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Arihant 3 - 250325 - 191614

The document is a practice set containing 200 multiple-choice questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, with a total maximum score of 720 marks. It includes instructions for answering questions in two sections, A and B, with specific rules regarding compulsory questions and scoring. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answers and a deduction of 1 mark for incorrect answers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views26 pages

Arihant 3 - 250325 - 191614

The document is a practice set containing 200 multiple-choice questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, with a total maximum score of 720 marks. It includes instructions for answering questions in two sections, A and B, with specific rules regarding compulsory questions and scoring. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answers and a deduction of 1 mark for incorrect answers.

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05souvik20
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© © All Rights Reserved
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arp Foundation Builders PRACTICE SET 3 = No. of Questions 200] = Maximum Marks : 720 = Time: 3 hrs 20 Min Instructions 1. This question paper contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below f (@ Section A shall consist of 35 questions in each subject (Question Nos I to 35, 51 t0 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory. (Gi) Section B shall consist of 15 questions in each subject (Question Nos. 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200), In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 questions out of 15 in each subject. Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event ofa candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. 2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. PHYSICS 3. What is the current through an ideal p-n junction ction-A (Q. No. 1 to 35, Sectio: (Q.No. 1 to 35) diode shown in figure below ? 1. Ina sonometer experiment, density of the material Bae of wire used is 75x10? kgm™. If the stress in the wire is 3x10 Nm~, then the speed of transverse aieehuaerte T (a) 225 ms“ (b) 250 ms (©) 200 ms (@)100ms™ (@) Zero (b) 10mA_(@)20mA_ (4) 40mA , 4. A rectangular coil having 20 turns carries a current of 2. A particle of mass 10g is kept on the surface of a raving a eR OES 15 A. The coil is oriented with respect to uniform aa Rete SES Gomes i as te aetctS ‘magnetic field of 0.2 1 T, such that its area vector is away from the sphere is ~005 i m®. The potential energy of coil in the given (take, G=667.10-! Nem2kg72) orientation is (333x105 @o 751 @41 @3S (6) 667« 10° 3 In an adiabatic compression of a monoatomic gas and pases its volume reduces to one-third of initial volume, then SSO its final pressure would be, if gas has initial pressure P (@) 367 10° 3 @3» 3p arp (3p a gT © Practice Set 3 nl icar fission experiments show that the neutrons {lit the uranium nuclei into two fragments of about Sine size. This process is necompanied by the Emission of several {ay protons and positrons (b) a-particles fe) neutrons (@) protons and a-particles z.Irthe expression of electric field vector and magnetic field vector of an electromagnetic wave are £ = EySin(kx— 01) and B = By sin(kx — at), then (2) EoBo = OF ()Eoo= Bok 6, Nucl Two similar coils of radius r and number of turns sre lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The current flowing in them are 61 and 31 respectively, then the magnetic field induction at centre of the coils is 3oNT va 3 ot wet oA tem 9, An aluminium sphere of radius 10 em is heated from 0° to 100°C. Its volume changes by (given that, coefficient of linear expansion for aluminium =23x10/°0) (289 ce (6)289 CC ()9.28ee (A) 49.860 40, The output Y, when all the three inputs are first high and then low, will respectively be x =D Dp eee ae @11 (b) 1,0 © 0,1 (40,0 The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. An electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of energy 12.75 eV. How many different spectral lines can one expect when the electron makes a downward transition? @1 ws ©2 @s Accopper wire has a mass (03 +0003) g, radius (0.5 + 0.005) mm and length (6 + 0.06 cm). ‘The maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density is 2% —(e)3% = (6% (AN During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its 11, 1, 1, G, temperature. The ratio of for the gas is y 8 5 4 OE @3 @3 ~ 14, 15. 16. 17. 18. q7 —________ (GEEGIEMID Foundation Builders| Which of the following graphs shows correct variation between capacitive reactance (X¢) and angular frequency () of AC source? x x a © xg ° xg © Nees @ / Four balls each of mass 2kg are placed at the corners of @ a square of side 10 cm. If mass’”* J im, is. removed as shown in the figure, then the shift in 7 the centre of mass of the 10; , 10; py ( 2259472 co Si+ 83) system is (@ Gi+33) (@) (Si+ 59) 5; of i 3) The total energy of the electron in the first excited state of hydrogen is —3.4 eV. The kinetic energy of the electron in this state is @t7ev @434ev +68ev (@+34ev ‘Two statements are given below. Statement I The work done in a moving charge between two points in an electric field is independent of the path followed between these two points. Statement II Ifa proton and an electron are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference, then they gain equal amount of kinetic energy. In light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (©) Statement Lis correct and Statement II is incorrect. (@) Statement I is incorrect and Statement I is correct. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The change in focal length of the lens will be .. (Given, refractive index of water = 4/3) (@S4om (6)36em (©)27em_—(d) 72cm 78 EIEN Foundation Builders| 19. A capacitor is changed in stich a manner th energy of 2 J. Now, potential energy i it stores sed 10 SA. itis done by f (a) double the potential difference across the eapacitor without changing the charge ¢b) double both the potential difference and charge (©) double the change without changing the potent difference (<) quadruple the potential difference across the cspscitor without changing the charge 20. A ray falls on a prism ABC(AB = BC) and travels as shown in the figure. The minimum refractive index ‘of the prism material should be 4 N<é a @)43 (e) v2 @3 21. A linearly polarised electromagnetic wave given as ‘oi cos (Az —oot) is incident normally on a perfectly reflecting infinite wall at z = a. Assuming, that the material of the wall is optically inactive, the reflected wave will be given as (@)E, =E,i(ke - or) (B) E, =Egicos(kz + wt) (JE, =-Epicos(kz + ot) (QE, =Eqisin(e ~ ot) Ls 22. A copper wire of length 2 m and radius 0.1¢m is Joined in series with an iron wire of length 4 m and radius 0.4 em and a current is passed through the wires, The ratio of the current density in iron and copper wires is (1:2 (1216 (b) 4:1 @16 A student performs meter bridge experiment to determine specific resistance of a conducting wire of length 10.cm and diameter 1 mm. When a standard resistance of 6 is connected on left gap and the Biven conducting wire is connected on the right gap, the balance point is obtained for 60 em length of the meter bridge wire, The specific resistance (in Q-m) for the material ofthe 1 23, given wire is (@) 3.14 1075 (b) 6.28 107? (c) 3.14 10 (d) 6.28% 10-* 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. NEET * Practice gq A body of mass 4g is acted upon by a force wi, causes a displacement in it given by x = ;2m, Whee is time in second. The work done by force in 4, (a) 64 (b) 1285 (c) 2005 (d) 2405 Ifa wire is stretched to make it 0.2% longer, its resistance will be (a) increase by 0.4% (c) increase by 0.1% By sucking through a straw, a man can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density =13.6 g /cm?). