Practice Test

Batch Code : 17-LN121EA

DURATION: 180 min DATE: 25.05.2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Solutions, Electrochemistry
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant
Zoology : Human Reproduction

SECTION-I (Physics)
(1) 10 V (2) 250 V
Single Correct Choice Questions
(3) 1000 V (4) 2500 V
1. When the separation between two charges is
increased, the electric potential energy of the system
5. Two unlike charges of magnitude 𝑞 are separated by
of charges:
(1) increases a distance 2𝑑 . The potential at a point midway
(2) decrease between them is:
1
(3) remains the same (1) zero (2)
4𝜋𝜀0
(4) may increase or decrease 1 𝑞 1 2𝑞
(3) 4𝜋𝜀0
⋅ 𝑑
(4) 4𝜋𝜀0
⋅ 𝑑2
2. The capacity of an isolated conducting sphere of
radius 𝑅 is proportional to: 6. The electric potential and electric field at a point due
(1) 𝑅 2 (2) 𝑅 to a point charge are 600 V and 200 N/C
1/2
(3) 𝑅 (4) 𝑅1/3 respectively. Then magnitude of the point charge
should be:
3. Two charged spheres of radii 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 have equal (1) 3𝜇C (2) 30𝜇C
surface charge density. The ratio of their potential is; (3) 0.2𝜇C (4) 0.5𝜇C
(1) 𝑅1 /𝑅2 (2) 𝑅2 /𝑅1
2
(𝑅
(3) 1 /𝑅2 ) (4) (𝑅2 /𝑅1 )2 7. Four charges +𝑄, −𝑄, +𝑄 and −𝑄 are situated at the
corners of a square in a sequence then at the centre of
4. A charge of 5 C experiences a force of 5000 N when the square:
it is kept in a uniform electric field. What is the (1) 𝐸 = 0, 𝑉 = 0 (2) 𝐸 ≠ 0, 𝑉 ≠ 0
potential difference between two points separated by (3) 𝐸 ≠ 0, 𝑉 = 0 (4) 𝐸 = 0, 𝑉 ≠ 0
a distance of 1 cm along the electric field line?

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8. The potential of the two plates of capacitor are +10 17. The work done in carrying a charge of 5𝜇𝐶 from a
V and -10 V. The charge on one of the plates is 40 C. point A to a point B in an electric field is 10 mJ. The
The capacitance of the capacitor is; potential difference (𝑉𝐵 − 𝑉𝐴 ) is then
(1) 2𝐹 (2) 4𝐹 (1) +2𝑘𝑉 (2) -2 kV
(3) 0.5𝐹 (4) 0.25𝐹 (3) +200 V (4) -200 V

9. An isolated charge parallel plate condenser is 18. To obtain 3𝜇𝐹 capacity from three capacitors of 2𝜇𝐹
immersed in an oil of dielectric constant 2. The field each, they will be arranged.
between the plates is; (1) all the three in series
(1) increased, proportional to 2 (2) all the three in parallel
1 (3) two capacitors in series and the third in parallel
(2) decreased, proportional to 2 with the combination of first two
(3) increased, proportional to -2 (4) two capacitors in parallel and third in series with
1
(4) decreased, proportional to − 2 the combination of first two

19. On moving a charge of 𝑄 coulomb by 𝑋 cm, 𝑊 Joule

10. The potential at a distance 𝑅/2 from the centre of a
of work is done then the potential difference between
conducting sphere of radius 𝑅 containing charge 𝑄
the point is;
will be: 𝑊
𝑄 (1) Volt (2) 𝑄𝑊 Volt
(1) 0 (2) 8𝜋𝜖 𝑅 𝑄
0 𝑄 𝑄2
𝑄 𝑄 (3) 𝑊
Volt (4) 𝑊
Volt
(3) 4𝜋𝜖0 𝑅
(4) 2𝜋𝜖0 𝑅
20. The energy required to charge a parallel plate
11. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are condenser of plate separation 𝑑 and plate area of
connected by a thin wire. No charge will flow, if they cross-section A such that the uniform electric field
have between the plates is E;
(1) The same charge on each 1
(1) 𝜀0 E 2 Ad (2) 2 𝜖0 E 2 Ad
(2) The same potential 1
(3) The same energy (3) 𝜖0 E 2 /Ad (4) 𝜖0 E 2 /Ad
2
(4) The same field on their surfaces
21. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such
12. A condenser of capacitance 12𝜇𝐹 was initially that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential
charged to 20 V. Now potential difference is made 40 at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is;
V. The increase in potential energy is; (1) zero (2) 10 V
10
(1) 7.2 × 10−3 J (2) 47.2 × 10−3 J (3) 4 V (4) 3 V
(3) 3 × 10−43 J (4) 5 × 10−6 J
22. The energy stored in a condenser of capacity 𝐶 which
13. Electric charges of +10𝜇𝐶, +5𝜇𝐶, −3𝜇𝐶 and +8 𝜇𝐶 has been raised to a potential 𝑉 is given by;
1 1
are placed at the corners of a square of side √2 m, the (1) 𝑈 = 2 𝐶𝑉 (2) 𝑈 = 2 𝐶𝑉 2
potential at the centre of the square is; 1
(3) 𝑈 = 𝐶𝑉 (4) 𝑈 = 2𝑉𝐶
(1) 1.8 V (2) 1.8 × 106 V
(3) 1.8 × 105 V (4) 1.8 × 104 𝑉
23. The resultant capacitance of 𝑛 condenser of
capacitances 𝐶1 , 𝐶2 𝐶n connected in series is given by;
14. The electric potential 𝑉 is given as a function of 1 1 1
distance 𝑥 (metre) by 𝑉 = (5𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 − 9) volts. (1) 𝐶S = 𝐶 + 𝐶 + ⋯ … . . + 𝐶
1 2 n
1 1 1 1
The value of electric field at 𝑥 = 1 m is: (2) = + + …… +𝐶
𝐶S 𝐶1 𝐶2 n
(1) 20 V/m (2) 6 Vlm
(3) 𝐶S = 𝐶1 + 𝐶2 + ⋯ … . . +𝐶n
(3) 11 V/m (4) zero
(4) 𝐶S = 𝐶1 − 𝐶2 + ⋯ … . . −𝐶n
15. Energy is stored in a capacitor in the form of 24. The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10−18
(1) electrostatic energy (2) magnetic energy coulomb on a conductor of capacity 100 microfarad is;
(3) chemical energy (4) heat energy (1) 3.1 × 10−26 joule (2) 4 × 10−10 joule
(3) 32 × 10−32 joule (4) 16 × 10−23 joule
16. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to
another over an equipotential surface, then 25. A conductor with a positive charge.
(1) Work is done on the charge (1) is always at +ve potential
(2) Work is done by the charge (2) is always at zero potential
(3) Work done is constant (3) is always at negative potential
(4) No work is done (4) may be at + ve, zero or -ve potential
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26. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from 33. In figure two points 𝐴 and 𝐵 are located in a region
a point A to point B, then; of electric field. The potential difference 𝑉𝐵 − 𝑉𝐴 is;
(1) 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = +ve (2) 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = 0
(3) 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 = −ve (4) it is stationary

