Entrance Test 2024

For Admission to Residential UPSC Civil Services Coaching 2024-25

QUESTION PAPER
Hall Ticket Number:

Time: 2:00 to 5:00 PM (3.00 Hours) Maximum Marks: 290

Instructions to the candidate

1. The Candidate is instructed to write his/her Hall Ticket No. (Roll No,) in the space
provided on the Question Booklet, OMR Sheet and Answer Booklet. In addition to this,
if the candidate writes his Hall Ticket No. or Name anywhere, his/her paper will not be
evaluated.

2. This Question Booklet has (14) pages, the Answer Booklet has (5) pages and the OMR
Sheet is of (1) page. If any defect, please bring it to the notice of the invigilator.

3. The OMR sheet should be filled with Black or Blue Ball Pen only.

4. This Question Booklet has 2 Parts.

PART I: Contains Objective Questions (120Q x 2 = 240 Marks)

a) It contains 120 MCQs and each question carries 2 marks.
b) GS Questions from 1-90 will be counted for MERIT.
c) CSAT Questions from 91-120 are of QUALIFYING NATURE, but the candidates are
required to score at least 40% marks.
d) Penalty: 0.66 mark to be deducted for every wrong response.

PART II: Contains Descriptive Questions (Total 50 marks)

Attempt 1 from each section answer should be in 150 words, each carrying 25 marks.

6. The candidates should hand over the Answer Booklet along with the OMR Sheet to the
Invigilator before he/she leaves the examination hall.

7. OMR Sheet and Answer Booklet NOT signed by the Invigilator shall NOT be
evaluated.

8. After the Entrance Test, the candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet.

Continued on next page…

 Question Paper for
Entrance Exam 2024
Date: Sunday (28th July 2024)

1. Which of the following statements best describes the a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and Statement
‘Peace Clause’ of the World Trade Organization 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
(WTO)? b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2
a) It protects the exports of the Least Developed is not the correct explanation for statement 1
countries from imposition of discriminatory tariff c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
policies by other countries d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
b) It integrates Least Developed Countries with the
multilateral trading system under the WTO 6. ‘Xiaokang’, recently seen in news, is
agreement on agriculture to ease the export of
agricultural items a) China’s border defense villages in Arunachal
c) It protects countries from additional countervailing Pradesh
duties imposed on the export of organic products b) Chinese law regulating Artificial Intelligence
specified in the WTO agreement on agriculture c) China’s approach on Taiwan security situation
d) It protects countries’ food security programmes even d) Chinese hydrological data inventory related to
if the subsidies breached the limits specified in the river Brahmaputra
WTO Agreement on Agriculture
7. Consider the following statements about the
2. Consider the following statements about SCO “Special Session of Parliament”:
(Shanghai Cooperation Organisation): 1) The constitution of India does not mention the term
a) It has 9 member states “Special session”
b) India is one of the founding members 2) There will be no Question Hour, no Zero Hour, and
c) It has 2 official languages no private member business during the special
d) It has also established a partnership with ASEAN session
How many of the following statement/s is/are correct? 3) It was first summoned in the year 1991
a) One only How many of the above statement/s is/ are correct?
b) Two only a) One only
c) Three only b) Two only
d) All four. c) All Three
d) None
3. Port of Izmail and Port of Reni, frequently seen in
news, is located in 8. Consider the following statements about Electoral
a) Israel Bonds:
b) Egypt 1) Their payment was similar to that of a promissory
c) Ukraine note
d) Sudan 2) They could be used to donate only to those political
parties who had secured at least 1% of the votes in
4. Consider the following organizations/ summits: the last Lok sabha elections or the legislative
1) East Asia Summit assembly elections
2) Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 3) It was introduced through a Constitutional
3) MERCOSUR Amendment
4) Indo Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity How many of the above statement/s is/are not
(IPEF) correct?
India is a member of which of the following a) All the above
organizations? b) None of the above
a) 1, 2 and 4 only c) One only
b) 1 and 2 only d) Two only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 4 only 9. Consider the following statements about the Money
5. Consider the following statements: Bill:
Statement 1: The Free Movement Regime (FMR), 1) It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
which was implemented in 2018, was scrapped in 2024 2) If any question arises whether a bill is a money bill
Statement 2: In 2021, the Myanmar military launched a or not, the decision of the Speaker shall be final
coup against the civilian government of Myanmar 3) In the 2018 Aadhaar case, the Supreme Court ruled
that the speaker’s decision is subject to judicial
Which one of the following is correct in respect to review
the above statements? How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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 Question Paper for
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a) None 1) According to the Constitution, the minimum age