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass up to a maximum depth of (a) 75em — (b) 13.6em (¢) 1.36cm (4) 10cm A transparent cuboid contains a small air bubble, ig apparent distance is 1.5 cm when seen through one face and 3.5 cm when seen through other face. If refractive index of transparent cuboid is 1.5, then real length of the edge of cube is (b) decrease by 0.49% (d) decrease by 0.1% (@)6cm — (b)Sem_— ()9em_— (4). 7.5 em In a non-uniform electric field, an electric dipole experiences (a) torque only (b) force only (c) torque as well as net force (d) None of the above The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 tums, respectively. If the magnetic flux 6 linked with the primary coil is given by $=$o +4t, where @ is in weber, ¢ is in second and 0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is (a) 90 V (6) 120V (c)220V. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are connected to the ends of a string which passes over a massless, frictionless pulley. The total downward thrust on the pulley is (take, g =10m /s?) (a)53.3N (6) 26.7N. (©) 72.5N In photoelectric emission from a metallic surface, wavelength of incident light is 2x 10-7m and stopping potential is 2.5V. The threshold frequency of the metal in Hz. approximately (charge on electron, e=16 x 10! C and Planck's constant, h =66 x 10" J-s) (@) 12x10! () 9x 10" (©) 9x 10! (4) 9x 10! (@30V (4) 46.7N NEET # Practice Set 3 42, A student is performing the experiment of resonance column, The diameter of the column ube is 6 em. The frequency of the tuning fork is $04 Hz. Speed of the sound at the given temperature is 336 m/s, The zero of the meter scale coincides with the top end of the resonance column, tube. The reading of the water level in the column when the first resonance occurs is @ (b) 16.6 cm fe) IS4em © 14.8.0m 3. Two trains having lengths 120 m and 100 m are running in the opposite directions with velocity 40 kmh and 50 knv/h. In what time, they will completely cross each other? ©) 6.65 @sss 34, A man crosses a 320 m wide river perpendicular to the current of water in 4 min. If in still water he can swim with a speed 5/3 times that of the current of water, then the speed of the current (in m/min) is, (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 40 (a) 50 The poiver dissipated in the circuit shown below is SOW, then the value of R is 100 (@)3s 75s 8 Saar aD 20 (b) 302 @ 50a (a) 209, ()402, Section-B (Q. No. 36 to 50) 36. There are 20 cells connected in series, each having, emf E and internal resistance r. Some of cells are connected wrongly, a battery of emf 3 with internal resistance Sr and an ammeter are connected in series with above arrangement. The ammeter reads 5A, when both add each other and 3A, when both oppose each other. Then, number of cells wrongly connected is (a2 (b)3 5 @4 37. 39. at. 42. Foundation Builders} 79 A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity yg, where R denotes the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. Then, the maximum height ascended by the patticle is SR R a) 2R ey @R Oy 0) © 2 @ A disc of mass 40 g is kept floating horizontally by throwing 20 marbles per second against it from below. If the mass of each marble is 4.9 g, then the velocity with which the marbles are striking the disc is (Assume that, the marbles strike normally and rebound downward with same speed) (a) 9.8 ms“! (b) 4.9 ms“! () 5 ms“ (d)2ms" An object is projected at an angle of 45° with the horizontal at a speed of 12 ms”. A second object is simultaneously released from a point on the vertical line along maximum height of first object, where they collide. The initial height of second object is (g =10 mis?) (3.6m (6) 7.2m (25m (5m ‘A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. What fraction of its total energy is translational? 1 2 @> (o) 1 = ©§ @ v2 3 43 Object distance, 1 = (501 +05) cm and image distance, v = (201 +02) cm, then focal length is (+ 1 1 sere w and v are positive pouty (a) (124+04)om (©) (1434 04)em (b) (124 + a)em (@) (143.401) om In the given circuit (as shown in the figure) neglecting source resistance, then voltmeter and ammeter reading will be a sans — & 2 Xen28.0 200 (a) 120V, 3A (b) 120 V, 6A (©) OV, 8A (@) OV, 3A. 80 3SiELID Foundation Builders 43, Given below are two statements Statement I-A zener diode is used to protect meters from burning ‘Statement I At the breakdown, voltage across zener diode remains constant for any current flowing through it. 7 In the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (}) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (©) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (q) Statement II is incorrect but Statement I is correct. 44, A projectile is fired from the surface of the Earth with a velocity of S ms~'and angle @ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms~! at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the tajectory of the projectile fired from the earth, The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet (in ms~) is (given, ¢ =98 ms“), (a)3.5 (b) 110.8" (c) 5.9 (16.9 A charged particle q is shot with speed v towards another fixed charged particle Q. It approaches upto a closest distance r and then returns. If g was given a speed 2v, the closest distance of approach would be 45. Wy 209 7 fr (> (riz @r/4 8 Two rods of copper and aluminium of length 2, and 4, and the coefficient of linear expansion of both metal rods are «., and a. respectively. If they are 2724 together and (ly +Z_) is maintained sare at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good? (0,2 =a,2 (©-aL, =aly O)a7Z, =a32, Oa,L, =a,h, NEET ® Practice 47. A block of mass m and charge qis attached tg unstretched spring of spring constant k: When horizontal electric field £ is switched ON, the Performs simple harmonic motion, whose amp of oscillation is 9 smooth woof 1/ of 2 of we = . 48. In an ammeter, 0.4% of main current passes thoy galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer sf, then shunt resistance of ammeter will be Re @ 399 R, ae, D0 Re Ox R, @) Se. ©) 249 48. In Young's double slit experiment, the Sth bright fringe from central maxima due to wavelength 4 coincides with 8th bright fringe from central maxima due to wavelength 4», then the wavelength of visible lights are (@) 500 nm and 800 nm (b) 480 nm and 400 nm (©) 640. nm and 400 nm (@) 640 nm and 560 nm 50. Blectron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from Second excited state to first excited state, then the ratio of wavelengths 2, ‘29 emitted in two cases is (27:5 (0) 7:5 (©) 20:7 (d) 27:20 CHEMISTRY section-A (Q. No. S51 to 85) Temperature (T/K) at which ky = kp is 2) 400K (b) $000 K _(c) 4000 r snk @ 52. The entropy’ values (in JK! mol") of H, =1306, Cl,(g) = 223.0 and HCl (g) =186.7 at 298 K and 1 atm, then entropy change for the reaction, H3(g) + Cl (g) —> 2HC(g), is (9) #3403IK“'mol™ (6) -1669IK~ mol”! (©) +7273JK"'mol™ = (d) +19.8K“ mol“! 53. 4 moles of X and 4 moles of ¥ are mixed together. For the reaction X +¥ ==" P +Q, 2 moles of P and are formed at equilibrium: The equilibrium constant for the reaction will be 1 1 @7 > © (4 54, Normality and molarity changes with temperature because they involve volumes. