This booklet contains 40 Printed pages. Test Booklet No.

/ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ

ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ 40 ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ¬Îc∆U „Ò¥– RAS-24
ACT TEST BOOKLET / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Test Booklet Code / ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê Ã’ Ã∑§ Ÿ πÊ‹¥ ¡’ Ã∑§ ∑§„Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞–
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ Á¬¿U‹ •Êfl⁄UáÊ ¬⁄U ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥– F2
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES ¬⁄UˡÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed 1. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ •ãŒ⁄U ⁄UπÊ „Ò– ¡’ •Ê¬∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars
on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê πÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ∑§„Ê ¡Ê∞, ÃÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ ∑§⁄U ¬Îc∆U-1 ∞fl¥ ¬Îc∆-U2 ¬⁄U
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/ äÿÊŸ ‚ ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ‚ Áflfl⁄UáÊ ÷⁄¥U–
marking responses in the Answer Sheet. 2. ß‚ ¬Îc∆U ¬⁄U Áflfl⁄UáÊ •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ‹ªÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞
3. The CODE for this Booklet is F2. Make sure that the CODE printed on ∑§fl‹ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚߥ≈U ¬Ÿ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U–
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Booklet. Also ensure 3. ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U F2 „Ò– ÿ„ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄U ‹¥ Á∑§ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê
that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of ∑§Ê«U, ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ∑§Ê«U ‚ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„ ÷Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄U
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet of
‹¥ Á∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ Á◊‹Ã „Ò¥– •ª⁄U ÿ„ Á÷ÛÊ
Same Code. „Ê¥ ÃÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ©‚Ë ∑§Ê«U ∑§Ê ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ‹Ÿ ∑§
4. The test is of 2½ hours duration and consists of 150 questions without any Á‹∞ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ÃÈ⁄Uãà •flªÃ ∑§⁄UÊ∞°–
time limit for each part of the Test individually. 4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Ë •flÁœ 2½ ÉÊ¥≈ „Ò¥ ∞fl¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ 150 ¬˝‡Ÿ „¥Ò– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ
5. This Test Booklet has four Parts, I, II, III and IV consisting of 150 ∑§ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ÷ʪ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ ‚◊ÿ ‚Ë◊Ê Ãÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò–
Objective Type Questions and each carries 2 marks. All the questions/
parts are compulsory. Two (2) marks shall be awarded to every 5. ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ øÊ⁄U ÷ʪ I, II, III •ÊÒ⁄U IV „Ò¥, Á¡Ÿ◊¥ 150 flSÃÈÁŸc∆U
correct answer and 0.5 shall be deducted for every incorrect answer. ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ ¬˝àÿ∑§ 2 •¥∑§ ∑§Ê „Ò– ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ/÷ʪ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§
Unanswered questions will not be given any marks. Filling up/ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 2 •¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§
darkening more than one response in any question will be treated
as wrong response and 0.5 marks as wrong response will be
∑§Ê≈UÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ– •ŸÈûÊÁ⁄Uà ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸ •¥∑§ Ÿ„Ë¥ ÁŒÿ ¡Ê∞°ª– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
deducted.
¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ ªÊ‹Ê ÷⁄UŸÊ/¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U
Part-I : General Knowledge and Current Affairs,
◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ ÃÕÊ ª‹Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.5 •¥∑§ ∑§Ê≈U Á‹∞ ¡Ê∞°ª–
School Education, Examination Board and its ÷ʪ-I : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ôÊÊŸ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹, S∑ͧ‹ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ,
Administration etc. (Q.Nos. 01-20) ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ’Ê«¸U ÃÕÊ ß‚∑§Ê ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ ßàÿÊÁŒ (¬˝.‚¥. 01-20)
Part-II : Reasoning & Mathematical Ability (Q.Nos. 21-40) ÷ʪ-II : Ã∑¸§ ∞fl¥ ªÁáÊÃËÿ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ (¬˝.‚¥. 21-40)
Part-III : General English – Comprehension and ÷ʪ-III : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë - ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ,
Communication Skills, General Hindi –
Comprehension and Communication Skills (Q.Nos. 41-60)
‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË - ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ (¬˝.‚¥. 41-60)
Part-IV : Accountancy (Q.Nos. 61-150) ÷ʪ-IV : ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ (¬˝.‚¥. 61-150)
6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet 6. ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ß‚ ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ŒË ªß¸ πÊ‹Ë ¡ª„ ¬⁄U „Ë
for the same. ∑§⁄¥U–
7. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark 7. ‚÷Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§fl‹ OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ¬⁄U „Ë •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– •¬Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§
your responses carefully. No whitener/eraser is allowed for changing •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄¥U– ©ûÊ⁄U ’Œ‹Ÿ „ÃÈ ‡flà ⁄¥U¡∑§/⁄U’«∏ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ÁŸÁ·h „Ò–
answers.
8. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions of questions/
8. ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝$¡Ë •ÊÒ⁄U Á„ãŒË ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥/©ûÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ Áfl‚¥ªÁà „Ê ÃÊ
answers, English version will be taken as final. •¥ª˝$¡Ë ‚¥S∑§⁄UáÊ •¥ÁÃ◊ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________________________________________

¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Roll Number (•ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§) — in figures (•¥∑§Ê¥ ◊)¥ ________________________________________________________________________________________________
— in words (‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ◊)¥ ________________________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : _____________________________________________________________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ãŒ˝ (’«∏ •ˇÊ⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥) —
Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : _________________________________________________
¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U — ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : ____________________________________________________________________________________________
∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ∑§ »Ò§Á‚◊Êß‹ / ◊Ê„⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U —
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

PART - I / ÷ʪ - I
General Knowledge and Current Affairs, School Education, Examination Board and its Administration etc./
‚Ê◊Êãÿ ôÊÊŸ ÃÕÊ ‚Ê◊Áÿ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹, S∑ͧ‹ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ, ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ’Ê«¸U ÃÕÊ ß‚∑§Ê ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ ßàÿÊÁŒ
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

1. As per CBSE Examination Bye-Law 1995 updated upto January 2013 who shall be the legal person
in whose name the Board may sue and be sued ?
(1) The Secretary of Board (2) The Governing Body of Board
(3) The Controlling Authority (4) The Chairperson of Board
‚Ë.’Ë.∞‚.߸. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ’Êß-‹ÊÚ 1995 ¡Ÿfl⁄UË 2013 Ã∑§ •Œ˜ÿÃË∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U fl„ ∑§ÊÒŸ ÁflÁœ∑§ √ÿÁÄà „ÊªÊ Á¡‚∑§ ŸÊ◊
¬⁄U ’Ê«¸U ◊È∑§g◊Ê Œ¡¸ ∑§⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§⁄UflÊ ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ’Ê«¸U ∑§ ‚Áøfl (2) ’Ê«¸U ∑§Ê ‡ÊÊ‚ËÁŸ∑§Êÿ
(3) ÁŸÿ¥òÊ∑§ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË (4) ’Ê«¸U ∑§ •äÿˇÊ

2. What was the theme of the Menstrual Hygiene Day, 28 May 2024 ?
(1) ‘Together for a # Period Friendly World’
(2) ‘Fundamental Right to Menstrual Health and Hygiene’
(3) ‘Safe Menstrual Health and Hygiene for All’
(4) ‘Dignity Kits for All’
⁄U¡Êœ◊¸ Sflë¿UÃÊ ÁŒfl‚, 28 ◊߸, 2024, ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ Áfl·ÿ (ÕË◊) ÄÿÊ ÕÊ?
(1) “≈ÈUªŒ⁄U »§ÊÚ⁄U • # ¬ËÁ⁄Uÿ«U »˝¥§«U‹Ë flÀ«¸U”
(2) “»¥§«UÊ◊¥≈U‹ ⁄UÊß≈U ≈ÍU ◊¥S≈˛ÂU•‹ „ÀÕ ∞á«U „Êß¡ËŸ”
(3) “‚»§ ◊¥S≈˛ÂU•‹ „ÀÕ ∞á«U „Êß¡ËŸ »§ÊÚ⁄U •ÊÚ‹”
(4) “Á«UÇŸË≈UË Á∑§≈˜U ‚ »§ÊÚ⁄U •ÊÚ‹”

3. Which of the following philosophers said “slave is the one who does not express (manifest) his
ideas on his activity. He expresses ideas of any other persons”.
(1) Socrates (2) Aristotle (3) Karl Marx (4) Plato
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ŒÊ‡Ê¸ÁŸ∑§ Ÿ ∑§„Ê Á∑§ - ““ŒÊ‚ fl„ „Ò ¡Ê •¬Ÿ ∑§Êÿ¸∑§‹Ê¬ ◊¥ •¬Ÿ ÁfløÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝∑§≈U Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÃÊ– fl„
Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ √ÿÁÄà ∑§ ÁfløÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝∑§≈U ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò–””
(1) ‚È∑§⁄UÊà (2) •⁄USÃÈ (3) ∑§Ê‹¸ ◊ÊÄ‚¸ (4) å‹≈UÊ

4. When did the Article 21-A of Indian Constitution and the RTE Act come into effect ?
(1) 1 April 2010 (2) 1 June 2009
(3) 1 December 2010 (4) 1 January 2009
÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§Ê •ŸÈë¿UŒ 21-A •ÊÒ⁄U •Ê⁄U.≈UË.߸. •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§’ ‚ ¬˝÷Êfl ◊¥ •ÊÿÊ?
(1) 1 •¬˝Ò‹, 2010 (2) 1 ¡ÍŸ, 2009
(3) 1 ÁŒ‚ê’⁄U, 2010 (4) 1 ¡Ÿfl⁄UË, 2009
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RAS-24 / ACT 2 F2
5. The statements are given below regarding the power of Controlling Authority of CBSE
(Resolution 1962) to ensure the compliance with its direction during the suspension of board.
Choose the correct statement/statements :

Statement I : Controlling Authority of Board of School Education to oversee the Board’s activities.