b) One only prescribed for any person to be a Member of Lok
c) Two only Sabha is 25 years
d) All Three 2) A Lok Sabha can be dissolved if the President
feels that no viable government can be formed
10. Consider the following statements about the after the resignation of a government
scheduling of elections in India: 3) A Lok Sabha reconstituted after premature
1) The dates of elections of Lok Sabha or a state dissolution continues only for the remainder
assembly are decided by the ECI in consultation period
with the Union Home Minister How many of the statement/s given above is/are
2) The ECI can notify elections at any time within correct?
three months of the end of the term of Lok Sabha or a) One only
a state Assembly b) Two only
3) While deciding the election schedule, the ECI looks c) All three
at the major national and local festivals too d) None
How many of the following statement/s is /are
correct? 14. Consider the following statement:
a) One only An amendment to the Constitution of India can be
b) Two only initiated by the:
c) Three only 1) Lok Sabha
d) None 2) Rajya Sabha
3) State Legislature
11. Consider the following statements: 4) President
Statement 1: The Prime Minister generally responds to Which of the following code/s is/are correct?
the debate whenever MPs discuss a no-confidence a) 1 only
motion in Lok Sabha b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Statement 2: The Constitution specifies that the Prime c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers d) 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct with respect to 15. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the
the above statements? Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and Statement 2 a) Directly elected by the people of those provinces
is the correct explanation for statement 1 b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the
b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 Muslim League
is not the correct explanation for statement 1 c) Elected by the provincial legislative assemblies
c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect d) Selected by the Government for their expertise in
d) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct constitutional matters

12. Consider the following statements about Cultural 16. The Parliament of India acquires the power to
and Educational Rights: legislate on any item in the State List in the national
1) While Article 29 deals with any section of citizens, interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
Article 30 doesn’t do so a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
2) Both Articles 29 and 30 are available to only Indian membership
citizens b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of its
3) The Indian constitution, in the Fundamental rights total membership
chapter, specifies only two types of minorities - c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
Religious and linguistic membership
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of
a) 2 only its members present and voting
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 17. In the context of India, which one of the following is
d) 1 only the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
a) Rights are correlative with Duties
13. With reference to Indian Polity, consider the b) Rights are personal and hence independent of
following statements: Society and Duties
c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
advancement of the personality of the citizen
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 Question Paper for
Entrance Exam 2024
Date: Sunday (28th July 2024)