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid, HPO, is (@09N (b)0.1N ()0.3N (@)0.6N 55. The product P in the following reaction is. Cle a Bee (a) 2-phenylpropanoic acid (b) benzoic acid (©) 2-phenylethanoic acid (@) phenylmethanoic acid 56. In the given reaction, products and B are 9 (eres ° @ 4=0: 0, B=0: jamie) ° ° ° © a= 2B cS © A= Oo, BH @ 4=0= A » B=0- 0 57. CH=CH —2u/Ns0H_, y —Za/CHSCOOH , y, y is (@) CH,OH (©) CH;CH, OH I CH,OH (© CH,CooH (@ CH OH 58. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for Ianthanoid yet cerium also shows +4 oxidation state because (@) it has tendency to attain noble gas configuration. (b) it has variable ionisation enthalpy. (0) itresembles Pb** (@) ithas tendency to attain f” configuration. 59. The C— C bond length of the following molecules is in the order (©) CoH > CH, > CoHy > CoH (0) CoH < CH, < CoH < Colle (©) GH, > GH, > CH, > CH, (CAH, > GH, > CoH > CoH 60. Proteins when heated with conc. HNO; gives a yellow colour. This test used in identification of protein is known as (a) xanthoproteic test (b) Biuret’s test (c) acid base test (d) Hoppe’s test 61. Among the following substituted silanes, the one which will give cross-linked silicone polymer on hydrolysis is (a) RySiCL (b) R,Si (RSICl;, @ RSiCly 62. Suppose the elements P and Q combine to form two compounds PQ.and PQ,. When 0.05 mole of PO weighs 5 g and 0.03 mole of PQ, weighs 4.5 g then atomic weights of P and Q are respectively: (@) 50, 75 (b) 75, 50 (©) 50, 50 (@) 25, 25 63. Given below are two statements ; Statement I Shielding effect inereases as we go down the group, Statement I More is the number of electrons in the Penultimate shell, more is shielding. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer fiom the options given below: a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (}) Statement Lis true but Statement II is false. {(c) Statement Is false but Statement Il is true, (6) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 4. From the following reactions, RONa+H;0 == ROH + NaOH ROH + NaNH, —=* RONa + NH, Nhich of the following order is correct regarding basic strength? (2) OH” and then decreases from 0 0 (b) a decrease from Na* to Al and then increases from 07 to F-, (©) a significant increase from A[>* toor, (4) a significant decrease from A> 10.0% 68. Match List-1 with List, 5 a List-1 List-I ____ Compounds) (Oxidation number) ALM, I, =I B._NH,OH u, -2 C._HNo, Mm, +5 D._HNO, lV. +3 Re aera e een eeet 2 eras NEET = Practigg & Choose the correct answer from the options fi , Men, below: (@) A-IV, Bel, C-ll, D-Ill (b) A-Il, B-l, CIV, D-II (© All, BAIL, C-IV, D-I (@) Acl, BAY, CH, D-IL 69. Which of the following method can be used tp synthesise fluorobenzene in the laboratory? (@) Heating phenol with HF and KF. (©) Reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution, (©) Diazotisation of aniline follows by heating the diazonium salt with HBF, (@ Direct uorination of benzene with F, gas, 70. Given below are two statements, Statement I Use of cis-platn in cancer treatneny can cause severe kidney damage, Statement II The d,,, d,. and d,. orbitals lie between the axes and collectively called ag orbital In the light of the above statements choose’the Correct answer from the options given below. (@) Both statement I and statement II are false. (b) Statement I is true but statement II is false, (©) Statement [is false but statement II is true (d) Both statement Tand statement II are true, 71. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason ®) Assertion (A) Aryl halides undergo electrophilic Substitution more readily than benzene, Reason (R) Aryl halide gives a mixture ofo, p Products when they undergo electrophilic substitution, In the light of the above statements choose the mast PPropriate answer from the options given below (@) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the cont explanation of (A), (©) (A) is true but (R) is false, (©) A) is false but (R) is true (@) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A), 72. X,Y and Z in the given graph are : es &| | *2=0) Moketraclon—> yp =(2) r gEET # Practice Set 3 (Vem tpn YabZ=0 (Yep t Pr Y=0Z=0 (or Y ox ' 1 N 73. Given below are two statements, Statement I 2-methyl- more acidic than cy Statement II Aldehyde and ketone undergoes loophilic addition reaction but acyl group undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction. In the light of the above statements, choose the comect answer from the options given below. (a) Both statement I and statement II are false. {) Statement I is true but statement IT is false. () Statement I is false but statement II is true, {(@) Both statement I and statement II are true. + 3-cyclohexanedione is ohexanone, 74, Match the List-T with List-Tl. ples Ls eee LeU eee ‘A. Ammonium chloride (i) Rechargeable B. Sulphuric acid i)_Strong electrolytes List-I1 C. Zine chloride (iii) Lead storage batteries D. Secondary batteries (iv) Dry cell Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) iv), B-(ii), C-Gi), D-@ (0) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(ii), D-(i) (c) Ai), B-(iii), C-Gi), D-iv) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(ii), D-Civ) 75. Given below are two statements. Statement I Formic acid is weaker aci acid. Statement II pK, of formic acid is less than acetic acid. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. correct answer from the options given below: (2) Both statement I and statement II are false. (b) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (©) Statement | is false but statement I] is true, (@) Both statement I and statement JI are true, id than acetic 6. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding a solution exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour? qEIED Foundaton Bulden)| . 83 (a) Intermolecular force of A—A and B—B are stronger than AB. (b) Af pig = Oat constant T and P. (©) AV gig Isothermal expansion ‘AC —> Adiabatic expansion Which of the following is correct? (@) AS jpoermat > AS adiabatic (0) To =T 4 (©) Msotrermas B quadruples on inreas the concentration of A by 8 times, thus the order 9 the reaction is (@4 (b) 3/3 (2 @ 87. Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-I1 A. %y __L._ Intensive property B. Ee I. Depends on number of ions/volum CaEK IIL,_Extensive property D._4;Geu_IV. Increases with dilution. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (@) All, B-IV, C-l, D-IL (b) ACL, B-IL, C-1V, D-IL (©) AAV, B-l, C-Il, D-II @ AAV, B-L, CIM, D-IT Nycr 88 4 cucn A and B respectively are (2) phenol and methy! nitrile (b) HNO, and benzonitrile (©) NaNO,/HCI and benzonitrile (@ HNO,/H* and methyl cyanide 89. Maximum number of unpaired electrons are preset in Which ion? @Sm** — (b) Ey3+ (©) Ho?* (a) Ga?* F GET * Practice Set 3 99, For the reaction, the major product is [ S—cr,on w[>¢ o © C OD 91. Sodium carbonate cannot be used in place of (NH,);CO; for the identification of Ca** and Ba2* (in group V) during mixture analysis because ions will react with acid radicals (@) Na” ions will interfere with the detection of Ca* and Ba** ions {c) Concentration of CO} ions is very low (@ Mg2* ions will also be precipitated 92. Consider the following statements about d- and ‘f-block elements. 