , Reason -
The Rowlatt Act 1919 authorized the Empire was transferred from Calcutta to
Textile makers in England were Unable to
arrest, for 2 years without trial, of any Delhi in:
compete with Indian textiles. Highest
person suspected of terrorism living in SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Afternoon)
cotton producing state (Gujarat).
British India. Indian Council acts (1861, (a) 1911 (b) 1905 (c) 1907 (d) 1909
Q.611. In which year was a law passed in 1892, and 1909). Charter Acts (1793,
India to make conversion to Christianity 1813, 1833, and 1853). Sol.619.(a) 1911. The British
easier? government believed that ruling India
Q.615. Which Act passed by British from Delhi was easier and more
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Government of India abolished the convenient than from Calcutta.
(a) 1845 (b) 1850 (c) 1830 (d) 1840
Council of India? Therefore, Delhi was officially announced
Sol.611.(b) 1850. This law allowed SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) as the capital of British Raj by Emperor
Indians who had converted to (a) Indian Independence Act of 1947 George V, on December 12, 1911.
Christianity to inherit the property of his (b) India Council Act of 1892
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 Pinnacle History
Q.620. By which British statute were known as the Indian Councils Act of SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Indian representatives, for the first time, 1909, were a set of constitutional (a) Wellington Square, Calcutta
allocated seats for election in Indian changes in British India that aimed to (b) Calcutta Town Hall
Legislative Councils? increase Indian participation in the (c) Kanai Dhar Lane, Calcutta
SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening) legislature. (d) Bengal National College, Calcutta
(a) Government of India Act, 1833
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892 Q.624. What was the Swadeshi Sol.627.(b) Calcutta Town Hall. The
(c) Government of India Act, 1915 Movement called in the state of Andhra Swadeshi movement was a direct fallout
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861 Pradesh? of the decision of the British India
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) government to partition Bengal. The
Sol.620.(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892. (a) Gadar Movement features of the Swadeshi movement :
The act made a limited and indirect (b) Quit India Movement encourage the use of indigenous goods,
provision for the use of election in filling (c) Khilafat Movement boycott foreign goods. The partition of
up some of the nonofficial seats both in (d) Vande Mataram Movement Bengal was annulled in 1911 by Lord
the Central and provincial legislative Sol.624.(d) Vande Mataram Movement. Hardinge to curb the revolutionaries.
councils. The Swadeshi Movement started in
Q.628. Which of the following parties
August 1905 from Calcutta Town Hall
Q.621. Which law was imposed in India supported the move for partition of
against Lord Curzon’s decision of
during the command of General Dyer? Bengal?
dividing the province of Bengal. The
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon)
partition led to protest meetings in
(a) Preventive detention (a) Gadar Party
Bengal under which the pledge to boycott
(b) Discrimination law (b) Forward Bloc
foreign goods was first taken. Leaders of
(c) Simon law (c) All India Muslim League

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the movement - Poona and Bombay
(d) Martial law (d) Communist Party of India
(Lokmanya Tilak), Punjab (Lala Lajpat Rai

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Sol.621.(d) Martial law. General Dyer and Ajit Singh), Delhi (Syed Haider Raza), Sol.628.(c) All India Muslim League
enacted an Act on April 13, 1919, called Madras (Chidambaram Pillai). supported the move for partition of
martial law
people can
stating that no more than 2
form a group and meet at a na
Q.625. What is the official reason given
Bengal. Founders of All India Muslim
League are Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Aga
ap
by Britishers after partition of Bengal in
place. Khan III, Khwaja Salimullah, Hakim Ajmal
1905?
Khan, Waqar-ul-Mulk. It was founded on
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Q.622. In which year was the office of the SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
30 December 1906.
first Accountant General established in (a) Easy Movement of army
India? (b) To check on Extremist activities Q.629. Moved by the Swadeshi
TG

SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Economic Progress Movement, ______ painted his famous
(a) 1858 (b) 1845 (c) 1890 (d) 1867 (d) Administrative Convenience image of Bharat Mata portraying her as
an ascetic figure.
Sol.625.(d) Administrative Convenience.
on

Sol.622.(a) In 1858 (the year the British SSC MTS 05/10/2021(Morning)

took over administrative control of India The real reason for the partition was to
(a) Satyendranath Tagore
from the East India Company) the office divide and weaken the growing
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(b) Abanindranath Tagore

of the first Accountant General was nationalist movement in Bengal. After
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(c) Jyotirindranath Tagore

established in India. Partition Swadeshi movement gained
(d) Dwijendranath Tagore
even more momentum, and the British
a

were forced to revoke the partition in

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Partition of Bengal and Sol.629.(b) Abanindranath Tagore

1911. painted his famous image of Bharat
Swadeshi Movements
Mata portraying her as an ascetic figure
Q.626. Before the Partition of Bengal in
in 1905. The painting is depicted as a
Q.623. In 1905, Hindus and Muslims tied 1905, Bengal was the biggest province of
saffron-clad divine woman, holding a
‘Rakhi’ on each other’s hands to show British India. It consisted of parts of
book, sheaves of paddy, a piece of white
their unity and their protest against the which of the following states?
cloth, and a rosary in her four hands.
_________. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Uttar Pradesh and Orissa
(a) Partition of Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar Gandhian Era
(b) Rowlatt Act (c) Bihar and Orissa
(c) Morley-Minto Reforms (d) Bihar and Chhattisgarh Q.630. Which of the following places is
(d) Partition of Bengal Sol.626.(c) Bihar and Orissa. Partition related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the
of Bengal in 1905 {Lord Curzon year 1917?
Sol.623.(d) Partition of Bengal. SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
announced the partition of Bengal on
Rabindranath Tagore encouraged Hindus (a) Kheda (b) Ahmedabad
20th July 1905, reorganization separated
and Muslims to tie rakhis as a symbol of (c) Champaran (d) Bardoli
the largely Muslim eastern areas from
unity and resistance against the Partition
the largely Hindu western areas}. Sol.630.(c) Champaran. India's first Civil
of Bengal, promoting a beautiful
message of harmony and togetherness. Q.627. At which of the following places Disobedience movement, launched by
Rowlatt Act 1919 was passed to curb the was the formal proclamation of the Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, was prompted
growing nationalist upsurge in British Swadeshi movement made on 7 August by Pandit Raj Kumar Shukla, who urged
India. The Morley-Minto Reforms, also 1905 ? him to address the plight of Indigo
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 Pinnacle History
farmers. Mahatma Gandhi organised the did Mahatma Gandhi, along with other (a) Gandhi-Ambedkar Pact
Kheda Satyagraha (1918) in Gujarat. Indians, establish the Natal Congress to (b) Gandhi-Jinnah Pact
Gandhi also led the Ahmedabad Mill fight against racial discrimination? (c) Jinnah-Nehru Pact
Strike (1918) after returning from South SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Ambedkar-CR Das Pact
Africa. The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) (a) South Africa (b) India
Sol.637.(a) Gandhi-Ambedkar Pact. The
was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel for (c) England (d) France
Communal Award was announced by the
the farmers of Bardoli.
Sol.634.(a) South Africa. The Natal British Prime Minister, Ramsay
Q.631. Who was the Viceroy of India Indian Congress, founded by Mahatma MacDonald, on 16 August 1932, based
when Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi Gandhi in 1894, aimed to combat on the report of the Indian Franchise
March on 12 March 1930? discrimination against Indians in South Committee (Lothian Committee). This
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Africa. Gandhiji, born on 2 October 1869, award accorded separate electorates for
(a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Minto II returned to India on 9 January 1915. Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Willingdon Christians, Anglo-Indians, Depressed
Q.635. Which important event that classes (78 seats), and even to the
Sol.631.(c) Lord Irwin (1926-1931). started in 1930 played a significant role Marathas for some seats in Bombay.
Other Events During his tenure: Simon in motivating and mobilizing Indians to Gandhi - Ambedkar Pact is also known
Commission to India (1927); Harcourt join the non - violent movement for as the Poona Pact. Madan Mohan
Butler Indian States Commission (1927); independence? Malaviya signed it on behalf of Gandhi. It
Nehru Report (1928); Deepavali SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) provided for the Joint electorate,
Declaration (1929); Lahore session of the (a) Salt Satyagraha reserved seats (147) for depressed
Congress (Purna Swaraj Resolution) (b) Quit India Movement classes and 18% seats reserved for the
(c) Gadar Movement

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1929; First Round Table Conference central legislature.
(1930); Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931). (d) Swadeshi movement

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Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March Q.638. Mahatma Gandhi called a halt to
Sol.635.(a) Salt Satyagraha. The Dandi
(Salt March) in 1930, accompanied by a the Non-Cooperation Movement after the
March, or Salt Satyagraha, was initiated

na
group of 78 followers, as a nonviolent Chauri Chaura incident. Where among
by Mahatma Gandhi from Sabarmati
protest against the British salt monopoly. the following places is Chauri Chaura
Ashram on March 12, 1930, and lasted
ap
located?
until April 5, 1930, reaching Dandi
Q.632. In which year was the Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(Navsari district). C. Rajagopalachari
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Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed ? (a) Lucknow (b) Mathura

organized the Vedaranyam Salt March
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Meerut (d) Gorakhpur
along the east coast, while Gandhi led
(a) 1935 (b) 1929 (c) 1931 (d) 1941
the march on the west coast. The protest Sol.638.(d) Gorakhpur. Chauri Chaura, a
TG

Sol.632.(c) 1931. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was against the British salt tax, and town in Uttar Pradesh was the site of a
was signed on March 5, 1931, between Gandhi defied it by collecting natural salt violent clash on February 4, 1922, during
Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the from the shore. In the Salt Satyagraha, the Non-Cooperation Movement.
on

Viceroy of India (1926-1931). The pact Sarojini Naidu persuaded Mahatma Protestors set a police station on fire,
ended the Civil Disobedience Movement, Gandhi to allow women to join the resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen
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initiated by Gandhi with the Salt March, movement. inside.

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and was signed before the Second

Q.636. Which of the following leaders Q.639. The result of which of the
Round Table Conference in London.
a

had gone to Lucknow to invite Mahatma following movements/satyagrahas was

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Q.633. In the second Round Table Gandhi to see the plight of the peasants the abolishment of the Tinkathia System
Conference, Mahatma Gandhi in Champaran? under which the farmers were asked to
represented which of the following SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) cultivate indigo in 3/20th of their holdings
parties? (a) Hasan Mohani (b) Raj Kumar Shukla ?
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) JB Kripalani Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Communist Party of India (a) Khilafat Movement
Sol.636.(b) Raj Kumar Shukla. The local (b) Kheda Satyagraha
(b) Indian National Congress
Congress leaders Brajkishore Prasad and (c) Champaran Satyagraha
(c) All India Forward Bloc
Raj Kumar Shukla first met Mahatma (d) Ahmedabad Satyagraha
(d) Muslim League
Gandhi at the Lucknow session of the
Sol.633.(b) Indian National Congress. Indian National Congress in 1916 and Sol.639.(c) Champaran Satyagraha
Mahatma Gandhi attended only the invited Mahatma Gandhi to have (1917) was Gandhi's first protest in India
Second Round Table Conference in first-hand experience of the plight of against forced indigo farming.
London in September 1931, presided Champaran peasants. Gandhi arrived in Brajkishore Prasad and Raj Kumar Shukla
over by Ramsay MacDonald. The Champaran on April 15, 1917, to address first met Mahatma Gandhi at the
Conference in London was inconclusive, the grievances of the peasants who were Lucknow session of the Indian National
so Gandhiji returned to India and forced to grow indigo under oppressive Congress in 1916 and invited him to have
resumed civil disobedience. Dr. B.R. conditions. first-hand experience of the plight of
Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru Champaran peasants.
attended all three Round Table Q.637. Which of the following Pacts
succeeded the Communal Award of Q.640. Which of the following options is
Conferences.
1932? not related to the non-cooperation
Q.634. In which of the following places Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) movement started by Mahatma Gandhi?
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 Pinnacle History
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.643.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He Q.648. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Signing of the resolution of Poorna was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi successfully led a strike of ________.
Swaraj in Lahore and Mohammed Ali Jinnah. SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
(b) Boycott of foreign goods (a) Army Soldiers (b) Dalits
(c) Distribution of spinning wheels Q.644. In which year was Mohandas (c) Mill workers (d) Traders
(d) Picketing at liquor shops Karamchand Gandhi born?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.648.(c) Mill workers. Ahmedabad
Sol.640.(a) The resolution for Poorna (a) 1659 (b) 1869 (c) 1889 (d) 1879 Mill Strike (1918) - This is considered
Swaraj (complete independence) was the first hunger strike led by Gandhi.
Sol.644.(b) 1869. Mahatma Gandhi: Born
passed at the Lahore session of the Q.649. In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar
on 2nd October (observed as
Indian National Congress in December peasants organised non-violent
International Day of Non-violence). He
1929, under the leadership of Jawaharlal campaigns against which of the
came back to India on 9th January
Nehru. He hoisted the Indian tricolor flag following demand of the British?
(celebrated as ‘NRI day’ or ‘Pravasi
on the banks of the Ravi river. The SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Bhartiya Divas’ since 2003) 1915 from
non-cooperation movement was (a) Low labour rates
South Africa.
launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to (b) Long working hours
persuade Indians to withdraw their Q.645. Who was the founder of Harijan (c) High land revenue
cooperation from the British government Sevak Sangh founded in 1932? (d) Low price for crops
and advocate for self-governance. SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.649.(c) High land revenue. Kheda
Q.641. Gandhiji gave his slogan of ‘Do or Satyagraha of 1918 was a satyagraha
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Die’ during which of the following movement in the Kheda district of
(c) Jyotiba Phule
Movements/Satyagrahas? Gujarat in India organized by Mahatma

df
(d) BR Ambedkar
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Gandhi during the period of the British

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(a) Civil Disobedience Sol.645.(b) Mahatma Gandhi. Raj. The peasant-Patidar community of
(b) Kheda Satyagraha Organisation Founded by MK Gandhi: Kheda, who refused to accept a 23

na
(c) Champaran Satyagraha Majdoor Mahajan (1916) in Ahmedabad. percent tax increase imposed on them
(d) Quit India It was related to the labour movement or despite a devastating crop failure and an
ap
textile movement in Gujarat. All-India outbreak of plague and cholera, served
Sol.641.(d) The Quit India Movement
Spinners Association (1925), All-India as the focal point of this satyagraha.
(also known as the August Movement)
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Village Industries Association (1934).

was launched by the Indian National Q.650. When did depressed classes get
Congress on August 8, 1942. Other key Q.646. The famous scientist, Albert the reserved seats in provincial and
movements by Mahatma Gandhi include Einstein was inspired by whose idea on
TG

central legislative councils, but they were

the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), non-violence? to be voted in by the General electorate?
the Kheda Satyagraha (1918) in Gujarat, SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
demanding relaxation in revenue (a) Mahatma Gandhi
on

(a) September 1930 (b) November 1932

collection for peasants, and the (b) Vardhaman Mahavira (c) November 1930 (d) September 1932
Champaran Satyagraha (1917), opposing (c) Gautam Buddha
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the Tinkathia system, which forced (d) B.R. Ambedkar Sol.650.(d) September 1932. Poona
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peasants to grow indigo on 3/20th of Pact - Agreement between Mahatma

their land. Sol.646.(a) Mahatma Gandhi. His Ideas - Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar - Seats
a

Truth and nonviolence, Satyagraha, reserved for the depressed classes were
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Q.642. Vallabhbhai Patel and ________ Sarvodaya (Progress of All), Swaraj increased from 71 to 147 in provincial
helped Gandhi in Kheda by organising his (self-rule), Trusteeship (Wealthy people legislatures and 18 percent of the total in
tour of the villages and urging the to look after the welfare of the people). the Central Legislature.
peasants to stand firm against the
government. Q.647. Who among the following Q.651. Gandhiji, aged ______, arrived in
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) returned his/her medal of Kaisar-i-Hind in India in 1915 from South Africa.
(a) Motilal Nehru 1920 ? SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) (a) 52 (b) 46 (c) 28 (d) 34
(c) Indulal Yajnik (a) S Subramania iyer
(b) Sarojini Naidu Sol.651.(b) 46. Gandhiji (born on 2nd
(d) Jamunalal Bajaj
(c) Rabindranath Tagore October 1869 in Porbandar, Gujarat) went
Sol.642.(c) Indulal Yajnik. Mahatma (d) Mahatma Gandhi to South Africa in 1893 as a lawyer,
Gandhi returned to India on 9 January settling first in Durban before moving to
1915. Sol.647.(d) Mahatma Gandhi. Kaiser - e - Johannesburg.
Hind title was given to Mahatma Gandhi
Q.643. On whose advice did Gandhi by Governor-General of India Lord Q.652. Which of the following Indian
spend a year traveling around British Hardinge in 1915 for his services during freedom fighter said that "Be the change
India to know the people of India? the Boer War (1899 - 1902). Gandhi you wish to see in the world" ?
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift) returned his title in response to the SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(a) Krishna Shankar Pandya Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13th April (a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah 1919). Rabindranath Tagore returned his (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Shrimad Rajchandra Knighthood title in response to the (c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale massacre. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.652.(d) Mahatma Gandhi. His other Sol.656.(c) The Hunter Commission (c) Kushal Konwar
Famous Quotes: “A man is but the came to India in 1919 under the (d) Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
product of his thoughts. What he thinks, leadership of William Hunter to
he becomes.”, “Nobody can hurt me investigate the Jallianwala Bagh Sol.660.(c) Kushal Konwar. Facts of Quit
without my permission.” massacre. Another Hunter Commission India Movement - The Quit India
was on Indian Education, prepared in Resolution was passed by the Congress
Q.653. In which of the following years, 1882 by William Wilson Hunter. Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in
did Subhas Chandra Bose refer to Bombay. ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo
Mahatma Gandhi as the “Father of the Q.657. Which of the following is NOT a 'slogan was given in this movement .
Nation”? reason for slowing down the Gandhiji gave the slogan to the people –
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Non-cooperation Movement? ‘Do or die’; It is also known as the India
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1939 (d) 1941 SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning) August Movement or August Kranti.
(a) Due to the absence of alternative
Sol.653.(b) 1944. Subhas Chandra Bose Indian institution, boycott of British Q.661. Which Newspaper was founded
called Mahatma Gandhi the ‘Father of the Institutions posed a problem. by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in
Nation’ in a radio address from (b) Leaders of the movement shifted 1903?
Singapore on 6 July 1944. their focus towards domestic work SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening)
thus created a void. (a) Young India (b) Indian Opinion
Q.654. The All-India Khilafat Conference (c) Swaraj Hind (d) Navajivan
in November 1919 took place at: (c) Many lawyers resigned but then
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) absence of income for a longer Sol.661.(b) Indian Opinion.
(a) Lucknow (b) Delhi period of time compelled them to The Indian Opinion was an important
(c) Bombay (d) Lahore rejoin. newspaper established in 1903 in

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(d) Khadi cloth was often more Durban, South Africa, by Mahatma
Sol.654.(b) Delhi. In early 1919, the All expensive than mass-produced Gandhi and M. H. Nazar. It was a primary

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India Khilafat Committee was formed mill cloth and poor people could not communication organ of the Natal Indian
under the leadership of the Ali brothers afford to buy it. Congress.

na
(Maulana Muhammad Ali and Shaukat
Ali), Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Ajmal Sol.657.(b) Mahatma Gandhi started the Q.662. C Rajagopalachari led the Salt
ap
Khan and Hasrat Mohani, to force the Non- Cooperation Movement on 4 Satyagraha in which of the following
British Government to change its attitude September 1920. Lord Chelmsford was states ?
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to Turkey. the viceroy of British India during the SSC CGL 20/08/2021(Morning)
Non-Cooperation Movement. The Chauri (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
Q.655. Who among the following called -Chaura incident was the driver of (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan
TG

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose a patriot of subsequent withdrawal of the Non

patriots? -Cooperation Movement. Sol.662.(c) Tamil Nadu. Salt March
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (Dandi Satyagraha, 12th March 1930 to
Q.658. In which of the following years
on

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru 6th April, 1930 ) was an act of nonviolent

(b) Chittaranjan Das was the civil disobedience campaign civil disobedience led by Mohandas
(c) Mahatma Gandhi completely Ceased ? Karamchand Gandhi. Other leaders - K.
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(d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Kelappan (Malabar), Gopabandhu
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(a) 1917 (b) 1934 (c) 1923 (d) 1943 Chaudhary (Orissa).
Sol.655.(c) Mahatma Gandhi.
a

Rabindranath Tagore called Subhash Sol.658.(b) 1934. It began with the

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Chandra Bose a 'Desh Nayak'. The famous Dandi March of Gandhiji, on 12 Expansion of British Rule
famous slogan given by Subhas Chandra March 1930.
Q.663. Which of the following
Bose: “Dilli Chalo, Jai Hind”, "Give me Q.659. Who among the following personalities had the key role in fighting
blood, I will give freedom". Subhas freedom fighters hoisted the Indian flag against the British East India Company in
Chandra Bose Autobiography: “The at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai the Battle of Porto Novo?
Indian Struggle”. during the Quit India Movement ? SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.656. Which of the following events SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Hyder Ali (b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
occurred as an after-effect of the (a) Aruna Asaf Ali (c) Alamgir-II (d) Gopala Nayaker
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13th April (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Tara Rani Srivastava Sol.663.(a) Hyder Ali. The Battle of Porto
1919) ?
(d) Matangini Hazra Novo (1781) was fought between Hyder
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Ali and the East India Company (EIC), led
(a) Hunger strike to settle disputes Sol.659.(a) Aruna Asaf Ali. Aruna Asaf by Sir Eyre Coote. Hyder Ali was a key
between the mill owners and the Ali popularly known as the 'Grand Old figure in the Anglo-Mysore Wars. The
workers Lady' of the Independence Movement. First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769)
(b) Individual princes could sign a
was fought between Hyder Ali and the
separate agreement with the British Q.660. Who among the following was the
EIC. The Second Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Hunter Commission was appointed only martyr of the Quit India phase of the
(1780–1784) also saw Hyder Ali leading
by the British Government freedom movement who was hanged ?
the Mysore forces; however, he died
(d) Popularisation of Charkha and Khadi SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening)
during the conflict, after which his son,
and Jail Bharo by Congress (a) Potti Sreeramulu
Tipu Sultan, continued the war.
volunteers. (b) Senapati Bapat
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 Pinnacle History
Q.664. Which of the following battles is India. The first iron and steel mill was Q.672. The British East India Company
considered the formal beginning of the established in 1907, in Jamshedpur by captured Pondicherry (Puducherry) from
British Raj in India? Tata Iron and Steel Company. the French in the year ______.
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) First Carnatic War Q.668. In the 18th century, the (a) 1761 (b) 1699 (c) 1674 (d) 1738
(b) Battle of Plassey development of cotton industries in
(c) Battle of Wandiwash Britain resulted in _________ . Sol.672.(a) 1761. Pondicherry got its
(d) Battle of Buxar SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning) freedom from the French on 1st
(a) Increase in demand of Indian textile November 1954. The Union Territory of
Sol.664.(b) The Battle of Plassey took in Britain Puducherry comprises the erstwhile
place in Bengal on June 23, 1757. British (b) Decline of textiles production in India French colonies viz. Puducherry, Karaikal,
East India Company troops, led by Robert (c) Increase in demand of Indian textile Mahe and Yanam.
Clive, confronted the forces of in India
Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, (d) Decline of British textiles industries in Q.673. Which monument was built in
along with his French allies. The British India 1924 to welcome King George V and
East India Company won this battle. Queen Mary?
Sol.668.(b) Reason for decline: Export of SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
Q.665. In which year was the battle of textiles to England became more and (a) Gateway of India (b) Bombay Castle
Buxar fought? more difficult because the British (c) Victoria Memorial (d) Chattri Brighton
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Government imposed high duties on
(a) 1793 (b) 1777 (c) 1764 (d) 1757 Indian textiles. Thorp Mill (1764) - The Sol.673.(a) Gateway of India. The
first water-powered cotton mill in the Gateway of India is an Arch-Monument
Sol.665.(c) 1764. Battle of Buxar : world was constructed at Royton, built in the early 20th century in the city

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Fought between the British East India Lancashire (England). The first cotton of Mumbai.
Company and the combined armies of

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textile mill (India) - Established at Fort
Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Glastor near Kolkata (1818). The Revolutionaries
Shuja-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Awadh), and

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the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. The Q.669. In 1600, the East India company Q.674. Tirot Sing was the leader of which
British East India Company was led by acquired a charter from_________. of the following revolts?
ap
Hector Munro. The Britishers won this SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
battle. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (a) Queen Elizabeth I (b) King Edward VI (a) Khasi uprising
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- granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and (c) King Henry IV (d) Queen Victoria (b) Sanyasi Revolt
Orissa to the East India Company. (c) Poligars’s Revolt
Sol.669.(a) Queen Elizabeth I. By the (d) Singpho’s Rebellion
TG

Q.666. Where was the first jute mill set Charter (1600 A.D), they got the sole
up in India? right to trade with the East, without Sol.674.(a) Khasi uprising. Tirot Sing,
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) competition from other British traders. also known as U Tirot Sing Syiem, was a
on

(a) Mumbai (b) Rishra The Company's ships first arrived in Khasi chief in the early 19th century. The
(c) Chennai (d) Haryana India, at the port of Surat, in 1608. Khasi uprising (Anglo-Khasi War) was a
conflict between the Khasi people and
h

Sol.666.(b) Rishra (West Bengal, 1855). Q.670. The first English factory was set the British Empire that took place from
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First Jute mill (Acland Mill) - Established up on the banks of the river _______ in 1829 to 1833. The Sanyasi Uprisings
a

by British entrepreneur George Acland 1651. took place in Bengal between the periods
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and Bengali financier Babu By Sumber SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) of 1770- 1820s. Poligar Revolt fought
Sen in Bengal Presidency. Central (a) Son (b) Yamuna (c) Ganga (d) Hugli between the British and the Poligars,
Research Institute for Jute and Allied feudal lords in southern India. The
Fibers is located in West Bengal. Sol.670.(d) Hugli. First English factory
Singpho Rebellion of 1830 took place in
National jute Board formed by National (Temporary) in India - Masulipattam
Assam.
Jute board Act, 2008 under the Ministry (1611). First English factory (Permanent)
of Textile. In 1854, the first modern in India - Surat (1613). First factory of Q.675. The planned large-scale
cotton mill was established in Mumbai other European Companies in India: disruption of rail communications and
by Cowaszee Nanabhoy Davar. Dutch - Masulipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) the seizure of arms in Bengal were
in 1605, Portuguese - Calicut (Kerala) in undertaken under the leadership of _____.
Q.667. Which of the following modern 1500, French - Surat (Gujarat) in 1668. SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (3rd Shift)
industries were in operation in India (a) Aurobindo Ghose
during the British Rule ? Q.671. Which of the following pairs is
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
a. Cotton b. Jute c. Iron and Steel correct regarding the East India
(c) Chittaranjan Das
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) Company army?
(d) Jatin Mukherjee
(a) All of a, b and c (b) Both a and b I. Sawar — Men on horses
(c) Only a (d) Only c Il. Musket — A heavy gun used by infantry Sol.675.(d) Jatin Mukherjee, also known
soldiers as Bagha Jatin, was a prominent
Sol.667.(a) All of a, b and c. British rulers SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) revolutionary leader in Bengal during the
never permitted modernization nor did (a) Only l (b) Only ll early 20th century who fought against
they encourage the growth of industries. (c) Both l and lI (d) Neither I nor Il British colonial rule. He was a key
The unbalanced and lopsided growth member of the Anushilan Samiti, a
structures were a legacy of British rule in Sol.671.(c) Both l and II.
revolutionary organization that planned
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 Pinnacle History
large-scale armed resistance against the who collaborated to promote Indian S.H. Chiplonkar and Mahadev Govind
British. independence from British rule. Shyamji Ranade.
Krishna Varma founded the Indian Home
Q.676. Under the leadership of which of Rule Society, India House, and The Indian Q.683. What was the name of the
the following revolutionaries was the Sociologist in London. Vinayak Damodar campaign led by the Ali brothers and
Chittagong Armoury Raid conducted? Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Maulana Abul Kalam Azad to save the
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Damodar Savarkar established the Ottoman Caliphate as a symbol of unity
(a) Rash Behari Bose (b) Badal Gupta Abhinav Bharat Society, also known as among the Muslim community?
(c) Hemu Kalani (d) Surya Sen the Young India Society, in 1904. SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Faraizi Movement
Sol.676.(d) Surya Sen is also known as
Q.680. Which of the following (b) Ahmadiya Movement
Master Da. He founded The Indian
groups/parties was started in San (c) Wahabi Movement
Republican Army. The Chittagong
Francisco, United States of America (d) Khilafat Movement
Armoury Raid took place on April 18,
during the Indian National Movement?
1930, in Chittagong (now in Bangladesh). Sol.683.(d) Khilafat Movement. It was a
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Ras Bihari Bose was the founder of the political campaign that took place from
(a) Hindustan Socialist Republican
'Indian Independence League’. He 1919 to 1922 in British India. It was a
Association
chaired the Indian Independence League protest against the British government's
(b) Swaraj Party
in 1942 to formally launch the Indian policies towards Turkey and the planned
(c) Khilafat Committee
National Army. dismantling of the Ottoman Empire after
(d) Ghadar Party
World War I. The Faraizi movement was
Q.677. Sido and Kanhu were leaders of Sol.680.(d) Ghadar Party : Founded in started by Haji Shariatullah in 1818. The
which of the following tribal rebellions? 1913 in the U.S. as the Hindi Association Ahmadiyya movement was founded by

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SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) of the Pacific Coast, it aimed to free India Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889. Syed
(a) Moplah Rebellion

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from British rule. It was founded by Ahmed Barelvi started the Wahabi
(b) Santhal Rebellion Sohan Singh Bhakna and Lala Har Dayal. Movement in the 1820s.
(c) Kol Rebellion

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(d) Munda Rebellion Q.681. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote Q.684. Who was executed as an
a novel Anand Math based on which of accomplice to the murder of AMT
ap
Sol.677.(b) Santhal Rebellion (Hul revolt)
the following rebellions/revolts? Jackson ?
began in 1855, led by Sidhu, Kanhu,
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
:@

Chand, Bhairav, and their sisters Phulo

(a) Paika Rebellion (b) Sanyasi Rebellion (a) Krishnaji Gopal Karve
and Jhano. The Malabar rebellion
(c) Kuki Revolt (d) Mappila Rebellion (b) Matangini Hazra
(Moplah rebellion) was an armed
(c) Khudiram Bose
TG

uprising by the Mappila Muslims of Sol.681.(b) Sanyasi Rebellion. The

(d) Hemu Kalani
Kerala in 1921. The Kol rebellion Sanyasi Uprisings took place in Bengal
(1829-39) was led by Buddhu Bhagat, between the periods of 1770- 1820s. The Sol.684.(a) Krishnaji Gopal Karve.
on

Madara Mahato, and Joa Bhagat in the Sanyasis rose in rebellion after the great Jackson murder case also known as
Chota Nagpur region. The Munda famine of 1770 in Bengal which caused Nasik Conspiracy (Year 1909). Anant
Rebellion, led by Birsa Munda, took place acute chaos and misery. However, the Laxman Kanhere shot Jackson, the
h

in the Ranchi area in 1899-1900. immediate cause of the rebellion was the Collector of Nashik, at Vijayanand
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restrictions imposed by the British upon theatre. Kanhere was a member of the
Q.678. In which of the following years
a

pilgrims visiting holy places among both Abhinav Bharat society. The event led to
was VD Savarkar sent to Andaman Jail
Se

Hindus and Muslims. The national song the arrest of Savarkar. Abhinav Bharat
by the British?
of India, 'Vande Mataram’, is an excerpt Society was a secret society founded by
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
taken from the novel Anand Math written Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his
(a) 1910 (b) 1922 (c) 1923 (d) 1911
by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in
Sol.678.(d) 1911. Vinayak Damodar 1904.
Savarkar was sent to the Cellular Jail on Q.682. Who founded the Bombay
the punishment of 'Kala Pani’ under the Presidency Association in 1885 along Q.685. Which of the following
Nashik Conspiracy Case for the murder with Pherozeshah Mehta and KT Telang? revolutionists was associated with the
of the Collector of Nashik District, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Anushilan Samiti?
Jackson. While serving his sentence in (a) AK Fazlul Haq SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the Cellular Jail, he wrote the epic (b) Badruddin Tyabji (a) Rajguru
'Kamala' on the prison walls. (c) Behramji M Malabari (b) Bhagat Singh
(d) Zakir Husain (c) Jatindra Mohan Sengupta
Q.679. In 1910, The United India House (d) Sukhdev
Sol.682.(b) Badruddin Tyabji was the
at Seattle, USA, was set up by _________.
third President (in 1887) of the Indian Sol.685.(c) Jatindra Mohan Sengupta.
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Shyamji Krishna Varma National Congress and the first Muslim Anushilan Samiti was founded by Satish
(b) Tarak Nath Das and GD Kumar to hold that position. Other Political Chandra Bose and Barrister Praanath
(c) Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki organisations and founder: London Mitra. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and
(d) VD Savarkar and Ganesh Indian Society (1865) - Dadabhai Sukhdev were members of the Hindustan
Naoroji. East India Association (1866) - Socialist Republican Association (HSRA),
Sol.679.(b) Tarak Nath Das and GD Dadabhai Naoroji. Poona Sarvajanik involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case
Kumar. They were Indian revolutionaries Sabha (1870) - G.V. Joshi, S.H. Sathe, of 1929.
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 Pinnacle History
Q.686. In 1908 Khudiram Bose along Q.689. Who among the following (b) Bhagat Singh and Ram Prasad Bismil
with _________ was involved in throwing a founded the Khudai Khidmatgars or the (c) Bhagat Singh and Batukeshawar Dutt
bomb at a carriage believing it to be Red Shirts, a powerful non-violent (d) Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev
occupied by Kingsford, the then sitting movement?
judge of Muzaffarpur. Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.692.(c) Bhagat Singh and
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan Batukeshwar Dutt. They threw bomb
(a) Rajguru (b) Sukhdev (b) BR Ambedkar against the passage of the Public Safety
(c) Prafulla Chaki (d) Bhagat Singh (c) Subhas Chandra Bose Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill which
(d) Mahatma Gandhi would reduce the civil liberties of
Sol.686.(c) Prafulla Chaki was an Indian citizens. They were members of the
revolutionary associated with the Sol.689.(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, Hindustan Socialist Republican
Jugantar group of revolutionaries. also known as 'Frontier Gandhi' and Association. On 23rd March, 1931
Khudiram Bose was among the youngest 'Bacha Khan', was a prominent freedom Bhagat Singh was hanged in the Lahore
martyrs of India's freedom struggle fighter and advocate of non-violence. He jail at the age of 23.
against the British. At just 15, he had became the first non-Indian to receive
joined Anushilan Samiti and took part in Bharat Ratna in 1987. B.R. Ambedkar Q.693. Who is regarded as the 'Mother of
several revolutionary activities against was the first Law Minister of India and Indian Revolution' ?
the British Raj. He was executed on the architect of the Indian Constitution. SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
August 11, 1908, in Muzaffarpur jail in Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian (a) Annie Besant (b) Usha Mehta
Bihar. nationalist and the founder of the All (c) Madame Cama (d) Kasturba Gandhi
India Forward Bloc. Mahatma Gandhi Sol.693.(c) Madame Cama : She is
Q.687. During British rule in India, who was an Indian lawyer and anti-colonial famous for hosting the precursor to the
among the following unfurled the flag of

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nationalist, renowned for his principles of Indian National Flag on foreign soil
India in Germany in 1907? non-violence. (Stuttgart in Germany).

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Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Annie Besant Q.690. The 'Servants of India Society' Q.694. Which great leader died due to his

na
(c) Sucheta Kriplani (d) Bhikaji Cama was the brainchild of which of the injuries in the Anti-Simon Commission
following leaders ? Protest of 1928?
Sol.687.(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama. She
ap
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
founded the ‘Paris Indian Society’. Annie
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Lala Hardayal
Besant (British socialist) - Founded
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(b) BR Ambedkar (c) Bhagat Singh (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Home rule league in India and she was
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
first woman president of Indian National
(d) Chittaranjan Das Sol.694.(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (Freedom
Congress (INC). Sarojini Naidu - First
TG

fighters). He was also called ‘Punjab

Indian woman president of the INC. Sol.690.(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Kesari’ and 'Lion of Punjab'. Bal
Sucheta Kriplani holds the distinction of founded - Ranade Institute of Economics Gangadhar Tilak - Founded the Home
being India's first female Chief Minister, (1908). He started an English weekly
on

Rule League in 1916. Simon Commission

serving the state of Uttar Pradesh. newspaper, The Hitavada (The people's - Indian Statutory Commission, group of
paper). Servants of India Society was seven Members, not a single Indian
Q.688. Who among the following
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founded in 1905. Chitranjan Das is member in it, Headed by Sir John Simon.
revolutionaries was one of the
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popularly known as Deshbandhu. Lala Simon Commission came to India in

co-founders of the Hindustan Socialist
Lajpat Rai - Punjab National bank.
a

Republican Association (HSRA) which 1928.

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got established in 1928 at Ferozeshah Q.691. ‘Mitra Mela’ was a revolutionary Q.695. Who among the following, along
Kotla in Delhi? organisation founded by: with her close associates, started the
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale secret congress radio during the Quit
(a) Bhupendra Nath Bose India Movement?
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Bhagat Singh SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Vinayak Savarkar (a) Bhikaiji Cama (b) Lakshmi Sehgal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sisir Kumar Bose (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Usha Mehta
Sol.688.(c) Bhagat Singh. The Hindustan Sol.691.(c) Vinayak Savarkar. Mitra Mela
Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), Sol.695.(d) Usha Mehta. Awards -
was founded in the year 1899 in Nashik. Padma Vibhushan (1998).
formerly known as the Hindustan He and his brother Ganesh Damodar
Republican Army (HRA) was founded by established the society (later renamed Q.696. The statement- "We shall die to
Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindra Nath Abhinav Bharat Society or the Young awaken the nation" was made by.
Bakshi, Sachindranath Sanyal, and India Society). It believed in the concept SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. HRA was of Armed rebellion to overthrow the (a) Bagha Jatin
established in October 1924 in Kanpur, British. (b) Pingali Venkayya
Uttar Pradesh, by revolutionaries (c) Bir Tikendrajit Singh
including Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Q.692. On 8th April 1929, who among the (d) Surya Sen
Chatterjee, Chandrashekhar Azad, following two revolutionists threw a
Yogendra Shukla, and Sachindranath bomb in the Central Legislative Sol.696.(a) Bagha Jatin (Jatindranath
Sanyal. HRA took to socialist ideas, Assembly? Mukherjee) - Born on 7th December 1879
under Chandrashekhar Azad leadership, SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) in Kayagram (Nadia district) present-day
in 1928. (a) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru Bangladesh. He acquired the moniker
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 Pinnacle History
‘Bagha Jatin’ when he single-handedly SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.704. The Koraput Revolution occurred
killed a Bengal tiger in 1906. Bir (a) Bhagat Singh in ______ during the Quit India Movement.
Tikendrajit Singh - He was a prince of the (b) Surya Sen Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
independent Kingdom of Manipur. (c) Sachindra Nath Sanyal (a) Orissa (b) the United Provinces
(d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh (c) Bihar (d) Bengal
Q.697. Which freedom fighter was
involved in the Kakori Train Action in Sol.700.(a) Bhagat Singh and Sol.704.(a) Odisha. Koraput revolution
1925, for which the British government Batukeshwar Dutt threw a bomb in the {On August 25, 1942, 19 people died on
condemned him to death? Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April the spot in police firing at Paparandi in
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Morning) 1929. Sachindra Nath Sanyal was Nabarangpur (Odisha). More than a
(a) Ram Prasad Bismil co-founder of the Hindustan Republican thousand were jailed in Koraput district
(b) Lala Hardayal Association (HRA) in 1924. Barindra (Odisha). Veer Lakhan Nayak (Gandhi of
(c) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar Kumar Ghosh (younger brother of Sri Odisha) was hanged}. Quit India
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Aurobindo) published the Bengali weekly movement (8 August 1942 - 1944) - led
Jugantar patrika (1906). by Mahatma Gandhi.
Sol.697.(a) Ram Prasad Bismil. Kakori
Train Action - It was a train robbery (part Q.701. Who among the following Q.705. Which of the following
of Kakori Conspiracy) that took place on revolutionaries was associated with statements about Bharat Naujawan
9 August 1925, near Lucknow. It was Swadesh Bandhav Samiti? Sabha is INCORRECT?
organised by the Hindustan Republican SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Association (HRA). Ram Prasad Bismil, (a) Chandrasekhar Azad (a) It was founded in Punjab
Ashfaqulla Khan, and Roshan Singh were (b) Bhagat Singh (b) Bhagat Singh became its founding
hanged on 19 December 1927. Rajendra (c) Rajguru secretary

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Nath Lahiri hanged on December 17, (d) Ashwini Kumar Dutta (c) It was established in 1927

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1927. Sol.701.(d) Ashwini Kumar Dutta (d) It started political work among the
founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti on youth, peasants, and workers
Q.698. The Revolutionary Socialist Party

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was established in ________. 6th August 1905 in Barisal district Sol.705.(c) Bharat Naujawan Sabha was
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift) (Bangladesh). Weekly paper: Barisal founded in Lahore (1926) by Bhagat
ap
(a) 1936 (b) 1925 (c) 1940 (d) 1929 Hitaishi. He was responsible for the Singh.
creation of the Cooperative Hindustan
Sol.698.(c) 19 March 1940 by Tridib
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Bank in 1908. Q.706. Who among the following led the

Chaudhuri. It has its roots in the Bengali famous Indigo Revolt in Bengal?
liberation movement Anushilan Samiti Q.702. Who among the following SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Afternoon)
TG

and the Hindustan Socialist Republican organized the armed rebellion against (a) Mahatma Gandhi
Association . The first general secretary the British Raj in 1879 in Maharashtra? (b) Bishnu Charan Biswas and Digambar
of the party was Jogesh Chandra SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Biswas
(a) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
on

Chatterjee. (c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke

(b) Birsa Munda (d) Madari Pasi
Q.699. Who said the following words? (c) Buddhu Bhagat
h

“Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me (d) Tikendrajit Singh Sol.706.(b) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu
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hai, dekhna hai zor kitna baazu-e-qaatil Biswas of Nadia district Bengal led the
mein hai” Sol.702.(a) Vasudev Balwant Phadke - Indigo revolt. This Revolt began as a
a

SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) Known as the First Revolutionary and nonviolent strike in March 1859, as the
Se

(a) Ramprasad Bismil also the ‘Father of militant nationalism ryots of a village in Bengal's Nadia
(b) Bhagat Singh in India.’ Birsa Munda also known as district all agreed to refuse to grow any
(c) Ras Bihari Bose Dharti Aaba (Father of Earth), belonged more indigo.
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose to the Munda tribe in the Chotanagpur
Plateau area. Q.707. Which of the following
Sol.699.(a) Ramprasad Bismil (poet,
revolutionaries was arrested by the
writer, freedom fighter) - He participated Q.703. The Communist Party of India British as an accused in the Alipore
in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918, and was founded at ________ in October 1920. Bomb Conspiracy Case?
the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925. Subhash SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Chandra Bose - “Jai Hind” & “Tum Mujhe (a) Calcutta (b) Britain (a) Kanailal Dutta (b) Rajendra Lahiri
Khoon Do, Mai Tumhe Azadi Dunga”. (c) Lahore (d) Tashkent (c) Roshan Singh (d) Ashfaq Ullah Khan
Mahatma Gandhi - “Karo ya Maro”.
Sol.703.(d) Tashkent. M.N. Roy Sol.707.(a) Kanailal Dutta was among
Muhammad Iqbal - “Sare Jahan Se
(Manabendra Nath Roy), Abani Mukherji, the 33 revolutionaries who got arrested
Achha Hindustan Hamara”. Bankim
founded the Communist Party of India in the Emperor vs Aurobindo Ghosh
Chandra Chatterjee - “Vande Mataram”.
(CPI) in 1920 in Tashkent (now the (Alipore Bomb Case). The Alipore Bomb
Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya -
capital of Uzbekistan). The Communist case was a historic trial in which the
“Satyameva Jayate”.
Party of India was officially formed British Government tried to implicate Sri
Q.700. Which of the following (1925) in Kanpur. Its founders included Aurobindo in various revolutionary
revolutionaries stated during his trial that M. N. Roy, his wife Evelyn Trent, Abani activities.
"he did not wish to glorify the cult of the Mukherji, and M. P. T. Acharya
bomb and pistol but wanted a revolution (Mandayam Parthasarathi Tirumal Q.708. At which of the following jails was
in society"? Acharya). Khudiram Bose sent to the gallows?
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 Pinnacle History
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) struggle led by the Rani of Jhansi, Tantia 1916, Tilak founded the Indian Home
(a) Chittagong (b) Barishal Tope, Kunwar Singh and others had Rule League, with its headquarters in
(c) Muzaffarpur (d) Alipore subsided. Poona. The league's first meeting was
held in Belgaum. In September 1916,
Sol.708.(c) Muzaffarpur. Khudiram Q.713. Who was the first general Annie Besant founded the All-India Home
Bose was arrested for trying to secretary of the All India Farmer’s Rule League, based in Madras.
assassinate British judge Douglas Congress? Organizations and their founders : Indian
Kingsford, he was executed on August SSC CGL 17/08/2021(Afternoon) Association - Surendranath Banerjee and
11, 1908, in Muzaffarpur jail in Bihar. (a) Acharya Narendra Dev Ananda Mohan Bose; Theosophical
(b) Swami Sahjanand Saraswati Society - Helena Blavatsky, Henry Steel
Q.709. Who among the following
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel Olcott, William Quan Judge.
persons was associated with the
(d) N.G. Ranga
Chittagong Armoury Raid?
Q.717. Which of the following events
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening) Sol.713.(d) NG Ranga. He was a
took place in the United Provinces in
(a) Vishnu Sharan Dublish freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh
February, 1922?
(b) Sachindra Nath Bakshi and also received Padma Vibhusan from
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(c) Manmath Nath Gupta the President of India for his
(a) Quit India (b) Chauri Chaura
(d) Ardhendu Dastidar contributions to the peasants'
(c) Khilafat Movement (d) Kakori Incident
movement.
Sol.709.(d) Ardhendu Dastidar.
Sol.717.(b) Chauri Chaura Incident took
Q.714. Who among the following was a
Q.710. Who among the following killed place at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur
leader who led a revolt against British
Michael O'Dwyer, the British officer district of United Provinces (now Uttar
rule from North East India?
Pradesh) in British India. The police there

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responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon)
massacre? fired upon a large group of protesters
(a) Pritilata Waddedar

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SSC MTS 08/10/2021(evening) participating in the non-cooperation
(b) Rani Gaidinliu
(a) Ram Prasad Bismil movement. In retaliation, the
(c) Durgawati Devi

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(b) Udham Singh demonstrators attacked and set fire to a
(d) Matangini Hazra
(c) Chandrashekhar Azad police station, killing all of its occupants.
ap
(d) Bhagat Singh Sol.714.(b) Rani Gaidinliu was a Naga The incident led to the deaths of three
spiritual and political leader who led a civilians and 22 policemen. Mahatma
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Sol.710.(b) Udham Singh. O'Dwyer, was revolt against British rule in India. At the Gandhi halted the non-cooperation
shot dead at a joint meeting of the East age of 13, she joined the Heraka religious movement on 12th February 1922 after
India Association and the Central Asian movement established by her cousin the Chauri Chaura incident.
TG

Society in Caxton Hall, in retaliation for Haipou Jadonang in Manipur.

the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh Q.718. Indian National Army was formed
Amritsar. in which of the following countries?
Struggle for Independence SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
on

Q.711. Who among the following (a) Singapore (b) Germany

assassinated Sir William Hutt Curzon Q.715. Where of the following was Bal (c) London (d) Japan
h

Wyllie in London? Gangadhar Tilak’s Home Rule Movement

Sol.718.(a) Singapore. The Indian
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SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Afternoon) active?

