15-09-2024

1015CMD303281240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The tension in the string is :-

(1) 40N
(2) 30N
(3) 20N
(4) 28N

2) If all the surfaces are smooth then find force exerted by C on B (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 30 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 100 N

3) The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :-

(1) 24 Ns
(2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns
(4) 6 Ns

4) A force of 200 N is applied on a block of mass 6 kg as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction

between the wall and the surface of the block is . The frictional force acting on the block is :
(1) 43.25 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 50 N

5) During the motion what will be the reading of spring balance.

(1) 400/3 N
(2) 500/3 N
(3) 100/3 N
(4) 200 N

6) A block of mass 40 kg slides over a surface, when a mass of 4 kg is suspended through an

inextensible massless string passing over frictionless pulley as shown below. The coefficient of
kinetic friction between the surface and block is 0.02. The acceleration of block is. (Given g = 10

ms–2.)

(1) 1 ms–2
(2) 1/5 ms–2
(3) 4/5 ms–2
(4) 8/11 ms–2

7) A cricket ball of mass 150 g has an initial velocity and a final velocity
after being hit. The change in momentum (final momentum-initial momentum) is
–1
(in kg ms )
(1) zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) A train has 10 wagons each of mass 2000 Kg attached to it. They are being pulled by force 104 N.
Find out the force exerted on last four wagons :

(1) 4N
(2) 4KN
(3) 7KN
(4) 8 KN

9) In a gravity free space A rocket of mass 200 kg burns 0.2 Kg fuel per second. If velocity of exhaust
gas is 2 km/s, then it flights with an acceleration of :

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

10) When we jump out of a boat standing in water it moves

(1) Forward
(2) Backward
(3) Sideways
(4) None of the above

11) Three blocks are connected as shown in fig. on a horizontal frictionless table if m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 8

kg, m3 = 27 kg and T3 = 36 N, T2 will be :-

(1) 18 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 3.375 N
(4) 1.75 N

12) Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg of block (A), then the contact

force between A and B is :-

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 2 N

13) A body of 2 kg-wt is suspended as shown in the figure, then value of tension force in string T1

will be -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 20 N

14) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined rough surface AC (as shown in figure) of coefficient of

friction µ if g = 10 ms–2, the net force (in N) on the block will be :-

(1)
(2) Zero
(3) 10
(4) 20

15) Momentum of the particle is given by P = 3t2 – 2t then find the time when particle will be at
equilibrium :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1.2 sec

16) In the given figure the reading of the spring balance will be (g = 10 m/s2) -
(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 70 N

17) Two blocks each having a mass M are placed as shown in the figure. The acceleration of the

system is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3) g sin θ
(4) 2g sin θ

18) The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 12000 N, then its
acceleration is -

(1) 14 m/s2 upwards

(2) 30 m/s2 downwards
(3) 4 m/s2 upwards
(4) 4 m/s2 downwards

19) Find the acceleration of 3 kg mass when acceleration of 2 kg mass if 2 m/s2 as shown -

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) Zero

20) A ball of mass 1 Kg hits a wall as shown in figure. Calculate the magnitude of change in
momentum of the ball ?

(1) 10 Kg m/s
(2) 5 Kg m/s
(3) 2 Kg m/s
(4) 20 Kg m/s

21) Action and reaction (for a given system) :-

(a) act on two different objects
(b) have equal magnitude
(c) have opposite directions
(d) have zero resultant

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) None of these

22) What is the acceleration with which the system is moving ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Zero
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

23) The potential energy stored in a spring stretched by 1 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 3 cm
then potential energy stored is :–

(1) 9U
(2) 3U
(3) U/3
(4) U/9

24)
A block is pushed by force of 40 N as shown in diagram then work one by friction will be :-

(1) –200 J
(2) – 300 J
(3) – 44 J
(4) – 56 J

25) If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% then percentage change in momentum will be

(1) 100%
(2) 150%
(3) 265%
(4) 73.2%

26) A particle is projected from point A on a smooth vertical track OABCD as shown. What should be

the minimum speed at A so that it can reach point C ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 100 m/s
(3) 80 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

27) The displacement x of a body of mass 1 kg on a horizontal smooth surface as a function of time t
is given by x = 4t2. The work done in the first second is :

(1) 128 J
(2) 64 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 32 J

28) If a body is released from a height and collide with, a spring then find maximum compersion

in the spring :-
(1) 25 m
(2) 5 m
(3) m
(4) 5 m

29) Velocity - time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.