1. The colour of KCr,0, is due to d - d transition, Il. Actinides have larger number of oxidation states than lanthanides. IL. Tripositive ions of Pr (At. no. = 59) and Tm (At. no. = 69) have the same (green) colour. IV. Actinides have magnetic moments less than theoretically predicted values. V. 4fand 5 f-orbitals are equally shielded. Choose the correct option. (a) 1,1, 1V (ILIV 93, A translucent white waxy solid on heating in an inert atmosphere is converted to its allotropic form B. Allotrope A on reaction’ with very dilute aqueous KOH liberates a highly poisonous gas C having rotten fish smell, while excess of chlorine 4 forms D which hydrolyses to its another compound E, identify compound 4. (a) White phosphorus (©) Phosphine 94. Which of the following compounds will produce NO, on heating? (a) NaNO; (©NH,NO; (b) 1, 0, WI @L1V (b) Red phosphorus (@) Phosphorus pentachloride (b) AgNO; (@) NH,NO? 95. What is the standard electrode potential for the electrode MnO3 / MnO; in solution? (Given: £° MnO; /Mn?* =151volt, E®MnO, /Mn* =123 volt). @170V ()-170V @S:10V @—S1OV EET) Foundation Builders] 85 96. Which one of the following represents correct order of basic strength? (a) NH,OH < NH, NaSO, +2HNO; (b) 4NH, +50, —> 4NO+ 6H,O (©) NO} +NO; + H,0—> 2HNO, (4) 2NO+ 0, + H,0—> HNO; + HNO 99. The dipole moment of hydrogen chloride with bond distance 127 pm is 1.03 D. The percent ionic character of its bond is about (a) 16% (©) 17% (©) 16.9% @ 16.5% 100. Match the List-1 with List-IL List-L A: Ny NE List-I1 (@ Bonds order increases and magnetic property changes B. 0; —>03 (ii) Bond order decreases ‘and magnetic property not changes esse area not ene ee C.. By > BY (iii) Bond order increases and magnetic property not changes. SEES D. NO” —>NO_ (iv) Bond order decreases magnetic property changes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) A-(v), B-(), C (b) iv), B®, (© Ali), B-Gi), C-Gv), D-Gv) (@ AW, Biv), C-Gii), D-Gii) iii), D-Gi) BIOLOGY Botany Section-A (Q. No. 101 to 135) 101. Which onc of the following process produce four ATP and two NADH? (a) Electron transport ogee! eyele Slycolysis (@) Oxidation of pyruvic acid 102. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (2) C, pathway ~ Oxaloacetic acid (b) C, pathway — 3-phosphoglyceric acid syNfesophyll cell - Decarboxylation (@) None of the above 103. Which of the following is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in pineapples? iylene (b) Abscisic acid (c) Cytokinins (d) Auxins 104. Which of the following microbes flourish in hot springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents where temperatures far exceed 100°C? (a) Eubacteria (b) Fun, (©) Algae \Wh-atchachactria Jin succulents like Opuntia and Bryophyllum, the value of RQ is zero because of 1G) incomplete oxidation of fats * (®) complete oxidation of carbohydrates (c) incomplete oxidation of carbohydrates (d) incomplete oxidation of proteins 106. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect set of statements, 1. Bacteria live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans. —— Il. Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminant animals, —_— IL. The colonies of Archacbacteria are surrounded by gelatinous sheath, 1V. The bacteria that live in salty areas are known as thermoacidophils, > V. Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission, \—— Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (@) Land ~io.itandy (b) , IV and Vv @1, Wand ’ 4107. Observe the given diagram of TS of sutton, stem and identify X in the same, (a) Megullary rays ees sheath (©) Sclerenchymatous pericycle (@ Hypodermis 108. Identify the correct pair. (@) Endangered species ~ Clarias gariepinus and catfishes ‘A._ Liverworts 1. Fragmentation B. __Mosses 2. Starch C._ Chlorophyceae 3. Mannitol "D._ Phaeophyceae 4. Gemmae Codes A BCD ABE cp @2 43 1 Caan 23 ©2,3 1.4 .@1, 4-379 126. Which of the following is not an area of biotechnology? (a) Provide the best catalyst (b) Create optimal conditions (©) Dowsr'stream processing technology searCotng evolutionary mapping 127. Which of the following chromosome contains one extremely short and one very long arm? (a) Metacentric chromosome (b) Sub-metacentric chromosome er Ractae chromosome (@) Telocentric chromosome 128. Which of the following is not a protein in composition? (b) ody Breese (@) Trypsin (c) GLUT-4 129. Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) In some organisms multinucleate Condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium, Reason (R) In these organisms karyokinesis is 0! followed by cytokinesis, In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (@) A is false, but R is true Bath a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A q i Mt NEET + Prete Set GP Foundation Buide] 89 ¢) Both A and R are true, b (oyBoh nd Be tu but R is not the correct 134, Raceme, corymb, ebracteate, hermaphrodite and (ay Ais tue, but Ris false aetinomorphie ype of inflorescence is found in fami 430. Given below are two statements, @ sanbealss (©) Legumitioceae Statement I paosrerms absent in the mature (c) Graminae Sar rassicaceee seeds of groundnut : a e cane 135. Which of the following two RNAs initiate the Statement In black pepper and beet, remnants process of RNA interferance in eukaryotic of nucellus are also present. organisms? In the light of the above statements, choose the (a) (RNA and mRNA correct answer from the options given below. (b) -RNA and #RNA {a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is (©) snRDACand hnRNA oes énse RNA and antisense RNA foth statement I and statement II are correct (©) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect Section-B (Q. No. 136 to 150) (@ Statement I is correct, but statement IT is 136. Given below are two statements; one is labelled incorrect as Assertion (R) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 431. Given below are two statements. Statement I Anaerobossfaereas he ‘Assertion (A) Genetic drift is a random chang decomposition and causes piling up of detritus. ‘gene frequencies. ‘Statement II Primary consumers are also known Reason (R) Bottle neck event reduce genetic as transducers. diversity. In the light of the above statements, choose the In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. ‘correct answer from the options given below. (a) Ais false, but R is true (a) Statement Lis incorrect, but statement Il is correct (b) Bottrstatement I and statement II are correct (b) Both A.gnd R are true and R is the correct foth statement I and statement IT are incorrect jexplatiation}oe tS ; (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is foth A and R are true, but R is not the correct earn explanation of A | (@) Ais true, but Ris false 132. Given below are two statements. 4 is : iis cctatloid In winter, the cambium is less active and forms Statement I In Cycas, small specialised coral fewer xylary elements. This wood is called roots are associated with N,, - fixing bacteria. a Fa female (@) early wood. (b) autumn wood tatement II In gymnosperms, male and fe! (© heart wood (@ sapwood gametophytes have an independent free-living ° S es 138, The ......... in a cell are involved in many In the light of the above statements, choose the finoont such mechanical support, motility, correct answer from the options given below. ‘maintenance of the shape of the cell. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct ess (b) Golgi apparatus (b) Both statement I and statement IT are correct cytoskeleton (@) vacuole Cente Tand statement II are incorrect 139. Stirred tank bioreactor has advantages over shake itement J is correct, but statement IL is flask culture method. Which of the following is false regarding the stirred tank bioreactor? incorrect 133. Medicinal value plants mulethi ani Gearsesd> (a) Cultures‘can be prepared on large scale Of plants? irge volume of cultures can be withdrawn belong to the which of the families periodically for sampling (@) Fabaceae and Cruciferae , (b) Fabaceae ‘aad Malvaseae (c) Culture medium can be renewed from time to () Mi i time (©) Malvaceae and Graminae (@) Temperature and pH of culture medium can be . i (@) Leguminoceae and Liliaceae maintained 140, A plasmid is considered suitable as cloning vector because it gas 1 can be easily folate, I. has sites eerie vee, — UL ical einroduced into bnctxil ee TV, has selectable marker. V. hac no cloning site Choose the correct answer from the options given below (Lila (b) Hand I (UAT and IV (d) Tand II 141, Mangifera indica belongs to the order (2) Primat (b) Diptera cai (@) Poales 142. Which of the following is an example of flagellated protozoans (a) Paramecium (c) Plasmodium Frypanosoma (d) Entamoeba 143. In an aquatic ecosystem, the major conduit for energy flow is yee (b) DFC 144. Match List I with List I. pecsiaidesiiidlekoaed ae ees (CFC (@) AFC List I List 11 A. Mutualism 1._Nematode and fish ) B. Commensalism 2. Balanus and Chathamalus C._Parasitism 3._Egret and cattle D. Competition 4. Fig and wasp Choose the correct answer from the options given below. ea cD ABCD 4 301-2. @&3 1.2.4 4 2 1 3 @2 1°34 145. Given below are two Statements, Statement I The LHC are made up of hundreds of Pigment molecules bound to proteins, Statement II Each Photosystem has few special Pigments forming a light harvesting system, reaction centre, (@) Statement I is incorrect, but statement IL is correct, (b) Both statement and statement IT are correct, (©) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect ‘atement lis correct, but statement Ils incorrect NEET © Practice y 446. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation _ wegen with OAA and water to yielq cit id (b) pyruvic acid (©) carbonic acid (@) acetic acid 147. Read the following statements and choose thy correct set of statemenits. 1. When there are more than one pistils ar fay together is called apocarpous. 7 IL The placenta is located inside tf ovarian sa The gynoecium may consist of a single pis, 170 en ag bbocatpellny "S27 IV. Gynoecium consisting of more than one pig, called multicarpellary.. = —~ V. The ovary serves as a landing platform fr poy grains Choose the correct answer’from the options give, below. (@) 1, ahd 1 * HCO, —* HCO; +H toe sage (0)CO, +H,0 mRNA trapseription toy BNA replication > mRNA transcription > Translation (©) mRNA transcription — Translation > DNA replication (@) DNA replication > DNA transcription > Translation 189. When nucleic acids behaves like an enzyme it is termed as (a) ribs leotidase Deyiborymes (c) nucleotidase (@ nucleases 190. Identify the incorrect match, (a) RNAi- Silencing of mRNA with the help of dsRNA (b) Golden rice — Vitamin-A enriched rice ‘ind I~ Cuts DNA at 5 base pair sequence (@ Plasmid —Autonomously replicating DNA 191. Match List I with List TL. List 1 List I — Sgt vol A. Capacitation 1, Progesterone B._ Colostrum 2. Sperm activation C._ Placenta 3.__ Mammary gland D. Corpus luteum 4, hCG - EET # Practice Set 3 Choose the correct answer from the options given below. BUC D A BCD laa (1 203 4 4.1 @3 4214 gg2. Mateh List U with List 11 List I (Properties List 1 of muscles) (efinition) Excitability. 1. Can be stretched passively when relaxed. 2. Retums to their original shape after contraction and extension, B. Contractility CC. Extensibility 3. Shortens and thickens to do work. D. Elasticity 4. Receives and responds to stimuli, Choose the correct answer from the options given below. cD A B C.D 4 3 1 2 (1 23 4 4 1 2 3 @3 1 4 2 193. Which ion plays a major role in cascade process of blood-clotting? ‘alcium (b) Potassium (©) Magnesium (4) Molybdenum 194, Identify the incorrect statement. (a) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented if the (anti-Rh) antibodies are administered to the mother (b) Most of the substances released by thrombocytes are inVolved in coagulation lasma along with the clotting factor is called serum (d) The impulse of contraction of the heart originates in the SA node 195. The part of pituitary gland that consist of two Portions, pars distalis and pars intermedia is called (@) newohypophysis, ‘adenohypophysis (©) sella turcica (@) pars intermedia 95. Foundation Builders 196. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Organism like pacific salmon fish breed only once in their life time (b) Oysters and pelagic fishes produce a large number of small sized offspring (©) some species of insects and frogs are cryptically colotred to avoid being detected by predator coe anemone and the clown fish shows 197. The pair of helminths, which are pathogenic to man i iscaris and Wuchereria (b) Entamoeba histolytica and Ascaris (©) Witchereria and Plasmodium (@ Salmonella typhi and P. vivax 198. Which of the following statements are not related to the nerve impulse? I. Nerve cells have polarised membrane. IL. The resting membrane has high permeability for Na* r IIL. The stimulus of threshold value causes stoppage of K* —Cl'ATPase pump. ” IV. The membrane potential which sets ina wave of depolarisation is called action potential. —~ V. With the pumping out of K* ions, the neuron interior become positive. Choose the correct answer from the options given belo (@) I u’and IV () I, Wand V (, Il and V @1VandV 199, Given below are two statements. Statement I All the chambers of the heart are in relaxed state in joint diastole. Statement II The cardiac output of atheletes will be less compared to ordinary man. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (a) Statement I is correct, but statement II is correct (b) Both statement I and statement II are correct (©) Botlrstatement I and statement IT are incorrect een Lis correct, but statement II is, incorrect 200. Compared to mitosis, which is the longer and more complex phase of first meiotic division? (@) AnaphaSe-I (b) Metaphase-I (©) PrOphase-T (@) Telophase-I Foundation Builders! 105 Biology Botany 101. (c) The process of glycolysis starts with one molecule of gluicose and produces two pyruvate molecules, four ATP and two NADH. Electron transport chain forms 34 ATP, citric acid cycle produces 2 ATP, 6 NADH and 2 FADH, and oxidation of pyruvic acid releases 2 NADH. 102. (c) Match pair in option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as Process of decarboxylation takes place in bundle sheath cell. Regeneration occurs in mesophyll cells. 103. (a) Ethylene is a simple gaseous Plant Growth Regulator (PGR). It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing senscence and ripening fruits. It is used to initiate flowering and synchronising fruit set in pineapples. 104. (d) Archaebacteria are found in hot water springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents. They are able to survive in high temperatures because their bodies have adapted to such environmental conditions. 105. (c) In succulent plants like Opuntia and Bryophyllum respiration occurs at night time. This results in the consumption of O, without evolvement of CO. This results in incomplete oxidation of food, containing carbohydrates resulting in the formation of organic acids. CO, is not released. 2CgHy20g +30) + 3C, HO +3H,0+ 386 kcal Thus, the value of RQ is zero as R= Volume of CO, evolved _ 0 Volume of 0, consumed 3 406. (c) Statements III and IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be corrected as The colonies of cyanobacteria are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath. The bacteria that live in salty areas are known as halophils, whereas those who live in hot springs are known as thermoacidophils. Rest statements are correct. 