Ref.

Reference on
Title A B C D Answer
Number Manuals

1 The Maximum Engine Start EGT limit for B737 NG is 725C 925C 950C 975C A

The water pressure for the lavatories is normally provided by the

2 pneumatic system hydraulic system electrical system A
________________________.

3 The Maximum Contiuous EGT limit for B737 NG is 725C 925C 950C 975C B

4 The fuel for APU is normally supplied by the ______________. left tank center tank right tank A

The cargo compartment doors are plug type, hinged at the _______ and
5 top ; inward bottom ; inward top ; outward side ; inward A
open _______.
6 APU fuel consumption is about 30KG/H 50KG/H 100KG/H 300KG/H C
The maximum nose wheel steering angle is _____________ when
7 78 degrees 70 degrees 45 degrees 72 degrees A
controlled by the tiller.

With an inoperative engine driven generator, the aircraft can dispatch with
8 True False A
the APU as the second source of electrical power.

If PM is the Captain sitting on the left and PF is first officer sitting on the
9 Captain First officer PF PM A
right, who makes the GO/NO GO decision during takeoff?

Rudder pedal steering provides a maximum steering angle of

10 7 degrees 10 degrees 5 degrees 12 degrees A
_______________.
The Flight Spoilers augment the Aileron operation when the control wheel
11 ten fifteen five eight A
is rotated more than ________ degrees.

The aircraft is equipped with an Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU)
12 and is therefore limited to operate from __ degrees North Latitude to __ 82 ; 82 82 ; 70 70 ; 70 80 ; 80 A
degrees South Latitude.

On the ground, the packs can receive compressed air from

13 all of these a ground source the APU the engines A
_______________________.

The PANEL knob on the F/O s panel can adjust the integral lights in the
14 False True A
First Officer s instruments and the AFDS mode control panel edge lighting.

A flight deck switch and a switch on the _______ Attendant station control
15 aft forward A
the Emergency Light system.

PM is the Captain sitting on the left and PF is first officer sitting on the
16 right. If a rejected takeoff before V1 is necessary, who makes the decision Captain First officer PF PM A
and takes actions?

17 The Map lights are adjusted by the knob on the ________________. sidewall panels overhead panel pedestal A

18 The fully charged batteries should last for about ______ minutes. 20 30 45 B

With Switch in AUTO position,the taxi light will automatically turn off when
19 False True B
the geasr are retracted for safety purposes.

IF BAT SWITCH is in OFF and STANDBY POWER SWITCH is in BAT, is

20 Yes No A
battery bus powered?

When the FASTEN SEAT BELTS switch is selected to AUTO, the FASTEN
21 SEAT BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate with gear extension gear or flap extension flap extension B
______________________.

What is approximately the wingspan of a Boeing 737-800 (without

22 28,9 m. 34,4 m. 36,2 m. 29,8 m. B
winglets)?

Only when the landing When the landing gear Only when the flaps Both the landing gear
With the FASTEN BELT switch in AUTO, when will the FASTEN BELT
23 gear lever is in the is DOWN or TE are not in the UP and the flaps must be B
signs illuminate?
DOWN position. FLAPS are NOT UP. position. extended.

The retractable When looking over

reference marker (as glare shield a small Your eyes must be The underside of the
located in the cockpit amount of airplane aligned with the eye glare shield must be
24 What determines the correct eye reference position? ceiling) must point nose structure must be reference marker- aligned with the B
 between your visible and view of sticker between topside of the Display
eyebrows when it is A/P-A/T-FMC lights windows 2 and 3. Select Panel.
deployed. and EHSI (ND/PFD)
must be unobstructed.

P6 is located behind
P6 is located behind P6 and P18 are Both circuit breaker
the Capt s seat and
25 Which statement concerning circuit breaker panels P6 and P18 is true? the F/O s seat and P18 located on the aft panels are not located B
P18 behind the F/O s
behind the Capt s seat. overhead panel. in the cockpit.
seat.

Both a and c are

26 A fire axe is located in: The forward galley. The flight deck. The aft galley. B
correct.
What is approximately the minimum pavement width for a 180 turn for
27 20 m. 24 m. 30 m. 33 m. B
B737-800?

In the wing tips, just

On the top of each In the inner flap In the outer flap track
28 What is the location of the logo lights? in front of the strobe B
horizontal stabilizer. track fairings. fairings.
lights.

It is recommended not
to use the light for It consists of two lights,
The light extinguishes takeoff and landing The light shines both mounted on the
29 Select the correct statement regarding the taxi light. automatically when the because for some forward in a fixed nose wheel strut. Both B
gear retracts aircraft it does not position. controlled by one
extinguish switch.
automatically.

1 water tank in front of

the forward cargo
Two water tanks compartment for
One main water tank A single water tank
located either side of forward galley and
30 The aircraft water system is supplied by: with separate tanks for located behind the aft B
the aft cargo toilet, 1 water tank
the toilets. cargo compartment.
compartment. behind aft cargo
compartment for aft
galley and toilets.

Each passenger oxygen generator when activated, will produce oxygen for
31 7 minutes. 12 minutes. 17 minutes. 20 minutes. B
approximately:

32 The system pressure of the flight crew oxygen system may be as high as: 1500 P.S.I. 1850 P.S.I. 2000 P.S.I. 2250 P.S.I. B

4, two in the cockpit 6, two in the cockpit 8, two in the cockpit

33 With how many escape straps/ropes is the Boeing 737- 800 equipped? 2, only in the cockpit. B
and two in the cabin. and four in the cabin. and six in the cabin.

34 What is the maximum flight altitude? 35.000 ft. 41.000 ft. 37.000 ft. 44.000 ft. B

35 What is the speed limit to extend the retractable landing lights? 280 kt/M.70 No limitations. 270 kt/M.70 320 kt/M.82 B

In the wing-root, In the wing tips, just

In the lower airplane
36 What is the location of the runway turnoff lights? adjacent to the fixed in front of the strobe On the nose gear. B
fuselage
landing lights. lights.