(a) Surya Sen SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (2nd Shift) National Army (INA), also known as the
a

(b) Madan Lal Dhingra (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra Azad Hind Fauj, was a collaborationist
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(c) Sukhdev Thapar (c) Madras (d) Punjab armed unit of Indian supporters that
(d) Khudiram Bose fought under the command of the
Sol.715.(b) Maharashtra. Bal Gangadhar Japanese Empire. It was founded by
Sol.711.(b) Madan Lal Dhingra was an Tilak launched his Home Rule Movement Mohan Singh in September 1942 during
Indian revolutionary independence in 1916. It was primarily centered in World War II.
activist. While studying in England, he Maharashtra, which was his home base.
assassinated Sir William Hutt Curzon He had significant influence and Q.719. Being the President of the Indian
Wyllie, a British official, cited as one of following in this region. He published his National Congress, who among the
the first acts of revolution in the Indian ideas through his newspapers "Kesari" following had called for complete
independence movement in the 20th (in Marathi) and "Mahratta" (in English) independence from the British Raj in
century. from Maharashtra. 1929?
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.712. Veer Surendra Sai was a freedom Q.716. Which of the following (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
fighter from: organisations, divided into two branches, (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Afternoon) was established by Lokmanya Bal (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant? (d) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Telangana (d) Odisha SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Indian Association Sol.719.(a) Jawaharlal Nehru. He was an
Sol.712.(d) Odisha. Veer Surendra Sai (b) Theosophical society Indian freedom fighter who later became
started his revolt against British rule long (c) East Indian Association the first Prime Minister of India. In
before 1857 and continued his guerrilla (d) Home Rule League December 1929, he was chosen as the
war against the British authority from President of the Indian National
1857 till 1864 long after 1857 the Sol.716.(d) Home Rule League. In April Congress during its annual session in
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 Pinnacle History
Lahore. At this event, he raised the (a) Syed Ahmed Khan (b) CV Raman Nehru, raised the Indian National Flag
tricolour flag on the banks of the Ravi (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) JC Bose above the __________ of Red Fort in Delhi.
River. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.723.(c) Rabindranath Tagore. The (a) Delhi Gate (b) Kashmiri Gate
Q.720. On 31 October 1940, who among Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on (c) Ajmeri Gate (d) Lahori Gate
the following was arrested for offering April 13, 1919, when British troops, led by
individual Satyagraha to protest against General Dyer, fired on a peaceful crowd in Sol.727.(d) Lahori Gate. The National
India’s forced participation in the Second Amritsar, killing hundreds. In protest, Flag of India was adopted on 22 July
World War ? Mahatma Gandhi returned the 1947, Designed by Pingali Venkayya.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) Kaiser-i-Hind title in 1920. The Hunter
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Commission was set up in 1919 to Q.728. Who moved the resolution
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew investigate the incident. proposing that the National Flag of India
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru be a 'horizontal tricolor of saffron, white
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose Q.724. Who among the following was and dark green in equal proportion '?
one of the founders of the Swaraj Party? SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.720.(c) Jawaharlal Nehru. On 31 Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
October 1940, Jawaharlal Nehru was (a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
arrested for participating in individual (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Mahatma Gandhi
Satyagraha, protesting against India’s (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
forced involvement in the Second World (d) Chittaranjan Das
War. During this period, Nehru also Sol.728.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru. The
engaged in limited Civil Disobedience Sol.724.(d) Chittaranjan Das. The Swaraj Tricolour was adopted as our national
and spent approximately nine years in jail Party, initially called the Congress flag at a Congress Committee meeting in

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between 1921 and 1945. Khilafat Swaraj Party, was established in Karachi in 1931.
1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal

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Q.721. Who among the following was Nehru. This formation took place after Q.729. Who among the following was the
primarily an integral part of the Indian the Gaya Annual Conference of the founder of 'Tiger Legion' or 'Free India

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National Army (INA)? Indian National Congress in December Legion'?
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) 1922. Other important organizations and SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
ap
(a) Rabindranath Tagore their founders: Indian National Congress (a) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose (1885): Founded by A.O. Hume. All India (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
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(c) Chittaranjan Das Kisan Sabha (1936): Sahajanand (c) Sohan Singh Bhakhna
(d) Abanindranath Tagore Saraswati. Azad Hind Fauj (1943): Netaji (d) Lala Hardayal
Subhash Chandra Bose.
TG

Sol.721.(b) Subhas Chandra Bose. Sol.729.(b) Subhas Chandra Bose -

Indian National Army (INA) was a Q.725. Which of the following founder of 'Azad Hind Fauj'. 'Tiger Legion'
collaborationist armed unit of Indian Satyagrahas was started by Dr B R was formed in 1941 with the help of the
on

collaborators that fought under the Ambedkar in 1927? German Government to fight against the
command of the Japanese Empire. It SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) British.
h

was founded by Mohan Singh in (a) Nasik Temple Satyagraha Q.730. The authorities of which country
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September 1942 in Southeast Asia (b) Dharasana Satyagraha denied permission to land the ship
during World War II. Some notable people (c) Mulshi Satyagraha Komagata Maru, carrying Indians?
a

associated: Mohan Singh, Habib ur (d) Mahad Satyagraha SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift)
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Rahman, Lt. Col Hori Lal Verma. (a) New Zealand (b) America
Sol.725.(d) Mahad Satyagraha: It is also
Q.722. What is the name of the famous known as the Chavdar Tank Satyagraha, (c) Australia (d) Canada
British social reformer known for begun in Mahad (Raigad), Maharashtra. It Sol.730.(d) Canada. The Komagata Maru
founding the Indian Home Rule League in centered around the Chavdar Tank, a was a coal-transport steamship that had
1916 ? public water source that was reserved been converted into a passenger ship by
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) exclusively for upper castes. Hong Kong-based businessman Gurdit
(a) Anne Knight (b) Maria Rye Singh. It set off from Hong Kong in April
(c) Catherine Osler (d) Annie Besant Q.726. Who among the following leaders
founded the women's wing of Congress 1914, reaching Vancouver’s harbour a
Sol.722.(d) Annie Besant. Annie Besant, in 1940 ? month later with 376 people on board,
an Irish theosophist, started the Home SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) most of them Sikhs. The steamship
Rule movement in India in 1916, (a) Aruna Asaf Ali (b) Sucheta Kriplani eventually ended up back in India on 29th
demanding self-government similar to (c) Lakshmi Sangal (d) Sarojini Naidu Sep 1914 at Budge Budge, Calcutta.
the Irish Home Rule League. She founded Q.731. The origin of Directive Principles
the Home Rule League in Madras in Sol.726.(b) Sucheta Kriplani (First
female Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh of State Policy can be traced to which of
September 1916 and established over the following?
200 branches across India. from 1963 - 67). She sang Vande
Mataram on 14th August 1947 in the SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.723. Who among the following opening session of Parliament. (a) Gandhi Irwin Pact
personalities renounced his knighthood (b) Poona Pact
after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Q.727. On 15 August 1947, the first (c) Second Round Table Conference
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) prime minister of India, Jawaharlal (d) Karachi Resolution

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 Pinnacle History
Sol.731.(d) Karachi Resolution (1931). Sol.735.(c) 1879-1880. The Koya (a) C Natarajan Annadurai
The Karachi Session of Congress in 1931 Revolts rose under Tomma Sora during (b) SK Patil
was presided by Sardar Vallabhbhai 1879-80. Other important revolts are Kol (c) Atulya Ghosh
Patel. Gandhi Irwin Pact - 5 March 1931. Mutiny (1831), Ho and Munda Uprisings (d) Ram Manohar Lohia
It marked the end of civil disobedience. (1820-1837), The Santhal Rebellion
(1855-56), Ramosi Uprising (1822- 1829), Sol.740.(d) Ram Manohar Lohia.
Q.732. Who among the following etc. Congress Socialist Party (Socialist
freedom fighters was one of the caucus within the Indian National
founders of the Fergusson College in Q.736. In which of the following regions Congress) - Founded in 1934. Other
Pune in 1885 ? did Baba Ramchandra mainly lead the founders - Jayaprakash Narayan and
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Afternoon) peasant struggle during colonial rule? Acharya Narendra Dev.
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Awadh (b) Mysore Q.741. In which city was the Jhanda
(c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (c) Jodhpur (d) Hyderabad Satyagraha or Flag Satyagraha of 1923
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai held?
Sol.736.(a) Awadh. He led a peasant SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Afternoon)
Sol.732.(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Other movement in Awadh against Talukdars (a) Bombay (b) Nagpur
Co-founding members of Fergusson and Landlords. (c) Calcutta (d) Ahmedabad
College :- Vaman Shriram Apte,
Vishnushashtri Chiplunkar, Mahadeo Q.737. At which of the following places Sol.741.(b) Nagpur. Flag Satyagraha is a
Ballal Namjoshi and Gopal Krishna did C. Rajagopalachari break the salt law part of civil disobedience during the
Agarkar. in the year 1930 ? Indian independence movement.
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning)

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Q.733. Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das gave up (a) Vedaranyam (b) Tiruchi Q.742._______was executed at Lahore in
their legal practices during which (c) Tirupati (d) Madurai November 1915 for his role in the Ghadar

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Movement ? Conspiracy in February 1915.
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.737.(a) Vedaranyam. SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Evening)

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(a) Self-respect Movement C. Rajagopalachari broke the salt law in (a) Kartar Singh Sarabha
(b) Quit India Movement 1930 at Vedaranyam, a small coastal (b) Tantia Mama
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(c) Non-Cooperation Movement town in the then Tanjore District. The first (c) Maganbhai Patel
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement Indian governor of free India was C. (d) Vijay Singh Pathik
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Rajagopalachari.
Sol.733.(c) Non-Cooperation Movement Sol.742.(a) Kartar Singh Sarabha.
(1920 - 1922). It was organized by Q.738. What was the name of the Ghadar Conspiracy (1915) - Plan to
TG

Mahatma Gandhi to obtain self women's regiment in the Indian National initiate a pan-India mutiny in the British
governance. Many lawyers gave up their Army founded by Subhash Chandra Indian Army during World War by the
practices such as Motilal Nehru, Bose? Ghadar Party (United States), the Berlin
on

C.Rajagopalachari, Saifuddin Kitchlew, SSC CGL 18/08/2021(Evening) Committee (Germany), the Indian
Vallabhbhai Patel, Asaf Ali, T. Prakasam (a) Rani of Jhansi Regiment revolutionary underground in British India
and Rajendra Prasad. (b) Rani Ahilyabai Regiment and the German Foreign Office.
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(c) Rani Padmawati Regiment

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Q.734. When was Alluri Sitarama Raju (d) Rani of Didda Regiment
arrested ending a two-year armed tribal
Socio Religious Reforms
a

struggle? Sol.738.(a) Rani of Jhansi Regiment.

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Q.743. Consider the following

SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) May 1924 (b) January 1921 Q.739. Which maharaja of Manipur statements with regard to Satnami
(c) April 1919 (d) December 1929 signed the Instrument of Accession with Movement of Central India.
the Government of India? a) The movement was founded by
Sol.734.(a) May 1924. He was publicly SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon) Ghasidas.
executed in Koyyuru on May 7 after being (a) Kulachandra Singh b) The movement was to improve the
tied to a tree and shot. His final resting (b) Bodhchandra Singh condition of leather workers.
place (tomb) is at Krishna Devi Peta, 111 (c) Nara Singh Which of the above statements is/are
km from Visakhapatnam. In August (d) Gambhir Singh correct?
1922, he launched the Rampa Rebellion SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
(Manyam Rebellion) against the British. Sol.739.(b) Bodhchandra Singh, signed
(a) Only a (b) Both a and b
During this rebellion, he was helped by the Instrument of Accession on 11
(c) Neither a or b (d) Only b
Bobbili Dora. The Prime Minister has August 1947, with the assurance of
unveiled a bronze statue of Alluri Manipur's internal autonomy. This Sol.743.(b) Both a and b. Guru Ghasidas,
Sitharama Raju in Andhra Pradesh to agreement marked Manipur's entry into a 19th-century advocate of the Satnami
celebrate 125th birth anniversary on 4th the Union of India, though full integration sect, founded the Satnami community in
July 2022. followed with the Manipur Merger Chhattisgarh, promoting Satnam (truth)
Agreement in 1949. and equality. His teachings share
Q.735. In which year, the Koya rebellion similarities with Hinduism and
took place in the eastern Godavari tract? Q.740. Who among the following was
Buddhism. The Satnami movement was
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023) one of the founders of the Congress
led by non-Brahman leaders who worked
(a) 1882-1883 (b) 1874-1875 Socialist Party?
to empower marginalized communities.
(c) 1879-1880 (d) 1887-1888 SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning)
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 Pinnacle History
Q.744. Who among the following was (1875), Jamia Millia Islamia (1920), in Amritsar?
NOT one of the founders of the Ahrar Darul Uloom Deoband (1866), Osmania SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Movement in British India? University (1918). (a) Babbar Akali Movement
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) (b) Akali Movement
(a) Hasan Imam Q.748. Which of the following social (c) Singh Sabha Movement
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad reformers of 19th century India was the (d) Gurudwara Movement
(c) Maulana Muhammad Ali author of 'Stree Purush Tulana'?
(d) Hakim Ajmal Khan SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.751.(c) Singh Sabha Movement. It
(a) Tarabai Shinde was a reform organization for Sikhs, with
Sol.744.(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Swarnakumari Devi the first Sabhas established in Amritsar
was an Indian independence activist, (c) Pandita Ramabai in 1873 and Lahore in 1879. The Babbar
writer, and a senior leader of the Indian (d) Usha Mehta Akali Movement: It was founded at the
National Congress. After India’s Sikh Educational Conference in
Sol.748.(a) Tarabai Shinde (1850-1910)
independence, he became the first Hoshiarpur in 1921. The Gurudwara
: She was a pioneering Indian social
Minister of Education. The Ahrar Reform Movement (Akali Movement)
reformer and writer who advocated for
Movement was started by Muslims who was started in Amritsar in 1920.
women's rights. Her notable work, "Stree
had lost faith in the Khilafat Movement. It
Purush Tulana" (A Comparison Between Q.752. Who founded the Arya Samaj in
was founded by Maulana Muhammad Ali,
Women and Men), published in 1882, Mumbai in 1875 ?
Hakim Ajmal Khan, Hasan Imam,
critiqued the patriarchal society and SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Maulana Zafar Ali Khan, and
argued for gender equality. (a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Mazhar-ul-Haq .
Swarnakumari Devi : She was the first (b) Debendranath Tagore
Q.745. Who among the following Indian Woman editor (the editor of the (c) Swami Vivekanand

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participated in the All-World Religious women’s journal Bharati). Usha Mehta (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

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Conference (Parliament of Religions) wrote the book “Mahatma Gandhi and
Humanism”. Pandita Ramabai : She Sol.752.(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati,
held in 1893 in Chicago?
an Indian philosopher, is known for his

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SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 wrote the High Caste Hindu Women,
Stree Dharma Neeti, American Encounter. work Satyarth Prakash and the slogan
(a) Swami Dayanand
“Go Back to the Vedas.” He also initiated
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(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q.749. Samata Sainik Dal was formed in the Shuddhi Movement. Debendranath
(c) Swami Shahjananda 1927 by whom among the following Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha
:@

(d) Swami Vivekananda personalities?

in 1839 and joined the Brahmo Samaj
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.745.(d) Swami Vivekananda was a (a) Savitribai Phule (b) BR Ambedkar (founded by Raja Rammohan Roy in
disciple of Ramakrishna. He gave his 1828) in 1842. The Ramakrishna Mission
TG

(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Narayana Guru

famous speech at the Parliament of was established by Swami Vivekananda
World Religions in Chicago in 1893. He Sol.749.(b) BR Ambedkar. He founded in May 1897 at Belur Math, West Bengal.
established the Belur Math in West ‘Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha' in 1924 to
on

promote and uplift the education of Q.753. With reference to Ishwar Chandra
Bengal, and Ramakrishna Mission in
untouchables. Mahatma Gandhi founded Vidyasagar, consider the following
1897.
statements.
h

- Harijan Sevak Sangh in 1932. Narayana

i) He protested child marriage and
rc

Q.746. Who founded the Prarthana Guru founded the Sree Narayana Dharma
Samaj in Mumbai in 1867? Paripalana Yogam (SNDP) in 1903. polygamy.
a

SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) ii) Due to his efforts, the first Hindu
Se

(a) Atmaram Pandurang Q.750. Who among the following Widow Remarriage Act, 1856, was
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1814? introduced.
(c) Shri Ram Bajpai SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) iii) He was primarily known for his
(d) Ram Mohan Roy (a) Keshab Chandra Sen scholarship in Persian language.
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy Which of the above statements is/are
Sol.746.(a) Atmaram Pandurang. (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar correct?
Prarthana Samaj was founded with an (d) Debendranath Tagore SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
aim to make people believe in one God (a) i, ii, iii (b) i, ii (c) i, iii (d) ii, iii
and worship only one God. Sol.750.(b) Raja Rammohun Roy, known
as "the Father of Indian Renaissance," Sol.753.(b) i, ii. Ishwar Chandra
Q.747. When was a Madrasa opened in was an Indian reformer and writer who Vidyasagar's efforts led to the passage
Kolkata to promote the study of Arabic, co-founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act
Persian and Islamic law? leading to the formation of the Brahmo (Act XV) on July 16, 1856, legalizing
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Samaj, a significant socio-religious widow remarriage in India under East
(a) 1772 C.E. (b) 1783 C.E. reform movement. Honored with the title India Company rule. Drafted by Lord
(c) 1781 C.E. (d) 1774 C.E. of Raja by Mughal emperor Akbar II, his Dalhousie and enacted by Lord Canning,
influence marked the beginning of the law took effect on July 26, 1856.
Sol.747.(c) 1781 C.E. It was set up by
modern thought in Kolkata, particularly
Warren Hastings of the first Governor Q.754. Guru Ghasidas led which of the
with the establishment of the Atmiya
General of East India Company. Other following movements to improve the
Sabha in 1814.
universities and colleges: Aligarh Muslim social condition of leather workers in
University, originally as the Q.751. Which of the following Sikh British India?
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College reform movements was started in 1873 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
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 Pinnacle History
(a) Aravipuram Movement Sol.757.(c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule. He campaigned for the freedom of thought
(b) Satyashodhak Samaj was a prominent social reformer from and expression.
(c) Nirankari Movement Maharashtra who dedicated his life to Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(d) Satnami Movement eradicating untouchability and caste (a) Young Christian Movement
discrimination. Together with his wife, (b) Young Men's Movement
Sol.754.(d) Satnami Movement. Guru Savitribai, he played a key role in (c) Young Radical Movement
Ghasidas, the Guru of Satnam Dharma, promoting women's education in India, (d) Young Bengal Movement
was a Satnami saint and renowned founding the first girls' school in 1848 at
scholar from Chhattisgarh in the early Bhidewada, Pune. Major Publications: Sol.760.(d) Young Bengal Movement.
19th century. He began preaching in the Tritiya Ratna, Gulamgiri, and Other Reform Organisations and its
deep forests of Chhattisgarh, spreading Shetkarayacha Aasud. Founders : The Brahmo Samaj (1828) -
his teachings. The Satnami movement, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, The Veda Samaj
also known as Satnampanth or Q.758. Match the following movements (1864) - Keshab Chandra Sen and K.
Sadhanpanth, was a social and religious with their respective founders: Sridharalu Naidu, The Prarthana Samaj
movement in India that challenged the a. Faraizi Movement I. Sayyid Ahmad of (1867) - Atmaram Pandurang.
caste system and the prevailing political Rae Bareli
and religious authorities. b. Mohammedan II. Sir Syed Ahmad Q.761. In which of the following years,
Literary Society Khan was the Self-Respect movement started
Q.755. Which was the first c. Indian Patriotic III. Nawab Abdul in Tamil Nadu region?
socio-religious organisation established Association Latif Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
in Bombay in 1840 to work for the d. Wahabi Movement IV. Haji Shariatullah (a) 1925 (b) 1916 (c) 1910 (d) 1930
annihilation of caste? SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) a - IV, b - III, c - Il, d - I Sol.761.(a) 1925. The Self-Respect

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(a) Dharma Sabha (b) a - III, b - IV, c - II, d - I Movement was a social and political
movement in South India that sought to

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(b) Satyashodhak Samaj (c) a - Il, b - I, c - IV, D - III
(c) Paramhans Mandali (d) a - I, b - II, c - III, d - IV achieve equality and social justice for
people oppressed by the caste system.

na
(d) Vishwa Jain Sangathan
Sol.758.(a) a - IV, b - III, c - Il, d - I. Other The movement was initiated by E. V.
Sol.755.(c) Paramhans Mandali : Movement/Organisation and their Ramasamy (also known as Periyar).
ap
Founder - Durgaram Mehtaji. Dharma Founders: Bhoodan movement - Acharya
Sabha was formed in 1830 in Calcutta by Vinobha Bhave, Servants of India Society Q.762. Who among the following is
:@

Radhakanta Deb, primarily for the - GK Gokhale, Khudai Khidmatgar - Khan associated with the Theosophical
defense of Hindu orthodoxy. Abdul Gaffar Khan, Arya Samaj - Society?
Dayanand Saraswati, Self-respect Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
TG

Q.756. Which organisation was started in Movement - EV Ramaswamy Naicker, (a) Annie Besant (b) Tarabai Shinde
the Pune district of Maharashtra in the Tattvabodhini Sabha - Debendranath (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Savitri Bai Phule
1870s with the aim of promoting Tagore, Abhinav Bharat - Vir Savarkar,
on

Sol.762.(a) Annie Besant had come to

education and social rights among the and Narmada Bachao - Medha Patkar.
India in 1893. She laid the foundation of
underprivileged group of the society?
Q.759. Who among the following the Central Hindu College in Benaras in
h

SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)

founded the Muhammedan 1898. The Theosophical Society:
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(a) Shoshit Seva Samaj

Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh for the Theosophy represents the wisdom at the
(b) Deepalaya Samaj
a

spread of Western education? core of all religions when stripped of

(c) Prarthana Samaj
superstitions and excesses. It was
Se

(d) Satyashodhak Samaj SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)

(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and
Sol.756.(d) Satyashodhak Samaj was (b) Badrudeen Tyabji Colonel Olcott in New York (United
founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873, It is (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad States) in 1875. In 1882, they shifted
also known as the Society of Seekers of (d) Syed Ameer Ali their headquarters to Adyar (Madras
Truth. Its aim was to access social rights Presidency).
and civil liberties for people of lower Sol.759.(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan. In
1875, he founded the Muhammadan Q.763. Who among the following is NOT
castes, underprivileged and women.
Anglo Oriental College on the pattern of associated with the Rahnumai
Jyotiba Phule (a social activist) -
Oxford and Cambridge universities. The Mazdayasnan Sabha?
Established the first school for girls in
college later grew into Aligarh Muslim Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
India in Pune in 1848. Dalit term was first
University. He started the Aligarh (a) Naoroji Furdunji
used by him.
movement to promote western education (b) SS Bengalee
Q.757. Who among the following was the among muslims. He established the (c) Syed Ahmed Khan
pioneer of widow remarriages in Scientific Society in 1864. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Maharashtra and also started a girls'
Q.760. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a Sol.763.(c) Syed Ahmed Khan. The
school in Poona along with his wife?
teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was a
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
1820s, promoted radical ideas and social reform organization founded in
(a) BR Ambedkar
encouraged his pupils to question all 1851 by Parsis in Bombay (now Mumbai)
(b) Gopal Hari Deshmukh Lokahitawadi
authority. Referred to as the _________ his to promote reform in the ancient
(c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
students attacked tradition and custom, Zoroastrian religion. It was composed of
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
demanded education for women and Dadabhai Naoroji, J.B. Wacha, S.S
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 Pinnacle History
Bengalee and Naoroji Furdonji, with the that worked against Brahmanical SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
funding from K.N. Kama. orthodoxy and tried to reform Hinduism? (a) Dr. Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (b) Dr. Atmaram Pandurang
Q.764. Which of the following (a) Brahmo Samaj (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
statement(s) is/are correct about (b) Paramahansa Mandali (d) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
Prarthana Samaj? (c) Ramakrishna Mission
A. Prarthana Samaj or ‘Prayer Society’ in (d) Arya Samaj Sol.771.(a) Dr. Kanhaiyalal Maneklal
Sanskrit, was a movement for religious Munshi. Bhartiya Vidya Bhawan - A
and social reforms. Sol.767.(b) Paramahansa Mandali - It charitable public trust founded on
B. Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1863 was a secret socio-religious group, November 7, 1938.
by Dadoba Pandurang and his brother established in 1849, in Bombay and was
Atmaram Pandurang. closely related to Manav Dharma Sabha Q.772. Who had founded the first
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 which was founded in 1844 in Surat. Women’s University in India ?
(a) Neither A nor B (b) Only A SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q.768. The Landholders Society was (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(c) Both A and B (d) Only B
founded to look after the interests of (b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
Sol.764.(b) Only A. The Prarthana Samaj which class? (c) William Hunter
was established in Bombay by Dr. Atma SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) (d) Sayed Ahmed Khan
Ram Pandurang in 1867. Aim - To (a) Traders (b) Labour
remove caste restriction, abolish child (c) Farmers (d) Landlords Sol.772.(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
marriage, encourage women education (Maharishi Karve)- He founded the first
Sol.768.(d) Landlords. Landholders’ women university (SNDT Women's
and promotes widow remarriages. Society also known as the Zamindari
Members - R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice University) in 1916 in India. Awards -

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Association is considered to be the first Bharat Ratna (1958), Padma Vibhushan
Mahadev Govind Ranade. political association of modern India. It (1955). The Widow Remarriage

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Q.765. Sree Narayana Guru considered was formally launched in Calcutta in Association was founded by Vishnu
the differences based on caste and March 1838. Raja Radhakant dev, Shastri Pandit.

na
religion as meaningless and advocated Dwarkanath tagore, Prasanna Kumar
the principle of ‘One Caste, one Religion Tagore, Rajkamal Sen and Bhabani Q.773. Who received the title Pandita
ap
and one God’ for all. He belonged to Charan Mitra were its founding from the faculty of Calcutta University for
which of the following organisations? members. her knowledge of Sanskrit?
:@

SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)

Q.769. Who started the temple entry (a) Rokaya Sakhawat Hossain
(a) Veda Samaj movement in 1927 ?
(b) Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (b) Ramabai Sarasvati
TG

SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Sarojini Naidu

Yogam (a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Brahmo Samaj (d) Rash Sundari Devi
(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(d) Arya Samaj
on

(c) Mahatma Gandhi Sol.773.(b) Ramabai Sarasvati was an

Sol.765.(b) Sree Narayana Dharma (d) Annie Besant Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the
education and emancipation of women
h

Paripalana Yogam. Sree Narayana Guru: Sol.769.(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar. It was a in India. She was the first woman to be
rc

In 1888, he built a temple dedicated to movement to allow lower caste people to

Lord Shiva at Aruvippuram which was accorded the titles of Pandita. She was
enter temples. Dalits Movements led by
a

against the caste-based restrictions of one of the 10 women delegates of the

Bhimrao Ambedkar: The second biggest
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the time. Congress session of 1889. In the late

movement for the entry of untouchables 1890s, she founded Mukti Mission at
Q.766. Who among the following in the famous Kalaram temple of Nashik Kedgaon village, and established
pioneered the movement in the support in 1930. Mahad Satyagraha (1927) was a Sharada Sadan (Home of Wisdom), a
of widow remarriage and girls’ education movement for the Dalits to get the right school for widows, in Mumbai. In 1919,
in Andhra region? to drink water from the tank. the king of England bestowed on her the
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Q.770. Visva Bharati a famous Kaiser-I - Hind award.
(a) Kandukuri Veeresalingam educational institute was founded in
(b) Chembeti Sridharalu Naidu Q.774. Who is known as the founder of
1921 by: the Widow Remarriage Association
(c) Sree Narayana Guru SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(d) C Rajagopalachari (1861)?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.766.(a) Kandukuri Veeresalingam (b) Vinoba Bhave (a) Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(1848-1919) was a social reformer and (c) Mother Teresa (b) RG Bhandarkar
writer from Andhra Pradesh. He is (d) Swami Chinmayananda (c) Dwarkanath Tagore
considered as the father of the Telugu Sol.770.(a) Rabindranath Tagore. (d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Renaissance movement. He also fought Visva-Bharati University: It is located in
against child marriage and the dowry Sol.774.(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade.
Shantiniketan, West Bengal and became
system. Widow Remarriage Association - Started
the world's first "living heritage
by Vishnu Shastri Pandit in 1856. Aim -
university".
Q.767. Which of the following Promote widow remarriage and
organizations was founded in Poona, Q.771. Who established Bharatiya Vidya campaigned against Child Marriage.
Satara and other towns of Maharashtra Bhavan to promote education and culture? Karsondas Mulji - He started the 'Satya
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 Pinnacle History
Prakash' in Gujarati in 1852 to promote British Government termed him as the Q.783. Who was the first social reformer
the remarriage of widows. Organization "Father of Indian Unrest". to view modern education as a vehicle
founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade - for the spread of modern ideas in the
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870), Q.779. 'The Deccan Sabha' was founded country?
Vaktrutvottejak Sabha (1875). by which of the following nationalists? SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q.775. In which language was the work (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) DK Karve
of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, 'Gift to (b) Pherozeshah Mehta (c) Savitribai Phule
Monotheists' originally written ? (c) Surendranath Banerjee (d) Swami Vivekananda
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) Arabic (b) Persian Sol.783.(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (Father
(c) Bengali (d) Sanskrit Sol.779.(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He
of modern India), Organizations founded
became president of Indian National
: Brahmo Samaj (1828, Kolkata), Atmiya
Sol.775.(b) Persian. Raja Ram Mohan Congress (INC) in Benaras session
Sabha (1815, Kolkata). He founded the
Roy: Father of Modern India’s (1905).
Vedanta College in 1825.
Renaissance. Given the title ‘Raja’ by
Akbar II (Mughal Emperor). Q.780. The Mohammedan Literary
Q.784. Who among the following was the
Society founded in Calcutta in 1863 was
founder of the Aligarh Movement, which
Q.776. Narayan Guru, a social reformer founded by:
was largely responsible for the revival of
from Ezhava caste and who propagated SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
Muslims in India?
an anti-caste movement, was born in (a) Nawab Abdul Latif
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift)
which of the following states of India? (b) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
(a) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Sayyid Ahmad
(b) Muhammad Iqbal

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(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (d) Syed Ahmad Khan
(c) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu

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Sol.780.(a) Nawab Abdul Latif (Father of (d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
Sol.776.(b) Kerala. Shri Narayan Guru: muslim renaissance in Bengal). Lord

na
He led a reform movement against the Lytton gave him The title of "Nawab''. Sol.784.(d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan. Mirza
injustice in the caste-ridden society of Lord Dufferin gave him the title of Nawab Ghulam Ahmad - Founder of the
ap
Kerala in order to promote spiritual Bahadur. Mohammedan Literary Society Ahmadiyya movement. Muhammad
enlightenment and social equality. His was a literary society of Muslims in Allama Iqbal wrote the famous song
'Saare jahan se achha'. He is also known
:@

famous quote: "One caste, one religion British India.

and one god for all". for giving birth to the 'idea of Pakistan'.
Q.781. Rast-Goftar, a newspaper,
Q.777. Who among the following propagated the messages of socio Q.785. Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
TG

founded the Indian Association along -religious reforms for which of the and Mahadev Govind Ranade carried out
with Anand Mohan Bose? following societies? their work of religious reforms in
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) Maharashtra through which of the
on

(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji (a) Hindu (b) Muslim (c) Sikh (d) Parsi following organisations?
(b) Gopal krishna Gokhale SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.781.(d) Parsi. Rast Goftar ("The
h

(c) Pheroze Shah Mehta (a) Prarthana Samaj

Truth Teller") was an Anglo-Gujarati
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(d) Surendranath Banerjee (b) Atmiya Sabha

paper operating in Bombay that was
(c) Theosophical Society
a

Sol.777.(d) Surendranath Banerjee. started in 1854 by Dadabhai Naoroji and

(d) Brahmo Samaj
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Indian Association of Calcutta (1876), Kharshedji Cama and championed social

Aimed to unify Indian people on a reform among Parsis in Western India. Sol.785.(a) Prarthana Samaj (1867).
common political programme and create Publishers and their Newspaper : James
a strong public opinion on political Augustus Hicky - “Bengal Gazette”, Pt. Q.786. Who among the following was
questions. Jugal Kishore Shukla - “Udant Martand”, one of the founders of Rahnumai
Raja Ram Mohan Roy - “Samvad Mazdayasnan Sabha or Religious Reform
Q.778. Who among the following Kaumudi” and “Mirat-ul-Akbar”, Association?
organized Sarvajanik Ganesh Utsav to Madhusudan Ray - “Hindoo Patriot”, SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift)
inculcate national sentiments among the Devendra Nath Tagore - “Indian Mirror”. (a) Keshab Chandra Sen
masses? (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.782. Who among the following (c) Muhammad Iqbal
(a) Lokmanya Tilak devoted his life for the upliftment of (d) Aatmarang Pandurang
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal widows and established the Widow
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh Remarriage Association in 1893? Sol.786.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. He
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift) presided over the second session of
(a) DK Karve (b) Annie Besant Indian National Congress at Kolkata
Sol.778.(a) Lokmanya Tilak (Bal
(c) KC Sen (d) BM Malabari (1886). Keshab Chandra Sen - He
Gangadhar Tilak): Tilak launched the
established Indian Reform association
Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Sol.782.(a) D K Karve. Karve’s
(1870), Member of Brahmo Samaj
Belgaum (Annie Besant launched the autobiographical works: Atmawrutta
(1828). Atmaram Pandurang: Founded -
Home Rule League in September 1916 at (1928) in Marathi, and Looking Back
Prarthana Samaj (1867) with the help of
Madras). His famous declaration “Swaraj (1936) in English. Awards - Bharat Ratna
Keshab Chandra Sen.
is my birthright, and I shall have it”. The (1958), Padma Vibhushan (1955).
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 Pinnacle History
Q.787. 'Back to Vedas' was the slogan of Indian and Western culture was ________ . Reform Movement).Namdhari Movement
which Reform Movement? Graduate Level 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) (Kuka Movement) - A Sikh reform
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy movement that began in the Punjab
(a) Dev Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj (b) Keshab Chandra Sen region of India (Founded by Baba Ram
(c) Prarthana Samaj (d) Arya Samaj (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Singh in 1857). Ghadar Movement:
(d) Devendranath Tagore President - Sohan Singh Bhakna,
Sol.787.(d) Arya Samaj.
Founded - 15 July 1913, Dissolved -
Sol.792.(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar January 1948, Preceded by - Pacific
Q.788. Karsondas Mulji and Dadoba
("Father of Bengali Prose"). Hindu Widow Coast Hindustan Association. Nirankari
Pandurang were associated with______,
Remarriage Act of 1856 was enacted Movement - It was a social reform
which worked against evils like caste
with the efforts of Ishwar Chandra movement for Sikhism (founded by Baba
system and encouraged widow
Vidyasagar. Dyal Das in 1851).
remarriage.
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.793. Rani Gaidinliu is associated with Q.796. The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of
(a) Paramahansa Mandali which of the following movements? Islam which originated from India. It was
(b) Arya samaj Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) founded by___________in 1889.
(c) Brahmo Samaj (a) Heraka (b) Meira Paibi SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Ramakrishna Mission (c) Nupi Lan (d) Nisha Bandh (a) Mir Nisar Ali
Sol.788.(a) Paramahansa Mandali: A (b) Haji Shariatullah
Sol.793.(a) Heraka was a socio-religious
secret socio-religious group, established (c) Shah Walliullah
movement that arose in the 1920s in the
in 1849 in Mumbai. (d) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
Zeliangrong territory. Meira Paibi : This
Q.789. Who founded the Tattvabodhini movement was founded in 1977 in Sol.796.(d) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad. The

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Sabha that was set up to explore spiritual Kaching district. Nupi Lan : There were Ahmadiyya Movement was founded on
two demonstrations led by women

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truth? liberal principles and principles of a
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) against the colonial authorities in universal religion for all humanity. After
Manipur, British India. In 1904, The

na
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen his death the movement was led by
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy second Nupi Lan began in 1939 in elected successor Hakeem Noor-ud-din.
response to rice exports during World
ap
(c) Debendranath Tagore Mir Nisar Ali (Titu mir) - Narkelbaria
(d) Dayanand Saraswati War II. Nisha Bandh : The women's movement, 1831. Haji Shariatullah -
movement developed in the late 1970s.
:@

Faraizi movement. Shah Walliullah -

Sol.789.(c) Debendranath Tagore (Father Its origin is attributed to the Meitei Wahabi movement.
of Rabindranath Tagore) founded the women's activism to fight against
Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839. He joined alcoholism and drug addiction. Q.797. Who among the following
TG

the Brahmo Samaj in 1842. founded the Widow Remarriage

Q.794. Some of Swami Dayanand's Association?
Q.790. Who among the following is NOT followers started a network of schools SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening)
on

associated with Brahmo Samaj? and colleges called D.A.V. What does 'A' (a) Raja Rammohan Roy
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) stand for in D.A.V.? (b) Pandit Vishnu Shastri
(a) Atmaram Panduranga
h

Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (c) Swami Vivekananda

(b) Keshav Chandra Sen
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(a) Author (b) Angel (c) Anglo (d) Accept (d) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Debendranath Tagore
a

(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Sol.794.(c) Anglo. The acronym DAV Sol.797.(b) Pandit Vishnu Shastri.
Se

translates as 'Dayanand Anglo Vedic', the

Sol.790.(a) Atmaram Pandurang melange of the Vedas and Modernity. Q.798. Lala Lajpat Rai was an active
founded Prartahana Samaj (1867), Other Mahatma Hansraj established the first member of which organisation?
members - R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice DAV School at Lahore on June 1, 1886. SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Mahadev Govind Ranade. Objective - Other Educational Establishments in (a) Arya Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj
Women Education, Widow remarriage India: 1835 - Calcutta Medical College (c) Brahmo Sabha (d) Prathana Sabha
and Disapproval of caste system. and the Elphinstone College of Bombay.
1857 - University of Bombay, Calcutta, Sol.798.(a) Arya Samaj. It promoted the
Q.791. The Veda Samaj of Madras was study of the Vedas and the Upanishads,
and Madras. 1882 - The University of
inspired by the________. and it advocated for social reform,
Punjab. 1887 - The University of
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) including the abolition of caste
(a) Brahmo Samaj Allahabad.
discrimination.
(b) Arya Samaj
Q.795. The ________ was started by the
(c) Deoband Movement Q.799. Who was the founder of Dharma
Sikh reformers to purify their religious
(d) Wahabi Movement Sabha ?
places by removing the evil social
practices that had slowly crept into them. SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
Sol.791.(a) Brahmo Samaj (1828). It
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
denounced polytheism and opposed
(a) Namdhari Movement (b) Dadoba Pandurang
idolatry. Deobandi Movement (1866) :
(b) Akali Movement (c) R.G. Bhandarkar
Founder - Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi
(c) Ghadar Movement (d) Radhakanta Deb
and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi.
(d) Nirankari Movement Sol.799.(d) Radhakanta Deb founded it
Q.792. The Principal of a Sanskrit
Sol.795.(b) Akali Movement (Gurdwara in 1830 in Calcutta. The Dharma Sabha
College who represented a blend of
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 Pinnacle History
was a conservative Hindu society. It Q.804. The first session of All India Q.808. Vishnushastri Chiplunkar started
campaigned against the Hindu Widow Depressed Classes congress was held at a monthly Marathi magazine __________,
Remarriage Act, 1856. Chief public organ __________ in 1930. in 1874 for the cause of social reform.
- Bengali newspaper “Samachar SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Chandrika” {Editor - Bhabani Charan (a) Nagpur (b) Surat (c) Delhi (d) Kanpur (a) Prabhakar (b) Kesari
Bandyopadhyay (Secretary of Dharma (c) Nibandhmala (d) Pudhari
Sabha)}. Sol.804.(a) Nagpur. 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini
Sabha (Outcastes Welfare Association)’, Sol.808.(c) Nibandhmala. Gopal Hari
Q.800. Annie Besant laid the foundation 1923. Deshmukh is writer of Prabhakar
of the Central Hindu College in______ in newspaper. Kesari (Marathi newspaper,
1898 where both Hindu religion and Q.805. Who founded the Arya Mahila 1881, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak).
Western scientific subjects were taught. Samaj? Pudhari (Marathi daily, 1937).
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) (Newspaper/ Journal – Founder):-
(a) Pune (b) Chennai (a) Sarojini Naidu Udbodhan, 1899, Swami Vivekananda.
(c) Banaras (d) Kolkata (b) Sarla Devi Chaudhurani Independent, 1919, Motilal Nehru. Tahzib
(c) Pandita Ramabai -ul-Akhlaq, 1871, Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
Sol.800.(c) Banaras. Annie Besant: A (d) DK Karve
British socialist, educationist and Q.809. The Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
women’s rights activist. She came to Sol.805.(c) Pandita Ramabai (women's was established at ___________.
India in 1893. rights & education activist). She was the Graduate Level 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 2)
first woman to be awarded the titles of (a) Hyderabad (b) Bombay
Q.801. When was the Dev Samaj Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and (c) Delhi (d) Nasik
founded in Lahore by Shiv Narayan Sarasvati after being examined by the

df
Agnihotri? faculty of the University of Calcutta. She Sol.809.(b) Bombay.
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning)

_p
was awarded with the Kaiser-i-Hind
(a) 1892 (b) 1887 (c) 1876 (d) 1863 Q.810. The Vidhava Vivaha Uttejaka
Medal for community service in 1919.
Mandal (Society for Encouragement of

na
She was one of the ten women delegates
Sol.801.(b) 1887. Dev Samaj is a Hindu Widow Marriage) was established in
of the Congress session of 1889.
reform movement that was founded in __________ in the second half of the
ap
response to the perceived ills of orthodox Q.806. In 1930, _________ led a nineteenth century.
Hinduism. satyagraha for the rights of Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
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untouchables’ entry to the Kalaram (a) Calcutta Presidency

Q.802. Who among the following started (b) Bombay Presidency
temple at Nasik.
the Kuka Movement? (c) the Central Provinces
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 )
TG

SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift) (d) the United Provinces

(a) MC Rajah
(a) Thakur Singh Sandhawalia
(b) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(b) Baba Dayal Das Sol.810.(b) Bombay Presidency. It was
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
on

(c) Balak Singh established by Vishnushastri Pandit in

(d) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Satguru Ram Singh 1866. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act
Sol.806.(b) Dr B.R. Ambedkar. In 1920, (1856) was passed by Lord Canning with
h

Sol.802.(d) Satguru Ram Singh. The the efforts of Ishwar Chandra

he began the publication of the weekly
rc

Kukas, a sect within Sikhism, formed Vidyasagar. Sati Practice was abolished
Mooknayak (Leader of the Silent) in
with a motive to purify Sikhism. Baba
a

Mumbai with the help of Shahu of by William Bentinck in 1829 with the
Dayal Das: founded the Nirankari
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Kolhapur. His important writings: ‘The efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Movement. Balak Singh: An Indian Sikh
Annihilation of Caste’, ‘Who Were the
religious leader who founded the Q.811. The Begums of Bhopal founded a
Shudras’, ‘The Untouchables’, ‘Riddles in
Namdhari sect. Thakur Singh primary school for girls in the early
Hinduism’, etc.
Sandhawalia: Founder of Singh sabha. twentieth century at _____.
Q.807. Which of the following was SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.803. Who emphasized the worship of (a) Lahore (b) Bombay
God as Nirankar (Formless) in Punjab? known as the forerunner of the Brahmo
Samaj? (c) Aligarh (d) Pune
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Maharaja Ranjit Singh Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Sol.811.(c) Aligarh. The Begums of
(b) Baba Ram Singh (a) Prarthana Sabha (b) Atmiya Sabha Bhopal played a vital role, from the early
(c) Baba Dayal Das (c) Paramhansa Sabha (d) Hindu Sabha 20th century, in promoting education
(d) Guru Gobind Singh among Muslim women. They founded a
Sol.807.(b) Atmiya Sabha. Brahmo
primary school for girls at Aligarh.
Sol.803.(c) Baba Dayal Das - Founder of Samaj {Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded
Nawab Begum was the founding
the Nirankari Movement. He emphasized Brahmo Sabha in 1828, Aim - worship of
Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University.
the worship of god as Nirankar the eternal God. It split into two in 1866
(formless). Baba Ram Singh - The leader (Brahmo Samaj of India led by Keshub Q.812. Who among the following was
of the Kuka movement in Punjab. Chandra Sen and Adi Brahmo Samaj led one of the founders of the Deccan
Maharaja Ranjit Singh (“Sher-e-Punjab” or by Debendranath Tagore), Prominent Education Society (1884)?
"Lion of Punjab") - First Maharaja of the Leaders: Debendranath Tagore, Keshub SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Sikh Empire. Guru Gobind Singh - The Chandra Sen, Pt. Sivnath Shastri, and (a) Dadoba Pandurang (b) V R Shinde
tenth and last Sikh Guru. Rabindranath Tagore}. (c) Tulsi Ram (d) G G Agarkar

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 Pinnacle History
Sol.812.(d) GG Agarkar. Paramhansa in 1880. He was one of the first Muslim Q.820. The Indian National Congress
Sabha was founded by Dadoba in nineteenth century India to embrace formally took up the Swadeshi call in its
Pandurang. V R Shinde founded the the idea of modernization. Benaras session of 1905 under the
Depressed Class Mission in Mumbai in presidentship of _________.
1906. Radha Swami Satsang was Indian National Congress and SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
founded by Tulsi Ram in 1861. (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Its Sessions
(b) Rajendra Prasad
Q.813. Who among the following wrote (c) Motilal Nehru
the Brahmo Covenant, which was a Q.817. Who among the following was the
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
statement of the creed of the Brahmo President of the Belgaum Session of the
Samaj and made a list of the duties and Indian National Congress held in 1924? Sol.820.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. INC
obligations of its members? SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sessions and its President : First Session
SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Mahatma Gandhi (Bombay in 1885) - W.C. Bannerjee,
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen (b) Vallabhbhai Patel Second Session (Calcutta in 1886) -
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (c) Subhas Chandra Bose Dadabhai Naoroji, 1919 (Amritsar) and
(c) Debendranath Tagore (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 1928 (Calcutta) - Motilal Nehru, 1929
(d) Rammohan Roy (Lahore) - Jawaharlal Nehru, 1934
Sol.817.(a) Mahatma Gandhi. The 39th
(Bombay) - Rajendra Prasad.
Sol.813.(c) Debendranath Tagore. He session of INC at Belgaum was held on
was the founder in 1848 of the Brahmo December 26, 1924. INC Sessions: Q.821. The Quit India Resolution was
religion, which today is synonymous with Bombay, 1885 (W.C. Banerjee) - First ratified in the_________ session of Indian
Brahmoism. In 1863 he founded session; Madras, 1887 (Badruddin National Congress to launch the
Shantiniketan (“Abode of Peace”). Tayabji) - First Muslim President; movement.

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Allahabad, 1888 (George Yule) - First Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.814. Who among the following was

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English President; Lahore, 1929 (a) Bombay (b) Bankipur
NOT a Nayanar saint?
(Jawaharlal Nehru); Haripura, 1938 (c) Lucknow (d) Nagpur
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening)

na
(Subhas Chandra Bose) - Bose’s first
(a) Sundarar (b) Appar
term as President. Sol.821.(a) Bombay session. This
(c) Sambandar (d) Andal
session took place at the Gowalia Tank
ap
Sol.814.(d) Andal. The Nayanars were a Q.818. Where was the 1912 session of Maidan (August Kranti Maidan), on
group of 63 poet-saints living in Tamil the India National Congress held in August 8, 1942, where Mahatma Gandhi
:@

Nadu during the 6th to 8th centuries CE Bihar? gave his famous "Do or Die" speech. The
who were devoted to the Hindu god SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) resolution was moved by Jawaharlal
(a) Sahasaram (b) Gaya Nehru.
TG

Shiva. Along with the Alwars, their

contemporaries who were devoted to (c) Bankipore (d) Madhubani
Q.822. In which of the following places
Vishnu, they influenced the Bhakti
Sol.818.(c) Bankipore. The 27th session the Indian National Congress passed the
on

movement in early medieval South India.

of the Indian National Congress in 1912 resolution of Purna Swaraj?
Q.815. Which of the following is NOT a was presided over by Raghunath Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
h

correct match of Dargah and its Narasinha Mudholkar. In December 1922, (a) Lahore (b) Madras
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respective location? the session was held in Gaya under (c) Bombay (d) Karachi
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Evening) Chittaranjan Das, while the 53rd session
a

took place in 1940 at Ramgarh, near Sol.822.(a) Lahore. On 19 December

(a) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya Dargah -
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Ranchi, led by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. 1929, the Indian National Congress
Agra
passed the historic ‘Poorna Swaraj’ (total
(b) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
Q.819. Who amongst the following independence) resolution at its Lahore
Dargah - Delhi
became the president of the second session, with Jawaharlal Nehru elected
(c) Haji Ali Dargah - Mumbai
session of the Indian National Congress as its President. A public declaration was
(d) Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi (chishti)
held in Calcutta in December 1886 ? made on 26 January 1930, a day the
Dargah - Ajmer
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Congress urged Indians to celebrate as
Sol.815.(a) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya (a) P Ananda Charlu ‘Independence Day.’
Dargah is the Dargah of the Sufi saint (b) Badruddin Tyabji
Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya. It is located Q.823. __________ was elected as the
(c) Dadabhai Nauroji
in the Nizamuddin West area of Delhi president of the third session of Indian
(d) William Wedderburn
National Congress.
Q.816. Who among the following is Sol.819.(c) Dadabhai Nauroji. The first Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
known as the 'father of Muslim session of the Indian National Congress (a) KT Telang
renaissance' in Bengal? was held in Bombay in December 1885 (b) Pherozeshah Mehta
SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Evening) with seventy-two delegates. W.C. (c) Badruddin Tyabji
(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan Banerjee served as its first president, (d) AO Hume
(b) Ameer Ali while A.O. Hume took office as the
(c) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan Sol.823.(c) Badruddin Tyabji. Wyomesh
General Secretary. Dadabhai Naoroji also
(d) Nawab Salimullah Khan Chandra Banerjee was the first president,
presided over the 9th session in 1893
presiding over the inaugural session in
Sol.816.(c) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan. His (Lahore), and the 22nd session in 1906
1885, while Annie Besant became the
title, Nawab, was awarded by the British (Calcutta).
first woman to hold the position in 1917.
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 Pinnacle History
Q.824. All India Kisan Sabha was (1925, Kanpur session) and the first to revive the Zoroastrian religion and
founded in 1936 at Indian National woman Governor of the United Provinces formed the London India Society in 1865.
Congress (INC) ________ Session as All in 1947. He became a member of the Legislative
India Kisan Congress. Council of Mumbai during 1885-88 and
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.828. Which flag of the Indian National President of the Congress Party in 1886
(a) Lucknow (b) Agra Congress was adopted in 1931? (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore) and 1906
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (Calcutta).
(a) A two colour flag with charkha made
Sol.824.(a) Lucknow. Swami by cloth Q.832. Which Session of Congress and
Sahajananda Saraswati, who founded the (b) A tricolour flag made by Khadi with a Muslim League reached an
Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929, Charkha symbol understanding of creating a joint front
also led the formation of the All India (c) One colour flag with charkha symbol against the British regime?
Kisan Sabha (AIKS) during the Indian (d) A blue colour flag made by cloth SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
National Congress' Lucknow Session in (a) Bombay (b) Allahabad
1936. The AIKS, also known as the Akhil Sol.828.(b) Ad - Hoc Flag Committee : (c) Lucknow (d) Delhi
Bharatiya Kisan Sabha. Formed in 1947 under Rajendra Prasad.
Pingali Venkayya - Designer of National Sol.832.(c) Lucknow (1916) - President:
Q.825. Indian National Congress Flag of India (1921). The national flag A.C. Majumdar; Lucknow Pact signed
celebrated the first Independence Day in was adopted on July 22, 1947. Ratio of between Congress (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Colonial India on _____________ . the length to the breadth of the Indian and Muslim League (Muhammad Ali
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Flag - 3:2. The national flag of India was Jinnah) to build political consensus;
(a) 2 October 1929 first hoisted on 7th August, 1906 in Unity between two factions - Moderates
(b) 29 December 1929 Kolkata at the Parsee Bagan Square and Extremists of Congress.

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(c) 15 August 1930 (Green Park). The first Indian flag was

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(d) 26 January 1930 hoisted on a foreign land by Madame Q.833. Which among the following
Bhikaji Cama (1907 - Germany). sessions of Indian National Congress
Sol.825.(d) 26 January 1930. The Indian

na
was the first session to be presided by a
National Congress passed 'Complete Q.829. In the 1939 Tripuri Congress lady ?
Swaraj' in its Lahore session on 19 Presidential Election, Pattabhi
ap
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
December 1929. The president of this Sitaramayya was defeated by: (a) Calcutta - 1917 (b) Kanpur - 1925
session was Jawaharlal Nehru. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) (c) Lahore - 1929 (d) Surat - 1907
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(a) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.826. Who led the Indian National (b) Rajendra Prasad Sol.833.(a) Calcutta - (Annie Besant,
Congress at its first annual session? (c) Subhas Chandra Bose 1917).
TG

SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

(a) Surendra Nath Banerjee Q.834. In _________ at its Madras session,
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji Sol.829.(c) Subhas Chandra Bose was the Indian National Congress set up an
on

(c) WC Banerjee elected as President of the Haripura All Parties Conference to draft a
(d) AO Hume Congress Session in 1938. He resigned Constitution for India.
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
h

as congress president in April 1939. Dr.