27. The capacitor, whose capacitance is 6𝜇𝐹, 6𝜇𝐹 and

3𝜇𝐹 respectively are connected in series with 20 volt
line. Find the charge on 3𝜇𝐹. (1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) Zero (4) None of these

34. A proton is accelerated from rest through a potential

500 volts. Its final kinetic energy is;
(1) 50 eV (2) 500 eV
(3) 1000 eV (4) 2000 eV

(1) 30𝜇C (2) 60𝜇C 35. Which of the following expressions represents a
(3) 15𝜇C (4) 90𝜇C farad?
(1) joule/volt (2) volt / coulomb
(3) coulomb/volt (4) coulomb/joule
28. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then
isolated. What is the effect of increasing the plate
36. Find the total energy stored in the system of
separation on charge, potential, capacitance, capacitance as shown in the figure. The potential
respectively? difference between points 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 100 V.
(1) Constant, decreases, decreases
(2) Increases, decreases, decreases
(3) Constant, decreases, increases
(4) Constant, increases, decreases

29. Charge is a ______ quantity. (1) 0.1 mJ (2) 10 mJ

(1) scalar (2) vector (3) 1 mJ (4) 100 mJ
(3) tensor (4) non-existent
37. Three capacitors of 3𝜇𝐹, 2𝜇𝐹 and 6𝜇𝐹 are
30. The work done to move a charge on an equipotential connected in series. When a battery of 10 V is
surface is ______. connected to this combination then charge on
(1) infinity (2) less than 1 capacitors will be;
(3) greater than one (4) zero (1) 5𝜇𝐶 (2) 10𝜇𝐶
(3) 15𝜇𝐶 (4) 20𝜇𝐶
31. Which of the following statements is/are correct for
equipotential surface? 38. Unit of electric potential is ______.
I. The potential at all the points on an equipotential (1) N/C (2) V/m
surface is same. (3) Joule/C (4) Newton
II. Equipotential surfaces never intersect each other.
39. 4 plates of the same area of cross-section A are
II. Work done in moving a charge from one point to
joined. The distance between plates is d. The
other on an equipotential surface is zero.
effective capacitance of combination is:
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III
3𝜀0 A 𝜀0 A
(1) (2)
32. Figure shows the variation of electric field d d
4𝜀0 A
intensity 𝐸 versus distance 𝑥. What is the potential (3) d
(4) None of these
difference between the points at 𝑥 = 2 m and at
𝑥 = 6 m from O ? 40. The effective capacitance between the point 𝑃 and 𝑄
in the given figure is;

(1) 30 V (2) 60 V
(3) 40 V (4) 80 V (1) 4𝜇𝐹 (2) 16𝜇𝐹
(3) 26𝜇𝐹 (4) 10𝜇𝐹

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41. In an electric field 𝐸⃗ = (2𝚤ˆ + 4𝚥ˆ)N/C , electric 43. The electric potential 𝑉 at a point 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) in space
potential at origin is 0 V. Match the following two is given by 𝑉 = 4𝑥 2 volt. Electric field at a point (
List. 1 m, 0,2 m ) in V/m is;
Match the List-I with List-II. (1) 8 along -ve 𝑥-axis (2) 8 along +ve 𝑥-axis
List-I List-II (3) 16 along -ve 𝑥-axis (4) 16 along + ve 𝑥-axis
A. Potential at (4m, 0) I. 8 V
B. Potential at (-4m, 0) II. -8 V
44. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field.
C. Potential at (0m, 4m) III. 16 V
D. Potential at (0, -4m) IV. –16 V The electric potential is;
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) Maximum at B
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) Maximum at C
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) Same at all the three points A, B and C
42. A glass slab is put within the plates of an isolated (4) Maximum at A
charged parallel plate condenser. Which of the
following quantities does not change? 45. The angle between the electric lines of force and the
(1) energy of the condenser equipotential surface is;
(2) capacity (1) 180∘ (2) 0∘
(3) intensity of electric field
(3) 0∘ (4) 90∘
(4) charge

SECTION-II (Chemistry)
Single Correct Choice Questions 51. Match the List-I with List-II.
46. The equivalent conductance of a 1 N solution of an
electrolyte is nearly:
(1) 1000 times its specific conductance.
(2) 10 times its specific conductance.
(3) 100 times its specific conductance.
(4) the same as its specific conductance.