Work done by all the forces on the particle is:

(1) 400 J
(2) –400 J
(3) –200 J
(4) 200 J

30) Two bodies having same mass have kinetic energy in the ratio 1 : 3 then ratio of their momentum
is :-

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 3
(3)
(4) 9 : 1

31) A mass 10 kg moving with a speed 10 cm/s on a smooth horizontal surface hits a spring as shown

in Fig. Work done by the spring force on the mass is :

(1) 0.05 J
(2) –0.05 J
(3) –0.1 J
(4) 0.1J

32) A force = 6i + 2j + 3k acts on a particle produces a displacement of If the work

done is zero then value of x is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 6
(4) 3
33) Calculate power generated by tension in the string in first 2 seconds of motion :-

(1) 250 W
(2) 500 W
(3) 750 W
(4) 1000 W

34) A simple pendulum is released from A as shown in figure. If m and l. represent the mass of the
bob and the length of the pendulum respectively, the gain in kinetic energy at B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A body of mass m thrown vertically upwards attains a maximum height h. At what height will its
kinetic energy be 75% of its initial value ?

(1) h/6
(2) h/5
(3) h/4
(4) h/3

SECTION-B

1) A block of mass M is pulled by a uniform chain of mass M tied to it by applying a force F at the
other end of the chain. The tension at a point distant quarter of the length of the chain from free end

will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Two blocks (m = 0.5 kg and M = 4.5 kg) are arranged on a horizontal frictionless table as shown
in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 3/7. Then the maximum
horizontal force that can be applied on the larger block so that the blocks move together is _____

N. [Take g as 9.8 ms–2]

(1) 10 N
(2) 21 N
(3) 28 N
(4) 32.5 N

3) A block kept on a rough inclined plane, as shown in the figure, remains at rest upto a maximum
force 2 N down the inclined plane. The maximum external force up the inclined plane that does not
move the block is 10 N. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is : [Take g

= 10 m/s2]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two masses m1 = 10 Kg and m2 = 20 Kg connected by a inextensible string over a frictionless

pulley, are moving in the figure. The coefficient of friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. The

minimum weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 100 Kg

5) Two block's A and B of masses m and 2m respectively are held at rest such that the spring is
in natural length. Find out the accelerations of blocks A and B respectively just after release

(pulley string and spring are massless).

(1) g↓, g↓

(2)
↓, ↑
(3) 0, 0
(4) g↓, 0

6) Assertion : The acceleration of a body down a rough inclined plane is greater than
the acceleration due to gravity.
Reason : The body is able to slide on a inclined plane only when its acceleration is greater
than acceleration due to gravity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

7) A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds with the
same speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for (0.01)s. The average force exerted by
the surface on the ball is :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 0.1 N

8) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 4 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
coefficient of friction between them is μ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt
before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 m/s2 -

(1) 0.4 m
(2) 1.6 m
(3) 1.2 m
(4) 0.8 m

9) In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force between 2 kg and 3 kg is (Consider the surface,

to be smooth): Given g = 10 ms–2

(1) 25 N
(2) 39 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 10 N

10) The magnitude of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut are respectively.

(1)

(2) g, g

(3)

(4)

11) The ratio of weights of a man in a stationary lift and in a lift accelerating downwards with a
uniform acceleration is 3 : 2. The acceleration of the lift is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) g

(4)

12) A block of mass m is kept on a platform which starts from rest with constant acceleration g/2
upward, as shown in figure. Work done by normal reaction on block in time t is :
(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4)

13) The potential energy of a particle varies with position x according to the relation U(x)= 2x4–27x,

the point is point of -

(1) Unstable equilibrium

(2) Stable equilibrium
(3) Neutral equilibrium
(4) None of these

14) Figure shows the vertical section of frictionless surface. A block of mass 2 kg is released from

the position A; as it reaches the position C its KE is :

(1) 180 J
(2) 140 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 280 J

15) A particle is fired with speed u making angle θ with the horizontal. Its potential energy at the
highest point is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
 SECTION-A

1)

CnH2n–2 is the general formula of :-

(1) Alkyne
(2) Cycloalkene
(3) Cycloalkane
(4) 1 and 2

2) In which of the following parent chain is wrong ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) N-Cyclohexylbenzamide
(2) N-Phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
(3) N-Phenylcyclohexane carboxamide
(4) N-Cyclohexyl-N-phenylmethyl amide

4) The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Trichloromethylpropan-2-ol
(2) 2-hydroxy-2-trichloromethyl propane
(3) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
(4) 3,3,3-trichloro-2-methyl propan-2-ol
5) IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-ethyl cyclohexane

(2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclohexane
(3) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(4) 1-ethyl-3-3-dimethyl cyclohexane

6)

What is IUPAC name of the compound :-

(1) 3–Amino–3–formylbutane–1,4–dioic acid

(2) 3–Amino–2,3–dicarboxypropanal
(3) 2–Amino–3–formylbutanedioic acid
(4) 1–Amino–2–formylsuccinic acid

7) Correct IUPAC name of the compound is

(1) 2-Ethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene-1, 4-dioic anhydride

(2) 3-Ethyl-2-methylbut-2-enedioic anhydride
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-1,4-diketobut-2-enoic anhydride
(4) 2-Ethyl-3-methylcyclopentanoxy-1,4-dione