Sol.826.(c) WC Banerjee. Important (a) 1922 (b) 1932 (c) 1927 (d) 1915
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Rajendra Prasad replaced Subhas

Congress sessions: First Session - held Chandra Bose as the new congress
a

at Bombay in 1885. Second Session - president. Sol.834.(c) 1927. Indian National

Se

held at Calcutta in 1886, President - Congress (INC) session 1927 (Madras):

Dadabhai Naoroji. Third Session - held at Q.830. The second annual session of President - M A Ansari. INC session 1915
Madras in 1887, President - Syed Indian National Congress was held at (Bombay): President - Satyendra
Badruddin Tyabji (first muslim which of the following places ? Prasanna Sinha. Importance -
President). Fourth Session - held at SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) Constitution of the Congress was altered
Allahabad in 1888, President - George (a) Bombay (b) Delhi to admit the delegates from the
Yule (first English President). 1896 (c) Calcutta (d) Madras extremist section. INC session 1922
session (Calcutta) President - (Gaya): President - C R Das. Importance -
Rahimtullah Sayani, National Song Sol.830.(c) Calcutta (1886, Dada Bhai CR Das and other leaders broke away
‘Vande Mataram’ sung for the first time Naoroji). from INC, Formation of Swaraj Party. INC
by Rabindranath Tagore. Q.831. Self-Government or 'Swaraj' as session 1932 (Delhi): President - Amrit
the ultimate goal of the Indian National Ranchhorddas Seth.
Q.827. Who was the first Woman
President of Indian National Congress? Congress-this declaration was made by
Q.835. The split in Indian National
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Dadabhai Naoroji in which of the
Congress occurred in ________ .
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Asaf Ali following sessions of the INC ?
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
(c) Annie Besant (d) Usha Mehta SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) 1901 (b) 1905 (c) 1903 (d) 1907
(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta
Sol.827.(c) Annie Besant : First woman (c) Madras (d) Bankipur Sol.835.(d) 1907. The Surat Split was
who presided over the Calcutta session the splitting of Indian National Congress
(1917) of Indian National Congress. Sol.831.(b) Calcutta. Dadabhai Naoroji
into two groups - Moderates and
Sarojini Naidu - First Indian women (Grand Old Man of India) founded the
Radicals.
president of Indian national congress Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha in 1851

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 Pinnacle History
Q.836. The Indian National Congress Congress in September 1923 and at the north - western and eastern areas of the
was established when 72 delegates from age of 35 became the youngest man to country
all over the country met at Bombay in be elected as the President of the SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift)
December _______. Congress? (a) 1940 (b) 1942 (c) 1946 (d) 1935
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning)
(a) 1890 (b) 1858 (c) 1885 (d) 1872 (a) Mahadev Govind Ranade Sol.845.(a) 1940. All-India Muslim
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia League established in Dhaka in 1906.
Sol.836.(c) 1885. Founder: Allan Founder: Nawab Khwaja Salimullah. First
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Octavian Hume. First President: W.C. Honorary President: Aga Khan III.
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Bannerjee. First meeting - Gokuldas Headquarters: Lucknow. 1st Session:
Tejpal Sanskrit College (Bombay). Sol.841.(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Karachi (1907).
Prominent delegates included Dadabhai He was also a noted writer, poet and
Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, journalist. He was a prominent political Q.846. Muslim League observed ______
Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozeshah Mehta, W. leader and was elected as Congress as ‘Direct Action Day’.
C. Bonnerjee, S. Ramaswami Mudaliar, S. President in 1923 and 1940. SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening)
Subramania Iyer, and Romesh Chunder (a) 16 August 1946 (b) 12 August 1946
Dutt. Q.842. Who was the President of the (c) 10 August 1946 (d) 14 August 1946
Indian National Congress when India
Q.837. Who among the following was the won its freedom in the year 1947 ? Sol.846.(a) 16 August 1946.
President of the Indian National Congress SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Evening) Muhammad Ali Jinnah declared 16
during the 1915 session? (a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Vallabhbhai Patel August as 'Direct Action Day' and called
SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) J. B. Kripalani for Muslims all over the country to
(a) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha 'suspend all business'. Direct Action Day,

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(b) Ambica Charan Mazumdar Sol.842.(d) J. B. Kripalani (Acharya also known as the 1946 Calcutta Killings.
Kriplani) was the president of the Indian

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(c) Bhupendra Nath Bose
(d) Madan Mohan Malaviya National Congress during the transfer of Miscellaneous
power. He was the husband of Sucheta

na
Sol.837.(a) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha. Kripalani, who was the first woman chief Q.847. Who among the following was the
1895 - Surendranath Banerjee, 1909 -
minister (Uttar Pradesh). first principal of the Bengal National
ap
Madan Mohan Malaviya, 1916 - Ambica
Charan Mazumdar. College started in 1906 ?
Muslim league SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
:@

Q.838. How many delegates participated (a) Satish Chandra Mukherjee

in the second session of Indian National Q.843. The All-India Muslim League, (b) Rash Behari Ghosh
Congress? popularly known as the Muslim League, (c) Aurobindo Ghose
TG

SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) was founded in _________ . (d) Subodh Chandra Mullick
(a) 434 (b) 628 (c) 212 (d) 190 Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) 1910 (b) 1906 (c) 1908 (d) 1904 Sol.847.(c) Aurobindo Ghose was an
on

Sol.838.(a) 434, Held (December 27-30, Indian philosopher, yogi, poet, and
1886, Calcutta), President (Shri Dadabhai Sol.843.(b) 1906. The All-India Muslim nationalist. He also worked as a
Naoroji), Congress decided to set up
h

League was formed during the tenure of journalist, editing newspapers such as
Provincial Congress Committees across Lord Minto II, who served as the Viceroy
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Bande Mataram. The Alipore Bomb Case,

the country. of India from 1905 to 1910. The League also known as the Muraripukur
a

was founded in Dhaka, British India Conspiracy or Manicktolla Bomb

Q.839. In which of the following sessions
Se

(Bangladesh), in 1906 and supported the Conspiracy, was a significant criminal

of the Indian National Congress did
partition of Bengal. It sought separate trial in India in 1908, involving several
George Yule become the President in
electorates for Muslims, a demand that Indian nationalists.
1888?
was conceded by the government in
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Q.848. When was the All Bengal
1909.
(a) Calcutta (b) Allahabad Students Conference held in the
(c) Madras (d) Bombay Q.844. The Lucknow Pact was signed in chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru?
____________ by Congress and the Muslim SSC MTS 01/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.839.(b) Allahabad.
League to work in alliance for (a) 1928 (b) 1939 (c) 1934 (d) 1920
Q.840. In which of the following years representative government.
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.848.(a) 1928. All Bengal Students
did the resolution at the Karachi Session
(a) 1916 (b) 1918 (c) 1920 (d) 1914 Conference - It was organized in
of the Indian National Congress dwell on
response to the expulsion of students
how Independent India’s Constitution
Sol.844.(a) 1916. INC session Lucknow from Kolkata colleges for "unruly
should look?
(1916) - President: A.C. Majumdar. conduct" and the subsequent student
SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Lucknow Pact was signed between protests. The conference led to the
(a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1946 (d) 1945
Congress (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) and formation of the All-Bengal Students
Sol.840.(a) 1931. In 1928, Motilal Nehru Muslim League (Muhammad Ali Jinnah) Association to unite and organize
and other Congress leaders drafted a to build political consensus. students across the region.
constitution for India.
Q.845. In __________ the Muslim League Q.849. In 1927, where was the
Q.841. Who among the following had moved a resolution demanding conference against colonial oppression
presided over the special session of “Independent States” for Muslims in the and imperialism, in which Jawaharlal
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 Pinnacle History
Nehru participated on behalf of Indian Sol.853.(b) 15th August. India gained Sol.857.(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i.
National Congress, held? independence from British rule on
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (1st Shift) August 15, 1947, ending nearly two Q.858. In which of the following areas
(a) Bruges (b) Leuven centuries of colonial control. The transfer did the Uprising of Khurda in 1817 take
(c) Antwerp (d) Brussels of power also led to the partition, place?
creating India and Pakistan. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.849.(d) Brussels. Pt. Jawaharlal (a) United Province (b) Odisha
Nehru became General Secretary of the Q.854. Who among the following has (c) Madras (d) Bengal
All India Congress Committee in 1923. In authored the play ‘Nil Darpan’ ?
1926, he toured several countries, SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.858.(b) Odisha. The Khurda Revolt of
including Belgium, where he attended the (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Chittaranjan Das 1817 was an armed uprising against the
Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in (c) Dinabandhu Mitra (d) Sarojini Naidu British, sparked by the rapid and
1927. He also participated in the 10th disruptive changes introduced by the
anniversary of the October Revolution in Sol.854.(c) Dinabandhu Mitra. Nil East India Company, which agitated the
Moscow. At the 1927 Madras Congress, Darpan is a Bengali-language play written local population. This revolt also
Nehru advocated for full independence. in 1858-59 by Dinabandhu Mitra, impacted other districts of Odisha, such
depicting the oppression of indigo as Cuttack. It is also known as the Paika
Q.850. What is the year of foundation of farmers by British planters in Bengal. His Rebellion or Paika Bidroha, and it was led
the Women’s Indian Association (WIA)? other works include ‘Nabin Tapasvini’, by Bakshi Jagabandhu.
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (1st Shift) ‘Biye Pagla Budo’, ‘Sadhabar Ekadashi’,
(a) 1927 (b) 1917 (c) 1907 (d) 1937 and ‘Kamale Kamini’. Other authors and Q.859. Where was the Hindu College
their works : Sarojini Naidu - ‘The Golden established in the year 1791?
Sol.850.(b) 1917. Women’s Indian SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Threshold’, ‘The Bird of Time’.

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Association, a heritage welfare (a) Mathura (b) Kolkata
Chittaranjan Das - ‘India for Indians’,
organization of the women by the (c) Benaras (d) Patna

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‘Freedom Through Disobedience’.
women for the women. It was formed on
8th May 1917 at Adyar, Chennai by Annie Sol.859.(c) Benaras. The Hindu College
Q.855. Who among the following

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Besent. It was the first organization to was founded by Jonathan Duncan, a
freedom fighters of India is the author of
create an overall awakening among British officer, and Raja Rameshwar
the book, 'The Indian Struggle' ?
ap
women and to train them to shoulder Singh, the Maharaja of Banaras. The
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
their responsibility in public services. college was originally known as the
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
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Sanskrit College, and it was dedicated to

(b) Motilal Nehru
Q.851. Which of the following national the study of Sanskrit language and
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
leaders of India inaugurated the first literature. In 1958, the Sanskrit College
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
TG

Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samman Samaroh became a university and was renamed
held in Ujjain in 1958? Sol.855.(d) Subhas Chandra Bose. His Sampurnanand Sanskrit University in
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Books : An Indian Pilgrim, Jaruri Kichu 1974. Raja Ram Mohan Roy established
on

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Lekha, Famous Speeches and Letters of the Hindu College in Calcutta in 1817,
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri Subhas Chandra Bose. which is now known as Presidency
(c) Rajendra Prasad University, Kolkata.
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Q.856. Which of the following books is

(d) Sardar Patel
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INCORRECTLY paired with its respective Q.860. In 1936, The Independent Labour
Sol.851.(c) Rajendra Prasad. The Akhil author? Party was founded by _______.
a

Bharatiya Kalidas Samaroh is an annual SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Se

cultural festival held in Ujjain, Madhya (a) Hind Swaraj – Mahatma Gandhi (a) Mohan Singh Bhakhna
Pradesh, since 1958, celebrating the (b) Gitanjali – Rabindranath Tagore (b) BR Ambedkar
works of poet Kalidasa. (c) The Discovery of India – Subhash (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Chandra Bose (d) Bhagat Singh
Q.852. Who became the Nawab of
(d) Why I am an Atheist – Bhagat Singh
Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan in Sol.860.(b) BR Ambedkar was an Indian
the year 1756? Sol.856.(c) ‘’The Discovery of India’’ is a jurist and social reformer who served as
SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (1st Shift) book by Jawaharlal Nehru. the first Minister of Law and Justice and
(a) Shuja-Ud-Daulah (b) Siraj-Ud-Daulah was the chief architect of the
Q.857. Match the following institutes
(c) Saadat Ali Khan (d) Wazir Ali Constitution of India. He was awarded
with their respective founders of British
Sol.852.(b) Siraj-Ud-Daulah. Following India. the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1990.
Alivardi Khan's death in 1756, Institutes Their respective Organizations and Founders: Swatantra
Sirajuddaulah became Nawab of Bengal founders Shramik Party (B.R. Ambedkar), Swarajya
but faced conflict with the British, who a. Asiatic Society of i. Warren Hastings Party (Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan
aimed to install a puppet ruler. Bengal Das), Muslim League (Agha Khan &
b. Sanskrit College of ii. Lord Wellesley Salimullah), Indian National Congress
Q.853. On which of the following dates Benaras (A.O.Hume).
did the British Empire transfer its powers c. Fort William College iii. Jonathan Duncan
to the Constituent Assembly in India? d. Calcutta Madrasa iv. Sir William Jones Q.861. When was the All India Trade
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) Union Congress (AITUC) established?
(a) 2nd October (b) 15th August (a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (b) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) 14 November (d) 26th January
th (c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (a) 1926 (b) 1924 (c) 1928 (d) 1920
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 Pinnacle History
Sol.861.(d) 1920. All India Trade Union (d) Gulamgiri remembered as the Butcher of Amritsar
Congress (AITUC) was formed in for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh
Bombay. The AITUC was a broad-based Sol.864.(d) Gulamgiri (Marathi massacre in 1919 ?
organisation involving diverse ideologies. Language), also known as Slavery, SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
The main ideological groups were the summarizes the sufferings of (a) William Slim (b) Robert Clive
communists led by S.A. Dange and M.N. lower-caste people and is written in (c) William Birdwood (d) Reginald Dyer
Roy, the moderates led by M. Joshi and Marathi. Phule formed the Satyashodhak
Samaj in 1873. He, together with his wife Sol.868.(d) Reginald Dyer. The
V.V. Giri and the nationalists which
Savitribai Phule, opened a girls' school in Jallianwala Bagh massacre (Amritsar
involved people like Lala Lajpat Rai and
Poona. massacre) took place on April 13, 1919
Jawaharlal Nehru.
(spring festival of Baisakhi) in Punjab. It
Q.862. Who founded the Theosophical Q.865. In his ‘Drain of Wealth’ argument, happened under the rule of Lt. Governor
Society in New York in 1875? who among the following stated that of Punjab, Michael O’Dwyer, and viceroy
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Britain was completely draining India? of India, Lord Chelmsford. People
(a) Naoroji Furdunji and Satyendra Nath SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) gathered there to protest against the
Bose (a) Badruddin Tyabji Rowlatt Act and arrests of pro-Indian
(b) Baba Dayal Das and Madan Lal (b) Lala Lajpat Rai independence leaders Dr. Saifuddin
(c) Ramabai Ranade and GK Devadhar (c) Dadabhai Naoroji Kitchlew and Dr. Satya Pal.
(d) Madame HP Blavatsky and Colonel (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Q.869. Vasco da Gama, who discovered
Olcott Sol.865.(c) Dadabhai Naoroji - He was the sea route from Europe to India,
Sol.862.(d) Madame HP Blavatsky and known as the "Grand Old Man of India”. belonged to which nation?
Colonel Olcott. The Theosophical He introduced thе 'drain thеory' in his SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)

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Society, emphasized the study of ancient rеnownеd book "Povеrty and thе (a) England (b) Portugal
Un-British Rulе in India”.

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Hindu, Buddhist, and Zoroastrian (c) Spain (d) Germany
philosophies. It advocated for universal
Q.866. Who is the author of the Indian Sol.869.(b) Portugal. Vasco da Gama

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brotherhood based on principles from
national anthem? arrived in India at Calicut (Kozhikode) in
the Upanishads and Vedas. Annie Besant
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) 1498 AD during the reign of the Zamorin,
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joined the society in 1889 and first came
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay a Hindu ruler. This event marked the
to India on 16 November 1893. Its
(b) Rabindranath Tagore discovery of the sea route from Europe to
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headquarters in India was established in

(c) Kazi Nazrul Islam India. He reached India by sea via the
Adyar, Madras (now Chennai). Ramabai
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar "Cape of Good Hope". Francisco de
Ranade and G. K. Devadhar were both
Almeida was appointed as the first
TG

founders of the Poona Seva Sadan. Sol.866.(b) Rabindranath Tagore. He Portuguese governor in India. His policy
wrote the Indian national anthem, "Jana is known for implementing the "Policy of
Q.863. What gave a major impetus to the
Gana Mana" in Bengali in 1911, and it Blue Water," which aimed to establish
cotton textile industry in India after
on

was officially adopted as the national Portuguese dominance in maritime

Independence?
anthem of India on January 24, 1950. trade.
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
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(a) Partition of India in 1947 Q.867. Which Commission drew the Q.870. Tattvabodhini Patrika promoted
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(b) Export of raw cotton to England boundary line between India and the study of India’s past in which
(c) Swadeshi movement Pakistan?
a

language?
(d) Development of railway network SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Se

SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)

(a) Radcliffe Boundary Commission (a) Sanskrit (b) Hindi
Sol.863.(c) Swadeshi movement. The
(b) Gandhi Irwin Pact (c) English (d) Bengali
Swadeshi movement, led by Gandhiji,
(c) Hilton Young Commission
aimed to promote self-sufficiency by Sol.870.(d) Bengali. Tattvabodhini
(d) Bretton woods Commission
boycotting British goods and Patrika was a Bengali monthly that
encouraging Indian-made products. Sol.867.(a) Radcliffe Boundary started publishing from Calcutta (now
India's first cotton mill, the Bombay Commission. The "Radcliffe Line" Kolkata) in 1843 as a mouthpiece of
Spinning and Weaving Company, was became the border between India and Debendranath Tagore's Tattvabodhini
established in Mumbai on July 7, 1854. Pakistan the partition of India on 17 Sabha.
The world’s first cotton mill, the Upper August 1947. The Border Commission
Priory Cotton Mill, was founded by Lewis Q.871. Who among the following stated
headed by Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
Paul and John Wyatt in Birmingham, in 1902, India was not ruled for its
Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931 - 32) was an
England, in 1741. benefit, but rather for the benefit of its
agreement between Mahatma Gandhi
and Lord Irwin. The Hilton Young conquerors?
Q.864. ________ is one of the first SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Commission (1926) recommended the
criticism of the caste system written by (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
establishment of the 'Reserve Bank of
Mahatma Phule and published in the year (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
India'. The Bretton Woods Committee
1873. (c) Annie Besant
(BWC in 1944) created two organizations
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) (d) Sarojini Naidu
- the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(a) Jati ka Unmoolan
and the World Bank. Sol.871.(c) Annie Besant first came to
(b) Bharat Mein Jaati Evam Prajaati
India on 16 November 1893. She joined
(c) Gulami Ki Kahani Q.868. Which British colonel is
the Theosophical Society in May 1889
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 Pinnacle History
and founded a weekly newspaper, committee : Formed - 29 August 1947, Modern India' or 'Father of the Bengal
Commonweal, in January 1914 for her Chairman - Dr. BR Ambedkar Total Renaissance'.
political work. Other personalities and member - 7.
their quotes: Bal Gangadhar Tilak - Q.881. In 1921-22, farmers of the
Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it. Q.877. The All India Forward Bloc was Malabar seacoast of Kerala undertook a
Lala Lajpat Rai - The shots that hit me founded by_______in 1939 after resigning great uprising, which is known as the __ .
are the last nails to the coffin of British from the Congress Presidentship Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
rule in India. SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Munda uprising (b) Moplah uprising
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Santhal uprising (d) Kol uprising
Q.872. Sanskrit College at Benaras was (b) Mahatma Gandhi
founded by ________. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.881.(b) Moplah uprising - Led by
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (d) Subhash Chandra Bose Variyamkunnath Kunjahammed Haji,
(a) William Jones (b) James Mill against the British and the Hindu
Sol.877.(d) Subhash Chandra Bose. All landlords; Wagon tragedy - Moplah
(c) Jonathan Duncan (d) Thomas Munro
India Forward Bloc was a Political Party prisoners died of suffocation during
Sol.872.(c) Jonathan Duncan. The formed on May 3, 1939 in Makur Unnao, transportation in a closed freight wagon.
Sanskrit College at Varanasi was Uttar Pradesh. Its formation was
established in 1791. The Hindu College announced in Calcutta. Q.882. Who among the following social
(now Presidency University) in Kolkata reformers of British India is known as
Q.878. Who was the first Indian to qualify Lokhitwadi ?
was founded in 1817.
for Covenanted service? Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
Q.873. Who designed India Gate, also SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Balshastri Jambhekar
called the All-India War Memorial? (a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Daboda Pandurang

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SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
(a) Charles Corey (b) John Tailor (c) Satyendra Nath Tagore (d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

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(c) Fredrik Forsyth (d) Edwin Lutyens (d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Sol.882.(d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh.

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Sol.873.(d) Edwin Lutyens (an English Sol.878.(c) Satyendra Nath Tagore Balshastri Jambhekar (Father of Marathi
architect). Other buildings designed by Qualified in 1863. Indian Services Act, Journalism) - He started the very first
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him: Rashtrapati Bhavan, India Gate, The 1861 reserved certain positions for newspaper, ‘Darpan’, and revolutionized
Cenotaph Whitehall (London). The Old covenanted civil servants. It was enacted the journalism system in Maharashtra.
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Parliament of India was also designed by in 1861 during Lord Canning's

Herbert Baker and Lutyens. The Viceroyalty. Charles Cornwallis is known Q.883. Who among the following
foundation stone of India Gate was laid as ‘the father of Civil services in India’. founded the Asiatic Society in 1784 in
TG

by His Royal Highness, the Duke of Calcutta?

Q.879. The Hindu Mahasabha was Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Connaught in 1921.
founded as a response to muslim (a) Jonathan Duncan (b) William Jones
on

Q.874. Who was the political guru of fundamentalism in which Year? (c) Warren Hastings (d) Charles Eyre
Subhash Chandra Bose? SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift)
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) 1917 (b) 1915 (c) 1925 (d) 1910 Sol.883.(b) William Jones. Asiatic
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(a) M.G. Ranade Society - It was started with the goal of

Sol.879.(b) 1915. Hindu Mahasabha
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(b) Mahatma Gandhi promoting oriental studies. Jonathan

(Founder - Madan Mohan Malaviya) First Duncan - He started Sanskrit College
a

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

All India Hindu Mahasabha Conference - (1791) at Varanasi to study Hindu Law
(d) Chittaranjan Das
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Haridwar (1915). In 1930, it emerged as a and Philosophy. He was the Governor of

Sol.874.(d) Chittaranjan Das distinct party under the leadership of Bombay.
(Deshbandhu). Vinayak Damodar Savarkar. Prominent
Leaders - Lala Lajpat Rai, Navin Chandra Q.884. The Social Service League was
Q.875. The name of the Brahmin priest Rai, Radha Mohan Das Agarwal, founded in Bombay by:
who later came to be known as Chandroji Angre, Mahant Avaidyanath. Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Ramakrishna Paramahansa is: (a) Manabendra Nath Roy
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.880. Who among the following said that
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(a) Gadadhar Chattopadhyaya "English education has enslaved us" ?
(c) Narayan Malhar Joshi
(b) Dayanand Saraswati Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Shree Narayana Guru (a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Narendra Nath Datta (b) Mahatma Gandhi Sol.884.(c) Narayan Malhar Joshi - He
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah was an Indian trade union leader,
Sol.875.(a) Gadadhar Chattopadhyay. (d) Muhammad Iqbal Founded social service league (1911). He
Q.876. When did the Drafting Committee Sol.880.(b) Mahatma Gandhi. started the All India Trade Union
publish the first draft of the Indian Muhammad Iqbal - He wrote the famous Congress (1920). He was the general
Constitution? song 'Saare jahan se achha', also known secretary of AITUC. Manabendra Nath
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) for giving birth to the 'idea of Pakistan'. Roy - leader of India’s communists until
(a) June 1948 (b) May 1948 Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a barrister, the independence of India in 1947.
(c) January 1948 (d) February 1948 politician and the founder of Pakistan.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a religious and Q.885. When British rule ended in India in
Sol.876.(d) February 1948. Drafting social reformer, known as the 'Father of 1947 the literacy rate was just ______.

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 Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) Sol.895.(b) 1905 at Paris under the
(a) 18 percent (b) 22 percent (a) Munda (b) Bhil (c) Gond (d) Bhutia patronage of Madam Bhikaji Cama,
(c) 20 percent (d) 12 percent Munchershah Burjorji Godrej and S. R.
Sol.890.(a) Munda. Birsa Munda was a Rana. It was a branch of the Indian Home
Sol.885.(d) 12 percent. The population tribal reformer, religious leader, and Rule Society which was established in
census, a Union subject under Article 246 freedom fighter. 15 November - Birsa London in 1905. Bhikaji Cama's
of the Indian Constitution, conducted its Munda’s birth anniversary (Jharkhand important publication is 'Vande Mataram'
first census of Independent India in 1951, carved out of Bihar on 15th November (1909).
listed as serial number 69 in the seventh 2000).
schedule. This census revealed the Q.896. In which year was India House
population of the country to be 36, 10, 88, Q.891. Dr. B.R Ambedkar was associated established by Shyamji Verma?
090. with which of the following SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift)
communities? (a) 1905 (b) 1899 (c) 1902 (d) 1909
Q.886. What was the title given to the SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
late Sarojini Naidu? (a) Mahar (b) Berar (c) Santal (d) Sangoi Sol.896.(a) 1905. Other revolutionaries:
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) V.D. Savarkar, Bhikaji Cama, V.N.
(a) Nightingale of India Sol.891.(a) Mahar. It is listed as the Chatterjee, Lala Har Dayal, V.V.S. Aiyar,
(b) Kite of India Scheduled Caste in India. Dr. B.R M.P.T. Acharya, P.M. Bapat, etc. Shyamji
(c) Sparrow of India Ambedkar - Architect of Indian Krishna Verma founded the Indian Home
(d) Hornbill of India Constitution. Rule Society and The Indian Sociologist
(Journal) in London. He became the first
Sol.886.(a) Nightingale of India (Bharat Q.892. Which freedom fighter of British
President of Bombay Arya Samaj.
Kokila). This title was given to Sarojini India is widely regarded as the "father of

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Naidu by Mahatma Gandhi. Notable the two-nation theory" ? Q.897. Identify the freedom fighter who,
Works - The Golden Threshold, The SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) as a child, hated going to school and

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Broken Wing. (a) Syed Ahmed Khan found it suffocating and oppressive.
(b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)

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Q.887. The Deccan Riots of 1875 took (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Mahatma Gandhi
place in ______ . (d) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
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SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) (c) Jyotiba Phule
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Bihar Sol.892.(a) Syed Ahmed Khan was the
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
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(c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra founder of Aligarh Muslim University and
a forward looking Islamist reformer. Sol.897.(d) Rabindranath Tagore.
Sol.887.(d) Maharashtra. Deccan Riots: Mohammed Ali Jinnah - First governor - Rabindranath Tagore: Santiniketan
TG

Began at - Supa village (Poona) in 1875. general (1947–48) of Pakistan. (1901), Nobel Prize in Literature (1913,
The farmers’ main motive was to destroy Gitanjali), composed Jana Gana Mana
the account books of the moneylenders Q.893. Who among the following was a (India’s National Anthem) and Amar
Roman Catholic missionary who worked
on

and they also socially boycotted the Shonar Bangla (Bangladesh’s National
moneylenders. The movement was in Bengal for the majority of his/her life? Anthem). Other Works: Manasi (1890)
supported by the Poona Sarvajanik SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift) [The Ideal One], Sonar Tari (1894) [The
h

Sabha (co-founded by M G Ranade). (a) Saint Bernadette (b) David of Basra Golden Boat], Gitimalya (1914) [Wreath
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(c) Mother Teresa (d) Columba of Songs], and Balaka (1916) [The Flight
Q.888. Editor of a Marathi newspaper of Cranes].
a

"Kesari” was . Sol.893.(c) Mother Teresa (from

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SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) Macedonia) - Nobel Peace Prize (1979), Q.898. The claim for ‘swarajya’ or
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal founded the Missionaries of Charity. self-government within the British
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh Saint Bernadette - French saint whose Empire, on the model of self-governing
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai visions led to the founding of the Marian colonies like Australia and Canada, was
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak shrine of Lourdes. put forward from the Congress platform
in 1905 by:
Sol.888.(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Q.894. When did Indigo revolt, a peasant
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
movement, start in India?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
Q.889. What happened in Bengal, India, SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
in 1770 that resulted in the death of (a) 1857 (b) 1861 (c) 1859 (d) 1889
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
one-third of the population?
Sol.894.(c) 1859 (March). The Indigo (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
(a) Massacre (b) Famine Rebellion (Neel Bidroh) started in Bengal Sol.898.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Slavery (d) Chemical explosion and was a revolt by the farmers against (Diamond of India) was Political Guru of
British planters who had forced them to Gandhi, Congress President (1905),
Sol.889.(b) Famine. 1770 Bengal Famine grow indigo under terms that were established Servants of India Society in
- It affected Bengal and Bihar. Relief - greatly unfavorable to the farmers. 1905, English Newspaper (The Hitavada),
Attempts to prevent export and hoard or founded The Ranade Institute of
monopolize grain; 15,000 was spent on Q.895. The Paris Indian Society was an
Economics (1905), ‘Dharmatma Gokhale’
the import of food grains. Indian nationalist organisation founded
(Writer - Mahatma Gandhi).
in ______.
Q.890. Tribal leader Birsa was SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) Q.899. Who among the following was the
associated with which tribe? (a) 1907 (b) 1905 (c) 1909 (d) 1900 founder of the Bhoodan Yojana (Land
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 Pinnacle History
Gift) movement? the year ______. (c) Danish (d) Portuguese
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Tarabai Shinde (a) 1918 (b) 1920 (c) 1921 (d) 1924 Sol.908.(a) French. Battle of
(c) Atmaram Joshi (d) Vinoba Bhave Chandernagore (1757) - Between French
Sol.903.(b) 1920. Oudh Kisan Sabha and British (led by Robert Clive) during
Sol.899.(d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave in (Oudh Farmers Association) was an the Seven Years' War (1756-1763).
1951, the Bhoodan Movement (first association formed by Baba Ram
started in Andhra Pradesh) was initiated Chandra. He was a trade unionist who Q.909. In which of the following years
at Pochampally village (Telangana). The organized the farmers of Oudh and led did Japan invade India resulting in the
Bhoodan movement attempted to the first protest against the landlords. Battle of Imphal?
persuade wealthy landowners to SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Morning)
voluntarily give a percentage of their land Q.904. India and Pakistan had signed the (a) 1944 (b) 1901 (c) 1862 (d) 1899
to landless people. ______, under which the two countries
agreed to sort out differences and Sol.909.(a) 1944. The outcome of the
Q.900. The first President of the All India disputes bilaterally. battle of Imphal was a turning point of
Trade Union Congress was _________. SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning) one of the most gruelling campaigns of
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Calcutta Pact (b) Shimla Pact the Second World War (1939-45).
(a) C Rajagopalachari (c) Lucknow Pact (d) Agra Pact Q.910. In which of the following years
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai was the Bombay Reorganization Act
(c) Chandra Shekhar Azad Sol.904.(b) Shimla Pact was signed in
1972 by Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto, the President passed?
(d) Motilal Nehru SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
of Pakistan, and Indira Gandhi, the Prime
Sol.900.(b) Lala Lajpat Rai. All India Minister of India. (a) 1980 (b) 1960 (c) 1956 (d) 1975

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Trade Union Congress, AITUC (created Sol.910.(b) 1960. After this act, Bombay
on October 31, 1920 in Bombay) is the Q.905. What was the name of the

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operation that led to the annexation of State was dissolved and split on
first Central Trade Union of India and the linguistic lines into the two states of
second largest trade union federation in the Hyderabad State into India?

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SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) Gujarat (Gujarati speaking population)
India after the Indian National Trade and Maharashtra (Marathi speaking
union Congress. In India, Trade Unions in (a) Operation Sunrise
ap
(b) Operation Unity population).
India are registered under the Trade
Union Act (1926). (c) Operation Polo Q.911. Who among the following is one
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(d) Operation Gateway of the founder members of Bhartiya Jana

Q.901. Who among the following was the Sangh?
first Indian to be selected to the British Sol.905.(c) Operation Polo - The code
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Morning)
TG

‘House of Commons’ on a Liberal Party name of the Hyderabad "police action" in

September 1948. It was a military (a) KM Munshi
ticket? (b) Minoo Masani
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Afternoon) operation in which the Indian Armed
(c) Baldev Singh
on

(a) Chandra Shekhar Azad Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely

state, annexing it into the Indian Union. (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
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(c) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar Q.906. With whom is the 'Patharughat Sol.911.(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.
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(d) Bhagat Singh Uprising' associated? BJS was an Indian right-wing political
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) party that existed from 1951 to 1977 and
a

Sol.901.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. He was was the political arm of Rashtriya

(a) Lawyers' uprising
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known as India Gladstone. The first Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), a Hindu

attempt to calculate National Income of (b) Soldiers’ uprising
(c) Teachers' uprising nationalist volunteer organization.
India was made by him. He was the first
Asian (Indian) member of the British (d) Peasants’ uprising Q.912. A large area of land demarcated
Parliament. He coined the name “Indian Sol.906.(d) Peasants’ uprising. It was as Damin-i-Koh in 1832 was declared as
National Congress” (INC). against the tax policies of the British in the land of the ______.
1894. Patharughat is a place in Assam SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening)
Q.902. Who among the following Indian (a) Warlis (b) Paharias
freedom fighters was fondly called and is currently known as Patharighat.
(c) Murias (d) Santhals
Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her Q.907. The ______ movement was led by
dedication towards Gandhian principles? Chaudhary Devi Lal in 1987. Sol.912.(d) Santhals (Tribal who
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) inhabited the forest of Rajmahal hills).
(a) Kamla Chaudhary (a) Sangharsh Yudh (b) Insaaf Yudh Damin-i-Koh - British promised
(b) Leela Roy (c) Maha Yudh (d) Nyaya Yudh non-interference in the land.
(c) Dakshayani Velayudhan
(d) Matangini Hazra Sol.907.(d) Nyaya Yudh. He founded the Q.913. Fort Saint Louis was a ______
Lok Dal party. fort that stood in Pondicherry on the
Sol.902.(d) Matangini Hazra. Matangini eastern coast of India.
Hazra was an Indian revolutionary and Q.908. Chandernagore (Chandannagar) SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Morning)
social activist who participated in the was a ______ colony captured by the (a) French (b) Danish (c) Dutch (d) British
Indian independence movement. British Navy on 23 March 1757.
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) Sol.913.(a) French.
Q.903. Avadh Kisan Sabha was set up in (a) French (b) Dutch Fort Saint Louis - Built by Francois Martin

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 Pinnacle History
and Destroyed by the Britishers in 1761. (c) Indore (d) Ujjain (c) MacDonell
(d) Max Muller
Q.914. What was the meaning of ‘Ryot’ in Sol.918.(b) Gwalior. The Samadhi of
British records in the 18th century? Rani Lakshmi Bai is situated at Phool Sol.923.(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Evening) Bagh. It is to commemorate the great in his book Satyarth Prakash propounded
(a) Peasants (b) Weavers warrior of Jhansi. that the original abode of the Aryans was
(c) Traders (d) Jobbers Tibet. The reasoning behind this was that
Q.919. The princely state due to the extreme cold in Tibet, sun and
Sol.914.(a) Peasants. Ryots were of Hyderabad was brought under the fire were worshiped and the flora and
Individual cultivators who had full rights Indian Union in the year ______. fauna described in the Rigveda were
regarding sale, transfer, and leasing of SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning) found in Tibet.
the land as long as they paid the rent (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1948 (d) 1963
under the Ryotwari system (Land revenue Q.924. Who among the following was
paid by the farmers directly to the state). Sol.919.(c) 1948. After the State NOT a minister of Cabinet Mission Plan,
Reorganisation Act 1956 Hyderabad was 1946 ?
Q.915. Who was the Nawab of Bhopal merged with Andhra state and later SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Evening)
that ruled from 1868 to 1901? renamed as Andhra Pradesh. (a) Sir Stafford Cripps (b) Lord Wavell
SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning)
Q.920. Which leader gave us the C-R (c) Sir Pethick Lawrence (d) Alexander
(a) Shah Jahan Begum
(b) Begum Sajida Sultan Formula? Sol.924.(b) Lord Wavell. The members of
(c) Sikander Jahan Begum SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Morning) the Cabinet Mission were Lord Penthick
(d) Sultan Kaikhusrau Jahan Begum (a) C.Rajagopalachari (b) Tilak Lawrence, Secretary of State for India, Sir
(c) C.R. Das (d) Mahatma Gandhi Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of
Sol.915.(a) Shah Jahan Begum. Nawab

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Sol.920.(a) Rajagopalachari's formula Trade, and A.V Alexander, First Lord of
of Bhopal that ruled – Nawab Sikandar
Admiralty.

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Begum:- 1860-1868, Begum Sultan Shah (or C. R. formula or Rajaji formula) was a
Jehan:-1844-1860 and 1868-1901. proposal formulated by Chakravarti

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Begum Kaikhusrau Jahan:- 1901-1926, Rajagopalachari to solve the political
Begum Sajida Sultan:- 1961-1995. deadlock between the All India Muslim
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League and the Indian National Congress
Q.916. Who among the following was on the independence of British India.
one of the speakers after Jawaharlal
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Nehru to address the Parliament on the Q.921. ______ was awarded the Nobel
midnight of 15 August 1947 ? Prize in 1913 and a knighthood in 1915.
SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Evening)
TG

SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)

(a) Rajendra Prasad (a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C Rajagopalachari (c) Rabindranath Tagore
on

(d) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (d) Mother Teresa

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Sol.916.(d) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishan Sol.921.(c) Rabindranath Tagore

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(1st Vice President of India) was one of became the first non-European to receive
the three main speakers at the Central the Nobel Prize for his literary work. He
a

Hall of Parliament - Other than JL Nehru was awarded knighthood in 1915 by King
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(Tryst with Destiny Speech) and George V.

Chaudhary Khaliquzaman.
Q.922. Veteran freedom fighter, social
Q.917. Who was the chairman of the reformer and feminist Savithribai Phule
Economic Programme Committee (EPC) hailed from which of the following states
that was formed by the All India of India?
Congress Committee in 1947? SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Afternoon) (a) Maharashtra (b) Odisha
(a) Purshottamdas Thakurdas (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
Sol.922.(a) Maharashtra. Savithribai
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Phule - She was the first female teacher
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
of India and opened a school for women
Sol.917.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru. The aim in 1848, Married to Jyotirao Phule
of this committee was to make a plan (Founded Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873
which could balance private and public in Pune).
partnership and urban and rural
Q.923. Who among the following
economies.
scholars is associated with the
Q.918. In which of the following cities is Tibet-home theory of the Aryans?
the tomb of Rani of Jhansi situated? SSC CGL 07/03/2020 (Evening)
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) (a) Dayanand Saraswati
(a) Jabalpur (b) Gwalior (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.4.(c) Dual Citizenship. authority to legislate on Union List
Polity India’s commitment to the rule of law is subjects. Article 2 allows for the
grounded in the Constitution which admission or establishment of new
Constitution establishes India as a ‘Sovereign states, while Article 3 provides for the
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’ formation of new states and the
Q.1. During the framing of the Indian with a Parliamentary form of alteration of existing states' areas,
Constitution, the Constituent Assembly Government. Other key features: Federal boundaries, or names.
held a total of eleven sessions, with system of governance between the Union
sittings spread over for how many days? and the States; Separation of powers Q.7. The Indian Constitution came into
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (2nd Shift) between the three organs of the force on ___ and is celebrated as
(a) 180 (b) 165 (c) 115 (d) 132 Government; free and fair elections; Republic Day.
Equality before the law; A secular state SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.1.(b) 165. The Constituent Assembly (a) 26 Jan 1950 (b) 26 Jan 1951
that recognizes freedom of conscience
of India began its first session on 9 (c) 26 Feb 1950 (d) 26 Jan 1948
and religion.
December 1946 in the Constitution Hall
(now Central Hall of Parliament). Over Q.5. Which of the following statements Sol.7.(a) 26 Jan 1950. The Constitution
nearly three years, it held 11 sessions, are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the of India was adopted by the Constituent
meeting for 165 days, including 114 days Indian Constitution? Assembly on 26th November 1949. The
focused on discussing the Draft 1) The Constitution empowers the Prime Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr.
Constitution. Minister to proclaim three types of Bhimrao Ambedkar, was established on
emergencies. 29th August 1947. A total of 284
Q.2. The Indian Constitution has members signed the Constitution, which
2) A reservation policy is there to uplift
established _________. took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to

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the disadvantaged sections of society.
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) draft.
3) The Supreme Court has no power of

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(a) partial Judicial system
judicial review. Q.8. Secularism is a feature of the Indian
(b) dual judicial system
4) The Constitution provides for universal Constitution, which means:

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(c) independent judicial system
adult suffrage. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(d) plural judicial system
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) The State does not promote any
ap
Sol.2.(c) independent judicial system: It (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 religion.
means that the other organs of the (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (b) The State promotes the religion of the
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government like the executive and minority community.

Sol.5.(a) 1 and 3. The Constitution
legislature must not restrain the (c) The State promotes the religion of the
empowers the President to proclaim
functioning of the judiciary in such a way majority community.
TG

three types of emergencies. National

that it is unable to do justice. (d) The State can promote any religion.
Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule
Q.3. Who among the following, while (State Emergency) (Article 356), Sol.8.(a) In India, the term 'secularism'
on

praising the amending feature of the Financial Emergency (Article 360). was introduced in the year 1976 of the
Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety 42nd Amendment of the Constitution.
Q.6. Which of the following statement(s)
in the amending process is wise but is
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is/are INCORRECT vis-a-vis features of Q.9. In which year did the Indian
rarely found’?
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the Indian Constitution? Constitution declare Hindi in Devanagari

SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
1) Though India has a federal system, the
a

(a) Granville Austin (b) Ivor Jennings script to be the official language of the
Constitution does not mention the word
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(c) K C Wheare (d) HM Seervai Union?

'federation'. SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.3.(c) K C Wheare was an Australian 2) Article 5 of the Constitution says that (a) 1952 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1955
academic who was an expert on the the Parliament by law can create a new
constitutions of the British state. Sol.9.(c) 1949. Under Article 343(1), the
Commonwealth. He also described the 3) On the subjects in the Union list, each official language of the Union shall be
Indian Constitution as Quasi federal. State Legislature can enact laws for the Hindi in Devanagari script, while Section
Granville Austin, a well-known scholar of State. 3 of the Official Language Act, 1963 talks
the Indian Constitution, said, “The 4)Both the Parliament and State about the continuance of the English
amending process has proved itself as Legislature can pass laws on subjects in language for official purposes of the
one of the most ably conceived aspects concurrent list. Union and for use in Parliament.
of the constitution”. Ivor Jennings said SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Q.10. The Preamble of the Constitution
that ‘India is a federation with a strong
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 3 describes India as:
centralising tendency’.
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.4. Which of the following is NOT a Sol.6.(b) 2 and 3. Article 1 of the Indian (a) an atheist state (b) a unitary state
feature of the Constitution of India? Constitution defines India, also known as (c) a secular state (d) a federal state
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Bharat, as a union of states. Although the
(a) Universal Adult Franchise term "federation" is not explicitly used, Sol.10.(c) A secular state. It does not
(b) Independent Judiciary India functions as a holding-together consider anyone's religion as an official
(c) Dual Citizenship type of federation where power religion. India is a Sovereign Socialist
(d) Blend of rigidity & flexibility distribution among states can be Secular Democratic Republic with a
unequal. The Parliament has exclusive Parliamentary form of government which

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 Pinnacle Polity
is federal in structure with unitary Q.14. Which of the following is NOT a Indian Constitution. Other names for the
features. Atheist State - No belief in basic feature of the Indian Constitution ? preamble: Soul of the Constitution: By
Gods. Unitary State - Central government SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Thakurdas Bhargav. Identity card of the
holds complete authority. Federal State - (a) Parliamentary system Constitution: By N.A. Palkhiwala. Keynote
Central and state governments share (b) Blend of rigidity and flexibility to the Constitution: By Sir Ernest Barker.
autonomy. (c) Lengthiest written Constitution
(d) Drawn from one source Q.17. When was the preamble to the
Q.11. Which of the following word Indian Constitution amended ?
sequences is correct as per the Sol.14.(d) Drawn from one source. The Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Preamble to the Constitution ? salient features of the Indian Constitution (a) 1981 (b) 1976 (c) 1974 (d) 1980
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) include: the lengthiest written
(a) Sovereign, socialist, secular, constitution, drawn from various sources, Sol.17.(b) 1976. The Preamble of the
democratic, republic a blend of rigidity and flexibility, a federal Constitution was amended only once, in
(b) Secular, democratic, secular, socialist, system with a unitary bias, a 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional
sovereign parliamentary form of government, a Amendment. The terms 'Socialist',
(c) Sovereign, secular, socialist, synthesis of parliamentary sovereignty 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added to the
democratic, republic and judicial supremacy, rule of law, an preamble. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were
(d) Socialist, secular, democratic, integrated and independent judiciary, added between 'Sovereign' and
republic, sovereign fundamental rights, directive principles 'Democratic'. 'Unity of the Nation' was
of state policy, fundamental duties, changed to 'Unity and Integrity of the
Sol.11.(a) The words "Socialist" and secularism, single citizenship, judicial Nation'.
"Secular" were added to the Preamble of review, and the basic structure doctrine. Q.18. When is Constitution Day observed
the Indian Constitution by the 42nd

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in India ?
Amendment in 1976. Before this, India Q.15. Which of the following statements
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)

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was described as a Sovereign, are correct in the context of the Indian
(a) 12 January (b) 26 November
Democratic, Republic, and after the Constitution?
(c) 26 January (d) 31 October

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amendment, it was changed to 1.There are three major organs of the
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, government, namely Legislature, Sol.18.(b) 26 November. The ‘Purna
ap
Republic. Executive and Judiciary. Swaraj’ resolution, meaning total
2. A separation of functions rather than independence, was passed by the Indian
Q.12. In which of the following years was
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powers is followed. National Congress on 19 December

the National Anthem adopted in its Hindi 3.All organs of the government are 1929, during the Lahore session presided
version by the Constituent Assembly ? independent. by Jawaharlal Nehru. The pledge for
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
TG

SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) independence was publicly announced

(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1954 (d) 1942 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only on 26 January 1930. Nehru, along with
Sol.12.(b) 1950. The National Anthem of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Congress members, marched to the
on

India, "Jana-Gana-Mana," was originally banks of the Ravi, taking an oath not to
Sol.15.(b) 1 and 2 only. In the context of rest until Purna Swaraj was achieved.
composed in Bengali by Rabindranath the Indian Constitution: Legislative
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Tagore and titled "Bharoto Bhagyo Function - Parliament (Lok Sabha and Q.19. Who among the following is called
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Bidhata." It was first publicly sung on Rajya Sabha) makes laws, with the 'Father of Indian constitution'?
December 27, 1911, at the Calcutta (now President giving assent to bills. Executive Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
a

Kolkata) Session of the Indian National Function - The Prime Minister and the (a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
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Congress. It was translated into Hindi by Council of Ministers execute laws and (b) P Subbarayan
Captain Abid Ali and set to music by are also part of the legislature, linking the (c) Gopinath Bordoloi
Captain Ram Singh. two branches. Judicial Function - The (d) Rajendra Prasad

Q.13. When was the ‘The Objective judiciary interprets laws and administers
Sol.19.(a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar. He
Resolution’ moved by Pt. Jawahar Lal justice, reviewing legislative and
played a pivotal role in drafting the
Nehru ? executive actions for constitutional
Constitution of India, serving as the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) compliance. This system fosters
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting
(a) 13 December 1946 collaboration and interdependence
Committee. Gopinath Bordoloi was the
(b) 17 November 1946 among branches, with distinct functions
first Chief Minister of Assam. Rajendra
(c) 15 August 1947 but not complete separation of powers.
Prasad served as the first President of
(d) 16 November 1948 Q.16. Who called the preamble of the India. Paramasivan Subbarayan was the
Indian Constitution 'The Political first Minister of Madras Presidency.
Sol.13.(a) 13 December 1946.
The Objective Resolution outlines the Horoscope of our Constitution' ?
Q.20. Who was the designer of India’s
fundamental ideas and philosophy of our Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
national flag?
Constitution, defining the goals of the (a) Dr. KM Munshi
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Constituent Assembly. It serves as the (b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
(a) BN Rau
basis for the preamble of the (c) M. Hidayatullah
(b) KM Munshi
Constitution. This important resolution (d) Sir Ernest Baker
(c) Pingali Venkayya
was adopted by the Assembly on Sol.16.(a) Dr. KM Munshi. He was a (d) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
January 22, 1947. member of the Drafting Committee of the
Sol.20.(c) Pingali Venkayya :
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 Pinnacle Polity
He presented the original design of the (d) Nand Lal Bose Commonwealth in May 1947.
Indian flag with red and green colors to (b) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. The National Sol.24.(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The the National Anthem in January
Flag was adopted by the Constituent original version of the constitution was 1950.
Assembly of India on 22 July 1947. beautified and decorated by artists from (c) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose the National Song in January 1948.
Q.21. Who among the following and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha. (d) The Constituent Assembly adopted
personalities was appointed as the legal the National Flag in July 1949.
advisor of the Constituent Assembly that Q.25. The structural part of the Indian
drafted the document of the Constitution Constitution is, to a large extent, derived Sol.28.(b) The National Anthem of India
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) from the Act of _____________. was adopted by the constituent
(a) HVR Iyengar (b) SN Mukherjee SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) assembly on 24th January 1950. It was
(c) BR Ambedkar (d) BN Rau (a) 1909 (b) 1935 (c) 1947 (d) 1919 first sung on 27 December 1911 in the
Sol.25.(b) 1935. Government of India Kolkata session of INC. India joined the
Sol.21.(d) BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, Commonwealth in May 1949. The
the Constituent Assembly of India met Act, 1935 provides the establishment of
an All India federation consisting of Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian
for the first time. Temporary President of National Flag On July 22, 1947 and On
constituent assembly - Dr. provinces and princely states as units. It
divided the powers between the centre January 24, 1950, "Vande Mataram" was
Sachchidananda Sinha. Permanent adopted as the national song.
President - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Vice - and units in terms of three lists- Federal
President - H C Mukherjee. list, provincial list and the concurrent list. Q.29. How many female members were
Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “machine part of the Constituent Assembly that
Q.22. The original Constitution of India with strong brakes but no engine”. He framed the Constitution of India?

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was hand written in English by: also called it a “Charter of Slavery”. SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening )
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)

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Q.26. Which is NOT a unitary feature of (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 15
(a) HVR Iyenger
(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada the Constitution of India? Sol.29.(d) 15. The Constituent Assembly

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(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 ) was formed on 6 December 1946. The
(d) SN Mukherjee (a) Bicameral Legislature idea for a Constituent Assembly was
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(b) Integrated Judicial System proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
Sol.22.(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada (c) Single Citizenship
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- The calligrapher of the Indian (d) Appointment of the Governor by the Q.30. Who was the chairman of the
Constitution. The original constitution President House Committee of the Constituent
was handwritten by him in a flowing italic Assembly of India ?
TG

style. The original Indian Constitution Sol.26.(a) Bicameral Legislature. SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon)
was made up of 117,369 words with 251 (legislative body with two houses). At the (a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy (b) AV Thakkar
pages. central level (Lok Sabha and Rajya (c) JB Kripalani (d) K.M. Munshi
on

Sabha). Other Unitary features of Indian

Q.23. Who among the following Constitution: Single Constitution for Sol.30.(a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayya. In
personalities was the chief draftsman of Union and States, Common All-India 1922, AV Thakkar founded the Bhil Seva
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the constituent assembly that drafted the Services, Inequality of Representation in Mandal. JB Kripalani was the president of
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document of the Constitution? the Council of States, Centralised Indian National Congress during
a

SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) Electoral Machinery, Special Powers of Independence. K M Munshi - Founder of
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(a) KM Munshi Council of State over State List, etc. Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan (1938), Member of
(b) Vasant Krishan Vaidya the Constituent Assembly of India,
(c) SN Mukherjee Q.27. Which of the following is NOT a Minister for Agriculture & Food (1952–53)
(d) HVR Iyenger federal feature of the Indian Constitution ?
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) Q.31. GV Mavalankar was the Chairman
Sol.23.(c) SN Mukherjee. The drafting (a) Dual Government of the ______ of the Constituent Assembly
committee was formed under the (b) Division of Powers of India.
chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the (c) All India Services SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constituent Assembly on 29th August (d) Written Constitution (a) Advisory Committee on Fundamental
1947. The other six members of the Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
committee were K.M. Munshi, Sol.27.(c) All India Services. Federal Excluded Areas
Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi Features of the Indian Constitution - (b) Committee on the Functions
Krishnaswamy Iyer, N. Gopalaswami Division of powers, Supremacy of the (c) Order of Business Committee
Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL constitution, Written constitution, Rigid (d) Ad hoc Committee on the National
Mitter. constitution, Independent Judiciary, Flag
Bi-cameral Legislature.
Q.24. Who among the following wrote in Sol.31.(b) Committee on the Functions.
calligraphic style the Hindi version of the Q.28. With reference to the Constituent GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of
original Indian Constitution? Assembly, which of the following Lok Sabha. Advisory Committee on
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) statements is Correct ? Fundamental Rights, Minorities and
(a) SN Mukherjee SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) Tribal and Excluded Areas - Vallabhbhai
(b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada (a) The Constituent Assembly ratified Patel. Ad hoc Committee on the National
(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya India’s membership of the Flag - Rajendra Prasad.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.32. The total membership of the Citizenship, Cabinet system, Prerogative SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Constituent Assembly was 389, of which writs, Parliamentary privileges, (a) The U.S. (b) Ireland
______ were representatives of princely Bicameralism. Ireland - Directive (c) South Africa (d) Canada
states. Principles of State Policy, Nomination of
SSC CGL 18/08/21 (Evening) members to Rajya Sabha, Method of Sol.39.(a) The U.S. Borrowed Features of
(a) 84 (b) 102 (c) 109 (d) 93 election of the President. Indian Constitution: US - Impeachment of
the president, Functions of president and
Sol.32.(d) 93. The total membership of Q.36. Which of the following vice president, Removal of Supreme
the Constituent Assembly was 389, of Constitutions inspired the law-making Court and High court judges.
which 292 were representatives of the process in India?
provinces, 93 represented the princely SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.40. The Indian Constitution borrowed
states and 4 were from the chief (a) Irish Constitution the concept of concurrent list from _____.
commissioner provinces of Delhi, (b) British Constitution SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British (c) US Constitution (a) USSR (b) Japan
Baluchistan. (d) Canadian Constitution (c) Germany (d) Australia

Q.33. The members of the Constituent Sol.36.(b) British Constitution. Borrowed Sol.40.(d) Australia. Borrowed Features
Assembly signed the Constitution of features of Indian Constitution: British - of Indian Constitution: Australia -
India on ______. Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Freedom of trade, commerce and
SSC CHSL 16/04/21 (Afternoon) legislative procedure, single citizenship, intercourse, Joint-sitting of the two
(a) 26 November 1948 cabinet system, prerogative writs. US - Houses of Parliament. Japan - Concept
(b) 24 January 1950 Fundamental rights, independence of of Procedure established by law.
(c) 26 November 1949 judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of Germany - Suspension of Fundamental

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(d) 24 January 1952 the President. Rights during emergency.