Statement II : Controlling Authority of Board of School Education can appoint an Administrator

to exercise the powers of Board.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect

(3) Both the statements are incorrect

(4) Both the statements are correct

‚Ë.’Ë.∞‚.߸. (¬˝SÃÊfl-1962) ◊¥ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ’Ê«¸U ∑§ ÁŸ‹¥’Ÿ ∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ ÁŒ‡ÊÊÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ë
¡’ÊflŒ„Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ŸËø ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ ÁŒ∞ ªÿ „Ò¥– ‚„Ë ∑§ÕŸ/∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê øÈŸÊfl ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —

∑§ÕŸ I : ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË, S∑ͧ‹ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ’Ê«¸U, ’Ê«¸U ∑§Ë ªÁÃÁflÁœÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë Œπ⁄Uπ ∑§⁄UªÊ–

∑§ÕŸ II : ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË, S∑ͧ‹ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ’Ê«¸U, ’Ê«¸U ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚∑§ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ∑§⁄U
‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–

(1) ∑§ÕŸ I ‚„Ë „Ò ¬⁄ãÃÈ II ª‹Ã „Ò–

(2) ∑§ÕŸ II ‚„Ë „Ò ¬⁄UãÃÈ I ª‹Ã „Ò–

(3) ŒÊŸÊ¥ „Ë ∑§ÕŸ ª‹Ã „Ò¥–

(4) ŒÊŸÊ¥ „Ë ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–

6. Who was awarded the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar 2023 for ‘Encouragement to sports
through Corporate Social Responsibility’ ?

(1) New Delhi Municipal Council (2) Odisha Mining Corporate Limited

(3) BML Munjal University (4) KPMG

“∑§Ê¬Ê¸⁄U≈U ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑§ ŒÊÁÿàfl ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ π‹ ∑§Ê ¬˝Êà‚Ê„Ÿ” ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ π‹ ¬˝Êà‚Ê„Ÿ
¬È⁄US∑§Ê⁄U, 2023, ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò?

(1) Ÿß¸ ÁŒÀ‹Ë Ÿª⁄U¬ÊÁ‹∑§Ê ¬Á⁄U·Œ (∞Ÿ «UË ∞◊ ‚Ë) (2) •Ê«UˇÊÊ ◊ÊßÁŸ¥ª ∑§Ê¬Ê¸⁄U≈U Á‹Á◊≈U«U

(3) ’Ë ∞◊ ∞‹ ◊È¥¡‹ ÿÍÁŸflÁ‚¸≈UË (4) ∑§ ¬Ë ∞◊ ¡Ë

RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

RAS-24 / ACT 3 F2
7. Consider the following statements regarding budget reform in India :
(A) The date of budget has been advanced by a month from the Financial Year 2021
(B) The Plan and Non-plan classification of the government expenditure has been reintroduced
from the financial year 2022
(C) The Railway budget has been merged with the Union budget from the Financial Year 2018
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(1) Only B and C are correct (2) Only A and C are correct
(3) Only C is correct (4) Only A is correct
÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ’¡≈U ‚ÈœÊ⁄U ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
(A) ÁflûÊËÿ fl·¸ 2021 ‚ ’¡≈U ¬˝SÃÈà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ‚◊ÿ ∞∑§ ◊Ê„ ¬Ífl¸ ∑§⁄U ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
(B) ÁflûÊËÿ fl·¸ 2022 ‚ ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË √ÿÿ ∑§Ê ÿÊ¡ŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ªÒ⁄U-ÿÊ¡ŸÊ √ÿÿ ∑§Ê flªË¸∑§⁄UáÊ ŒÊ’Ê⁄UÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
(C) ÁflûÊËÿ fl·¸ 2018 ‚ ⁄U‹ ’¡≈U ∑§Ê ∑§ãŒ˝Ëÿ ’¡≈U ◊¥ ‚◊ÊÁ„à ∑§⁄U ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞–
(1) ∑§fl‹ B •ÊÒ⁄U C ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) ∑§fl‹ A •ÊÒ⁄U C ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) ∑§fl‹ C ‚„Ë „Ò (4) ∑§fl‹ A ‚„Ë „Ò

8. As per CBSE Examination Bye-Laws 1995 updated upto January 2013 who is authorised to condone
the shortage upto 15% of attendance to appear in Board Examination ?
(1) Secretary Board (2) Chairman of the Board
(3) Controller of Examination (4) Principal of School
‚Ë.’Ë.∞‚.߸. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ’Êß-‹ÊÚ 1995 ¡Ÿfl⁄UË 2013 Ã∑§ •Œ˜ÿÃË∑§⁄UáÊ ◊¥ ’Ê«¸U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ ’Ò∆UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ 15% Ã∑§ ©¬ÁSÕÁà ◊¥
∑§◊Ë ◊¥ ¿ÍU≈U ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§ÊÒŸ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑Χà „Ò?
(1) ‚Áøfl ’Ê«¸U (2) ’Ê«¸U ∑§ •äÿˇÊ
(3) ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ÁŸÿ¥òÊ∑§ (4) ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ¬˝œÊŸÊøÊÿ¸

9. Which groups are specifically mentioned in Article 15(5) of Indian Constitution for special provisions
in educational institutions ?
(1) Senior Citizens
(2) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(3) Government employees
(4) Women and Children
Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ‚¥SÕÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ Áfl‡Ê· ¬˝ÊflœÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑§ •ŸÈë¿UŒ 15(5) ◊¥ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ ‚◊Í„Ê¥ ∑§Ê Áfl‡Ê· M§¬ ‚ ©À‹ÁπÃ
Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò?
(1) flÁ⁄Uc∆U ŸÊªÁ⁄U∑§
(2) •ŸÈ‚ÍÁøÃ ¡ÊÁÃÿÊ° •ÊÒ⁄U •ŸÈ‚ÍÁøÃ ¡Ÿ¡ÊÁÃÿÊ°
(3) ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§◊¸øÊ⁄UË
(4) ◊Á„‹Ê∞° •ÊÒ⁄U ’ìÊ
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RAS-24 / ACT 4 F2
10. Which of the following Head of Department in CBSE is responsible for curriculum development
and teacher training ?
(1) Director (Vocational Education and Training)
(2) Director (Academic, Research, Training and Innovation)
(3) Director (Edusat)
(4) Director (Professional Examination)
ߟ◊¥ ‚, ‚Ë.’Ë.∞‚.߸. ∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê Áfl÷ʪ ¬˝◊Èπ ¬Ê∆K∑˝§◊ Áfl∑§Ê‚ •ÊÒ⁄U •äÿʬ∑§ ¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÿË „Ò?
(1) ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ (√ÿfl‚ÊÁÿ∑§ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ∞fl¥ ¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ)
(2) ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ (‡ÊÒÁˇÊ∑§, •ŸÈ‚¥œÊŸ, ¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ ∞fl¥ ŸflÊøÊ⁄U)
(3) ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ (∞«ÈU‚≈U)
(4) ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ (¬‡Êfl⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊÊ)
11. As per the copy of Resolution No-209 of MoE-1962, one of the function of Central Board of Secondary
Education concerning student’s well-being is :
(1) Supervising student’s residence, health and discipline
(2) Provide financial assistance to students’ family
(3) Organise medical camps for their health checkups
(4) Providing legal assistance to students
Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ ¬˝SÃÊfl ∑§Ê¬Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ 209-1962, ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ∑§ãŒ˝Ëÿ ◊ÊäÿÁ◊∑§ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ’Ê«¸U ∑§Ê ¿UÊòÊÊ¥ ∑§ ‚ê¬Íáʸ SflÊSâÿ ∑§ ¬˝ÁÃ
∞∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸ „Ò —
(1) ¿UÊòÊÊ¥ ∑§ •ÊflÊ‚Ê¥, SflÊSâÿ •ÊÒ⁄U •ŸÈ‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ ∑§Ë Œπ⁄Uπ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(2) ¿UÊòÊÊ¥ ∑§ ¬Á⁄UflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ÁflûÊËÿ ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ©¬‹éœ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(3) ¿UÊòÊÊ¥ ∑§ SflÊSâÿ ¡Ê°ø ∑§ Á‹∞ SflÊSâÿ Á‡ÊÁfl⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÿÊ¡Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(4) ¿UÊòÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∑§ÊŸÍŸË ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ©¬‹éœ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
12. Among the following countries which one produced the highest percentage of biogases in 2022 as
per the International Energy Agency report, titled ‘Renewables 2023’ ?
(1) China (2) India
(3) United States of America (4) Canada
“ŸflË∑§⁄UáÊËÿ 2023”, ‡ÊË·¸∑§ ‚ ¬˝∑§ÊÁ‡Êà •ãÃ⁄U⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ™§¡Ê¸ ∞¡¥‚Ë Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U fl·¸ 2022 ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ Œ‡Ê
◊¥ ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ ¬˝ÁÇÊà ’ÊÿÊªÒ‚ ∑§Ê ©à¬ÊŒŸ „È•Ê?
(1) øËŸ (2) ÷Ê⁄UÃ
(3) ‚¥.⁄UÊ. •◊Á⁄U∑§Ê (4) ∑§ŸÊ«UÊ
13. As per National Education Policy (2020), which of the following institutional structure shall set up
facilitative norms for issues, such as credit transfer, equivalences etc, through the National Higher
Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) ?
(1) National Higher Education Regulatory Council
(2) Higher Education Commission of India
(3) General Education Council
(4) National Accreditation Council
⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ŸËÁà (2020) ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ‚¥SÕÊÁŸ∑§ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ •„¸ÃÊ M§¬⁄UπÊ
(∞Ÿ ∞ø ߸ ÄÿÍ ∞»§) ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ∑˝§Á«U≈U •¥Ã⁄UáÊ, ‚◊ÃÈÀÿÃÊ ßàÿÊÁŒ ¡Ò‚Ë ‚ÈÁflœÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝ÁÃ◊ÊŸ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ∑§⁄UªË?§
(1) ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ÁflÁŸÿÊ◊∑§ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
(2) ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ©ìÊÃ⁄U Á‡ÊˇÊÊ •ÊÿÊª
(3) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á‡ÊˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
(4) ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ¬˝àÿÊÿÿŸ ¬Á⁄U·Œ
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RAS-24 / ACT 5 F2
14. Which of the following statements is correct about the Public Service Commission in India ?
(1) The Chairman of a Joint State Public Service Commission is appointed by the Governor of
the larger state in the Joint Commission
(2) The Chairman of a State Public Service Commission is appointed by the President of India.
(3) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is removed from office by order of
the President upon on inquiry held by the Supreme Court recommending such removal.
(4) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by the Chief Justice of
India.
÷Ê⁄Uà ◊¥ ‹Ê∑§ ‚flÊ •ÊÿÊªÊ¥ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?
(1) ‚¥ÿÈÄà ⁄UÊíÿ ‹Ê∑§ ‚flÊ •ÊÿÊª ∑§ •äÿˇÊ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ‚¥ÿÈÄà •ÊÿÊª ◊¥ ’«∏ ⁄UÊíÿ ∑§ ⁄UÊíÿ¬Ê‹ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(2) ⁄UÊíÿ ‹Ê∑§ ‚flÊ •ÊÿÊª ∑§ •äÿˇÊ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ⁄UÊc≈˛U¬Áà mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(3) ‚¥ÉÊ ‹Ê∑§ ‚flÊ •ÊÿÊª ∑§ •äÿˇÊ ∑§Ê ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§⁄UÊ߸ ªß¸ ¡Ê°ø •ÊÒ⁄U Á‚»§ÊÁ⁄U‡Ê ¬⁄U ⁄UÊc≈˛U¬Áà ∑§
•ÊŒ‡Ê mÊ⁄UÊ ¬Œ ‚ „≈UÊÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
(4) ‚¥ÉÊ ‹Ê∑§ ‚flÊ •ÊÿÊª ∑§ •äÿˇÊ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄà ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ◊ÈÅÿ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò–