When 3 of the 4
Entry/Service doors
The airplane
are locked.The
air/ground logic
airplane air/ground When three of the
Either engine is indicates that the
37 When do the emergency overwing exits lock? logic indicates that four Entry/Service B
running airplane is in the air or
airplane is in air or doors are locked.
both thrust levers are
both thrust levers are
advanced.
advanced with either
engine running

The passenger oxygen system is activated automatically when the cabin

38 10,000 Feet. 14,000 Feet. 12,000 Feet. 9,500 Feet. B
reaches an altitude of:

Two Autopilots are installed. Except for_________, only one A/P can be a coupled Dual
39 an approach A
engaged at a time. Channel Approach
 Illuminated MCP switch lights do not indicate the operating mode, you
40 FMA displays AFDS panel A
must view the mode status on the__________.

During takeoff, failures of ______________ will cause the A/T to valid N1 limit signals the crew to advance
41 A
disengage. from the FMC the throttles

The A/P can also control the horizontal stabilizer trim - but has no control
42 the rudder system the elevator system A
over__________.

The command bars are enabled when the respective FD switch is turned
43 on, however the pitch command bar will come into view only if a ______is pitch command mode AP A
engaged.

If a ___is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will advance
44 power to the N1 limit, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the higher altitude lower altitude A
selected IAS/MACH value.

During Autopilot operations, the operating FCC sends control commands

separate hydraulic a single hydraulic
45 to the respective pitch and roll hydraulic servos, which operate the flight A
systems system
controls through ______.

The Speed Selector is used to adjust the selected speed for the MCP SPD and LVL
46 VNAV and LNAV A
__________ modes. CHG

47 LVL CHG cannot engage after_________. glideslope capture APP is armed A

Each rotational click of a Course Selector knob - will change the respective
course deviation
48 Course readout by 1 degree, and will move the _________ on the heading pointer A
pointer
respective ND by one degree.

When Autopilot A is engaged - FCC A controls the autopilot through

49 the A system aileron and elevator servos - utilizing the ____hydraulic A B A
system actuators.

In VNAV speed descent, the A/T_________, and the AFDS holds the FMC
50 retards thrust to idle goes to throttle hold A
target speed using pitch.

When VNAV is engaged, the aircraft will automatically level off at the
the MCP Altitude
51 altitude displayed in _______ or the FMC altitude - whichever is reached the Radio Altitude A
Display
first.

When the localizer is captured, the AFDS will command up to ____

52 30 15 A
degrees of bank regardless of the MCP bank angle selector.

The AFDS captures the glideslope at ____dot, then commands a descent

53 2/5 1/5 A
rate to track the glideslope signal.
 The selected speed appears in the IAS/MACH display when __________
54 MCP SPD VNAV A
is engaged.

The N1 mode sets power to the N1 limit that is calculated by the______.

55 The available limits are Reduced Takeoff, Takeoff, Go Around, Reduced FMC IRS A
Climb, Climb, Cruise, and Continuous.

A Bank Angle Selector is used to limit the roll guidance for the Heading
56 VOR LNAV A
Select mode and the ____mode.

LNAV will automatically disconnect upon reaching the end of the ______or
57 active route top of descent A
entering into a route discontinuity.

Autothrottle operation is available with Flight Directors _____or with the

58 ON or OFF ON only A
Autopilot engaged or not engaged.

FCC is the current

59 An illuminated Master (MA) light indicates which _______________. FD is on B
master computer

If a _____is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will set idle
60 thrust, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected higher altitude lower altitude B
IAS/MACH value.

With VOR/LOC armed, the AFDS will intercept the selected radial or
61 localizer course from the Heading Select mode or from the A/P CMD Roll A/P CWS Roll B
_________mode.

If no active speed mode is displayed when LVL CHG is engaged, the

62 _______appears, and the display and airspeed cursors synchronize to FMC speed present speed B
allow current speed to be target LVL CHG speed.

63 The Autothrottle system is normally engaged _______takeoff. after before B

aircraft descends to 500 aircraft descends to 900 aircraft descends to 0.5 aircraft descends to 0.25
64 When will Descent mode begin in the pressurization system? ft below selected flight ft below selected flight PSI below selected flight PSI below selected flight D
level level level level

Statements: 1) Full automatic flare and touchdown capability is not Only statement 2 is Only statement 1 is Both statements are No statement is
available in single A/P operation 2) During all phases of flight; both A/P s correct. correct. correct. correct.
can be engaged.

65 B

To make a dual A/P approach the second VHF NAV receiver must be 1000 feet RA 800 feet RA 1200 feet RA 1500 feet RA
tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD
66 B
prior to:

VNAV is terminated by... Selecting a holding G/S capture Extending flaps All of the above.
67 beyond 30 with APP B
mode engaged
 In LNAV the AFDS will intercept and track the active FMC route when... On any heading and The aircraft is on an The speed is so that All of the above are
within 5 NM of the intercept course of 90 the airplane is able to correct.
active route segment. degrees or less to turn and make the
intercept the route interception without
segment before the overshoot .
active waypoint,or
aircraft is within 3 NM
68 of the active route B
segment.

With CWS engaged, if aileron pressure is released with ~ or less bank, the 4 degrees 6 degees 10 degrees 12 degrees
69 A/P will roll wings level and hold existing heading. B

What will happen if LVL CHG is engaged but there is no active speed Airplane will maintain The existing speed In this case it is not None of the above
mode? an airspeed of 250 kts. will become target possible to engage
70 speed. LVL CHG. B

On the MCP, when a 8 character is flashing in the IAS/MACH display it That electrical power Commanded speed Autothrottle has Commanded speed
means: has just been applied. cannot be reached due disengaged. cannot be reached due
to overspeed. to underspeed.
71 B

What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first VNAV MCP SPD ViS CWS P
engaged in CMD?
72 B

If an engine failure occurs during take-off, the pitch command target speed Existing speed, if the V2 + 15 kts, if the V2 + 20 kts, if the V2, if the airspeed is
is NOT: airspeed is V2 and V2 airspeed is above V2 + airspeed is above V2 + below V2.
73 + 20 kts. 20 kts. 20 kts. B

During a dual A/P approach if the second A/P is armed it will engage LOC and G/S LOC and G/S LOC and G/S LOC and G/S
automatically after: capture and when capture and when capture and when capture and when
74 descent below 1000 descent below 1500 descent below 1200 descent below 800 feet B
feet occurs. feet occurs. feet occurs. occurs.

75 The pressurization system has two controllers.One is the Primary, the Yes No
other is Alternate. For next flight, two controllers will switch over.

