Automatic Flight
Q 01: The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:
A: Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.
B: Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands
C: Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions
D: AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.
Q 02: How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?
A: Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.
B: Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
C: Both are correct.
Q 03: What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
A: The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
B: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
C: The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
D: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.
Q 04: What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B: Heading, altitude, and vertical speed
C: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
D: Heading, attitude, and altitude.
Q 05: How long does a normal IR alignment take?
A: Approximately 3 minutes.
B: Approximately 6 minutes.
C: Approximately 10 minutes.
D: Approximately 13 minutes.
Q 06: The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?
A: Alignment has been completed.
B: Air data output has been disconnected.
C: The respective IR is operating normally.
Q 07: An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:
A: Present position needs to be re-entered.
B: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
C: A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.
Q 08: What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost?
A: Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
B: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.
C: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
D: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.
Q 09: A/THR in white means that A/THR is:
A: Disconnected.
B: Armed.
C: Active
Q 10: The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
A: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
B: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An
alignment fault may exist.
C: Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.
Q 11: What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?
A: Check Data Base Cycle.
B: Check Data Base Date.
C: Check Effective Date.
D: Check the changeover date.
Q 12: Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
A: The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
B: The respective ADIRU will become de-energized.
C: Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.
D: All of the above.
Q 13: While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:
A: The flight controls revert to direct law.
B: The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.
C: The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is
proportional to AOA.
Q 14: What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
A: 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
B: 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged 1 inop.
Q 15: What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
A: FMGC 1 & 2 position difference exceeds limits.
B: FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.
C: FMCG position & IR position difference exceeds limits.
Q 16: The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some
additional thrust?
A: Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
B: Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
C: No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.
Q 17: What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFD’s?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
C: Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.
D: Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.
Q 18: Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
A: Yes.
B: No.
Q 19: During the take-off phase:
A: SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference
B: SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.
C: SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.
Q 20: If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
A: AD and IR information will be disconnected.
B: AD information will be disconnected.
C: IR information will be disconnected.
D: The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.
Q 21: Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
A: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in direct law.
B: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
C: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
Q 22: Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?
A: Pitch attitude.
B: Vls.
C: ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)
D: Alpha floor.
Q 23: What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?
A: Speed brakes have a fault.
B: Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
C: Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
D: All of the above.
Q 24: If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?
A: No
B: Yes, ILS approaches only.
C: Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.
Q 25: The DDRMI provides the pilot with:
A: Bearing only for VOR 1.
B: Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.
C: Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.
D: Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.
Q 26: The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:
A: When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power.
B: For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.
C: Both are correct.
Q 27: If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
A: FACs.
B: SECs.
C: Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup.
D: Backup mode of ELAC’s
Q 28: Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?
A: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1,
ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.
B: ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2,
ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.
C: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2,
ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
D: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2,
ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
Q 29: While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to
neutral will command:
A: A load factor proportional to stick deflection, and then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch
attitude.
B: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and
level flight.
C: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its
current attitude.
Q 30: In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?
A: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.
B: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed.
C: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.
D: Protections, Load Factor and Pitch attitude.
Q 31: When in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be lost.
A: Roll attitude.
B: Pitch attitude.
C: Bank angle.
D: Load factor.
Q 32: When does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target?
A: Flaps configuration 1.
B: Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30
C: Heading differs from track by 20° or more
D: Flaps configuration 1, 2.
Q 33: High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:
A: Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.
B: Prohibit steep bank angles.
C: Prohibit steep climb angles and bank angles.
D: Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft.
Q 34: What is the function of the FACs?
A: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations
B: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
C: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection
D: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear protection
Q 35: What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
A: The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.
B: DMC failure.
C: No power.
Q 36: If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
A: Pressing and holding the related systems page pb on the ECAM control panel; the page will be
displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
B: Rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the
Captain or First Officer’s ND.
C: Both are correct.
Q 37: Can the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics?
A: Yes.
B: No.
Q 38: The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate
that: A: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to
PFD 2 and ND 1.
B: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to
PFD 2 and ND 2.
Q 39: What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?
A: Nothing.
B: Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
C: Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
Q 40: How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
Q 41: On an auto land approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
A: FMGC 1
B: FMGC 2
C: Both
Q 42: After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?
A: Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable
B: No action is needed as recovery is automatic.
C: Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
Q 43: When in managed altitude mode, what does altitude window display?
A: Dot
B: Altitude in meters
C: Set/Selected Altitude
D: Dashes
Q 44: When is the bird/TRK-FPA mode used generally?
A: ILS only
B: Full let downs
C: Precision Approaches
D: Non-Precision/Visual Approaches
Q 45: FCU is used for which type of navigation management?
A: Anytime
B: Medium term
C: Long term
D: Short term
Q 46: What does the EXPED (expedite) button do?
A: Gives maximum vertical gradient
B: Gives maximum horizontal gradient
C: Slows speed down
D: Expedites approach
Q 47: Pushing the V/S knob
A: Levels off the aircraft
B: Manages the V/S
C: Nothing happens
D: Selects the V/S
Q 48: APPR pushbutton is used for?