8) The group of heterocyclic compounds is :-

(1) Phenol, Furan

(2) Furan, Thiophene
(3) Thiophene, Phenol
(4) Furan, Aniline

9) common name is :

(1) Acetic anhydride

(2) Acetic formic anhydride
(3) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
(4) Both (2) and (3)
10) Which is iso-octane in followings :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The number of 1°, 2°, 3° H, respectively in the given compound are :-

(1) 2, 6, 1
(2) 2, 6, 0
(3) 2, 7, 1
(4) 2, 5, 0

12) Relation between and is :-

(1) Position isomerism

(2) Functional isomerism
(3) Chain isomerism
(4) Metamerism

13) Total number of benzenoid aromatic isomers having formula C7 H7 Cl are :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

14) The number of alkynes possible with molecular formula C5H8 is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

15) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers
shown? (I) (II)

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more vanderwaals strain

16) Maleic acid and fumeric acid are :

(1) Position isomer

(2) Functional isomer
(3) Geometrical isomer
(4) Optical isomers

17) Which of the following is 'E' isomer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The differential rate law equation for the elementary reaction A + 2B 3C, is :-

(1)
= k[A][B]2
(2)
= k[A]2[B]

(3)
= k[A][B]2
(4) None of these

19) The rate constant of nth order has units :

(1) Litre1–n mol1–n sec–1

(2) Mol1–n litre1–n sec
(3) sec–1
(4) Mole1–n litren–1 sec–1

20) Consider a reaction A(g) 2B(g). If initial concentration of A is 0.5 M then select
correct graph.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A2 + B2 → 2AB; R.O.R = k [A2]a [B2]b

Initial [A2] Initial [B2] R.O.R. (r) Ms–1

0.2 0.2 0.04

 0.1 0.4 0.04

0.2 0.4 0.08

Order of reaction with respect to A2 and B2 are respectively :

(1) a = 1, b = 1
(2) a = 2, b = 0
(3) a = 2, b = 1
(4) None

22) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(ℓ) CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq). What type of reaction is this ?

(1) Unimolecular elementary

(2) Pseudo first order
(3) Zero order
(4) Second order

23) When ethyl acetate was hydrolysed in presence of 0.1 M HCl, the rate constant was found to be
5.4 × 10–5 s–1. But in presence of 0.1 M H2SO4 the rate constant was found to be 6.25 × 10–5s–1. Thus
it may be concluded that :

+
(1) H2SO4 furnishes more H than HCl
+
(2) H2SO4 furnishes less H than HCl
(3) Both have the same strength of H+
(4) Will depend on concentration of ethyl acetate

24)

Column-I Column-II

(P) Zero order reaction (1)

t1/2 ∝

(Q) First order reaction (2) t100% = [A]0/k

Involves at least two

(R) Second order reactions (3)
reactants
–kt
(S) Pseudo unimolecular reaction (4) [A] = [A]0e

Code :
(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) 2 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 2 1 4
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) For the 1st order reaction 2A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g), starting with pure A, pressure after 9 min was
575 mm of Hg and after a long time was 600mm of Hg. Calculate half life of A in min.

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

26) NH2NO2(aq.) decomposes according to the first order reaction :

NH2NO2(aq.) → N2O(g) + H2O(ℓ)
After 46.06 min the volume of N2O(g) collected during such a reaction is 40ml and that collected
after a very long time is 120ml. The rate constant of the reaction is [Given ln(1.5) = 0.4]

(1) 9 × 10–3 min–1

(2) 1.84 × 10–2 min–1
(3) 4 × 10–3 min–1
(4) 3 × 10–2 min–1

27) For an endothermic reaction where ΔH represents the enthalpy of reaction in kJ/mol, the
minimum value for the energy of activation will be :

(1) Less than ΔH

(2) More than ΔH
(3) Equal to ΔH
(4) Zero

28) The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction
are 30.5 and 45.4 kJ/mol respectively. The reaction is :

(1) Exothermic
(2) Endothermic
(3) Neither exothermic nor endothermic
(4) Independent of temperature

29) Assertion :- The pre-exponential factor A has the same units for all reactions.
Reason :- e–E /RT has no unit.
a

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
30) Assertion :- A catalyst enhances the rate of a reaction.
Reason :- The energy of activation of the reaction is lowered in presence of a catalyst.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

31) For the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) at 27°C, 2 moles of A, 4 moles of B and 6 moles of C are
present in 2 litre vessel. If Kc for the reaction is 1.2, the reaction will proceed in :

(1) Forward direction

(2) Backward direction
(3) Neither direction
(4) None of these

32) The figure shows the change in concentration of species A and B as a function of time.