d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of 4) Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodya Samaj to work
the state among refugees
How many of the above statement/ statements is/are
18. They shared a deep respect for ancient cultures, both correct?
of India and the West. Indian civilisation, they felt, a) 1 only
had attained its glory in the ancient past, but had b) 2 only
subsequently declined. In order to understand India c) 3 only
it was necessary to discover the sacred and legal texts d) All 4
that were produced in the ancient period”.
This view was held by 23. Consider the following landmarks in Indian
a) Orientalists education:
b) Radicalists 1) Hindu college, Calcutta
c) Linguists 2) University of Calcutta
d) Ocidentalists 3) Adam's Report
4) Wood's Despatch
19. His principal forte was social and religious reforms. Correct Chronological order of these landmarks?
He relied upon legislation to do away with social ills a) 1-3-4-2
and work unceasingly for the eradication of child b) 1-4-3-2
marriage and purdah system. To encourage consideration c) 3-1-4-2
of social problems on a national scale, He inaugurated d) 3-2-4-1
the Indian National Social Conference, which for many
years met for its annual session alongside the Indian 24. List-I : List-II
National Congress. (Harappan sites) : (Location)
The reference in this passage is to a) A. Nageshwar : 1. Uttar Pradesh
a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar b) B. Alamgirpur : 2. Rajasthan
b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari c) C. Kalibangan : 3. Saurashtra
c) Mahadev Govinda Ranade d) D. Rakhigarhi : 4. Haryana
d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
20. The governor-general who followed a spirited a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
"Forward" policy towards Afghanistan was b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
a) Minto c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
b) Dufferin d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
c) Elgin
d) Lytton 25. With reference to the Mesolithic Phase of Indian
history, consider the following statements:
21. Consider the following: 1) This phase is characterized by the use of microlithic
Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an tools
end the moderates role in the Indian Freedom movement 2) Evidence of domestication of animals can be found
Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National from this phase
Congress separated the Extremists from the Moderates 3) Sites at Bagor and Adamgarh belong to this phase
Which of the following is correct? 4) There is no evidence of the use of pottery in this
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct phase
explanation of A How many of the statement/s given above is/are
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct correct ?
explanation of A a) One only
c) A is true but R is false b) Two only.
d) A is false but R is true c) Three only
d) All four
22. Consider the following statements:
1) Arya Samaj was founded in 1835 26. With reference to Kalachuris of Tripuri, consider the
2) Lala Lajapat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj following statements:
to the authority of Vedas in support of its social 1) King Kokalla I's victory over Pratiharas resulted in
reform programme Kalachuris ascendancy in the 9th century CE
3) Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmin Samaj 2) Kokalla I was a contemporary of Rashtrakuta king
campaigned for women education Krishna II
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 Question Paper for
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3) Most of the Khajuraho temples were built by royal d) Chief of craft guilds
donation of Kalachuris of Tripuri
4) Agriculture was one of the chief economic activities 31. With reference to the literary works of Dara Shikoh,
during their reign consider the following statements:
How many of the above given statement/s is/are 1) He founded ‘Maktab Khana’ to produce translation
correct? works of Indian texts
a) One only 2) His work titled "Safinat ul-Auliya" is considered a
b) Two only celebrated work in Sufi literature
c) Three only 3) He translated ‘Upanishads’ from Sanskrit into
d) All four Persian
4) Most of his literary work tried to establish a
27. Consider the following dynasties: connection between Hinduism and Islamism
1) Utpala How many of the statement/s given above is/ are
2) Maitraka correct?
3) Karkota a) One only
4) Yashaskara b) Two only
How many of the above-mentioned dynasties are well c) Three only
known for their rule over present-day Kashmir ? d) All four
a) One only
b) Two only 32. The Indian Festival of Kumbh Mela is often in the
c) Three only news. In this context, consider the following
d) All four statement regarding the festival:
1) It is held at four riverbanks mainly at Ganga-
28. With reference to Ancient History of India, who Yamuna confluence, Ganga, Godavari and Shipra
among the following were the contemporaries of 2) The Maha Kumbh Mela is held in Prayagraj after
Chandragupta Maurya? every 144 years
1) Seleucus I Nicator 3) Ardha Kumbh Mela is held at only two places
2) Nagasena Nashik and Ujjain
3) Ashvaghosha 4) Kumbha mela is among UNESCO's list of
4) Megasthenes Intangible cultural heritage
5) Alexander the Great How many of the statement/s given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only a) One only
b) 1, 4 and 5 only b) Two only
c) 2, 4 and 5 only c) Three only
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only. d) All four

29. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct 33. ‘Two state solution’, frequently seen in news, is
regarding the works and policies of Firoz Shah related to
Tughlaq of Delhi Sultanate? a) Sudan
1) He set up a department of public works b) Spain
2) He adopted a policy of religious tolerance towards c) Israel
Hindus and other non-Muslims d) China
3) Under his administration, inhuman punishments
were banned for offences 34. Consider the following dynasties:
Select the correct answer using the code given below 1) Chalukyas of Badami
a) 1 and 2 only 2) Rashtrakutas
b) 3 only 3) Pallavas
c) 1 and 3 only 4) Hoysalas
d) 1, 2 and 3 How many of the above-mentioned dynasties made
temples using Vesara style of architecture?
30. In Medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and a) One only
'pattakila' were used for b) Two only
a) Military officers c) Three only
b) Village headmen d) All four
c) Specialist in vedic rituals
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 Question Paper for
Entrance Exam 2024
Date: Sunday (28th July 2024)

35. The number of children that die before the age of one 40. Which amongst the following is not a major group of
year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that Indian soil as per the categorization of Indian
particular year is called Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) ?
a) Infant Mortality Rate a) Forest soils
b) Neonatal Mortality Rate b) Loamy soils
c) Under 5 Mortality Rate c) Saline soils
d) Maternal Mortality Rate d) Peaty soils