47. The density of a 2 M solution of acetic acid (molar

mass 60 g/mol ) in water is 1.017 g/mL . The
molality of the solution is;
(1) 1.25 m (2) 2.22 m
(3) 3.12 m (4) 0.12 m Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
48. Electrolytic conductivity of 0.30 M solution of KCl (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
at 298 K is 3.72 × 10−2 S cm−1 . Calculate its molar (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
conductance. (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) 124 S cm2 mol−1 (2) 12.4 S cm2 mol−1 (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) 1.24 S cm2 mol−1 (4) 1240 S cm2 mol−1
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
49. The conductivity of a saturated solution of CaF2 is Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
found to be 4.0 × 10−5 S cm−1 . If 𝜆∞ m = Assertion(A): An electrochemical cell can be setup
104.0(Ca+2 ) and 𝜆∞ m = 48.0( F −)
in Scm2
mol −1
, only if the redox reaction is spontaneous.
the solubility product of CaF2 will be: Reason(R): A reaction is spontaneous if free energy
(1) 3.2 × 10−10 M3 . (2) 3.2 × 10−11 M3 . change is negative.
−12 3
(3) 3.2 × 10 M . (4) 3.2 × 10−13 M3 . In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
50. The value of molal depression constant (in K kg (1) A is true but R is false.
mol−1) of an unknown solvent which suppose has (2) A is false but R is true.
freezing point 27∘ C and latent heat of fusion 150 J (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
g −1 is; explanation of A.
(1) 2.68 (2) 4.98 (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
(3) 3.86 (4) 1.86 explanation of A.

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53. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (i) (+) deviation
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (ii) Ideal
Assertion(A): Molar conductivity of a weak (iii) (−) deviation
electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be determined (1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
experimentally. (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
Reason(R): Kohlrausch's law helps to find the molar (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution. (4) A-(i), B-(iii), (C)-(ii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 60. The limiting molar conductivities Λ∘ for NaCl, KBr
(1) A is true but R is false. and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol−1
(2) A is false but R is true. respectively. The Λ∘ for NaBr is;
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) 278 S cm2 mol−1 (2) 176 S cm2 mol−1
explanation of 𝐴.
(3) 128 S cm2 mol−1 (4) 302 S cm2 mol−1
(4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
61. Consider the following statements:
54. The cell potential (E) and the free energy change I. Conductance of electrolyte solution increases
(ΔG) accompanying an electrochemical reaction are with temperature.
related by: II. Resistivity is reciprocal of molar conductivity of
(1) ΔG = −nF log e 10 (2) ΔG = nFE electrolyte.
(3) ΔG = −nFE (4) −ΔG = nFlog E III. Cell constant has unit cm−1 .
The correct statement(s) is/are;
55. The units of conductivity are; (1) I and III (2) I and II
(1) Siemens s −1 cm−1 (2) Siemens cm (3) Only II (4) Only III
(3) Siemens cm−1 (4) Siemens cm−2 mol−1
62. Consider the following statements:
56. Mark the correct choice of electrolytes represented I. Cathode is negative terminal both in
in the graph given below: electrochemical and electrolytic cell
II. Reduction occurs at cathode both in galvanic as
well as electrolytic cell.
III. Chemical change in electrolytic cell is
nonspontaneous.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are;
(1) Only II (2) Only III
(3) Only I (4) I and II
(1) A → NH4 OH and B → NaCl
(2) A → NH4 OH and B → NH4 Cl 63. Al3+ (aq.) + 3e− → Al(s); E ∘ = −1.66 V
(3) A → CH3 COOH and B → CH3 COONa Cu2+ (aq.) +2e− → Cu (s) ; E ∘ = +0.34 V
(4) A → KCl and B → NH4 OH What voltage is produced under standard conditions
by combining the half reactions with these standard
57. The overall reaction of a hydrogen - oxygen fuel cell is: electrode potentials?
(1) 2H2 ( g) + O2 ( g) → 2H2 O(l) (1) +1.32 V (2) +2.00 V
(2) 2H2 ( g) + 4OH − (aq) → 4H2 O(2) + 4e− (3) +2.30 V (4) +4.34 V
(3) O2 ( g) + 2H2 O(l) + 4e− → 4OH − (aq)
(4) 4OH − (aq) + 4e− → 2H2 O(l) 64. Given
∘ ∘
ECr 3+ /Cr = −0.74 V; EMnO− /Mn2+ = +1.51 V
4
58. After adding non-volatile solute, freezing point of ∘ ∘
ECr 2− 3+ = +1.33 V; ECl/Cl− = +1.36 V
water decreases to −0.186∘ C . Calculate ΔTb if; 2 O7 /Cr

K f = 1.86 K kg mol−1 and K b = .521 K kg mol−1 Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising
(1) 1.86 (2) 0.521 agent will be:
(3) 0.0186 (4) 0.0521 (1) Mn2+ (2) MnO− 4
(3) Cl− (4) Cr 3+
59. Match the following graph and choose the correct
option. 65. Identify which of the following forms an ideal
solution and choose the correct option.
I. Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide
II. ethyl alcohol + water
III. Chloroform + benzene
IV. Benzene + toluene
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) I and III (4) I and IV
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66. Osmotic pressure of a solution is; 73. Which of the following metals will not displace
(1) Inversely proportional to the molar concentration hydrogen from water?
of the solution (1) Mg (2) Zn
(2) Directly proportional to the molar mass of the (3) Sn (4) Ag
solute
(3) Independent of the temperature 74. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Directly proportional to the temperature and
inversely proportional to the molar mass of
solute.