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Sol.33.(b) 24 January 1950. On that day, Q.37. The concept of ‘Independence of Q.41. From which of the following
the last meeting of the Constituent judiciary’ in the Indian Constitution is Constitutions is the idea of ‘Charter of

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Assembly was held and the 'Constitution taken from the Constitution of: Fundamental Rights’ adopted in the
of India' ( with 395 Articles, 8 schedules, SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Indian Constitution?
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22 parts) was signed and accepted by (a) Ireland (b) France SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
all. (c) The USA (d) Britain (a) Brazilian Constitution
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(b) Spanish Constitution

Q.34. In which year did Motilal Nehru Sol.37.(c) The USA. Some features of (c) United States of America’s
(Chairman) and eight other Congress the Indian Constitution borrowed - From Constitution
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leaders draft a constitution for India? USA: Fundamental Rights, President’s (d) French Constitution
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening) impeachment process, Office of the
(a) 1925 (b) 1950 (c) 1928 (d) 1930 Vice-President. Sol.41.(c) United States of America’s
on

Constitution. Borrowed Features of

Sol.34.(c) 1928. The Motilal Nehru Q.38. From which of the following Indian Constitution: US (United States) -
Report 1928 was made by a committee Constitutions has the India Constitution Independence of judiciary, Judicial
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headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This adopted the system of ‘First Past the review, Impeachment of the President,
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committee was created when Lord Post’ ? Removal of Supreme Court and High
a

Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Court judges, Post of vice-president.
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asked the Indian leaders to draft a (a) Irish Constitution France - Republic, Ideals of liberty,
constitution for the country. (b) French Constitution equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
(c) United States Constitution
(d) British Constitution Q.42. From which country were the
Sources of Indian Constitution ideals of justice of the Indian
Sol.38.(d) British Constitution. The First Constitution borrowed ?
Q.35. Which country has the Republic
Past the Post (FPTP) system, also known Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
feature of the Indian Constitution been
as the simple majority system, is used in (a) The USSR (b) The UK
borrowed from?
India for elections to the Lok Sabha and (c) The US (d) Japan
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
State Legislative Assemblies. Irish
(a) French Constitution Sol.42.(a) The USSR. Borrowed features
Constitution: Ireland uses the Single
(b) Irish Constitution of the Constitution : USSR (Now Russia) -
Transferable Vote (STV) system, a form
(c) British Constitution Fundamental duties, and The ideals of
of proportional representation. French
(d) Australian Constitution justice (social, economic, and political),
Constitution: France employs a
two-round system, where a candidate expressed in the Preamble.
Sol.35.(a) French Constitution. Borrowed
Features of Indian Constitution: France - must win an absolute majority (over 50%) Q.43. The emergency provisions of the
Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in in the first round or a relative majority in Indian Constitution are borrowed from
Preamble. Australia - Concurrent list, the second round. the Government of India Act,____________.
Freedom of trade, commerce, and Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.39. Judicial Review, a salient feature of
intercourse, Joint - sitting of Parliament. (a) 1931 (b) 1940 (c) 1935 (d) 1933
the Constitution of India, has been
UK - Parliamentary government, Rule of
borrowed from which of the following Sol.43.(c) 1935. The Emergency
Law, Legislative procedure, Single
countries?
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 Pinnacle Polity
provisions are enshrined in Part XVIII of Supreme court. Borrowed Features of (c) Article 257 (d) Article 123
the Constitution, from Articles 352 to Indian Constitution from Canada -
Sol.50.(c) Article 257 - Control of the
360. The Indian Constitution also Centrifugal form of federalism where the
Union over States in certain cases.
borrowed various features from the center is stronger than the states, To
Article 261 - Public acts, records and
Government of India Act of 1935, provide residuary powers to the Centre,
judicial proceedings.
including the federal scheme, the office Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction,
of the governor, the judiciary, and the and Appointment of state governors by Q.51. Article 77 of the Indian
public service commissions. the Centre. Constitution deals with the __________.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.44. From which country has the
Article, Schedule, Parts and list (a) term of office of the Vice-President
concept of Martial Law, which restricts
(b) Vice - President of India
Fundamental rights, borrowed ?
Q.48. Which Articles of the Constitution (c) oath of office by the Vice-President
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
of India provide for a parliamentary form (d) conduct of business of the
(a) China (b) The UK
of government at the Centre ? Government of India
(c) Japan (d) The USSR
SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.51.(d) The President shall make rules
Sol.44.(b) The UK. The expression (a) Articles 74 and 75
for the more convenient transaction of
‘martial law’ has not been defined (b) Articles 71 and 72
the business of the Government of India,
anywhere in the Constitution. It refers to (c) Articles 79 and 80
and for the allocation among Ministers of
the suspension of ordinary law and the (d) Articles 76 and 77
the said business. Article 67 - Term of
government by military tribunals. office of Vice - President.
Sol.48.(a) Articles 74 and 75. Article 74:
Q.45. India is a parliamentary democracy Council of Ministers to aid and advise Q.52. Which of the following Articles of

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based on the Westminster model of President.-[(1) There shall be a Council of the Indian Constitution mentions, about
_________ . Ministers with the Prime Minister at the

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the organisation of 'Village Panchayats'?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) head to aid and advise the President who SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) the United States of America shall, in the exercise of his functions, act

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(a) Article 31 (b) Article 38
(b) South Africa in accordance with such advice. Article (c) Article 36 (d) Article 40
(c) France 75 - Other provisions as to Ministers.-(1)
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(d) the United Kingdom The Prime Minister shall be appointed by Sol.52.(d) Article 40 : This article directs
the President and the other Ministers the state to organise village panchayats
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Sol.45.(d) The United Kingdom. shall be appointed by the President on and empower them to function as
Countries where the Westminster model the advice of the Prime Minister. self-governing units. Directive Principles
is used - Britain, Canada, New Zealand as of State Policy (DPSPs): Outlined in Part
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well as in many parts of Asia and Africa. Q.49. Which of the following articles of IV (Articles 36 - 51) of the Constitution,
British - Parliamentary form of the Constitution of India mentions that inspired by the Irish Constitution.
government, The idea of single every Minister and the Attorney-General
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citizenship, The idea of the Rule of law, of India shall have the right to speak in Q.53. Which Article of the Constitution of
Writs, Institution of Speaker and his role, and participate in the proceedings of India deals with the conduct of business
either House of Parliament ? of the Government of a state ?
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Law making procedure, The Political Part

SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
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of the Indian Constitution, Bicameralism.

(a) Article 86 (b) Article 87 (a) Article 177 (b) Article 167
a

Q.46. The concept of "Amendment of the (c) Article 89 (d) Article 88 (c) Article 164 (d) Article 166
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Constitution" in the Indian Constitution

was borrowed from the constitution of Sol.49.(d) Article 88. Ministers and the Sol.53.(d) Article 166. Article 164 (1) -
which of the following countries? Attorney - General of India shall not be The Chief Minister shall be appointed by
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) entitled to vote in either House of the the Governor and the other Ministers
(a) South Africa (b) Germany Parliament. Article 86 : Right of President shall be appointed by the Governor on
(c) Canada (d) Australia to address and send messages to the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Houses. Article 87 : Relates to the Ministers shall hold office during the
Sol.46.(a) South Africa. Article 368 of special address by the President to the pleasure of the Governor.
Part XX - "Constitutional Amendment". Houses of Parliament at the
Indian Constitution Sources: South Africa commencement of the first session after Q.54. Which Article of the Indian
- Election of members of Rajya Sabha. each general election. Constitution provides that the State must
secure a social order to promote the
Q.47. Which of the following provisions Q.50. Which Article of the Constitution
welfare of people?
of the Indian constitution is borrowed explains that the executive power of
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
from the Constitution of Canada? every state shall be so exercised as not
(a) Article 37 (b) Article 38
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) to impede or prejudice the exercise of the
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 36
(a) Independence of judiciary executive power of the Union, and the
(b) Concept of Republic executive power of the union shall extend Sol.54.(b) Article 38. Other Articles:
(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme to the giving of such directions to a state Article 36 : Defines the Directive
court as may appear to the Government of Principles of State Policy. Article 37:
(d) Concept of concurrent list India to be necessary for that purpose? States that DPSPs are not enforceable by
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) courts but are fundamental in
Sol.47.(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the (a) Article 261 (b) Article 247 governance, and the state is expected to
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 Pinnacle Polity
apply them in making laws. Article 39: Amendment Act, 1992, and came into SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Outlines specific principles for state effect on April 24, 1993. Part IV: Directive (a) Article 39(a) (b) Article 39(b)
policy that promote social and economic Principles of State Policy. Part VII: States (c) Article 39(c) (d) Article 39(d)
welfare, such as equal pay for equal in the First Schedule (now repealed).
work, protection of children, and Part X: The Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Sol.62.(b) Article 39(b). This article is
equitable distribution of resources. part of the Directive Principles of State
Q.59. Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Policy (DPSP), which outlines the guiding
Q.55. Which article of the Constitution of Indian Constitution deal with __________. principles for the state to follow while
India lays down that it shall be the duty SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) making policies. Article 39(a): Ensures
of the Advocate-General to give advice to (a) Finance Commission of India citizens have equal rights to an adequate
the Government of the State upon legal (b) Union Executive means of livelihood. Article 39(c):
matters? (c) Amendment of the Constitution Prevents concentration of wealth and
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (d) National emergency means of production. Article 39(d):
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 165 Advocates for equal pay for equal work
(c) Article 167 (d) Article 166 Sol.59.(b) Union Executive. Important for men and women.
Articles: Article 52 - President of India.
Sol.55.(b) Article 165. Other Important Article 53 - Executive power of the Union. Q.63. Which of the following Articles
Articles: Article 167 - Duties of Chief Article 54 - Election of President. Article and Parts of the Indian Constitution deal
Minister as respects the furnishing of 63 - The Vice-President of India. Article with the State Legislature ?
information to the Governor, etc. Article 64 - The Vice-President to be the SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
168 - Constitution of Legislatures in ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (a) Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI
States. Article 72 - Power of President to grant (b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI
pardons. Article 74 - Council of Ministers (c) Articles 243 to 243-O in Part IX

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Q.56. Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the to aid and advise the President. Article (d) Articles 79 to 122 in Part V
Indian Constitution deal with the _______.

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76 - Attorney-General for India.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.63.(b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI.
(a) emergency provisions Q.60. Which of the following articles of Other Articles : Articles 214 to 231 of the
(b) financial relations between the Centre
and the states na
the Indian constitution deals with the
parliament and its proceedings?
Indian Constitution cover
organisation, powers, and functions of
the
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(c) legislative relations between the SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the High Courts in India. Articles 243 to
Centre and the states (a) Article 51A (b) Article 36 to 51 243-O in Part IX pertain to Panchayats.
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(d) tribunals (c) Article 79 to 122 (d) Article 12 to 35 Articles 79 to 122 in Part V focus on the
Parliament of India.
Sol.56.(c) legislative relations between Sol.60.(c) Article 79 to 122. These
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the Centre and the states. Emergency articles in Part V of the Indian Q.64. Which Article of the Indian
Provisions - Part XVIII, Articles 352 - 360. Constitution deal with the provisions Constitution mentions about the
Tribunals - Part XIV-A Article 323A, and related to the Parliament of India, 'Promotion of educational and economic
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Article 323B. Financial relations between including its organisation, composition, interests of Scheduled Castes,
the Centre and the states - Part XII, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
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Articles 268 - 293. powers, and other related aspects. sections' ?

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SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)

Q.57. Which Article of the Indian Q.61. Which Article of the Indian (a) Article 45 (b) Article 48
a

Constitution mentions that ‘The State Constitution provides for protecting and (c) Article 47 (d) Article 46
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shall endeavour to promote cottage improving the environment and

industries on an individual or safeguarding forests and wildlife? Sol.64.(d) Article 46. Article 45 directs
co-operative basis in rural areas’ ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) the state to ensure early childhood care
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 47-A (b) Article 47-B and education for children under the age
(a) Article 44 (b) Article 49 (c) Article 48-A (d) Article 49-C of six. Article 48 provides guiding
(c) Article 43 (d) Article 42 principles for organizing agriculture and
Sol.61.(c) Article 48-A, which is part of animal husbandry in India. Article 47
Sol.57.(c) Article 43. Important Articles : the Directive Principles of State Policy outlines the state's duty to improve the
Article 42 - Provision for just and humane (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution, was standard of living and nutrition for its
conditions of work and maternity relief. added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. citizens.
Article 43A - Participation of workers in The DPSP are guidelines in the Indian
management of Industries. Article 43B - Constitution designed to establish a Q.65. Which Article of the Constitution
Promotion of co-operative societies. welfare state in India. They are borrowed mentions that "the Parliament consists
from the Irish Constitution. of the President and two Houses known
Q.58. Which part of the Constitution as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
deals with the Panchayats ? Q.62. Which of the following Articles of and the House of the People (Lok
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) the Indian Constitution mentions that Sabha)" ?
(a) Part IV (b) Part IX ‘The State shall, in particular, direct its SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Part VII (d) Part X policy towards securing that the (a) 79 (b) 82 (c) 73 (d) 70
ownership and control of the material
Sol.58.(b) Part IX. The Panchayats resources of the community are so Sol.65.(a) 79. Parliament is India’s top
(Articles 243-243O): This part was distributed as best to subserve the legislative body, with its structure and
inserted by the 73rd Constitutional common good’ ? functions defined as follows: Article 80:
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 Pinnacle Polity
Composition of the Council of States. the Constitution of India provides (d) freedom of speech and expression
Article 81: Composition of the House of protection to the President and
the People. Article 82: Readjustment Governors and Rajpramukhs ? Sol.72.(b) Other important articles:
after each census. Article 70 : President’s SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity for all
functions in contingencies. Article 73: (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 citizens in matters relating to
Extent of Union's executive power. (c) Article 361 (d) Article 370 employment or appointment. Articles 29
- The cultural and educational rights of
Q.66. In a situation wherein A (female) Sol.69.(c) Article 361. Other Articles: minorities. Article 30 - The right of
and B (male) are working in the same Article 352: Deals with the proclamation minorities to establish and administer
office, same designation, same nature of of Emergency due to war, external educational institutions of their choice.
work but unequal payment, which of the aggression, or internal disturbance. Article 19(1)(a) - Freedom of speech and
following Articles of the Constitution be Article 356: Relates to the President's expression.
applicable? rule in a state, where the President takes
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) over the governance of a state due to Q.73. Which of the following Articles of
(a) Article 48A (b) Article 39(d) failure of the constitutional machinery. the Indian Constitution are related to
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 18 Article 370: Provided special status to Fundamental Rights ?
the state of Jammu and Kashmir, which SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.66.(b) Article 39(d) of the was repealed in 2019. (a) 12-36 (b) 32-51 (c) 12-35 (d) 14-32
Constitution proclaims "equal pay for
equal work for both men and women" as Q.70. Which Article provides that all Sol.73.(c) 12-35. Fundamental Rights:
a Directive Principle of State Policy minorities have the right to establish and Right to equality (Articles 14-18), Right to
(DPSP). Article 21: Guarantees the administer educational institutions of freedom (Articles 19-22), Right against
fundamental right to protection of life their choice ? exploitation (Articles 23-24), Right to

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and personal liberty. Article 18: Abolition SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) freedom of religion (Articles 25-28),
Cultural and educational rights (Articles

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of titles. (a) Article 26 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 30 29-30), Right to constitutional remedies
Q.67. Which Articles of the Constitution (Article 32). The Right to property was

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deal with citizenship ? Sol.70.(d) Article 30. Other important removed from the list of fundamental
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) articles: Article 26 - It gives freedom to rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978
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(a) Articles 5 to 11 (b) Articles 5 to 8 manage religious affairs. Article 24 - It and it was made a legal right under
(c) Articles 5 to 10 (d) Articles 5 to 9 prohibits the employment of children Article 300-A in Part XII of the
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below the age of 14 years in any factory, Constitution.

Sol.67.(a) Articles 5 to 11. Part II of the mine, or hazardous occupation. Article
Constitution of India deals with 32 - It grants every individual the right to Q.74. 'Reservation in promotion' comes
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Citizenship: Article 5 - Citizenship at the move the Supreme Court for the under which Article of the Constitution?
commencement of the Constitution. enforcement of their fundamental rights. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Article 6 - Rights of citizenship of certain (a) Article 19 (2) (b) Article 14 (4A)
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persons who have migrated to India from Q.71. How many languages are included (c) Article 16 (4A) (d) Article 15 (3B)
Pakistan. Article 7 - Rights of citizenship in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
of India as scheduled languages? Sol.74.(c) Article 16 (4A). Article 16(4)
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of certain migrants to Pakistan. Article 8

SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) allows the state to provide reservations
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- Rights of citizenship of certain persons

of Indian origin residing outside India. (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 23 d) 21 for appointments or posts for any
a

Article 9 - Persons voluntarily acquiring backward class of citizens that is not

Sol.71.(a) 22. Part XVII of the Indian
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citizenship of a foreign State not to be adequately represented in state services.

constitution deals with the official Article 16: Equality of opportunity in
citizens. Article 10 - Continuance of
languages in Articles 343 to 351. Initially matters of public employment. The 77th
citizenship rights. Article 11- Parliament
14 were included in the Constitution. Amendment Act introduced clause (4A)
to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
Sindhi language was added by the 21st to Article 16, which specifically permits
Q.68. Under the discretionary power of Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, reservations in promotions for Scheduled
which Article of the Indian Constitution Manipuri and Nepali were included by the Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) if
did the SC of India recognise sex work as 71st Amendment Act of 1992. they are underrepresented in the
a profession ? Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and services.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) Santhali were added by the 92nd
(a) Article 140 (b) Article 142 Amendment Act of 2003. Q.75. Articles 344 (1) and 351 of the
(c) Article 141 (d) Article 143 Constitution of India are related to the:
Q.72. Article 15 of the Constitution of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.68.(b) Article 142. Other Articles: India entails: (a) Eighth Schedule (b) Third Schedule
Article 140 - Ancillary powers of the SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fifth Schedule
Supreme Court. Article 141 - Law (a) equality of opportunity for all citizens
declared by the Supreme Court is binding in matters relating to employment or Sol.75.(a) Eighth Schedule. Article
on all courts. Article 143. Power of the appointment 344(1) provides for the constitution of a
President to consult the Supreme Court. (b) prohibition of discrimination against Commission by the President on
Article 144 - Civil and judicial authorities any citizen on grounds only of expiration of five years. Article 351 - It
must act in aid of the Supreme Court. religion, race, caste, sex or place of provides for the spread of the Hindi
birth language to develop it. The Eighth
Q.69. Which of the following Articles in (c) cultural and educational rights Schedule recognizes 22 official
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 Pinnacle Polity
languages. Schedule and subject: Third SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) the power to perform the duties of the
Schedule - Oaths or affirmations. (a) Article 171 (b) Article 175 Chairman in their absence.
(c) Article 172 (d) Article 176
Q.76. In which Article does the Finance Q.83. Which Article of the Indian
Commission of India find a mention ? Sol.79.(b) Article 175. Other Articles: Constitution mentions about the right of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Article 171 - Composition of the the Advocate - General of a state to
(a) Article 292 (b) Article 375 Legislative Councils. Article 172 - speak in the State Legislature ?
(c) Article 280 (d) Article 370 Duration of State Legislatures. Article SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
173 - Qualification for membership of the (a) Article 183 (b) Article 179
Sol.76.(c) Article 280. The Finance State Legislature. Article 174 - Sessions (c) Article 177 (d) Article 181
Commission is a constitutional body, it is of the State Legislature, prorogation and
constituted by the President of India Sol.83.(c) Article 177. Article 183 of the
dissolution. Article 176 - Special address Indian Constitution addresses the
every five years. The Commission by the Governor.
consists of five members, including a resignation, vacation, and removal of the
chairperson. Article 292: Borrowing by Q.80. Which of the following parts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the
the Government of India. Article 375: Indian Constitution is commonly referred Legislative Council. Article 181 stipulates
Courts, authorities and officers continue to as the ‘Magna Carta of India’? that neither the Speaker nor the Deputy
to function subject to the provisions of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Speaker should preside over the
the Constitution. Article 370: Temporary (a) Part III (b) Part I (c) Part IV (d) Part II proceedings when their removal process
provisions with respect to the State of is underway. These provisions ensure
Jammu and Kashmir. Sol.80.(a) Part III - Fundamental Rights impartiality during key legislative
(Article 12 to 35). ‘Magna Carta’ is the processes.
Q.77. As per Article ____________ of the Charter of Rights issued by King John of

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Indian Constitution, the Council of England in 1215 under pressure from the Q.84. Which Article of the Indian
Ministers are collectively responsible to barons. Constitution mentions that ‘The Council

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the Lok Sabha. of Ministers shall be collectively
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.81.Which Article of the Indian responsible to the Legislative Assembly

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(a) 74(1) (b) 72(1) (c) 73(2) (d) 75(3) Constitution mentions about the salaries of the state’ ?
and allowances of the Chairman and SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
ap
Sol.77.(d) 75(3). Article 75 (1) - The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and (a) Article 164(3) (b) Article 164(1)
Prime Minister shall be appointed by the the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the (c) Article 164(2) (d) Article 164(4)
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President and the other Ministers shall Lok Sabha?

be appointed by the President on the SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.84.(c) Article 164(2). Article 164(1) -
advice of the Prime Minister. Article (a) Article 92 (b) Article 97 The Chief Minister is appointed by the
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75(2) - The Ministers shall hold office (c) Article 94 (d) Article 95 Governor, while other Ministers are
during the pleasure of the President. appointed on the Chief Minister's advice,
Sol.81.(b) Article 97. Other important and they hold office at the Governor's
on

Q.78. Biological Diversity Act 2002 was Articles: Article 92 - The Chairman or the pleasure. Article 164(3) - Before
passed by the Government of India. It Deputy Chairman not to preside while a assuming office, a Minister must take the
fulfilled ideals of which article of resolution for his removal from office is oaths of office and secrecy administered
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Directive Principles of State Policy in the under consideration. Article 94 - Vacation by the Governor, as specified in the Third
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Constitution of India ? and resignation of, and removal from, the Schedule. Article 164(4) - A Minister who
a

SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. is not a member of the State Legislature
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(a) Article 49 (b) Article 48A Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Speaker for six consecutive months will cease to
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 47 or other person to perform the duties of hold office at the end of that period.
the office of, or to act as, Speaker.
Sol.78.(b) Article 48A outlines the Q.85. Which Article specifies the
directive principle for environmental Q.82. Which of the following Articles of procedure for amending the Indian
protection and safeguarding forests and the Indian Constitution mentions that the Constitution ?
wildlife. It was added through the 42nd Vice - President of India shall be the ex SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Constitutional Amendment, 1976. The officio Chairman of the Council of (a) Article 365 (b) Article 366
Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was States? (c) Article 368 (d) Article 367
enacted to fulfill India's obligations under SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the Convention on Biological Diversity. It (a) Article 89 (b) Article 90 Sol.85.(c) Article 368 (Part XX)
established the National Biodiversity (c) Article 91 (d) Article 92 Parliament may amend the Constitution
Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity by way of addition, variation or repeal of
Sol.82.(a) Article 89. Article 64 and any provision in accordance with the
Boards (SBB), and local Biodiversity Article 89(1) state that the Vice President
Management Committees (BMC) to procedure laid down for the purpose.
of India shall serve as the ex officio However, the Parliament cannot amend
regulate access to biological resources Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
and ensure equitable benefit-sharing. those provisions which form the ‘basic
Sabha). Other related articles include: structure’ of the Constitution. This was
Q.79. Which Article of the Indian Article 90 - Specifies the conditions for ruled by the Supreme Court in the
Constitution mentions about the right of the vacation, resignation, and removal of Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
the Governor to address and to send the Deputy Chairman of the Council of
States. Article 91- Grants the Deputy Q.86. Which Article of the Indian
messages to the House (or Houses) of
Chairman or another designated person Constitution mentions about the salaries
the state legislature ?
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 Pinnacle Polity
and allowances of members of the Sol.89.(c) Article 166(1). Other India ?
Legislative Assembly and the Legislative important Articles: Article 163(1) - There SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Council of a state? shall be a Council of Ministers with the (a) Article 120 (b) Article 116
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) Chief Minister at the head to aid and (c) Article 112 (d) Article 110
(a) Article 195 (b) Article 199 advise the Governor in the exercise of his
(c) Article 198 (d) Article 194 functions. Article 164(1) - The Chief Sol.92.(c) Article 112 - The President
Minister shall be appointed by the shall cause, in respect of each financial
Sol.86.(a) Article 195. Important Articles year, to be laid before each House of
Governor and the other Ministers shall be
in Part VI (The States): Article 168 - Parliament a statement of the estimated
appointed by the Governor on the advice
Constitution of Legislatures in States. receipts and expenditure of the
of the Chief Minister. Article 165(1) - The
Article 169 - Abolition or creation of Government of India for that year, which
Governor of each State shall appoint a
Legislative Councils in States. Article 170 is in this Part referred to as "the annual
person who is qualified to be appointed a
- Composition of the Legislative financial Statement". Other important
Judge of a High Court to be
Assemblies. Article 194 - Powers, Articles: Article 110 - Definition of
Advocate-General for the State.
privileges, etc., of the Houses of "Money Bills". Article 116 - Votes on
Legislatures and of the members and Q.90. Which Article of the Indian account, votes of credit and exceptional
committees thereof. Article 199 - Constitution mentions the qualification grants. Article 120 - Language to be used
Definition of “Money Bills”. for membership of the State Legislature? in Parliament.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.87. Which Article of the Indian Q.93. ________ of the Indian Constitution
(a) Article 171 (b) Article 180
Constitution mentions that a person may sets qualifications for being a member of
(c) Article 173 (d) Article 179
be appointed as the Governor of two or Lok Sabha.
more states? Sol.90.(c) Article 173. The person must Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)

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SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) be at least 25 years old for a seat in the (a) Article 74 (b) Article 84

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(a) Article 153 (b) Article 152 Legislative Assembly and at least 30 (c) Article 64 (d) Article 76
(c) Article 151 (d) Article 150 years old for a seat in the Legislative
Sol.93.(b) Article 84 outlines the

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Council. Other important Articles : Article
Sol.87.(a) Article 153. The Seventh qualifications for being a member of the
171 - The total number of members in
Amendment Act, 1956, amended Article Lok Sabha. A person must: Be an Indian
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the Legislative Council of a State shall
153 to allow a governor to oversee two or citizen; Take an oath or affirmation
not exceed one-third of the total number
more states. Other important articles : before an authorized person appointed
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of members in the Legislative Assembly

Article 150 - Form of Accounts of The by the Election Commission; Be at least
of that State. Article 179 - Vacation and
Union and of The States. Article 151 - 25 years old; Meet any other
resignation of, and removal from, the
The audit reports of the Union and State qualifications set by the Parliament of
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offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

by the Comptroller and Auditor General India. Article 74 : Council of Ministers to
Article 180 - Power of the Deputy
of India. Article 152 - States about the aid and advise the President. Article 64 :
Speaker to perform the duties of
Definition of state. The Vice-President to be ex-officio
on

Speaker.
Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
Q.88. Which Article of the Indian
Q.91. What Article of the Indian Sabha). Article 76 : It is to the
Constitution states that “There shall be a
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Constitution provides that the State appointment and responsibilities of the

High Court for each state” ?
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Governor has the authority to reserve a Attorney-General for India.

SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
bill for the consideration of the President
a

(a) Article 275 (b) Article 245 Q. 94. Which of the following Articles of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
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(c) Article 214 (d) Article 125 the Indian Constitution are related to the
(a) Article 181 (b) Article 200
(c) Article 190 (d) Article 267 Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Sol.88.(c) Article 214. Other important
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Articles: Article 215 - Every High Court
Sol.91.(b) Article 200. The Governor may (a) Article 147-150 (b) Article 148-154
shall be a court of record and shall have
also return the Bill with a message (c) Article 148-152 (d) Article 148-151
all the powers of such a court including
requesting reconsideration by the House
the power to punish for contempt of Sol.94.(d) Article 148-151. The CAG
or Houses. Article 201 - It states that
itself. Article 217 - Appointment and handles the audit of the accounts of the
when a Bill is reserved for the
conditions of the office of a Judge of a Union and State governments. Article
consideration of the President, the
High Court. Article 245 - Parliament may 148: Establishes the office of the
President may assent to or withhold
make laws for the whole or any part of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
assent from the Bill. Article 190 - A
the territory of India. Article 275 - Article 149: Duties and powers of the
person cannot be a member of both
provides for the grants from the Union to Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article
houses of a state legislature. Article 181
certain States. 150: Form of accounts of the Union and
- The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not
of the States. Article 151: Mandates the
Q.89. Which Article of the Indian to preside while a resolution for his
presentation of audit reports by the
Constitution mentions that ‘All the removal from office is under
Comptroller and Auditor General to the
executive action of the Government of a consideration. Article 267 - Contingency
President of India, which are then laid
state shall be expressed to be taken in Fund.
before Parliament.
the name of the Governor’ ?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.92. Which Article of the Indian
Q.95. Which Article of the Indian
(a) Article 163(1) (b) Article 165(1) Constitution deals with the annual
Constitution makes it clear that Directive
(c) Article 166(1) (d) Article 164(1) financial statement of the Government of
Principles of State Policy are
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 Pinnacle Polity
fundamental in the governance of the outlines the forms of oaths and Public Service Commission for the Union
country and it shall be the duty of the affirmations for various constitutional and a Public Service Commission for
state to apply these principles in making offices : President, Vice-President, Union each State” ?
laws? and State Ministers, Parliament and state SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) legislature candidates, Judges, (a) 315 (4) (b) 315 (1)
(a) Article 46 (b) Article 37 Comptroller and Auditor General. First (c) 315 (3) (d) 315 (2)
(c) Article 44 (d) Article 40 Schedule : Names of the States and
Union Territories, Second Schedule : Sol.101.(b) Article 315 (1). Article 315
Sol.95.(b) Article 37. Directive Principles Provisions for the emoluments, (2) - Two or more States may agree that
of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the allowances, privileges of certain there shall be one Public Service
Indian Constitution are based on the Irish constitutional authorities, and Fourth Commission for that group of States.
Constitution, which in turn was based on Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Article 315 (3) - Any such law as
the Spanish Constitution. Rajya Sabha and union territories. aforesaid may contain such incidental
and consequential provisions as may be
Q.96. Which of the following does NOT Q.99. Which Article of the Indian necessary or desirable for giving effect
come under the Concurrent List? Constitution mentions that ‘In the to the purposes of the law. Article 315 (4)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) performance of his/her duties, the - UPSC can, if requested by a state
(a) Artificial Habitats Attorney - General for India shall have the government, conduct examinations and
(b) Medical Education right of audience in all the courts in the interviews to select candidates for state
(c) Protection of Wildlife territory of India’? government jobs.
(d) Population Control Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Article 76(1) (b) Article 76(3) Q.102. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.96.(a) Artificial Habitats. the Constitution of India provides that

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The Parliament and state legislatures (c) Article 76(4) (d) Article 76(2)
the Governor appoints the Chief Minister
can both make laws on matters listed

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Sol.99.(b) Article 76(3). Article 76 of the and later, the Chief Minister recommends
under the Concurrent List. As of now, the Indian Constitution addresses the the appointment of ministers to the
list includes 52 subjects (originally 47).

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Attorney General of India. Under Article Governor?
Some Subjects in Concurrent list: 76(1), the President of India appoints the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Bankruptcy and insolvency, Forests,
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Attorney General. Article 76(2) states (a) Article 163 (b) Article 165
Factories, Boilers, Electricity, that it is the duty of the Attorney General (c) Article 164 (d) Article 167
Newspapers, books and printing presses.
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to provide legal advice to the

Government of India and perform other Sol.102.(c) Article 164. Other
Q.97. In respect of Arunachal Pradesh, Appointments by Governor: State
the Governor has special responsibility legal duties. Article 76(4) specifies that
Election Commissioner (Article 243 K),
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under ________ of the Constitution of the Attorney General holds office at the
pleasure of the President and receives Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the
India with respect to law and order and in state (University Grants Commission
discharge of his functions in relation remuneration as determined by the
(UGC) Regulations, 2018), Advocate
on

thereto. President.
General for the State (Article 165) etc.
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.100. Match the following subject Article 163 - Council of Ministers to aid
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(a) Article 359 A (b) Article 380 A matters with their concerned Articles. and advise the Governor of the State.
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(c) Article 371 H (d) Article 361 H

a b
Q.103. Which of the following Articles of
1. Superintendence, direction
a

Sol.97.(c) Article 371 H. Under Article the Indian Constitution empowers the
and control of elections to A) Article 329
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359, during a national emergency, the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the

be Vested in an Election
President can suspend the right to move fundamental rights of the members of
commission.
courts for Fundamental Rights 2. Power of parliament to the armed forces, paramilitary forces,
enforcement, except for Articles 20 and make provision with respect B) Article 324 police forces, intelligence agencies and
21. Article 380, which once addressed to election to legislature. analogous forces ?
the President of India, was omitted by the 3. Bar of interference by SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) courts in electoral matters C) Article 327 (a) Article 33 (b) Article 31
Act of 1976. Article 361 provides (c) Article 37 (d) Article 35
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
protection to the President, Governors,
(a) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A (b) 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B
and Rajpramukhs from being held Sol.103.(a) Article 33. Fundamental
(c) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C (d) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A
accountable in courts for actions taken rights are included in Part III (Article
while performing their duties. Sol.100.(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. Article 325 - 12-35) of the Constitution. It is described
No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, as the Magna Carta of India. Article 35 -
Q.98. Under which Schedule of the Indian Power to make laws to give effect to
or to claim to be included in a special,
Constitution is the form of oath or certain specified fundamental rights
electoral roll on grounds of religion, race,
affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme shall vest only in the Parliament and not
caste or sex. Article 328 - Power of
Court mentioned? in the state legislatures.
Legislature of a State to make provision
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
with respect to elections to such
(a) Fourth Schedule (b) Second Schedule Q.104. As per Article 361 of the
Legislature.
(c) First Schedule (d) Third Schedule Constitution of India, who among the
Q.101. Which Article of the Constitution following shall NOT be answerable to any
Sol.98.(d) Third Schedule. The Third court for the exercise and performance
of India mentions that “there shall be a
Schedule of the Indian Constitution
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 Pinnacle Polity
of the powers and duties of his/her tenure and removal of CAG of India. Clause (b) grants the right to assemble
office? There are no specific qualifications peaceably and without arms; Clause (c)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) required to become the CAG of India. The grants the right to form associations,
(a) Secretary (b) Chief Minister President of India appoints the CAG unions, or co-operative societies; Clause
(c) Prime Minister (d) Governor through a warrant under their hand and (d) grants the right to move freely
seal. The CAG serves a term of 6 years or throughout the territory of India; Clause
Sol.104.(d) Governor. Article 361 - The until the age of 65, whichever comes (e) grants the right to reside and settle in
President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh first. any part of the territory of India; Clause
of a State, shall not be answerable to any (g) grants the right to practise any
court for the exercise and performance Q.108. Which of the following profession or to carry on any occupation,
of the powers and duties of his office or statements is correct about Article 129 trade, or business.
for any act done or purporting to be done of the Constitution of India?
by him in the exercise and performance. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.111. Which Articles of the Constitution
(a) It provides for the Supreme Court to of India deal with the Union and its
Q.105. Which schedule of the give advisory opinions to the President. territory ?
Constitution of India contains provisions (b) It provides for the Supreme Court to SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
for disqualification of legislators on the be a court of original jurisdiction (a) Articles 5-11 (b) Articles 1-4
ground of defection? (c) It provides for the Supreme Court to (c) Articles 12-35 (d) Article 36-51
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) be a court of record.
(a) Schedule - X (b) Schedule - XI (d) It provides for the Supreme Court to Sol.111.(b) Articles 1-4. Article 1- Name
(c) Schedule - VIII (d) Schedule - IX be the highest court of appeal. and territory of the Union; Article 2 -
Admission or Establishment of New
Sol.105.(a) Schedule-X: Popularly known Sol.108.(c) Article 143 - Power of the States; Article 3 - Formation of New

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as the Anti-Defection Act, was included President to consult the Supreme Court. States and alteration of areas,
in the Constitution via the 52nd

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Article 132 - Appellate jurisdiction of the Boundaries or Names of existing States;
Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule-IX (laws Supreme Court in appeals from High Article 4 : Laws made under articles 2
that are immune from judicial review) - It

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Courts in certain cases. Articles 133 and and 3 to provide for the amendment of
was added by the First Amendment Act, 134 grant the Supreme Court appellate the first and the fourth schedules and
1951.
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jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters supplemental, incidental and
Q.106. Which Article of the Indian from High Courts. consequential matters.
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Constitution mentions that all the Q.109. How many schedules are there in Q.112. In India which of the following is a
authorities— civil and judicial— in the our Constitution as of June 2023? Gandhian principle of Directive Principles
territory of India shall act in aid of the SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) of State Policy ?
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Supreme Court ? (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 10 SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (a) To Separate judiciary from executive
(a) Article 143 (b) Article 141 Sol.109.(c) 12 Schedules in Indian (b) To organise village panchayat
on

(c) Article 144 (d) Article 142 Constitution: First - List of States and UT; (c) To secure uniform civil code
Second - Emoluments, allowances, and (d) To provide equal pay for equal work
Sol.106.(c) Article 144. Article 142:
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privileges; Third - Oath and affirmation ;

Enforcement of decrees and orders of
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Fourth - Seat allocation of the Rajya Sol.112.(b) To organise village

the Supreme Court and orders as to Sabha; Fifth - Administration of panchayat. Article based on Gandhian
a

discovery, etc. Article 141: The law Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes; principles: 40 - Organise village
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declared by the Supreme Court shall be Sixth - Administration of Tribal Areas in panchayats. 43 - Living wage, etc., for
binding on all courts within the territory the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura workers. 43B - To promote voluntary
of India. and Mizoram; Seventh - Union list, State formation, autonomous functioning,
Q.107. Article 149 of the Constitution list and the concurrent list; Eight - List of democratic control of cooperative
deals with ___________ . recognized languages; Ninth - Land societies. 46 - promote educational and
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) reforms and regulations; Tenth - Anti economic interests of the weaker
(a) the qualifications required for the defection law; Eleventh - Panchayati Raj sections. 47 - To improve public health.
appointment of the Comptroller and and Twelfth - Municipalities. 48 - To prohibit the slaughter of cows,
Auditor-General of India calves and other milch. Other Groups -
Q.110. Which Clause of Article 19 of the Socialist Principle - Article (38, 39, 41, 42,
(b) the duties and powers of the Indian Constitution guarantees the 'right
Comptroller and Auditor-General of 43, 43A, 47). Liberal - Intellectual
to move freely throughout the territory of Principle - Article (44, 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50,
India India' ?
(c) the term of office of the Comptroller 51).
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
and Auditor-General of India (a) Clause (b) (b) Clause (c) Q.113. Which of the following Articles
(d) the appointment of the Comptroller (c) Clause (d) (d) Clause (a) says that double jeopardy which says
and Auditor-General of India that “no person shall be prosecuted or
Sol.110.(c) Clause (d). Article 19 - punished for the same offence more
Sol.107.(b) Part V (Chapter V) of the Protection of certain rights regarding
Indian Constitution (Articles 148-151) than once?
freedom of speech, etc. Other clauses of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
deals with the Comptroller and Article 19(1): Clause (a) grants the
Auditor-General (CAG). Article 148: This (a) Article 21 (2) (b) Article 19 (1)
freedom of speech and expression; (c) Article 20 (2) (d) Article 22 (2)
article deals with the appointment, oath,
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.113.(c) Article 20 (2). Article 21 - Cooperation societies was inserted as Q.121. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case
Protection of life and personal liberty. one of the DPSPs (Article 43-B). deals with violation of rights under_____
Article 19 (1) - The right to freedom of SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q.117. The government is bound to
speech and expression. Article 22 - (a) Article 16 (b) Article 21
ensure observance of social welfare and
Protection Against Arrest and Detention (c) Article 14 (d) Article 19
labour laws enacted to secure for
in Certain Cases. Article 22(2) - A person
workmen a life compatible with human Sol.121.(b) Article 21 (Protection of life
who is arrested and detained must be
dignity, under _____ of the Indian and personal liberty). Important Cases
produced before a magistrate within 24
Constitution. related to Article 21: A.K Gopalan vs the
hours.
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) State of Madras 1950 : The Supreme
Q.114. Under which Article of the (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15 court has taken a narrow interpretation
Directive Principles of State Policy, a (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 of Article 21 in this case. Maneka Gandhi
working woman on maternity leave, must vs. Union of India, 1978: In this case, the
Sol.117.(d) Article 21. Article 15 -
receive all maternity benefits from the SC overruled its judgement of the
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
employer? Gopalan Case by taking a wider
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) interpretation of Article 21.
birth. Article 19: Protection of certain
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 44
rights regarding freedom of Speech, etc. Q.122. Which part of the Constitution of
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 43
Article 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. India contains the provisions of the
Sol.114.(a) Article 42. Directive Union Executive?
Q.118. In the Indian Constitution which
Principles of State Policies are SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
of the following Articles deals with the
non-justiciable rights (which means that (a) Part V (b) Part III
right to move to the Supreme Court for
they cannot be enforced by a Court of (c) Part IV (d) Part VI

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enforcement of Fundamental rights ?
Law). Article 43 - The State shall SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.122.(a) Part V. Other parts of

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endeavour to secure all workers a living (a) Article 30 (b) Article 32 constitution: Part III - Fundamental Rights
wage and a decent standard of life. (c) Article 33 (d) Article 31 (Article 12 to 35), Part IV - Directive

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Article 44 - Uniform civil code for the
Principle of State Policy (Article - 36 to
citizens. Sol.118.(b) Article 32 (Right to
51), Part VI - The States (Article 152 to
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Constitutional Remedies) - The ‘Heart
Q.115. 'The state shall endeavour to 237).
and Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R.
secure to all workers a living wage and a
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Ambedkar. Article 30 - Right of minorities Q.123. Fundamental duties were not

decent standard of life'. Which of the to establish and administer educational placed in Part III of the Indian
following is correct about the given institutions. Constitution because Part III is_________.
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statement in the context of India?

SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.119. Poshan Abhiyaan is a programme
(a) non-justiciable (b) justiciable
(a) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of to achieve nutritional status of children
(c) not enforceable (d) absolute
on

the Constitution. from 0 to 6 years. Which of the following

(b) It is mentioned in the 44th Article of Articles of the Indian Constitution Sol.123.(b) Justiciable. Part III Article
Constitution. provides for raising the nutrition level? (12-35): Fundamental Rights.
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(c) This is a Gandhian principle of SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Fundamental duties (Part IVA Article
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Directive Principles of State Policy. (a) Article 47 (b) Article 44 51A) added by the 42nd Amendment Act
(d) This is a liberal principle of Directive (c) Article 46 (d) Article 45
a

(1976). These duties are non-justiciable,

Principles of State Policy.
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meaning they are not enforceable by a

Sol.119.(a) Article 47 - Duty of the State
court of law.
Sol.115.(a) Article 43 (Living wage, etc., to raise the level of nutrition and the
for workers). Directives based on standard of living and to improve public Q.124. Which of the following Articles of
Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Article 44, health comes under Directive Principles the Indian Constitution provides for a
Article 45, Article 48, Article 48A, Article of State Policy (Articles 36-51 under bicameral Parliament of India?
49, Article 50, Article 51. Part-IV). SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 49 (b) Article 59
Q.116. Which of the following articles is Q.120. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 79 (d) Article 89
related to the provision of Co-operative the Indian Constitution has the idea that
Societies in the Indian Constitution? 'No child below the age of fourteen years Sol.124.(c) Article 79 :- Constitution of
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) shall be employed to work in any factory Parliament - There shall be a Parliament
(a) 243 ZG to 243 ZJ (b) 243 P to 243 ZG or mine or engaged in any other of the Union consisting of the President
(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT (d) 243 A to 243 hazardous employment? and two Houses known as the Council of
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) States (Rajya Sabha, Article 80) and the
Sol.116.(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT. Co -
(a) Article 22 (b) Article 24 House of the People (Lok Sabha, Article
operative Societies - A form of business
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 20 81). Article 49 - Protection of
organisation that is formed with the
objective of helping the society monuments and places and objects of
Sol.120.(b) Article 24. Article 22 -
members. Under 97th Amendment Act national importance. Article 59 -
Protection against arrest and detention
2011, the right to form cooperative Conditions of the President's office.
in certain cases. Article 19 - Protection of
societies was included as Right to certain rights regarding freedom of Q.125. As per Article 172 (2)_______of a
Freedom {Article 19(1)(c)}. Promotion of speech, etc. State shall NOT be subject to dissolution.

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 Pinnacle Polity
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) Q.129. Which Article of the Indian Q.133. Provisions related to the seat of
(a) Legislative Assembly Constitution deals with the removal and the "Supreme Court of India" is
(b) Legislative Council suspension of a member of the Public mentioned in which Article?
(c) House of People Service Commission? SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Council of States Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (a) Article 132 (b) Article 131
(a) Article 320 (b) Article 324 (c) Article 130 (d) Article 129
Sol.125.(b) Legislative Council (Saasana (c) Article 317 (d) Article 315
Mandali) - It is the upper house in those Sol.133.(c) Article 130. The Federal
states of India that have a bicameral Sol.129.(c) Article 317. Part XIV Court of India was established on 1
state legislature. Six States have a (Articles 315 to 323) - Establishment of October 1937. After Independence, the
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, UPSC for Union and Public Service Federal Court was replaced as the
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Commission for each state. Article 320 - Supreme Court of India (28 January
Maharashtra, Karnataka. Functions of Public Service 1950). Other related Articles : Article
Commissions. Article 315 - Public 124: Establishment and Constitution of
Q.126. Article 323 of the Indian Service Commissions for the Union and Supreme Court. Article 129: Supreme
Constitution deals with __________ . for the States. Court to be a Court of Record. Article
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) 131: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme
(a) expenses of Public Services Q.130. Which part of the Indian Court. Article 132: Appellate Jurisdiction
Commissions Constitution deals with the organisation, of Supreme Court in appeals from High
(b) reports of Public Services composition and powers of the state Court in certain cases.
Commissions legislature?
(c) functions of Public Services Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Q.134. Part XVI of the Indian constitution
Commissions (a) Part IV (b) Part VI deals with ___________ .

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(d) power to extend functions of Public (c) Part III (d) Part V SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)

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Services Commissions (a) Elections
Sol.130.(b) Part VI Article (152 to 237). (b) Special provisions related to certain
Sol.126.(b) reports of Public Services Article 168 Constitution of Legislatures

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classes
Commissions. Articles 315 to 323 (Part in States. Article 169 deals with abolition (c) Constitutional amendments
XIV) of the Constitution of India establish or creation of Legislative Councils in
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(d) Special provisions related to
the Union Public Service Commission states. Article 170 - Composition of the municipal corporation
(UPSC) and State Public Service Legislative Assemblies. Article 171 -
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Commissions (SPSC). The UPSC Composition of the legislative Councils. Sol.134.(b) Special provisions related to
Chairman is appointed by the President Article 172 - Duration of State certain classes (Article 330 to 342A).
for a term of six years or until the age of Legislatures. Article 330 - Reservation of seats for
TG

65, whichever is earlier. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Q.131. Which of the following Articles of in the House of the People. Part XV
Q.127. Which Article of the Indian the Constitution of India provides that (Article 324-329): Elections. Part XX
on

Constitution empowers the Supreme there shall be a Legislative Assembly for (Article 368): Amendment of the
Court to review its own judgements or the National Capital Territory of Delhi? Constitution. Part IXA (Article
h

orders ? Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) 243P-243ZG): The Municipalities.

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SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Article 231AA (b) Article 239AA
(a) Article 138 (b) Article 135 (c) Article 233AA (d) Article 237AA Q.135. Which of the following Articles of
a

(c) Article 136 (d) Article 137 the Indian constitution provides for the
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Sol.131.(b) Article 239AA. The 69th National commission for Scheduled

Sol.127.(d) Article 137. Article 138 - Amendment Act (1991) - A special Castes ?
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the status to the Union Territory of Delhi by SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Supreme Court. Article 135 - Jurisdiction designing it as the National Capital (a) Article 337 (b) Article 344
and powers of the Federal Court under Territory of Delhi. Brahm Prakash was (c) Article 343 (d) Article 338
existing law to be exercisable by the the first chief minister of Delhi.
Supreme Court. Article 136 - Special Sol.135.(d) Article 338. National
leave to appeal by the Supreme Court. Q.132. Which among the following is a commission for Scheduled Castes is a
subject of Union Lists in the Constitution constitutional body.Other Commissions -
Q.128. Which Article of the Indian of India ? National Commission for Scheduled
Constitution empowers the Parliament to SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning) Tribes (Article 338A inserted by the 89th
establish additional courts for better (a) Liquor (b) Social planning Amendment Act 2003) and National
administration of laws made by it (c) Extradition (d) Boilers Commission for Backward Classes
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) (Article 338B). Article 343 - Official
(a) Article 246 (b) Article 248 Sol.132.(c) Extradition.The 7th Schedule
of the Indian Constitution consists of language of the Union. Article 344 -
(c) Article 253 (d) Article 247 Commission and Committee of
three lists: Union List: 100 items (e.g.,
Sol.128.(d) Article 247. Article 246 - Defence, Army, International Relations). Parliament on Official Language. Article
Subject-matter of laws made by State List: 61 items (e.g., Local 337 - Special provisions in terms of
Parliament and by the Legislatures of Government, Public Health, Prisons). educational grants/subsidies provided to
States. Article 248 - Residuary powers of Concurrent List: 52 items (e.g., the Anglo-Indian population of India.
legislation. Article 253 - Legislation for Education, Forest, Trade Unions). Q.136. Provisions related to the
giving effect to international agreements.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Municipalities are mentioned under Service Commission, etc. Concurrent list inquire into proceedings of the
which part of the Indian constitution? (52) - Education, Forest, Trade unions, Legislature. Article 214 - High Courts for
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) population control and family planning, States.
(a) Part IXA (b) Part VII Marriage, Adoption, etc. Seventh
(c) Part V (d) Part XII schedule under Article 246 of the Q.143. Part V chapter II of the Indian
constitution deals with the division of constitution does not include which of
Sol.136.(a) Part IXA. The Municipalities powers between the union and the the following provisions?
(Urban Local Governments) is a system states. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
of Democratic Decentralisation. It was (a) Joint sitting of both house of
added through the 74th Constitutional Q.140. The part VII of the Indian Parliament in certain cases
Amendment Act of 1992. Part VII - constitution has been omitted. It is (b) Power of President to promulgate
Repealed by the Constitution (Seventh related with which of the following? Ordinances during recess of
Amendment Act, 1956). Part V - SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) Parliament
Provisions for the functioning of the (a) Provision relating to property (c) Language to be used in Parliament
Union Government. Part XII - Laws (b) States in part B of the first schedule (d) Restriction on discussion in
pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts (c) Armed forces in states in part A of Parliament
and Suits for Republic of India. the second schedule
(d) Reservation for Anglo - Indian Sol.143.(b) Article 123 - Power of
Q.137. Which Article of the Indian communities in parliament President to promulgate Ordinances
constitution mentions that it is duty of during recess of Parliament. It is
the Union government to protect States Sol.140.(b) States in part B of the first included under chapter III of part V of
against external aggression and internal schedule. Provision relating to property - Indian constitution. Article 108 - Joint
disturbance? constitutional right under Part XII, Article sitting of both Houses in certain cases.

