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Question 1
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What
will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
B. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24
C. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the
next hop
D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
E. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1

Question 2
Refer to the graphic.

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames
received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A

Question 3
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network.
One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from
OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or
routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Question 4
A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without
decreasing network performance?
A. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
B. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
C. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Question 5
Refer to the exhibit, Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3, what is the TTL value for that
ping?

A. 253
B. 252
C. 255
D. 254

Question 6
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default
gateway? (Choose two)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
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Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives
the results that are shown. What is a possible problem?

A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.

B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires easy configuration options and
minimal routing protocol traffic. Which two options provide adequate routing table
information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the
network administrator? (choose two)

A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routers to

CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routers to
InternetRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to
CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouer to advertise all routes to InternetRouter
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

Question 9
Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD
router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two)

A. HFD (config) #ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0

B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Question 10
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network.
The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip
route command. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown
in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?

A. The network has not fully converged.

B. IP routing is not enabled.
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C. A static route is configured incorrectly.

D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

Question 11
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of the all other links is 100Mb/s. A static route
will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward to the internet over the
most direct path available. What configuration of the Manchester router will establish a route
toward to the internet for traffic from workstation on the Manchester LAN?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2

B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.00.0:0:0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2

Question 12
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Question 13
Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet
destined for 10.1.5.65?
Network Interface Next-hop
10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected
10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected
10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected
10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected
10.1.5.0/24 e0 10.1.1.2
10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2
10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3
10.1.5.64/27 s1 10.1.4.4

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4

Question 14
Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two)

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
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Question 15
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London
workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to
accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to
Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the
London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to
10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Question 16
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a
dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. link bandwidth
B. hop count
C. link cost
D. administrative distance
E. link delay
Question 17
Refer to the exhibit:

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this
transmission?
A.

B.

C.

D.
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E.

F.

Question 18
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Question 19
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates
F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

Question 20
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The
networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF
routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration
error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D. The network number is configured improperly.
E. The AS is configured improperly.
F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.
Question 21

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are
participating in OSPF.
Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this
configuration statement? (Choose three)
A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0/1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104

Question 22
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing
of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 16
B. 2
C. unlimited
D. 4

Question 23
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure
OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
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Question 24
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)
A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
B. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
C. to speed up convergence
D. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
F. to reduce routing overhead

Question 25
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network
192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (choose two)
A. Router(config)#router ospf 1
B. Router(config)#router ospf 0
C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
F. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Question 26
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been
manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?
RouterD# show ip interface brief

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.316

Question 27
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 120
B. 100
C. 90
D. 110
Question 28
Why R1 can’t establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3 according to the following
graphic? (Choose two)

A – Configure EIGRP on these routers with a lower administrative distance

B – All routers should be configured for backbone Area 1
C – R1 and R3 have been configured in different areas
D – The hello and dead interval timers are not configured the same values on R1 and R3

Question 29
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load

Question 30
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The
routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic
shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on
the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
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A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Question 31
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its
topological database? (Choose two)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Question 32
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database

Question 33
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.

B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router

Question 34
Which is true about OSPF router-id? (Choose two)
A. It is used for type 1 router LSA
B. Highest IP address of the loopback is used
C. router-id needs to be matched on ospf neighbors
D. router-id is 16 bit
Question 35
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to
confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The
retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked.
What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors

Question 36
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within
the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
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Question 37
Refer to the exhibit, when running EIGRP what is required for R1 to exchange routing
updates with R3?

A – AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

B – Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C – The no auto-summary command is needed on R1 and R3
D – R2 needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Question 38
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a primary route,stored in the routing table
B. a backup route,stored in the routing table
C. a backup route,stored in the topology table
D. a primary route,stored in the topology table

Question 39
Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets
take from a host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

R3# show ip route

Gateway of last resort is not set
192 168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
D 192.168.10.64/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
D 192.168.10.0/30 [90/2681856] via 192.168.10.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.4/30 is directly connected, Serial0/1
C 192.168.10.8/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 192.168.10.192/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
D 192.168.10.128/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.10.5,00:03:31, Serial0/1

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1