15. According to the World Health Organization’s, 2023 report, which of the following regions has
the highest density for Pharmacists in the world between 2014 and 2021 ?
(1) Western Pacific Region (2) South-East Asia Region
(3) Eastern Mediterranean Region (4) Regions of the Americas
Áfl‡fl SflÊSâÿ ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§ 2023 ∑§ Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U fl·¸ 2014 •ÊÒ⁄ 2021 ∑§ ’Ëø ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ˇÊòÊ ◊¥
»§Ê◊ʸÁ‚S≈U ∑§Ë ‚◊Ác≈-‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚flʸÁœ∑§ ⁄U„Ë „Ò?U U
(1) ¬Á‡ø◊Ë ¬˝‡Ê¥Êà ˇÊòÊ (flS≈UŸ¸ ¬Á‚Á»§∑§) (2) ŒÁˇÊáÊ-¬Ífl¸ ∞Á‡ÊÿÊ߸ ˇÊòÊ
(3) ¬Ífl˸ ÷Í◊äÿ‚ʪ⁄UËÿ ˇÊòÊ (4) •◊Á⁄U∑§Ë ˇÊòÊ

16. ‘DIKSHA’ stands for :

(1) Digital Initiative for Knowledge Sharing Agency
(2) Digital Intervention for Knowledge Sharing Hands-on Activity
(3) Digitally Interactive Knowledge System for Holistic Activities
(4) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing
DIKSHA (ŒËˇÊÊ) ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò —
(1) Á«U¡Ë≈U‹ ßÁŸÁ‡ÊÿÁ≈Ufl »§ÊÚ⁄U ŸÊÚ‹¡ ‡ÊÿÁ⁄¥Uª ∞¡¥‚Ë
(2) Á«U¡Ë≈U‹ ߥ≈U⁄Uflã‡ÊŸ »§ÊÚ⁄U ŸÊÚ‹¡ ‡ÊÿÁ⁄¥UªU „Ò¥«˜U‚-•ÊÚŸ ∞Ä≈UËÁfl≈UË
(3) Á«U¡Ë≈U‹Ë ߥ≈U⁄U∞Ä≈UËfl ŸÊÚ‹¡ Á‚S≈U◊ »§ÊÚ⁄U „Ê‹ÁS≈U∑§ ∞Ä≈UËÁflÁ≈U¡
(4) Á«U¡Ë≈U‹ ߥ»˝§ÊS≈˛UÄø⁄U »§ÊÚ⁄U ŸÊÚ‹¡ ‡ÊÿÁ⁄¥Uª
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RAS-24 / ACT 6 F2
17. Which of the following acid is present in Tamarind ?
(1) Formic Acid (2) Acetic Acid
(3) Oxalic Acid (4) Tartaric Acid
ß◊‹Ë ◊¥ ÁŸÁêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê •ê‹ Áfll◊ÊŸ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) »§ÊÚÁ◊¸∑§ ∞Á‚«U (2) ∞‚ËÁ≈U∑§ ∞Á‚«U
(3) •ÊÚÄ¡ÒÁ‹∑§ ∞Á‚«U (4) ≈UÊ≈¸UÁ⁄U∑§ ∞Á‚«U

18. Which of the following is a new offence introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, which
was not a part of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?
(1) Criminal conspiracy
(2) Acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(3) Assaulting President, Governor, etc.
(4) Unlawful compulsory labour
÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ãÿÊÿ ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 2023, ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ Ÿ∞ •¬⁄UÊœ ∑§Ê ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò ¡Ê ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ Œ¥«U ‚¥Á„ÃÊ,
1860 ∑§Ê ÷ʪ (•¥‡Ê) Ÿ„Ë¥ ÕÊ?
(1) •Ê¬⁄UÊÁœ∑§ ·«˜Uÿ¥òÊ
(2) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§Ë ‚¥¬˝÷ÈÃÊ, ∞∑§ÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U •π¥«UÃÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ‚¥∑§≈U ©à¬ãŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚¥’¥œË ∑Χàÿ
(3) ⁄UÊc≈˛U¬ÁÃ, ⁄UÊíÿ¬Ê‹ •ÊÁŒ √ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ¬⁄U „◊‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(4) ÁflÁœ-ÁflM§h •ÁŸflÊÿ¸¸ üÊ◊

19. What is the Wavelength range of X-rays ?

(1) 400 nm to 1 nm (2) 1 nm to 10−3 nm
−3
(3) <10 nm (4) 700 nm to 400 nm
∞Ä‚-⁄U¡ (ˇÊÿ-Á∑§⁄UáÊÊ¥) ∑§Ê Ã⁄¥UªŒÒäÿ¸ Á∑§ÃŸÊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) 400 nm ‚ 1 nm (2) 1 nm ‚ 10−3 nm
(3) <10−3 nm (4) 700 nm ‚ 400 nm

20. As per National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE 2023), which combination
of assessment methods is recommended for preparatory stage ?
(1) Correcting worksheets only
(2) Short, formal written evaluations only
(3) A combination of observation, correcting worksheets, and short, formal written evaluations
(4) Observations only
⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ ¬Ê∆Køÿʸ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ÁfllÊ‹ÿË Á‡ÊˇÊÊ (∞Ÿ.‚Ë.∞»§.∞‚.߸. 2023) ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ¬˝Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ •flSÕÊ ∑§ Á∑§Ÿ •Ê∑§‹Ÿ
¬hÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ ÿÈÇ◊ ∑§Ë ‚¥SÃÈÁà ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò?
(1) ∑§fl‹ fl∑¸§‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê ‚„Ë ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(2) ∑§fl‹ ‹ÉÊÈ, •ÊÒ¬øÊÁ⁄U∑§ Á‹Áπà ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ
(3) •fl‹Ê∑§Ÿ, fl∑¸§‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê ‚„Ë ∑§⁄UŸÊ, •ÊÒ⁄U ‹ÉÊÈ, •ÊÒ¬øÊÁ⁄U∑§ Á‹Áπà ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ ‚÷Ë ∑§Ê ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã ∑§⁄UŸÊ
(4) ∑§fl‹ •fl‹Ê∑§Ÿ
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RAS-24 / ACT 7 F2
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