The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction A(g) ⇌ 2B(g) is :

(1) Kc > 1
(2) Kc < 1
(3) Kc = 1
(4) Data insufficient

33) At 527°C, the reaction given below has Kc = 4

NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g)

What is the Kp for the reaction ?
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

(1) 16 × (800 R)2

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 4 × 10–4 at 200 K. In
presence of a catalyst, equilibrium is attained ten times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant
in presence of the catalyst at 200 K is :
(1) 40 × 10–4
(2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 4 × 10–5
(4) Difficult to compute without more data

35) Assertion :- The gas phase reaction

PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g) shifts to the right on increasing pressure.
Reason :- When pressure increases, equilibrium shifts towards more number of gaseous moles.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

SECTION-B

1)

The IUPAC name of following compound is :-

(1) Citric acid

(2) 2-Hydroxy butane-1, 3, 4-tricarboxylic acid
(3) 3-Hydroxy butane-1, 2, 4-tricarboxylic acid
(4) 2-Carboxy-3-hydroxy hexane-1, 6-dioic acid

2) Minimum carbon to show position isomerism in ketone will be :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

3) Which of the following pair of compounds are functional isomers ?

(1)
and
(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

4) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
(Compounds) (Relation)

(1) (P) Homologues

&

Functional
(2) (Q)
isomers

&

(3) (R) Metamers

&

& Position
(4) (S)
isomers

(1) (1) R; (2) R; (3) Q; (4) P

(2) (1) P; (2) Q; (3) R; (4) S
(3) (1) P; (2) R; (3) Q; (4) R
(4) (1) S; (2) R; (3) Q; (4) P

5) What is correct about isomerism for

(1) I and III are position isomers as well as metamers
(2) II and III are metamers
(3) I and II are metamers
(4) All of the above

6) Gauche conformation is not most stable in

HO–CH2–CH2–(G), if (G) is :-

(1) F
(2) OH
(3) NO2
(4) Me

7) The number of cis-trans isomer possible for the following compound :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

8) The correct order for the given pair of isomers is

(1) >
(Melting point)

(2)
(Dipole moment)

(3) >
(Boiling point)

(4) <
(Water solubility)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The unit of rate constant of elementary reaction depends upon the :

(1) Temperature of the reaction

(2) Concentration of reactant
(3) Activation energy of the reaction
(4) Molecularity of the reaction

10) Rate constant k = 2.303 min–1 for a particular reaction. The initial concentration of the reaction
is 1 mol/litre then rate of reaction after 1 minute is :

(1) 2.303 M min–1

(2) 0.2303 M min–1
(3) 0.1 M min–1
(4) None of these

11) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with
the second step is rate determining :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A hypothetical reaction A2 + B2 → 2AB follows the mechanism as given below.

A2 ⇌ A + A (fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (slow)
A + B → AB (fast)
The order of the over all reaction by RDS methods is :

(1) 2
(2) 1

(3)

(4) 0

13) Consider the following gaseous equilibria given below :

(I) N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ; Eqm. Constant = K1
(II) N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO ; Eqm. Constant = K2

(III) H2 + O2 ⇌ H2O ; Eqm. Constant = K3

The equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2NH3 + O2 ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will
be :

(1) K1K2K3

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) For the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) ; ΔH = –93.6 kJ mol–1
the number of moles of H2 at equilibrium will increase if :

(1) Volume is increased

(2) Volume is decreased
(3) Argon gas is added at constant volume
(4) NH3 is removed

15) Assertion :- For the physical equilibrium H2O(s) ⇌ H2O(ℓ) on increasing temperature and
increasing pressure more water will form.
Reason :- Since forward reaction is endothermic in nature and volume of water is greater than that
of the volume of ice.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
 BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Assertion :- Mammals like whales, bats, cheetah and human share similarities in the pattern of
bones of forelimbs.
Reason :- The first mammals were like shrews.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

2) Assertion : Lichens can be used as pollution indicators.

Reason : Lichens will not grow in areas that are pollution free.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

3) Assertion : The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history.
Reason : Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in rock.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

4) Statement-1 : Dryopithecus was more man like.

Statement-2 : Ramapithecus was more ape like.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct, Statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both Statement are incorrect

5) Statement-I : Single step large mutation is saltation.

Statement-II : Saltation was the idea of Darwin.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
6) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II & choose correct option :

Column-I Column-II

Invertebrates
A. (i) 350 mya
formed

Sea weed
B. (ii) 65 mya
plants existed

Jawless fish
C. (iii) 500 mya
evolved

Extinction of
D. (iv) 320 mya
Dinosaurs
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i,D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

7) Select the correctly matched option from the column I and column II:

Column-I Column -II

(a) Ramapithecus (i) Lived in East-African grasslands
(b) Australopithecus (ii) Probably ate meat
(c) Homo habilis (iii) Existed about 15 mya
(d) Homo erectus (iv) First human like being
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

8)

Mutations are ___A___ and ___B__ while Darwinian variations are __C__ and __D__ .

