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Chapter 1 - Matter In Our SurrOundIngS

Question 1: Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, cold drink, smell of perfume.
ANSWER: Chair, air, almonds, cold drink.
Question 2: Give reasons for the following observation:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go
close.
ANSWER- Because the rate of diffusion of particles of hot sizzling food is high due to high temperature.
Question 3: A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this
observation show?
ANSWER- Because liquid particles have intermolecular force and has less force of attraction between them.
Question 4: What are the characteristics of particles of matter?
ANSWER-
(i) Particles of matter have space between them.
(ii) Particles of matter are continuously moving.
(iii) Particles of mater attract each other.
Question 5: The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density (density = mass/volume). Arrange the
following in order of increasing density − air, exhaust from chimney, honey, water, chalk, cotton, and iron.
ANSWER- Air < Exhaust from chimney < Cotton < Water < Honey < Chalk < Iron
Question 6:
(a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy,
and density.
ANSWER-
(a) The differences in the characteristics of states of matter:
S. No. Solid state Liquid state Gaseous state
1. It has definite shape It has no definite shape, but It neither has a definite shape
and volume. has definite volume. nor a definite volume.
2. It is incompressible It is compressible to a small extent. It is highly compressible.

3. The force of attraction The force of attraction The force of attraction between
between the particles of between liquid particles is less the gaseous particles is least.
solids is highest. than solid particles but greater
than gas particles.

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4. Particles of solid cannot Liquid particles move freely. Gaseous particles are in a
move freely. continuous and random motion.

(b) Rigidity: The tendency of matter to resist a change in shape.

Compressibility: The ability to reduce in volume when force is applied.
Fluidity: It is the ability of matter to flow. Only liquid and gases can flow and are called fluid.
Filling a gas container: Gas fill the container, because the gas particles have less force of attraction and large
space between the particles.
Shape: It means a definite boundary. Only solids have definite volume.
Kinetic energy: The energy possessed by a particle due to its motion.
Density: Mass per unit volume.
Question 7: Give reasons:
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air, but to do the same through a solid block of wood, we need a karate
expert.
ANSWER-
(a) Because the gas particles have less force of attraction and large space between the particles.
(b) Because the gas particles continuously collide with the walls of the container.
(c) Because a wooden table has a definite shape and volume.
(d) Because air particles have large space in between them, whereas wood has little space between the particles.
Question 8: Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats
on water. Find out why.
ANSWER- Ice is a solid but it has large number of empty spaces in its structure.
Question 9: Convert the following temperature to Celsius scale:
(a) 300 K (b) 573 K
ANSWER- (HINT- To convert Kelvin scale into Celsius scale subtract 273 )
(a) 300 K = (300 −273) °C = 27°C
(b) 573 K = (573 −273) °C= 300°C
Question 10: What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 250°C (b) 100°C
ANSWER-
(a) Gaseous state.
(b) Both liquid and gaseous states.
Question 11: For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state?
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ANSWER- Because all the heat supplied is utilized to supply latent heat of vaporization.
Question 12: Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
ANSWER- Atmospheric gases can be liquefied by applying pressure and reducing the temperature.
Question 13: Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?
ANSWER- As we know that evaporation causes cooling. Due to high rate of evaporation on hot dry day desert cooler
cool better on a hot dry day.
Question 14: How does water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summers?
ANSWER- As we know that evaporation causes cooling. Due to high rate of evaporation through tiny pores, the water
inside the pot becomes cool during summers.
Question 15: Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it?
ANSWER- As we know that evaporation causes cooling. Due to high rate of evaporation of acetone or petrol or perfume
from our palm, we feel cold palm.
Question16: Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer than a cup?
ANSWER- Because hot tea or milk has a larger surface area in a saucer than in a cup. Rate of evaporation is faster in case
of greater surface area. Thus, the liquid cools faster in a saucer than in a cup.
Question 17: What type of clothes should we wear in summers?
ANSWER- In summer, we should wear cotton clothes because cotton clothes can absorb more sweat from our body and
evaporates the liquid to the atmosphere and makes the body cool.