PART - II / ÷ʪ - II
Reasoning & Mathematical Ability / Ã∑¸§ ∞fl¥ ªÁáÊÃËÿ ˇÊ◊ÃÊ
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21. With uniform speed, a vehicle covers a distance in 10 hours. Had the speed been increased by
6 km/hr the same distance could have been covered in 5 hours. What is the distance covered ?
(1) 30 km (2) 50 km (3) 60 km (4) 40 km
∞∑§ ¡Ò‚Ë ªÁà ‚ ø‹Ã ⁄U„Ÿ ¬⁄U ∞∑§ flÊ„Ÿ ª¥Ã√ÿ Ã∑§ 10 ÉÊ¥≈U ◊¥ ¬„È°øÃÊ „Ò– ÿÁŒ ªÁà ∑§Ê 6 Á∑§.◊Ë./ÉÊ¥≈UÊ ’…∏ÊŸ ‚ fl„Ë ŒÍ⁄UË
5 ÉÊ¥≈U ◊¥ Ãÿ ∑§⁄U ‹Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò, ∑ȧ‹ ø‹Ë ªß¸ ŒÍ⁄UË ’ÃÊß∞–
(1) 30 Á∑§◊Ë (2) 50 Á∑§◊Ë (3) 60 Á∑§◊Ë (4) 40 Á∑§◊Ë

22. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been put at 1% higher rate, it
would have fetched ` 960 more. The sum is :
∞∑§ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê 4 fl·¸ ∑§ Á‹∞, ∞∑§ ÁŸÁ‡øà éÿÊ$¡ Œ⁄U ¬⁄U ‚ÊœÊ⁄UáÊ éÿÊ$¡ ¬⁄U ‹ªÊ߸ ¡ÊÃË „Ò– •ª⁄U ß‚ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¬˝ÁÇÊà •Áœ∑§
éÿÊ$¡ Œ⁄U ¬⁄U ‹ªÊÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ ÃÊ ß‚ ◊¥ ` 960 •Áœ∑§ ¬˝Êåà „ÊÃ– flÊ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê „Ò —
(1) ` 14,000 (2) ` 32,000 (3) ` 28,000 (4) ` 19,200

23. Select the letter cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series :
©‚ •ˇÊ⁄U ‚◊Í„ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ ¡Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà oÎ¥π‹Ê ◊¥ ¬˝‡Ÿ Áøã„ (?) ∑§Ê SÕÊŸ ‹ ‚∑§–
PMBZ, KRWE, FWRJ, ABMO, ? , QLCY
(1) VGHT (2) WGHT (3) VHGT (4) WHGT

24. Diameter of a cycle wheel is 28 cm. A cyclist takes 30 minutes to reach a destination at a speed of
22 km/hr. The number of revolutions will be made by the wheel during the journey are :
∞∑§ ‚Ê߸Á∑§‹ ∑§ ¬Á„∞ ∑§Ê √ÿÊ‚ 28 ‚.◊Ë. „Ò– ∞∑§ ‚Ê߸Á∑§‹ ‚flÊ⁄U 22 Á∑§.◊Ë./ÉÊ¥≈UÊ ∑§Ë ªÁà ‚ ◊¥Á¡‹ Ã∑§ ¬¥„ÈøŸ ◊¥
30 Á◊Ÿ≈U ‹ÃÊ „Ò– ß‚ ¬Í⁄UË ÿÊòÊÊ ◊¥ ¬Á„∞ ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬Á⁄U÷˝◊áÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ „ÊªË —
(1) 125000 (2) 140000 (3) 110000 (4) 175000

25. In an examination, Ravi got more marks than Mohan but not as many as Priyanka. Priyanka got
more marks than Gagan and Kamla. Gagan got less marks than Mohan but his marks are not the
lowest in the group. Who is second in the ascending order of marks ?
(1) Ravi (2) Priyanka (3) Kamla (4) Gagan
∞∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ ⁄UÁfl Ÿ ◊Ê„Ÿ ‚ •Áœ∑§ •¥∑§ ¬Ê∞ ‹Á∑§Ÿ ©ÃŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á¡ÃŸ Á∑§ Á¬˝ÿ¥∑§Ê Ÿ– Á¬˝ÿ¥∑§Ê Ÿ ªªŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§◊‹Ê ‚
•Áœ∑§ •¥∑§ ¬Ê∞– ªªŸ Ÿ ◊Ê„Ÿ ‚ ∑§◊ •¥∑§ ¬Ê∞ ‹Á∑§Ÿ ©‚∑§ •¥∑§ ‚◊Í„ ◊¥ ‚’‚ ∑§◊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥– •¥∑§Ê¥ ∑§ •Ê⁄UÊ„Ë ∑˝§◊ ◊¥
‹ªÊŸ ¬⁄U ∑§ÊÒŸ ŒÍ‚⁄ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U „ÊªÊ?
(1) ⁄UÁfl (2) Á¬˝ÿ¥∑§Ê (3) ∑§◊‹Ê (4) ªªŸ
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RAS-24 / ACT 8 F2
26. Which of the following is equal to 1 ?

ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê 1 ∑§ ’⁄UÊ’⁄U „Ò?

(0.11)2 (0.011)2
(1) (2)
(0.01)2 × 0.1 (1.1)2 × (0.01)2

(1.1)2 (0.01)2
(3) (4)
(0.1)2 × 0.11 (0.1)2 × 1.1

27. Study the diagram carefully and answer the question.

What does letter ‘e’ represent from the following ?

(1) Indians who are players. (2) Doctors who are Indians.
(3) Indians who are doctors and players. (4) Doctors who are players.

ÁŒ∞ ª∞ •Ê⁄Uπ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ •äÿÿŸ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒËÁ¡∞ —

ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ‘e’ Á∑§‚ ∑§Ê Œ‡ÊʸÃÊ „Ò?

(1) ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ¡Ê Á∑§ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë „Ò¥– (2) «UÊÚÄ≈U⁄U ¡Ê Á∑§ ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ „Ò¥–
(3) ÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ¡Ê «UÊÚÄ≈U⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë „Ò¥– (4) «UÊÚÄ≈U⁄U ¡Ê Á∑§ Áπ‹Ê«∏Ë „Ò¥–
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RAS-24 / ACT 9 F2
28. Three statements have been given followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, decide
which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements : Some doors are windows.
All windows are birds.
All birds are animals.
Conclusions : I. All windows are animals.
II. Some animals are windows, birds and doors.
III. Some doors are birds.
(1) Both conclusions I and II follow.
(2) All conclusions I, II and III follow.
(3) Either conclusion II or III follows.
(4) Only conclusion II follows.

ÃËŸ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§ ¬‡øÊà ÃËŸ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚àÿ ◊ÊŸÃ „È∞, øÊ„ fl ‚Ê◊Êãÿ× ôÊÊà ÃâÿÊ¥ ‚ Á÷ãŸ
¬˝ÃËà „ÊÃ „Ê¥, ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞ Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ÁŸc∑§·¸ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ‚ ÁŸ∑§‹ÃÊ „Ò/ÁŸ∑§‹Ã „Ò¥?
∑§ÕŸ : ∑ȧ¿U Œ⁄UflÊ$¡ Áπ«∏Á∑§ÿÊ° „Ò¥–
‚÷Ë Áπ«∏Á∑§ÿÊ° ¬ˇÊË „Ò¥–
‚÷Ë ¬ˇÊË ¬‡ÊÈ „Ò¥–
ÁŸc∑§·¸ : I. ‚÷Ë Áπ«∏Á∑§ÿÊ°, ¬‡ÊÈ „Ò¥–
II. ∑ȧ¿U ¬‡ÊÈ Áπ«∏Á∑§ÿÊ°, ¬ˇÊË •ÊÒ⁄U Œ⁄UflÊ$¡ „Ò¥–
III. ∑ȧ¿U Œ⁄UflÊ$¡ ¬ˇÊË „Ò¥–
(1) ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ŒÊŸÊ¥ ÁŸ∑§‹Ã „Ò¥–
(2) ‚÷Ë ÁŸc∑§·¸ I, II •ÊÒ⁄U III ÁŸ∑§‹Ã „Ò¥–
(3) ÿÊ ÃÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ÿÊ III ÁŸ∑§‹ÃÊ „Ò–
(4) ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ÁŸ∑§‹ÃÊ „Ò–

29. The average weekly salary of a total of 90 workers in a factory is ` 400. The average weekly salary
of officers is ` 600 and average weekly salary of the other workers is ` 350. Find the number of
other workers.