36. According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, 41. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
liberation is possible by means of accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind
a) Gyana salts and minerals. What are the effects of
b) Bhakti salinization on the irrigated land?
c) Yoga a) It greatly increases the crop production
d) Karma b) It makes some soils impermeable
c) It raises the water table
37. With reference to the religious history of India, d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
consider the following statements:
1) Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism 42. Consider the following statements:
2) Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of 1) The boundaries of a National Park are defined by
phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed legislation
forever in a latent form 2) A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? specific species of flora and fauna
a) 1 only 3) In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is
b) 2 only permitted
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
d) None a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
38. Consider the following statements about Kuno c) 1 and 3 only
National Park: d) 1,2 and 3 only
1) It falls under the Kathiawar-Gir dry deciduous forest
eco-region 43. With reference to climate emissions, which of the
2) It was identified as the most suitable location for the following statements best define the term ‘Net Zero’?
reintroduction of Asiatic Lions a) It is the balance between the amount of greenhouse
3) It is located in the Vindhyan hills of Central India gas (GHG) that is produced and the amount that is
How many of the above sentence/s is/are correct? removed from the atmosphere
a) All Three b) It refers to industry sectors aiming to completely
b) None eliminate carbon emissions from their operations
c) One only c) It measures how many grams of Carbon dioxide are
d) Two only released to produce a Kilowatt-hour of electricity
d) It refers to the energy that comes from renewable
39. In the context of Ecological Pyramids, consider the sources that do not pollute the atmosphere when
following statements: produced
1) The pyramid of numbers can never be upright in a
terrestrial ecosystem. 44. With reference to the Global Methane Initiative,
2) Pyramid of numbers represents the total dry weight consider the following statements:
of all organisms at each trophic level. 1) The initiative was launched by the United Nations
3) The pyramid of Energy is always upright. Environment Programme
How many of the statement/s given above is/are 2) India is one of the members of the global methane
correct? initiative
a) One only 3) It is one of the outcomes of the Bonn climate change
b) Two only conference, 2017
c) All three How many of the statement/s given above is/are
d) None correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) All three
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 Question Paper for
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d) None 50. Consider the following pairs regarding different

kinds of goods and their nature:
45. The term 'Shree Anna' was recently seen in the news. Goods : Nature
Which of the following crops have been referred to as 1) Giffen goods : It refers to a good that people
‘Shree Anna’? consume more as the price rises
a) Rice 2) Inferior goods : A type of goods whose demand is
b) Wheat directly proportional with a consumer’s income
c) Cotton 3) Normal goods : A type of good whose
d) Millets demand decreases with an increase in the consumer’s
income
46. Consider the following: How many of the above given pair/s is/are correct?
1) GST and other taxes a) One only
2) Income tax b) Two only
3) Corporate tax c) All three
4) Union excise duties d) None
5) Non tax revenue.
Arrange the receipt of money to the government 51. In the context of the share market, which among the
revenue, as per the recent Union Budget, in following options correctly describe the meaning of
descending order ‘Greenshoe Option’?
a) 1-2-3-4-5 a) It is a type of initial public offering in which the
b) 3-2-1-5-4 price of the offerings is evaluated by the company
c) 1-3-2-4-5 along with their underwriters.
d) 2-1-3-5-4 b) It is a provision that allows the underwriters to sell
more shares to investors than initially planned by the
47. The focus of the second five year plan was issuer in an initial public offering.
a) Establishment of a self-reliant and self-generating c) It is a type of initial public offering in which there is
economy with emphasis on agriculture no fixed price of the issue, but a price band or range
b) Rapid industrialisation with emphasis on the is fixed.
development of basic and heavy industries d) It is a type of equity offering when a company
c) Removal of property and attainment of self-reliance creates new shares and awards them to existing
d) Acceleration of food grain produce and increase in stockholders.
employment opportunity and overall productivity
52. GST is a
48. Which of the following are the high frequency 1) Supply based tax
indicators of the Indian economy? 2) Destination based tax
1) Power Consumption 3) Direct tax
2) IIP general Index 4) Indirect tax
3) 10-year G-sec yield Choose the correct answer
Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only b) 1 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only
d) 1,2 and 3 only
53. The number of children that die before the age of one
49. Which of the following may lead to cost-push year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that
inflation in India? particular year is called
1) Increase in Profit margin by Firms a) Infant Mortality Rate
2) War in the Gulf countries b) Maternal Mortality Rate
3) Provision of Universal Basic Income c) Under 5 Mortality Rate
4) Increase in prices of Imports d) Neonatal Mortality Rate
Select the correct answer from the code given below
a) 1 and 4 only 54. Which one of the following statements is an
b) 2 and 3 only appropriate description of deflation?
c) 1, 2 and 4 only a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against
d) 2, 3 and 4 only other currencies