EXERCISE
Question 1: Convert the following temperatures to Celsius scale.
(a) 300 K (b) 573 K
ANSWER- (HINT- To convert Kelvin scale into Celsius scale subtract 273 )
(a) 300 K = (300 − 273) °C = 27 °C
(b) 573 K = (573 − 273) °C = 300 °C
Question 2: Convert the following temperatures to Kelvin scale.
(a) 25°C (b) 373°C
ANSWER- (HINT- To convert Celsius scale into Kelvin scale add 273 )
(a) 25 °C = (25 + 273) K = 298 K
(b) 373°C = (373 + 273) K= 646 K
Question 3: Give reason for the following observations.
(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several meters away.
ANSWER-
(a) Because Naphthalene (Camphor) converts directly into gas from solid state by process sublimation.
(b) Because gas particles of perfume diffuse into air at a very faster rate and reach to our nose.

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Question 4: Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between particles − water,
sugar, oxygen.
ANSWER- Oxygen < Water < Sugar
Question 5: What is the physical state of water at:
(a) 25°C (b) 0°C (c) 100°C
ANSWER-
(a) At 25°C, water exists in the liquid state.
(b) At 0 °C, water can exist as both solid and liquid.
(c) At 100 °C, water can exist as both liquid and gas.
Question 6: Give two reasons to justify:
(a) Water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.
ANSWER-
(a) Because room temperature (25 °C) is between melting point (0 °C) and boiling point (100 °C) of water, and water
has no definite shape but has a fixed volume at room temperature
(b) Because iron has definite shape and volume at room temperature.
Question 7: Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?
ANSWER- Because ice at 273 K has less energy than water because water possesses the additional energy of latent heat
of fusion.
Question 8: What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?
ANSWER- Steam has more energy than boiling water because it possesses the additional energy of latent heat of
vaporization. Therefore, steam produces more severe burns than boiling water.
Question 9: Name A, B, C, D, E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state.

ANSWER- A. Fusion ; B. Vapourisation ; C. Condensation ;

D. Solidification ; E. Sublimation ; F. Sublimation.

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Chapter 2 -Is Matter around us Pure

Question 1: What is meant by a pure substance?
ANSWER: A pure substance is that one that consist of a single type of particles.
Question 2: List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures. OR
Question 3: Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.
ANSWER-

HOMOGENEOUS MIXTURE HETEROGENEOUS MIXTURE

1) They have uniform composition throughout its mass. They do not have uniform composition.

2) Those mixtures in which the substances are Those mixtures in which the substances are not
completely mixed together. completely mixed together.

3) It has no visible boundaries of separation between

It has visible boundaries.
various constituents.

4) For Ex: Sugar solution, salt solution, alcohol and

For Ex: Sugar and sand, blood etc.
water etc.

Question 4: How are sol (Colloid), solution and suspension different from each other?
ANSWER- Sol (Colloid) is heterogeneous mixtures in which the solute particle’s size is between 1 nanometer and 1000
nanometer. They seem to be spread uniformly throughout the mixture. They show tyndall effect. For ex: fog and blood.
Solution is a homogenous mixture in which solute particle’s size is less than 1 nanometer. Solutions do not show Tyndall
effect. For ex: Salt in water, sugar in water.
A suspension is heterogeneous mixture in which solute particle’s size is more than 1000 nm. For ex: Chalk and water,
muddy water.
Question 5: To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K.
Find its concentration at this temperature.
ANSWER- Concentration of solution = mass of solute/ mass of solution
So, Concentration of solution = = . %

Question 6: Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

• Cutting of trees - Physical change.
• Melting of butter in a pan - Physical change.
• Rusting of almirah - Chemical change.
• Boiling of water to form steam- Physical change.
• Passing of electric current, through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases - Chemical
change.
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• Dissolving common salt in water- Physical change.
• Making a fruit salad with raw fruits- Physical change.
• Burning of paper and wood - Chemical change.
Question 10 Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures.
ANSWER- Pure substances : Iron, gold and water.
Mixtures: soil, wood, air, book, chair , cold drink, milk, butter, food

EXERCISE
Question 1: Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble,
insoluble, filtrate and residue.
ANSWER- 1) Water , the solvent is taken in a kettle and is allowed to boil.
2) During heating, sugar and tea leaves are added as solute.
3) Milk, tea leaves and sugar together form solution. Sugar dissolves in milk.
4) Then the solution is poured on a strainer.
5) The remaining tea leaves being insoluble remains as residue.
6) Colour of the tea leaves goes into solution as filtrate.
Question 2: Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the
data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water
to form a saturated solution).