∞∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UπÊŸ ◊¥ ∑ȧ‹ 90 ∑§Á◊¸ÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÒ‚Ã ‚ÊåÃÊÁ„∑§ flß ` 400 „Ò– •Áœ∑§ÊÁ⁄UÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÒ‚Ã ‚ÊåÃÊÁ„∑§ flß ` 600 „Ò–
•ãÿ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÒ‚Ã ‚ÊåÃÊÁ„∑§ flß ` 350 „Ò– •ãÿ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ’ÃÊß∞–
(1) 72 (2) 84 (3) 68 (4) 74
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RAS-24 / ACT 10 F2
30. Given below is a question followed by two statements numbered I and II, each containing some
information. You have to decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.
It is 9.00 pm, when can Harish get next bus for Ajmer from Jaipur ?
Statements :
I. Buses for Ajmer leave after every 30 minutes, till 11 pm.
II. Fifteen minutes ago, one bus has left for Ajmer.
(1) Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(2) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(3) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement II alone is not sufficient
(4) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while statement I alone is not sufficient.
ŸËø ∞∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ¬˝àÿ∑§ ∑ȧ¿U ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ‚Á„à ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– •Ê¬∑§Ê ÿ„ Ãÿ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/
∑§ÊÒŸ-‚ ∑§ÕŸ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò/„Ò¥– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Á…∏∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ©Áøà ©ûÊ⁄U Ãÿ ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
•÷Ë ⁄UÊà ∑§ 9.00 ’¡ „Ò¥, „⁄UË‡Ê •ª‹Ë ’‚ ¡ÿ¬È⁄U ‚ •$¡◊⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§’ ¬∑§«∏ªÊ?
∑§ÕŸ —
I. •$¡◊⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ ’‚ „⁄U 30 Á◊Ÿ≈U ◊¥ 11 ’¡ Ã∑§ ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
II. 15 Á◊Ÿ≈U ¬„‹, ∞∑§ ’‚ •$¡◊⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ ⁄UflÊŸÊ „ÈÈ߸ „Ò–
(1) ÿÊ ÃÊ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ÿÊ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò–
(2) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹∑§⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ „Ò¥–
(3) ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò, ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(4) ∑§ÕŸ II •∑§‹ „Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ „ÃÈ ¬ÿʸåà „Ò, ¡’Á∑§ ∑§ÕŸ I •∑§‹ ¬ÿʸåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–

31. Raghav walks 10 m towards South from his house, turns left and walks 30 m, again turns left and
walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 10 m to reach the school. How far and in which direction
is the school from his home ?
(1) 60 m, North (2) 50 m, North
(3) 50 m, North-East (4) 60 m, North-East
⁄UÊÉÊfl •¬Ÿ ÉÊ⁄U ‚ ŒÁˇÊáÊ ∑§Ë •Ê⁄U 10 ◊Ë. ø‹ÃÊ „Ò, ’Ê∞° ◊È«∏ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U 30 ◊Ë. ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, ¬ÈŸ— ’Ê∞° ◊È«∏ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U 40 ◊Ë. ø‹ÃÊ
„Ò, Á»§⁄U ÁfllÊ‹ÿ ¬„È°øŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ŒÊ∞° ◊È«∏ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U 10 ◊Ë. ø‹ÃÊ „Ò– ©‚∑§ ÉÊ⁄U ‚ ÁfllÊ‹ÿ Á∑§ÃŸË ŒÍ⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U Á∑§‚ ÁŒ‡ÊÊ ◊¥
„Ò?
(1) 60 ◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U (2) 50 ◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U
(3) 50 ◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U-¬Ífl¸ (4) 60 ◊Ë., ©ûÊ⁄U-¬Ífl¸

32. A shopkeeper mixes two varities of coffee one costing ` 320 per kg and the other costing ` 400 per
kg in the ratio 5 : 4. He sells the blended variety at ` 384 per kg. His profit percentage is :
∞∑§ ŒÈ∑§ÊŸŒÊ⁄U ` 320 ¬˝Áà Á∑§‹Ê ÃÕÊ ` 400 ¬˝Áà Á∑§‹Ê ∑§Ë ∑§Ê»§Ë ∑§Ê 5 : 4 ◊¥ Á◊‹Ê ŒÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ Á◊üÊáÊ ∑§Ë ªß¸ ∑§Ê»§Ë ∑§Ê
` 384 ¬˝Áà Á∑§‹Ê ∑§Ë Œ⁄U ‚ ’ø ŒÃÊ „Ò– ©‚∑§Ê ‹Ê÷ ¬˝ÁÇÊà ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
(1) 12% (2) 9% (3) 16% (4) 8%
33. A pendulum strikes 5 times in 3 seconds and another pendulum strikes 7 times in 5 seconds. If
both pendulum start at the same time, how many times they strike together in 1 minute ?
(1) 5 times (2) 6 times (3) 4 times (4) 7 times
∞∑§ ‹Ê‹∑§ 3 ‚∑¥§«U ◊¥ 5 ’Ê⁄U ≈U∑§⁄UÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÕÊ ŒÍ‚⁄UÊ ‹Ê‹∑§ 5 ‚Ò∑§ã«UU ◊¥ 7 ’Ê⁄U ≈U∑§⁄UÊÃÊ „Ò– ÿÁŒ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‹Ê‹∑§ ∞∑§ ‚ÊÕ
ªÁÇÊË‹ „Ê¥ ÃÊ fl ∞∑§ Á◊Ÿ≈U ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸË ’Ê⁄U ∞∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ ’Ê⁄U ≈U∑§⁄UÊÿ¥ª?
(1) 5 ’Ê⁄U (2) 6 ’Ê⁄U (3) 4 ’Ê⁄U (4) 7 ’Ê⁄U
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RAS-24 / ACT 11 F2
34. In a certain code language ‘MONDAY’ is coded as ‘JTKIXD’ and ‘FRIDAY’ is coded as ‘CWFIXD’
then which of the following word will be coded as ‘QMRWPIXD’ in the same language ?
Á∑§‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥, ‘MONDAY’ ∑§Ê ∑ͧ≈U ‘JTKIXD’ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ‘FRIDAY’ ∑§Ê ∑ͧ≈U ‘CWFIXD’ „Ò ÃÊ ß‚Ë ∑ͧ≈U ÷Ê·Ê ◊¥
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ‡ÊéŒ ∑§Ê ∑ͧ≈U ‘QMRWPIXD’ „ÊªÊ?
(1) RAINYDAY (2) SUNNYDAY (3) THURSDAY (4) SATURDAY

35. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. Read both the statements
carefully and select the correct answer with the help of the codes.
Assertion (A) : We prefer to wear black clothes in winter.
Reason (R) : Black clothes are good reflectors of heat.
(1) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
ŒÊ ∑§ÕŸ •Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (R) ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ŸÊ◊Ê¥Á∑§Ã Á∑§∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬Á…∏∞ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑ͧ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ë
‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞–
•Á÷∑§ÕŸ (A) : „◊ ‚ÁŒ¸ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑§Ê‹ ∑§¬«∏ ¬„ŸŸÊ øÊ„Ã „Ò¥–
∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (R) : ∑§Ê‹ ∑§¬«∏ ™§c◊Ê ∑§ ¬⁄UÊflø∑§ „Ò¥–
(1) (A) •‚àÿ „Ò, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) ‚àÿ „Ò–
(2) (A) ‚àÿ „Ò, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R) •‚àÿ „Ò–
(3) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(4) (A) •ÊÒ⁄U (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥, ‹Á∑§Ÿ (R), (A) ∑§Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–

36. ‘A+B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,

‘A−B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A×B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A÷B’ means ‘A is the son of B’.
If F×J÷T−R+L, then which of the following is definitely true ?
(1) J is the brother of R. (2) L is the brother of J.
(3) F is the sister of L. (4) F is the mother of T.
‘A+B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ë ◊ÊÃÊ „Ò,
‘A−B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ê ¬Áà „Ò,
‘A×B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ë ’Á„Ÿ „Ò,
‘A÷B’ ∑§Ê •Õ¸ „Ò, A, B ∑§Ê ’≈UÊ „Ò–
ÿÁŒ F×J÷T−R+L „Ò ÃÊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê •fl‡ÿ „Ë ‚àÿ „Ò?
(1) J, R ∑§Ê ÷Ê߸ „Ò– (2) L, J ∑§Ê ÷Ê߸ „Ò–
(3) F, L ∑§Ë ’Á„Ÿ „Ò– (4) F, T ∑§Ë ◊ÊÃÊ „Ò–
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RAS-24 / ACT 12 F2
37. In this question, three statements are followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Find out
which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true, based on the given statements.
Statements : N>E, E=W, W/X.
Conclusions : I. X>N
II. E/X
(1) Conclusion I and conclusion II both are not true.
(2) Both conclusions I and II are true.
(3) Only conclusion I is true
(4) Only conclusion II is true.
ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ ◊¥ ÃËŸ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ŒÊ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥– ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ¬ÃÊ ‹ªÊß∞ Á∑§ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚
ÁŸc∑§·¸ ÁŸÁ‡øà M§¬ ‚ ‚àÿ „Ò/„Ò¥ ?
∑§ÕŸ : N>E, E=W, W/X.
ÁŸc∑§·¸ : I. X>N
II. E/X
(1) ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ŒÊŸÊ¥ •‚àÿ „Ò¥–
(2) ÁŸc∑§·¸ I •ÊÒ⁄U II ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚àÿ „Ò¥–
(3) ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ I ‚àÿ „Ò–
(4) ∑§fl‹ ÁŸc∑§·¸ II ‚àÿ „Ò–

38. A couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is four times that of the son and the
daughter’s age is one-third of that of her mother. The wife is 4 years younger to her husband and
the sister is 2 years older than her brother. The age of the mother/wife is :
(1) 28 years (2) 42 years (3) 38 years (4) 36 years
∞∑§ Œê¬ÁûÊ ∑§ ¬Ê‚ ∞∑§ ¬ÈòÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∞∑§ ¬ÈòÊË „Ò– Á¬ÃÊ ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ¬ÈòÊ ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ∑§Ë øÊ⁄ ªÈŸË „Ò ÃÕÊ ¬ÈòÊË ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ◊ÊÃÊ ∑§Ë
∞∑§-ÁÄÊ߸ „Ò– ¬ÁÃ-¬àŸË ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ ◊¥ 4 fl·¸ ∑§Ê •ãÃ⁄U „Ò– ¬àŸË ¿UÊ≈UË „Ò– ¬ÈòÊË, ¬ÈòÊ ‚ 2 fl·¸ ’«∏Ë „Ò– ◊ÊÃÊ/¬àŸË ∑§Ë •ÊÿÈ
’ÃÊß∞ —
(1) 28 fl·¸ (2) 42 fl·¸ (3) 38 fl·¸ (4) 36 fl·¸