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b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but
real sectors of economy Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of Statement 1
goods and services c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
time
59. Which of the following regions are known as the
55. How many of the following countries border the Dead 'Mineral heartland of India’?
Sea? a) Deccan Plateau
1) Israel b) Chota Nagpur Plateau
2) Jordan c) Western Ghats
3) Saudi Arabia d) Aravalli Range
4) Syria
5) Egypt 60. Consider the following statement regarding
Choose the correct option Lakshadweep Islands:
a) Two only 1) It is the only chain of coral islands in the Indian
b) One only subcontinent
c) Four only 2) Kavaratti Island is the largest island of
d) Three only Lakshadweep
3) The soil of Lakshadweep is formed due to the
56. With reference to the Copper deposits in India, which disintegration of Dravidian rocks
of the following statements are correct? 4) It consists of islands like Amini, Andrott, Bitra
1) Khetri mine in Rajasthan is the largest copper which are volcanic in nature
producing mine in India How many of the statement/s given above is/are
2) The majority of copper is used in the electrical correct?
industry a) One only
3) Odisha has the largest reserves of copper ore in b) Two only
India c) Three only
4) Majority of copper ore occurs in igneous and d) All four
sedimentary rocks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 61. The ‘Sinai Peninsula’, recently seen in the news, lies
a) 1 and 3 only between which of the following water bodies?
b) 2 and 4 only a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
c) 1, 2 and 4 only b) Adriatic Sea and Ionian Sea
d) 2 and 3 only c) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
d) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
57. Which of the following major ports is a landlocked
harbour in India? 62. Consider the following statements about “Urea Gold”
a) Visakhapatnam port fertilizer:
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port 1) It is developed by the Rashtriya Chemicals and
c) Ennore Port Fertilisers ltd.
d) Tuticorin Port 2) It has more quantity of sulphur than Nitrogen
3) One of its objectives is to improve the Nitrogen Use
58. Consider the following statements regarding the Efficiency (NUE) of Urea
longitudinal and latitudinal extent of India: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
Statement 1: The longitudinal and latitudinal extent of a) 1 and 2 only
India is roughly the same b) 1 and 3 only
Statement 2: The distance between two latitudes and c) 2 and 3 only
two longitudes is standard and remains the same d) 1, 2 and 3 only
everywhere
Which one of the following is correct with respect to 63. ‘National Champions’ Model, often seen in news,
the above statements? is related to
a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct a) Nurturing talented athletes to become national
and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for champions in their respective sports
statement 1 b) Developing specific industries to achieve strategic
advantages in national security
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c) Attracting private investments in the infrastructure 3) In India, Geographical Indications registration is

sector in the country administered by the Geographical Indications of
d) Promoting cultural diversity and social harmony Goods (Registration and Protection) Act of 1999
among different communities in the nation Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
64. Which of the following statements correctly b) 1 and 3 only
describe the meaning of ‘Replacement level c) 2 only
fertility’? d) None of the above
a) Average number of children born to a female over
their lifetime 68. Consider the following pairs:
b) The level of fertility at which a population exactly 1) Paramilitary forces : Borders guarding
replaces itself from one generation to the next 2) Assam Rifles : Myanmar
c) Average number of children reproduced by women 3) Border Security Force (BSF) : Bangladesh
to replace the migrating population in an area 4) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :China
d) Number of child births prevented by women due to 5) Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) : Nepal
the use of contraceptive methods How many of the above pair/s is/are correct?
a) One only
65. Consider the following statements about the b) Two only
Dadasaheb Phalke award: c) Three only
1) This award is given for outstanding contribution to d) All Four
the growth and development of Indian cinema
2) It was first constituted in the year 1969 69. With reference to the Census exercise in India,
3) Amitabh Bachchan was conferred with this award consider the following statements:
this year 1) The Census Act, 1948, mandates census to be
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? conducted once in 10 years
a) 1 and 2 only 2) Only the Union government has the power to
b) 2 and 3 only conduct a census in India
c) 1 and 3 only 3) Every census published in India since independence
d) 1, 2 and 3 only has no data on Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
How many of the statement/s given above is/are
66. Consider the following statements about Critical correct?
minerals: a) One only
1) These minerals form part of multiple strategic value b) Two only
chains, including clean technologies initiatives, c) All three
information and communication technologies and d) None
advanced manufacturing inputs and materials
2) India currently has a Centre of Excellence for 70. With reference to various initiatives launched by the
critical minerals under the Ministry of Mines Government of India, Consider the following pairs:
3) The central government of India identified 22 such Initiative: Launched By
critical minerals for India 1) SWAYATT Initiative : Ministry of Commerce
4) Lithium is one such critical mineral and China is and Industry
one of the largest exporters of lithium to India 2) SAMRIDH Scheme : Ministry of Electronics
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct? and Information Technology
a) One only 3) Dhara Initiative : Ministry of Culture
b) Two only How many of the above given pair/s is/are correctly
c) Three only matched?
d) All four a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
67. Consider the following statements about the GI c) All three pairs
(Geographical Indication) Tag: d) None of the pairs
1) Geographical Indications are part of the intellectual
property rights that come under the Paris 71. Which philosophical school of Vedanta was
Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property founded by Ramanujacharya and emphasizes the
2) In India, they are given even for the foreign products concept of Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism)?
a) Advaita Vedanta
b) Vishishtadvaita Vedanta
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c) Dvaita Vedanta 78. Who is the author of the ‘Siddhanta Shiromani’, a