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50
grams of water at 313 K?
ANSWER- At 313 K
Mass of potassium nitrate needed to produce its saturated solution in 100g of water is 62 g.
Mass of potassium nitrate needed to produce its saturated solution in 50g of water is 31 g.

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(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at
room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
ANSWER- The amount of potassium chloride that should be dissolved in water to make a saturated solution increases
with temperature. As the solution cools down some amount of dissolved potassium chloride will reappear as undissolved
solid.
(c) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
ANSWER- The solubility of salt increases with temperature.
Question 3: Explain the following giving examples.
(a) Saturated solution
ANSWER- A solution in which no more quantity of solute can be dissolved at given temperature is called
saturated solution. For example when we dissolve salt in water, salt stops to dissolve in water after some time, this is
known as saturated solution.
(b) Pure substance
ANSWER-A pure substance is one which is made up of only one kind of particles (atoms or molecules).
For ex: Iron element is made up of only one kind of iron atom.
(c) Colloid
Answer- Colloid is heterogeneous mixtures in which the solute particle’s size is between 1 nanometer and 1000
nanometer. They seem to be spread uniformly throughout the mixture. They show tyndall effect. For ex: fog and blood.
(d) Suspension
Answer: A suspension is heterogeneous mixture in which solute particle’s size is more than 1000 nm. For ex:
Chalk and water, muddy water.
Question 4: Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.
soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.
Answer- Homogeneous mixture: Soda water, air, vinegar, filtered tea
Heterogeneous mixture: wood, soil
Question 5: How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?
Answer: Pure water has a boiling point of 100°C (at 1 atmospheric pressure). If the colourless liquid boils exactly at
100°C then it is a pure water.
Question 6: Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?
(a) Ice, (b) Milk, (c) Iron, (d) Hydrochloric acid, (e) Calcium oxide,
(f) Mercury (g) Brick (h) Wood (i) Air.
Answer: Ice, Iron, Hydrochloric acid, Calcium oxide and Mercury are pure substances.
Question 7- Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.
(a) Soil, (b) Sea water, (c) Air, (d) Coal, (e) Soda water.
Answer: Sea water, Air, Soda water.

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Question 8- Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?
(a) Salt solution, (b) Milk, (c) Copper sulphate solution, (d) Starch solution.
Answer: Milk and Starch solution show Tyndall effect
Question 9: Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.
(a) Sodium, (b) Soil, (c) Sugar solution, (d) Silver,
(e) Calcium carbonate, (f) Tin, (g) Silicon, (h) Coal,
(i) Air, (j) Soap, (k) Methane, (l) Carbon dioxide,
(m) Blood.
Answer: Elements: Sodium, silver, tin, silicon
Compounds: Calcium carbonate, methane, carbon dioxide
Mixtures: Soil, coal, air, soap, blood, sugar solution
Question 10: Which of the following are chemical changes?
(a) Growth of a plant- Chemical change.
(b) Rusting of iron- Chemical change.
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand- Physical change.
(d) Cooking of food- Chemical change.
(e) Digestion of food- Chemical change.
(f) Freezing of water- Physical change.
(g) Burning of a candle- Chemical change.

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Chapter 12–Improvement In food resources