Identify A, B, C, D from the following options :-

(1) A-random, B-directionless, C-small, D-directional
(2) A-small, B-directionless, C-random, D-directional
(3) A-random, B-directional, C-small, D-directionless
(4) A-frequent, B-directional, C-small, D-constant

9) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Branching descent and natural selection are two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution.
(b) According to Lamarck, evolution of life forms had occurred by use and disuse of organs.
(c) The work of Malthus on populations influenced Darwin.
(d) Mutations are random and directional.
Options :
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

10) Match the following

Fossil Cranial
Character
Name capacity
A Homo habilis i 1400 cc a First tool maker
B Modern man ii 650-800 cc b Buried their dead
Neanderthal
C iii 900 cc c Started agriculture
man
D Homo erectus iv 1450 cc d First to use fire
(1) A-ii-a; B-i-c; C-iv-b; D-iii-d
(2) A-ii-a; B-iv-c; C-i-b; D-iii-d
(3) A-ii-d; B-iv-c; C-i-b; D-iii-a
(4) A-iii-a; B-i-c; C-iv-b; D-ii-a

11) When people are healthy they are ?

(a) More efficient at work
(b) Decreases productivity
(c) Brings economic prosperity
(d) Increases longevity of people
(e) Increases infant and maternal mortality
How many statements are correct about healthy people :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All are correct

12)

How many statement(s) are correct about acquired immunity ?

(A) Acquired immunity is a specific immunity.
(B) On second exposure of same antigen, this immunity shows anamnestic response.
(C) B & T Lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity

(D) It can differentiate between self and non self tissues.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

13) Identify the correct immune response to an antigen X-in a healthy perosn:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) How many of following antibody shows opsonization ? (a) IgD (b) IgA
(c) IgG (d) IgM
(e) IgE

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

15) Each molecule has four polypeptide chains, two small called light chain and two longer called
heavy chains (represented as H2L2). Which of the following is not directly related to above described
molecule ?

(1) Army of proteins produced by B-lymphocytes

(2) Present in blood
(3) Humoral immunity
(4) Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
16) This antibody is present in minimum quantity in the body, shows specific linkage with mast cells
and are related to allergic reactions. Identify the antibody ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgD
(4) IgG

17) Select the incorrect statement for primary lymphoid organs :-

(1) Bone marrow and thymus both are primary lymphoid organs.
(2) Immature lymphocyte changes in antigen sensitive lymphocytes here.
(3) They provide site for interaction between antigen and lymphocyte.
(4) B lymphocytes originate in bone marrow.

18) Which of the following cells do not secrete antibodies but stimulate B-lymphocytes for antibody
formation ?

(1) T-cells
(2) B plasma cell
(3) N.K. cell
(4) All of these

19) Antibodies are produced by :-

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Thrombocytes
(3) Monocytes
(4) Plasma cells

20) Virus infected cells secrete protein called interferons which protects non-infected cells from
further viral infection. This represents :-

(1) CMI
(2) AMI
(3) Cytokine barrier
(4) Physiological barrier

21) Number of polypeptide chain present in a molecule of IgM antibody are :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 4

22) Which of the following is not secondary lymphoid organ :

(1) Spleen
(2) Tonsil
(3) Thymus
(4) Lymph node

23) Identify the correct pair of heaviest & lightest antibody :-

(1) IgM & IgE

(2) IgM & IgA
(3) IgM & IgD
(4) IgM & IgG

24)

How many of the following cells are non-phagocytic cells ?

(A) Macrophage (B) Natural killer cells
(C) Neutrophils (D) B-cells

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

25) Which of the following antibody can pass through placenta?

(1) IgA
(2) IgG
(3) IgE
(4) IgD

26) How many of the following examples belong to innate immunity?

T lymphocytes, B.lymphocytes, Macrophage, Skin, tears, antibodies, interferons, natural killer cells.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

27) In which one of the following options the two examples are incorrectly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

Type of immunity Example

(1) Physiological barrier Saliva in mouth, tears from eyes

(2) Physical barrier Skin and mucus coating

(3) Cellular barrier Monocytes and macrophages

 (4) Cytokine barrier Interferon, HCl in stomach
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Assertion : The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation
provides passive immunity.
Reason : The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant ready-made antibodies IgA which protect the
infant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Statement-I : The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including
lymphocytes are produced.
Statement-II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide the microenvironments for the development
and maturation of B-lymphocytes.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

30) Statement-I : T-lymphocytes mediate CMI.

Statement-II : CMI is responsible for the graft rejection.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

31)

Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Bacteria infected cells secrete interferons

(2) Macrophages are PMNL.
(3) Acid in stomach belong to physiological barrier.
(4) Monocytes are non-Phagocytic cells.

32) Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between

(1) Two light chains

(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Fc domain

33) Stanley Miller performed his experiment at which temperature :-

(1) 33°C
(2) 500°C
(3) 100°C
(4) 800°C

34) Identify the ancestor-A in the family tree of dinosaur in given figure :-

(1) Synapsids
(2) Thecodonts
(3) Therapsids
(4) Pelycosaurus

35) Which of the following provide most evident proof of organic evolution ?

(1) Morphology
(2) Embryology
(3) Vestigial organs
(4) Fossils

SECTION-B

1) Assertion :- Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all.
Reason :- Louis pasteur demonstrated that life comes from pre-existing life by his swan neck flask
experiment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Statement-I : Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.

Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in the organisms.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

3) Statement-I : The first non-cellular form of life could have originated 3 billion year back.
Statement-II : Universe is very old-almost 20 billion years old.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

4) How many of the following are homologous structure in plants ?

(a) Potato and Ginger
(b) Radish and carrot
(c) Testes in male & ovaries in female
(d) Sting of bee and scorpion
(e) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
(f) Sweet potato and potato

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

5) Find out the correct sequence of evolution of plants:-

(1) Tracheophyte ancestors → Rhynia-type plants → Chlorophyte ancestors → Psilophyton

(2) Chlorophyte ancestors → Tracheophyte ancestors → Rhynia-type plants → Psilophyton
(3) Psilophyton → Rhynia-type plants → Chlorophyte ancestors →Tracheophyte ancestors
(4) Psilophyton → Gnetales → Tracheophyte ancestors → Chlorophyte ancestors
6) How many of the below are incorrect about given diagramm ? (a)
Gives antigenic stimulation
(b) T-cells themselves donot secrete but help B-cell produce them.
(c) Hydrogen bond present
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glycoprotein molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

7) The figure below show diagrammatic representation of antibody molecule. Select the correct

option giving correct identification.

A–Ag binding site, B–light chain,

(1)
C–heavy chain
A–Ab binding site, B–light chain,
(2)
C–heavy chain
A–Ag binding site, B–heavy chain,
(3)
C–light chain
A–Ab binding site, B–Hinge region,
(4)
C–light chain

8) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation of barriers of Innate immunity ?

Physical Physiological Cellular

(1) NK cell Saliva PMNL Neutrophils

(2) Skin Tear W.B.C.

 (3) Mucous Interferon T-killer

(4) Fever Phagocyte cells Leucocytes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about N.K. Cell ?

(1) Large granular lymphocyte

(2) Kill virus infected cell
(3) Modified monocyte
(4) Part of innate immunity

10) Which of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro organism in human
body :-
(A) Mucosa of Respiratory tract
(B) Monocyte
(C) Tear
(D) Skin
(E) Saliva
(F) Acid in stomach
(G) N-K-cell

(1) E, F, G
(2) B, C, E
(3) C, E, F
(4) A, B, D

11) In the list given below, how many are secondary lymphoid organs ?
Thymus, Spleen, Bone marrow, Tonsil, Appendix

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

12) Which of the following factor does not affect the health of individual ?

(1) Genetic disorder

(2) Curse of God
(3) Infections
(4) Life style

13) Assertion (A) :– Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However only
few of these exposures result in disease.
Reason (R) :– Our body is able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall
ability of host to fight the disease causing organism conferred by immune system is called immunity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion : The secondary lymphoid organs Provides the sites for interaction of lymphocytes
with antigen.
Reason : After maturation of lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Statement-I : Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of micro organisms.
Statement-II : Skin is a physical barrier.
Which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & statement-II is incorrect.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1)

What is the correct sequence of origin of Mammals ?

(1) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → Mammals

(2) Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → Mammals
(3) Sauropsids → Synapsids → Thecodont → Mammals
(4) Synapsids → Sauropsids → Therapsids → Mammals

2) Which theory explains origin of universe :

(1) Special creation theory

(2) Big-Bang theory
(3) Oparin-Haldane theory
(4) Abiogenesis
3) Dinosaurs were abundant during which era ?

(1) Archaeozoic
(2) Coenozoic
(3) Mesozoic
(4) Palaeozoic

4) In 1938 a fish caught in South Africa happened to be a Coelacanth which was thought to be
extinct. These animals called lobefins evolved into the first :-

(1) Amphibians
(2) Jawless fish
(3) Reptiles
(4) Birds

5) The Big bang theory attempts to explain us the origin of:

(1) Life
(2) Universe
(3) Human
(4) All of the above

6) How many years after the formation of earth, life appeared :-

(1) 400 million years

(2) 300 million years
(3) 500 million years
(4) 600 million years

7) Which of the following is formed in Stanley Miller’s experiment ?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Microspheres
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) UV radiations

8) For the Stanley Miller experiment select the correct combination of gases and temperature ?