76 The cabin altitude can be maintained within: 7000 feet 7500 feet 8000 feet 8500 feet
C

77 What is the maximum pressure differential for the relief valves in the 8.6PSI 8.65PSI 9.1PSI 9.15PSI
C
pressurization system?
78 The APU can operate the electrical system and one pack at altitudes up to 10,000 feet 20,000 feet 12,000 feet 8,000 feet
___________.

For normal operations when the Recirculation Fan is on and cabin

overboard exhaust
79 differential pressure is high, the ____________________ is closed and main outflow valve relief valve pressure valve A
valve
exhaust from these cooling fans is routed to the air mix manifold.

With no electrical load, the APU can operate one pack up to

80 17,000 feet 20,000 feet 10,000 feet 8,000 feet A
_____________.

On the -800/900, which fan discharges the air into the air conditioning mix
81 right fan left fan both fans neither fan C
manifold?

Warm air from the cabin circulates between the aircraft skin and the aft overboard exhaust
82 outflow valve discharges pressure valve A
cargo compartment walls and then exits through the _______________. valve

83 Which pack provides conditioned air to the flight deck? left right center both A

The deflector doors extend when on the ground and in-flight in icing
84 False True A
condtions to provide slush and debris protection to the Ram Air system.

The __________________ provides control for the FWD CABIN and for
85 right controller left controller A
the flight deck.
 Normally, both packs are operated. However, the cabin can be
86 maintained at _________ feet when the airplane is at maximum certified 8,000 10,000 6,000 7,000 A
ceiling with only one pack operating.

overboard exhaust
87 Normally, air exhausts through the ________________. main outflow valve both neither A
valve

88 How many equipment cooling fans are installed? four two six three A

89 What sources of air may be used to supply the pack? All of these engine APU ground air source A

90 Which pack normally delivers conditioned air to the cabin? right left neither both A

91 If all temperature selectors are in OFF, the output temperature of L and R both 24C both 18C 18C for L, 24C for R 24C for L and 18C for
packs will be: R

AUTO provides ____________ if either pack is shut off in flight with the
92 high flow low flow A
flaps retracted.

93 Before takeoff, the CDU page of PM is placed on Takeoff Reference Legs Progress page 1 Climb B

94 The inlet door for the Pack Ram Air only opens fully when on the ground False True A

On the -700, the left DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on if the temperature
95 of the conditioned air delivered from the _______________ to the cockpit right pack left pack standby pack center pack B
is too hot.

On the -800, with the PACK switches in AUTO on the ground, placing both
96 right left center neither B
pack switches to HIGH shuts down the ________ recirculation fan.

Warm air exhaust from the electronic equipment cooling is dumped

overboard exhaust
97 overboard through the ___________________ when the aircraft is on the main outflow valve pressure valve relief valve B
valve
ground

98 Before takeoff, the CDU page of PF is placed on Takeoff Reference Legs Progress page 1 Climb
A

Which side of of the isolation valve does the ground pneumatic air enter
99 left right neither B
the manifold, the right or left side ?

Single engine performance is calculated to be dangerous with a pack in

100 True False B
HIGH.
 retractable landing both fixed and
101 Which lights are used for each flight? fixed landing lights logo lights B
lights retractable lights

102 What is the maximum time limit for takeoff thrust setting? 1 min 2 min 5 min 10 min C

On the -700, most of the air from the ___________ goes to the mix
103 right pack left pack standby pack B
manifold and on to the passenger cabin.

When the ram air doors are in the FULL CLOSED position, there is still
104 False True B
room for some ram air to enter.

105 Maximum N1 limit for B737 NG is 99% 100% 104% 105% C

AUTO provides ____________ if both packs are operating on the ground

106 high flow low flow B
or inflight.

The 3 cabin zones that receive conditioned air are designated as Cockpit,
107 True False B
Front Cabin, and Aft Cabin.

With AUTO selected on the pack switch and the aircraft inflight with flaps
108 retracted, the pack flow rate automatically shifts to HIGH if the opposite OFF LOW HIGH AUTO C
pack switch is in OFF.

The cabin will be pressurized to approximately 0.1 psi on the ground All doors are closed. The FLT/GRD switch Engine thrust is The engine bleed
automatically when: is placed to the FLT increased for takeoff. switches are selected
position. ON.
109 C

AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when: The aircraft is The rate of cabin The pressurization The cabin attitude
descending before the pressure change mode selector is exceeds 15.800 ft.
selected altitude was exceeds 1000 sea moved to ALTN.
110 reached. level ff./min. D

Condition: Right pack operating only. From which source does the cockpit Directly from the It does not receive From the The right air
receive conditioned air? right airconditioning conditioned air. recirculation fan only. conditioning pack via
pack. the mix manifold.
111 D

Condition: In Flight and Left Recirculation fan switch in AUTO, When is the When both packs are With one pack When both packs are When both packs are
left fan not operating? operating with either operating and the operating with either operating with either
pack switch in HIGH associated pack switch pack switch in HIGH. pack switch in HIGH
and flaps are not in HIGH. and the gear is not
112 C
extended. extended.

Which part of the system is overheated when the right ZONE TEMP light is The FWD CAB duct. The CONT CAB The AFT CAB duct. The AFT CAB duct
illuminated? duct. and/or cargo
compartment.
113 C

Under which condition(s) in flight is the Overboard Exhaust Valve driven In flight with flaps up. If either PACK switch When cabin If either PACK switch
open? is in high, and the left differential pressure is in high, and the right
recirculation fan is off. exceeds a certain recirculation fan is off.
114 preset value. D

When both the AUTO FAIL light and ALTN light illuminate: Pressurization Pressurization Pressurization Pressurization
control has control has control has control was not able to
automatically automatically automatically transfer to an alternate
transferred to the other transferred to the transferred to the mode.
115 automatic controller. standby mode. manual mode. A

Which statement about the forward cargo compartments is true? The forward cargo The forward cargo The forward cargo The forward cargo
 compartment is compartment is not compartment is compartment is
pressurized but does pressurized. pressurized and has pressurized and an
not have fresh air fresh air circulation. independent
116 circulation. temperature control A
zone.