Question 1: What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?
Answer- Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy. Pulses give proteins which build our body.
Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals.
Question 2: How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?
Answer- Two major factors that affect the crop are:
• Biotic factors like insects, rodents, pests, and many more spread the disease and reduce crop production.
• Abiotic factors like humidity, temperature, moisture, wind, rain, flood and many more destroy the crop raised.
Question 3: What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?
Answer- The essential agronomic features required for crop improvement are:
• Profuse branching along with tallness in any fodder crop
• Dwarfness in any cereals.
Question 4: What are macro-nutrients and why are they called macro-nutrients?
Answer- Macro-nutrients are the essential elements which are utilized by plants in large quantities. As they are
required in large quantities they are called macro-nutrients e.g., carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen,
phosphorus, potassium, calcium, etc.
Question 5: How do plants get nutrients ?
Answer- Plants get nutrients from air, water and soil. There are, sixteen nutrients essential for the growth of
plants. Carbon and Oxygen are supplied by water. The remaining thirteen nutrients are supplied by soil.
Question 6: Compare the use of manures and fertilisers in maintaining soil fertility.
Answer-
Manures Fertilisers
1. Manure is organic matter. 2. Fertilizers are inorganic substances.
2. The manures enrich the soil with humus. 2. The fertilizers do not enrich the soil with humus.
3. They reduce soil erosion. 3. They do not reduce soil erosion.
4. They are prepared from animals and plants 4. They are produced in factories from chemicals.
wastages.
5. Manures have less concentration of nutrients. 5. Fertilizers are rich in specific nutrients.
6. Manures increase soil fertility. 6. Long time use of fertilizers decrease soil fertility.
Question 7: Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?
(a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilizers.
(b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilizer.
(c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilizer and use crop protection measures. (✓)
Question 8: Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting
crops ?
Answer- Diseases in plants are caused by pathogens. To get rid of pathogens, some preventive measures and
biological control methods are used as they are simple, economic and minimise pollution without affecting the
soil quality.
Question 9: What factors are responsible for losses of grains during storage ?
Answer- (i) Abiotic factors like moisture (present in food grains), humidity (of air) and temperature.
(ii) Biotic factors like insects, rodents, birds, mites, bacteria and fungi

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Question 10: Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Answer- Cross breading is generally the best method adopted for improving the cattle breed quality. In this
method, breeding is between two good cattle breed results in a new improved variety of cattle breed or
offspring. While breeding, it is taken care to have a good resultant with high yield having resistance to climatic
conditions.
Question 11: Discuss the implications of the following statement: “It is interesting to note that poultry is
India’s most efficient converter of low fiber food stuff into highly nutritious animal protein food.”
Answer- The poultry birds are efficient converters of agricultural by products, particularly cheaper fibrous
wastes into high quality meat and in providing egg, feathers and nutrient rich manure. So, the given statement is
correctly said for the poultry birds.
Question 12: What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Answer- (1) Well designed and hygienic shelter.
(2) Proper food is required to get good yield of egg and meat.
(3) Complete protection from diseases causing agents like virus, bacteria or fungi.
Question 13: What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?
Answer- Broilers: The poultry bird raised for meat purpose is called broiler. Broilers feed on protein rich
adequate fat food. The level of vitamins A and K is kept high in the poultry feeds.
Layers: The egg laying poultry bird is called layer. The housing, environmental and nutritional requirements of
broilers vary from those of egg layers. Layers require proper lightning and enough space.
Question 14: How are fish obtained?
Answer- There are two ways of obtaining fish. One is from natural resources, which is called capture fishing.
The other way is by fish farming, which is called culture fishery.
Question 15: What are the advantages of composite fish culture?
Answer- Advantages of composite fish culture are: (i) In a single fish pond, a combination of 5 or 6 types of
fish species can be cultured since they do not compete for food among them.
(ii) Food resource can be completely utilized
(iii) Survival of the fish also increases, (iv) More yield.
Question 16: What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?
Answer- (i) The variety of bee should yield large amount of honey.
(ii) The bees should stay for a longer period in bee hives
(iii) The bees should not sting much.
(iv) Bee should be disease resistant.
Question 17: What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
Answer- Pasturage refers to the availability of flowers to the bees for easy accessibility for pollen collection
and nectar. Kinds of flowers available will determine the taste of the honey.
EXERCISE QUESTION-ANSWERS
Question 1: Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.
Answer- Plant breeding is one of the methods adopted for high yield plant breeding and is implemented to
improve the varieties of crops by breeding plants. Plants from various places/areas are picked up with preferred
traits and then the process of hybridization or cross-breeding is done among these diversities to get a crop/plant
of anticipated characteristic.
Question 2: Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