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SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) 300A (Added by 44th Amendment Act, Article 120 - Language to be used in

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(a) 353 (b) 356 (c) 355 (d) 358 1978). The 104th Constitutional Parliament. Article 121 - Restriction on
Amendment Act of 2019 abolished the discussion in Parliament.
Sol.137.(c) Article 355. Other Articles -

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reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in
Article 353 - States about the Effect of the Parliament and State Legislatures of Q.144. Article 243K of the Indian
the proclamation of emergency. Article
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India in January 2020. The amendment constitution is related with which of the
356 - States about the Provision in case also extended reservations for following ?
of failure of constitutional machinery in SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
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Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

the state (president rule). Article 358 - It for up to ten years. (a) Durations of panchayat, etc.
deals with the suspension of (b) Grounds of disqualification from
fundamental rights guaranteed under Q.141. The Indian parliament has power
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membership of Panchayat.
Article 19 of the constitution. to impose restrictions on trade, (c) Reservation of seats in Panchayat.
commerce and intercourse through (d) Election to the Panchayats.
Q.138. Which Article of the constitution which Article of the Indian constitution?
on

of India is related to the Comptroller and SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.144.(d) Election to the Panchayats.
Auditor General of India Audit reports? (a) 304 (b) 300 A (c) 303 (d) 302 Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered
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SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) administrative framework in India that

Sol.141.(d) Article 302. Part XIII (Article
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(a) 148 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 149 focuses on rural development. It consists
301-307) - Trade, Commerce and of Gram Panchayats at the village level,
a

Sol.138.(c) 151. Part V: The Union, Intercourse within the Territory of India. Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and
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Chapter V : Comptroller and Auditor - Article 304: Restrictions on trade, Zila Parishads at the district level. Article
General (CAG) of India (Article 148 - commerce and intercourse among 243E - Duration of Panchayats. Article
151). Article 150: Form of accounts of States. Article 303: Restrictions on the 243D - Reservation of seats in
the Union and of the States. Article 149: legislative powers of the Union and of the Panchayat. Article 243F - Grounds of
Duties and powers of the Comptroller States with regard to trade and disqualification from membership of
and Auditor-General. Article 148: commerce. Article 300A: Persons not to Panchayat.
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. be deprived of property save by authority
of law. Q.145. Article 350A of the Indian
Q.139. Central Bureau of Intelligence and
constitution is related with______.
Investigation comes under which list of Q.142. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution states that "Governor has
(a) Special officers for linguistic
constitution ? power to promulgate ordinances during
minorities
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) recess of legislature"?
(b) Facilities for instruction in
(a) Union list (b) Concurrent list SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
mother-tongue at primary stage
(c) State list (d) Transferred list (a) 212 (b) 214 (c) 213 (d) 210
(c) Direction for development of the Hindi
Sol.139.(a) Union list (100) - Defence, Sol.142.(c) Article 213.The governor can language
Army, International Relations, Ports, issue an ordinance when the state (d) Language to` be used in Supreme
Railways, Census, Communication, legislature is not in session, which must Court and High Courts of India
Central Bureau of Investigation etc. State be approved by the state legislature
Sol.145.(b) Article - 350 : Language to be
list (61) - Public order, Police, Public within 6 weeks of its reassembly. Article
used in representations for redress of
health and sanitation, Hospitals and 210 - Language to be used in the
grievances. Article - 350B: Special Officer
dispensaries, Agriculture, State Public Legislature. Article 212 - Courts not to
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 Pinnacle Polity
for linguistic minorities. Article- 351: (a) Article 126 (b) Article 127 Sol.153.(c) Part XIV. Union Public
Directive for development of the Hindi (c) Article 128 (d) Article 125 Service Commission (UPSC) is an
language. Article 348 (1)(a): All independent constitutional body. The
proceedings in the Supreme Court and in Sol.149.(b) Article 127. Article 125: talks provisions regarding the composition of
every High Court, shall be in English about the financial privileges and UPSC, the appointment, and removal of
language. allowances that are defined for the its members, and the powers and
judges of the Supreme Court. Article 126: functions of UPSC are provided in Part
Q.146. Which part of the Constitution of Appointment of acting Chief Justice of XIV of the Indian Constitution under
India consists of the idea of a Welfare India. Article 128: Attendance of retired Article 315 to Article 323.
State? judges at sitting of the Supreme Court.
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023) Q.154. Article ______ of the Indian
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy Q.150. Which Article of the Constitution Constitution states that ‘there shall be a
(b) Fundamental Duties of India deals with the Sessions of the Commission for the socially and
(c) Fundamental Rights Parliament? educationally backward classes to be
(d) Preamble SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) known as the National Commission for
(a) Article 85 (b) Article 89 Backward Classes’.
Sol.146.(a) Directive Principles of State (c) Article 90 (d) Article 101 SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
Policy is mentioned in Part IV, Article (a) 124 A (1) (b) 243S (1)
36–51. Article 38 gives the idea of a Sol.150.(a) Article 85 - Sessions of
Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution. (c) 243Y (1) (d) 338B (1)
Welfare State.
A session is a period during which a Sol.154.(d) Article 338B (1). Article
Q.147. Which Article of the Constitution House meets almost every day 243S(1) - There shall be constituted
does India mention that business in uninterruptedly to manage the business. Wards Committees, consisting of one or

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Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or Article 90 - Vacation and resignation of more wards, within the territorial area of
English? (and removal from) the office of Deputy

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a Municipality having a population of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Chairman. Article 101- Vacation of seats three lakhs or more.
(a) Article 120 (b) Article 121 in Parliament.
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 119
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Q.151. Which chapter of the Constitution
Q.155. Which of the following Articles of
the Constitution of India states that Hindi
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Sol.147.(a) Article 120. Article 121 - of India, discusses the Articles of in Devanagari script shall be the official
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. Parliament ? language of the Union?
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Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning)
proceedings of Parliament. Article 119 - (a) Chapter III (b) Chapter I (a) Article 343(2) (b) Article 354(2)
Regulation by law of procedure in (c) Chapter II (d) Chapter IV (c) Article 343(1) (d) Article 343(3)
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Parliament in relation to financial

business. Sol.151.(c) Chapter II (79-122). Part V - Sol.155.(c) Article 343(1). Article 343(2)
The Union of Indian Constitution Chapter -The Constitution adopted in 1950
on

Q.148. Which Article of Indian II deals with the Articles of Parliament . stipulated that English and Hindi would
constitution is related with the Special Chapter I (The Executive; Articles 52 to be used for the Union's official business
provisions with respect to the State of 78); Chapter III: Legislative powers of the
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for a period of fifteen years. Article 354

Sikkim? President; Article 123); Chapter IV (The
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deals with the application of provisions

SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) Union Judiciary; Articles 124 - 147). related to the distribution of revenues
a

(a) Article 371C (b) Article 371 Chapter V (Comptroller and Auditor - while a Proclamation of Emergency is in
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(c) Article 371F (d) Article 371A General of India (CAG); Articles 148 to operation.
151).
Sol.148.(c) 371 F - Sikkim (36th Q.156. Which of the following Articles of
Amendment Act, 1975). Article 371 of Q.152. The Article of the Indian the constitution of India provides for the
the Constitution includes special Constitution that deals with all the creation of a GST Council ?
provisions for 11 states (6 states of the executive powers of the Governor is ____ SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
Northeast). Article 371 - provisions for SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) (a) Article 246A (b) Article 279A
Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371 A - (a) Article 150 (b) Article 157 (c) Article 269A (d) Article 323A
Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962). (c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
371 B - Assam (22nd Amendment Act, Sol.156.(b) Article 279A. It empowers
1969). 371 C - Manipur (27th Amendment Sol.152.(c) Article 154- Executive power the president to constitute a joint forum
Act, 1971). 371 D - Andhra Pradesh and of Governor. Article 150 - Form of of the central and states namely, Goods
Telangana (32nd. Amendment Act, 1973). accounts of the Union and of the States. and Services Tax Council. The GST
371 E - To establish Central University in Article 157 - Qualifications for Council is a constitutional body for
Andhra Pradesh. 371 G - Mizoram (53rd. appointment as Governor. Article 156 - making recommendations to the union
Amendment Act, 1986). 371 H - Term of office of Governor. and state government on issues related
Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, to Goods and Service Tax.
Q.153. Which Part of the Indian
1986). 371 I - Goa.
Constitution provides for the Union Q.157. According to which of the
Q.149. Which Article of the Constitution Public Service Commission? following Articles of the Constitution of
of India deals with the appointment of ad SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon) India shall a Money Bill NOT be
- hoc judges? (a) Part X (b) Part VIII introduced in the Council of States ?
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Part XIV (d) Part XVI SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) Article 109 (b) Article 354 by a Section of the Population of a State. secures workers' participation in industry
(c) Article 298 (d) Article 193 management; and Article 48(A) protects
Amendments the environment and wildlife.
Sol.157.(a) Article 109. Rajya Sabha
(Council of States), the upper house of Q.165. Which of the following
Q.162. As per the Constitution (Ninety -
the Parliament of India. A money bill is a Constitution Amendment Bills is related
First Amendment) Act, 2003, the total
specific type of financial legislation that to the provision of modifying the list of
number of ministers, including the Prime
exclusively deals with matters related to Scheduled Caste in Tamil Nadu ?
Minister, shall NOT exceed:
taxes, government revenues, or SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
expenditures. (a) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
(a) 20% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Q.158. As per Article ______ of the of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
Constitution of India, English is the (b) 15% of the total number of members
Order Amendment Act, 2013
official language for all the high courts in of the Lok Sabha
(c) The Constitution (Scheduled Caste)
the country. (c) 10% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2015
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening) of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Constitution (Scheduled Castes)
(a) 329 (1) (b) 336 (1) (d) 25% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021
(c) 315 (1) (d) 348 (1) of the Lok Sabha
Sol.165.(d) The Bill amends the
Sol.162.(b) 91st Amendment Act 2003:
Sol.158.(d) Article 348 (1). 329(a) the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order,
The total number of ministers in the
validity of any law relating to the 1950. The Constitution empowers the
Council of Ministers, including the Prime
delimitation of constituencies or the President to specify the Scheduled
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total
allotment of seats to such Castes (SCs) in various states and union

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number of members in the Lok Sabha.
constituencies, made or purporting to be territories. Further, it permits Parliament
The total number of ministers in a State

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made under Article 327 or Article 328, to modify this list of notified SCs. The
Council of Ministers, including the Chief
shall not be called in question in any Statement of Objects and Reasons of the
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total

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court Bill states that the Bill has been
number of members in the Legislative
introduced to give effect to modifications
Q.159. Which of the following Articles of Assembly of that State.
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proposed by the state of Tamil Nadu.
the Constitution of India defines for a
Q.163. Part IV A of the Indian
separate secretarial staff for each House Q.166. Which of the following
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Constitution was inserted in the Indian

of the Parliament? Constitutional Amendment Acts led to
Constitution through______ Constitutional
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening) formation of the Goods and Services Tax
Amendment Act.
(a) Article 98 (b) Article 123 Council ?
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SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)

(c) Article 155 (d) Article 34 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) 44th (b) 46th (c) 48th (d) 42nd
(a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Sol.159.(a) Article 98. Article 155- (b) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
on

Sol.163.(d) 42nd. The fundamental

Appointment of the Governor. Article 34- (c) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of
Restriction on rights conferred by third (d) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
the Constitution by the 42nd
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Part while martial law is in force in any

Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on
101st
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area. Sol.166.(c) Constitutional

the recommendations of the Swaran
Amendment Act, 2016. Article 279A of
a

Q.160. Which of the following Articles of Singh Committee. Initially, there were 10
the Indian Constitution establishes the
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the Constitution of India states that there duties, but an additional duty was added
Goods and Services Tax Council (GST
would be no tax levied or collected by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Council) chaired by the finance minister
EXCEPT by the authority of law? Act, 2002, bringing the total to 11 duties.
of India. 100th Constitutional Amendment
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) Act, 2015: Ratified the land boundary
Q.164. ____________ Directive principles
(a) Article 107 (b) Article 123 agreement between India and
of State Policy were added to the Indian
(c) Article 265 (d) Article 301 Bangladesh. The 102nd Constitutional
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
Sol.160.(c) Article 265. Article 107- Amendment Act of 1976. Amendment Act: Enhanced regulations
Provisions as to introduction and passing SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) to support backward classes in India.
of Bills. Article 301- Freedom of trade, (a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
commerce and intercourse. Established a 10% reservation for
Sol.164.(d) Four. Economically Weaker Sections.
Q.161. Under which Article of the Indian These Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitution are special provisions (DPSP) are: Article 39(f) which provided Q.167. Which of the following Articles of
provided to language spoken in a section that “the State shall direct its policy the Constitution of India CANNOT be
of the population? towards securing for the children amended with a simple majority ?
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) opportunities and facilities to develop in SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 337 (b) Article 357 a healthy manner and in conditions of (a) 169 (b) 2 (c) 21 (d) 3
(c) Article 347 (d) Article 374 freedom and dignity and for protecting
children and youth from exploitation and Sol.167.(c) 21. Article 21 asserts that no
Sol.161.(c) Article 347 Under part XVII, against material abandonment”; Article person shall be deprived of their life
of the Indian constitution : Special 39(A) promotes equal justice and free except according to the procedure
Provision Relating to Language Spoken legal aid for the poor; Article 43(A) established by law. This means that

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 Pinnacle Polity
every individual has the right to live, and amended. Through this amendment, 10% SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
their life cannot be taken away except in reservation was provided in educational (a) secular (b) capitalist
accordance with the prescribed legal institutions and government jobs for the (c) aristocratic (d) oligarchic
procedures. It is a part of Fundamental economically weaker sections of the
rights (Part III). It can be amended only country. Sol.174.(a) secular. The term means that
by a special majority in both houses of all the religions in India get equal respect,
Parliament by two-thirds of members Q.171. In which of the following years protection and support from the state.
present and voting. did the Constitution (One Hundredth The Preamble was amended only once
Amendment) Act come into force ? by the 42nd Amendment Act to add
Q.168. Which of the following Articles SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and Integrity terms.
was amended by The Constitution (a) 2015 (b) 2020 (c) 2009 (d) 2001
Fiftieth Amendment Act, 1984? Q.175. 73rd Amendment Act 1992 makes
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.171.(a) 2015. The Constitution provisions for a 3 - tier system of
(a) Article 78 (b) Article 99 (100th Amendment) Act of 2015 ratified Panchayati Raj for all the states having
(c) Article 33 (d) Article 56 the Land Boundary Agreement between population of above:
India and Bangladesh. This amendment Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Sol.168.(c) Article 33 - the Power of gave effect to the acquisition and (a) 20 lakh (b) 10 lakh
Parliament to modify the rights conferred transfer of territories between the two (c) 15 lakh (d) 5 lakh
by this Part in their application to Forces, countries, pursuant to the Land Boundary
etc. Article 78 - Duties of the Prime Agreement of 1974 and its protocol of Sol.175.(a) 20 lakh. 73rd Constitutional
Minister as respects the furnishing of 2011. Amendment Act of 1992, enacted by the
information to the President, etc. Article Narasimha Rao government and
99 - Oath or affirmation by members of Q.172. Which of the following Articles effective from April 24, 1993, aimed to

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the Parliament. Article 56 - Term of office was amended in the Constitution (Fifth strengthen local self-governance by
Amendment Act), 1955 ? establishing democracy at the

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of President.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) grassroots level. Part IX of the
Q.169. On 9 August 2021, the Parliament (a) Article 3 (b) Article 45 Constitution outlines the Panchayati Raj

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had passed the Limited Liability (c) Article 17 (d) Article 34 system, with Rajasthan implementing it
Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021. It first in Nagaur district on October 2,
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amended the: Sol.172.(a) Article 3 deals with the 1959. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) formation of new states and the recommended a three-tier structure: Zilla
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(a) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2004 alteration of areas, boundaries, or names Parishad (district level), Panchayat
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 of existing states. Article 45 was Samiti (block level), and Gram Panchayat
(c) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2012 amended by the Constitution (village level).
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(d) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2016 (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act of 2002.
The amendment changed the subject Q.176 In which year did the 44th
Sol.169.(b) Limited Liability Partnership matter of Article 45 and made Amendment remove the right to property
on

Act, 2008. It was published in the official elementary education a fundamental from the list of fundamental rights?
Gazette of India on 9 January 2009 and right under Article 21. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
has been in effect since 31 March 2009.
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(a) 1978 (b) 1975 (c) 1973 (d) 1981

LLP Amendment Bill, 2021 passed on Q.173. Which of the following
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28th July 2021 by both house of Amendment Acts led to the insertion of Sol.176.(a) 1978. The right to property
a

Parliament. 29 amendments were made Article 21 A ? was listed under Article 31 before its
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to LLP Act 2008 by LLP Amendment Bill SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) deletion. At present the right to property
2021. (a) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 is listed under Article 300A as a legal
(b) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2002 right.
Q.170. On 7 November 2022, the (c) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
Supreme Court of India upheld the (d) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2002 Q.177. Which among the following is
reservations for the weaker sections INCORRECT about the salient features of
(EWS). Which of the following Sol.173.(c) Eighty-sixth Amendment the 73rd Amendment Act ?
amendments brought this reservation in Act, 2002. This Amendment Act, 2002 SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the first place ? made the Right to Education a (a) The Act corresponds to Part III of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) fundamental right for children aged 6-14 Constitution of India.
(a) 101st Amendment of the Constitution by adding Article 21A in Part III of the (b) The Act gives a Constitutional status
(b) 102nd Amendment of the Constitution. The 87th Amendment Act, to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Constitution 2003 involved readjusting electoral (c) The Act has added the Eleventh
(c) 103rd Amendment of the Constitution constituencies based on the 2001 Schedule to the Constitution of India.
(d) 104th Amendment of the Constitution census. The 85th Amendment Act, 2002 (d) It contains 29 functional items of the
provided for promotion with Panchayats and deals with Article
Sol.170.(c) 103rd Amendment to the consequential seniority for government 243 to 243(O).
Constitution. The 103rd Amendment Act employees from Scheduled Castes and
of the Constitution, 2019 was enacted to Scheduled Tribes. Sol.177.(a) The 73rd Amendment Act - It
introduce reservation for the was enacted in 1992 and came into force
economically weaker sections (EWS). Q.174. The 42nd Amendment of the from April 1993. It added Part IX (Article
Under this amendment, Articles 15(6) Indian Constitution (1976) states that 243 - 243O) to the constitution. It was
and 16(6) of the Constitution were India is a/an ______ nation. enacted to implement the Directive
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 Pinnacle Polity
Principles of State Policy under Article 40 Amendment Act empowering states and Sol.184.(b) 61st. It was done by
on the recommendation of L.M. Singhvi UTs to identify and specify Socially and amending Article 326 of the constitution
Committee. Educationally Backward Classes? in 1988. 81st Constitutional Amendment
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Act 2000 was inserted to protect the
Q.178. How many types of the (a) 105th (b) 104th (c) 103rd (d) 102nd reservation for SCs and STs in backlog of
amendment are mentioned by the Indian vacancies. 52nd Constitutional
Constitution as per Article 368 ? Sol.181.(a) 105th. Reservation in India: Amendment Act 1985, known as
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Other Backward Class (OBCs) were anti-defection law and 10th schedule
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Five (d) Three included in the ambit of reservation in added in the Indian constitution. 72nd
1991 on the recommendations of the Constitutional Amendment Act 1992
Sol.178.(b) Two. Article 368 (Part XX) Mandal Commission. It recommended a
grants Parliament the power to amend provides reservation to Scheduled Tribes
27% reservation quota for OBC. in Tripura State Legislative Assembly.
the Constitution. Amendments require Constitutional Provisions: Part XVI deals
either (1) a special majority or (2) a with reservation of SC and ST in Central Q.185. Which amendment in the Indian
special majority with ratification by at and State legislatures. 342A - Socially constitution is related to extension of
least half of the state legislatures by a and educationally backward classes. jurisdiction of High Courts to Union
simple majority. The amendment territories ?
procedure is inspired by the South Q.182. In which year was the Andhra SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
African Constitution. Pradesh Reorganisation Act passed? (a) 9th Amendment (b) 7th Amendment
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (c) 1st Amendment (d) 13th Amendment
Q.179. The Unlawful Activities (a) 2013 (b) 2012 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
(Prevention) Act, which provides for the Sol.185.(b) 7th Amendment.
more effective prevention of certain Sol.182.(c) 2014. This constitutional amendment was

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unlawful activities of individuals and The States Reorganisation Act (1956), done in 1956 to reorganise the classes of
associations dealing with terrorist under the provisions of Part I (Article 3).

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states in the country and to change the
activities, was first put into effect in India The State Reorganisation Commission powers and functions of the state
in the year. (SRC) was constituted in 1953 appointed

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governors. 1st Amendment (1951) - The
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) by Jawahar Lal Nehru. It was headed by rights of property owners and made it
(a) 1991 (b) 1967 (c) 2014 (d) 1947 Sir Fazal Ali. The first state formed on the
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more difficult for the government to
linguistic basis is Andhra Pradesh (1 enact land reform measures. It also
Sol.179.(b) 1967. Unlawful Activities October 1953). Formation of other
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added the Ninth Schedule, which

(Prevention) Act - Its main objective is states: Gujarat and Maharashtra (1960), protected certain laws from being
dealing with activities directed against Karnataka (1956), Nagaland (1963), challenged in the courts. 9th Amendment
the integrity and sovereignty of India. It Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975).
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(1960) - Facilitate the cession of the

assigns absolute power to the central
Berubari union. 13th Amendment (1962) -
government and provides for death Q.183. How many Directive Principles of
Nagaland was formed with special
penalty and life imprisonment of culprits. the original list in the Indian Constitution
on

status under Article 371A.

Related acts - Armed Forces Special were amended by the 44th Amendment
Powers Act (AFSPA) 1958; Prevention of Act of 1978 ? Q.186. The Seventy - First Amendment to
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) the Indian Constitution included Konkani,
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Terrorism Act, 2002; The National

(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the
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Investigation Agency Act, 2008; The Anti

- Hijacking Act, 2016. Schedule.
a

Sol.183.(b) One (Article 38(2): Requires SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
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Q.180. The Family Courts (Amendment) the state to reduce inequalities in (a) Eighth (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Seventh
Act 2022 has amended the Family Courts income, status, facilities, and
Act, 1984. The Act allows ________ to opportunities). Directive Principles of Sol.186.(a) Eighth Schedule.
establish Family Courts. State Policy: Part IV of the Constitution 22 languages in this schedule. 21st
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) of India (Article 36–51). It was borrowed Amendment Act (1967) - Include Sindhi
(a) District Courts from the Irish Constitution. Article 38 (1) language. 92nd Amendment Act (2003) -
(b) State Governments - The State shall strive to promote the Include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
(c) Union Government welfare of the people by securing and language. 5th schedule - The President
(d) District Collector protecting as effectively as it may a can declare any such area or the whole
social order in which justice, social, state as a scheduled area. 6th schedule
Sol.180.(b) State Governments. Purpose economic and political, shall inform all - Deals with administration of tribal areas
of establishment of family court - To the institutions of national life. in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
promote conciliation and secure speedy 7th Schedule - Deals with the division of
settlement of disputes relating to Q.184. Which among the following powers between the Union government
marriage and family affairs and for Constitutional Amendment Act of the and State governments
related matters. This bill was passed by Indian constitution reduced the age of
Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022. This bill voting from 21 to 18 for elections to the Q.187. The Eighty - ninth Amendment
has granted statutory cover to already Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution
established family courts in Himachal Assemblies of states? established which of the following
Pradesh and Nagaland. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Commission ?
(a) 81st (b) 61st (c) 52nd (d) 72nd SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q.181. In August 2021, Ram Nath Kovind (a) Competition Commission of India
granted assent to which Constitution (b) National Commission for Backward
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 Pinnacle Polity
Classes Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Union of continuance in force of the Proclamation
(c) National Commission for Woman India as a Union Territory ? for a period up to two years.
(d) National Commission for Scheduled SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Tribes (a) 19th (b) 14th (c) 12th (d) 10th Q.195. An amendment to the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956 was passed in the
Sol.187.(d) The National Commission for Sol.191.(d) The 10th Amendment (1961) year ______.
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was added Dadra and Nagar Haveli as India’s SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
established by amending Article 338 and seventh Union Territories. The 12th (a) 2012 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2008
inserting a new Article 338A in the Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa,
Constitution. Daman, and Diu as the eighth Union Sol.195.(b) 2005. The Hindu Succession
Territory, while the 14th Amendment Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament of
Q.188. Which among the following (1962) included Pondicherry as the ninth. India enacted to amend and codify the
constitutional amendments of the Indian The 19th Amendment (1966) abolished law relating to intestate or unwilled
Constitution deals with the formation of Election Tribunals, assigning election succession, among Hindus, Buddhists,
Sikkim as a state? petition trials to High Courts. Jains, and Sikhs.
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) 36th (b) 51th (c) 42nd (d) 30th Q.192. Who among the following Q.196. The 60th Amendment to the
presidents of India gave assent to the Constitution of India increased the
Sol.188.(a) 36th. 51st amendment: 100th Amendment of the Constitution of ceiling of profession tax from ₹ 250 p.a.
Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for India ? to ______ p.a.
Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning) SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and (a) Pranab Mukherjee (a) ₹7,000 (b) ₹5,000 (c) ₹1,000 (d) ₹2,500
Mizoram as well as in the Legislative (b) Ram Nath Kovind

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Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland. Sol.196.(d) ₹2,500 . The Sixtieth
(c) APJ Abdul Kalam Amendment of the Constitution of India
30th amendment: Abolished provision to

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(d) Pratibha Devisingh Patil Act, 1988, amended Article 276 of the
appeal to the Supreme Court on a civil
case related to a certain amount. Sol.192.(a) Pranab Mukherjee. The Constitution relating to taxes on

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100th amendment in the Indian professions, trades, callings and
Q.189. Under which Amendment to the Constitution provides for the acquisition employments.
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Constitution Act was the reservation for of territories by India and transfer of
OBCs in educational institutions made? Q.197. The 40th Amendment Act of 1976
certain territories to Bangladesh.
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Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) was applied to which Article of the

Constitution (100th Amendment) Act Constitution of India?
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 94th Amendment 2015 ratified the land boundary
(c) 93rd Amendment (d) 96th Amendment SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
agreement between India and
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(a) 297 (b) 248 (c) 245 (d) 226

Sol.189.(c) 93rd Amendment 2005. 95th Bangladesh.
(2009): Extended the reservation of seats Sol.197.(a) 40th amendment was
Q.193. The Government of National proposed to amend Article 297 of the
on

for the SCs and STs and special Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment)
representation for the Anglo-Indians in Constitution so as to provide that all
Bill, 2021, which was passed in March lands, minerals, and other things of value
the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
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2021 amended the Government of underlying the ocean within the exclusive
assemblies for a further period of ten
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National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, ___ economic zone of India and all other
years i.e., up to 2020 (Article 334). 96th SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning) resources of the exclusive economic
a

(2011): Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”. (a) 1998 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1991 zone of India shall also vest in the Union.
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Consequently, the “Oriya” language in the

Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as Sol.193.(d) 1991. Delhi became the Q.198. Which of the following
“Odia”. 94th (2006), made provisions for capital of India on 12 December 1911. Amendment Acts of the Constitution of
the appointment of a Minister in charge India abolished the privy purses and
of tribal welfare in the states of Q.194. Which of the following
Amendments of the Constitution of India privileges of former rulers of princely
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. states?
gave the status of state to Goa?
Q.190. Which Amendment to the SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constitution Act led to establishment of (a) 52nd Amendment (a) 25th Amendment Act 1971
National Judicial Appointments (b) 56th Amendment (b) 26th Amendment Act 1971
Commission in India ? (c) 59th Amendment (c) 28th Amendment Act 1972
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (d) 48th Amendment (d) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 99th Amendment Sol.198.(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971.
(c) 96th Amendment (d) 97th Amendment Sol.194.(b) 56th Amendment. The 59th
Amendment Act, 1988- It empowered the 25th Amendment Act 1971- Restrict
Sol.190.(b) 99th Amendment 2014. Central Government to impose property rights and compensation in
97th amendment 2011- It gave special Emergency in Punjab when deemed case the state takes over private
constitutional status and protection to all necessary. Under the amendment, the property. 28th Amendment Act 1972,
the cooperative societies (Part IX-B) President's rule can be extended up to abolished the special privileges of ICS
prevailing in India. three years. 48th Amendment Act officers and empowered the Parliament
passed in 1984 with respect to the State to determine their service conditions.
Q.191. Which of the following of Punjab, Parliament may pass any 27th Amendment Act 1971-
Constitutional Amendments incorporated resolution with respect to the Reorganisation of Mizoram into a Union

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 Pinnacle Polity
Territory with a legislature and council of Sol.201.(a) The idea of Fundamental and Quo-Warranto (by what authority or
ministers. Duties is inspired from the Constitution warrant).
of Russia. These were incorporated in
Q.199. Which amendment to the Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution Q.205. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution of India added a new subject by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Constitution prohibits providing of any
in the Union List called 'taxes on services’ Act, 1976 on the recommendations of religious instruction in the educational
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally institutions maintained by the State?
(a) 56th (b) 62nd (c) 78th (d) 88th 10 in number. The 86th Amendment Act SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of 2002 added another duty (Article (a) Article 29 (b) Article 28
Sol.199.(d) 88th constitutional (c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
51A(k)) related to providing educational
amendment 2003. 62nd Amendment
opportunities for children between the Sol.205.(b) Article 28. Other Important
Act, 1989 - Extend reservation for SCs
ages of 6 and 14. Articles of Fundamental Rights (Part III,
and STs and nomination of Anglo Indian
members in Parliament and State Q.202. Which of the following is NOT the Articles 12-35) : Article 29 - Protects the
Assemblies for another ten years i.e. up feature of Fundamental Duties provided cultural and educational rights of
to 2000. 78th Amendment Act, 1995 - under the Constitution of India? minorities in India. Article 30 - The
Place land reform acts and amendments SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 Rights of Minorities to establish and
to these acts under Schedule 9 of the (a) Duties are inspired from erstwhile administer educational institutions.
constitution. USSR Article 31 (Right to Property) - The 44th
(b) Duties are non- justiciable in nature Amendment Act of 1978 repealed it and
Q.200. Which of the following made it a constitutional right under
(c) Duties are enforceable by the law
Amendments of the Constitution of India Article 300A.
(d) Duties are intended to secure the
amended Article 19 and inserted

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country
provisions fully securing the Q.206. Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution contains

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constitutional validity of zamindari Sol.202.(c) Duties are enforceable by
abolition laws in general and certain the law. Fundamental Duties are a set of Fundamental Duties?
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)

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specified State Acts in particular? moral and ethical obligations that are
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) enshrined in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the (a) 32A (b) 45A (c) 62B (d) 51A
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(a) Fourth Amendment Constitution of India. These duties are Sol.206.(d) 51A. Fundamental Duties
(b) First Amendment non-justiciable, meaning they are not (Part IV - Article 51A): Ten duties were
(c) Third Amendment
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enforceable by any court of law (unlike included by the 42nd Amendment Act of
(d) Second Amendment Fundamental Rights). 1976 based on the Swaran Singh
Sol.200.(b) The First Amendment (1951) Q.203. Right of a prisoner to speedy trial Committee's recommendations, and the
TG

introduced provisions for advancing will be categorised in which of the 11th duty was added by the 86th
socially and educationally backward following Fundamental Rights? Amendment Act of 2002.
classes, SCs, and STs, added the Ninth SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
on

Q.207. A student, on his school

Schedule to secure zamindari abolition (a) Right against Exploitation assignment, is taking a session on how
laws, and allowed reasonable restrictions (b) Right to Life to make compost at home for using it at
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on freedom of speech (Article 19) by (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies a park. Which fundamental duty is he
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adding grounds such as public order, (d) Right to Equality performing?

friendly relations with foreign states, and SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
a

incitement to an offence. It also upheld Sol.203.(b) Right to Life. Speedy trial is

(a) To strive towards excellence in all
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the state’s right to nationalise businesses an inalienable right under Article 21 of

spheres of individual and collective
without violating the right to trade. the constitution and hence no person
activity
shall be deprived of his life and liberty
(b) To safeguard public property and to
Fundamental Rights and Duties without the procedure of law and the
abjure violence
procedure of law must be 'fair',
(c) To develop the scientific temper,
Q.201. Which of the following duties is 'reasonable', and 'just'.
humanism and the spirit of inquiry
specified as the 10th Fundamental Duty (d) To protect and improve the natural
Q.204. Which article has a similar
in the Indian Constitution? environment
provision to that of Article 32 and deals
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
with writ jurisdiction?
(a) To strive towards excellence in all Sol.207.(d) Fundamental Duty (Part IVA -
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
spheres of individual and collective Article 51A). Related Article: Article
(a) Article 227 (b) Article 228
activity 51A(g) - To protect and improve the
(c) Article 225 (d) Article 226
(b) To provide opportunities for natural environment. Article 51A (h): To
education to his child or as the case Sol.204.(d) Article 226. In India, writs are develop the scientific temper, humanism
may be, ward between the age of six issued by the Supreme Court under and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
and fourteen years Article 32 of the Constitution of India and Article 51A(i): To safeguard public
(c) To cherish and follow the noble ideals by the High Courts under Article 226 of property and to abjure violence; Article
which inspired our national struggle the Constitution of India. There are 5 51A(j): To strive towards excellence in all
for freedom types of writs issued in India - Habeas spheres of individual and collective
(d) To develop the scientific temper, Corpus (to have the body of), Mandamus activity so that the nation constantly
humanism and the spirit of inquiry (we command), Certiorari (to be certified rises to higher levels of endeavour and
and reform or to be informed), Prohibition (to forbid) achievement.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.208. Which Article in the fundamental national struggle for freedom; (c) to Sol.213.(b) Fundamental Rights is
duty applies, when a construction worker uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity derived from the Constitution of the USA.
takes his 8-year son to the site rather and integrity of India; (d) to defend the Enshrined in Part III (Article 12 to 35) of
than sending him to school? country and render national service when the Indian Constitution.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) called upon to do so.
(a) Article 51A (h) (b) Article 51A (k) Q.214. If a 12-year-old is found to be
(c) Article 51A (j) (d) Article 51A (i) Q.211. Which of the following Articles of working in a factory manufacturing
the Indian Constitution CANNOT be carpets, which of the following Articles
Sol.208.(b) Article 51A (k) states that suspended even during an emergency of the Constitution of India will be
"Who is a parent or guardian, to provide declared on the grounds of war or violated?
opportunities for education to his child external aggression ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
or, as the case may be, ward between the SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 24 (b) Article 25
age of six and fourteen years." It was (a) Articles 15 and 17 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 26
added by the 86th Amendment Act, (b) Articles 20 and 21
2002. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, (c) Articles 14 and 16 Sol.214.(a) Article 24 - “No child below
2009, makes education compulsory for (d) Articles 30 and 32 the age of fourteen years shall be
children between 6-14 years. Child labor employed to work in any factory or mine
is prohibited under the Child Labour Sol.211.(b) Articles 20 and 21. Article 14 or engaged in any other hazardous
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. - Equality before law. Article 15 - employment”. Other Articles: Article 23 -
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Q.209. Which of the following duties has of religion, race, caste, sex or place of forced labour. Article 25 - Freedom of
been NOT prescribed by the Indian birth. Article 16 - Equality of opportunity conscience and free profession, practice
Constitution as Fundamental Duties? in matters of public employment. Article

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and propagation of religion. Article 26 -
1. To defend the country 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. Article 20 Freedom to manage religious affairs.

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2. To pay income tax - Protection in respect of conviction for
3. To cast the vote in election offences. Article 21 - Protection of life Q.215. In which part of the Constitution

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4. To safeguard the public property and personal liberty. Article 30 - Right of will you find the six broad categories of
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) minorities to establish and administer Fundamental Rights?
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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only educational institutions. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) 2 and 3 both (d) 2 and 4 both (a) Part I (b) Part IV (c) Part II (d) Part III
Q.212. Which fundamental duty applies
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Sol.209.(c) 2 and 3 both. Fundamental to you when you see your college friends Sol.215.(d) Part III (Articles 12 to 35).
duties were incorporated into the start fighting with the canteen person Six broad categories of Fundamental
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional when he passes a few anti-religious Rights : Right to Equality (Articles 14-18),
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Amendment Act of 1976 on the statements? Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22), Right
recommendations of the Swaran Singh SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) against Exploitation (Articles 23-24),
Committee. Article 51-A (d) states the (a) To promote harmony and spirit of Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles
on

duty to defend the country and render brotherhood 25-28), Cultural and Educational Rights
national service when called upon to do (b) To value and preserve the rich (Articles 29-30), Right to Constitutional
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so, while Article 51-A (i) emphasises the heritage Remedies (Article 32).
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duty to safeguard public property and (c) To develop the scientific temper, Q.216. Writ of Mandamus is a
abjure violence. humanism, and the spirit of inquiry
a

Fundamental Right classifiable under:

(d) To protect and improve our natural
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Q.210. Which fundamental duty applies SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
environment (a) cultural and educational rights
on you when you see a few school
students, on their educational trip to (b) the right to freedom of religion
Sol.212.(a) This fundamental duty
Humayun’s tomb, writing their names on (c) constitutional remedies
encourages citizens to maintain harmony
the walls? (d) the right to equality
and foster a spirit of brotherhood among
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) all people, transcending religious, Sol.216.(c) Constitutional remedies.
(a) To safeguard public property linguistic, or regional differences. It Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article
(b) To defend the country and render applies in situations where religious 32) : This allows Indian citizens to
national service sentiments might cause conflicts. approach the Supreme Court to enforce
(c) To uphold and protect the their fundamental rights. B.R. Ambedkar
sovereignty, unity and integrity of Q.213. Which of the following
described it as the "heart and soul" of the
India statements is INCORRECT regarding
Constitution. The writ in the Indian
(d) To protect and improve the natural Fundamental Rights?
Constitution is borrowed from England.
environment SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
There are five types of writs : ‘Habeas
(a) Fundamental Rights can be enforced
Sol.210.(a) To safeguard public Corpus’, ‘Mandamus’, ‘Prohibition’ ,
by Law.
property. Article 51A —It shall be the duty ‘Certiorari’ , and ‘Quo Warranto’ .
(b) Fundamental rights are derived from
of every citizen of India—(a) to abide by the Britain Constitution. Q.217. Which of the following Articles
the Constitution and respect its ideals (c) The Fundamental Rights are prohibits traffic in human beings and
and institutions, the National Flag and mentioned in the constitution from forced labour ?
the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and article 12 to 35. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
follow the noble ideals which inspired our (d) Article 21 provides the right to life. (a) Article 25 (b) Article 23
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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 28 by the Constitution and respecting its 1) The 44th amendment Act introduced
ideals, as well as the National Flag and Fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Sol.217.(b) Article 23. National Anthem. Cherishing and 2) Fundamental Duties were expanded by
Article 22 - Protection against arrest and following the noble ideals that inspired the 86th amendment act.
detention in certain cases. Article 24 - India's struggle for freedom. Upholding 3) Article 51A (a) entails respect for its
Prohibition of employment of children in and protecting the sovereignty, unity, and ideals and institutions, national flag and
factories, etc. Article 25 - Freedom of integrity of India. Defending the country the national anthem.
conscience and free profession, practice and serving the nation when required. 4) Fundamental Duty obliges parents to
and propagation of religion. Article 28 - provide opportunities for education to
Freedom as to attendance at religious Q.221. ___________ has called the Right their child between 6-14 years of age.
instruction or religious worship in certain to Constitutional Remedy as the ‘Soul of SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
educational institutions. the Constitution’. (a) 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.218. Which Clause of Article 20 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.224.(a) 1. The 44th Constitutional
incorporates the doctrine of double (b) Lala Lajpat Rai Amendment Act of 1978 was enacted to
jeopardy? (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak undo many changes made by the 42nd
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (d) Dr. BR Ambedkar Amendment during the Emergency in
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 India. Key provisions include restoring
Sol.221.(d) Dr. BR Ambedkar - the chief judicial review, protecting civil liberties,
Sol.218.(b) 2. Double Jeopardy is a legal architect of the Indian Constitution.
term and it means that a person can not and ensuring that the right to property is
Article 32 grants every individual the right no longer a fundamental right but a legal
be punished for the same offence more to move the Supreme Court for the
than once. Article 20(2) of the right.
enforcement of their fundamental rights.

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Constitution of India and Section 300 of The Supreme Court has ruled that Article Q.225. How many fundamental duties
the Criminal Procedure Code say that no

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32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. were recommended to be inserted in the
person shall be prosecuted and punished Indian Constitution by the Swarna Singh
for the same offence more than once. Q.222. Certiorari comes under the:

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Committee?
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.219. Article 20 of the Constitution of (a) right to religious freedom
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(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
India is related to _____. (b) right to constitutional remedies
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) right against exploitation Sol.225.(d) 8. The idea of Fundamental
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(a) equality of opportunities in matters of (d) right to equality Duties (Article 51-A) is inspired from the
public employment Constitution of the USSR (Russia). These
(b) protection in respect of conviction for Sol.222.(b) right to constitutional were incorporated in Part IV-A of the
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offenses remedies. Certiorari is a writ issued by Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional

(c) freedom to manage religious affairs the Supreme Court or a High Court to Amendment Act, 1976.
(d) abolition of titles review the decision or action of a lower
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court or tribunal. Article 32 of the Indian Q.226. A ________ is issued to prevent an

Sol.219.(b) Article 20 provides three key Constitution is a fundamental right that inferior court or tribunal from exceeding
protections: Ex-Post Facto Laws: No its jurisdiction, which is not legally
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guarantees the right to constitutional

punishment for acts not punishable at vested, or acting without jurisdiction or
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remedies. This right allows individuals to

the time they were committed, nor seek redressal from the judiciary when acting against the principles of natural
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penalties exceeding those in force. their fundamental rights are violated. justice.
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Self-Incrimination: Individuals cannot be SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)

compelled to confess or make Q.223. _______ Fundamental Duties were (a) writ of quo-warranto
self-harming statements; includes the added in Part-IV of the Constitution (b) writ of habeas corpus
right to remain silent. under Article 51-A in the year 1976 (c) writ of prohibition
Double Jeopardy: No one can be through the 42nd Constitutional (d) writ of mandamus
punished twice for the same offense. Amendment.
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.226.(c) Writ of prohibition. The
Q.220. Which of the following Articles of (a) Nine (b) Eight (c) Ten (d) Twelve Supreme Court and High Courts in India
the Constitution states that ‘It shall be have the power to issue the writs under
the duty of every citizen of India to Sol.223.(c) Ten. The Swaran Singh Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article
promote harmony and the spirit of Committee in 1976 recommended 226 (High Courts) of the Constitution,
common brotherhood amongst all the Fundamental Duties, the necessity of respectively. The Constitution of India
people of India transcending religious, which was felt during the internal provides for five types of writs: Habeas
linguistic and regional or sectional emergency of 1975-77. The 11th Corpus (To have the body), Mandamus
diversities; to renounce practices Fundamental Duty, which is the provision (We Command), Prohibition (To forbid),
derogatory to the dignity of women.’? of educational opportunities for children Certiorari (To be certified), and Quo
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) between the ages of six and fourteen Warranto (By what authority).
(a) 51 A (b) (b) 51 A (c) years, was added by the 86th
(c) 51 A (e) (d) 51 A (d) Amendment Act of 2002. Q.227. A housemaid gets her 12-year-old
daughter to help in her work as a house
Sol.220.(c) 51 A (e). Fundamental Q.224. Which of the following cleaner at a residential colony instead of
Duties, outlined in Part IVA, Article 51A of statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis sending her to school. Which
the Indian Constitution, include: Abiding Fundamental Duties?
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 Pinnacle Polity
fundamental duty is violated by the individual the right to move the Supreme by the Constitution and respect its ideals
housemaid ? Court for the enforcement of their and institutions, the National Flag and
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) fundamental rights. The five types of the National Anthem; (c) to uphold and
(a) To provide opportunities for writs that can be issued in India are: protect the sovereignty, unity and
education to his/her child Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, integrity of India; (f) to value and
(b) To promote harmony and the spirit of Prohibition, Quo-warranto. preserve the rich heritage of our
common brotherhood composite culture. Article 49 - Protection
(c) To defend the country and render Q.231. Which of the following of monuments and places and objects of
national service Fundamental Rights has been deleted national importance.
(d) To safeguard public property and to from the original list of fundamental
rights provided in the Constitution of Q.234. Which of the following is NOT
abjure violence
India? mentioned in fundamental duties
Sol.227.(a) To provide opportunities for SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) provided under the Indian Constitution ?
education to his/her child. Fundamental (a) Right to property SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
duty (Part IV-A, Article 51-A) incorporated (b) Cultural and educational rights (a) To safeguard public property
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (c) Right to constitutional remedies (b) To develop scientific temper
Act, 1976 on the recommendations of (d) Right to freedom of religion (c) To join Defence forces
the Swaran Singh Committee. It (d) To respect the national flag
mandates that parents should provide Sol.231.(a) Right to property. It was
deleted by the 44th Constitutional Sol.234.(c) To join Defence forces. The
educational opportunities for their
amendment act 1978 from the list of Fundamental Duties, listed in Part IVA
children between the ages of six and
Fundamental Rights (FR) and was listed (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution,
fourteen years (added by the 86th
under Article 300A as a legal right in Part were added by the 42nd Amendment in

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Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).
XII. 1976 based on the Swaran Singh

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Q.228. Citizens are NOT discriminated Committee's recommendations. Initially
against on the basis of religion, caste or Q.232. Which of the following there were 10 fundamental duties, and by
Fundamental Rights is available for

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sex because of: the 86th Amendment of 2002 one more
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Indians as well as foreigners? fundamental duty (to provide right to
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
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(a) Right to Freedom education to all children of the age of 6
(b) Right against Exploitation (a) Right to protection of language, script to 14 years) was added.
and culture of minorities
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(c) Right to Freedom of Religion Q.235. Which writ literally means 'what
(d) Right to Equality (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment is your authority’?
Sol.228.(d) Right to Equality. (c) Right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
TG

The Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles administer educational institutions (a) Quo-Warranto (b) Prohibition
12-35). Right to equality (Articles 14–18). (d) Right to elementary education (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Mandamus
Article 14: Equality before the law. Article
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Sol.232.(d) Right to elementary Sol.235.(a) Quo-Warranto. The Supreme

15: Prohibition of discrimination on Court and High Courts in India have the
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or education. Fundamental rights available
power to issue writs under Article 32 and
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place of birth. Article 16: Equality of to both citizens and foreigners (except
Article 226 of the Constitution,
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opportunity in public employment. Article enemy aliens) include: Article 14, Article
20, Article 21, Article 21A, Article 22, respectively. Five types of writs - Habeas
17: Abolition of untouchability. Article 18:
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Article 23, Article 24, Article 25, Article Corpus (To have the body); Mandamus
Prohibition of titles, except for military or
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26, Article 27, and Article 28. (We Command); Prohibition (To forbid);
academic distinctions. Certiorari (To be certified).
Fundamental Rights Available Only to
Q.229. How many Fundamental Rights Citizens of India: Article 15, Article 16, Q.236. The original constitution did NOT
were initially provided in the Constitution Article 19, Article 29, and Article 30. mention any fundamental duty because:
of India? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.233. All historical monuments have
signages with instructions that public (a) initially fundamental duties were not
(a) Seven (b) Eight (c) Nine (d) Six expected to be performed
should not write on the walls. To which
Sol.229.(a) Seven. Currently there are 6 fundamental duty does the given (b) initially fundamental duties were
Fundamental Rights in the Indian statement belong? punishable as per the constitution
Constitution. The 44th Amendment of SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) it was expected that the citizens of
1978 removed the right to property from (a) To defend the country and render the country would perform their
the list of fundamental rights, making it a national service duties willingly
legal right under Article 300A. (b) To safeguard public property and to (d) it was expected that the citizens of
abjure violence the country would perform their
Q.230. ______ of the Constitution of India (c) To develop the scientific temper duties forcefully
has provisions for legal enforcement of (d) To promote harmony and spirit of Sol.236.(c) The fundamental duties were
the fundamental rights. common brotherhood incorporated in Part IV-A of our
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
constitution through the 42nd
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 19 Sol.233.(b) Fundamental Duties outline
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. At
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 28 the responsibilities of every citizen of
present, there are eleven fundamental
India. These duties include: (a) to abide
Sol.230.(a) Article 32. It grants every duties under article 51 A of the
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 Pinnacle Polity
constitution. Q.240. If a person who is arrested, is added by which Amendment?
NOT produced before the Magistrate Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Q.237. Which of the following is NOT a (a) 42nd Amendment 1976
within 24 hours from the time of arrest,
fundamental duty of an Indian citizen? (b) 86th Amendment 2002
he will be entitled to be released on the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) 84th Amendment 2000
writ of ________.
(a) To uphold and protect the (d) 44th Amendment 1978
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
India Sol.243.(b) 86th Amendment 2002.
(c) Quo-warranto (d) Mandamus
(b) To safeguard public property and to Fundamental Duties (Part IV A, Article
abjure violence Sol.240.(a) Habeas Corpus. 51A): The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
(c) To vote in public elections The Supreme Court and High Courts in added the first 10 Fundamental Duties to
(d) To value and preserve the rich India have the power to issue writs under the Indian Constitution, following the
heritage of our composite culture Article 32 and Article 226 of the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Constitution, respectively. Five types of Committee. The 11th Fundamental Duty
Sol.237.(c) To vote in public elections.
writs - Habeas Corpus (To have the states that parents and guardians must
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added
body); Mandamus (We Command); provide opportunities for education to
10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Prohibition (To forbid); Certiorari (To be their children between the ages of six
Constitution, based on the
certified) and Quo Warranto (By what and fourteen.
recommendations of the Swaran Singh
authority).
Committee. The 86th Amendment Act of Q.244. Which Article of the Indian
2002 introduced the 11th Fundamental Q.241. The concept of limited Constitution mentions that every
Duty, requiring parents or guardians to government is a major advancement to religious denomination or section shall
provide educational opportunities to protect the _______ of the citizens from have the right to own and acquire

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children aged 6 to 14. These duties are the ruling governments. movable and immovable property?