67. A solution weighing '𝑎' g has molality '𝑏'. The molar

mass of solute if the mass of solute is 'c' 𝑔 will be;
c 1000 𝑏 1000
(1) b × (a−c) (2) 𝑎
× (𝑎−𝑏)
b 1000 c 1000
(3) c × (a−c) (4) a
× ( b−a)

68. The statement "The mass of a gas dissolved in a Choose the correct answer from the options given
given mass of a solvent at any temperature is below:
proportional to the pressure of the gas above the (1) A - IV; B - III; C - II; D – I
solvent" is : (2) A − IV; B − III; C − I; D − II
(1) Dalton's law of partial pressure (3) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II
(2) Law of mass action (4) A − III; B − IV; C − II; D − I
(3) Henry's law
(4) None of the above 75. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
69. Which of the following is not true for an electrolytic Assertion(A): One molal solution is always more
concentrated than one molar solution.
cell?
Reason(R): The amount of solvent in 1 M and 1 m
(1) Anode is positively charged.
aqueous solution is not equal.
(2) Cathode is negatively charged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Oxidation takes place at positively charged
correct answer from the options given below:
electrode.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(4) Reduction takes place at anode. (2) 𝐴 is false but 𝑅 is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
70. If the conductance and specific conductance of a explanation of A.
solution is one then the value of its cell constant (in (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
cm−1 ) will be: explanation of A.
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 0.5 (4) 4 76. Statement-I: 1 mole of benzene ( 𝑝∘ benzene = 42
mm of Hg ) and 2 moles of toluene ( p∘ toluene = 36
71. In dry cell, cathode is made of; mm of Hg ) will have total vapour pressure 38 mm
(1) C + MnO2 (2) Zn + NH4 Cl of Hg .
(3) Carbon rod (4) Zn Statement-II: For the same mixture mentioned in
statement-I, the mole fraction of vapours of benzene
72. Given the standard reduction potentials. above liquid mixture is 7/19.
EK∘ +/K = −2.93 V, (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
∘ ∘ (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
EMg2+ /Mg = −2.37 V, ECr3+ /Cr = −0.74 V
incorrect.
The correct increasing order of reducing power is; (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) K > Mg > Cr (2) Cr > Mg > K correct.
(3) Mg > K > Cr (4) Cr > K > Mg (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

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77. Given below are two statements: 83. For the cell reaction,
Statement-I: Mixture of CS2 and acetone show 2Fe+3 (aq) + 2I − (aq) → 2Fe+2 (aq) + I2 (aq)
∘
positive deviation from Raoult's law. Ecell = 0.24 V
∘ (kJmol−1 )
Statement-II: Mixing of polar and non-polar liquid at 289 K. The value of Δ G for the given
gives solution of weaker intermolecular force cell is; ( take 1 F = 96500Cmol−1 )
(1) -5.7 (2) 5.7
showing positive deviation.
(3) 23.16 (4) -46.32
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: 84. The cell reaction involving quinhydrone electrode
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is is:
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
What will be the electrode potential at pH = 3 ?
(1) 1.48 V (2) 1.20 V
78. Lead storage battery does not contain; (3) 1.10 V (4) 1.30 V
(1) Pb rod as anode.
(2) Graphite as cathode. 85. The molarity of 98% (w/v) solution of H2 SO4
(3) Pb plates coated with PbO2 which acts as [density sol = 1.5 g/ml] is
cathode. (1) 5 M (2) 10 M
(4) H2 SO4 as electrolyte. (3) 15 M (4) 20 M

79. Difference between diffusion and osmosis is; 86. Cu+ + e− ⟶ Cu, E ∘ = x1 volt; Cu2+ + 2e− ⟶
Cu, E ∘ = x2 volt, then for Cu2+ + e− ⟶ Cu+ , E ∘
(1) A semipermeable membrane is required for
(volt) will be –
osmosis while diffusion requires no (1) 𝑥1 − 2𝑥2 (2) 𝑥1 + 2𝑥2
semipermeable membrane. (3) 𝑥1 − 𝑥2 (4) 2𝑥2 − 𝑥1
(2) In osmosis, movement of molecules is in one
direction whereas in diffusion, the movement is 87. The EMF of a galvanic cell is determined by using
on both sides. a/an;
(3) In osmosis only the solvent moves while in (1) Voltmeter. (2) Spectrometer.
diffusion solute and solvent both move. (3) Coulometer. (4) Ammeter.
(4) All of the above.
88. Given below are the half-cell reactions:
Mn2+ + 2e− → Mn; E ∘ = −1.18 V
80. y g of a non-volatile organic substance of molar mass
2(Mn3+ + e− → Mn2+ ); E ∘ = +1.51 V
M is dissolved in 250 g benzene. Molal elevation The value of E ∘ for 3Mn2+ → Mn + 2Mn3+ will be;
constant of benzene is K b . Elevation in its boiling (1) -0.33 V; the reaction will not occur.
point is given by; (2) -0.33 V; the reaction will occur.
𝑀 4𝐾𝑏 𝑦 (3) -2.69 V; the reaction will not occur.
(1) 𝐾𝑏 𝑦
(2) 𝑀
(4) -2.69 V; the reaction will occur.
𝐾𝑏 𝑦 𝐾𝑏 𝑦
(3) 4𝑀
(4) 𝑀
89. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50
81. Lowering of vapour pressure in 1 molal hypothetical ohm. The specific conductance of the solution is
1.4 S m−1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the
solution in which molar mass of solvent is 100 g (at
same electrolyte is 280 ohm. The molar conductivity
100∘ C ) will be; of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm2 mol−1 is;
(1) 69 mm Hg (2) 14.1 mm Hg (1) 5 × 103 (2) 5 × 104
(3) 31.2 mm Hg (4) 35.2 mm Hg (3) 5 × 10−4 (4) 5 × 10−3