A: Performing a non-precision approach
B: Engaging vertical profile on an approach
C: Engaging lateral profile on an approach
D: Engaging lateral and vertical profiles on an approach
Q 49: Pulling the heading knob initiates
A: Managed Heading
B: Selected Heading
C: Automatic Heading
D: Computed Heading
Q 50: The Speed is displayed in MACH No. by default after which altitude?
A: FL 200
B: FL 250
C: FL 300
D: FL 350
Q 51: If your track diamond on the PFD is towards the left of your current heading, then the winds are
from?
A: 45 degree angle
B: Left
C: Headwind
D: Right
Q 52: What does FMGC stand for?
A: Flight Management Guidance Calculator
B: Flight Management Guidance Checker
C: Flight Management Guidance Computer
D: Flight Management Guidance Controller
Q 53: Normal method of disengaging AP is
A: Thrust levers above MCT
B: Push the sidestick
C: Takeover pb on the sidestick
D: AP pb on the FCU
Q 54: What is the normal FD FMA status?
A: -FD-
B: 1FD-
C: -FD2
D: 1FD2
Q 55: A/THR active is shown in which colour
A: Yellow
B: Blue
C: Green
D: White
Q 56: Which FD bar gives vertical guidance?
A: Pitch bar
B: Vertical bar
C: Roll bar
D: Yaw bar
Q 57: Can the AP control nose wheel position?
A: Yes
B: No
C: Yes during take-off
D: No, but realigns it after take off
Q 58: FDs use respective side FMGCs
A: False, FDs use both FMGCs
B: True
C: False
Q 59: When can two AP be engaged simultaneously?
A: During take-off
B: During approach
C: During cruise
D: During climb
Q 60: The AP cannot be engaged below
A: 250 ft
B: 150 ft
C: 100 ft
D: 200 ft
Q 61: The yaw bar helps in
A: Gives lateral correction
B: Catering for yaw changes
C: Corrects rudder position
D: Maintaining runway center line
Q 62: Which colour on the FMA shows that a particular mode is engaged?
A: Blue
B: Pink
C: Green
D: White
Q 63: What is the active range of the A/THR during one engine operations?
A: Climb to MCT
B: Climb to TOGA
C: Idle to MCT
D: Idle to Climb
Q 64: When can A/THR functions be recovered if disconnected for remainder of the flight?
A: By resetting A/THR circuit breaker
B: On engine start on ground
C: On next engine start in flight or ground
D: On next FMGC power up on ground
Q 65: When is ground speed mini function active?
A: Always active
B: During cruise
C: On take-off
D: On approach
Q 66: Which of the following is a correct arming condition?
A: By setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA detent when the engines are running.
B: By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU while the thrust levers are in the active range
C: By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the engines are running.
D: While A/THR is active by setting all thrust levers beyond the Idle detent
Q 67: Active condition of the A/THR is displayed in which colour on the FMA?
A: White
B: Green
C: Pink
D: Blue
Q 68: In the thrust mode what is controlled?
A: Thrust to maintain speed
B: Thrust to maintain pitch
C: Speed to maintain pitch
D: Pitch to maintain speed
Q 69: Armed condition of the A/THR is displayed in which colour on the FMA?
A: Green
B: Blue
C: White
D: Pink
Q 70: How many detents (stops) are there on the Thrust levers?
A: 6
B: 4
C: 5
D: 3
Q 71: When is the ALPHA FLOOR protection available?
A: During climb phase
B: Lift off to 35000 feet
C: 100 feet after lift off to touchdown
D: Lift off to 100 feet on approach
Q 72: How many A/THR channels are there?
A: 4
B: 3
C: 2
D: 1
Q 73: What are the two types of databases of the FMGS?
A: Lateral and Performance
B: Lateral and Vertical
C: Navigation and Performance
D: Navigation and Planning
Q 74: How is position computed?
A: GPS position
B: Calculations by the Auto-Pilot
C: FMGS computes position together
D: Each FMGC computes its own position
Q 75: At take-off the FM position is updated to?
A: Parking bay position
B: Take-off position
C: Runway touchdown position
D: Runway threshold position
Q 76: COST INDEX is the ratio of?
A: Flight Time Cost to Fuel Cost
B: Flight Time Cost to Flight Performance
C: Fuel Cost to Flight Time Cost
D: Flight Performance to Fuel Cost
Q 77: The FMGS can contain two types of flight plans. They are?
A: Active and Secondary
B: Primary and Secondary
C: Active and Standby
D: Initial and Secondary
Q 78: The lateral changes in the flight plan are made on the MCDU using?
A: Lateral keys
B: Function keys
C: Right keys
D: Left keys
Q 79: What is the position computed by GPS?
A: Average of all GPS
B: GPIRS
C: Computed by Master GPS
D: Mix of GPS and Radio
Q 80: What is the position computed by mixed IRS?
A: Computed by Master IRS
B: Mix of IRS and GPS
C: Average of all the IRS
D: Mix of IRS and Radio
Q 81: What is the ideal value of Cost Index for maximum range?
A: 999
B: 100
C: 99
D: 0
Q 82: What are the three types of FM positions?
A: Mixed IRS, GPIRS, Radio
B: IRS, GPIRS, Radio
C: Mixed IRS, GPS, Radio
D: IRS, Mixed GPS, Radio