With the pressurization mode selector in the MAN position... The outflow valve is The outflow valve is The outflow valve is The outflow valve is
controlled by a controlled by a controlled by a controlled by a
separate DC motor, separate DC motor separate AC motor separate AC motor,
slower than in with the same speed with the same speed slower than in
117 automatic mode. as in automatic mode. as in automatic mode. automatic mode A

118 Maximum N2 limit for B737 NG is 99% 100% 104% 105% D

Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the right pack To the passenger Directly to the Directly to the To the cockpit via
flows,.. cabin via the mix passenger cabin. cockpit. the mix manifold.
119 manifold. A

What fault condition(s) cannot be reset with the trip reset switch? Wing body overheat. Bleed trip off. Packtrip off. Both b and c.

120 A

Where is the recirculation fan air ducted to? The mix manifold. The area around the The galley areas. The airconditioning
aft cargo compartment. packs.
121 A

The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights: Indicate that the ram Are illuminated dim Will only illuminate in Will only illuminate
doors are full open when the ram doors flight with the ram when the aircraft is on
during flight or on the are in transit. doors full open. ground. During flight
ground. indication is inhibited.
122 A

Condition: Both packs operating. Conditioned air from the left pack flows,,, Directly to the To the cockpit via the Directly to the cabin Via the mix manifold
cockpit and mix mix manifold. and mix manifold. to the cockpit and
manifold. passenger cabin.
123 A

What is the purpose of the recirculation fans? They reduce the air They reduce the They assist in fine- They assist in
conditioning pack load temperature of the tuning the pressurizing the
and the engine bleed passenger cabin air. temperature control of aircraft.
124 air demand. cockpit and cabin. A

Which APU lights are inhibited when the APU control switch is in the OFF LOW OIL
125 OVERSPEED All of these. FAULT B
position? PRESSURE.

Moving the APU Moving the APU

generator switches to generator switches to
OFF and applying OFF - or applying Disconnect that APU Hit the APU repeatedly
126 How is APU generator power removed from a system? B
another power source another power source jumper cable. with a large hammer.
to the electrical to the electrical
system. system.

The compressor and to

The oxygen The pneumatic
126 Air that enters through the Inlet door flows to: cooling airflow for The engine cooler. B
generators. system.
accessories.

128 What is the maximum altitude for use of APU bleed air (in feet)? 18,000.00 17,000.00 B

How many packs can be powered by the APU during takeoff and up to
129 Two. One. B
10,000 feet?

After the APU control switch is moved to START, approximately how long
130 30 20 B
(in seconds) does it take for the Inlet Door to open?
131 What is the maximum operating FL altitude of the APU? FL350 FL410 FL250 FL100 B

132 Minimum oil pressure for B737NG is PSI 4 10 13 19 C

Does moving the APU control switch to OFF cause an immediate

133 Yes. No. B
shutdown?

How long after APU shutdown should the Battery Switch remain ON to
134 15 seconds 20 seconds B
allow time for the INLET door to close?

One - either one

One electrical system Two - any combination
How many electrical systems and packs can be powered by the APU Both electrical systems electrical system or
135 and one pack (at a of electrical systems C
between 10,000 and 17,000 feet? and both packs. one pack - but not
time). and packs.
both.

Can fuel be delivered to the APU from Tank 2 or from the right pump in the Yes - if the Fuel
136 No. B
Center tank? Crossfeed is open.

When the APU is

When the APU is When the APU is
running and the
When the APU is not running and the running and it s
137 The APU GENERATOR OFF BUS light illuminates ____________. generator is C
running. generator is not in generator is not
overloaded and must
sync with main power. powering any busses.
be shut off.

No, fuel pumps are Yes - it will suction

138 Will the APU start if there are no operating fuel boost pumps? B
mandatory. from tank 1.

If the Battery Switch is turned OFF on the ground, the APU will
139 Continue to operate. Shutdown. B
____________.

140 What light comes on if the APU start is interrupted? OIL TEMP HIGH. OVERSPEED. APU FIRE. OIL PRESS LOW. B

141 How many packs can be powered by the APU on the ground? One. Two. B

APU Bleed air should not be turned on until ____ minute(s) after APU
142 Three. One. B
start.

The APU Bleed Air Valve also functions as a _____________ to give Emergency release
143 Load Control Valve. Pneumatic switch. Exhaust. B
priority to the delivery of electrical power. valve.

A fault has been

Indicates that the An overspeed
detected that will The APU has not really
144 What is indicated if the OVERSPEED light is on after APU shutdown? overspeed circuit condition existed prior B
cause an overspeed shutdown.
detection is faulty. to shutdown.
condition on restart.

145 If the Battery Switch is turned OFF inflight, the APU will ____________. Continue to operate. Shutdown. B

Does the Battery Charger continue to charge the aircraft battery during
146 No. Yes. A
APU start?

147 The APU start cycle can take up to ____ seconds. 120 130 A
148 In order for the APU to power the aircraft on the ground, is it necessary for No. Yes. A
the pilot to place both APU Generator switches to ON ?

149 Successful APU starts are not assured above FL____________. 250 280 A

For extended operations, APU fuel may be provided by the ________

150 Left. Right. A
pump in the Center tank.

Which electrical systems can be powered by the APU when the aircraft is Either left and right -
151 Both left and right. Left only. Right only. A
on the ground? but not both.

152 Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from _________. Tank 1. Tank 2. A

It will provide no power

Inflight - with the Battery Switch OFF - the APU will continue to run, but There will be no fire The battery will not No emergency power
153 to the electrical A
________________. detection. recharge. will be available.
system.