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outlined in Article 51A, under Part IV-A. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Article 26(c) (b) Article 26(d)
(a) separation of power (c) Article 26(b) (d) Article 26(a)
Q.238. Abolition of titles is mentioned in

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which Article of the Indian Constitution? (b) fundamental duties
(c) fundamental rights Sol.244.(a) Article 26(c). Article 26 of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) the Constitution of India guarantees the
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(a) Article 24 (b) Article 18 (d) check and balance
freedom to manage religious affairs as a
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 13 Sol.241.(c) fundamental rights are fundamental right, part of the right to
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Sol.238.(b) Article 18 - Abolition of enshrined in Part III of the Constitution religion outlined in Articles 25 to 28.
titles—(1) No title, not being a military or (Articles 12-35). Right to equality Articles 26 - This freedom is subject to
(Articles 14–18); Right to freedom public order, morality, and health,
TG

academic distinction, shall be conferred

by the State. (2) No citizen of India shall (Articles 19–22); Right against allowing every religious denomination or
accept any title from any foreign State. exploitation (Articles 23–24); Right to any section thereof the right to: (a)
freedom of religion (Articles 25–28); establish and maintain institutions for
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Other important Articles: Article 13: Laws

inconsistent with or in derogation of the Cultural and educational rights (Articles religious and charitable purposes, (b)
fundamental rights. Article 23: 29–30); Right to constitutional remedies manage its own affairs in matters of
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Prohibition of traffic in human beings and (Article 32).The Right to property (Article religion, (c) own and acquire movable
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forced labour. Article 24: Prohibition of 31) was removed by the 44th and immovable property, and (d)
Amendment Act, 1978, and is now a legal administer such property according to
a

employment of children in factories, etc.

right under Article 300-A. law.
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Q.239. Article 21 is related to which of

the following fundamental rights? Q.242. Which of the following articles Q.245. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) guarantees the Right to Equality before Constitution mentions that ‘No person
(a) Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs the Law and the Right to Equal Protection shall be prosecuted and punished for the
(b) Protection of Language, Culture of of the Laws ? same offence more than once’?
Minorities Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(c) Protection of Life and Personal (a) Article 14 (b) Article 16 (a) Article 20(3) (b) Article 20(2)
Liberty (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15 (c) Article 20(4) (d) Article 20(1)
(d) Freedom of Speech Sol.242.(a) Article 14. The right to Sol.245.(b) Article 20(2). This clause is
Sol.239.(c) Protection of Life and equality (Articles 14–18) is a known as the doctrine of "double
Personal Liberty. Fundamental Rights fundamental right (Part III , Articles jeopardy," which ensures that no
(Part III) : Right to Equality (Article 14 - 12-35). Article 15 prohibits individual is tried twice for the same
18), Right to Freedom (Article 19 - 22), discrimination against citizens on the crime. Other clauses: Article 20(1) : This
Right against Exploitation (23 - 24), Right grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or provision ensures that a person cannot
to Freedom of Religion (Article 25 - 28), place of birth. Article 16 provides for be convicted of any offense which was
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article equality of opportunity for all citizens in not in force at the time. Article 20(3)
29 - 30), Article 31 (now repealed) - matters of employment. Article 17 ensures that no person accused of an
Saving of Certain Laws related to abolishes the practice of untouchability offense shall be compelled to be a
property rights, Right to Constitutional in any form. witness against themselves.
Remedies (Article 32). Q.243. The 11th Fundamental Duty was Q.246. Which Committee had suggested

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 Pinnacle Polity
a penalty or punishment for the non - (a) It provides freedom to manage SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
performance of Fundamental Duties ? religious affairs. (a) To establish a welfare state
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 (b) It provides freedom of worship. (b) To have an absolute independence
(a) Indira Gandhi Committee (c) It is mentioned in Articles 25 to 28. (c) To promote economic justice
(b) Morarji Desai Committee (d) It mentions that the state has its own (d) To establish political democracy
(c) Verma Committee religion.
(d) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.253.(d) To establish political
Sol.250.(d) The Right to Freedom of democracy. The fundamental rights in
Sol.246.(d) Swaran Singh Committee. Religion (Fundamental Right under Part the Indian Constitution aim to build a
The Swaran Singh Committee III) - Article 25 - Freedom of conscience democratic society by safeguarding
recommended that the duty to pay taxes and free profession, practice and individual liberty, equality, and protection
to be included in the fundamental duties. propagation of religion. Article 26 - against discrimination based on race,
The committee also recommended that Freedom to manage religious affairs. caste, sex, religion, or birthplace.
the legislatures should prescribe a law Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of
for imposing a penalty for violation of the taxes for promotion of any particular Q.254. Fundamental duties are ______
duties. But these recommendations were religion. Article 28 - Freedom as to and not enforceable by law but are taken
not included in Article 51A. attendance at religious instruction or into account by the courts while
religious worship in certain educational adjudicating any matter.
Q.247. Which Article of the Constitution institutions. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
clarifies that policies like 'reservation' is (a) regulatory (b) non - statutory
not a violation of the right to equality? Q.251. Which statement is FALSE (c) statutory (d) common
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) regarding fundamental rights mentioned
(a) Article 16 (4) (b) Article 15 (2) in the Indian Constitution ? Sol.254.(c) Statutory. Fundamental Duties

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(c) Article 14 (1) (d) Article 21 SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (Part IVA, Article 51A):- Adopted from the
Constitution of Russia (erstwhile Soviet

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(a) Only Article 20 and 21 can be
Sol.247.(a) Article 16 (4). Article 15 (2) - suspended during emergency Union). Fundamental duties - Non -
No citizen shall, on grounds only of justiciable in nature.

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(b) They are justiciable
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, (c) Some fundamental rights are
be subject to any disability, liability, Q.255. Which of the following Articles of
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negative in nature the Indian Constitution mentions the
restriction or condition with regard to. (d) Can be suspended during emergency
Article 21 - Protection of life and fundamental duty "sovereignty, unity and
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personal liberty. Sol.251.(a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 integrity of India" is mentioned ?
limits the scope of Article 359 SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
Q.248. What is the purpose of the (suspension of the enforcement of the (a) Article 51A (b) (b) Article 51A (e)
TG

Cultural and Educational Rights? rights conferred by Part III during (c) Article 51A (c) (d) Article 51A (d)
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) emergencies). All fundamental rights
(a) To promote a particular religion Sol.255.(c) Article 51A(c). The 42nd
except articles 20 and 21 can be
on

(b) To protect the language, culture, and Amendment Act of 1976 added 10
suspended only on the basis of National Fundamental Duties to the Indian
religion of the minority communities Emergency (Article 352). Constitution and created Part IVA.
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(c) To protect the majority community

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(d) To prevent exploitation Q.252. The celebration of Christmas, Eid

and Holi in school is an example of Committee Reports
a

Sol.248.(b) Cultural and Educational making children learn fundamental

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Right (Article 29 - 30) : Article 29 - duties as well. Which of the following Q.256. The central bank of India or
Guarantees the Protection of Interests of fundamental duties advocates about this Reserve Bank of India was created
Minorities. Article 30 - Guarantees the type of ideals ? before Independence, in the year 1934.
right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) The recommendation to create a central
administer educational institutions of (a) To defend the country and render bank was made by a commission called:
their choice. national service SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(b) To develop the scientific temper (a) Dr. Raja Chelliah Committee
Q.249. Which of the following is
(c) To safeguard public property and to (b) Kothari Commission
enforceable by the Indian Constitution?
abjure violence (c) Narasimham Committee
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(d) To promote harmony and spirit of (d) Hilton Young Commission
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental rights common brotherhood
Sol.256.(d) Hilton Young Commission. It
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy Sol.252.(d) Fundamental Duties: Part is also known as the Royal Commission
(d) Fundamental duties IV-A of the Indian constitution in Article on Indian Currency and Finance, was
51A. Article 51A(e) refers to the duty of established in 1926. The Reserve Bank of
Sol.249.(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III,
every citizen to promote harmony and India (RBI) is India's central bank and
Articles 12-35).
the spirit of common brotherhood regulatory body overseeing the Indian
Q.250. Which of the following amongst all the people of India. ' banking system. It manages the control,
statements is FALSE about the right to issuance, and supply of the Indian rupee.
freedom of religion mentioned in the Q.253. What is the aim of fundamental The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was
Indian Constitution ? rights mentioned in the Indian established on April 1, 1935, in
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) Constitution ? accordance with the provisions of the

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 Pinnacle Polity
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of Commission was formed in 2017 due to
the Indian Constitution. However, at the the supreme court’s order in the all India
Q.257. Which committee recommended time of incorporation, ten duties were judges association case, under article 32,
Constitutional recognition for the local added to Part IV-A by the 42nd i.e., constitutional remedies. Justice
government bodies in 1989? Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Verma Committee was constituted to
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Initially, there were 10 duties, and one recommend amendments to the Criminal
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee more was added by the 86th Law so as to provide for quicker trial and
(b) PK Thungon Committee Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, enhanced punishment for criminals
(c) Balwant Rai Committee making a total of 11 duties. accused of committing sexual assault
(d) Verma Committee against women. The Committee
Q.260. Which of the following submitted its report on January 23, 2013.
Sol.257.(b) P.K. Thungan Committee committees was associated with
recommended a constitutional Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry? Q.263. Which report is NOT associated
amendment for regular elections, SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) with Fundamental Rights?
specific functions, and funding for local (a) Hazari Committee (b) Sen Committee SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
government institutions. Ashok Mehta (c) Gadgil Committee (d) Dutt Committee (a) Tej Bahadur Sapru Report
Committee: It was set up in 1977 by the
(b) Motilal Nehru Report
Janata government, studied the Sol.260.(d) Dutt Committee. The Hazari
(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
Panchayat Raj system in India. Balwant Committee was a committee in India that
(d) JB Kripalani Report
Rai Mehta Committee: It recommended studied the industrial licensing procedure
decentralizing power and functions at the under the Industries (Development and Sol.263.(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
divisional and sub-divisional levels. Regulation) Act, 1951. Abhijit Sen - This Commission is to examine and
Justice Verma Committee: It was formed Committee (2002) - Long Term Food review the working of the existing

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to suggest changes to criminal law for Policy. The Gadgil commission was arrangements between the Union and

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faster trials and tougher punishments for formed to study the impact of population States as per the Constitution of India.
those accused of sexual assault against pressure, climate change and Tej Bahadur Sapru Report (1945) - It

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women. development activities on the Western related to political and civil rights of the
Ghats. minorities.
Q.258. Which of the following
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commissions/committees identified the Q.261. In November 2022, the Supreme Q.264. Rangarajan Committee is
existence of legal provisions for Court upheld the 10% reservation of EWS associated with _______.
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implementation of some of the quota. This EWS reservation was granted SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
Fundamental Duties? on the basis of recommendations from (a) Election reforms
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) which of the following commissions ?
TG

(b) Educational reform

(a) Vasantrao Naik Committee SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) (c) Environmental protection
(b) Sarkaria Commission (a) Sarkaria commission (d) Estimation of poverty
(c) Rajamannar Commission (b) Kelkar commission
on

(d) Justice Verma Committee (c) Mandal commission Sol.264.(d) Estimation of poverty.
(d) Sinho commission Rangarajan Committee - To Review the
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Sol.258.(d) Justice Verma Committee. Methodology for Measurement of

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The committee was set up in 1999. It Sol.261.(d) Sinho commission: Poverty in the country constituted by the
identified the existence of following legal Constituted in 2005, and submitted its Planning Commission in June 2012 has
a

provisions - Prevention of Insults to report in 2010. In 2019, the Cabinet submitted its report on 30th June 2014.
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National Honour Act (1971), Protection decided to amend the Constitution As per the report submitted by C
of Civil Right Act (1955), Representation (103rd Amendment) to provide Rangarajan Committee: Persons
of People Act (1951), Wildlife Protection reservation to EWS. Sarkaria spending below Rs. 47 a day in cities
Act (1972) and Forest Conservation Act Commission (1983) - Reviewed should be considered poor. Committee
(1980). center-state relations. Kelkar related to poverty: Planning Commission
Commission (1953) - Also known as the Expert Group (1962), VM Dandekar and N
Q.259. Which of the following First Backward Classes Commission. Rath committee (1971), Y.K. Alagh
committees had recommended the Mandal Commission (1979) - The Committee (1979), Lakdawala
inclusion of a chapter on the Second Socially and Educationally Committee (1993), Suresh Tendulkar
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution Backward Classes Commission. Committee (2005).
of India and stressed that the citizens
should become conscious that, in Q.262. Which of the following persons Q.265. Which of the following
addition to the enjoyment of rights, they was appointed Chairman of the Second commissions recommended that “the
also have certain duties to perform ? National Judicial Pay Commission? appointment of Governor should be non -
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) partisan” ?
(a) JR Varma Committee (1996) (a) Justice PV Reddi SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) (b) Justice JS Verma (a) Fazal Ali Commission
(c) Swaran Singh Committee (1976) (c) Justice R Basant (b) Rajmannar commission
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1976) (d) Justice AS Anand (c) Sarkaria commission
(d) Mandal commission
Sol.259.(c) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.262.(a) Justice PV Reddi. The
(1976) originally recommended eight second National judicial Pay Sol.265.(c) Sarkaria commission (1983).

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 Pinnacle Polity
The States Reorganisation Commission Minister Morarji Desai. It was headed by (a) four (b) two (c) three (d) one
(Fazal Ali Commission, 1953). Rajmannar BP Mandal.
Sol.272.(d) one. Parliamentary
commission set up by the then DMK
committees are of two types—Standing
Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under Parliament Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
the Chairmanship of Dr P.V. Rajamanar.
Standing Committees are permanent and
Q.266. Constitution Review Commission Q.269. Which of the following options is function on a continuous basis. In
chaired by______recommended some the legislative organ of the Union contrast, Ad Hoc Committees are
initiatives to be taken by the government government? temporary and cease to exist once they
for successful implementation of SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) complete the task assigned to them.
Fundamental Duties. (a) Judiciary (b) Legislative assembly Examples - The Joint Committee on
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) (c) Executive (d) Parliament Bofors Contract and the Joint Committee
(a) PK Joshi (b) MN Venkatachaliah on Fertilizer Pricing.
Sol.269.(d) Parliament. The Indian
(c) UC Banerjee (d) Michael G Aguinaldo
Parliament is a bicameral legislature, Q.273. Which of the following
consisting of two houses : the Lok Sabha statements are correct regarding State
Sol.266.(b) MN Venkatachaliah
(House of the People) and the Rajya Legislatures?
Commission was set up by Government
Sabha (Council of States), along with the A. Notwithstanding anything in part XVII,
resolution in 2000 to Review the Working
President. The three organs of the Union but subject to the provisions of Article
of the Constitution. He got Padma
Government of India are the legislative, 348, business in the Legislature of a
Vibhushan In 2004. Justice U.C.Banerjee
executive (Implements the laws enacted State shall be transacted in the official
headed the Commission report on
by the legislature), and judiciary language or languages of the State or in
Godhra incident.
(interprets the laws made by Parliament). Hindi or in English.

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Q.267. How many members are there in B. The Speaker of the Legislative
Q.270. Which of the following is NOT a
the Committee on Public Undertakings in

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Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative
device of parliamentary proceedings?
India? Council can permit any member to speak
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)

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in his mother tongue.
(a) Half - an - hour discussion
(a) 22 (b) 15 (c) 35 (d) 30 C. Only the Supreme Court is entitled to
(b) Zero - hour discussion
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inquire into the proceedings of the State
Sol.267.(a) 22. Financial Committees:- (c) Two - hour (short) discussion
Legislature.
Public Accounts Committee - 1921, (d) Full - day discussion
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
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Members (22) (15 from Lok Sabha and 7

Sol.270.(d) Full-day discussion. In (a) B and C only (b) A and C only
from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office (One
parliamentary proceedings, there are (c) A, B and C (d) A and B only
year), Function - to examine the annual
TG

various devices used to facilitate

audit reports of the Comptroller and Sol.273.(d) A and B only.
discussions and manage time effectively.
Auditor General of India (CAG). State Legislature is mentioned in Chapter
These include: Half-an-hour discussion -
Estimates Committee (Post III of Part VI (The States) of the Indian
on

A device used to discuss matters of

Independence) - 1950, Members (30) All Constitution. Related Articles: Article 178
urgent public importance. It usually lasts
from Lok Sabha , Term of Office (One - The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
for 30 minutes. Zero-hour discussion - A
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Year), Function - to examine the Legislative Assembly. Article 179 -

device where members can raise issues
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estimates included in the budget. Vacation and resignation of, and removal
without prior notice, typically after the
Committee on Public Undertakings – from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy
a

Question Hour, which allows for

1964, Members-22 (15 from Lok Sabha Speaker. Article 180 - Power of the
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unscheduled discussions. Two-hour

and 7 from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office Deputy Speaker or other person to
(short) discussion - This is also a formal
(One Year), Function – to examine the perform the duties of the office of, or to
discussion where specific issues are
reports and accounts of the Public act as, Speaker.
debated for two hours.
Sector Undertakings.
Q.274. In which year was the Jammu and
Q.271. Who has the power to regulate
Q.268. Which Commission recommended Kashmir Legislative Council abolished?
the right of citizenship in India ?
27% reservation for OBC candidates in all Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
levels of government services ? (a) 2018 (b) 2020 (c) 2019 (d) 2017
(a) Parliament (b) President
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
(c) Supreme Court (d) Governor Sol.274.(c) 2019. The Jammu & Kashmir
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Mandal Commission Legislative Council was abolished
Sol.271.(a) Parliament. Citizenship (Part
(c) Balwant Commission through the Jammu and Kashmir
II, Articles 5 to 11) : Article 5 - Citizenship
(d) Kothari Commission Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reduced
at the commencement of the
the State of Jammu and Kashmir to the
Constitution. Article 6 - Rights of
Sol.268.(b) The Mandal Commission Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir
citizenship of certain persons who have
(Second Backward Class Commission) and Ladakh. The Act also repealed
migrated to India from Pakistan. Article
recommended that members of OBCs be Article 370, which had granted Jammu
11 - Parliament to regulate the right of
given 27 percent reservations for jobs and Kashmir unique status.
citizenship by law.
under the Central government and public
sector undertakings. This commission Q.275. How many Members of
Q.272. The parliamentary standing
was established in India in 1979 by the Parliament were elected to the 17th Lok
committees have a tenure of _____ years.
Janata Party government under Prime Sabha from Odisha?
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 21 (d) 20 the Chairman of the Committee on the Sol.282.(c) 6 years. The Rajya Sabha is a
Functions of the Constituent Assembly permanent body and is not subject to
Sol.275.(c) 21.The 2024 Indian general of India. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar dissolution. However, one-third of its
election was held in Odisha in 4 phases has been conferred the title of 'Father of members retire every two years. The
from 13 May 2024 to 1 June 2024 to Lok Sabha' by Jawaharlal Nehru. M. A. Vice-President of India serves as the
elect 21 members of the 18th Lok Sabha. Ayyangar was the first deputy speaker of ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Bharatiya Janata Party clean sweeped the Lok Sabha. Meira Kumar was the first The House has a maximum of 250
the state by winning 20 out of 21 seats. woman speaker of Lok Sabha (2009 - members, with 238 elected members
Q.276. One-third of the members of the 2014). from states and union territories, and 12
State Legislature Council retire every nominated by the President.
Q.280. Which of the following options is
_____years. INCORRECT? Q.283. Who elects the Presiding Officer
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) In order to become a member of Vidhan (the speaker) in the State legislature?
(a) sixth (b) fourth (c) fifth (d) second Sabha, a person must: Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Sol.276.(d) Second. The Legislative Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Council of Minsters
Council (Vidhan Parishad) has a (a) have his/her name in the voters’ list (b) Members of Vidhan Sabha
permanent structure and is not subject to (b) have attained the age of 21 years (c) Member of Vidhan Parishad
dissolution. The Legislative Assembly (c) be a citizen of India (d) Chief Minster
(Vidhan Sabha) of a state consists of not (d) not hold any office of profit
Sol.283.(b) Members of Vidhan Sabha.
more than 500 and not less than 60 Sol.280.(b) The minimum age to be a There is a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan
members. It may be dissolved after five member of the Legislative Assembly ( Sabha) in every State. It represents the
years or earlier. Vidhan Sabha) is 25 years. Legislative people of the State. The members of

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Q.277. When a non-minister proposes a Assembly of a state consists of not more Vidhan Sabha are directly elected by

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bill, it is called : than 500 and not less than 60 members people on the basis of universal adult
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 franchise. The Speaker presides over the

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(a) Money Bill members vide Article 371F of the meetings of the House and conducts its
(b) Government Bill Constitution) chosen by direct election proceedings. He maintains order in the
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(c) Private Member’s Bill from territorial constituencies in the House, allows the members to ask
(d) Non - Money Bill state. questions and speak. Article 178 - The
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Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the

Sol.277.(c) Private Member’s Bill. It can Q.281. How many state Legislative Legislative Assembly.
be introduced only on Fridays. Money Council members are elected by
graduates of three years standing and Q.284. The First hour of a sitting of the
TG

Bill: This type of bill deals specifically

with financial matters, such as taxation residing within the state? House allotted for asking and answering
or government spending. Money bills are Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) of questions is called as __________ .
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
on

1 1 1 1
introduced by ministers only in the Lok (a) th (b) th (c) th (d) rd
Sabha. Government Bill: A bill introduced
4 6 12 3 (a) Censure motion (b) Zero hour
by a minister on behalf of the (c) Privilege motion (d) Question hour
Sol.281.(c) 1/12th. In the legislative
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government. It typically reflects the council, members are elected as follows:

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Sol.284.(d) Question hour. Censure

government's policies. One-sixth by the governor from motion - A motion to express
a

individuals with knowledge in science, disapproval of the conduct of the

Q.278. How many Lok Sabha seats are
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art, literature, the co-operative government or a minister. Zero hour - The

there for the state of Meghalaya?
movement, and social service; One-third first hour of a sitting of the House, when
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
by local body members (corporations, MPs can raise matters of urgent public
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
municipalities, and Zila Parishads); importance without notice. Privilege
Sol.278.(b) Two. Meghalaya has two Lok one-third shall be elected by the motion - A motion to protect the
Sabha seats, namely Shillong and Tura. members of the Legislative Assembly of privileges of the House or its members.
The state also has one Rajya Sabha seat. the State from amongst persons who are
Additionally, Meghalaya has 60 not members of the Assembly; Q.285. A money bill under Article 111 of
legislative assembly seats. Other states one-twelfth by graduates residing in the the Constitution of India, presented to
and their Lok Sabha seats: Manipur (2), state for three years; and One twelfth are the President for assent, has to be
Nagaland (1), Mizoram (1), Assam (14), elected by teachers who had spent at endorsed by a Certificate of the
Arunachal Pradesh (2), Tripura (2), least three years in teaching in ________signed by him/her that it is a
Sikkim (1). educational institutions within the state money bill.
not lower than secondary schools, SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.279. Who was the first speaker of the including colleges and universities. (a) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha after India’s Independence? (b) Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.282. Members of the Rajya Sabha are (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar elected for a term of how many years ? (d) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Meira Kumar Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(c) M Ananthasayanam (a) 5 years (b) 3 years Sol.285.(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) MA Ayyangar (c) 6 years (d) 4 years Articles related to Money Bill: Article 107
- Provisions as to introduction and
Sol.279.(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar was
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 Pinnacle Polity
passing of Bills. Article 108 - Joint sitting Question-hour, zero hour, calling attention or appropriation from and out of the
of both Houses in certain cases. Article motion, adjournment motion, censure Consolidated Fund of India
109 - Special procedure in respect of motion, and other discussions. B. Demand for Grants - Earmarking of
Money Bills. Article 110 - Definition of budgetary allocation for meeting only
Q.289. What is the maximum time gap
“Money Bills”. Article 197 - Restriction on planned expenditure of a
between two sessions of the State
powers of Legislative Council as to Bills Ministry/Department
Legislature ?
other than Money Bills. C. Short Duration Discussion - For raising
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
a discussion on a matter of urgent public
Q.286. After how many days of absence (a) Three months (b) Two months
importance for which a notice has to be
from Parliament without permission will (c) Six months (d) One year
given by a Member and supported by 50
a Member of Parliament be disqualified? Members.
Sol.289.(c) Six months. Article 174 (1) -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
The Governor shall from time to time
(a) 60 days (b) 30 days (a) A, B and C (b) B and C only
summon the House or each House of the
(c) 50 days (d) 20 days (c) A only (d) A and C only
State Legislature to meet at such time
Sol.286.(a) 60 days. Disqualifications of and place as he thinks fit. Article 85 (1)
Sol.292.(c) A only. Demand for Grants is
Members of parliament : Article 101 - of the Constitution empowers the
the form in which estimates of
Vacation of seats. Article 102 - President to summon and prorogue
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
Disqualifications for membership. Article either house of Parliament or to dissolve
(included in the annual financial
103 - Decision on questions as to the Lok Sabha. Three types of Sessions
statement and required to be voted upon
disqualifications of members. Article 104 in the Parliament of India: Budget
in the Lok Sabha) are submitted in
- Penalty for sitting and voting before session (February - May), Monsoon
pursuance of Article 113 of the
making oath or affirmation under article session (July - September) and Winter

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Constitution. Short Duration Discussion
99 or when not qualified or when session (November - December) are held
is a procedural device to enable

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disqualified. in a calendar year.
members to raise discussion on matters
Q.287. What is the bicameral legislature Q.290. When was the first general of urgent public importance without a

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of the Indian Constitution ? election for Lok Sabha held in India ? formal motion on a matter of urgent
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) public importance. The Speaker can allot
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(a) It is a legislative body with four (a) 1950 - 51 (b) 1949 - 50 two days in a week for such discussions.
houses. (c) 1948 - 49 (d) 1951 - 52
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Q.293. Which of the following can make

(b) It is a legislative body with two provisions for Ancillary powers of the
Sol.290.(d) 1951-52. First Lok Sabha:
houses. Supreme Court?
Jawaharlal Nehru (Indian National
(c) It is a legislative body with one house.
TG

Congress) became India’s first SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift)

(d) It is a legislative body with three (a) President of India
democratically elected Prime Minister.
houses. (b) Law Commission of India
18th Lok Sabha Election (2024):
on

Sol.287.(b) The bicameral legislature of Narendra Modi (Bharatiya Janata Party) (c) Minister of Law & Justice
the Indian Constitution refers to a became Prime Minister. Lok Sabha Seat: (d) Parliament of India
543 Parliamentary Constituencies (At
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legislative body with two houses: the Lok Sol.293.(d) Parliament of India. Ancillary
present). First Panchayati Raj Election in
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Sabha (House of the People) and the powers of the Supreme Court (Article
Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Lok India was held on 2nd of Oct 1959 in the
140): The Parliament, through legislation,
a

Sabha: The lower house, consisting of Nagaur district of Rajasthan.

can grant the Supreme Court additional
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directly elected members. Rajya Sabha: powers that are in line with the
Q.291. How long can a person remain a
The upper house, consisting of Constitution's provisions. These extra
minister without being a member of
representatives elected by the members powers should help the Court better fulfill
either House of the State Legislature ?
of the state legislative assemblies and by its constitutional jurisdiction. President
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
members of the Lok Sabha, along with of India : Articles 52 - 62 (Part V),
(a) 15 days (b) 6 months
nominated members. Parliament of India : Articles 79-122 (Part
(c) 1 year (d) 2 months
Q.288. What is the most powerful V), Supreme Court : Articles 124-147
Sol.291.(b) 6 months. Articles 163-164 (Part V).
weapon that enables the Parliament to
deals with the Council of Ministers (CoM)
ensure executive accountability ?
in states. The articles 75 (5) and 164 (4) Q.294. In India, during a meeting of the
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
state that a minister who for any period Legislative Assembly or Council, if there
(a) Approval or refusal of laws
of six consecutive months is not a is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the
(b) The no-confidence motion
member of either house of Parliament or ________ to adjourn the House or suspend
(c) Confirmation of treaties
state legislature respectively shall cease the meeting.
(d) Deliberation and discussion
to be such minister at the expiration of Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Sol.288.(b) The no-confidence motion. It that period. (a) Chairman/Governor
moved in the Lok Sabha (and not in the (b) Speaker/Chairman
Q.292. Which of the following pairs (c) Governor/Chief Minister
Rajya Sabha) to test the confidence of
is/are correctly matched regarding the (d) Speaker/Chief Minister
the government. It needs the support of
terminology used in the Parliament?
50 members to be admitted. Other ways
A. Appropriation Bill - A Money Bill Sol.294.(b) Speaker/Chairman. Article
to ensure executive accountability:
passed for providing for the withdrawal 100 - Voting in Houses, power of

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 Pinnacle Polity
Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies Sol.298.(b) 17 April 1952. The First Lok Sol.301.(d) Long Notice Question.
and quorum. Quorum - It refers to the Sabha lasted for a full five years tenure Starred Questions are those for which an
number of members that must be and was dissolved on 4 April 1957. oral answer is expected. Non-starred
present for a house meeting to take Article 79 of the Constitution deals with questions are those for which a written
place. Article 189 (3) - The quorum to the Parliament consisting of the reply is expected. Short notice questions
constitute a meeting of the state President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. are those which are asked on matters of
legislature shall be ten members or First Lok Sabha Speaker - GV Mavlankar. urgent public importance and can be
one-tenth of the total number of asked on a shorter notice, less than 10
members of the house whichever is Q.299. Who runs the government at the days.
greater. national level under the parliamentary
system? Q.302. Which of the following is called
Q.295. A Money Bill should be returned SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) 'the temple of the country's democracy'?
to the Lok Sabha within ___ days by Rajya (a) The President and Council of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
Sabha, either with recommendations or Ministers (a) Raj Ghat (b) Supreme Court
without recommendations. (b) The Prime Minister and Council of (c) Ashok Pillar (d) Parliament
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Ministers
(a) 8 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 10 (c) The Prime Minister Sol.302.(d) Parliament (Article 79)
(d) The President consists of the President (Article 52),
Sol.295.(c) 14. Money Bill (Article 110) - Council of States (Article 80 - Rajya
It is involved with tax collection, public Sol.299.(b) The Prime Minister and the Sabha) and House of the People (Article
expense bills, and other significant costs Council of Ministers run the 81 - Lok Sabha).
associated with running the government. Parliamentary system (cabinet system or
Money Bill Types - Financial Bill and the Responsible government, Prime Q.303. The state legislative assembly

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Appropriation Bill. The Speaker has the Minister Model) at the National level. has a strength of ____, with exceptions
for smaller states.

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authority to determine whether or not a Articles 74 and 75 (Part V) provide the
specific bill is a money bill. parliamentary system for the centre. SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) 600 to 1000 (b) 60 to 500

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Article 163 and 164 (Part VI) provides the
Q.296. Archana wishes to contest for parliamentary system for the states. (c) 50 to 400 (d) 10 to 100
Lok Sabha elections in India. What is the
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maximum limit of constituencies that Q.300. The Constitution provides for Sol.303.(b) 60 and 500 members .
can she contest? reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and However an exception may be granted in
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SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) State Legislative Assemblies for the: the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and
(a) One (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) the union territory of Puducherry which
(a) scheduled tribes have fewer than 60 members. Maximum
TG

Sol.296.(d) Two. Candidates were (b) other backward classes seats (Uttar Pradesh; 403) and least
allowed to contest more than Two seats (c) differently abled number of seats (Puducherry; 30).
until 1996. As per, Section 33 (7) of the (d) women
on

RPA (Representation of the People Act) Q.304. According to the Indian

1951, one candidate can contest from a Sol.300.(a) Scheduled tribes. Constitution, the House of People shall
consist of not more than ______ members
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maximum of two constituencies. Section Article 366(25) of the Constitution deals

to represent the Union territories.
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70 bars candidates from representing with Scheduled Tribes. There are over
two constituencies in the Lok 705 tribes which have been notified. The SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
a

Sabha/state, which means candidates largest number of tribal communities are (a) thirty (b) twenty
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have to vacate one seat in case of found in Odisha. Related Committees to (c) fifteen (d) Thirty-five
winning both the seats. Schedule tribes: Xaxa Committee (2013), Sol.304.(b) Twenty. The Lok Sabha is
Bhuria Commission (2002-2004), Lokur composed of representatives of people
Q.297. What is the term of the State Committee (1965). The Fifth Schedule of
legislative assembly in India as per chosen by direct election on the basis of
the Constitution deals with adult suffrage. The maximum strength of
Indian constitution ? Administration and Control of Scheduled
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) the House envisaged by the Constitution
Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states is now 550 (530 members to represent
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
(c) 4 years (d) 7 years States, 20 to represent Union Territories)
and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals
Sol.297.(b) 5 years. State Legislature with the administration of the tribal areas Q.305. How many organs of government
(Article 168 - 212) comprises Legislative in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and are there according to the Indian
Assembly and Legislative Council. Mizoram. Constitution?
Legislative Council members are elected SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.301. Which of the following is NOT a (a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Three
for a term of 6 years. kind of question related to Indian
Q.298. The Lok Sabha (House of the Parliamentary Proceedings ? Sol.305.(d) Three Organs: the
People) was duly constituted for the first SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Legislature consists of the President and
time on _______ . (a) Starred Question two Houses, known as Council of States
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) (b) Unstarred Question (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People
(a) 26 April 1950 (b) 17 April 1952 (c) Short Notice Question (Lok Sabha), the Executive consists of
(c) 18 January 1950 (d) 20 April 1951 (d) Long Notice Question the President, the Vice-President, and the
Council of Ministers with the Prime

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 Pinnacle Polity
Minister as the head to aid and advise Bicameral Legislature, Political SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
the President. and the Judiciary consists Homogeneity, No fixed term. (a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1977 (d) 1979
of the Supreme Court, High Court,
District Court or Subordinate Court. Q.310. An alliance formed by political Sol.313.(c) 1977. Second Schedule of
parties after elections when no party has the Indian Constitution deals with the
Q.306. __________ is a motion moved by a been able to get adequate seats to form provisions in relation to allowances,
member to cut short the debate on a a clear majority is called_____. privileges, emoluments of : The President
matter before the House. SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) of India, Governors of Indian States,
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) (a) coalition (b) appropriation Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy Speaker
(a) Closure (b) No-Confidence (c) allegiance (d) prorogation of Lok Sabha etc. The leader of the
(c) Privilege (d) Censure largest Opposition party having not less
Sol.310.(a) A coalition government is a than one-tenth of the seats of the total
Sol.306.(a) ‘Closure Motion’ . No form of government in which political strength of the House is recognized as
Confidence Motion’ also called as Motion parties cooperate to form a government. the leader of the Opposition in that
of No Confidence: A Vote of No Appropriation is when money is set aside House opposition cabinet.
Confidence is a formal proposal in Lok for a specific and particular purpose or
Sabha to evoke a decision of the house. purposes. Prorogation means the
termination of a session of the House by
President, Vice President and
Q.307. According to the Indian an order made by the President under Prime Minister
Constitution, what is the tenure of the Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
members of the State Legislative Council Allegiance, the tie that binds an individual Q.314. Which of the following is NOT a
in India? to another individual or institution. condition for the President’s office in
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) India?

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(a) 10 years (b) 3 years Q.311. The period between prorogation SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) 4 years (d) 6 years of Parliament and re-assembly in a new

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(a) He shall not be entitled, without
session is called______. payment of rent, to use his official
Sol.307.(d) 6 years. It is a permanent SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)

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residence
body and is not subject to dissolution. (a) adjournment (b) recess (b) He shall not be a member of either
The tenure of a Member of the (c) dissolution (d) cut motion
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House of the Parliament.
Legislative Council (MLC) is six years,
(c) The allowances shall not be
with one-third of the members retiring Sol.311.(b) Recess. An adjournment
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diminished during his term of office.

every two years. suspends the work in a sitting for a
(d) He shall not hold any office of profit.
specified time, which may be hours, days
Q.308. Who has the power to abolish or or weeks. A dissolution ends the very life Sol.314.(a) Article 59 of the Constitution
TG

create a legislative council in the state? of the existing House, and a new House of India outlines the conditions for the
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning) is constituted after general elections are office of the President of India. Article 59
(a) Parliament held. Cut motion is a power given to the (3) - The President shall be entitled
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(b) High court of the concerned State members of the Lok Sabha that enables without payment of rent to the use of his
(c) President its members to oppose any demand in a official residences and shall be also
(d) Chief minister of the concerned state
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Finance Bill proposed by a government entitled to such emoluments,

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Sol.308.(a) Parliament. According to the allowances and privileges as may be

Q.312. In the absence of the Speaker and
Article 169 of the Constitution of India, determined by Parliament by law.
a

the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, who

the Parliament of India can create or
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presides over the joint sitting of the two Q.315. Which Article of the Constitution
abolish the State Legislative Council of a houses of Parliament? of India expressly provides that the
state if that state's legislature passes a SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) President is eligible for re-election?
resolution for that with a special majority. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.309. Which of the following is NOT a (b) Any senior member of Rajya Sabha (a) Article 58 (b) Article 56
feature of parliamentary government in (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) Article 59 (d) Article 57
India? (d) Any senior member of Lok Sabha
Sol.315.(d) Article 57. Important articles
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.312.(c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya related to the President of India : Article
(a) Membership of the ministers in the Sabha. Article 93 - The Speaker and 52 - The President of India. Article 53 -
legislature, Deputy Speaker of the House of the Executive power of the Union. Article 54 -
(b) Undissolvable lower house People . Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Election of President. Article 55 - Manner
(c) Presence of nominal and real Speaker or other person to perform the of election of President. Article 56 - Term
executives duties of the office of, or to act as, of office of President. Article 58 -
(d) Collective responsibility of the Speaker. Article 96 - The Speaker or the Qualifications for election as President.
executive to the legislature Deputy Speaker not to preside while a Article 59 - Conditions of President’s
Sol.309.(b) Undissolvable lower house. resolution for his removal from office is office. Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by
Features of Parliamentary Government : under consideration. the President.
Nominal and Real Executives, Double Q.313. The salary and allowances of Q.316. In the state legislative assembly,
Membership, Collective Responsibility, leaders of opposition in parliament are the Money bill can be introduced with the
Secrecy of procedure, Prime Ministerial governed by the Act passed for the first prior permission of __________.
Leadership, Majority Party Rule, time by the parliament in the year ______. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) Governor (b) Auditor General one - third of the members retire, and at Advocate-General for the State. Term and
(c) Finance Minister (d) CAG the beginning of every third year, Remuneration: The Advocate-General
vacancies are filled through fresh holds office at the pleasure of the
Sol.316.(a) Governor. Money Bills in
elections and presidential nominations. Governor and receives remuneration as
State Legislatures : A Money Bill is a
determined by the Governor.
special type of financial bill that deals Q.320. The ________ of every state
with matters like taxation, borrowing, or unfurls the flag in its capital on the Q.324. Which Article deals with the
expenditure from the state's Republic Day. election of the President ?
Consolidated Fund. Article 198 of the SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Constitution of India deals with the (a) Judge of High Court (a) Article 72 (b) Article 54
special procedure for money bills in state (b) Chief Minister (c) Article 74 (d) Article 66
legislatures. Article 148 : Provision for (c) Governor
the appointment of the Comptroller and (d) Speaker Sol.324.(b) Article 54 - The President
Auditor General of India (CAG) by the shall be elected by the members of an
President. Sol.320.(c) Governor is the electoral college consisting of: (a) the
constitutional head of a state in India, elected members of both Houses of
Q.317. As per article 123, the ordinance appointed by the President. They Parliament; and (b) the elected members
making power is the most important represent the central government at the of the Legislative Assemblies of the
legislative power of ____________. state level. Article 153 - Governors of States.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) States.
(a) President Q.325. As per article 158, the Governor
(b) Rajya Sabha Q.321. Which of the following Articles shall NOT be a member of either House
(c) Legislative council states that the Prime Minister should be of Parliament or of a House of the

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(d) Chief Justice of India appointed by the President? Legislature of any State specified in
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) ___________ Schedule.

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Sol.317.(a) President. Article 123 of the (a) Article 71 (b) Article 66 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Indian Constitution allows the President (c) Article 75 (d) Article 62 (a) Seventh (b) Fifth (c) First (d) Third

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to issue ordinances when Parliament is
not in session, with approval required Sol.321.(c) Article 75. Article 62 - Time Sol.325.(c) First. If a member of either
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within six weeks of reassembly. The of holding the election to fill the vacancy House of Parliament or of a House of the
maximum life of an ordinance is six in the office of President and the term of Legislature of any such State be
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months and six weeks. Fakhruddin Ali office of the person elected to fill the appointed Governor, he shall be deemed
Ahmed issued the most ordinances in casual vacancy. Article 66 - Election of to have vacated his seat in that House on
India. Article 213 : Power of Governor to Vice-President. Article 71 - Matters the date on which he enters upon his
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promulgate Ordinances during recess of relating to, or connected with, the office as Governor. First Schedule - The
Legislature. election of a President or Vice-President. list of names of states and union
territories and their extent and territorial
on

Q.318. Which Article of the Constitution Q.322. Which of the following is the jurisdictions.
of India provides that ‘there shall be a most controversial Article in the Indian
Vice President of India’ ? Constitution, which provides for Q.326. Which part of the Indian
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SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) President’s rule in any state? Constitution deals with the election of
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(a) Article 61 (b) Article 63 SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Vice President?
a

(c) Article 65 (d) Article 62 (a) Article 358 (b) Article 356 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
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(c) Article 360 (d) Article 352 (a) Part IV (b) Part III
Sol.318.(b) Article 63. (c) Part VI (d) Part V
The Vice President of India is the Sol.322.(b) Article 356. Other Articles :
second-highest constitutional office in Article 352 - Proclamation of Emergency. Sol.326.(d) Part V (Article 52- 151).
India, after the President. Important Article 358 - Suspension of provisions of Article 66 - Election of Vice President.
Articles related to Vice President: Article article 19 during emergencies. Article The Vice-President shall be elected by
64 - The Vice-President to be ex officio 360 - Provisions as to financial the members of an electoral college
Chairman of the Council of States. emergency. consisting of the members of both
Article 65 - The Vice-President to act as Houses of Parliament in accordance with
Q.323. Who is considered the highest the system of proportional
President or to discharge his functions
law officer of the state in India? representation by means of the single
during casual vacancies in the office, or
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) transferable vote and the voting at such
during the absence, of President.
(a) Advocate general election shall be by secret ballot.
Q.319. How many members are (b) Attorney general
nominated by the President to the Rajya (c) Chief justice of high court Q.327. Who among the following was the
Sabha? (d) Auditor general shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.323.(a) Advocate general. It is a (a) Chandra Shekhar
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
Constitutional post and its authority is (b) Gulzarilal Nanda
Sol.319.(a) 12. This right is granted to mentioned in article 165 of the Indian (c) Charan Singh
the President under the Fourth Schedule Constitution. Appointment: The Governor (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the of each State shall appoint a person
Constitution of India. Every two years, qualified to be a High Court Judge as the Sol.327.(b) Gulzarilal Nanda

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 Pinnacle Polity
was an Indian politician and economist 164, which states: "The total number of Sol.334.(c) Chief Minister. According to
specializing in labor issues. He served as Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in Article 164, the Governor appoints the
the Acting Prime Minister of India twice, the Council of Ministers of a State shall Chief Minister, who in turn advises the
for 13 days each, following the deaths of not exceed 15% of the total number of Governor on appointing other Ministers.
Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal members of the Legislative Assembly of The Ministers hold office at the pleasure
Bahadur Shastri in 1966. Chandra that State." of the Governor.
Shekhar, known as Jananayak, was
Prime Minister from 10 November 1990 Q.331. Who has the power to prorogue Q.335. Who unfurls the flag at Rajpath on
to 21 June 1991. Chaudhuri Charan the House or either House of State the Republic Day?
Singh briefly served as Prime Minister Legislature from time to time ? Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) The Chief of Defence Staff
from 1979 to 1980. Atal Bihari Vajpayee,
(a) Speaker (b) Governor (b) The President of India
an Indian politician and poet, was Prime
(c) Chief Minister (d) Chairman (c) The Chief Minister of Delhi
Minister first for 13 days in 1996, then for
(d) The Prime Minister of India
13 months from 1998 to 1999, and finally Sol.331.(b) Governor. According to
for a full term from 1999 to 2004. Article 174 (1) The Governor shall from Sol.335.(b) The President of India takes
time to time summon the House or each the salute from various units of the Army,
Q.328. In case the President is satisfied
House of the Legislature of the State to Navy, Air force, Para-military, and Police
with the Governor’s report, he may
meet at such time and place as he thinks forces during the parade. This ceremony
declare President’s Rule under Article
fit, but six months shall not intervene commemorates the adoption of the
356 but such proclamation is initially for
between its last sitting in one session country's Constitution on January 26,
a period of ________.
and the date appointed for its first sitting 1950. The Prime Minister of India, on the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
in the next session. Article 174 (2): The other hand, hoists the national flag on

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(a) two months (b) one month
Governor may from time to time—(a) Independence Day at the Red Fort.
(c) six months (d) three months

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prorogue the House or either House; (b)
Q.336. The Governor’s emoluments are
Sol.328.(c) Six months. Article 356 dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
decided by the:

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allows the President to issue a
Q.332. Who is considered as the ‘linchpin Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
proclamation if a state's government
of the Government’ ? (a) Prime Minister (b) President
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cannot function according to the
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (c) State Legislature (d) Parliament
Constitution. The President can act
(a) President
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based on the governor's report or Sol.336.(d) Parliament. The Governor

independently. This proclamation must (b) Vice - President
(Part VI, Article 153 -167) serves as a
be approved by both Houses of (c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
titular or constitutional head and acts as
(d) Prime Minister
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Parliament within two months. It can be the agent of the central government. The
extended for a maximum of three years, Sol.332.(d) The Prime Minister acts as a Governor of State is appointed by the
with parliamentary approval every six link between the Council of Ministers on President. Article 158 (4) - The
on

months. the one hand and the President as well emoluments and allowances of the
as the Parliament on the other. It is this Governor cannot be diminished during
Q.329. Among the following, which is not
his term of office. Article 158(3A) - When
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a qualification for membership in the role of the Prime Minister which led Pt.
the same person is appointed as the
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Vidhan Sabha Nehru described him as 'the linchpin of

Government'. Governor of two or more States, the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
a

emoluments and allowances payable to

(a) Not hold any office of profit
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Q.333. Which option is NOT correct in him are shared by the States.
(b) Have attained the age of 25 Years case of appointment of a Governor ?
(c) Citizen of India Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.337. The ministers in the state hold
(d) Knowledge of Politics (a) Citizen of India office during the pleasure of the:
(b) Cannot hold any office of profit during Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Sol.329.(d) Knowledge of Politics. The
his tenure (a) Deputy Chief Minister
Legislative Assembly, also known as the
(c) Appointed for six years (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Vidhan Sabha, consists of a maximum of
(d) Should be at least 35 years (c) Chief Minister
500 members and a minimum of 60. Its
(d) Governor
tenure is five years, but the Governor can Sol.333.(c) Appointed for six years.
dissolve it before the completion of the Governors in India are appointed by the Sol.337.(d) Governor. Under Article 164
period. President under Article 155 of the (1) The Chief Minister shall be appointed
Constitution, with a tenure of five years. by the Governor and the other Ministers
Q.330. The minimum strength of the
However, they serve at the President's shall be appointed by the Governor on
Council of Ministers in a state as per the
pleasure and can be removed at any the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Indian Constitution is ________ .
time. Ministers shall hold office during the
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
pleasure of the Governor.
(a) 12 persons (b) 13 persons
Q.334. On whose advice does the
(c) 15 persons (d) 14 persons Q.338. In which year did Dr. Sarvepalli
Governor appoint the ministers ?
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Radhakrishnan assume office as the first
Sol.330.(a) 12 persons. As per the
(a) Prime Minister (b) President Vice-President of India ?
Constitution (91st Amendment) Act,
(c) Chief Minister (d) Vice-President Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
2003, clause 1A was inserted into Article
(a) 1954 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1950
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.338.(c) 1952. Dr. Sarvepalli Third - Sh. V.V. Giri (1967-1969). Fourth - membership of Parliament If he holds
Radhakrishnan served as first vice Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak (1969-1974). any office of profit, unsound mind,
president of India from 1952 to 1962 and Fifth - Sh. B.D.Jatti (1974-1979). undischarged insolvent, Not a citizen of
the second president of India from 1962 India. Other provisions: Anti-Defections
to 1967. He received Bharat Ratna in Q.342. Who will cause every year, annual (10th Schedule), Section 8 of
1954. Teachers' Day is celebrated on financial statements to be laid before the Representation of People Act 1951.
September 5 in India to honor him. Legislative Assembly of the State?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.345. Who was the Prime Minister of
Q.339. Which Article of the Indian (a) President India when the Fundamental Duties were
Constitution mentions that ‘The (b) Governor first incorporated in the Constitution of
President shall, notwithstanding the (c) Deputy Chief Minister India?
expiration of his/her term, continue to (d) Chief Minister SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
hold office until his successor enters (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
upon his/her office’? Sol.342.(b) Governor: Financial Powers - (b) Indira Gandhi
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Money bill can only be introduced in the (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) Article 61 (b) Article 56 state legislature on his prior (d) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Article 58 (d) Article 50 recommendation. No demand for grant
can be made except on his Sol.345.(b) Indira Gandhi : 3rd Prime
Sol.339.(b) Article 56. The President recommendation. Money from the Minister of India and first and, to date,
shall hold office for a term of five years. contingency fund can be withdrawn after only female prime minister of India.
The President may, by writing under his his recommendation for meeting the
hand addressed to the Vice-President, unforeseen expenditures. He constitutes Q.346. Who holds the authority of
resign his office. Other important a finance commission for every 5 years transferring judges from one High court

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Articles: Article 61 - Procedure for to review the financial situation of to another High Court?
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)

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impeaching the President of India. Article municipalities and panchayats. Article
58 - Qualifications for election as a 112 - Annual financial statement. Article (a) The senior most judge of Supreme
Court

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President of India. Article 50 - The 200 - Assent to Bills.
separation of the judiciary from the (b) The chief justice of india
Q.343. When the President of India (c) The president of india
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executive.
keeps a bill (except money bill and (d) The law minister of india
Q.340. Which Article of the Indian constitutional amendment bill) pending
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Constitution mentions that an election to for an indefinite period, it is called______. Sol.346.(c) The President of India
fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) (Article 52). Article 222 - Transfer of a
the term of office of the President shall (a) absolute veto of the President Judge from one High Court to another.
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be completed before the expiration of the (b) amendatory veto of the President Article 217 -Appointment and conditions
term? (c) pocket veto of the President of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (d) suspensive veto of the President Article 124 - Establishment and
on

(a) Article 59 (b) Article 62 constitution of the Supreme Court.