82. Molarity and molality of a solution of caustic soda 90. When 9.65 coulombs of electricity is passed
are respectively 10 M and 100 m. The density of the through a solution of silver nitrate (atomic weight
solution is; of Ag = 107.87 taking as 108) the amount of
(1) 0.5 g mL−1 (2) 8.2 g mL−1 silver deposited is
(1) 10.8 mg (2) 5.4 mg
(3) 1.2 g mL−1 (4) 1.5 g mL−1
(3) 16.2 mg (4) 21.2 mg

[7]
 SECTION-III (Botany)
Single Correct Choice Questions 96. Given below are two statements:
91. Persistent nucellus present in some seeds is Statement I: Endosperm development precedes
called; embryo development in angiosperms.
(1) perisperm. (2) pericarp. Statement II: The cells of the endosperm tissue
(3) epicotyl. (4) hypocotyl. are filled with reserve food materials and are used
for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
92. Parthenocarpic fruits; In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) develop from fertilised ovary. most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) are seedless. below:
(3) are orange and guava. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) cannot be induced through the application of incorrect.
growth hormones. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
93. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
List-I List-II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. Non-albuminous I. Stem tip incorrect.
B. Albuminous II. Root tip
C. Plumule III. Castor 97. Choose the incorrect match.
D. Radicle IV. Pea (1) Microsporangium – Pollen sac
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Embryo sac – Female gametophyte
below. (3) Microspore – Male gamete
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) Ovary – Megasporangium
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 98. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The coconut water from tender
94. Match the List I with List II and select the correct
coconut is free-nuclear endosperm in
option.
angiosperms.
List-I List-II
Reason R: The surrounding white kernel in
A. Removal of anthers I. Triple fusion
coconut is the cellular endosperm in
in bisexual flowers
angiosperms. In the light of the above statements,
B. Formation of II. Bagging
choose the correct answer from the options given
endosperm
below:
C. Formation of III. Emasculation
(1) A is true but R is false.
Zygote
(2) A is false but R is true.
D. Prevents IV. Syngamy
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
contamination of
explanation of A.
stigma
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
A B C D
correct explanation of A.
(1) I II III IV
(2) III II IV I
99. Seeds of Lupinus aracticus germinated after a
(3) III I IV II
dormancy of -
(4) II IV III I
(1) 2000 years (2) 10000 days
(3) 10000 years (4) 1000 years
95. Perisperm differs from endosperm in -
(1) formation by fusion of secondary nucleus
with several sperms. 100. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering
(2) Being a haploid tissue. plants involves the process of;
(3) Having no reserve food. (1) apomixis. (2) polyembryony.
(4) Being a diploid tissue. (3) parthenogenesis (4) parthenocarpy

[8]
101. Dioecy condition in flowering plants prevents; 107. In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are
(1) autogamy only. (2) geitonogamy only. shed at;
(3) xenogamy only. (4) both (1) and (2) (1) 2-celled stage. (2) 3 -celled stage.
(3) 4-celled stage. (4) 1-celled stage.
102. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large
cotyledon in angiosperms known as; 108. Choose the correct statement w.r.t Parthenium
(1) epiblast (2) epicotyl. (Carrot grass).
(3) hypocotyl. (4) scutellum. (1) Parthenium came into India as a contaminant
with imported wheat.
103. Identify the conditions which show that the
(2) It has become ubiquitous in occurrence.
embryo of a seed is entering in the state of
(3) It causes pollen allergy.
dormancy.
(4) All of these
A. Seeds become relatively dry.
B. Water content is reducing.
109. Match List-I with List-II.
C. The general metabolic activity of embryo is
List-I List-II
slowing down.
D. The seeds having 10-15% moisture by mass. A. Funicle I. Basal part of ovule
Choose the most appropriate answer from the B. Hilum II. One or two protective
options given below: layers of ovule
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only C. Integument III. Region where body
(3) B and D only (4) A, B, C and D of ovule fuses with
funicle
104. The proximal end of the filament of stamen is D. Chalaza IV. Stalk of ovule
attached to the; Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) thalamus or petal. (2) sepals or thalamus. below:
(3) anther (4) epipetalous (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
105. Identify the labelling from 𝐀 to 𝐂 in the given (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
diagram, respectively. (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

110. An ovule in angiosperms has generally ______

embryo sac formed from a megaspore.
(1) one (2) three
(3) four (4) eight

(1) A-Sporogenous tissue, B-Tapetum, C-

111. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Epidermis
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) A-Sporogenous tissue, B-Epidermis, C-
Assertion A: Flowers are morphological and
Tapetum
embryological marvels and the sites of sexual
(3) A-Epidermis, B-Sporogenous tissue, C-
Tapetum reproduction.
(4) A-Tapetum, B-Sporogenous tissue, C- Reason R: During the formation of
Epidermis inflorescences, first floral buds appear and then
the flowers.
106. In the pollen grain of an angiosperms, A has In the light of the above statements, choose the
prominent apertures called B where correct answer from the options given below:
sporopollenin is absent. Identify 𝐀 and 𝐁 (1) A is true but R is false.
respectively. (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) A - germ pore, B - intine (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A - exine, B - germ pore explanation of A.
(3) A - germ pore, B - exine (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) A - intine, B - germ pore correct explanation of A.