107. (b) The endodermal cells of dicot stem consist of starch grain as a food reserve. Therefore, the stem endodermis is also called starch sheath. 408. (b) Matched pair in option (b) is correct. Both stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon are extinct species which suffered extinction due to overexploitation by human beings. Rest incorrect pairs can be corrected as 106 Foundation Builders, 109. 110, 111, 112. 113, 14, The illegal _gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is the indigenous catfishes the example of alien species inv ish and passenger pigeon are not co-extinct The e: troduction of the Affican catfish Clarias yosing threat to This represents our riv io species. They do not possess any association, as the catfish is still found in various parts of ecosystem and the passenger pigeon is an extinct species. (b) Both A and R are true ofA and R is the correct explanation In onder to store sceds for a long time, it is important that, activities inside the cell are stopped. This becomes possible under lesser water conditions, when the seed undergoes dormaney. This also helps the seed overcome extreme stressful conditions like drought. This results in easy transportation and storage of seeds for longer. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and it can be corrected as In peas, leaves are converted into tendrils for climbing whereas fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store food, Rest of the statements are correct, (a) The correct matches are A-4, B-2, C-3, D-I. * Cuticle is a waxy thick layer that prevents water loss from epidermis, ‘+ Radial vascular bundles with xylem and phloem arranged alternatively at different radii are found in both monocot and dicot roots, + Epidermal hair on the stem are called trichomes. They are multicelfular in shoot system. + Inmonocot stem, vascular bimndles are conjoint and closed. These are closed due to absence of secondary growth. (c) The correct matches are A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, + The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. * Enclosed within the integument is a mass of cells called nucleus. * Integuments encircle the nucellus except atthe tip ‘where a small opening called micropyle is present, * Fruit develops a thick covering or wall called pericarp. It is protective in nature. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A, In eukaryotes, the nascent RNA synthesised by RNA Polymerases is called mRNA or primaty transcript. The /nRNA has both coding sequences exons and non-coding sequences introns and is non-functional, so ithas to undergo splicing, Its a process in which introns are removed and exons are joined, (©) I, Hand II statements are correct. Rest statements. are incorrect and can be + Western ghats have a species diversity than corrected as Breater primitive amphibian the Eastern ghats, NEET ® Practicg Se :) «+ The first national park to be established in Ing, in carbo ‘National Park, tinny, 415, (c) Statements I, I and IV are correct. Rest ofthe statements are incorrect, These can be corrected gy + The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the phloem located on the outer side of the xylem + Alltissues on the innersie of endodermis such a perieycle, vascular bundles and pith constitute tas stele. 416. (b) Both statement I and statement II are correct, In deifferentiation living differentiated cells that ha lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions, e.g. formation of meristems interfascicular cambium and cork cambiu from fully differentiated parenchyma cells, 417. (a) In eukaryotes, the cistrons are split into several coding units are separated by non-coding base sequen, called introns. 118. (d) When Nile perch was introduced in lake Vietoria gf South Affica, it killed and eliminated over 200 species small cichlid fish. 119. (d) Inferior ovary is not related to Fabaceae family. In such plants the gynoecium is monocarpellary with a superior ovary. 120. (c) Ratio of pure tall (TT) to pure dwarf (tt) plants in F,-generation will be 1 : 1 Following diagram can explain the expected ratio of F,-generation, Troe tt ree aa < Pact) Pu Games Bin vant Fy-generation tt 1-9 T t T/ 1 Tt t Tt tt reomersin Fe genotypic ratio = TT Tt tt Pure tall : Hetero : Pure dwarf (1) zygous (1) tall @ Thus, the ratio of pure tall to pure dwarf plants will bel: 1, 121. (b) Statements I, Il and ITT are correct. Statements IV and Vare incorrect and can be corrected as ‘i * The cells of heart wood contain tannins that make it dark in colour. * Itis also called duramen, 122, (b) Yellow pod colour is a recessive trait chosen bY Mendel for a character in garden pea. All others are dominant traits for the character, 12, (@) Statement | is correct, but statement I NEET # Practice Set 3 I {¢) The thalamus contributes to fruit formation and such fruits are called false fruits. The example includes apple, strawberry, cashew, ete. Most fruits however develop only from the ovary and are called trie fru 24 (b) Aunins are responsible for initiating and promoting cel division in tissues like eambium. They are generally produced by the growing apices of the stems and roots, from where they migrate to the regions of their action, 25. (b) The correct matches are A-4, B-1, C-2, D3. ‘+ Liverworts reproduce asexually by fragmentation of, thalli, or by the formation of specialised structure called gemma. tative reproduction in mosses is by fragmentation. + The food is stored as starch in Chlorophyceae and as mannitol in Phaeophyceae. 428. (d) Creating evolutionary mapping is not an area of biotechnology whereas rest of the options are considered under biotechnology. For example, providing best catalyst in the form of improved organism, create optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act, and down stream processing techniques to purify proteins and other products. 427. (c) In case of acrocentric chromosome the centromere is situated close to its end, forming one extremely short and one very long arm. 428. (d) Lecithin is not a protein. It is an example of lipids, which contain phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic compound in them. 429. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis. As a result of this, multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium, e.g. liquid endosperm in coconut. 420. (b) Both statement I and statement II are correct. Jn groundnut and beans, endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed maturation. Whereas, in some seeds such as black pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are also present, This residual, persistent nucellus is the perisperm. 181. (c) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect and can be corrected as * Anaerobiosis reduces the decomposition and causes piling up of detritus. * Producers are also known as transducers. Since, they convert energy from one form to another. incorrect. It can be corrected as In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence. They remain within the sporangia retained on the sporophytes. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. Foundation Builders! 