d) Shuddhadvaita Vedanta seminal work in Indian mathematics and astronomy,
and was also a devotee of Krishna
72. The Chishti Order, known for its Sufi practices and a) Aryabhata
teachings, was established in India by which of the b) Brahmagupta
following saints? c) Bhaskaracharya
a) Moinuddin Chishti d) Varahamihira
b) Nizamuddin Auliya
c) Baba Farid
d) Sheikh Salim Chishti 79. In Sikhism, the principle of ‘Seva’ (selfless service) is
emphasized as a means to achieve what spiritual
goal?
73. In Jainism, which of the following texts is considered a a) Moksha
primary scripture, detailing the teachings of Lord b) Nirvana
Mahavira? c) Mukti
a) Bhagavati Sutra d) Samsara
b) Tattvartha Sutra
c) Acharanga Sutra
d) Kalpa Sutra 80. Which 14th-century Vaishnavite saint from Assam
founded the Ekasarana Dharma and is renowned for
his contributions to Assamese literature and culture?
74. The philosophy of ‘Sunyata’ or emptiness, which plays a) Tulsidas
a central role in Mahayana Buddhism, was b) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
expounded by which Buddhist philosopher? c) Sankardev
a) Asanga d) Ramananda
b) Nagarjuna
c) Vasubandhu 81. Which sahaba did Prophet Muhammad (SAW) help to
d) Dharmakirti become free from being a slave by planting 300+ date
palm trees?
75. Which of the following is a primary tenet of the a) Bilal ibn Rabah (ra)
Bhakti movement, particularly highlighted in the b) Thawban ibn Bujdud (ra)
teachings of Sant Kabir? c) Zayd ibn Harisa (ra)
a) Idol worship d) Salman al Farisi (ra)
b) Ritual sacrifices
c) Monotheism and equality 82. What is the virtue of reciting Ayatul Kursi before
d) Ascetic lifestyle going to bed at night to sleep?
a) Takes away hunger
76. The ‘Panchatantra’, an ancient Indian collection of b) Gives you strength
interrelated animal fables in Sanskrit verse and c) You are protected from harm till sunrise
prose, is attributed to which sage? d) House in Jannah Abu Hurairah (r)
a) Vyasa
b) Vishnu Sharma 83. Which Prophet (as) had control of the Jinn and was
c) Valmiki able to talk to animals?
d) Patanjali a) Sulaiman (as)
b) Dawud (as)
77. Which of the following statements correctly describes c) Yunus (as)
d) Musa (as)
the philosophy of the ‘Pratyabhijna’ school of
Kashmir Shaivism?
a) Dualistic understanding of Shiva and Shakti 84. What does Zam Zam mean?
b) Non-dual recognition of one’s identity with Shiva a) Holy water
c) Emphasis on ritualistic worship of Shakti b) Water well
d) Strict adherence to monastic life and asceticism c) Stop
d) Drink

85. What is Az-Zaqqum?

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a) Food for the people of hellfire b) LEEPAHTN