39. Visitors to a park were charged ` 13 each on the first day, ` 8 on the second, ` 4 on the third day
and the total attendance of visitors on three days were in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 respectively. Find the
average charge per person for the whole show.
∞∑§ ¬Ê∑¸§ ◊¥ •ÊªãÃÈ∑§Ê¥ ‚ ¬„‹ ÁŒŸ ` 13 ¬˝Áà √ÿÁÄÃ, ŒÍ‚⁄U ÁŒŸ ` 8 ¬˝Áà √ÿÁÄà ÃÕÊ ` 4 ¬˝Áà √ÿÁÄà ÃË‚⁄U ÁŒŸ Á‹ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ
„Ò– •ÊªãÃÈ∑§Ê¥ ∑§Ë ÃËŸ ÁŒŸ ∑§Ë ©¬ÁSÕÁà ∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Êà ∑˝§◊‡Ê— 2 : 3 : 5 ⁄U„Ê– ¬˝Áà √ÿÁÄà •ÊÒ‚Ã ‡ÊÈÀ∑§ ∑§Ë ªáÊŸÊ ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
(1) `7 (2) `9 (3) ` 12 (4) ` 15

40. A candidate has to obtain minimum 35% of the total marks to qualify in the examination. He got
23% of the total marks and failed by 48 marks. The maximum marks of the examination are :
∞∑§ •èÿÕ˸ ∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ ©ûÊËáʸ „ÊŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ãÿÍŸÃ◊ 35 ¬˝ÁÇÊà •¥∑§ øÊÁ„∞– ©‚ 23 ¬˝ÁÇÊà •¥∑§ ¬˝Êåà „È∞ •ÊÒ⁄U fl„ 48
•¥∑§Ê¥ ‚ •ŸÈûÊËáʸ ⁄U„Ê– ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ •Áœ∑§Ã◊ •¥∑§ ôÊÊà ∑§ËÁ¡∞–
(1) 400 (2) 500 (3) 600 (4) 300
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RAS-24 / ACT 13 F2
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

PART - III / ÷ʪ - III

General English – Comprehension and Communication Skills,
General Hindi – Comprehension and Communication Skills /
‚Ê◊Êãÿ •¥ª˝¡Ë - ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ, ‚Ê◊Êãÿ Á„ãŒË - ’Êœ ÃÕÊ ‚¥øÊ⁄U ∑§Ê҇ʋ
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ªlÊ¥‡Ê ∑§Ê ¬…∏∑§⁄U ©‚ ¬⁄U •ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ (41 - 43) ∑§ ‚≈UË∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ øÈÁŸ∞ —
““‚Ê¥S∑ΧÁÃ∑§ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§Ê ◊Ë’ „Ò - ¡Ëfl ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚ •ÊÒ⁄U ¡ËflŸ ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚, ‚ÎÁc≈U •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ë Áfl÷ÍÁà ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚–
‚Ê¥S∑ΧÁÃ∑§ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ∑§Ê ◊Ë’ ◊ŸÈcÿ ∑§ √ÿÁÄÃàfl ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚ ÷Ë „Ò– ¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ê ‡ÊÊ·áÊ ‚Ê¥S∑ΧÁÃ∑§ Áfl∑§Ê‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– •Ê¡ Á‡Ê∑§ÊÿÃ
ÿ„ „Ò Á∑§ „◊ ‚ÎÁc≈U ∑§Ê ßÃŸÊ ‡ÊÊ·áÊ ∑§⁄U ⁄U„ „Ò¥ Á∑§ “fl‚È◊ÃË” ◊¥ Á¡ÃŸÊ “fl‚” „Ò, Œ˝√ÿ „Ò, Á¡ÃŸË ‚¥¬ÁûÊ „Ò, ©Ÿ ‚’∑§Ê „◊ ‹Í≈U ⁄U„ „Ò¥–
ÿÁŒ ÿ„Ë „ÊÃÊ ⁄U„Ê ÃÊ ∑ȧ¿U ÁŒŸÊ¥ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ÿ„ ‡Ê· „Ë Ÿ ⁄U„ªÊ–

41. ‹π∑§ ∑§Ë Áø¥ÃÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ „Ò -

(1) ¡ËflŸ ∑§Ê •‚¥ªÃ Áfl∑§Ê‚ (2) ¬˝Ê∑ΧÁÃ∑§ ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ŒÊ„Ÿ
(3) œŸ-‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑§Ë ‹Í≈U¬Ê≈U (4) œŸ ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑§Ê √ÿÕ¸ ¡ÊŸÊ

42. ‚Ê¥S∑ΧÁÃ∑§ Áfl∑§Ê‚ ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò -

(1) ¡ËflŸ (2) ‚ÎÁc≈ (3) ¡Ëfl (4) ‚èÿÃÊ

43. ªlÊ¥‡Ê ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò¥ —

(1) √ÿÁÄÃàfl ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚ (2) ¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ê ‡ÊÊ·áÊ
(3) ◊ÊŸfl ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚ (4) ¡Ëfl ∑§Ê Áfl∑§Ê‚

44. “øʬ‹Í‚” ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ÷Ê·Ê ∑§Ê ‡ÊéŒ „Ò?

(1) •⁄U’Ë (2) ÃÈ∑§Ë¸ (3) ¬ÊøȨ̀ªË¡ (4) »§Ê⁄U‚Ë

45. Áfl‹Ê◊ ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚„Ë ◊‹ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —

(1) •ÁSÃàfl - SflM§¬ (2) ‹Ê÷ - „ÊÁŸ
(3) ‚¥ˇÊ¬ - ÁflSÃÊ⁄U (4) ß„‹Ê∑§ - ¬⁄U‹Ê∑§

46. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ø¥Œ˝◊Ê ∑§ ¬ÿʸÿflÊøË ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ∑§ Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚„Ë „Ò —
(1) ⁄UÊ∑§‡Ê, ∑§‹ÊÁŸÁœ, Á„◊Ê¥‡ÊÈ, ‚Ê◊
(2) ‚ÈœÊ∑§⁄U, ø¥Œ˝„Ê‚, ߥŒÈ, ÁŸ‡ÊÊ∑§⁄U, ‡ÊÁ‡Ê, ∑§Á⁄U
(3) ‡ÊÁ‡Ê, ⁄UÊ∑§Ê¬ÁÃ, ⁄UÊ∑§‡Ê, ⁄U¡ŸË¬ÁÃ, ∑§⁄UflÊ‹, ∑§Á⁄U
(4) ∑§Á⁄U, ‡ÊÁ‡Ê, ‚Ȝʥ‡ÊÈ, ∑§⁄UflÊ‹, ⁄UÊ∑§‡Ê, ø¥Œ˝„Ê‚
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RAS-24 / ACT 14 F2
47. “ÕÊÕÊ øŸÊ ’Ê¡ ÉÊŸÊ” ◊È„Êfl⁄U/‹Ê∑§ÊÁÄàÊ ∑§Ê ‚≈UË∑§ •Ê‡Êÿ „Ò —
(1) •ôÊÊŸË ’„Èà ’«∏ ôÊÊŸË „Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥
(2) ôÊÊŸ ∑§◊ ÁŒπÊflÊ íÿÊŒÊ
(3) øŸÊ¥ ∑§ ÷ÈŸŸ ∑§Ë •ÊflÊ¡ ’ÊŒ‹ ∑§Ë ª¡¸ŸÊ ¡Ò‚Ë ‹ªÃË „Ò
(4) ÕÊÕ øŸ ’„Èà •ÊflÊ¡ ∑§⁄UÃ „Ò¥

48. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ √ÿ¥¡Ÿ ‚¥Áœ flÊ‹Ê ‡ÊéŒ „Ò —

(1) ∑ȧ‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ (2) flÊÃʸ‹Ê¬ (3) flÊªË‡Ê (4) ¬⁄U◊ÊÕ¸

49. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ •√ÿÿË÷Êfl ‚◊Ê‚ flÊ‹Ê ‡ÊéŒ „Ò —

(1) •Ê‡ÊÊÃËà (2) Œ‡ÊªÃ (3) ŒflÊ‹ÿ (4) •Ê◊⁄UáÊ

50. ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ Ãà‚◊ ‡ÊéŒ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò —

(1) Á¬ÃÊ (2) ∑§Áfl (3) ⁄UÊÿ (4) ⁄UÊ¡Ê

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (51-54) :
This enormous increase of population is due to better food, better hygiene and above all, the advances
made in medicine. Rapid developments in modern medicine have conquered many diseases and
consequently the death rate has decreased. Until the beginning of the 19th century most people died
before the age of 50. Today in developed countries the average lifespan has risen to more than 70 years.
The population goes on increasing at an alarming rate inspite of the practice of birth control in many
parts of the world. Thomas Malthus, a British mathematician and economist, went to the extent of
declaring that, if unchecked, human population would grow in geometric progression (i.e. 1, 2, 4, 8 and
so on) while food production could grow in arithmetic progression (i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on). He was of
course, very pessimistic.

51. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Our environment is changing.
(2) Our lives have become neat and clean.
(3) Better medical care is available.
(4) People are eating nutritious food.

52. ‘. . . . medicine has conquered ’ . . . .

The underlined word here means :
(1) denied (2) found cure for (3) pushed out (4) defeated

53. Population is rising mostly owing to better :

(1) food (2) hygiene (3) development (4) both (1) and (2)
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RAS-24 / ACT 15 F2
54. ‘. . . . . growing at an alarming rate’ means :
(1) growing very rapidly (2) growing very slowly
(3) growing at a normal rate (4) sounding many alarm bells

55. In the following sentence, one part has an error. Identify the part with the error.

The committee is divided on one minor point .

(1) (2) (3) (4)

56. A letter from an accountant to his manager will have the subscription/closing of :
(1) Yours faithfully (2) Yours obediently
(3) Yours affectionately (4) Yours sincerely

57. Choose the option in which the following sentence has been changed from Active Voice to Passive
Voice.
Ram was knocking at the door.
(1) The door was being knocked at by Ram .
(2) The door was being knocked by Ram.
(3) The door was knocked at by Ram.
(4) The door had been knocked at by Ram.

58. Choose the option in which the following sentence has been changed from Direct Speech to Indirect
Speech.
Amit said, “How clever I am !”
(1) Amit cried that he is very clever.
(2) Amit said that he was very clever.
(3) Amit asked how clever he was.
(4) Amit exclaimed that he was very clever.

59. Identify the Part of Speech of the underlined word in the following sentence.
It wasn’t the blue one but the red one.
(1) Preposition (2) Adverb (3) Noun (4) Conjunction

60. In the following sentence identify the clause of the underlined expression.
It is not clear who has done this .
(1) Noun (2) Adjective (3) Adverb (4) Principal
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RAS-24 / ACT 16 F2
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

PART - IV / ÷ʪ - IV
Accountancy / ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ
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61. An exertion, for achieving a set goal, is called :

(1) Motivation (2) Effort
(3) Incentive (4) Autonomy
∞∑§ ¬Ífl¸ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ‹ˇÿ ∑§Ê ¬˝Êåà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê “ßÊfl” ÄÿÊ ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝⁄UáÊÊ (Motivation) (2) ¬˝ÿÊ‚ (Effort)
(3) ¬˝⁄U∑§ (Incentive) (4) SflÊÿûÊÃÊ (Autonomy)

62. Operational Control is also known as :

(1) Task control (2) Planning control
(3) Rectified control (4) Risk control
¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ∑§Ê ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ Á∑§‚ •ãÿ ŸÊ◊ ‚ ÷Ë ¡ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ∑§Êÿ¸ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ (2) ÁŸÿÊ¡Ÿ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ
(3) ‚¥‡ÊÊÁœÃ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ (4) ¡ÊÁπ◊ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ

63. Which of the following is not a preventive cost with reference to Labour Turnover ?
(1) Cost of training of new labour
(2) Cost of welfare services such as sports facilities, canteen services etc.
(3) Cost of pension or gratuity schemes etc.
(4) Cost of medical services
üÊÁ◊∑§ ¬Á⁄UfløŸ (∑§Ê⁄U’Ê⁄U) ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ ÁŸflÊ⁄U∑§ ‹ÊªÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Ÿÿ üÊÁ◊∑§Ê¥ ∑§ ¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ ¬⁄U •ÊŸflÊ‹Ë ‹ÊªÃ
(2) ∑§ÀÿÊáÊ∑§Ê⁄UË ‚flÊ∞° ÿÕÊ π‹∑ͧŒ ∑§Ë ‚ÈÁflœÊ∞°, ∑Ò¥§≈UËŸ ‚flÊ ßàÿÊÁŒ ¬⁄U •ÊŸflÊ‹Ë ‹ÊªÃ
(3) ¬¥‡ÊŸ ÿÊ ©¬ŒÊŸ S∑§Ë◊Ê¥ ßàÿÊÁŒ ¬⁄U •ÊŸflÊ‹Ë ‹ÊªÃ
(4) ÁøÁ∑§à‚Ëÿ ‚flÊ•Ê¥ ¬⁄U •ÊŸflÊ‹Ë ‹ÊªÃ

64. The work of Audit in relation to regularity of expenditure is of a :

(1) Quasi-Judicial Character (2) Executive Character
(3) Semi-Judicial Character (4) Judicial Character
√ÿÿ ∑§Ë ÁŸÿÁ◊ÃÃÊ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Êÿ¸ Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§Ê „Ò?
(1) •h¸-ãÿÊÁÿ∑§ (ÄflÊ‚Ë-íÿÍÁ«UÁ‡Êÿ‹) (2) ∑§Êÿ¸∑§Ê⁄UË (•Áœ‡ÊÊ‚Ë)
(3) ‚◊Ë-íÿÍÁ«UÁ‡Êÿ‹ (4) ãÿÊÁÿ∑§
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RAS-24 / ACT 17 F2
65. In case of deliberate attempt to evade the tax (Fraud Cases); the tax is paid after 30 Days of receipt
of Notice, what would be the quantum of penalty ?
(1) 25% of tax (2) 50% of tax (3) 100% of tax (4) 15% of tax
∑§⁄U •¬fl¥øŸ ∑§Ê ¡ÊŸ’ͤÊ∑§⁄U ¬˝ÿàŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë Œ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ (œÊπÊœ«∏Ë ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥) ∑§⁄U ∑§Ë ‚¥ŒÊÿªË ŸÊÁ≈U‚ ¬˝Êåà „ÊŸ ∑§ 30 ÁŒŸ
∑§ ÷ËÃ⁄U ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò– ÃÊ ß‚ ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁSà (¡È◊ʸŸÊ) ∑§Ë ⁄U∑§◊ Á∑§ÃŸË „ÊªË?
(1) ∑§⁄ ∑§Ê 25% (2) ∑§⁄ ∑§Ê 50% (3) ∑§⁄ ∑§Ê 100% (4) ∑§⁄ ∑§Ê 15%

66. The specific accounting principles and methods of applying those principles adopted by an enterprise
in the preparation and presentation of financial statements is called :
(1) Accounting Policies (2) Matching Concept
(3) Going Concern Concept (4) Historical Cost Concept
ÁflûÊËÿ Áflfl⁄UáÊË ÃÒÿÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚∑§Ë ¬˝SÃÈÁà ◊¥ ©l◊ mÊ⁄UÊ •¥ªË∑Χà ÁflÁ‡Êc≈U ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ Á‚hʥà •ÊÒ⁄U ©Ÿ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ
„Ò —
(1) ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ŸËÁÃÿÊ° (2) Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •flœÊ⁄UáÊÊ
(3) ¬˝flÎûÊ ∑§Ê⁄UÊ’Ê⁄U ‚¥∑§À¬ŸÊ (4) ∞ÁÄÊÁ‚∑§ ‹ÊªÃ ‚¥∑§À¬ŸÊ

67. ‘A’ invited application for allotting 75,000 Equity shares of ` 10 each at par payable ` 5 on application
and balance an allotment. It received ` 3,00,000 as application money. What is the number of
equity shares that the company will allot to the subscribers ?
(1) 60,000 Equity shares (2) 70,000 Equity shares
(3) Nil (4) 75,000 Equity shares
•◊È∑§ √ÿÁÄà (A) Ÿ •ÊflŒŸ ∑§ ‚◊ÿ ` 5 ‚¥Œÿ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ‡Ê· ` 5 ‡Êÿ⁄U •Ê’¥≈UŸ ∑§ ‚◊ÿ ÷ȪÃÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U
` 10 ¬˝Áà ‡Êÿ⁄U ◊ÍÀÿ ¬⁄U 75,000 ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄U •Ê◊¥ÁòÊà Á∑§∞– ©‚ √ÿÁÄà ∑§Ê ` 3,00,000 ∑§Ê •ÊflŒŸ œŸ (•å‹Ë∑§‡ÊŸ
◊ŸË) ¬˝Êåà „È•Ê– ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ Á∑§ÃŸË „Ò Á¡‚ ∑¥§¬ŸË ‚é‚∑˝§Êß’⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê •Êfl¥Á≈Uà ∑§⁄UªË (∑¥§¬ŸË ‚é‚∑˝§Êß’⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê
Á∑§ÃŸÊ ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄U ¡Ê⁄UË ∑§⁄UªË)?
(1) 60,000 ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄U (2) 70,000 ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄U
(3) ‡ÊÍãÿ (4) 75,000 ßÁÄfl≈UË ‡Êÿ⁄U

68. Which of the following is called a Principal supply in relation to a composite supply under Goods
and Services Act 2017 (GST Act) ?
(1) Packing Materials (2) Transport
(3) Insurable (4) Supply of goods
◊Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚flÊ ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 2017 ∑§ •œËŸ ‚Áê◊üÊ •Ê¬ÍÁø ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ◊ÈÅÿ •Ê¬ÍÁø ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬ÒÁ∑¥§ª ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë (2) ¬Á⁄Ufl„Ÿ (…ÈU‹Ê߸)
(3) ’Ë◊Ê (4) ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ë •Ê¬ÍÁø
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RAS-24 / ACT 18 F2
69. An intangible asset, as per AS - 26, should be measured initially at :
(1) Cost+Training Expenses (2) Cost+Interest on Capital
(3) Cost+Service Charges (4) Cost
‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§-26 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ •Ê⁄¥U÷ ◊¥ •◊Íø ¬Á⁄U‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑§Ê ◊ʬŸ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ‹ÊªÃ+¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ √ÿÿ (2) ‹ÊªÃ+¬Í°¡Ë ¬⁄U éÿÊ¡
(3) ‹ÊªÃ+‚flÊ ¬˝÷Ê⁄U (4) ‹ÊªÃ