107 (b) Liquorice, commonly known as mulethi, is a medicinal plant of the bean family-Fabaceae. Urena lobata commonly known as caesarweed are used as a cure for hydrophobia. It is member of family-Malvaceae. (@) Brassicaceae family, also known as Cruciferae have floral characters such as raceme, corymb, flower pedicellate, ebracteate, hermaphrodite and actinomorphic. (@ RNA interference is a method of cellular defence which takes place in all eukaryotic organisms. This method involves silencing of specific mRNA due to both sense and antisense RNA, which form a complementory dsRNA molecule that binds and prevents transiation of mRNA. (©) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Genetic drift is the change in allele frequencies in a population from generation to ‘generation that occurs due to chance events. It operates in small population sizes, serve reductions in population size called bottle necks, and founder events where a new population starts from a small number of individuals. Genetic drift leads to fixation of alleles or genotypes in population. It increases the inbreeding coefficient and increases homozygosity as a result of removing alleles. (b) In autumn wood or late wood, the cambium is less active and forms fewer xylary élements that have narrow vessels. (©) Cytoskeleton is a network of filamentous proteinaceous structures consisting of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments. It is involved in mechanical support, motility and ‘mainteriance of the shape of the cell. (b) All the given options are true regarding the stirred tank bioreactor except option (b) and it ean be corrected as, ‘Small volume of cultures can be withdrawn periodically for sampling, (©)1, IL, Ul and IV are the features that contributes to make a plasmid a suitable cloning vector. Other features include, * Itshould be of a small size. + Itmust be self-replicating inside the host cell. + The vector DNA must be have ori, restriction site, cloning site and selectable markers. (©) Mangifera indica commonly known as mango belongs to the order-Sapindales. 108 Foundation Builders an example of agellated proton ne hints epi shes cases in humans Other options can be explained as Paramecium - Ciliated protozoans Plasmodium - Sporo7oans Entamocha ~ Amoeboid protozoans 143. (a) In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) isthe major conduit for energy flow In this type of Fo hain, energy at the lowest trophic level is acquired vi. photosynthesis. 1148, (a) The correct matches are A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2. + Fig and wasp show mutualism interaction. In this both the organisms get benefitted. + The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association is a classic example of commensalism. + Nematodes live as parasite in numerous species of fishes. *+ Balanus and Chathamalus show competition in which Balanus dominates the intertidal area and excludes the smaller barnacle Chathamalus from that zone. 145. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. It ‘can be corrected as Each photosystem has all the pigments, (except one molecule of chlorophyll-a) forming a light harvesting system called as antennae. 146. (a) The Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with Oxaloacetic Acid (OAA) and water to yield citric acid, 147. (c) Statements Il, III and IV are correct, whereas statements I and V are incorrect. These can be corrected as * When there are more than one pistils fused together is called syncarpous or free which is called apocarpous. * The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains, *48- (c) All the pairs are correctly matched except option (c), The correct match for itis 2: toxin is coded by ery gene in which ery IAb controls £m borer insect and cry II Ab controls cotton 49, @! In algae and fungi, zygote after its formation A LtB6ES & period of rest or dormancy tot adverse conditions, Tea - (b) Statements 11, LV and V are correct, Other statements are incorr rect and a Sei eaten these can be * Louis Pasteur by his experi ‘periment demonstrated that life comes only from Pre-existing life, : * The universe is vast and a ‘years old, ind very old almost 20 billion NEET «= Practice gy 3 Zoology ea 1 that bind to speci ‘The opioids are the drugs, PeCifie 5. (Te or por preset in our cena Meus id gastrointestinal tract. ‘These are some of the commonly abused drugs wit double wall . (b) The renal tubule begins with a ¢ led 152, oI -ike structure, called Bowman’s capsule. It lop, the glomerular. 153, (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Lysosomes are single membrane bound small sphey organelles that contain hydrolytic enzymes in them, Dy to the presence of such enzymes, they are capable of digesting the own substances of cell. Hence, they are called suicidal bags. 154, (c) When the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia oq their free surface they are known as ciliated epithelim Their function is to move particles in a specific direction. 185. (b) Bioluminescence, i.e. the property of living orgatign to emit light is the characteristic feature of ctenophores 156. (d) A is truc, but R is the false. R can be corrected as Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air that canbe moved in and out of lungs. Its the sum total of TV, IRV and ERV and equals to about 3500-4500 mL, 187. (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining, whereas the inner pleural membrane i in contact with the lung surface, 158. (@)The epididymis located along the posterior surface of cach testis leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen. 159. (c) Except genital herpes, hepatitis-B and HIV infections, other veneral diseases are completely curable if detected early, 160. (@) A is false, but R is true. A can be corrected as Amino acids can be essential or non-essential, The non-essential amino acids can be made by our body while ‘We get essential amino acids through our diet/food. 161. (c) All the statements are correct except statement in option (c). It can be corrected as, The skeletal heterocyclic ring is called purine and Pytimidine, 162. (c) The cells which do not divide further exit G, phase and enters an inactive stage known as Go or quiscent Stage of celll cycle, 163. (b) Competitive inhibition is the Kind of inhibition in which the inhibitor competes with the substrate for binding to the active site of enzyme. > NEET ® Practice Set 3 With increase in substrate concentration, a constant Pgs canbe acheived, However, Km increases as the reaction teaches half the Vy at increased substrate concentration, In non-competitive inhi Kmis changed, (a) Analogous structures are anatomically different and perform similar functions, e.g. lippers of dolphin and penguins. gs. (c) The reaction in option (c) shows the correct enzyme activity. CO, is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin and this binding is related to the partial pressure of C3. The related enzymes facilitates in both, the direction. 6s. (b) Both statement I and statement Il are correct. Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder. This defect occurs due to mutation in certain genes present on the X-chromosome. 467. (0) UAA, UAG, UGA are the terminator codons, which stops the protein synthesis in a cell, ion, the Ving. is lowered and 16h 468. (a) In the absence of lactose, the regulator gene-R produces a repressor protein which binds to operator site and prevents transcription of structural genes. 468, (c) Statements Il, I and V are correct. Statements Iand IV are incorrect and can be corrected as « Platelets which are also called as thrombocytes, are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes. + Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inaetive fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin. 470, (b) The cerebrum is divided into two halves such as left and right cerebral hemispheres. These hemispheres are connected by corpus callosum. 