Sol.343.(c) Pocket veto of the President. Article 218 - Application of certain
(c) Article 61 (d) Article 60
Veto Power of the President of India is
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provisions relating to the Supreme Court

guided by Article 111. Three types of
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Sol.340.(b) Article 62. This article also to High Courts. Article 214 - High Courts
covers the scenario where a vacancy Veto Power: Absolute veto, Suspensive for States.
a

arises due to the President's death, veto and Pocket veto. Absolute Veto: It
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resignation, or removal, requiring the refers to the power of the President to Q.347. Which of the following
election to be held within six months. withhold his assent to a bill passed by statements are correct regarding
Other articles: Article 59: Conditions of the Parliament. The bill then ends and removal of the President of India ?
President’s office. Article 61: Procedure does not become an act. Suspensive A. The impeachment process can be
for impeachment of the President. Article Veto: The President uses a suspensive initiated in either House of Parliament.
60: Oath or affirmation by the President. veto when he returns the bill to the Indian B. The impeachment charges must be
Parliament for its reconsideration. signed by the one-third members of the
Q.341. Who was the second vice - House in which the process is initiated.
President of India? Q.344. The President of India decides on C. In the impeachment process, a 30
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 the question as to the disqualification of days' notice should be given to the
(a) VV Giri Members of Parliament in consultation President.
(b) Krishna Kant with the ____________. D. The impeachment resolution is passed
(c) Dr Zakir Hussain SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) by a majority of two-thirds of the total
(d) Dr S Radhakrishnan (a) Vice President membership of that House.
(b) Supreme Court of India SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.341.(c) Dr Zakir Hussain (1962 (c) Parliament (a) B and C only (b) A, B and C only
-1967) - He was the third President of (d) Election Commission of India (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and D only
India from 1967-1969, and the first Indian
President to die in office in 1969. He was Sol.344.(d) Election Commission of Sol.347.(d) A and D only. Article 61:
awarded Bharat Ratna in 1963. First five India. Article 103 - It deals with the Procedure for impeachment of the
vice presidents of India : First - Dr. decisions of disqualifications of President. The impeachment charges
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952-1962). members of Parliament. Article 102 - It must be signed by not less than
provides for Disqualification for
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 Pinnacle Polity
one-fourth members of the house in (c) Appointment of the Speaker of the (c) Supreme Court Judge
which the process is initiated. A fourteen Legislative Assembly. (d) Prime Minister
day notice should be given to the (d) Appointment of Advocate General of
Sol.353.(b) President. Article 124 (2) -
president. Impeachment of the President the state in consultation with Attorney
Vests power on the President to appoint
was taken from the US Constitution. general.
every Judge of the Supreme Court
Q.348. Which of the following Sol.350.(a) Article 167 imposes on the including the Chief Justice of India.
statements are correct regarding the Chief Minister the responsibility of Article 124 - States the establishment of
State Executive ? keeping the Governor informed of all the Supreme Court. Article 124 (3) -
A. Article 152 of the Indian Constitution decisions made by the Council of Qualification of Supreme court Judge.
states 'Unless the context otherwise Ministers concerning administration and
Q.354. What is the minimum age (in
requires, the expression 'State' does not legislation. Article 178 - It deals with the
years) a person should be if he/she is
include Jammu and Kashmir'. corresponding position for Speaker and
willing to be appointed as the Governor
B. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Deputy Speaker of the Legislative
of a state in India ?
Act has provided for the appointment of Assembly of a state.
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
the same person as Governor for two or
Q.351. Who among the following served (a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40
more states.
C. The Supreme Court clearly mentioned the shortest tenure as the Prime Minister
Sol.354.(c) 35 years. Article 157 -
that the office of the Governor is under of India ?
Qualifications for appointment as
the control of the Central Government. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
Governor (must be a citizen of India and
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) (a) HD Deva Gowda (b) VP Singh
must have completed 35 years of age).
(a) B and C only (b) A and C only (c) Chandra Shekhar (d) IK Gujral
Article 153 - Governors of States. Article

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(c) A, B and C (d) A and B only Sol.351.(c) Chandra Shekhar. Shri 154 - Executive power of State. Article
Gulzari Lal Nanda (11 January 1966 - 24 155 - Appointment of Governor. Article

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Sol.348.(d) A and B only. Part VI of
January 1966 and 27 May 1964 - 9 June 58 - The presidential candidate must
Constitution (functioning of state
1964) served the shortest tenure as PM. complete the age of 35 years. Article 84

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government). Articles under Part VI :
H D Deva Gowda (June 1, 1996 - April 21, (b) - the minimum age for Lok Sabha
Article 153 - Governors of a state, Article
1997) - 11th Prime Minister of India. V. P. election shall be 25 years.
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154 - Executive power of the state, Article
155 - Appointment of governor, Article Singh (December 2, 1989 - November 10, Q.355. Who administers the Union
1990) - 7th Prime Minister of India.
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156 - Terms of office of governor, Article Territories of India?

159 - Oath or affirmation by the governor, Chandra Shekhar (10 November 1990 SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
Article 163 - Council of ministers to aid and 21 June 1991) - 8th Prime Minister (a) President
of India. The longest-serving prime
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and advise governor, Article 165 - (b) Prime Minister

Advocate general for the state. minister was Jawaharlal Nehru, (16 years (c) Chief Minister
and 286 days). (d) Member of Legislative Assembly
Q.349. The Governor of an Indian state
on

before entering upon his office takes an Q.352. The Inter-State Council consists Sol.355.(a) President. The administrator
oath or affirmation before ____________. of ______ ministers of Cabinet rank in the appointed by the President runs the
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SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) Union Council of Ministers nominated by administration on the behalf of the
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(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court the Prime Minister of India. President. Part - VIII (Union Territories),
exercising jurisdiction in relation to SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) Article 239 (Administration of Union
a

the State (a) six (b) two (c) ten (d) four territories). Article 239A (Creation of
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(b) the President of India local legislatures or council of ministers

Sol.352.(a) Six. Inter-State Council - A
(c) the Chief Minister of the concerned or both for certain Union territories.
constitutional body established by the
state Example (Pondicherry). Article 239AA
President of India. Article 263
(d) the Prime Minister of India (Special provisions with respect to Delhi).
contemplates the establishment of an
Sol.349.(a) Article 159 - Oath or inter-state council to effect coordination Q.356. Which of the following
affirmation to the Governor by the Chief between the states and between centre statements are correct regarding the
Justice of the High Court and in his and states. Established by the President benefits of the retired President of India?
Absence, senior most Judge of that of India. Composition of the council - PM A. The former President of India will also
Court available. Article 155 - The as chairman, CM of all the states and be entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5
Governor of a State shall be appointed by UTS having legislative assemblies, lakh.
the President. Article 153 - Governors of Administrators of UTs not having B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff
States. legislative assemblies, Governors of comprising a private secretary, a
states under President’s rule, Five personal assistant, an additional private
Q.350. What is the duty of the Chief ministers of the cabinet rank are secretary, two peons, and office
Minister, as mentioned under Article 167 permanent invitees of the council. expenses up to ₹1 lakh per annum.
of the Indian Constitution? C. He/She is also entitled to free
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.353.Who appoints the Chief Justice of
highest-class travel anywhere in India,
(a) Communication of all decisions of the India?
accompanied by one person, by rail, air,
Council of Ministers to the Governor. SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
or steamer.
(b) Appointment and removal of Council (a) Vice - President
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
of the Ministers. (b) President
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only
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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) A and C only (d) A, B and C (d) public accounts fund President is to be held within _____ of the
expiry of the term of office of the
Sol.356.(d) A, B and C. The President Sol.359.(c) Consolidated Funds - Article outgoing Vice - President.
{Article (52-62)} of India is the head of 266(1). Three types of funds of the SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
state of the Republic of India. First Central Government – Consolidated Fund (a) 90 days (b) 60 days
President - Rajendra Prasad (held office of India - Revenues received by the (c) 120 days (d) 75 days
for two terms, longest serving president government and expenses made by it,
of India). excluding the exceptional items. Sol.363.(b) 60 days. Article 66 of the
Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) - Constitution of India states the manner
Q.357. Who among the following the emergency fund for the nation and of election of the vice president.
Presidents of India was also the deputy Public Accounts of India (Article 266(2) -
chairman of the Planning Commission? those funds that are received on behalf
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Judiciary
of the Government of India.
(a) VV Giri
Q.364. Which of the following
(b) KR Narayanan Q.360. Which is NOT correct about the
statements is correct regarding the
(c) Ramaswamy Venkataraman powers of the Chief Minister?
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
(d) Pranab Mukherjee Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
India?
(a) He allocates portfolios among
Sol.357.(d) Dr. Pranab Mukherjee (13th SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ministers.
president). Other positions he hold were (a) Article 30 of the Constitution of India
(b) He presides over the meetings of the
Minister of Finance (2009 - 2012), gives the Supreme Court wide original
Council of Ministers.
Minister of Defence (2004 - 2006), jurisdiction.
(c) When he resigns or dies, it has no
Minister of External Affairs (2006 - 2009), (b) Original jurisdiction extends to any
effect in the functioning of the council

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15th Leader of the Lok Sabha (2004 – dispute between the Government of
of ministers.
2012), Deputy Chairman of the Planning India and one or more states.

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(d) The Governor appoints ministers on
Commission (1991 - 1996), 14th Leader (c) The Supreme Court has very wide
His recommendations.
of the Rajya Sabha (1980 – 1984), advisory jurisdiction over all courts

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Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha (2004 Sol.360.(c) The Governor appoints the and tribunals in India.
- 2012), and Member of Parliament, Rajya Chief Minister and other Ministers (d) The original jurisdiction of the
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Sabha (1969 - 1981). V.V Giri (4th (Article 164). The Chief Minister is the Supreme Court can be exercised by a
President), K.R Narayan (10th president). head of the State Council of Ministers certificate granted by the High Court.
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Ramaswamy Venkataraman (8th and the real executive head of state

government. Article 167 (Chief Minister Sol.364.(b) According to Article 131 of
president).
acts as a link between Governor and the Indian Constitution, the Supreme
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Q.358. Which of the following state council of ministers). Court has original jurisdiction over any
statements about the Vice President of dispute arising between the Government
India is INCORRECT? Q.361. Who among the following is NOT of India and one or more States.
on

SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift) appointed by the President of India?

Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.365. In which year was the first-ever
(a) Members of State legislatures do not
(a) Ambassadors and High motion to remove a Supreme Court
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take part in his elections.

Commissioners Justice signed by the members of
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(b) He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of

(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of Parliament?
the Rajya Sabha.
a

India SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (2nd Shift)

(c) The Vice President is elected for five
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(c) Attorney General of India (a) 1991 (b) 1988 (c) 1993 (d) 1995
years.
(d) He can be removed from his office by (d) Solicitor General of India
Sol.365.(a) 1991. The first motion to
the President approved through a Sol.361.(d) Solicitor General of India remove a Supreme Court Justice was
resolution passed by the Lok Sabha (the second - highest law officer of the signed in 1991 by 108 Parliament
and Rajya Sabha. country) is appointed by the members. It was filed against Justice V.
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet Ramaswami, accused of misconduct
Sol.358.(d) Vice president of India: The during his tenure as Chief Justice of the
vice president is elected for five years. (ACC). Attorney Generals of India (Article
Haryana and Punjab High Court from
Minimum age: 35. He acts as the 76). Comptroller and Auditor General of
November 1987 to October 1989.
ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha. In India (Article 148).
the electoral college for Vice President, Q.366. Which Article of the Constitution
Q.362. Who among the following was the
both elected and nominated members of of India grants power to the President to
third Vice - President of India?
both the Houses of Parliament take part. appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.359. The emoluments and allowances (a) BD Jatti (b) Zakir Hussain
(a) Article 124(2) (b) Article 123(1)
of the President and other expenditure (c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) V. V. Giri
(c) Article 127(3) (d) Article 128(4)
relating to his office is charged on the Sol.362.(d) V. V. Giri. Vice Presidents of
______ of India. Sol.366.(a) Article 124(2). It states that
India - 1st Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, 2nd-
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) every Supreme Court judge is appointed
Zakir Hussain, 4th Gopal Swarup Pathak,
(a) contingency fund by the President through a warrant, after
5th B D Jatti. 14th- Jagdeep Dhankhan.
(b) estimates fund consulting judges of the Supreme Court
(c) consolidated fund Q.363. The election of the next Vice - and High Courts as deemed necessary.

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 Pinnacle Polity
Judges hold office until the age of Article 21 and observed that ‘the Right to dispute between the Government of India
sixty-five. Additionally, the Chief Justice education flows directly from the ‘Right and one or more States or between the
of India must always be consulted for the to life’ ? Government of India and any State or
appointment of judges other than the SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) States on one side and one or more
Chief Justice. (a) Mohini Jain v State of Karnataka States on the other or between two or
(b) Neerja Choudhari v State of M. P. more States.
Q.367. The Supreme Court of India (c) Kharak Singh v State of UP B.Appellate Jurisdiction extends when
comprises the Chief Justice and not (d) Malak Singh v State of Punjab the Union plus some States are one side
more than ______ other Judges appointed and some other States on the other side
by the President of India. Sol.370.(a) Mohini Jain v State of
of the dispute.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) Karnataka. The Supreme Court declared
C.Under Articles 129 and 142 of the
(a) 37 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 33 that it was impermissible for any
Constitution, the Supreme Court has
educational institution to charge
Sol.367.(d) 33. The judges of supreme been vested with the power to punish for
capitation fees as a consideration for
court are appointed by the president contempt of court.
admission. Neeraja Chaudhary vs. State
under the Article 124 (2) of the Indian D. As of now, the International
of Madhya Pradesh - addressed the issue
Constitution. Supreme Court Judges Commercial Arbitration cannot be
of bonded labor. Kharak Singh v State of
retire at the age of 65. As per Article 124 initiated in the Supreme Court.
UP - focused on the constitutional review
(3) - In order to be appointed as a Judge SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
of Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations.
of the Supreme Court, a person must be (a) B and D only (b) A and C only
a citizen of India and must have been, for Q.371. Which of the following (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and B only
at least five years, a Judge of a High organisations said that India CANNOT
Sol.373.(b) A and C only. Advisory
Court or an Advocate of a High Court for have a parallel judicial system - one for

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Jurisdiction (Article 143) - The President
at least 10 years or he must be, in the the rich and the other for the poor?
to seek the opinion of the Supreme

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opinion of the President, a distinguished SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Court. The appellate jurisdiction of the
jurist. (a) Gujarat High Court
Supreme Court can be invoked by a

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(b) Supreme Court
Q.368. Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of certificate granted by the High Court
(c) Himachal High Court
the Indian Constitution deal with the ____. concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or
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(d) Kerala High Court
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) 134 of the Constitution. The Supreme
(a) High Courts Sol.371.(b) Supreme Court (SC). Court (Article 124) of India is the apex
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(b) District Courts Important Judgements of SC: Navtej judicial body under the Constitution of
(c) Subordinate Courts Singh Johar vs. Union Of India (2018) - India. Inaugurated - On January, 28, 1950.
(d) Supreme Court Decriminalized homosexuality by striking
TG

down parts of Section 377 of the IPC. Q.374. The advisory board under
Sol.368.(a) High Courts. Articles 214 to K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India provisions of Article 22 of the
231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal (2017) - Recognized the right to privacy Constitution is to be consisted of
on

with the organization, independence, as a fundamental right under Article 21. persons who are, or have been or are
jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs. Union qualified to be appointed as __________.
the high courts. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
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of India (2011) - Upheld the

(a) Judges of Supreme court
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constitutionality of passive euthanasia.

Q.369. Which writ is issued by a high (b) Judges of Lower court
court or supreme court when a lower
a

Q.372. Which Article of the Indian (c) Judges of High court

court has considered a case going
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Constitution mentions that the law (d) Judges of District court

beyond its jurisdiction? declared by the Supreme Court shall be
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) binding on all the courts within the Sol.374.(c) Judges of High court.
(a) Quo Warrant (b) Habeas Corpus territory of India? Related Articles : Article 214 - High
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Courts for States. Article 215 - High
(a) Article 151 (b) Article 147 Courts to be courts of record. Article 216
Sol.369.(d) Prohibition. Writs are issued
(c) Article 137 (d) Article 141 - Constitution of High Courts. Article 217
by the Supreme Court under Article 32
- Appointment and conditions of the
and by the High Court under Article 226 Sol.372.(d) Article 141. Other Articles: office of a Judge of a High Court. Article
of the Indian Constitution. The five types Article 137 - Review of judgments or 218 - Application of certain provisions
of writs in India are: Habeas Corpus: orders by the Supreme Court. Article 147 relating to the Supreme Court to High
Ensures that a detained person is - Any substantial question of law as to Courts. Article 219 - Oath or affirmation
brought before the court. Mandamus: the interpretation of the Constitution by Judges of High Courts. Article 220 -
Directs a public official to perform a duty. shall be construed as including Restriction on practice after being a
Certiorari: Transfers a case for review by references to any substantial question of permanent Judge.
a higher court. Prohibition: Prevents a law as to the interpretation. Article 151 -
lower court from exceeding its Audit reports. Q.375. The Federal Court of India was
jurisdiction. Quo-Warranto: Questions the established in Delhi by the Act of ______.
legal authority of someone holding a Q.373. Which of the following Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
public office. statements are correct regarding the (a) 1908 (b) 1919 (c) 1905 (d) 1935
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
Q.370. In which judgement did the India? Sol.375.(d) 1935. The Federal Court of
Supreme Court extend the scope of A.Original jurisdiction extends to any India was a judicial body that operated

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 Pinnacle Polity
from 1937 to 1950, when it was replaced preventive detention. Sajjan Singh vs July 2022.
by the Supreme Court of India. The State of Rajasthan - Involved a challenge 2. The Bill amends the Family Courts Act,
Federal Court had jurisdiction to solve to the validity of the Constitution (26th 1984.
disputes between provinces and federal Amendment) Act. 3. The Act allows state governments to
states. Calcutta High court is the oldest establish Family Courts.
Q.379. The State of Kerala Vs Leesamma
high court in India (established in the 4. The Act is not applicable in Punjab and
Joseph case deals with __________.
year 1862). Justice Harilal Jekisundas Tamil Nadu.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Kania was the first (Indian) Chief Justice (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) dowry
of India. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(b) the economic weaker section
Q.376. Which Article of the Indian (c) education Sol.382.(a) 1, 2 and 3. Family Courts
Constitution mentions that there shall be (d) persons with disabilities (Amendment) Bill 2022 seeks to amend
a Supreme Court of India? the Family Courts Act, 1984 to establish
Sol.379.(d) persons with disabilities.
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) family courts in Himachal Pradesh and
This case was related to Article 16 (equal
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 121 Nagaland. Family Court Act, 1984 -
opportunity in the workplace). The SC
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 124 Enacted for the establishment of Family
held that persons with physical
Courts with a view to promote
Sol.376.(d) Article 124. Article 121 - disabilities have the right to reservation
conciliation, and secure speedy
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. in promotions. Other Important Cases -
settlement of disputes relating to
Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into Kesavananda Bharati case: The Supreme
marriage and family affairs and for
proceedings of Parliament. Court gave the doctrine of the ‘Basic
related matters.
Structure’ of the constitution. Shayara
Q.377. Disputes between two or more Bano vs Union of India: The Supreme Q.383. The High court of Delhi was

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states come under the _______ of the Court struck down the practice of triple
Supreme Court. established in _______.

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talaq and declared it unconstitutional. SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) original jurisdiction Q.380. The Supreme Court of India came (a) 1962 (b) 1947 (c) 1951 (d) 1966

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(b) advisory jurisdiction into existence on ___________ .
Sol.383.(d) 1966. The High Court of
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
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Delhi was established with four Judges.
(d) writ jurisdiction (a) 30 January 1935 (b) 26 January 1950
They were Chief Justice K.S.Hegde,
(c) 15 August 1947 (d) 2 October 1952
Justice I.D. Dua, Justice H.R.Khanna and
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Sol.377.(a) Original jurisdiction - The

power to hear and determine a dispute in Sol.380.(b) 26 January 1950. Justice S.K.Kapur. Before 1966 under the
the first instance. It is provided under The Supreme Court was inaugurated in States Reorganisation Act, 1956 Delhi
TG

Article 131 of the Indian Constitution. the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament was under the jurisdiction of the Punjab
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution House on January 28, 1950. The High Court.
confers upon the Supreme Court foundation stone of the Supreme Court
Q.384. The first High Court in India was
on

advisory jurisdiction. Article 133 - building was laid by the first President of
established in ______________ .
Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court India, Rajendra Prasad, on October 29,
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
in appeals from High Courts in regard to 1954. The 50th Chief Justice of India is
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(a) 1860 (b) 1862 (c) 1867 (d) 1857

civil matters. Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud.
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Sol.384.(b) 1862. Calcutta High Court: It

Q.378. In which of the following cases Q.381. Till which year did the High Court
a

was brought into existence under the

the Supreme Court, while laying out the of Delhi continue to exercise jurisdiction
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High Court's Act (1861). Location -

'basic structure' of the Constitution held over Himachal Pradesh?
Esplanade Row West (Kolkata).
that the democratic character of the SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Jurisdiction - West Bengal and the
polity was an essential component of the (a) 1969 (b) 1967 (c) 1971 (d) 1968
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Bombay
'basic structure" ?
Sol.381.(c) 1971. The Indian High Courts High Court {(14 August 1862) (Indian
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Act (1861) established High Courts of High Courts Act 1861)}, Madras High
(a) Romesh Thappar vs State of Madras
Calcutta, Madras and Bombay. The first Court {(15 August 1862, Indian High
(b) AK Gopalan vs State of Madras
high court of India was established in Courts Act 1861}.
(c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of
Kerala Kolkata and formally it was called the
Q.385. In which of the following cases
(d) Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan High Court of Judicature at Fort William.
did the Supreme Court of India
India has 25 High Courts (now). Article
Sol.378.(c) This judgement was pronounce the theory of the ‘Basic
214 - High Court for each State. Article
delivered on 24 April 1973. The case was Structure’ of the Constitution?
226 - Power of high court to issue certain
filed by Sri Kesavananda Bharati (head of SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
writs. Article 216 - Constitution of High
a Hindu religious mutt in Kerala), (a) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Court.
challenging the constitutional validity of (b) Golaknath Case, 1967
the 24th, 25th and 29th Amendments to Q.382. Which of the following (c) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
the Indian Constitution. Romesh Thappar statements are true regarding the Family (d) Swarn Singh Case, 1989
vs State of Madras: Freedom of speech Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022? Sol.385.(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case,
and expression includes Freedom of Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) 1973 - Parliament can not amend or alter
press. AK Gopalan vs State of Madras - 1. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill the ‘Basic Structure’ of the constitution.
Deals with the constitutionality of was introduced in Lok Sabha on 18 Golaknath Case, 1967 - Parliament
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 Pinnacle Polity
cannot take away or abridge any of the majority as per Article 249 requires a Sol.392.(b) 4. The Finance Commission
Fundamental Rights. Minerva Mills Case, majority of 2/3rd members present and is a constitutional body set up by the
1980 - Parliament can amend any part of voting. For example, if out of the 245 President of India under Article 280 of
the Constitution but it cannot change the members in Rajya Sabha, only 150 are the Indian Constitution. Its primary
“Basic Structure” of the Constitution. present and voting, then the special function is to recommend the distribution
Swarn Singh Case, 1998 - In this case, majority required as per Article 249 of financial resources between the Union
the SC held the UP Governor's pardon of would be 101. Simple majority refers to a (Central Government) and States. The
a convict unconstitutional. majority of more than 50% of the Commission is set up for a period of five
members present and voting in the years.
Q.386. What is the structure of the Indian House. Majorities in the Constitution can Q.393. In which of the following years
judiciary? be categorised into four Types : was the Election Commission of India
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) Absolute, Effective, Simple and Special. founded?
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Three-tier (d) Five-tier Q.390. Which is NOT correct about the
(a) 1955 (b) 1952 (c) 1950 (d) 1947
independence of the judiciary in our
Sol.386.(c) Three-tier. The structure of country? Sol.393.(c) 1950. Election Commission
the judiciary - Supreme Court (Article SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) of India (ECI) is a permanent
124) at the top, High Courts (Article 214) (a) The judiciary has the power to Constitutional Body. The Commissioners
below them and session’s courts at the penalise those who are found guilty have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to
lowest level. of contempt of court. the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Q.387. A judge of the Supreme Court can (b) The judges are financially dependent
on both the executive and legislature Q.394. What is the tenure of office for the
be removed only on the grounds of ______
Chief Election Commissioner?

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SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) for their salaries and allowances.
(c) The Constitution prescribes a very SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) disrespect of the Constitution

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difficult procedure for removal of (a) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years
(b) proven misbehaviour or incapacity
judges. (b) 5 years or up to the age of 65 years
(c) murder charges

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(d) The legislature is not involved in the (c) 5 years or up to the age of 60 years
(d) lack of knowledge
process of appointment of judges. (d) 6 years or up to the age of 60 years
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Sol.387.(b) Proven misbehaviour or
Sol.390.(b) Judges salaries and Sol.394.(a) 6 years or up to the age of
incapacity. Article 124 - There shall be a
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allowances are fixed and not subject to 65 years. Article 324 - Superintendence,
Supreme Court of India. Article 143 -
legislative approval. Supreme Court direction and control of elections to be
Power of the President to consult the
Judges {The Salaries, Pension and vested in an Election Commission : (2)
Supreme Court.
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Allowances are charged upon the The Election Commission shall consist
Q.388. Which of the following Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266 of the Chief Election Commissioner and
jurisdictions of the Supreme Court allows (1)}, High Court Judges {Salaries and such number of other Election
on

it to settle disputes between the centre Allowances are charged upon the Commissioners, if any, as the President
and state and amongst states ? Consolidated Fund of the States and the may from time to time fix and the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) Pension is charged on the Consolidated appointment of the Chief Election
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(a) Appellate (b) Advisory Fund of India} . Commissioner and other Election
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(c) Writ (d) Original Commissioners shall, subject to the

Q.391. The Indian judicial system is provisions of any law made in that behalf
a

Sol.388.(d) Original. The Supreme Court based on: by Parliament, be made by the President.
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(Articles 124 to 147, Part V) has Original SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(Article 131), Appellate (Article 133-136), (a) both integrated and dual system Q.395. Who among the following is NOT
and Advisory (Article 143) jurisdiction. (b) dual court system a member of the National Human Rights
Under Original Jurisdiction, SC can hear (c) multiple court system Commission?
the following cases: Any dispute (d) single integrated system SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
between the Indian Government and one (a) District Magistrate
or more States, Any dispute between the Sol.391.(d) single integrated system. (b) Former Chief Justice of the High
Indian Government and one or more The judiciary is the watchdog of Court
States on one side and one or more democracy, and also the guardian of the (c) Former Chief Justice of the Supreme
States on the other side, Any dispute Constitution. Structure of Indian Court
between two or more States. Judiciary {Supreme Court at the top, High (d) Former Judge of the Supreme Court
Courts are below the SC, and below them
Q.389. A Supreme Court or High Court are the district and subordinate courts}. Sol.395.(a) District Magistrate : They are
judge can be removed by the Parliament administrative officers who are
by: Government Bodies responsible for maintaining law and
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) order in their respective districts.
(a) simple majority National Human Rights Commission
Q.392. How many other members are
(b) both simple and two third majority (NHRC): It is a statutory body established
there in the Finance Commission
(c) special majority on October 12, 1993.
EXCEPT, Chairman ?
(d) two third majority SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.396. Which part of the Indian
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 Constitution deals with the Election
Sol.389.(c) Special majority. Special

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 Pinnacle Polity
Commission? (b) Ministry of Home Affairs recommend the distribution of tax
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs revenues between the central
(a) Part XV (b) Part XII (d) Ministry of Rural Development government and the states. The first
(c) Part IV (d) Part XI finance commission was constituted in
Sol.399.(b) Ministry of Home Affairs.
1951. It is constituted for every five
Sol.396.(a) Part XV (Article 324-329). Registrar General and Census
years.
The Election Commission of India (ECI, Commissioner of India, founded in 1961
Established - 25th January 1950) is an by the Government of India, Ministry of Q.402. Which Article of the Indian
autonomous constitutional authority Home Affairs, for arranging, conducting Constitution mentions about the
responsible for administering Union and and analysing the results of the recommendations of the Finance
State election processes in India. demographic surveys of India including Commission?
Originally the commission had only one Census of India and Linguistic Survey of Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
election commissioner but after the India. Headquarters - Delhi. (a) Article 281 (b) Article 283
Election Commissioner Amendment Act (c) Article 282 (d) Article 284
Q.400. Who among the following are
1989, it was made a multi-member body.
eligible for free legal aid under the Sol.402.(a) Article 281 - The President
Q.397. UPSC is a Constitutional Body to National Legal Services Authority? shall cause every recommendation made
conduct examinations for appointments A. A member of a Scheduled Caste or by the Finance Commission under the
to the services of the Union and the Scheduled Tribe. provisions of this Constitution together
services of the State, respectively, under B. A victim of trafficking in human beings with an explanatory memorandum as to
Article ________ or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the action taken thereon to be laid before
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Constitution each House of Parliament. Article 282 -
(a) 320 (b) 324 (c) 328 (d) 332 C. An industrial workman Expenditure defrayable by the Union or a

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D. A person under circumstances of State out of its revenues. Article 283 -
Sol.397.(a) Article 320. Article 324

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undeserved want such as being a victim Custody, etc., of Consolidated Funds,
establishes a single Commission to of a mass disasters Contingency Funds and moneys credited
oversee elections to the Central

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E. To file any case in Supreme Court, if to the public accounts.
Legislature, including both the Upper and any person needs free legal aid, the
Lower Houses. Article 328 grants state Q.403. What is the maximum age for a
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person’s annual income must be below
legislatures the authority to create 10 lakhs. member of a joint public service
provisions for elections to their commission to hold his/her office as per
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SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)

respective legislatures, including the (a) A, B, C and D only (b) A, B and E only the Constitution of India ?
preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation (c) B, C and D only (d) A, B, C, D and E SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
of constituencies, and other (a) 62 years (b) 66 years
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arrangements for the constitution of the Sol.400.(a) A, B, C and D only. (c) 65 years (d) 60 years
legislature. Article 332 reserves seats in According to the National Legal Services
state legislative assemblies for Authority (NALSA), the following Sol.403.(a) 62 years. Joint State Public
on

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. individuals are eligible for free legal aid: Service Commission (JSPSC) - It can be
women and children, mentally ill or created by an act of Parliament at the
Q.398. The establishment of Union
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disabled persons, and victims of mass request of the state legislatures

Public Service Commission, State Public
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disasters, violence, floods, droughts, concerned. It is a statutory body. Its

Service Commissions and Joint Public chairman is appointed by the President.
earthquakes, and industrial disasters.
a

Service Commission falls under which of A member of a Public Service

NALSA was founded in 1995 under the
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the following features of the Constitution Commission shall hold office for a term
Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to
of India ? of six years. In the case of the Union
provide free legal services to the weaker
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Commission, his or her minimum age is
sections of society. Its headquarters is
(a) Parliamentary Government 65 years to attain the office.
located in New Delhi.
(b) Federalism
(c) Fundamental Rights Q.401. The Finance Commission of India Q.404. Who was the first chairman of
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy consists of ________. Finance Commission of India?
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.398.(b) Federalism : It refers to a
(a) a Chairperson and four other (a) K Santhanam
form of government in which power is
members (b) KC Neogy
distributed among different layers of
(b) a Chairperson and three other (c) Ashok Kumar Chanda
government. Union Public Service
members (d) PV Rajamannar
Commission is a central recruitment
(c) a Chairperson and two other
agency, while State Public Service Sol.404.(b) KC Neogy.
members
Commission is responsible for state level The Finance Commission of India is an
(d) a Chairperson and five other
recruitment. These are constitutional independent constitutional body that is
members
bodies. set up by the President of India after
Sol.401.(a) A Chairperson and four other every five years or earlier to make
Q.399. The Office of the Registrar
members. The Finance Commissions are recommendations on the distribution of
General and Census Commissioner, India
periodically constituted by the President financial resources between the Union
comes under the:
of India under Article 280 of the Indian and the states.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Ministry of Finance Constitution. Its main function is to
Q.405. Under which of the following Acts
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 Pinnacle Polity
was the National Commission for (b) Election Commission C. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution
Women established? (c) President talks about the recommendations of the
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) (d) Prime Minister Finance Commission.
(a) The National Commission for Women SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.408.(b) Election Commission -
Act, 1988 (a) A and B only (b) A, B and C
established in 1950. Part XV Election
(b) The National Commission for Women (c) A only (d) B and C only
Commission (324 - 329): Article 326 -
Act, 1990
Elections to the House of the People and Sol.411.(c) A only. Finance Commission
(c) The National Commission for Women
to the Legislative Assemblies of States (FC) is a constitutional body under
Act, 1989
to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 280. It is set up after every five
(d) The National Commission for Women
Act, 1987 years or earlier to make
Q.409. In India, which Ministry issues the
recommendations on the distribution of
coins of all denominations ?
Sol.405.(b) The National Commission for financial resources between the Union
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
Women is a statutory body set up in and the states.
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
January 1992 under the National
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs Q.412. Which of the following is NOT a
Commission for Women Act, 1990 to
(c) Ministry of Mines Constitutional Body in India?
review the constitutional and legal
(d) Ministry Of Finance Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
safeguards for women; recommend
remedial legislative measures; facilitate (a) Election Commission of India
Sol.409.(d) Ministry of Finance. The
redressal of grievances and advise the (b) State Human Rights Commission
Government of India has the sole right to
Government on all policy matters (c) State Public Service Commission
mint coins. The responsibility for coinage
affecting women. The First Commission (d) Union Public Service Commission of
vests with the Government of India in
India

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was constituted on 31st January 1992 accordance with the Coinage Act, 1906
with Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the as amended from time to time. The Sol.412.(b) State Human Rights

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Chairperson. designing and minting of coins in various Commission - It is a Statutory body,
Q.406. Which of the following is denominations is also the responsibility established under protection of human

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responsible for attending to disputes of the Government of India. Coins are right act 1993. The Chairman and the
concerning recruitment and conditions of minted at the four Indian Government members of the State Commission are
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service of public personnel at the Centre? Mints at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), appointed by the Governor. Tenure -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Saifabad (Hyderabad), Cherlapally Three years or till they reach the age of
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(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (Hyderabad) and Noida (UP). It is issued 70 years.
(b) The Settlement and Appellate for circulation only through the Reserve
Tribunal Bank in terms of the RBI Act. Q.413. In which year did the Election
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(c) The Competition Appellate Tribunal Commission of India for the first time in
Q.410. The Chairman of a State Public its history become a multi member body?
(d) Joint Administrative Tribunal
Service Commission can be removed by Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
on

Sol.406.(a) Central Administrative the order of the __________ . (a) 2004 (b) 2014 (c) 1995 (d) 1989
Tribunal (CAT) - It is a Statutory body, SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
established under Administrative (a) Prime Minister (b) President Sol.413.(d) 1989.
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Tribunals Act, 1985. It comes under the (c) Governor (d) Chief Minister The Election Commission of India (ECI)
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purview of Article 323-A (Added by 42nd is a constitutional body. The Election

Sol.410.(b) President. Provisions
a

amendment act 1976). Its chairman and Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989
regarding the composition of SPSC
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members are appointed by the President (adopted on 1 January 1990) turned the
provided in Part XIV of the Article 315 - commission into a 3-member
after consulting the Chief justice of India.
323. Article 317: Removal and Commission. The ECI body administers
Q.407. Who appoints the State Election suspension of a member of both the elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
Commissioner ? UPSC or SPSC. Article 316 (Appointment State Legislative Assemblies, State
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) and terms of office of Members) : The Legislative Councils and the offices of
(a) Governor (b) Speaker Chairman and other members of the the President and the Vice President of
(c) Chief Minister (d) Advocate General SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the country.
the State. Term of Office: A member of
Sol.407.(a) Governor. The State Election Q.414. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of
the SPSC shall hold office for a term of
Commissioner (SEC) is appointed by the all adults who live in the area covered by
six years or till the age of 62 years,
Governor on the recommendation of a a ___________.
whichever is earlier.
collegium, comprising the Chief Minister, SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
the Speaker of the State Legislative Q.411. Which of the following (a) district (b) city
Assembly and the Leader of Opposition statements is/are correct regarding the (c) state (d) panchayat
in the Legislative Assembly. Power of Finance Commission of India?
SEC - To conduct free, fair and impartial A. The Finance Commission consists of Sol.414.(d) Panchayat. The term Gram
elections to the local bodies in the state. a Chairman and four other members. Sabha is defined in the Constitution of
B. The recommendations made by the India under Article 243(b). Gram Sabha is
Q.408. Who conducts elections for both
Finance Commission are binding on the the primary body of the Panchayati Raj
the houses of Parliament in India?
government and government needs to system and by far the largest. It is a
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
grant funds according to the advice of permanent body. The power to annul a
(a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
the Commission. decision of the Gram Sabha rests with
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 Pinnacle Polity
the Gram Sabha only. Related Articles - SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) Polity of neighbouring
243A - Constitution of Gram Sabha. (a) 5, state government
countries
(b) 5, central government
Q.415. The Bureau of Indian Standard is (c) 2.5, state government
a statutory body working under the aegis Q.422. What is the official language of
(d) 2.5, central government
of which union ministry? Bangladesh, a neighbouring country of
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.418.(a) 5, state government. India ?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry According to Article 243 (I), the Governor SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening)
(b) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium of a State shall establish a State Finance (a) Bengali (b) Urdu
Enterprises Commission (constitutional body) every (c) Dzongkha (d) Hindi
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs 5 years (73rd Amendment Act 1992). It
Sol.422.(a) Bengali. Bangladesh: Capital
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food distributes state resources to Panchayati
- Dhaka. Currency - Bangladeshi Taka
and Public Distribution Raj institutions at all three levels in the
Other Nation’s Official Languages: Urdu
form of taxes, duties, and levies to be
Sol.415.(d) The Ministry of Consumer (Pakistan), Dzongkha (Bhutan), Hindi
collected by the state and local
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. It (India), Tamil (Sri Lanka), Mandarin
governments.
operates various schemes like Product (China), Burmese (Myanmar), Dari and
Certification (ISI mark), Management Q.419. In which year was the National Pashto (Afghanistan), Nepali (Nepal) and
Systems Certification, Hallmarking of Commission for Protection of Child Dhivehi (Maldives).
Gold and Silver Jewellery/Artefacts and Rights established?
Q.423. Sri Lanka got independence in the
Laboratory Services. Bureau of Indian SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
year:
Standards (BIS), earlier known as the (a) 2014 (b) 2007 (c) 2005 (d) 2010
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 )
Indian Standards Institution (ISI), was

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Sol.419.(b) 2007. (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949
founded in 1947.
The National Commission for Protection

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Sol.423.(a) 1948. Sri Lanka got
Q.416. Which of the following is NOT one of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian
independence on February 4, 1948.
of the objectives of the NITI Aayog ? statutory body established by an Act of

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National animal of Sri Lanka - Elephant,
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Parliament, the Commission for
National flower - Blue Water Lily, The
(a) To develop mechanisms to formulate Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
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national sport - Volleyball. Myanmar (4
credible plans at the village level 2005. The Commission works under the
January, 1948). Bangladesh (26 March
(b) To design and print new currency aegis of Ministry of Women and Child
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1971).
notes and to bring them in circulation Development, GoI.
(c) To pay special attention to the Q.424. To which neighbouring country
sections of our society that may be at Q.420. What is the tenure of the
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was the Indian Peace Keeping Force

risk of not benefiting adequately from Chairperson of National Human Rights
(IPKF) sent in the year 1987?
economic progress. Commission?
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
(d) To evolve a shared vision of national Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
on

(a) Nepal (b) Sri Lanka

development priorities (a) Three Years (b) Five Years
(c) Bhutan (d) Burma
(c) Six Years (d) Four Years
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Sol.416.(b) NITI Aayog: National Sol.424.(b) Sri Lanka. It was formed

Sol.420.(a) Three years (or until they
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Institution for Transforming India, under the mandate of the 1987 Indo-Sri
Established: 1 January 2015, Chairman: attain the age of 70 years). National
Lankan Accord that aimed to end the Sri
a

Prime Minister of India, First Chairman: Human Rights Commission: Statutory

Lankan Civil War between Sri Lankan
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Narendra Modi, First CEO (Chief body, Founded: 12 October, 1993,

Tamil militant groups such as the
Executive Officer): Sindhushree Khullar, Composition: chairperson, five full-time
Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE)
First Vice - Chairperson: Arvind Members and seven deemed Members,
and the Sri Lankan military.
Panagariya. Appointed by the President.
Q.425. In which year was a new
Q.417. The elections to the Panchayati Q.421. In which year was the National
Constitution adopted in Sri Lanka
Raj institutions are conducted by the Commission for Women established in
creating the 'Democratic The Socialist
________. India ?
Republic of Sri Lanka'?
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening)
(a) Central election commission (a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1993 (d) 1991
(a) 1978 (b) 1965 (c) 1982 (d) 1980
(b) State government Sol.421.(a) 1992. Other Commissions -
(c) State election commission Sol.425.(a) 1978. The Constitution of the
The National Commission for Scheduled
(d) Central government Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri
Castes (2004). National Commission for
Lanka has been the constitution of the
Sol.417.(c) State election commission Scheduled Tribes (2004), National
island nation of Sri Lanka since its
functions - Conducting elections to the Commission for Minorities (1993),
original promulgation by the National
Panchayati Raj institutions, Preparation National Commission for Backward
State Assembly on 7 September 1978.
of Electoral Rolls, Appointment of Dates Classes (1993).
for Nominations, Fixing Time for Poll, Q.426. In which year did Nepal adopt its
Counting of Votes, etc. first democratic constitution?
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Evening)
Q.418. The State Finance Commission is (a) 2010 (b) 2015 (c) 2013 (d) 2017
appointed every_____ years by the_______
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.426. (b) 2015. (c) Socialist Party (d) Liberal Party Supreme Court of India
Nepal's first democratic constitution (d) Status of party is accorded by the
came into effect on Sept 20, 2015. The Sol.430.(b) Labour Party. In the 1945 Parliament.
constitution of Nepal is divided into 35 general elections in Britain, the Labour
parts, 308 Articles, and 9 Schedules. Party, under the leadership of Clement Sol.434.(b) Multi-party system: More
Attlee, achieved a decisive victory, than two parties have a reasonable
defeating Winston Churchill's chance of coming to power either on
Miscellaneous
Conservative Party. Democratic Party is their own strength or in alliance with
one of the two major political parties, others. As of September 2024, there are
Q.427. On which date did Punjab abolish
alongside the Republican Party, in the six National parties in India : BJP, INC,
the Legislative Council?
United States. Communist Party of India - Marxist
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(CPI-M), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP),
(a) 1 January 1971 (b) 1 January 1977 Q.431. The concept of Public Interest National People's Party (NPP) and Aam
(c) 1 January 1975 (d) 1 January 1970 Litigation originated in _______________. Aadmi Party (AAP).
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.427.(d) 1 January 1970. The Punjab
(a) Switzerland (b) Iceland Q.435. In which of the following years
Legislative Council (Abolition) Act, 1969
(c) USA (d) New Zealand was the Right of Persons with Disabilities
abolished the Legislative Council of
Act passed?
Punjab, leading to the cessation of its Sol.431.(c) USA. Public Interest SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
members' positions. It amended Article Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a (a) 2010 (b) 2002 (c) 2016 (d) 2019
168 of the Constitution, removing court of law, for the protection of “Public
reference to Punjab, and made changes Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Sol.435.(c) 2016. The Rights of Persons
to the Representation of the People Act, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc. with Disabilities (RPwD) Act came into

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1950. The concept of PIL was initially sown in force from 19th April, 2017. It replaced
India by Justice Krishna Iyer, in 1976 in the Persons with Disabilities (Equal

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Q.428. The ‘Rule of Law’ is a key feature
Mumbai Kamagar Sabha vs. Abdul Thai. Opportunities, Protection of Rights and
of the Indian Constitution which is a
Full Participation) Act, 1995. Objective -

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doctrine ascribed to _____________. Q.432. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described To ensure that all persons with
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Directive Principles of State Policy as disabilities can lead their lives with
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(a) Plato (b) Adam Smith __________of the Indian constitution. dignity, without discrimination and with
(c) Albert Venn Dicey (d) Karl Marx SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) equal opportunities.
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(a) soul of the state

Sol.428.(c) Albert Venn Dicey was a Q.436. When did a States Reorganisation
(b) identity card of the constitution
British Whig jurist and constitutional Commission was set up, which
(c) The most precious part of the
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theorist. Adam Smith is most famous for recommended the creation of linguistic
constitution
his 1776 book, "The Wealth of Nations." States on the basis of larger linguistic
(d) a novel feature of the constitution
Karl Marx is best known for his theories groups?
on

that led to the development of Marxism. Sol.432.(d) a novel feature of the Indian SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
His books, "Das Kapital" and "The constitution. (a) December 1963 (b) December 1953
Communist Manifesto," formed the basis (c) December 1956 (d) December 1958
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of Marxism. Plato was an ancient Greek Q.433. The British Parliament introduced
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philosopher. the Indian High Courts Act in which year? Sol.436.(b) December 1953. India faced
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) demands to reorganise states based on
a

Q.429. The National Population Register (a) 1860 (b) 1861 (c) 1859 (d) 1858 regional languages after independence.
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was created under the provisions of In November 1956, India underwent

___________ and ___________ . Sol.433.(b) 1861. The India High Courts
division into 14 states and six union
a. the Citizenship Act, 1965 Act 1861 was enacted to create High
territories through the implementation of
b. the Citizenship Rules, 2004 Courts for various provinces and
the State Reorganisation Act. The Andhra
c. the Citizenship Act, 1955 abolished Supreme Courts at Calcutta,
State held the distinction of being the
d. the Citizenship Rules, 2003 Madras and Bombay and also the Sadar
first state of Independent India, and it
SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Adalats in Presidency towns. The first
was later transformed into Andhra
(a) a; c (b) a; b (c) b; d (d) c; d High Court was established in Calcutta
Pradesh on the 1st of November 1956.
on July 1, 1862. The Supreme Court of
The State Reorganisation Commission
Sol.429.(d) c; d. The Citizenship Act, India was established by the Regulating
was chaired by Fazal Ali, and two other
1955 provides for the acquisition and Act of 1773.
members, namely K. M. Panikkar and H.
loss of citizenship after the
Q.434. Which of the following N. Kunzru.
commencement of the Constitution.
Originally, the Act 1955 also provided for statements is correct with respect to the Q.437. Which of the following states is
Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this political parties in India? one of those states that have no
provision was repealed by the Citizenship SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Panchayati Raj Institution at all?
(Amendment) Act, 2003. (a) A political party symbol is assigned SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
by the President of India. (a) Assam (b) Gujarat
Q.430. Which party formed the (b) India has a multi-party system (c) Nagaland (d) Punjab
government in Britain in the year 1945? classified as national, state or
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) regional level Sol.437.(c) Nagaland. Panchayats (Part
(a) Democratic Party (b) Labour Party (c) All parties are registered with the IX, Articles 243 to 243-O): It is the system
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 Pinnacle Polity
of local self-government of villages in Q.441. Which directive principle has been way to acquire citizenship in India ?
rural India. Rajasthan was the first state implemented in establishing Handloom SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
to implement Panchayati Raj in India (on and Handicrafts Boards? (a) Incorporation of territory
October 2nd, 1959, in Nagaur district), SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) (b) Renunciation
followed by Andhra Pradesh later in (a) Participation of workers in (c) Registration
1959. 24th April - National Panchayati management of Industries (d) Birth
Raj Day. Currently, the Panchayati Raj (b) Provision for just and humane
system exists in all states except condition of work Sol.444.(b) Renunciation. There are five
Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and (c) Protection and improvement of recognized ways to acquire citizenship in
in all Union Territories except Delhi. environment India under the Citizenship Act, 1955: By
(d) Promote cottage industries on Birth - A person born in India can acquire
Q.438. The Citizenship Act, 1955 does cooperative basis citizenship by birth. By Descent - A
NOT deal with ____________. person born outside India to Indian
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.441.(d) The All India Handloom parents can acquire citizenship. By
(a) acquisition (b) determination Board (AIHB) and the All India Registration - Certain persons, such as
(c) election (d) termination Handicrafts Board (AIHB) were two foreign nationals married to Indian
boards in India aimed to promote and citizens, can acquire citizenship through
Sol.438.(c) election. The Citizenship Act, develop cottage industries, such as registration. By Naturalization - Foreign
1955 deals with the acquisition, handlooms and handicrafts, through nationals can acquire citizenship after
determination, and termination of Indian cooperative efforts and support. The All fulfilling certain residency requirements.
citizenship. Citizenship Acquisition: The India Handicrafts Board was set up in By Incorporation of Territory - If a foreign
Act provides for the acquisition of 1952 whereas the All India Handloom territory becomes part of India.
citizenship by birth, descent, registration,

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Board was established in 1992. However,
naturalization, and incorporation of the government decided to abolish the Q.445. Which of the following is NOT a

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territory. Citizenship Determination: The board in 2020 as part of its vision of condition for acquiring the citizenship of
Act defines how to determine Indian "Minimum Government and Maximum India?