[9]
112. In flowering plants, the largest cell in a mature 118. Given below are two statements:
embryo sac is; Statement I: Filiform apparatus present at the
(1) egg cell. (2) central cell. micropylar part of the synergids.
(3) synergid. (4) antipodals. Statement II: A typical anther wall possesses
one or two layer of integuments.
113. The ploidy levels of the cells of the nucellus, In the light of the above statements, choose the
megaspore mother cell, the functional megaspore most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
and female gametophyte in angiosperm is;
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(1) 2𝑛, 𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛. (2) 𝑛, 𝑛, 2𝑛, 𝑛.
incorrect.
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n. (4) n, 2n, 2n, n.
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
114. In flowering plants, the term pollination means; (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) dehiscence of anther. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) the transfer of pollen grains from anther to incorrect.
stigma.
(3) the transfer of pollen grains from ovule to the 119. Statement-I: Triple fusion occurs in central cell
ovary of the same flower. of embryo sac.
(4) formation of pollen grains. Statement-II: The central cell after triple fusion
becomes the primary endosperm cell and
115. False fruit are - develops into the endosperm.
(1) Guava, Pear & sapota. (1) Statement 𝐈 is true but statement II is false.
(2) Black pepper and beet (2) Both statements I and II are false.
(3) Both statements I and II are true.
(3) Apple & strawberry
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(4) Banana & Apple.

120. A species of moth deposits its eggs in the ovary

116. In wind pollinated flower, the tassels in corn cob
of ______ flowers and the plant in turn gets
are; pollinated by the moth.
(1) ovaries. (2) integuments. (1) Hydrilla (2) papaya
(3) anther and filament. (4) stigma and style. (3) coconut (4) Yucca

117. Identify the parts labelled 𝐀, 𝐁, 𝐂 and 𝐃 in the 121. Number of ovules present in the ovary of wheat
given figure and select the correct option. is/are;
(1) one. (2) two.
(3) three. (4) four.

122. The elongated slender part beneath the stigma of

a flower is;
(1) ovary. (2) style.
(3) placenta. (4) locule.

123. When there are more than one pistil in a flower

of angiosperms the condition is known as;
(1) monocarpellary. (2) multicarpellary.
(3) syncarpous. (4) apocarpous.
A B C D
124. Pollen tablets are available in the market;
(1) Scutellum Epiblast Coleoptile Coleorhiza
(1) for in-vitro fertilisation.
(2) Scutellum Coleorhiza Coleoptile Epiblast
(2) for plant breeding programmes.
(3) Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorhiza Epiblast
(3) as food supplements.
(4) Epiblast Coleoptile Coleorhiza Scutellum
(4) to preserve pollen as fossils.

[10]
125. The vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger, has 130. Match List-I with List-II.
abundant food reserve and a large _____ shaped List-I List-II
nucleus. A. Megasporogenesis I. Generally
(1) irregular (2) spindle bilobed
(3) oval (4) round B. Microsporogenesis II. Covered by
exine
C. Pollen grain III. Microspore
126. Match List I with List II and select the correct formation
option. D. Anther IV. Megaspore
List-I List-II formation
A. Coleoptile I. The portion of Choose the correct answer from the options given
embryonal axis above below:
the level of cotyledons (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
B. Coleorhiza II. Cylindrical portion
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
below the level of
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
cotyledons
C. Epicotyl III. Root cap enclosed in an 131. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers
undifferentiated sheath are present in;
D. Hypocotyl IV. Few leaf primordia (1) Vallisneria. (2) Viola.
enclosed in a hollow (3) Hydrilla. (4) Zostera.
foliar structure
132. Choose the odd one statement w.r.t
A B C D
postfertilisation development in angiosperms.
(1) III IV II I (1) The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
(2) I II III IV (2) Microspore develops into pollen grain.
(3) IV III I II (3) The ovary develops into fruit.
(4) IV III II I (4) The ovule develops into seed.

127. Light and non-sticky pollen grains in 133. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Pollination does not guarantee the
angiosperms are favourable for;
transfer of the right type of pollen.
(1) water pollinated plant.
Statement II: Often, pollen of the wrong type,
(2) wind pollinated plant. either from other species or from the same plant,
(3) insect pollinated plant. also land on the stigma.
(4) animal pollinated plant. In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
128. In a typical angiosperm, embryo sac at maturity below:
is; (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(1) 8-nucleated and 7-celled.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) 7 -nucleated and 8 -celled. correct.
(3) 7-nucleated and 7-celled. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) 8-nucleated and 8-celled. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
129. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) In water lily, the flowers emerge above the 134. The zygote of angiosperms first gives rise to the;
level of water for pollination. (1) heart-shaped embryo. (2) mature embryo.
(3) globular embryo. (4) proembryo.
(2) Pollination by water can take place inside or
on water surface. 135. An organic material that can withstand in extreme
(3) All aquatic plants are pollinated by water. environmental conditions and cannot be
(4) Pollen grains are protected from wetting by a degraded by any enzyme is;
mucilaginous covering when pollinated by (1) pectin. (2) sporopollenin.
water. (3) cellulose. (4) pollen tablets.