b) Drink for the people of hellfire c) LEPEAHTN
c) Home for the people of hellfire d) LEPEAHNT
d) Clothes for the people of hellfire
93. A man walks down the backside of his house straight
86. What is Sidrat al-Muntaha? 25 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50
a) Food for the people of Jannah metres again; then he turns towards left and again
b) An olive tree of the farthest boundary walks 25 metres. If his house faces to the East, whatis
c) A lote tree of the farthest boundary his direction from the starting point ?
d) Drink for the people of Jannah a) South - East
b) South - West
87. What was the relation between Prophet Musa (alayhi c) North - East
as-salaam) & Prophet Haroon (alayhi as-salaam)? d) North - West
a) Cousins
b) Brothers 94. A man takes half the time in rowing a certain
c) Father & son distance downstream than upstream. What is the
d) Friends ratio of the speed in still water to the speed of
current?
88. Which of the following is not an example of Major a) 1 : 2
Shirk? b) 2 : 1
a) Asking help from a Prophet c) 1 : 3
b) Going to a pious person’s grave for blessings d) 3 : 1
c) Denying Allah & His religion
d) Showing off 95. The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%.
Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again
89. What does Allah’s name Al-Mu’izz mean? increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in
a) The One who dishonours the price?
b) The One who will judge a) 5%
c) The One who honours b) 10%
d) The One who sees it all c) 12.5%
d) 15%
90. Who was a first cousin of Prophet Muhammad (peace
be upon him)? 96. A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove
a) Abdullah ibn al-Abbas (ra) to the village, arriving there when the village clock
b) Abdullah ibn Umar (ra) indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes,
c) Khalid ibn Waleed (ra) he drove back by a different route of length 1.25
d) Abu Hurairah (ra) times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching
91. Consider the Question and two Statements given home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at
below: home, the village clock is
a) 10 minutes slow
Question: Is x an integer? b) 5 minutes slow
Statement 1: x/3 is not an integer c) 10 minutes fast
Statement 2: 3x is an integer d) 5 minutes fast
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
Question and the Statements? 97. Consider the two Statements followed by a Question
a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question are given
b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question Statement 1: Four years ago, Aman was twice as old as
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are sufficient to Chetan is now.
answer the Question Statement 2: Aman is 8 years older than Chetan.
d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are not sufficient If Aman is twice as old as Barun, by how many years
to answer the Question is Barun older than Chetan?

92. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then Which one of the following is correct in respect of
ELEPHANT would be coded as Statement and Question ?
a) LEPEHATN

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a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the 101 A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do the
Question same work in 20 days. With the help of C, they did
b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the the work in 6 days only. Then, C alone can do the
Question work in
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are required to a) 15 days
answer the Question b) 45 days
d) Neither Statement 1 alone nor Statement 2 alone is c) 30 days
sufficient to answer the Question d) 60 days

98) In the question below are given three statements 102 In a certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour chalk’,
followed by two conclusions numbered 1 and 2. You ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’ and ‘254’ means
have to take the given statements to be true even if ‘white colour chalk’. The digit in the code that
they seem to be at variance with commonly known indicates `white’ is
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which a) 4
of the given conclusions logically follows from the b) 5
given statements disregarding commonly known c) 2
facts: d) Can’t be determined

Statements: 103 For the given expression 122 x 123 x 125 x 127 x 129,
1. Some bottle is glass what will be the last two digits of the product?
2. All glass is cup a) 70
3. No cup is spoon b) 00
Conclusions: c) 50
1. Some bottle are not spoon d) 90
2. Some bottle are cup
Select the answer using the code given below 104. In a quiz competition the host shakes hands with
a) Only 1 follows each participant once. While he shakes hands with
b) Only 2 follows each qualifier amongst the participants twice more.
c) Both 1 and 2 follow Besides, the participants are required to shake
d) Neither 1 nor 2 follow hands once with each other, while the winner, and
the host shakes hands with all the guests once. How
99) Consider the following arrangement that had some many handshakes are there if there are 10
missing letters: participants in all, three finalists, and 60
spectators?
aabcd_ee_bc_d_eabccc_eabbbcdea a) 181
b) 152
The missing letters which complete the arrangement c) 167
are
a) e, a, d, d, d
b) e, a, a, b, c 105. There is a digital watch at the Karaoke Lounge.
c) a, b, c, d, e The watch shows the time in 24 hour format. When Shah
d) e, d, c, b, a entered the lounge, the time in the lounge was 4:56. Shah
says that he will exit the lounge when digits in the watch
100. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. are in an ascending order from left to right. How many
Sanju is to the left of Rashmi and to the right of minutes will Shah spend in the lounge?
Bipasha. Manu is to the right of Rashmi. Ritika is a) 78
between Rashmi and Manu. b) 458
c) 359
Who is sitting on the immediate right to Ritika? d) 71
a) Bipasha
b) Rashmi 106. On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are
c) Manu planted at equal distance from each other. What is
d) Sanju the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
a) 40m
b) 40.4m