154 What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start? 23 25 A

155 APU Bleed air should be turned off ____ minute(s) before APU shutdown. One. Five. A

The APU can supply both transfer buses: On the ground or in On the ground only. In flight only. Only on ground or in
flight. flight below 17.000
156 feet. A

The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source 10 000 feet 17 000 feet 25 000 feet
157 A
simultaneously up to:
The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate... When the APU is at Whenever the APU Whenever the APU Whenever the APU is
operational speed and is supplying power to is supplying power to supplying power to a
is not supplying an AC generator bus No.1 generator bus No.2 Main bus but not the
Transfer bus associated Transfer
158 bus. A

What is the electrical power source for the APU starter motor? The battery or AC Always the battery. Always AC power. None of the above.
power from transfer
159 bus 1. A

APU is running. When FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or 5 minutes after the When the APU When the air inlet Immediately after the
OVERSPEED light illuminates, APU will automatically shutdown. The APU switch has been switch is positioned to door has closed automatic shutdown.
FAULT light, LOW OIL PRESSURE light or OVERSPEED light will positioned to OFF. OFF. completely
extinguish:

160 A

When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is
supplying bleed air, the APU will shutdown after:

161 60 seconds. 30 seconds. 90 seconds. 120 seconds. A

The APU start cycle may take up to... 120 seconds 60 seconds 135 seconds 3 minutes
162 A

Up to which altitude may the APU be operated? 41.000 ft. 17.000 ft 37.000 ft. 10.000 ft.
163 A

The APU will shutdown on the ground if... An APU fire is An APU fire is The battery switch is
detected or the battery detected. placed to OFF.
switch is placed to
164 OFF. A

Powered from the AC

165 How is the DC system powered? IDGs system through APU External Power B
transformer rectifiers.
 The normally closed Cross Bus Tie relay opens when the autoflight
localizer and
166 Approach mode captures the __________ with the Flight Director or localizer glideslope B
glideslope
Autopilot in use.

DC power is normally provided by onboard _______ DC Transformer

167 14 volt 28 volt B
Rectifiers that convert AC power to DC power.

With the Battery switch OFF - the Standby Power switch must be placed to
168 AUTO BATT MAN B
________ to power the Standby system from the Battery.

169 The aircraft is equipped with ________ -90KVA generators. four three two five B

When an engine is started, its IDG automatically comes on line and

170 True False B
powers the respective side of the electrical system.

If an overload exists after shedding of galley power, Main Bus 1 and Main
171 Main Bus 1 Main Bus 1 and 2 Main Bus 2 B
Bus 2 are shed.

The BAT switch OFF position removes power from the Battery Bus and
Switched Hot Battery
172 __________________ when operating with normal power available and DC Standby Bus AC Standby Bus B
Bus
the Standby Power switch in AUTO.

The OFF position of the Bus Transfer Switch opens the

173 Bus Tie Breaker DC Crosstie Relay B
___________________.

174 The aircraft battery can not provide power to AC components. True False B

With the Bus Transfer switch in _______, the Bus Tie Breakers (BTB) can
175 automatically power the entire electrical system from a single AC power ON AUTO TRANSFER B
source.

A disconnected IDG can only be reconnected on the ground, by

176 False True B
maintenance.

There is never a time that two generators are allowed to power the same
177 False True B
Transfer Bus.

178 Each IDG is driven by the _____ accessory drive of the engine. N1 N2 B
 In case of an overload condition, the galley power on ______________ is
179 Transfer Bus 1 Transfer Bus 2 B
shed first.

180 The Battery Bus is normally powered from _______. TR 1 TR 3 TR 2 All TR s B

When the APU is started, it will automatically come on-line and replace the
181 True False B
previous power source.

Inflight or on the Ground with normal conditions, the Standby Power switch
Both Transfer Bus 1
182 in the AUTO position allows the AC Standby Bus to be normally powered Transfer Bus 2 Transfer Bus 1 B
and 2
by _________________.

Illumination of the SOURCE OFF light indicates: The source manually The source manually The associated The associated
selected to power selected to power transfer bus is no generator bus is no
Generator Bus has Transfer Bus has longer powered. longer powered.
failed, and automatic failed, and automatic
bus transfer function bus transfer function
has closed BTB s to has closed the BTB s
power the Generator to power the Transfer
Bus from another Bus from another
183 source. source. B

When during cruise, one engine driven generator fails: Only the associated Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light, Due to redundancy,
GEN OFF BUS light, GEN OFF BUS light SOURCE OFF light, there will be no lights
SOURCE OFF light and SOURCE OFF and TRANSFER BUS illuminating unless an
and TRANSFER BUS light illuminate. OFF light illuminate. annunciator panel is
OFF light illuminate. Also various other pushed (recall).
lights associated with
systems, which were
184 powered by the B
transfer bus illuminate.

The TR UNIT light will illuminate in flight: When TR-3 has When TR-2 has When TR-1 has When any TR has
failed failed. failed. failed.
185 C

The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to... Ensure that the Provide more power Prevent a single bus Make sure that the
STANDBY DC is to the AC STANDBY failure from affecting captain s side
powered. Bus both navigation navigation receiver
receivers and Flight and FCC is the only
Control Computers one connected to the
(FCCs) battery. This to ensure
guidance in case of a
186 C
total generator failure.

Which statement about illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light Ground Power has Ground Power has Ground Power has None of the above.
is correct? been plugged in, been plugged in and been plugged in and
however airplane automatically powers meets airplane power
power quality is not both ground services quality standards.
187 measured. busses. C

After the loss of all generators the fully charged main battery and auxiliary 90 minutes. 30 minutes. 60 minutes. 120 minutes.
battery provide standby power for a minimum of:

188 C

Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates: The battery bus is The battery charger Excessive battery For maintenance
 not powered. is inoperative. discharge is detected purposes only, to test
with the battery switch the capacity of the
189 in the ON position. battery. C

One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is... There is no All generator bus There is no An AC power source
paralleling of any sources can be paralleling of the AC may be used in parallel
power source automatically power sources with a DC power
connected by the source.
190 Standby Power C
System

With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, the loss of all engine or APU On the ground only. In flight only. Both in flight and on On the ground only
electrical power results in automatic switching from the normal power the ground. when the APU is
source to the alternate power source for standby power: running, in flight
always.

191 C

When the IDG experiences a high oil temperature: The IDG will keep The IDG The IDG The IDG HIGH OIL
working, unless it is automatically automatically TEMPERATURE light
disconnected disconnects and its disconnects and the illuminates. The IDG
automatically due to DRIVE light associated DRIVE has to be disconnected
Iow oil pressure. illuminates. light, SOURCE OFF manually via
light and GEN OFF Generator Drive
192 BUS light illuminate. Disconnect Switch. C

Which statement about the ELEC light is correct? The ELEC light can Illumination of the The ELEC light can The ELEC light can
illuminate both in flight ELEC light indicates a illuminate on the illuminate in flight only.
and on the ground. fault exists in the AC ground only.
193 power system. C

Due to an electrical failure transfer bus 2 becomes unpowered. Which of DC bus 2 will loose Only TR3 will loose Only TR2 looses TR2 and TR3 will
the following statements is correct? power. The other power. The battery bus power. TR3 will loose power. The
busses are now will now be powered automatically switch battery bus will now be
powered by TR1 and by TR2. over to transfer bus 1. powered by a battery
TR3. TR1 and TR3 will now charger.
supply the total
194 connected load. C

Illumination of the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates: The battery bus is The DC standby bus The AC or DC The AC standby bus
unpowered. is unpowered. standby bus is is unpowered.
unpowered or the
battery bus is
195 C
unpowered.

DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators Battery bus, DC DC standby Bus, Hot Battery bus, DC Battery bus, DC
are: Standby bus, Hot Battery Bus & Standby bus, Hot Standby bus, Hot
battery bus & Switched Switched hot battery battery bus & Switched battery bus
hot battery bus (even bus hot battery bus.
when the battery
196 C
switch is OFF)

DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter

for the battery and each of the 3 TR s, The Standby power and Battery bus
displays only DC voltage. Normal indication is: __ Volta

197 24+/-2V 26+/-6V 26+/-4V 24+/-4V C

198 The Fire Detection system is powered by the___________. Battery Bus Hot Battery Bus A

The overheat and fire detector loops test - with A.C. power on the aircraft -
199 will activate ___ red & amber lights and the fire alarm bell. The FAULT 11 12 A
light should not illuminate during this test.
200 APU Fire Detection is powered by the__________. Battery Bus Hot Battery Bus A

The engine Fire Warning Switches are automatically unlocked either an overheat or a
201 only a fire condition A
for______________. fire condition

There is no fire extinguisher for the wheel well area. The procedure tells
202 the pilot to extend the landing gear to allow the relative wind to blow out True False A
the fire.

The APU detector system monitors fire conditions and fault conditions - but
203 True False A
does not monitor or shutdown for overheat conditions.

204 Engine Fire Protection is provided by two Freon bottles. True. False. A

There is ____ alert to the flight crew when an engine fire detection loop
205 No An A
has failed.

If the Engine Fire Detection Loop Selector is in the Normal position and a
206 single loop fault is detected, the FAULT light will not come on. Single loop True False A
mode is automatically selected.

207 There are no _____lights associated with the system fault/inop test. Red Amber A

In the wheel well, APU fire red light will flash and the horn _____ sound,
208 Will Will not A
when the APU fire loop detectors are tested by the pilot.

If the Loop Selector is in the Normal position and both loops on one engine
209 True False B
are faulty, the FAULT light will not come on.

SWTICHED HOT
210 The power to the bottle squibs is provided by the ________. BATTERY BUS AC TRANSFER BUS HOT BATTERY BUS D
BATTERY BUS

Each Loop Selector switch is usually in the NORMAL position. If loop A

211 or B is selected and the loop is defective, the amber _____ light FAULT INOP A
indicates the selected engine loop has failed.

Since there is no overheat detection for the APU, the APU switch will unlock only if a fire is either an overheat or a
212 A
automatically______________. sensed fire condition is sensed

When an engine fire detection FAULT light comes on, which other lights
213 Master Caution OVHT Fire Warning None D
are triggered to come on?

There is no fault warning for a failure of the Wheel Well Fire detector. This
214 True False A
detector is checked by the use of the OVHT/FIRE TEST switch.

The APU has a Ground Control Panel and Fire Warning Horn in the
215 Left Right Middle Forward B
_____aft main wheel well.

The APU bottle has external blow out disks located on the AFT _____-
216 right left A
side of the aircraft.

The MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate when the amber ___________- BOTTLE
217 ENG FIRE FAULT ENG OVERHEAT D
or APU DET INOP lights illuminate on the Aft Electronics Panel. DISCHARGE

to the squibs on all

218 The Extinguisher TEST switch can test the circuitry____________. to the detector loops B
three bottles

FAULT light FAULT and Master FAULT and Fire

If both loops on one engine are malfunctioning when the OVHT / DET FAULT light
219 illuminates only during Caution lights Warning lights B
switch is in the NORMAL position - the______________. illuminates
recall illuminate illuminate

The wheel well system monitors fire conditions, but does not monitor
220 power overheat B
______ or fault conditions.

Landing Gear Unsafe

221 Which of the following does not require immediate action from pilots? Wheel Well Fire Autopilot disengage Start Valve Open C
condition

A cold front has moved through the area, the temperature is 40 degrees F,
222 and the skies are clear. The ramp area and taxiways are puddled with False True B
water. Engine and wing anti-ice should be turned on after engine start.
 The FIRE WARNING lights and the bell can be cancelled by pressing the EXTERNAL FIRE
223 BELL CUTOUT B
__________ switch on the Aft Electronics Panel. POWER

224 APU Fire Protection is provided from two Freon bottles. True False B

Overheat Detection will occur if both loops detect an overheat; or one

225 Loss of engine thrust Fire B
detects an overheat and the other detects a____.

In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are At least one detector in Both loops for FWD or At least one detector in None of the above.
illuminated red when... each loop detects AFT cargo detect each loop detects
smoke. smoke (with power smoke or fire
failed in one loop, the condition.
226 remaining loop detects B
smoke).

Engine fire protection consists of .... Engine overheat and Engine overheat and Engine overheat and Engine overheat and
fire detection powered fire detection powered fire detection powered fire detection powered
by the battery bus, by the battery bus, by the hot battery bus, by the switched hot
engine fire engine fire engine fire battery bus, engine fire
extinguishing powered extinguishing powered extinguishing powered extinguishing powered
by the switched hot by the hot battery bus. by the battery bus. by the battery bus.
227 B
battery bus.

Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests... The engine overheat The fault detection The APU DET INOP The fault detection
detectors circuits for both light, FAULT light and circuits and loop
engines and the APU APU BOTTLE continuity for both
228 DISCHARGE engines and the APU B

Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the Battery bus No.2 AC Transfer Switched hot battery DC bus 1.
.... bus bus.
229 B 8.20.5

Which lights should illuminate during an OVHT/FIRE test? Master FIRE WARN Master FIRE Master FIRE WARN, Master FIRE WARN
lights, MASTER WARN,MASTER MASTER CAUTION lights, MASTER
CAUTION lights, CAUTION lights, lights, OVHT/DET light, CAUTION lights,
OVHT/DET light, Fire OVHT/DET light, Fire Fire Warning Switches, OVHT/DET light, Fire
Warning Switches, Warning Switches and engine overheat Warning Switches and
engine overheat lights engine overheat lights. lights,Cargo Fire engine overheat lights.
and Cargo Fire Also the APU Fire Warning lights, APU Also the APU Fire
Warning lights. Warning light on the Fire Warning light on Warning light on the
APU ground control the APU ground APU ground control
230 panel in the RH wheel control panel in wheel panel in wheel bay will B 11
bay will illuminate. bay will illuminate. illuminate.

Pulling the engine Fire Warning Switch: Closes the Spar Fuel Closes both the Spar Closes the Engine Closes both the Spar
Shutoff Valve. The Fuel Shutoff Valve and Fuel Shutoff Valve. Fuel Shutoff Valve and
Engine Fuel Shutoff the Engine Fuel The Spar Fuel Shutoff the Engine Fuel
Valve must be closed Shutoff Valve, also one Valve must be closed Shutoff Valve, also
using the Engine Start squib on each fire using the Engine Start both squibs on each
Lever, also both squibs extinguisher is armed. Lever, Also one squib fire extinguisher are
on each fire on each fire armed
231 B
extinguisher are extinguisher is armed.
armed.

Fire detection/protection is provided for: Engines, APU, Engines, APU, wheel Engines, APU, wheel Engines and APU
wheel well, and the well, cargo well, electrical / avionic only.
toilets. compartments, and compartments, and
232 toilets. toilets. B

The function of the EXT TEST -switch on the Overheat/Fire Protection To test the detection To test the discharge To test the discharge To test the capacity
Panel is… circuits and capacity of circuits for each circuits and capacity of of each fire
each extinguisher extinguisher bottle each extinguisher extinguisher bottle.
bottle. bottle.
233 B

234 If both FMC fail, can pilots select VOR or APP mode? Yes No A

In the event of B system failure, what provides power to the yaw damper standby hydraulic Yaw dampers are
235 A system electrical backup D
actuator? system inoperative

If either trim switch is used while the autopilot is engaged, it will disengage
236 False True B
 the autopilot.

Maximum airspeed with Mach Trim inoperative is _______ knots or

237 280 ; .85 300 ; .9 280 ; .82 260 ; .78 C
________ Mach.

238 There is a manual reversion back-up for the rudder. False True A

Two of the flight spoilers on each wing and the ground spoilers are
239 both systems B hydraulic system A hydraulic system C FCTM 9.20.4
powered by the ______________.

240 Stabilizer trim is operated by which of the following methods? autopilot trim main electric trim all of these manual trim C

241 The trailing edge flaps are normally powered by _______________. both hydraulic systems the A hydraulic system the B hydraulic system C

If the leading edge devices are extended with standby system pressure,
242 True False A
they cannot be retracted.

The spoilers are hydraulically operated. With a loss of hydraulic pressure,

243 False True A
the spoiler must be manually stowed.

Normally, the ______ system supplies pressure to the autoslat control

244 standby A B C
valve.

245 If both FMC fail, can pilots select L NAV or V NAV mode? Yes No B

A or B - Whichever has
246 Which hydraulic system does the Elevator Feel System use? B system A system C
higher pressure

In addition to the flight spoilers, the _______ ground spoilers deploy on the
247 six two four five C
ground.

Inflight, the ________ flight spoilers extend as speed brakes when

248 twelve ten eight six C
necessary.

There are _______ leading edge slats and ________ leading edge flaps
249 four ; six two ; four four ; one two ; six C
on each wing.

The primary flight controls are normally powered by the

250 B system A system A and B System C
_____________________.

The flap load shedding system retracts the flaps from ______________ or
251 30 to 15 ; 15 to 1 40 to 25 ; 30 to 15 40 to 30 ; 30 to 25 15 to 5 ; 5 to 1 C
______________ during overspeed conditions.

Alternate flap extension from Flaps 0 to Flaps 15 takes about

252 thirty seconds one minute two minutes fifteen seconds C
____________.

The Mach Trim System begins to move the elevators upward at speeds
253 0.65 0.8 0.615 0.7 C
over Mach __________.

254 If both FMC fail, can pilots select MAP mode? Yes No B

255 There is skew detection for all slats on the wing. False True A

256 The normal two-engine go around flap setting is __________. Flaps 20 Flaps 5 Flaps 10 Flaps 15 D

257 Which trim system has the largest range of travel? None of these Autopilot Trim Main Electric Trim Manual Trim D

continue flight and

258 What should pilots do when navigation database expire during flight? update at once land at nearest airport B
update after lading

The speedbrake lever will cause the Ground Spoiler Control Valve to open.
259 However, the ground spoilers will not extend until there is weight on the all three landing gear left main landing gear nose gear right main landing gear D 9.20.17
________________.

With a loss of both hydraulic systems, the ailerons can be operated

260 True False A
through the control cables.

If the hydraulic flap operation fails, the flaps may be positioned by the a standby hydraulic
261 an electric motor A
alternate system, utilizing ______________. motor

262 How many positions are available for the leading edge slats? One Four Two Three D

If thrust reverse is selected during takeoff and the aircraft speed is over
263 70 knots 50 knots 45 knots 60 knots D
___________, the autospoiler action moves the speedbrake lever to UP.

264 The single-engine go around flap setting is ________. Flaps 10 Flaps 5 Flaps 15 Flaps 1 D

The Main Yaw Damper actuator normally uses hydraulic pressure from the
265 ___________. standby system A system both systems B system D

If the control wheel is rotated full travel, the flight spoilers extend to the
266 True False A
maximum in-flight position.

267 The ground spoilers can be extended in-flight. False True A

268 The trailing edge flaps are normally operated by the ______________. B hydraulic system manual reversion A hydraulic system flap actuator A

With a loss of both A and B hydraulic systems, the rudder operates standby hydraulic the emergency
269 A
through the _________________? system electrical motor

If the First Officer s wheel is operative and the Captain s is inoperative, the
270 False True A
spoiler mixing operates and the ailerons operate normally.

allow the control give first officer priority

columns to be give captain priority over the captain
271 A transfer mechanism is installed to _________________. physically separated in over the first officer control wheel in A
event of an elevator control wheel emergency situations
jam only

If either pilot rotates the control wheel more than ________ degrees, the
272 flight spoilers on the downward moving wing begin to rise to enhance the ten twelve twenty fifteen A
roll input.