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Answer- They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches and flowers), giving rise to healthy
plants, that results in high crop production.
Question 3: What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop rotation ?
Answer- Advantages of using inter-cropping:
1. It helps to maintain soil fertility.
2. It increases productivity per unit area.
3. Save labour and time.
4. Both crops can be easily harvested and processed separately.
Advantages of using crop rotation:
1. It improves the soil fertility.
2. It avoids depletion of a particular nutrient from soil.
3. It minimise pest infestation and diseases.
4. It helps in weed control.
5. It prevents change in the chemical nature of the soil.
Question 4: What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?
Answer- Genetic manipulation is process in which the transfer of genes takes place from one organism to
another. Here gene of a particular character is introduced inside the chromosome cell and hence results in a
transgenic plant.
Genetic manipulation is useful in developing varieties which have increased yield, better quality, shorter and
early maturity period, better adaptability to adverse environmental conditions, well as desirable characteristics.
Question 5: How do storage grain losses occur?
Answer- The factors responsible for loss of grains during storage are:
 Abiotic factors like moisture (present in food grains), humidity (of air) and temperature.
 Biotic factors like insects, rodents, birds, mites and bacteria.
Question 6: How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers ?
Answer- Good practice of animal husbandry benefits farmers by following ways:
• Yields in good quality cattle.
• Better quality of milk production.
• Use in agriculture for carting, irrigation and tilling.
Question 7: What are the benefits of cattle farming?
Answer- Benefits of cattle farming are:
• Cattles are used in agricultural purpose.
• Generation of good quality cattle.
• Milking and meat purpose.
• Skin of cattle is used for leather and wool industry.
Question 8: For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping ?
Answer- Through cross breeding, the production of poultry, fisheries and bee keeping can be increased.
Question 9: How do you differentiate between capture fishing, marine culture, and aquaculture ?
Answer- Capture fishing: It is a technique in which fishes are captured from various sources of natural
resources like sea, rives, lake and pond.
Marine culture: culturing of fish in marine fishes like prawns, oyster, bhetki and mullets in marine water for
commercial use.
Aquaculture: Involves in culturing of fish in both marine and fresh water.

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Chapter 5 –The FundamenTal uniT oF liFe

Question 1: Who discovered cells and how?
ANSWER: Cell was discovered by Robert Hooke in 1665. He used self-designed microscope to observe cells in a cork
slice.
Question 2: Why the cell is called the structural and functional unit of life?
ANSWER- Because cells make body of every living organism and the basic functions of life like respiration, assimilation
and all major metabolic activities are carried inside the cell. So, cell is known as structural and functional units of living
organism.
Question 3: How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.
ANSWER- The substances like CO2 and water move in and out of a cell through the process called diffusion from the
region of high concentration to region to low concentration.
Question 4: Why the plasma membrane is called a selectively permeable membrane?
ANSWER- Because Plasma membrane allows only some selected substances to move in and out of the cell. Question 5:
Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?
ANSWER- Mitochondria and plastids.
Question 6: If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?
ANSWER- Some of the important function of the cell will stop and it may result in the death of the cell.
Question 7: Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?
ANSWER- Lysosomes are called suicide bags because in case of any disturbance of their cellular metabolism they
release their own enzymes to digest their own cell.
Question 8: Where are proteins synthesized inside the cell?
ANSWER- In the Ribosome.

EXERCISE
Question 1: Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.
ANSWER- Plant cell Animal cell
1-It’s shape is rectangular 1-It’s shape is oval
2-Vacuole is large in size 2-Vacuoles are small in size
3-Cell wall is present 3-Cell wall is absent
4-Chloroplast is present 4-Chloroplast is absent
5-Centrisome is absent 5-Centrosome is present.
Question 2: How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?
ANSWER-
Prokaryotic cells Eukaryotic cells
1- Nucleolus is absent 1- Nucleolus is present.

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2- Absence of a nuclear membrane. 2- Presence of a nuclear membrane.
3. These cells are smaller in size. 3. These cells are bigger in size.
4. It contains a single chromosome. 4. It contains more than one chromosome.

Question 3: What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?
ANSWER- Then the protoplasmic material will disappear and the cell will die.
Question 4: What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?
ANSWER- Golgi apparatus performs the function of a storage modification and packaging of products. If Golgi
apparatus is not there then materials synthesized by cell will not be packaged and transported.
Question 5: Which organelle is known as the power house of the cell? Why?
Answer- Mitochondria are known as the power house of cells because it releases the energy required for various activities
of life.
Question 6: Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesized?
Answer: In ER ( Endoplasmic Reticulum).
Question 7: How does an Amoeba obtain its food?
Answer: Amoeba obtains its food through the false feet called pseudopodia. Whenever food particle come in the contact
of Amoeba, it acquires its food by the process known as endocytosis.
Question 8- What is osmosis?
Answer: Osmosis is the process of movement of the water molecules from the region of high water concentration to a
region of low water concentration through a semi permeable membrane.