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citizenship. Citizenship Termination: The Governance". SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Act provides for the termination and (a) Registration (b) Descent
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deprivation of citizenship. Election Q.442. Which south-eastern Dravidian (c) Domicile (d) Holding property
Commission of India: PART XV (Article language has been approved by Odisha
Sol.445.(d) Holding property.
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324-329) of the Constitution. state to be included in the Eighth

Schedule of the Constitution of India, on The Citizenship Act of 1955 is the
Q.439. Which Section of the fundamental law governing the
10th July 2023 ?
Representation of People’s Act (RPA), acquisition and termination of Indian
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SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)

1951 deprives the prisoners of their right citizenship. It outlines five ways to
(a) Kui (b) Malto (c) Tulu (d) Kodagu
to vote? become an Indian citizen: birth, descent,
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.442.(a) Kui. It is spoken by the registration, naturalisation, and
on

(a) Section 10 (4) (b) Section 72 (5) Kandhas community. It is closely related incorporation of territory. Citizenship
(c) Section 62 (5) (d) Section 15 (3) to the Gondi and Kuvi languages. Some (Amendment) Act, 2019: It provides an
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other languages included in the eighth accelerated pathway for the citizenship
Sol.439.(c) Section 62 (5) : A person
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schedule are: Sindhi was introduced in of the members of six communities

cannot vote in an election if they are in
1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis,
a

prison or in police custody. However, this

1992. Santali, Dogri, Maithili, and Bodo in and Christians) from Pakistan,
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rule does not apply to those in preventive

2003. Bangladesh, and Afghanistan if they have
detention. Even if someone cannot vote
arrived before December 31, 2014.
due to imprisonment, they still remain an Q.443. Which of the following
elector if their name is on the electoral organisation’s initiative is ‘India Justice Q.446. Which of the following is a
roll. Report’? feature of Directive Principles of State
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) Policy, and also distinguishes it from
Q.440. The proclamation of which Act by (a) HCL Foundation Fundamental Rights ?
the King of England in 1773 paved the (b) Infosys Foundation SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
way for the establishment of the (c) Tata Trusts (a) It is justiciable.
Supreme Court at Calcutta? (d) Azim Premji Foundation (b) It protects the interest of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Sol.443.(c) Tata Trusts. The India individual.
(a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Indian Councils Act
Justice Report (IJR) is an initiative by (c) It is non - justiciable.
(c) Regulating Act (d) Charter Act
Tata Trusts, in collaboration with the (d) It is prohibitive in nature.
Sol.440.(c) Regulating Act. The Centre for Social Justice, Common
Regulating Act of 1773 led to the Sol.446.(c) It is non - justiciable.
Cause, and the Commonwealth Human Difference Between Fundamental Rights
establishment of the Supreme Court at Rights Initiative, among others. It was
Calcutta, which included a chief justice and DPSP: DPSP are positive as they
first published in 2019. Karnataka was require the State to do certain things
(Elijah Impey) and three other judges. An the top-ranked state in the 2022 India
amendment in 1781 exempted the while FR are negative as they impose
Justice Report (IJR). limitations on the working of the state.
Governor-General, the Council, and
government officials from its jurisdiction Fundamental Rights do not require any
Q.444. Which of the following is NOT a legislation for their implementation. They
while performing their duties.
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 Pinnacle Polity
are automatically enforced while DPSP SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) public tranquility. The act allowed the
requires legislation for their (a) 70 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 60 District Magistrate or Commissioner of
implementation. They are not Police to prohibit public meetings in
automatically enforced. Sol.450.(d) 60. The Central Legislature certain areas if they believed the meeting
was made more powerful and more would promote sedition or disaffection.
Q.447. Any citizen of India can make a representative by the Government of
declaration renouncing his/her Indian India Act, 1919. The Act made the Q.454. The entire salaries, allowances
citizenship under the ________. Governor-General the chief executive and pensions of the chairman and
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) authority. 26 nominated; 34 elected (20 members of the Union Public Service
(a) Citizenship Act, 1985 General, 10 Muslims, 3 Europeans and 1 Commission are charged on the ______.
(b) Citizenship Act, 1965 Sikh). Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(c) Citizenship Act, 1955 (a) Consolidated fund of India
(d) Citizenship Act, 1975 Q.451. Which of the following was widely (b) Special Fund of the UPSC
considered as the ‘heaven born service’ (c) Contingency fund of India
Sol.447.(c) Citizenship Act, 1955. It is an for Indians during British rule? (d) Reserve Bank of India
Act to provide for the acquisition and SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
determination of Indian citizenship. Part (a) Military service on the Burma front Sol.454.(a) Consolidated fund of India :
II of the Indian Constitution deals with (b) The Indian Civil Service or ICS The salaries, allowances, and pensions
citizenship from Articles 5 to 11. (c) The Indian Judicial Service of the chairman and members are
Citizenship can be acquired by: Birth, (d) The British Indian Army charged to the Consolidated Fund of
Descent, Registration, Naturalization, and India to ensure their financial
incorporation of territory. Sol.451.(b) The Indian Civil Service or independence and security, preventing
ICS. It was brought into existence by executive influence, as their expenses

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Q.448. Which of the following Sections Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) to check the don't require Parliament's approval.
of the Indian Penal Code deals with corruption in the East India company

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'rape'? (EEIC). The Charter Act of 1853 provided Q.455. Who among the following was the
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) for Open competition for ICS first chairperson of National Commission

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(a) Section 370 (b) Section 375 examination. Satyendranath Tagore was for Women and a senior congress leader
(c) Section 380 (d) Section 385 the first Indian to join ICS in 1863. who passed away in 2022?
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Aitchson commission (1886) and Lee Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.448.(b) Section 375. Section 370 of
commission (1926) is related to reform (a) Ambika Soni (b) Sushmita Dev
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the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with

in ICS. (c) Jayanti Patnaik (d) Sheila Dikshit
the crime of human trafficking. Section
380 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals Q.452. During a National Emergency, the Sol.455.(c) Jayanti Patnaik.
TG

with theft in a dwelling house, tent, or term of Lok Sabha can be extended for: The National Commission for Women
vessel that is used as a human dwelling Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (NCW) is a statutory body of the
or for the custody of property. Section (a) three months at a time Government of India, primarily focused
on

385 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals (b) six months at a time on advising the government on all policy
with putting someone in fear of injury to (c) one year at a time matters affecting women. Established on
commit extortion. According to BNS
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(d) two years at a time 31 January 1992 under the Indian

(Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) Section for
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Constitution, it was defined by the 1990

Rape is Section 63 and for Punishment Sol.452.(c) One year at a time. During a National Commission for Women Act.
a

for rape is Section 64. National Emergency in India, the term of The first head of the commission was
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the Lok Sabha can be extended by the Jayanti Patnaik, and as of 24 February
Q.449. Who is the Chief Executive Head Parliament. According to Article 83 of the 2024, Rekha Sharma serves as the
of the State ? Indian Constitution, the normal term of chairperson.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) the Lok Sabha is five years. However,
(a) President (b) Governor (c) CM (d) PM under Article 352, if a National Q.456. Which of the following is the
Emergency is declared, the term of the proposed successor to the Information
Sol.449.(b) Governor. He is appointed by
Lok Sabha can be extended beyond five Technology Act, 2000?
the President for a five-year term and
years. The extension can only be done Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
holds office at the President's pleasure.
for one year at a time and cannot extend (a) Digital India Bill (b) Cyber India Bill
The Governor has several key powers,
beyond six months after the emergency (c) Optical India Bill (d) Multimedia Bill
including appointing the Chief Minister
has ceased to operate.
and other Ministers (Article 164), Sol.456.(a) Digital India Bill. The Digital
assenting or withholding assent to bills Q.453. The Prevention of Seditious India Act (DIA) aims to regulate the
(Article 200), promulgating ordinances Meetings Act was passed in ________ by digital ecosystem, including
(Article 213), and granting pardons the colonial Government. cybersecurity, digital governance, and
(Article 161). Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) internet intermediaries. The Information
(a) 1898 (b) 1903 (c) 1912 (d) 1907 Technology Act, 2000 (ITA-2000), notified
Q.450. How many members (elected and on 17 October 2000, is India's primary
nominated) were there in the Council of Sol.453.(d) 1907. The Prevention of law addressing cybercrime and
State under the Government of India Act Seditious Meetings Act was brought e-commerce. Secondary legislation
1919 passed by the Parliament of the under the tenure of Lord Minto. The act includes the Intermediary Guidelines
United Kingdom to expand participation was intended to prevent public meetings Rules, 2011, and the IT (Intermediary
of Indians in the government of India? that could promote sedition or disturb
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 Pinnacle Polity
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics founded an expatriate Communist Party 2. This Act was divided into two separate
Code) Rules, 2021. of India at Tashkent in 1920? acts for the India and Burma
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) Government.
Q.457. Which of the following does NOT (a) Jolly Kaul (b) M.N. Roy 3. This act commenced from 1 April
come under Directive Principles of State (c) P.C. Joshi (d) Shripad Amrut Dange 1935.
Policy? Select the correct statement(s) using the
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.460.(b) M.N. Roy (Father of Indian code given below.
(a) Promotion of the Welfare of the Communism). He was the first person to SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
People give the idea of a Constituent Assembly (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Promotion of Indian Local Languages for India and the creator of the Mexican (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Both 1 and 3
(c) Uniform Civil Code Communist Party. Communist Party of
(d) Promotion of Cottage Industries India (CPI) - It is the oldest communist Sol.463.(a) Both 1 and 2.
party in India. Founded - in modern-day The Government of India Act 1935
Sol.457.(b) Promotion of Indian Local Kanpur on 26 December 1925. First (Commenced in 1937): It provided for the
Languages is primarily governed by the General Secretary - S.V. Ghate . establishment of an All India Federation
provisions of Part XVII of the Indian Headquarters - Ajoy Bhavan (New Delhi). consisting of provinces and princely
Constitution, which deals with official states as units. It divided the powers
languages (Articles 343 to 351). Directive Q.461. Which of the following Acts between the Centre and units in terms of
Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is prevents disrespect to the National Flag three lists, Federal List, Provincial List
covered under Articles 36-51 of Part IV of and National Anthem? and Concurrent List.
the Indian Constitution. Article 38: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Promotion of the Welfare of the People. (a) Prevention of insults to National Q.464. Who propounded the concept of
Article 44: Uniform Civil Code. Article 43: Honour Act, 1971 'Rule of Law'?

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Promotion of Cottage Industries. (b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)

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2006 (a) AV Dicey (b) CK Daphtary
Q.458. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya (c) Protection of National Honour Act, (c) Austin (d) AK Sen
Yojana’ (‘PM-JAY’) scheme of the

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1996
government is associated with which of (d) Civil Liberties Act, 2001 Sol.464.(a) AV Dicey. Rule of Law - It
the following Directive Principles of State means all laws apply equally to all
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Policy ? Sol.461.(a) Prevention of Insults to citizens of the country and no one can be
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 National Honour Act, 1971: Insults to above the law. Three principles of Rule of
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(a) Participation of workers in the Indian National Flag and Constitution of Law given by A.V. Dicey : Supremacy of
management of industries India - Whoever in any public place or in law, Equality before law, Individual rights.
(b) Promotion of co-operative societies any other place within public view burns, Chander Kishan Daphtary - First solicitor
TG

(c) Equal justice and free legal aid mutilates, defaces, disfigures, destroys, general of India (1950-63).
(d) Duty of State to raise the level of tramples upon or into contempt the
nutrition and the improvement of Indian National Flag or the Constitution Q.465. In which of the following years
on

public health of India or any part thereof, shall be was the Child Marriage Restraint Act
punished with imprisonment for a term passed?
h

Sol.458.(d) Article 47 - Duty of the State which may extend to three years, or with SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
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to raise the level of nutrition and the fine, or with both. (a) 1856 (b) 1947 (c) 1878 (d) 1929
improvement of public health. Part IV -
a

Directive Principles of State Policy Q.462. In the Interim Government formed Sol.465.(d) 1929. Child Marriage (The
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(Article 36 to 51): Article 38 - State to on 2 September 1946, Liaquat Ali Khan marriage of a girl or a boy before the age
secure a social order for the promotion was given the charge of: of 18 years). Prohibtion of Child Marriage
of welfare of the people. SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Act (PCMA), 2006 :- It replaced the Child
(a) the External Affairs Ministry Marriage Restraints Act, 1929. The
Q.459. Certain provisions of the Benami (b) the Finance Ministry marriageable age to be 18 and 21 for
Transactions (Prohibition) Act were (c) the Defence Ministry girls and boys respectively Other laws to
struck off by the Supreme Court. In (d) the Home Ministry protect the child :- Juvenile Justice (Care
which year was this law originally and Protection of Children) Act, 2015,
enacted? Sol.462.(b) The Finance Ministry. Interim Domestic Violence Act, 2005 and the
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Government (1946): Headed by Jawahar Protection of Children from Sexual
(a) 1998 (b) 1980 (c) 1999 (d) 1988 Lal Nehru. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held Offences Act, 2012.
the Home Affairs, Information, and
Sol.459.(d) 1988. Benami Transactions Broadcasting. Rajendra Prasad held the Q.466. Who described the Indian federal
(Prohibition) Act (Name changed to portfolio of Agriculture and Food. C system as a bargaining federalism?
Prohibition of Benami Property Rajagopalachari was the Education and SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift)
Transactions Act, 1988 by Section 3 of Arts Minister. Jagjivan Ram held the (a) KC Wheare (b) Ivor Jennings
the 2016 amendment) - It is an Act to Labour Ministry. Jogendra Nath Mandal (c) Granville Austin (d) Morris Jones
prohibit benami transactions and the was the Law Minister.
right to recover property held benami and Sol.466.(d) Morris Jones. Federalism - A
for matters connected therewith or Q.463. Consider the following statement system of government in which powers
incidental. about the Government of India Act, 1935. are divided between two or more levels
1. This act was enacted by the British of government, such as the centre and
Q.460. Who among the following Parliament. the state or provinces. Described - “Quasi
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 Pinnacle Polity
federalism” (KC Wheare). “Cooperative to equality under Article 14 does not the elected legislative assembly
federalism” (Granville Austin). override the fundamental right to religion {Assembly Seats (70), Lok Sabha seats
'Federalism with Centralising tendency' under Article 25. The notions of rationality (7)}. The Assembly has all the powers
(Ivor Jenning). Federalism concept cannot be invoked in matters of religion. under the State and Concurrent Lists
borrowed from ‘Canada’. The Supreme Court struck down with the exception of public order, police,
provisions of the Kerala Hindu Places of and land.
Q.467. ‘The Constitution of free India Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry)
must be framed, without outside Rules, 1965, and allowed women, Q.473. Offences for which the police can
interference by a constituent assembly irrespective of their age, to enter arrest a person without an order from the
elected on the basis of adult franchise’. Sabarimala temple and worship the deity. court are called _________.
Who made this statement? SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.470. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) (a) Cognizable offences
(a) MN Roy (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Act, 2021, amends the Income Tax Act of (b) Detention offences
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Mahatma Gandhi ________. (c) Non Cognizable offences
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (d) Cross offences
Sol.467.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Made (a) 1961 (b) 1974 (c) 1995 (d) 1988
this statement on behalf of the Indian Sol.473.(a) Cognizable offenses - It
National Congress (INC) in 1938. The Sol.470.(a) 1961. Taxation Law includes murder, rape, theft, kidnapping,
idea of ​Constituent Assembly for India Amendment Act, 2021 - It aims to counterfeiting, etc. Detention - The act of
was first given by M.N.Roy in 1934. withdraw tax demands made using a temporarily holding individuals in
Constituent Assembly : Formed in 1946. 2012 retrospective legislation to tax the custody or confinement, typically by a
Role - Elected to write the Constitution of indirect transfer of Indian assets. Income government or governing authority by
India. Committees with their chairman : Tax Act (1961) - It provides an elaborate removing their freedom or liberty at that

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Union Constitution Committee - mechanism for the levying of taxes, their time. Non-Cognizable offences - An

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Jawaharlal Nehru. Drafting committee - administration, collection & recovery. It offence for which a Police officer has no
Dr. B R Ambedkar. Provincial Constitution has 298 sections & 14 schedules. authority to arrest without warrant. These

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Committee - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. include offences like cheating, assault,
Q.471. The Constitution (One Hundred defamation etc.
Q.468. As per the responsibilities defined and Twenty Seventh Amendment) Bill,
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in National Food Security Act, 2013, 2021, was introduced in the Lok Sabha Q.474. Which act has been amended by
which of the following is a responsibility by the ______ in August 2021. the Supreme Court of India to provide
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of the state/UT government? Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) equal rights to daughters in their
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Minister of Social Justice and ancestral property ?
(a) Transportation of foodgrains up to Empowerment SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning)
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designated depots in each state/UT (b) Minister of Minority Affairs (a) The Contempt of Courts Act
(b) Allocation of required foodgrains to (c) Minister of Tribal Affairs (b) Hindu Succession Act
states/UTS (d) Minister of Rural Development (c) Hindu Marriage Act
on

(c) Delivery of foodgrains from (d) Sharda Act

designated FCI godowns Sol.471.(a) Minister of Social Justice
and Empowerment - By Dr. Virendra Sol.474.(b) Hindu Succession Act
h

(d) Identification of eligible households

Kumar. 102 Amendment Act, 2018: (1956) - It governs the inheritance of
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Sol.468.(d) Identification of eligible Constitutional status was provided to the property by Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and
a

households. The National Food Security National Commission for Backward Sikhs. Contempt of Courts Act (1971) - It
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Act (2013) - 75% of Rural and 50% of Classes under Article 338B. Articles 338 defines the power to punish for contempt
Urban population is entitled to receive and 338A - The National Commission for of court and regulates their procedure.
highly subsidised foodgrains under two Scheduled Castes (SC) and National Hindu Marriage Act (1955) - It defines
categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya Commission for Scheduled Tribes (ST), the minimum age of 18 years for the
Anna Yojana (AAY) households and respectively. 103rd Amendment Act, bride and 21 years for the groom.
Priority Households (PHH). Public 2019:- Reservations for the Economic
Distribution System (PDS) is governed by Q.475. The Union Finance Ministry
Weaker Section and amendment in
provisions of the National Food Security issued a notification amending the
Articles 15(6) and 16(6), provide 10%
Act, 2013 (NFSA). Electoral Bonds Scheme to allow the sale
reservation in public employment.
of electoral bonds for extra _______ days
Q.469. Justice Indu Malhotra penned a Q.472. When were the general elections in the year of general elections to the
dissenting opinion in which of the to the Legislative Assembly of the Legislative Assembly of States and UTs
following landmark judgements? National Capital Territory held for the first with legislature.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) time? SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Basic structure doctrine Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) (a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 15 (d) 25
(b) Preamble part of the Constitution (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (c) 1992 (d) 1991
(c) Entry of women to Sabarimala Sol.475.(c) 15. Electoral Bonds Scheme:
(d) Land reforms in India Sol.472.(b) 1993. The 69th amendment Launched - 2018 . Bonds are issued only
act, 1991 inserted Article 239AA, which to those political parties that are
Sol.469.(c) Entry of women to registered under section 29A of the
declared the Union Territory of Delhi to
Sabarimala. Justice Indu Malhotra opined Representation of the People Act, 1951.
be administered by a Lieutenant
that religious practices cannot be solely Electoral bonds were a mode of funding
Governor who works on aid and advice of
tested on the basis of Article 14. The right for political parties in India from their
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 Pinnacle Polity
introduction in 2018 until they were individuals. Objective - To consolidate Q.484. The detention of a person cannot
struck down as unconstitutional by the and amend all existing insolvency laws, exceed ________ unless an advisory board
Supreme Court on 15 February 2024. to simplify and expedite the Insolvency consisting of judges of a High Court
and Bankruptcy Proceedings, to promote reports sufficient cause for extended
Q.476. In which year was the Dowry entrepreneurship. detention.
Prohibition Act passed in India? SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.480. What are the two most essential (a) one month (b) three months
(a) 1973 (b) 1982 (c) 1961 (d) 1954 rights of a democracy? (c) six months (d) two months
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sol.476.(c) 1961. Dowry Prohibition Act: (a) Exploitation, preventive detention Sol.484.(b) three months. Article 22
It extends to the whole of India except (b) Equality, Freedom (Part III) grants protection to persons
the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (c) Freedom, preventive detention who are arrested or detained (available
Important Acts in India - Hindu Widow (d) Equality, Exploitation to both citizens and foreigners).
Remarriage Act 1856, Child Marriage Preventive detention means the
Restraint Act 1929, Muslim Women Sol.480.(b) Equality, Freedom. Democracy detention of a person without trial and
Protection of Rights on Marriage Act is a form of government in which rulers are conviction by a court.
2019 (Triple Talaq Act), Rights of elected by the people in a free and fair
Persons with Disabilities Act 2016, elections, on universal adult franchise and Q.485. When was the National
National Security Act 1980. governed on the basis of certain Emergency declared for the first time
fundamental rules like a constitution. under Article 352 ?
Q.477. In which year was the Arms Act Types of Democracy: Direct democracy SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
passed in India? and Representative democracy. (a) 1963 - 69 (b) 1961 - 65
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) 1961 - 67 (d) 1962 - 68

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(a) 1951 (b) 1955 (c) 1959 (d) 1964 Q.481. In which year was the Indian
Parliamentary Group established? Sol.485.(d) 1962-68. The National

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Sol.477.(c) The Indian Arms Act of SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) Emergency has been declared 3 times in
1959: As per the preamble, this Act aims (a) 1950 (b) 1949 (c) 1948 (d) 1951 India : 1962 to 1968 {During the

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to consolidate and amend the law India-China war, when “the security of
relating to arms and ammunition. The Sol.481.(b) In 1949, The Indian India” was declared as being “threatened
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main objective of this Act is to regulate Parliamentary Group was an autonomous by external aggression”, President
and restrict the circulation of arms and body formed in the year 1949 in (Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan)}. 1971
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ammunition, which were illegal. It was pursuance of a motion adopted by the {During the Indo - Pakistan war, President
enacted by the Indian government after Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on (V.V.Giri), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
independence, recognizing that certain 16th August 1948. Speaker of Lok Sabha 1975 to 1977 {The emergency was
TG

law-abiding citizens must own and use is its ex-officio President. declared on the basis of “internal
firearms for sports, crop protection, and disturbance”, President (Fakhruddin Ali
self-defence. Q.482. If the State government dissolves
Ahmed), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
on

the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the

Q.478. In which year was the Special end of their five-year term, fresh elections Q.486. How many religious communities
Marriage Act passed in India? should ordinarily be held within _____.
h

are notified as minorities by the

SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
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Government of India?
(a) 1958 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1950 (a) one month (b) six months Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
a

(c) one year (d) three months (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four
Sol.478.(b) 1954. Special Marriage Act
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(SMA) is an Indian law that provides a Sol.482.(b) Six months. Under Article Sol.486.(c) Six {Muslims, Christians,
legal framework for the marriage of 243 E - An election to constitute a Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains
people belonging to different religions or Panchayat shall be completed - Before (added in 2014), National Commission
castes. The applicability of the Act the expiry of its duration specified in on Minorities Act 1992}. According to the
extends to the people of all faiths, clause (1) or before the expiration of a 2011 Census {Hindu (79.8%), Muslim
including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, period of six months from the date of its (14.2%), Christian (2.3%), Sikh (1.7%),
Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across dissolution. Buddhist (0.7%), Jain (0.4%).
India. The minimum age to get married
under the SMA is 21 years for males and Q.483. Which freedom is considered as Q.487. In which year was the National
18 years for females. the ‘Hallmark of Democracy’? Youth Policy launched by the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Government of India ?
Q.479. In India, according to the Insolvency (a) Right against exploitation Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of (b) Right to freedom of religion (a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
insolvency resolution for companies (c) Freedom of assembly
should be completed in how many days? (d) Freedom of speech and expression Sol.487.(b) 2014. It seeks to define the
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) Vision of the Government of India for the
(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 120 Sol.483.(b) The Right to freedom of Youth of the Country. The first youth
Religion (Article 25-28) is considered the policy was released in 1988. National
Sol.479 (a) 180. The Insolvency and Hallmark of Democracy. Fundamental Youth Day is held every year on 12th
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) - A rights are mentioned in Part III (Article January to observe the birth anniversary
time-bound process for resolving 12-35) of the Constitution. of Swami Vivekananda.
insolvency in companies and among

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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.488. Which freedom fighter abolished Sol.492.(b) 1956. The States Q.497. On the night of ______ 1975, Indira
the Zamindari System in Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major Gandhi recommended the imposition of
and was elected as the Home Minister in reform of the boundaries of India's states Emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali
1955? and territories, organising them along Ahmed.
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning) linguistic lines. The Government divided SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) Lala Hardayal the country into 14 states and 6 union (a) 1st June (b) 22nd May
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant territories under the State Reorganisation (c) 25th June (d) 1st July
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Act.
(d) Jyotiba Phule Sol.497.(c) 25th June. The third
Q.493. Which of the following Acts was emergency of India started at the mid
Sol.488.(b) Govind Ballabh Pant passed by the Government of India to night of 25th June 1975 and was
successfully abolished the exploitative inquire into allegations of corruption extended till 23 March 1977. The main
Zamindari system and revolutionised against certain public functionaries? reason for this emergency was “internal
laws pertaining to women’s inheritance SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon) disturbances”. First emergency of India
and marriage. He was appointed Minister (a) Delimitation Act was started on 26 October 1962
of Home Affairs in the Union Cabinet on (b) Prevention of Money Laundering Act (India-China war). The second
10 January 1955 in New Delhi by Nehru. (c) Central Vigilance Commission Act emergency was during the India-Pakistan
He started a weekly paper called ‘Shakti’. (d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act war from 3-17 December 1971.
In 1957, he was awarded the Bharat
Ratna. Sol.493.(d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Q.498. Which of the following is the
Act was passed by the Government of expanded form of the abbreviation 'Rep.'
Q.489. As per the coding convention of India to inquire into allegations of used in the text of the Constitution of
India Census, how many digit code is corruption against certain public India?

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used for showing state code? functionaries. SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)

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SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Repealed (b) Republic
Q.494. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was (c) Report (d) Representative
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
enacted after repealing which of the
Sol.489.(c) 2. The coding convention
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following Indian forest acts?
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning)
Sol.498.(a) Repealed. The meaning of
Repeal is to rescind or annul by
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used: State code (2 digits); District code
(3 digits); Sub-district code (5 digits); (a) Indian Forest Act, 1882 authoritative act; especially : to revoke or
Village code (6 digits). (b) Indian Forest Act, 1922 abrogate by legislative enactment.
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(c) Indian Forest Act, 1865

Q.490. On which day was the National (d) Indian Forest Act, 1878 Q.499. ______ is a set of norms and
Emblem of India adopted ? guidelines to be followed by the political
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SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) Sol.494.(d) Indian Forest Act, 1878. The parties and contesting candidates during
(a) 15th August 1952 Indian Forest Act of 1878 divided Indian election time.
(b) 26th January 1950 forests into reserved forests (completely SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon)
on

(c) 15th August 1947 government-controlled), protected (a) Constitutional Norms

(d) 26th January 1959 forests (partially government-controlled) (b) Constitutional Rules
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and village forests (controlled by (c) Code of Conduct

Sol.490.(b) 26th January 1950. The
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abutting villages). (d) Rigging

state emblem is an adaptation from the
a

Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Motto- Q.495. One-third of the members of the Sol.499.(c) Code of Conduct is a set of
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Satyameva Jayate ("Truth Alone Vidhan Parishad retire every ______ years. rules outlining the norms, rules, and
Triumphs") is taken from the "Mundaka SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) responsibilities or proper practices of an
Upanishad", a part of Upanishads. (a) four (b) one (c) three (d) two individual party or an organisation.

Q.491. The Right of Children to Free and Sol.495.(d) two years. Vidhan Parishad Q.500. In 1977, who became then
Compulsory Education Act 2009 is an Act or Legislative Council is a permanent President of the Janata Party, which
of Parliament which came into force in: body, which can be formed or abolished formed a coalition government at the
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) when the Legislative Assembly passes a centre with Morarji Desai as the Prime
(a) 2012 (b) 2011 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 special resolution. Minister?
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.491.(d) 2010. The Act makes Q.496. Which was the first part of India (a) Charan Singh
education a fundamental right of every to hold an election based on universal (b) George Fernandes
child between the ages of 6 and 14 and adult franchise ? (c) Chandra Shekhar
specifies minimum norms in elementary SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) (d) Madhu Dandavate
schools. (a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Manipur (d) Bihar Sol.500.(c) Chandra Shekhar. He was
Q.492. In which of the following years
President of the Janata Party from 1977
was an Act enacted to provide for the Sol.496.(c) Manipur (June 1948). to 1988. Chandra Shekhar was sworn in
reorganisation of the states of India and Maharaja of Manipur Bodhchandra Singh as the ninth Prime Minister of India on
for matters connected therewith? signed the instrument of accession with November 10, 1991 and remained in
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) the Indian government on the assurance office until June 21, 1991, for a period
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 (c) 1959 (d) 1962 that the internal autonomy of Manipur spanning 223 days.
would be maintained

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 Pinnacle Geography
constellation best seen in the northern (a) It is a gas giant made up mostly of
Geography hemisphere during the summer and fall hydrogen and helium and the density
months around September is: is less than that of water
Solar System And Its Planets SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (b) Its surface is reddish in colour.
(a) Cygnus (b) Ursa Major (c) It was the seventh planet discovered
Q.1. Who gave the expanding universe
(c) Pegasus (d) Cassiopeia in the Solar System.
hypothesis?
(d) Its cloud-like outer regions consist of
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) Sol.5.(a) Cygnus. It is a northern methane in the gaseous form and
(a) Galileo Galilei constellation on the plane of the Milky ammonia in crystalline form.
(b) Edwin Hubble Way, deriving its name from the Latinized
(c) James Clerk Maxwell Greek word for swan. Sol.9.(a) Saturn's density (0.70 gm/cm3)
(d) CV Raman is less than that of water, making it the
Q.6. The colour of the surface of Mars is least dense planet in the solar system. If
Sol.1.(b) Edwin Hubble. The most red because of the presence of large there were a body of water large enough,
popular argument regarding the origin of amounts of chemical compounds in it. Saturn would theoretically float. The
the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is What is the name of that compound ? presence of methane and ammonia is
also called the expanding universe SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) more characteristic of Uranus and
hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, (a) Magnesium oxide (b) Tin oxide Neptune.
provided evidence that the universe is (c) Iron oxide (d) Nitrogen oxide
expanding. As time passes, galaxies Q.10. Which of the following is NOT a
move further and further apart. Galileo Sol.6.(c) Iron oxide. Mars appears moon of Jupiter ?
Galilei is known for his contributions to reddish due to the presence of ferric iron SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
astronomy, particularly with the use of in the form of red hematite (Fe2O3). The (a) Callisto (b) Europa

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the telescope. surface pressure of Mars is 610 Pascals, (c) Ganymede (d) Triton
and its gravity is about one - third of

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Q.2. Geoid is the ________ of earth. Earth's. A Martian day lasts 24 hours and Sol.10.(d) Triton (largest moon of
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) 37 minutes. Mars has two moons: neptune). Jupiter: It is the fifth planet

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(a) orbit (b) axis (c) colour (d) shape Phobos and Deimos. from the Sun. Revolution - 11 years and
11 months, Rotation - 9 hours 56
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Sol.2.(d) shape. The Earth looks Q.7. Which dwarf planet orbits the sun in minutes. Natural Satellites of planets (As
spherical in shape, but it is not a perfect 310 years at a distance between 38.5 to of October 2024) - Jupiter (95), Saturn
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sphere. It is slightly flattened at the top 53 AU ? (146), Earth (1, Moon), Uranus (28),
and bottom (near the South and North SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Neptune (16).
Poles) and bulges at the Equator due to (a) Eris (b) Ceres (c) Makemake (d) Pluto
TG

the outward force caused by the rotation Q.11. Which of the following rocky
of the Earth. The Geoid shape is not Sol.7.(c) Makemake. It is the third-largest planets is the fastest planet in our solar
perfectly spherical. and second-brightest known dwarf planet. system – traveling through space at
on

It was discovered in 2005. Pluto was about 29 miles (47 kilometers) per
Q.3. Which is, by far, the closest dwarf discovered in 1930. It was initially second?
planet orbiting at only 2.8 times Earth’s classified as the ninth planet of the Solar
h

SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)

distance from the sun ? System but was reclassified as a dwarf
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(a) Earth (b) Mercury (c) Venus (d) Mars

SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) planet in 2006. Pluto has a natural
(a) Ceres (b) Makemake
a

satellite named 'Charon'. Sol.11.(b) Mercury. It is the nearest to

(c) Eris (d) Pluto
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the sun. It takes only about 88 days to

Q.8. Which of the following is the second complete one round along its orbit.
Sol.3.(a) Ceres is the largest object in nearest star to Earth? Venus: It is considered as ‘Earth’s - twin’
the asteroid belt between Mars and SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) because its size and shape are very
Jupiter, and it is the only dwarf planet (a) Proxima Centauri (b) Polaris much similar to that of the earth. Venus
located in the inner solar system. It was (c) Sirius (d) Delta Velorum is also known as Lucifer. Earth is the fifth
the first member of the asteroid belt to
Sol.8.(a) Proxima Centauri. It is the largest planet (in size). It is slightly
be discovered when Giuseppe Piazzi
closest star to the sun, at a distance of flattened at the poles and its shape is
spotted it in 1801.
4.24 light - years. A light - year is the described as a Geoid. Mars - The fourth
Q.4. A ________ is a cloud of dust and gas distance light travels in one year, which is planet from the Sun and it is a dusty,
inside a galaxy. about 9.461 x 1012 kilometers. Polaris cold, desert world with a very thin
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (North Star) is located nearly directly atmosphere.
(a) black hole (b) photosphere above Earth's North Pole along its Q.12. Which of the following planets’
(c) nebula (d) chromosphere rotational axis. Sirius (Dog Star) is the atmosphere is made up of thick white
brightest star in Earth's night sky. Delta and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid ?
Sol.4.(c) nebula. A nebula is an
Velorum is a triple star system in the SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
interstellar cloud of dust, hydrogen,
southern constellation of Vela. (a) Venus (b) Jupiter
helium and other ionized gases.
Originally, nebula was a name for any Q.9. Which of the following statements (c) Mars (d) Neptune
diffuse astronomical object, including most accurately describes the planet Sol.12.(a) Venus, the second planet from
galaxies beyond the Milky Way. Saturn? the Sun, is the hottest and known as the
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) "morning star." Mars' atmosphere is
Q.5. A distinctive cross - shaped
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 Pinnacle Geography
95.32% carbon dioxide, with methane system, and it is the second coldest SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
and sulfur dioxide. Uranus is the coldest planet. It was discovered in 1846. It is the (a) Saturn (b) Jupiter (c) Earth (d) Uranus
planet. The coldest planet in the Solar windiest planet in our solar system. One
System is Uranus. day on Neptune takes about 16 hours. Sol.21.(a) Saturn. Our Solar System has
eight planets which orbit the sun. In order
Q.13. Which of the following is one of the Q.17. The point in the orbit of an object of distance from the sun they are:
largest spiral galaxies? (such as a satellite) orbiting the earth Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) that is at the greatest distance from the Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Largest to
(a) NGC 6872 (b) Milky Way centre of the earth is known as: smallest: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus,
(c) Cygnus A (d) Maffei 1 SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Neptune, Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury.
(a) perigee (b) apogee Saturn moon Titan is the second largest
Sol.13.(a) NGC 6872, which is one of the (c) perihelion (d) aphelion moon after Ganymede (Jupiter’s moon).
largest spiral galaxies, spanning 522,000
light-years across, approximately five Sol.17.(b) Apogee. Perigee: The moon's Q.22. _________ oblong orbit overlaps the
times the size of the Milky Way. It is orbit closest to the Earth. Perihelion: The orbit of Neptune.
located 212 million light-years from Earth Earth closest to the Sun on 3rd January. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
in the southern constellation Pavo. Aphelion: The Earth farthest from the (a) Jupiter’s (b) Pluto’s (c) Venus’ (d) Mars’
Sun on 4th July.
Q.14. The length of a day on ______ is Sol.22.(b) Pluto’s. Neptune is the
approximately 16 hours. Q.18. A flat ring of small, icy bodies that outermost Jovian planet in the solar
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) revolve around the sun beyond the orbit system. Until 2006 Pluto was the farthest
(a) Venus (b) Mercury of the planet Neptune is called: planet from the Sun. In 2006, The
(c) Mars (d) Neptune SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) International Astronomical Union (IAU)

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(a) Oort Cloud (b) Bow Shock downgraded the status of Pluto to that of
Sol.14.(d) Neptune. Planet and Day (c) Asteroid Belt (d) Kuiper Belt a dwarf planet. The Jovian planets are

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Length in hours: Mercury (1,408), Venus Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune,
(5,832), Earth (24), Mars (25), Jupiter Sol.18.(d) Kuiper Belt, named after
which are also known as the gas giants.

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(10), Saturn (11), Uranus (17). Mercury is Gerard Kuiper, is a region beyond
nearest to the sun. It takes only about 88 Neptune in the outer solar system, Q.23. Which of the following statements
ap
days to complete one round along its proposed by him in 1951. The asteroid about planet Saturn is true?
orbit. belt lies between the orbits of Mars and SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
:@

Jupiter. (a) Saturn is the fourth planet from the

Q.15. Who was the first to develop a Sun and the largest planet in our solar
mathematical predictive heliocentric Q.19. The Big Dipper is an asterism
formed by the seven brightest stars in system.
TG

model of the solar system ? (b) Satellites like Enceladus and Titan of
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) the constellation:
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Saturn are home to internal oceans,
(a) Nicolaus Copernicus could possibly support life.
(a) Ursa Major (b) Cassiopeia
on

(b) Galileo Galilei (c) Saturn's environment is conducive to

(c) Pierre-Simon Laplace (c) Leo Major (d) Orion
life.
(d) Immanuel Kant
h

Sol.19.(a) Ursa Major (Great Bear) is the (d) Saturn is a massive ball made up
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Sol.15.(a) Nicolaus Copernicus. third - largest constellation in the sky and mostly nitrogen.
Although Aryabhatta (5th century A.D.) the largest constellation in the Northern
a

Hemisphere. Orion is three bright stars Sol.23.(b) Saturn is the second largest
hinted at astronomical ideas, Copernicus
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close together in an almost-straight line. planet, composed of hydrogen and

(1473 - 1543) developed the first helium. It has 146 moons. Titan - It is the
mathematical heliocentric model, where Cassiopeia is a large constellation
located in the northern sky. The Leo largest moon of Saturn and the second
planets revolved around a fixed Sun. largest moon in our solar system.
Galileo supported this model, and constellation lies in the northern sky.
Enceladus - It is the second nearest of
Johannes Kepler later refined it by Q.20. A constellation of the northern sky the major regular moons of Saturn and
introducing elliptical orbits, now known easily recognised by a group of five the brightest of all its moons. It was
as Kepler's laws. bright stars forming a slightly irregular discovered in 1789 by the English
‘W’ is called: astronomer William Herschel. It is found
Q.16. Who calculated the approximate
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) that Titan has methane in its atmosphere
location of the planet Neptune by
(a) Cassiopeia (b) Orion and Enceladus has a liquid ocean with
studying gravity- induced disturbances in
(c) Ursa Major (d) Cygnus erupting plumes of gas and water.
the motion of Uranus?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.20.(a) Cassiopeia. It is a prominent Q.24. Which star is also known as the
(a) John Couch Adams constellation in the northern sky. It is ‘Pole Star’ ?
(b) Percival Lowell visible during winter in the early part of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
(c) Johann Gottfried Galle the night. It looks like a distorted letter W (a) The East star (b) The South star
(d) Urbain-Jean-Joseph Le Verrier or M. (c) The West star (d) The North star
Sol.16.(d) Urbain - Jean - Joseph Le Q.21. Which planet is the second largest Sol.24.(d) The North star. Polaris, also
Verrier. He was a French astronomer and planet in our solar system and also has known as the North Star, is located
mathematician. Neptune is the eighth the biggest and the brightest rings almost directly above Earth's north pole
and most distant planet in our solar around it ? along our planet's rotational axis. The
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 Pinnacle Geography
imaginary line that runs through the Planets - Mercury, Venus, Earth and (a) 7456 km (b) 6371 km
Earth from the North Pole to the South Mars. They are categorised into the (c) 5619 km (d) 4728 km
Pole is called the Earth's axis of rotation. following: Silicate Planets, Iron Planets,
The Earth rotates around this axis, Coreless Planets, Carbon (diamond) Sol.33.(b) 6371 km. Earth Distance from
similar to how a top spins around its Planets. the Sun (150 million km), Surface area:
spindle. 510.1 million km², Land area: 149 million
Q.29. Which trend is found about the km², Gravity: 9.8 m/s².
Q.25. In 1905, who concluded with distance between the galaxies?
Thomas Chamberlain that the planets of SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Q.34. Each orbit of the International
the Solar System originated from an (a) Unpredictable (b) Decreasing Space Station (ISS) takes _____minutes .
encounter between the Sun and another (c) Constant (d) Increasing SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
star? (a) 80 - 82 (b) 85 - 87 (c) 90 - 93 (d) 83 - 86
Sol.29.(d) Increasing. In 1929, Edwin
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.34.(c) 90-93. In 24 hours, the space
Hubble announced that almost all
(a) James Hutton (b) Inge Lehmann station makes 16 orbits of Earth,
galaxies appeared to be moving away
(c) Charles Lyell (d) Forest Moulton traveling through 16 sunrises and
from us. He found that the universe was
Sol.25.(d) Forest Moulton. He was an expanding - with all of the galaxies sunsets.
American astronomer and moving away from each other. This
Q.35. In approximately how much time
mathematician known for his phenomenon was observed as a redshift
does Mars complete one spin on its
contributions to celestial mechanics. He of a galaxy's spectrum.
axis?
co-developed the Chamberlin-Moulton
Q.30. On which planet has a rotating oval SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
planetesimal hypothesis, which proposed
of clouds, twice as wide as Earth, called (a) 16 hours (b) 8 hours
a model for the formation of the solar

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the 'Great Red Spot' been observed for (c) 1 day 18 hours (d) 1day
system. According to this hypothesis,
more than 300 years ?

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planets formed from smaller bodies Sol.35.(d) 1 day. One spin on the axis of
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
called planetesimals through the process other planets (approximate) : Earth (1
(a) Neptune (b) Mercury

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of accretion. day - 23 hours 56 min), Jupiter (9 hours
(c) Jupiter (d) Venus
56 minutes), Saturn (10 hours 40
Q.26. Perihelion is when Earth is ______.
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Sol.30.(c) Jupiter is the largest planet in minutes), Uranus (17 hours 14 minutes)
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
the solar system. It is made mostly of and Neptune (16 hours 7 minutes).
(a) under the sun
:@

(b) farthest from the sun hydrogen and helium.

Q.36. Which among the following is not a
(c) nearest to the sun Q.31. Which scientist thought of the type of solar eclipse?
(d) above the sun concept of the steady state of the SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
TG

Sol.26.(c) nearest to the sun. On 3rd universe? (a) Annular (b) Partial
January, the earth is the nearest to the SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) (c) Penumbral (d) Total
(a) Harold Jeffrey (b) Edwin Hubble
on

sun (147 million km). Aphelion is the Sol.36.(c) Penumbral (Lunar eclipse). A
point of the Earth’s orbit that is farthest (c) Fred Hoyle (d) Pierre - Laplace
solar eclipse occurs when the Moon
away from the Sun.
h

Sol.31.(c) Fred Hoyle. Steady - State passes between the Earth and the Sun.
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Q.27. Which is the most widely accepted Theory : It is a theoretical model in which Types of solar eclipse: Total (Completely
model to explain the formation and the Universe is constantly expanding but blocking the face of the Sun), Hybrid (the
a

evaluation of the solar system? with a fixed average density. The theory Moon is farther away from Earth, it
Se

SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) was put forward by three scientists Sir appears smaller than the Sun and does
(a) Cloud hypothesis Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold, and Sir not completely cover the Sun) and
(b) Gas hypothesis Fred Hoyle in 1948. Annular (when Sun is at or near its
(c) Nebular hypothesis farthest point from Earth).
Q.32. Cosmic snowballs of frozen gases,
(d) Solar hypothesis rock and dust that orbit the Sun are Q.37. In early 1610, who discovered with
Sol.27.(c) Nebular hypothesis - The known as_______. his newly invented telescope that Jupiter
planets were formed out of a cloud of SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) has four moons?
material associated with a youthful sun, (a) Meteors (b) Star SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
which was slowly rotating. The theory (c) Meteorites (d) Comets (a) Simon Marius (b) Tycho Brahe
was developed by Immanuel Kant. But (c) Galileo Galilei (d) Johannes Kepler
Sol.32.(d) Comets. Meteors are bits of
Mathematician Laplace revised it in
rock and ice that are ejected from Sol.37.(c) Galileo Galilei. He was an
1796. Other Hypothesis: Big Bang Theory
comets as they move in their orbits Italian astronomer and scientist. He
- Propounded by George Lamaitre related
about the Sun. Meteorites - When a described the rings of Saturn, the phases
to the origin of the universe.
meteoroid survives its trip through the of Venus, sunsets, and the bumpy lunar
Q.28. Terrestrial planets are composed atmosphere and hits the ground, it’s surface. The four moons he discovered
of _______. called a meteorite. Meteorites typically were: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) range between the size of a pebble and a
(a) metals and air (b) rocks and metals fist. Q.38. Who was the first to accurately
(c) metals and gas (d) rocks and gas describe the rings of Saturn as a disc
Q.33. What is the radius of the earth? around the planet in 1655?
Sol.28.(b) Rocks and metals. Terrestrial SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
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 Pinnacle Geography
(a) Hideki Yukawa Northern Hemisphere during the night Q.47. In which month is the InterTropical
(b) Galileo Galilei and predawn hours. They are also known Convergence Zone (ITCZ) located around
(c) Christiaan Huygens for their bright fireball meteors. The 20°N-25°N latitude (over the Gangetic
(d) Giovanni Cassini Quadrantids can produce over 100 plain) ?
meteors per hour in a moonless sky. SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.38.(c) Christiaan Huygens. His other (a) May (b) August (c) June (d) July
inventions include the pendulum clock, Q.43. In which of the following months
centrifugal governor, and magic lantern. may the meteor shower named Lyrids be Sol.47.(d) July. The Inter Tropical
seen from Earth? Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low
Q.39. The moon completes _________ SSC MTS 20/10/2021(Afternoon) pressure zone located at the equator
rotation on its axis as it completes one (a) April (b) February (c) June (d) August where trade winds converge, and so, it is
revolution around the Earth. a zone where air tends to ascend. The
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) Sol.43.(a) April. The radiant point for the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone located
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 Lyrid meteor shower is near the around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the
constellation Lyra, which has the bright Gangetic plain) in July month is
Sol.39.(c) 1. The Moon is Earth's only star Vega in the east.
natural satellite circling the planet at an sometimes called the monsoon trough.
average distance of 384,400 kilometers. Q.44. How many degrees does the Earth Q.48. Which of the following statements
The Moon's presence helps stabilize our rotate about its own axis in one hour? is INCORRECT regarding the Coriolis
planet and moderate our climate. The SSC CGL 06/03/2020(Afternoon) force?
radius of the Moon is 1.74 × 106 m. (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 15 SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Huygens is the Moon's tallest mountain. (a) It deflects the wind to the right in the
Sol.44.(d) 15. On its axis, the earth
north and left in the south.

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Q.40. Which of the following statements rotates 360 degrees every 24 hours.
regarding the moon is correct? (b) It is directly proportional to the angle

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of altitude
I. The size of the illuminated part of the Longitudes and Latitudes
moon visible from the Earth increases (c) Deflection is less when the wind is

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each day after the new moon day. high
Q.45. The torrid zone lies between ____.
II. After the full moon day, the sunlit part (d) It is absent at the equator.
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ap
of the moon visible from the Earth (a) Antarctic Circle and Tropic of Sol.48.(c) Deflection is less when the
decreases in size every day. Capricorn wind is high. Coriolis force : An apparent
:@

SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (b) North Pole and Arctic Circle force caused by the earth’s rotation. The
(a) Both I and II (b) Only I (c) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only II Capricorn pressure gradient force (pressure
TG

(d) Arctic Circle and Tropic of Cancer gradient force is perpendicular to an

Sol.40.(a) Both I and II. When there are
two full moons within a month, the isobar). It is maximum at the poles and is
Sol.45.(c) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of
absent at the equator. The Coriolis force
on

second full moon is called a Blue Moon, Capricorn. The Torrid Zone is the thermal
When a full moon occurs at its perigee also affects ocean currents.
zone located between the Tropic of
(the moon is closest to the earth) it is Cancer (23.5°N) and the Tropic of
h

Q.49. Which is the Standard Meridian of

called a Supermoon. Capricorn (23.5°S). It experiences high
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India?
temperatures year-round due to direct SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.41. The ______ radiation belts are giant
a

sunlight. The Temperate Zones lie (a) 81°30ʹ E (b) 82°30ʹ E

swaths of magnetically trapped highly
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between the Tropics and the Arctic Circle (c) 83°30ʹ E (d) 84°40ʹ E
energetic charged particles that surround
(66.5° N) and Antarctic Circle (66.5° S),
Earth. Sol.49.(b) 82°30ʹ E. The Standard
characterized by moderate temperatures
SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Morning) Meridian of India, which passes through
with distinct seasons. The Frigid Zones
(a) Van Allen (b) Aurora Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, also crosses
are found beyond the Arctic and
(c) Kuiper (d) Chinook the following states: Madhya Pradesh,
Antarctic Circles, extending to the North
Sol.41.(a) Van Allen. An aurora is a and South Poles, where temperatures are Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra
natural phenomenon which is extremely cold year-round. Pradesh.
characterized by a display of a
Q.46. At what latitude does the easterly Q.50. Which is the waterbody that
natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or
jet stream blow over peninsular India separates Andaman Islands and Nicobar
white) light in the sky.
during the summer months? Islands?
Q.42. In which of the following periods is SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
the meteor shower named Quadrantids (a) 24°N (b) 30°N (c) 14°N (d) 28°N (a) Eight Degree Channel
generally visible from Earth? (b) Eleven Degree Channel
Sol.46.(c) 14°N. The Jet Stream is a (c) Nine Degree Channel
SSC MTS 20/10/2021(Afternoon)
geostrophic wind blowing horizontally (d) Ten Degree Channel
(a) August/September
through the upper layers of the
(b) October/November
troposphere, generally from west to east. Sol.50.(d) Ten Degree Channel. The 8
(c) May/June
The tropical easterly jet stream, located Degree Channel (north latitude)
(d) December/January
between 8 and 35 degrees north latitude, separates the islands of Minicoy (India)
Sol.42.(d) December / January. is connected to the southwest monsoon and Maldives. The 9 Degree Channel
Quadrantids are best viewed in the in India. (north latitude) separates the Minicoy
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 Pinnacle Current Affairs
(Belgium). India secured 9th place. is a track and field athlete of Javelin. He Hockey Championship for Men in 2023
Runners up - Belgium. The FIH Men's is the first Asian athlete to win an was held in Ladakh. The Ice Hockey
Hockey World Cup was first held in 1971 Olympic gold medal in Men's Javelin Association of India is the governing
while the Women's World Cup began in throw. Awards: Arjuna Award (2018), body of ice hockey in India.
1974. Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM) – 2020,
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award Q.106. Who among the following was the
Q.99. The 2026 Winter Olympics will be (2021), Param Vishisht Seva Medal first female swimmer to win seven
held in______ (PVSM) - 2022, Padma Shri (2022). Paris medals at a single Olympics, in Tokyo
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) 2024 Olympics - Neeraj Chopra (Silver Olympics-2020?
(a) The UK (b) Japan (c) The US (d) Italy medal in javelin throw), Arshad Nadeem SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(Gold medal, javelin throw of 92.97m). (a) Regan Smith (b) Kylie Masse
Sol.99.(d) Italy. The next Olympic Games (c) Emma McKeon (d) Mary Hanna
venue and year: 2026 Winter Games - Q.103. Who won the bronze medal in
Milan and Cortina d'Ampezzo, in Italy. women's boxing in Tokyo Olympics Sol.106.(c) Emma McKeon (Australian
2028 Summer Games - Los Angeles, 2020? swimmer). The 2020 Summer Olympics,
USA. 2030 Winter Games - French Alps. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) officially known as the Games of the
2032 Summer Games - Brisbane, (a) Mirabai Chanu (b) Aditi Ashok XXXII Olympiad and branded as Tokyo
Australia. 2034 Winter Games - Salt Lake (c) MC Mary Kom (d) Lovlina Borgohain 2020, were held from 23 July to 8 August
City - Utah, USA. 2021 in Tokyo, Japan. The event featured
Sol.103.(d) Lovlina Borgohain : She won 339 events across 33 sports (50
Q.100. World Athletics Under-20 gold medal at 2023 IBA Women's World disciplines) with participation from 206
Championship–2021 was held from 18 Boxing Championships and bronze countries. Tokyo became the first city in
to 22 August 2021 at _________. medals at the 2018 AIBA Women's World Asia to host the Summer Games twice.

df
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Boxing Championships and the 2019 The United States topped the medal
(a) Brazil (b) Argentina

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AIBA Women's World Boxing count, securing 39 golds and a total of
(c) Kenya (d) South Africa Championships. She is the first female 113 medals, while China followed closely

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Sol.100.(c) Kenya. The World Athletics athlete and the second boxer from with 38 golds and 88 medals. India
U20 Championships took place at the Assam to represent the state in the finished in 48th place, winning a total of
ap
Moi International Sports Center in Olympics. Other Famous Boxers - Nikhat seven medals.
Nairobi, Kenya, from August 18 to 22, Zahreen, MC Marry Kom, Sweety Boora.
Q.107. International Army Games - 2021
:@

2021. This biennial event features Q.104. The inaugural edition of the was held in which of the following
athletes aged 20 or younger as of National Beach Soccer Championship countries from 22 August to 4
December 31 of the competition year. was held at _________ in 2023. September?
TG

Originally launched as the 1986 IAAF SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(International Association of Athletics (a) Goa (b) Diu (c) Daman (d) Surat (a) India (b) Belarus
Federations) World Junior (c) Uzbekistan (d) Russia
on

Championships, it was renamed the IAAF Sol.104.(d) Surat. The 2023 National
World U20 Championships in November Beach Soccer Championship, organized Sol.107.(d) Russia. International Army
h

2015. by the All India Football Federation Games, 2021: 7th edition. Over 280
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(AIFF), was held at Dumas Beach in teams from 42 countries will compete in
Q.101. Which city has been selected to Surat, Gujarat. Kerala secured first place, the game to show their combat skills,
a

host the Olympics - 2032 by the IOC on followed by Punjab in second, and Delhi professionalism and determination to
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21 July 2021? finished in third place. Beach soccer is a win. The International Army Games, also
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) game played barefoot on sand, where referred to as ‘War Olympics’, is an
(a) Brisbane (b) Moscow both teams field five players each. The international military sports event, which
(c) New York (d) Sydney matchday squad of each team can have aims to strengthen military-to-military
Sol.101.(a) Brisbane. The United States up to 12 players, and rolling substitutions cooperation between countries and trust
has hosted the most Olympic Games, are available. between the participating nations.
with eight editions, followed by France Q.105. Which of the following teams won Q.108. The 2024 Olympic Games will be
with six and Japan with four. The the 12th edition of the Ice Hockey hosted by _______.
upcoming Olympic Games will be held in Association of India’s (IHAI) National Ice Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
two cities selected by the International Hockey Championship for Men in 2023 ? (a) London (b) Paris
Olympic Committee (IOC) : SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) New Delhi (d) New York
Milan–Cortina d'Ampezzo (2026, Winter (a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Olympics) and Los Angeles (2028, (b) Jammu and Kashmir Blue Team Sol.108.(b) Paris. The 2024 Summer
Summer Olympics). (c) Ladakh Scouts Olympics, officially known as the Games
(d) Rimo Club Leh of the XXXIII Olympiad and branded as
Q.102. What was the winning throw of Paris 2024, is an international multi-sport
Neeraj Chopra in Tokyo Olympics-2020? Sol.105.(a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police event taking place from 26 July to 11
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) (ITBP). The central ice hockey team of August 2024 in France, with several
(a) 90.00 m (b) 87.58 m the ITBP has won the 12th edition of the events starting on 24 July. The motto is
(c) 80.00 m (d) 90.58 m Ice Hockey Association of India (IHAI) by "Games Wide Open." The United States
Sol.102.(b) 87.58 m. Neeraj Chopra: He defeating Ladakh Scouts. National Ice ranks first with 40 gold, 44 silver, and 42

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