Hydraulic system B is lost. Which statement is correct: The main yaw damper The main yaw damper Operation of the main None of the above.
is inoperative. The is inoperative. The yaw damper is not
YAW DAMPER light standby yaw damper affected by a loss of
will illuminate when the will start to operate hydraulic system B.
system B Flight when system B Flight
Control Switch is Control Switch is
selected to STBY selected to STBY RUD
RUD. The Yaw and the Yaw Damper
273 Damper switch cannot Switch is reset. A
be reset.

If wheel spin-up is not detected on landing with the SPEED BRAKE lever When any gear strut Only when the right Only when the left When reverse thrust
in the armed position, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically: compresses. main landing gear strut main landing gear strut is selected.
compresses. compresses.
274 A

The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoff & Airspeed between Airspeed between Airspeed between Airspeed between 100
go- around. Conditions for speed trim operation are... 100 KIAS and Mach 100 KIAS and Mach 100 KIAS and Mach KIAS and Mach 0.5, 10
0.5, 10 seconds after 0.5, 10 seconds after 0.5, 15 seconds after seconds after takeoff,
takeoff, 5 seconds takeoff, 5 seconds takeoff, 5 seconds 5 seconds following
following release of following release of following release of release of trim
trim switches, autopilot trim switches, N1 trim switches, N 1 switches, N1 above
not engaged, sensing above 40%, sensing of above 60%, sensing of 40%, autopilot not
of trim requirement trim requirement trim requirement engaged, sensing of
275 A FCOM 9.20.8
trim requirement

Where is the indication of Standy Hydraulic system? Lower DU Lower DU and Brake Pressure FLT CTL panel
276 Hydraulic Panel Indicator D

What indicates that all landing gears are up and locked? all landing gears lights lever in UP and all lever in UP or OFF, lever in DOWN and all
off landing gears lights off and all landing gears green lights on
277 lights off C

The number of flight spoilers located on each wing is:

278 4 2 3 6 A
The Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) does not provide: Overspeed LE skew detection TE asymmetry Protection from
protection for LE for slats 2 through 7, protection by removing uncommanded motion
devices. except during autoslat hydraulic pressure to by LE devices or TE
operation. the TE flaps if an flaps.
279 asymmetry is detected. A

The flap load relief system is operational at the: Flaps 30 and 40 Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 Flaps 25, 30 and 40 Flaps 40 position
positions. and 40 positions. positions. only.
280 A

The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft All LE devices FULL All amber TRANSIT All LE devices EXT LE slats EXT lights
overhead panel for the leading edge devices is: EXT lights illuminated lights illuminated lights illuminated and LE flaps FULL
EXT lights illuminated.
281 A
 The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light: Is inhibited during Indicates all LE Indicates LE Slats Provides TE Flaps
Autoslat operation Devices are fully are fully extended asymmetry protection.
282 inflight extended A

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

283 20 000 feet 10 000 feet 17 000 feet 23 000 feet A
The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron,remain faired on the
wing with down aileron. When control wheel is displaced more than
284 ___degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated. 10 6 8 12 A

The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the: Flaps are up or Flaps are up and a Flaps are not up and No correct answer is
down and a hydraulic pressure-imbalance a hydraulic pressure provided.
pressure imbalance is between hydraulic imbalance is detected
detected or if one of systems A & B is or one of the elevator
the elevator pitot detected or if one of feel pitot systems fails
systems fails. the elevator feel pitot
285 systems fails A

When the speedbrakes are deployed in flight, the SPEEDBRAKES Illuminates when the Illuminates only Illuminates only Always illuminates.
EXTENDED light: radio altitude is less when the speedbrakes when the radio altitude
than 800 feet, or the are deployed is less than 800 feet.
TE flaps are extended uncommanded.
286 beyond flaps 10. A

The Center Tank check The Center Tank check The Center Tank check
The Center Tank
valves close at a valves close at a lower valves open at a
For the NG, when all fuel pumps are operating, why does the Center Tank pumps output pressure
287 higher differential differential pressure higher differential D
fuel feed first? is higher than the wing
pressure than the wing than the wing tank pressure than the wing
tank pumps.
tank check valves. check valves. tank check valves.

288 The Fuel Crossfeed Valve is electrically operated. True. False. A

Turning off the Wing Turning on the Wing Turning on the Center Turning off the Center
289 What action causes the Fuel Scavenge Shutoff Valve to open? D
tank pump switches. tank pump switches. tank pump switches. tank pump switches.

290 Can the 737 Transfer fuel from tank to tank when inflight? No. Yes. A

Where is the Manual Defueling Valve Lever for transfering fuel or defueling
291 In the main wheel well. In the nose wheel well. Under the left wing. Under the right wing. D
on the ground?

only temperature
292 Does cargo have fresh air and temperature control? only fresh air both neither D
control

The power to operate the Fuel Crossfeed Valve comes from the
293 AC Transfer bus. DC bus 1. DC Transfer bus. Battery bus. D
______________.
294 Can the 737 Dump fuel? No. Yes. A

For refueling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes
295 The Left Wing tank. The Right Wing tank. The Center tank. All of them. D
when the tank is full?

The Fuel Temperature Indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in tank
296 1 2 Center 1,2,and center A
____.

When the valve should When the valve is

When the valve is When the valve is
be open and the open and the selector
297 When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated dim? closed and the selector open and the selector D
selector is in the is in the closed
is in the open position. is in the open position.
closed position. position.

That the fuel does not That the fuel filter That the filter is
That the filter is
need filtering and bypass valve has contaminated and
contaminated and
298 The illuminated FUEL FILTER BYPASS light indicates _______________. improved engine failed and reduced degraded engine D
engine failure may
performance may engine thrust may performance may
result.
result. result. result.

To transfer fuel to the To improve fuel To allow for emergency To correct an

299 What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed Valve? D
center tank. economy. fuel access. imbalance condition.

300 How many AC powered boost pumps are installed for each tank? One Two. Three. Four B