[11]
 SECTION-IV (Zoology)
Single Correct Choice Questions Choose the correct answer from the option given
136. Humans are ___ (A)___ reproducing and below.
___(B)___ in nature. Choose the option which fill (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
the blanks correctly. (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(A) (B)
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(1) sexually oviparous
(2) asexually viviparous (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) sexually viviparous
(4) asexually oviparous 143. A gonadotropin hormone, ___X___ acts on
interstitial cells and stimulates synthesis and
137. The last part of oviduct is; secretion of ___Y___.
(1) ampulla. (2) fimbriae. Identify 𝐗 and 𝐘 from the given option.
(3) isthmus. (4) cervix.
(1) X - LH; Y - Androgen
138. Which of the following events occur during (2) X - FSH; Y - Testosterone
follicular phase? (3) X - TSH; Y - Progesterone
(1) Primary follicles in the ovary develop into mature (4) X - GH; Y - Estrogen
Graafian follicles.
(2) Endometrium of uterus degenerates. 144. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(3) Estrogen and progesterone rise to attain peak. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(4) Development of corpus luteum. Assertion (A): Mons pubis is a part of female
external genitalia.
139. Hormone that cause ovulation is;
(1) FSH. (2) LH. Reason (R): Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue
(3) estrogen. (4) GnRH covered by skin and pubic hair.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
140. Read the following statements and choose the correct correct answer from the options given below.
option. (1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false.
A. The reproductive cycle in the female primates is (2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true.
called menstrual cycle.
(3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct
B. A functional mammary gland is a characteristic
of all female mammals. explanation of 𝐀.
C. The urethra originates from the kidneys and (4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is not the correct
extends through the penis. explanation of A.
D. Formation of gametes is called gametogenesis.
E. Myometrium is made up of skeletal muscle. 145. Which of the following is not the male sex accessory
(1) A, B and E only (2) B and D only duct?
(3) B, C and E only (4) A, B and D only
(1) Vas deferens (2) Epididymis
141. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t primary sex (3) Uterus (4) Vasa efferentia
organs?
(1) They produce gametes. 146. Hymen can be broken due to;
(2) They secrete sex hormones. (1) horseback riding.
(3) They are concerned with the conduction of (2) insertion of a vaginal tampon.
gametes. (3) cycling.
(4) Testes in male and ovaries in female are the (4) all of these
examples of primary sex organs.

142. Match the List-I with List-II. 147. Each ovary is about ___(A)___ in length and is
List-I List-II connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by
A. LH surge I. Menarche ___(B)___.
st Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.
B. I meiotic division II. Ovulation
of primary oocyte (1) 2 to 6 cm , tendons
C. Cessation of III. Release of first (2) 2 to 4 cm , ligaments
menstrual cycle polar body (3) 3 to 6 cm , elastic fibres
D. Beginning of IV. Menopause (4) 4 to 8 cm , collagen fibres
menstrual cycle
[12]
148. Match the List-I with List-II. 155. Given below are two statements.
List-I List-II Statement I: Milk is stored in the cavities (lumens)
A. Antrum I. Present in tertiary follicle of alveoli in mammary gland.
B. Breast II. Loose fold of skin of glans Statement II: Several mammary ducts join to form
penis a wider mammary ampulla.
C. Foreskin III. Characteristic of female In the light of the above statements, choose the most
mammals appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D. Uterus IV. Inverted pear shaped
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
below. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 156. The phase of embryonic development during
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV pregnancy is called;
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) gestation. (2) insemination.
(3) implantation. (4) none of these
149. Which of the following is not a part of female
reproductive system? 157. Read the following statements and state True(T) or
(1) Mons pubis (2) Uterus False (F).
(3) Prostate gland (4) Labia majora I. Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which
encloses the ovarian stroma.
150. Which of the following labelled parts produces II. The ovarian stroma is divided into two zones - a
energy for the movement of the tail that facilitate peripheral medulla and an inner cortex.
sperm motility essential for fertilisation? III. The myometrium undergoes cyclical changes
during menstrual cycle.
IV. The ovaries are located one on each side of the
lower abdomen.
(1) I-T II-F III-F IV-F
(2) I-T II-F III-F IV-T
(3) I-F II-T III-F IV-F
(4) I-F II-T III-T IV-F

158. For normal fertility, how many of sperms must have

normal shape & size?
(1) 60% (2) 40%
(3) 20% (4) 10%

159. Ploidy of spermatogonia is;

(1) A (2) B (1) diploid. (2) triploid.
(3) C (4) D (3) haploid. (4) polyploid.

151. Ovum released from ovary is captured by; 160. Each testis has about ___A___ compartments called
(1) ampulla of fallopian tube. ___B___.
(2) fimbriae of infundibulum of fallopian tube. Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.
(3) fimbriae of isthmus of fallopian tube. A B
(4) uterine fundus. (1) 250 seminiferous tubules
(2) 500 testicular lobules
152. After ovulation, ruptured Grafilan follicle changes (3) 250 testicular lobules
into; (4) 400 seminiferous tubules
(1) primary oocytes. (2) corpus luteum.
(3) tertiary follicles. (4) secondary oocytes. 161. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
urinary system in the human male is;
153. Which of the following part of sperms is filled with (1) urethra. (2) ureter.
enzymes that help fertilisation of the ovum? (3) vas deferens. (4) vasa efferentia.
(1) Tail (2) Nucleus
162. The female external genitalia include;
(3) Head (4) Acrosome
(i) ovary
(ii) mammary gland (iii) mons pubis
154. How many numbers of secondary spermatocytes are
(iv) clitoris (v) labia majora
required for the formation of 400 spermatozoa? (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(1) 800 (2) 400 (3) (iii), (iv) and (v) only (4) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
(3) 200 (4) 100
[13]
163. Identify 𝐀 and 𝐁 and choose the correct option. (1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false.
(2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true.
(3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct
explanation of 𝐀.
(4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is not the correct
explanation of A.