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Chapter 6 –TISSUES
Question 1: What is a tissue?
Answer: A group of cells that are similar in structure and functions grouped together to form a tissue.
Question 2: What is the utility of tissues in multi-cellular organisms?
Answer- Different tissues carry out different functions. This is called division of labour. A tissue gives the highest
possible efficiency of function in multi-cellular organisms.
Question 3: Name types of simple tissues.
Answer- (i). Parenchyma, (ii). Collenchyma, (iii). Sclerenchyma
Question 4: Where is apical meristem found?
Answer- Apical meristem is found at the growing tips of stems and roots. It helps in increasing the length of stem and
root.
Question 5: Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?
Answer- Sclerenchyma
Question 6: What are the constituents of the phloem?
Answer- Phloem is made up four types of elements. They are:
(i) Sieve tubes
(ii) Companion cells
(iii) Phloem parenchyma
(iv) Phloem fibres.
Question 7: Name the tissue responsible for movement in our body.
Answer- Muscular tissue.
Question 8: What does a neuron look like?
Answer- A neuron or a nerve cell consists of a cell body with a nucleus and cytoplasm. Many long thin hair-like
cytoplasmic extensions arise from the cell body called as dendrites. A single long extension is called the axon.

Question 9 : Give three features of cardiac muscles.

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Answer- i. Cardiac muscles show rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout the life.
ii. They are cylindrical, branched and uninucleated.
iii. Cardiac muscles are involuntary muscles.
Question 10: What are the functions of areolar tissue?
Answer- Areolar tissues are found between the skin and muscle as well as around the blood vessels. This tissue fills the
gap between the organs and protects the internal organs. It also repairs the damaged tissues.

EXERCISE
Question 1: Define the term “tissue”.
Answer: A group of cells that are similar in structure and functions grouped together to form a tissue.
Question 2: How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue? Name them.
Answer: There are four different types of cells that make up the xylem tissue. They are:-
1. Tracheids
2. Vessels
3. Xylem fibres
4. Xylem parenchyma
Question 3: How are simple tissues different from complex tissues in plants?
Answer:
Simple tissue Complex tissue
1.These tissues are made up of more than one type of
1. Simple tissues consist of only one type of cells cells.
2. The cells of complex tissue may perform different
2.The cells of simple tissue perform similar function. functions.
3.Example of simple tissues are collenchymas, parenchyma 3. Examples of complex tissues are xylem and phloem.
and sclerenchyma

Question 4: Differentiate between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma, on the basis of their cell wall.
Answer:
Parenchyma Collenchyma Sclerenchyma
Cell wall is thin Cell wall is thick Cell wall is very thick also hard and rigid
Question 5: What are the functions of the stomata?
Answer: Functions of the stomata:
1. The exchange of gases (CO2 and O2) with the atmosphere.
2. The loss of excess water in the form of water vapour. This process is known as transpiration.
Question 6: Diagrammatically show the difference between the three types of muscle fibres.
Answer: (a) Striated Muscle, (b) Smooth Muscle, (c) Cardiac Muscle

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Question 7: What is the specific function of the cardiac muscle?

Answer: The specific function of the cardiac muscle is to control the contraction and relaxation of the heart.
Question 8- Differentiate between striated, unstriated and cardiac muscles on the basis of their structure and
site/location in the body.
Answer:
Striated muscle Unstriated muscle Cardiac muscle
1. They are cylindrical in shape and 1. They spindle shaped and uninucleate. 1.They are cylindrical branched
multi nucleate. and uninucleate.
2. They are present in body parts such 1. They are present in the wall of food canal, 1. They are present in the heart.
as hands and legs. stomach, mouth, iris etc.

Question 9: Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron.