Gases Temperature

(1) CH4, NH3, CO2 400°C

(2) NH3, HCN, H2O vapour, H2 1800°C

(3) CH4, H2, NH3, H2O vapour 800°C

(4) CH4, HCN, CO2, H2O 8000°C

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which of the following does not give clue to common ancestry ?

(1) Homology
(2) Evidence from biochemistry
(3) Vestigial organs
(4) Analogy

10) According to theory of special creation, the earth is about :

(1) 4.5 billion years old

(2) 4.5 million years old
(3) 4000 years old
(4) 4000 billion years old

11) Which of the following pair is incorrect ?

(1) Theory of Diversity was same and will

special creation be same in future

(2) Theory New life can be

of Biogenesis originated on earth by
decaying and rotting matter

(3) Cosmozoic panspermia Life came from outer space

theory through spores

(4) First life have come from

Oparin-Haldane theory
pre-existing non-living
organic molecules
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Fossils are generally found in :

(1) Sedimentary rocks

(2) Igneous rocks
(3) Metamorphic rocks
(4) Any type of rock

13) Which theory supported the idea that life originates from pre-existing life ?

(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Biogenesis
(3) Special creaton theory
(4) Modern theory

14) According to spontaneous generation theory life came from :-

(1) Pre existing life

(2) Decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud
(3) In form of spores comes from another planet.
(4) Created by God as such

15) Out of the following, which dinosaur was biggest of 20 feet height and had dagger like teeth ?

(1) Stegosaurus
(2) Brachiosaurus
(3) Triceratops
(4) Tyrannosaurus

16) During evolution some land reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles. These
animals are known as:

(1) Ichthyosaurs
(2) Lobefins
(3) Blue whales
(4) Crocodiles

17) (A) All the living organisms that we see today were created as such.
(B) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also.
(C) Earth is about 4000 years old.
Above statements are points of :-

(1) Theory of biogenesis

(2) Special creation theory
(3) Theory of abiogenesis
(4) Cosmic panspermia theory

18) Stanley Miller experiment was performed in

(1) 1963
(2) 1953
(3) 1973
(4) 1983

19) The thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita in the given figure does not show :
(1) Homology
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Common ancestory
(4) Vestigial structures

20) Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography is called as :-

(1) Parallel evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Adaptive radiation

21) Excess use of herbicides, pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much
lesser time scale. It is an example of evolution by :-

(1) Mass extinction

(2) Anthropogenic action
(3) Continental drift
(4) Both 1 and 3

22) The hominid fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed a stage in human evolution which was
called :-

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Dryopithecus
(3) Australopithecus
(4) Homo habilis

23) Prehistoric cave art developed about :-

(1) 40,000 years back

(2) 4 mya
(3) 75,000-10,000 years ago
(4) 18,000 years ago

24) Homology belongs to the organs which have:

(1) Same origin and different functions

(2) No functions in the body
(3) Different origin and different functions
(4) Different origin and same functions

25) Some cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be seen at:

(1) Ajanta and Ellora caves of Maharashtra

(2) Elephanta island caves of Maharashtra
(3) Badami caves of Karnataka
(4) Bhimbetka caves of Madhya Pradesh

26) Which ancestor of man lived in near East African grass land about 2 mya :-

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Australopithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Neanderthal man

27) Which ancestors of man walked like Chimpanzee and Gorilla ?

a. Dryopithecus b. Ramapithecus
c. Australopithecus d. Homo habilis

(1) only a
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) c and d

28) The phenomenon of "Industrial melanism" demonstrates :

(1) Natural selection

(2) Induced mutation
(3) Reproductive isolation
(4) Geographical isolation

29) First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and used of hides to protect their bodies have
been found with which human ancestors ?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Australopithecus

30) Darwin's finches are example of :-

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Both 1 & 2

31) The cranial capacity of Homo erectus was about:

(1) 650 cc
(2) 900 cc
(3) 1400 cc
(4) 1650 cc

32) The agriculture and human settlements started around:

(1) 18000 years ago

(2) 10000 years ago
(3) 50000 years ago
(4) 75000 years ago

33) If average trait is rejected and both peripheral trait get selected by nature the, graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The bobcat and tasmanian tiger cat found in Australia continent, exhibit the example of :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) and (3)

35) When more then one adaptive radiation appeared to have occured in an isolated geographical
area, one can call this :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Disruptive radiation

SECTION-B

1) Statement-I : Acid in the stomach saliva in the mouth and tears from eyes are the main physical
barriers.
Statement-II : Bacteria infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect infected
cells from further viral infection.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

2) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibody :-

(1) They are produced by B-lymphocytes.

(2) Each antibody molecule consists of four polypeptide chains.
(3) Different types of antibodies like IgG, IgD, IgM are produced by macrophages.
(4) Antibodies are found in the blood.

3) Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement A: Acquired immunity is pathogen specific which is characterised by memory.
Statement B: When our body encounters a pathogen for the first time it produces a response called
primary response which is of high intensity.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

4) According to most accepted theory of evolution, the life has:

(1) Come from outer space

(2) Come out of dead and decaying matter
(3) Originated from pre-existing non-living organic molecules
(4) Created by god

5) Famous swan neck experiment was done by Louis Pasteur. Which theory was proved by this
experiment :-

(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Special creation theory
(3) Biogenesis
(4) Cosmic panspermia theory
6) Jawless fish probably evolved around :-

(1) 350 mya

(2) 50 mya
(3) 65 mya
(4) 4.5 bya

7) First non cellular form of life could have originated :-

(1) 3 Bya
(2) 2 Bya
(3) 4 Bya
(4) 4000 years ago

8) The study of history of life forms on earth is called?

(1) Zoology
(2) Microbiology
(3) Exobiology
(4) Evolutionary biology

9) Earth originated about

(1) 4 bya
(2) 4.5 bya
(3) 5 bya
(4) 3.5 bya

10) Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around :-

(1) 500 mya

(2) 320 mya
(3) 100 mya
(4) 50 mya

11) The first organisms that invaded land, were ?

(1) Coelacanth
(2) Amphibians
(3) Reptiles
(4) Plants
12) Identify animal A in the family tree of dinosaurs ?

(1) Pterandon
(2) Tyrannosaurus
(3) Triceratops
(4) Stegosaurus

13) Which primate during evolution was more ape like :-

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Australopithecines
(4) Homo habilis

14) Anatomically and structurally different but functionally similar structures are called :-

(1) Divergent
(2) Parallel
(3) Homologus
(4) Analogous

15) Placental lemur and spotted cuscus are example of :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parasitism
(4) Artificial Selection
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 1 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 4 1 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 2 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 1 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
a = 4 m/s2

T = 12 + 18 = 30 N

4)

N = 200 cos 30°

= 100
= 173 N

fSL= μsN = × 173

fSL = 43.25
freq = 100 – 60 = 40 N < fsL

5)

For 5 kg block

5g – T = 5a

T = 5g –
= 10 g/6
Spring Reading = 2T
 6)

For 4 kg block
4g – T = 4a
For 40 kg block
T – 40g × 0.02 = 40 a
Adding both eq.
40 – 8 = 44a

a=

8)

a= = m/s2

T = (4ma) = 4 × 2000 ×
= 4 KN

9)

ma =
200a = 2000

a= = 2 m/s2

10)

Because for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction takes place.

11)

T2 = 9 × 1
=9N

12)

N=3×2
N=6

14)
mg sin θ = µN
mg sin θ = µ mg cos θ
Fnet = 0

15)

16)

fnet = 0
acceleration = 0
∴ T = 50 N

17)

18)

Acceleration is downwards
20000 – 12000 = 2000a
8000 = 2000a
a = 4m/s2 downwards

19)

For 2 kg

10 – FS = 2 × 2
FS = 6N
For 3 kg

6 = 3a
a = 2m/s2

20)

ΔP = 2 mV cos 60° = 2 × 1 × 5 × 1/2

ΔP = 5 Kg m/s

22)

24) By work energy theorem

WF + Wfriction =

(40 × 5) + Wfriction =
Wfriction = 144 – 200
= – 56 J

26)

Applying conservation of mechanical energy between A & B

(KE + U)A = (KE + U)B

mv2 + 0 = 0 + mgh

27) x = 4t2
v = 8t
at t = 0 vi = 0
t = 1 vf = 8 m/s
By WET

= 32 J

28) By come less in gravitation PE = gain in spring PE

5 × 10 × 10 = × (40)x2
x2 = 25
x=5m
 37) Given, m = 0.5 kg, M = 4.5 kg

On 0.5 kg, block only horizontal friction force is acting.

∴ Maximum acceleration of this block,

× 9.8 m/s2
Since both the blocks are moving together, then
Fmax = (m + M)amax

38) 2 + mg sin30 = µmg cos30°

10 = mgsin 30 + µ mg cos30°
= 2µmg cos30–2
6 = µmg cos 30
4 = mg sin 30

µ=

39)

100 – T = 0 ⇒ T = 100
T – 0.15 [m + 20] g = 0
100 – 1.5 [m + 20] = 0

(m + 20) = 100

m + 20 =

m=

m= = Kg

40)

At t = 0 condition, it will be a free fall situation.

41)

Acceleration down a rough inclined plane

a = g(sinθ – μcosθ) and this is less than g.

42)
 = 10 N

43)

44)

FBD of 1kg

60 – 15 – N = 3 × 2
45 – N = 6
N = 39 N

46)

2g = 3(g – a)
2g = 3g – 3a

48)

U = 2x4–27x

= +8x3–27

= 24x2 → minima

is +ve at x = 3/2
so stable equilibrium

CHEMISTRY

58)

61)

1° H = 2, 2° H = 6, 3° H = 0

63)

66)

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