169. Read the following statements and choose the correct

option.
A. No more oogonia are formed and added after
birth.
B. Nucleus is situated at, the anterior portion of
sperm which is covered by a cap-like structure.
(1) A - Bulbourethral gland C. In human females, menstruation is repeated at an
B - Ejaculatory duct average interval of about 28/29 days.
(2) A-Ejaculatory duct D. Sperm is a microscopic structure.
B - Prostate gland E. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
(3) A - Ejaculatory duct 15-20 mammary lobes.
B-Seminal vesicle (1) A and B only (2) B, D and E only
(4) A - Ejaculatory duct (3) B and C only (4) A, B, C, D and E
B - Bulbourethral gland
170. Choose the incorrect statement.
164. The functional unit of human testis is; (1) The cavity of the cervix is called vagina.
(1) uriniferous tubules. (2) The female reproductive system consists of a
(2) malpighian tubules. pair of ovaries.
(3) seminiferous tubules. (3) Transfer of sperm into vagina is called as
(4) neuron. insemination.
(4)Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of
165. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as granulosa cells and is called the primary follicle.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Clitoris is a tiny finger like structure. 171. How many primary follicles are present in each
Reason (R): It lies at the upper junction of the two ovary at puberty?
labia minora above the urethral opening. (1) 50,000 to 55,000 (2) 60,000 to 80,000
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) 40,000 to 60,000 (4) 10,000 to 20,000
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) 𝐀 is true but 𝐑 is false. 172. Given below are two statements.
(2) 𝐀 is false but 𝐑 is true. Statement I: A primary spermatocyte undergo first
(3) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is the correct meiotic division leading to formation of secondary
explanation of 𝐀. spermatocytes.
Statement II: The secondary spermatocytes
(4) Both 𝐀 and 𝐑 are true and 𝐑 is not the correct
undergo the second meiotic division to produce four
explanation of A.
unequal, haploid spermatids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
166. Which of the following day ovulation takes place if
appropriate answer from the options given below.
duration of menstrual cycle is of 28 days?
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(1) 15th day (2) 5th day
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) 14th day (4) 24th day (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
167. Which of the following gland's secretion is
responsible for lubrication of penis? 173. The mammary glands are paired structure that
(1) Prostate gland (2) Seminal vesicle contain the glandular tissue and variable amount of
(3) Bulbourethral gland (4) None of these fat. The correct sequence of tissues involved in
synthesis and flow of milk are;
168. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as (1) mammary lobes → mammary alveoli → mammary
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). ampulla → mammary duct → lactiferous duct
Assertion (A): Spermatogenesis starts at the age of
(2) mammary lobes → mammary alveoli → mammary
puberty.
duct → mammary ampulla → lactiferous duct
Reason (R): It is due to significant increase in the
(3) mammary lobes → mammary alveoli → lactiferous
secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone.
duct → mammary ampulla → mammary duct
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) mammary alveoli → mammary lobes →
correct answer from the options given below: lactiferous duct → mammary duct

[14]
174. Which of the following statements (a-e) are correct (1) I and III only (2) I, II and IV only
w.r.t. oogenesis and folliculogenesis? (3) I and II only (4) III and IV only
(a) New oogonia are not added after birth in a female.
(b) At birth the female ovaries have primary oocytes 178. Read the following statements and choose the option
arrested at metaphase-II with incorrect only.
(c) Primary oocytes grow in size and complete I. Bartholin's glands are situated on the either outer
meiotic division within the primary follicle side of the labia minora.
(d) Tertiary follicles have well developed, fluid filled II. Cervix is also included in the birth canal along
antrum with vagina.
(e) One primary oocyte is capable of forming only III. Mammary glands are modified sudoriferous or
one ovum sweat glands.
(1) a, b, e (2) b, c, e IV. Presence of hymen is the only reliable indicator
(3) a, d, e (4) c, d, e of virginity.
(1) I, II and IV (2) II and III only
175. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t. (3) I and IV only (4) I, III and IV
structure/cell, the hormone secreted and its function?
I. Graafian Estrogen Essential for the 179. Read the following statements and find out the
follicle maintenance of incorrect statements.
endometrium (a) Each testicular lobule contains one to three
II. Leydig Testosterone Essential for the highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
cells growth of external sperm are produced.
genitalia, i.e, penis & (b) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by
of testis in scrotum two types of cells called Leydig cells and sertoli
III. Sertoli Inhibin Suppresses release cells.
cells of FSH from (c) The region outside the seminiferous tubules
pituitary called interstitial space, contains small blood
IV. Relaxin Corpus Relaxes pubic vessels and male germ cells (spermatogonia)
luteum symphysis during which lead to the sperm formation.
pregnancy (d) In testis immunologically competent cells are
(1) I (2) II also present.
(3) III (4) IV (e) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
the rete testis through vasa efferentia.
176. Choose the statements which correctly indicate (1) (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
functioning of gonads. (3) (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c) and (e)
I. Androgens stimulate growth of facial hairs and
axillary hairs, muscular growth, low pitch of 180. Match each function below with the associated part
voice etc in males. or parts of the human male reproductive system
II. Ovary produces two ovum during each menstrual shown in the figure.
cycle and produces three groups of steroid hormones (i) Produces sperm
called androgens, oestrogen and progesterone. (ii) Conducts the sperm through the penis to the
III. Androgens influence female sex behaviour only. outside of the body
IV. Androgens produce anabolic (synthetic) effects (iii) Produces seminal fluid
on carbohydrate and protein metabolism. (iv) Connects the epididymis with the urethra
(1) Only I (2) II and III
(3) Only III (4) I and IV

177. Read the following statements (I-IV).

I. The inner cell mass contains stem cells capable
of differentiating into all tissues and organs.
II. Cleavage begins in the zygote as it travels
through the isthmus of the oviduct, dividing into
2, 4, 8 and 16 blastomeres.
III. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged
into two layers, i.e, trophoblast and endometrium. (1) (i)-G,(ii)-E,(iii)-A,C,D,(iv)-B
IV. Cleavage divisions result in a solid ball of cells (2) (i)-A,B;(ii)-E,(iii)-C,D,(iv)-G
called morula. (3) (i)-G;(ii)-F;(iii)-A,B,C;(iv)-E
Which of the following above statements are correct? (4) (i)-F;(ii)-E;(iii)-A,B,D;(iv)-C

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