Answer:

Question 10: Name the following:

1. Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth → squamous epithilium
2. Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans → tendons
3. Tissue that transports food in plants → Phloem
4. Tissue that stores fat in our body → Adipose tissue
5. Connective tissue with a fluid matrix → Blood

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6. Tissue present in the brain → Nervous tissue
Question 11: Identify the type of tissue in the following: skin, bark of tree, bone, lining of kidney tubule, vascular
bundle.
Answer: - Skin: Stratified squamous epithelial tissue
Bark of tree: cork (secondary meristem)
Bone: Connective tissue
Lining of kidney tubule: Cuboidal epithilium
Vascular bundle: Complex permanent tissue (Xylem and Phloem)
Question 12: Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is present.
Answer: The parenchyma tissue is present in leaves, fruits, and flowers of a plant.
Question 13: What is the role of epidermis in plants?
Answer: Role of epidermis in plants:
i. Protection of the underlying cells and tissues.
ii. Prevention of water loss.
iii. Prevention of mechanical injury and attack by parasitic fungi.
iv. Exchange of gases and transpiration through stomata.
Question 14: How does the cork act as a protective tissue?
Answer: Several layers of epidermal cells constitute the cork. These cells are dead and compactly arranged without
intercellular spaces. They also possess a chemical called suberin in their walls which makes them impervious to water and
gases.
Question 15: Complete the table:

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Chapter 11 –Sound
Question 1: How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?
Answer- When a disturbance is created on an object, it starts vibrating and sets the particles of the medium to
vibrate. These vibrating particles take the sound from object to our ear through the medium.
Question 2: Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.
Answer- When the school bell is struck with a hammer, it starts vibrating and as a result of these vibrations,
sound waves are produced.
Question 3: Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?
Answer- Because sound waves require a medium to propagate to interact with the particles present in it.
Question 4: Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced
by your friend?
Answer- No, we will not be able to hear the sound because sound requires a medium for its propagation. On the
moon there is no atmosphere, i.e., there is vacuum.
Question 5: Which wave property determines (a) loudness, (b) pitch?
Answer- (a) Loudness is determined by the amplitude of the sound wave which in turn depends on the force
with which the object is made to vibrate.
(b) Pitch of a sound is determined by its frequency.
Question 6: Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?
Answer- Guitar.
Question 7: What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?
Answer-(a) Wavelength(λ) : The distance between two consecutive compressions (C) or two consecutive
rarefactions (R) is called the wavelength, unit-metre.
(b) Frequency : The number of oscillations per unit time is called frequency, unit-Hz.
(c) Time period : The time taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed point is
called the time period.
(d) Amplitude : The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the mean
value is called the amplitude of the wave.
Question 8: How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?
Answer- Speed = Wavelength x Frequency.
Question 9: Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in
a given medium.
Answer- Frequency = f = 220 Hz
Speed of sound = v = 440 m/s
Wavelength = λ = = = 2 m.
Question 10: A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the
sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?
Answer- Frequency = f = 500 Hz
Time between successive compressions = Time period of sound wave = T = = = 0.002 sec.
Question 11: Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.

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Answer-
Loudness of sound Intensity of sound
1. Loudness refers to how loud or soft a sound seems 1. Intensity is defined as the power carried by sound
to a listener. waves per unit area.
2. Loudness of sound is determined of amplitude. 2. Intensity of the sound wave is determined by
frequency of sound waves.
3. The unit of loudness is the decibel (dB). 3. The unit of intensity of sound is watt per square
meter (W/m2).

Question 12: In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular
temperature?
Answer- Iron (Solid).
Question 13: An echo is heard in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given
that the speed of sound is 342 ms-1 ?
Answer- Time = 3 sec
Speed of sound = v = 342 m/s
Let the distance of reflecting surface from the source is = S
Then, total distance travelled by sound is = 2S
Now, Speed =
342 = ; 2S = 342 x 3 ; S= =513 m.
Question 14: Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?
Answer- Ceilings of concert halls are curved to uniformly spread sound in all directions after reflecting from
the walls.
Question 15: What is the audible range of the average human ear?
Answer- 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Question 16: What is the range of frequencies associated with (a) Infrasound? (b) Ultrasound?
Answer- (a) Infrasound: Less than 20 Hz ; (b) Ultrasound: More than 20000 Hz
EXERCISE QUESTION-ANSWERS
Question 1: What is sound and how is it produced?
Answer- Sound is a form of energy and it is produced due to vibrations of different types of objects.
Question 2: Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in the
air near a source of sound.
Answer- (1) When a vibrating object moves forward, it pushes the air in front of it and compresses the air
creating a region of high pressure called compression (C).
(2) It starts moving away from the surface of the vibrating object.
(3) As this occurs the surface moves backward creating a region of low pressure called rarefaction (R)

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Question 3: Why sound wave is called a longitudinal wave?