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c) 50m a) C is the wife of B

d) 50.5m b) D is the husband of E
c) F is the daughter of E
107. Consider two statements and a Question: d) C is the wife of F.
Question: What is B’s monthly income?
Statement 1: A’s annual income is Rs.21800. The 111. A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots, B can hit a target
ratio of monthly income of A and C is 4:5. 3 times in 4 shots and C can hit a target 2 times in 3
Statement 2: Ratio of monthly income of B and C is shots. All the three fire shots each. What is the
4:3. Difference of monthly income B and C is probability that two shots are at least hit?
Rs.12000 a) 1/6
Which one of the following is correct in respect of b) 3/5
Statement and Question? c) 5/6
a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the d) 1/3
question.
b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the 112. Two candles of the same height are lit at the same
question. time. The first is consumed in 8 hours and the second
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are required to in 6 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a
answer the question. constant rate, in how many hours after being lit, the
d) Either Statement 1 or Statement 2 alone is ratio between the height of first and second candles
sufficient to answer the question. becomes 2:1?
a) 4h
108. Consider the following statements and conclusions, b) 5h
and choose the correct option: c) 4h 30 min
Statements: d) 4h 48 min
1) If a person owns a car, they must have a driver's
license 113. Which of the following sets of numbers contains all
2) If a person has a driver's license, they must be at least numbers that have the digit 3 in them but are not
18 years old divisible by 3?
3) John owns a car a) {13, 23, 33, 43, 53, 63}
Conclusions: b) {13, 23, 43, 53, 73, 83}
1) John is at least 18 years old c) {30, 31, 32, 34, 35, 36}
2) John does not have a driver's license d) {12, 23, 34, 45, 56, 67}
3) John has a driver's license
Select the correct answer using the code given below 114. A group of friends visit a cafe. 31 of them order
a) Only conclusion I follows Coffee. 32 friends order Redbull. 36 friends order
b) Only conclusion II follows soup. 9 friends order both coffee and Redbull. 15
c) Conclusions I and III follow friends order both Redbull and soup. 12 friends order
d) None of the conclusions follow both coffee and soup. 5 friends order coffee, Red bull
and soup. How many people had only Coffee?
109. A simple mathematical operation in each number of a) 18
sequence 1, 19, 109, 271, 505, 929, results in a b) 15
sequence with respect to prime numbers. Which one c) 20
of the following is the next number in the sequence? d) 12
a) 1424
b) 1534 115. Andy, Bob, Cyrus, Derek and Ellen are five friends.
c) 1482 Consider the two Statements followed by a Question
d) 1639 are given:
Statement 1: Derek is heavier than Andy and Cyrus
110. There is a family of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and Statement 2: Bob is lighter than Ellen but heavier than
G. The family members belong to three generations. Derek
There are three couples in the family. E is the mother Question: Who is the heaviest among all five friends ?
in law of C and G has only one child D. B is the Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
brother of F and D is the father of B. A is the Question and the Statements?
grandmother of F. Which of the following statements a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the
is true? Question

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b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the 119. Who specializes in Geography?

Question a) B
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are required to b) D
answer the Question c) E
d) Neither Statement 1 alone nor Statement 2 alone are d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate
sufficient to answer the Question
120. In a code language DFHLNO is written as BBDDGE,
116. In a class of 20 students, the average age of the FIJLNR is written as CCEDGF. What is the code
students is 15 years. When the teacher's age is also language for BUTXZL?
included, the average age of the class increases by 1 a) AGJHMD
year. What is the age of the teacher? b) CHYGBN
a) 33 c) DYTHGF
b) 34 d) EGDMHJ
c) 35
d) 36

Directions for Q117, Q118, Q119: Consider the given

information and answer the three items that follow.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different

cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur,
Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily in
the same order) who participated in a conference.
Each one of them is specialized in a different subject,
viz., Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology,
Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not
necessarily in the same order). Further?

a) Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography

b) Lecturer D is from Shillong
c) Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology
d) Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor
Mathematics
e) Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not
belong to Hyderabad
f) Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs
to Srinagar
g) Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to
Chennai

117. To which city does the Lecturer specialized in

Economics belong?
a) Hyderabad
b) Mumbai
c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

118. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?

a) B
b) E
c) Neither B nor E
d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

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PART II: Contains Descriptive Questions

(Total 50 marks)
Attempt 1 from each section answer should be in 150
words, each carrying 25 marks

Section I Section II
Discuss the role of public sector enterprises in India’s
economic development. How can they be reformed to Discuss the importance of ethics in public
enhance their efficiency and competitiveness? administration. How can ethical governance be
promoted in the civil services?
OR
OR

Analyze the role of women in the Indian National

Movement. How did their participation influence the Evaluate the effectiveness of the National Clean Air
struggle for independence? Programme (NCAP) in combating air pollution in
Indian cities. What additional steps can be taken to
improve air quality?

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