471. (A) All the functions are related to hormones of posterior pituitary except option (d). Its related to pineal gland ‘and melatonin which influences body temperature, pigmentation, et. 172. (c) All statements are correct regarding restriction enzymes except (¢). It can be corrected as Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence. It recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence within the DNA and cuts each of the two strands of the double helix at specific point in their sugar-phosphate backbones, 173. (c) All the options are correct except option (c). It can be corrected as Growth takes place by increase in the number of cells, ‘ather than increase in the size of cells. 174, (@) Statement is correct, but statement IL is incorrect, It can be corrected as In some cnidarians like corals the skeleton is composed of calcium carbonate, The cnidarians exhibit two basic 175. 176. 47. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 109 JSSSSSSSSSSE0408 Foundation Builders| body forms called polyp and medusae. Pleurobrachia belongs to phylum-Ctenophora. (@) Statement I is correct, but statement Il is incorrect. It can be corrected as ‘Nereis, which is an aquatic form of annelids are dieocious, i.e. both the rhale and female reproductive ‘organs are present in separate individual. While ‘earthworm and leeches are monoecious, i.e. both male ‘and female reproductive organs are present in single individual. (b) The presence of water vascular system is the most distinct feature of echinoderms. The members of phylum Echinodermata include Asterias (starfish), Echinus (sea urchin), Cucumaria (sea cucumber), ete. (@) The correct matches are A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4. * Pheretima (Earthworm) is an example of anneli + Laccifer (Lac insect) an economically important insect is the member of phylum-Arthropoda. * Cucumaria (Sea cucumber) is an example of echinoderms. + Branchiostoma (Lancelet) betongs to the subphyla- Cephalochordata (©) Frog exeretes urea and thus is a ureotelic animal, while fishes excrete ammonia and are ammonotelic. Reptiles, birds and insects excrete uric acid in the form of pellet and are uricotelic in nature (d) In birds, fishes, insects, etc. female heterogamety is observed. In birds the male have a pair of Z-chromosomes besides the autosomes, while the females have Z and W chromosomes. (a) The correct matches are A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1. + The DNA polymerase enzyme uses a DNA template to catalyse the polymerisation of deoxynucleotides. ‘+ RNA polymerase-I transcribes rRNA. Whereas RNA polymerase-II transcribes /inRNA and RNA polymerase-III transcribes ‘RNA 5 srRNA and snRNA. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. In humans, the chroionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body called placenta. As the chorion is involved in the formation of placenta, itis, known as chorionic placenta. (b) Statements II, IV and V are correct. Statements I and I are incorrect and can be corrected as ‘+ Mammary glands begin to develop under the influence of oestrogen and progesterone. ‘+ The second polar body and ovum are formed after second meiotic division. 110 Foundation Builders and V are correct, Statements I id can be corrected as nof DNA, RNA and 143, (0) Semen LIV Ed are incest erica technique of Thermo se which scons mati is gar er cus dec sd from sea weeds. ica polysaccharide ext 184, (<) Statement lis correct and statement IT incorrect. Incorrect statement can be corrected as ‘«a-thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA and HBA2 on chromosome 16 of each arent. Thalassemia is a quantitative problem as it ohscrves less synthesis of globin molecules. 485. (a) IgG antibodies transfer from the maternal blood to her foetus through placenta. Iti the only antibody which passess through the placenta, 188. (b) Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant malaria and is the most serious one and can even be fatal 187. (c) The correct matches are A~4, B-1, C-2,D-3, + Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence which involves various barriers like physical, physiological, cytokine and cellular barriers like PMNL neutrophils. + Natural passive immunity is the immunity’best owed by antibodies and are transferred by mother to the child, * Artifical passive immunity isthe type of immunity provided by giving antibodies in the form of injection, e.g, antirabies serum, * Artifical active immunity is the immunity which develops by vaccination. 182. (b) Francis Crick proposed the central dogma in molecular biology, which states that the genetic information flows from DNA — RNA — protein, repletion i Conn 22, rn, Tain, fh Tanue, 128, (b) Some nucleic acid that behave like enzymes are called as ribozymes. These are molecules of ribonucleic acid with catalytic activity, 190, (¢) Matched pair in option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as Hind Is a restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecules ata particular point by recognising a Specific sequence of 6 base pairs, All other matches are correct, 19H. (©) The comrect matches are A-2, B-3, C-4, Del, * Sperms undergo physiological maturation eating increased motility and fetilsing capacity, i.e. capacitation, * Colostrum isthe frst mother milk produced by the ‘mammary glands of humans. NEET = Pr } + Placenta releases several hormones like hum, Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG), human Plceny Lactogen (hPL), oestrogen, progesterone, et + The corpus luteum secretes large amount or progesterone whichis essential for maintenng endometerium. 192. (a) The correct matches are A~4, B-3, C=, D-2, * Excitability is the property of muscle in whieh receives and responds to stimuli. Mascles sort an ihcken 0 do Wor, this pg is known as contractility. Muscles can be setched passively when aed ay this property is known as extensibility, ‘Muscles have a property to return to their origina, shape after contraction and extension, this proper muscle called elasticity. 13. (a) Caleium ions play a very important role in cascae process of blood clotting. It plays a major role inthe conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, 194, (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and it can be corrected as Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum, Rest all the statements are correct. 198. (b) Adchohypophysis also known as anterior pituitary consists of two portions, i.e. pars distalis and pars intermedia, 196. (4) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as ‘The sea anemone that has stinging tentacles hosts the clown fish and protects it from predators, This is an cxample of commensalism as the anemone does not app {0 derive any benefit by hosting the clown fish, 197- (8) Ascaris, the common roundworm and Wucherera, he filaril worm are helminths, which are known to be pathogenic to man, 198. (c) Statements I II and V are not related to nerve impulse. These can be corrected as * The resting membrane has high permeability for K’. * The stimulus of threshold value causes stoppages of Na* —K*ATPase pump. * With the pumping out of K* ions, the neuron interior become negative. 199. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect ad it can be corrected as The cardiac output of atheleies willbe much higher compared to ordinary man, 200. (c) Prophase-I of meiotic division is typically longer and Tore complex in comparison to mitosis. {tis subdivided into 5 phases leptotene, zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis,

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