Answer- A sound wave is called a longitudinal wave as it travels in a medium by the vibration of particles in a
direction which is parallel to the direction of propagation of the sound wave.
Question 4: Which characteristics of the sound help you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting
with others in a dark room?
Answer- The quality (or timbre), pitch and loudness of sound.
Question 5: Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the
flash is seen, why?
Answer- The speed of light is much higher than speed of sound. Due to this reason, the thunder takes more time
to reach the Earth as compared to the light. Hence, lightning is seen before whenever we hear the thunder.
Question 6: A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of
sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 m/s.
Answer- Speed of sound = v = 344 m/s.
For Minimum audible frequency
Frequency = f = 20 Hz
Wavelength = λ = = = 17.2 m
For Maximum audible frequency
Frequency = f = 20000 Hz
Wavelength = λ = = = 0.0172 m
Question 7: Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminum rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a
stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in the air and in aluminum to reach the second
child.
Answer- Speed of sound in air = Vair = 344 m/s
Speed of sound in aluminum = Valuminum = 6420 m/s
As time is inversely proportional to the speed hence:
Tair / Taluminum = Valuminum / Vair = 6420 / 344 = 1605 : 86
Question 8: The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?

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Answer- Frequency = 100 Hz
Number of vibrations in 1 second = 100
Number of vibrations in 60 second = 100 x 60
Number of vibrations in 1 minute = 6000.
Question 9: Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.
Answer- Yes, sound follows the same laws of reflection as light does because,
(1) Angle of incidence of sound is always equal to angle of reflection of sound waves.
(2) The direction in which sound is incident, the direction in which it is reflected and normal all lie in the
same plane.
Question 10: When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance
between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear echo
sound on a hotter day?
Answer- An echo is heard when time interval between the reflected sound and the original sound is at least 0.1
second. As the temperature increases, the speed of sound in a medium also increases. On a hotter day, the time
interval between the reflected and original sound will decrease and an echo is audible only if the time interval
between the reflected sound and the original sound is greater than 0.1 s.
Question 11: Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.
Answer- (i) Reflection of sound is used to measure the speed and distance of underwater objects. This method
is called SONAR.
(ii) Working of a stethoscope - the sound of patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ear through multiple
reflections of sound.
Question 12: A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of
the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1 .
Answer- Height of tower = S = 500 m
Acceleration due to gravity = g = 10 m/s2
Initial speed of stone = u = 0
By equation of motion, S = ut + at2
500 = 0 x t + x 10 x t2
t2 = = 100
Hence, t = 10 sec
Now time taken by sound to reach to the top of tower = T = = = 1.47 sec
Total time takes to hear splash after dropping the stone = t + T = 10 + 1.47 = 11.47 sec.
Question 13: A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m/s. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the
frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Answer- Speed of sound = v = 339 m/s
.
Wavelength = λ = 1.5 cm = = 0.015 m
Frequency = = = 22600 Hz
.
The sound is not audible as its frequency lies beyond the audible range (20 Hz to 20000 Hz).
Question 14: What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

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Answer- The continuous multiple reflections of sound in a big enclosed space is reverberation. It can be
reduced by covering walls and ceiling of enclosed space with the help of sound absorbing materials such as
loose woolens, fibre boards.
Question 15: What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?
Answer- Loudness refers to how loud or soft a sound seems to a listener. Loudness of sound is determined of
amplitude. The unit of intensity is the decibel (dB).
Question 16: How is ultrasound used for cleaning?
Answer- Objects that need to be cleansed are put in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic sound waves are passed
through the solution. The high frequency of ultrasound waves helps in detaching the dirt from the objects.
Question 17: Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.
Answer- Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to
pass through the metallic block and detectors are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is even a small
defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the presence of the flaw or defect.

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