70. What is the prescribed rate of interest on delayed filing of Income tax and return ?
(1) 2% per month (2) 3% per month
(3) 4% per month (4) 1% per month
•Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U •Êÿ √ÿÿ Áflfl⁄UáÊË Œ⁄U ‚ ŒÊÁπ‹ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ÁflÁ„à éÿÊ¡ Œ⁄U Á∑§ÃŸË „Ò?
(1) 2% ¬˝ÁÃ◊Ê„ (2) 3% ¬˝ÁÃ◊Ê„
(3) 4% ¬˝ÁÃ◊Ê„ (4) 1% ¬˝ÁÃ◊Ê„

71. Economic lot sizes for inventory control are developed by :

(1) Frank B. Gilbreth (2) Ford Whitman Harris
(3) Henery Fayol (4) Elton Mayo
S∑¥§œ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ „ÃÈ Á◊Ã√ÿÿË ¬˝øÿ ¬Á⁄U◊ÊáÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚Ÿ Áfl∑§Á‚à Á∑§ÿÊ?
(1) »˝Ò¥§∑§ ’Ë. Á¥ª‹’˝Õ (2) »§Ê«¸U Á√„≈U◊ÒŸ „ÒÁ⁄U‚
(3) „Ÿ⁄UË »§ÿÊ‹ (4) ∞À≈UŸ ◊ÿÊ

72. Which of the following is ‘Activity Oriented Network Diagram’ ?

(1) Ogive (2) PERT
(3) Histogram (4) CPM
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê “Á∑˝§ÿÊ ©ã◊Èπ Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ •Ê⁄Uπ” „Ò?
(1) •ÊÁªfl (Ogive) (2) ¬Ë ߸ •Ê⁄U ≈UË
(3) •Êÿà ÁøòÊ (Histogram) (4) ‚Ë ¬Ë ∞◊

73. The Markowitz efficient hypothesis was initiated in :

(1) 1958 (2) 1959 (3) 1960 (4) 1957
◊Ê∑§Ê¸Áflà$¡ ¬˝÷ÊflË ¬Á⁄U∑§À¬ŸÊ ∑§’ ¬˝Ê⁄¥U÷ „È߸?
(1) 1958 (2) 1959 (3) 1960 (4) 1957

74. What is the process that refers to the allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units ?
(1) Cost allocation (2) Cost apportionment
(3) Cost estimation (4) Process costing
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ¬˝∑˝§◊ ‹ÊªÃ ∑§ ‚÷Ë ◊ŒÊ¥ ∑§ ‹ÊªÃ ∑§ãŒ˝Ê¥ •ÕflÊ ‹ÊªÃ ÿÍÁŸ≈UÊ¥ ∑§Ê •Êfl¥Á≈Uà Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ
„Ò?
(1) ‹ÊªÃ •Êfl¥≈UŸ (2) ‹ÊªÃ ‚¥Áfl÷Ê¡Ÿ
(3) ‹ÊªÃ ¬˝ÊÄ∑§‹Ÿ (4) ¬˝∑˝§◊ ‹ÊªÃ
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RAS-24 / ACT 19 F2
75. Which type of Budget requires management to justify all expenditures, rather than just changes
from the previous year ?
(1) Zero-based Budget
(2) Master Budget
(3) Perpetual Budget
(4) Participative Budget
Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ’¡≈U ◊¥ ¬˝’¥œŸ ‚ ÿ„ •¬ˇÊÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò Á∑§ fl„ Á¬¿U‹ fl·¸ ‚ ¬Á⁄UfløŸÊ¥ ∑§Ë ’¡Êÿ ‚◊Sà √ÿÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê •ÊÒÁøàÿ
Á‚h ∑§⁄U?
(1) ‡ÊÍãÿ-•ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà ’¡≈U (Zero-based Budget)
(2) ◊ÊS≈U⁄U ’¡≈U (Master Budget)
(3) ‡Êʇflà ’¡≈U (Perpetual Budget)
(4) ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÊªË ’¡≈U (Participative Budget)

76. At which level of production, the total cost is equal to total revenue ?
(1) Break-even Point (2) Point of Sale
(3) Point of Profit (4) Breaking Point
©à¬ÊŒŸ ∑§ Á∑§‚ SÃ⁄U ¬⁄U, ∑ȧ‹ ‹ÊªÃ ÃÕÊ ∑ȧ‹ •Êª◊ ‚◊ÊŸ „ÊÃ „Ò¥?
(1) ’˝∑§-ßflŸ Á’ãŒÈ (2) Áfl∑˝§ÿ Á’ãŒÈ
(3) ‹Ê÷ Á’ãŒÈ (4) ÁflÉÊÊà Á’ãŒÈ

77. An allowance which is allowed by the seller to a buyer, who has to resell the articles, to compensate
cost of storage, breaking bulk and selling and delivering in small quantities. The allowances is
known as :
(1) Quantity discount (2) Cash discount
(3) Quality discount (4) Trade discount
Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑˝§ÃÊ ∑§Ê ŒË ªß¸ ¿ÍU≈U Á¡‚ flSÃÈ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê ÷¥«UÊ⁄UáÊ ‹ÊªÃ ∑§Ë ˇÊÁìÍÁø ∑§ Á‹∞ ÕÊ∑§ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê ¬˝÷Á¡Ã ∑§⁄U ß‚∑§Ë
Á’∑˝§Ë ∑§⁄UŸ ÃÕÊ ¿UÊ≈UË ◊ÊòÊÊ•Ê¥ ◊¥ ¬ÈŸ—Áfl∑˝§Ë ∑§⁄UŸÊ „ÊÃÊ „Ò, ÿ„ ∑Ò§‚Ë ¿ÍU≈U ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ◊ÊòÊÊà◊∑§ ’^Ê (2) Ÿ∑§Œ (⁄Ê∑§«∏) ’^Ê
(3) ªÈáÊÊà◊∑§ ’^Ê (4) √ÿʬÊÁ⁄U∑§ ’^Ê

78. Which communication device enables a computer to transmit data over telephone lines ?
(1) URL (2) Telephone Instrument
(3) Modem (4) HTML
∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ‚¥¬˝·áÊ ÿ¥òÊ, ≈U‹Ë»§ÊŸ ‹ÊߟÊ¥ ¬⁄U «UÊ≈Ê ‚¥øÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄UŸ „ÃÈ, ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ∑§Ê ‚◊Õ¸ ’ŸÊÃÊ „Ò?U
(1) ÿÍ •Ê⁄U ∞‹ (2) ≈U‹Ë»§ÊŸ ÿ¥òÊ
(3) ◊ÊÚ«U◊ (4) ∞ø ≈UË ∞◊ ∞‹
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RAS-24 / ACT 20 F2
79. Purchase of Assets (other than stock - in - trade) on credit (e.g. land, building, plant and machinery,
furniture and fixture) are recorded in which of the following books ?
(1) Purchase Book (2) Sales Book
(3) Not recorded (4) Cash Book

‚Êπ (´§áÊ) ¬⁄U •ÊÁSÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë π⁄UËŒ (√ÿʬÊÁ⁄U∑§ S≈UÊÚ∑§ ∑§Ê ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄) (©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊÊÕ¸ ÷ÍÁ◊, ÷flŸ, ‚¥ÿ¥òÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ◊‡ÊËŸ⁄UË, »§ÁŸ¸ø⁄U
•ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ ‚¥’h ©¬S∑§⁄U) ∑§Ê ¬˝‹πŸ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ’„Ë ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ∑˝§ÿ ’„Ë (2) Áfl∑˝§ÿ ’„Ë
(3) ߟ∑§Ê ¬˝‹πŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò (4) ⁄UÊ∑§«∏ ’„Ë

80. Hawthorne study is developed by :

(1) Fredrick Winslow Taylor (2) Ardway Tead
(3) Elton Mayo (4) Ford Whitman Harris

„ÊÕÊŸ¸ •äÿÿŸ ∑§Ê Á∑§‚Ÿ Áfl∑§Á‚à Á∑§ÿÊ?

(1) »˝§«Á⁄U∑§ Áfl¥‚‹Ê ≈U‹⁄UU (2) •Ê«¸Ufl ≈UË«U
(3) ∞‹≈UŸ ◊ÿÊ (4) »§Ê«¸U Á√„≈U◊ÒŸ „ÒÁ⁄U‚

81. What is the tax treatment of the Sumptuary Allowance to High Court/Supreme Court Judges ?
(1) Not taxable (2) 30% taxable
(3) 50% taxable (4) Taxable

©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ/‚flÊ¸ëø ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑§ ãÿÊÿʜˇÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê Œÿ “‚à∑§Ê⁄U ÷ûÊÊ” ¬⁄U Á∑§ÃŸÊ ∑§⁄U ¬˝÷ÊÁ⁄Uà „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÿ„ ∑§⁄U ÿÊÇÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò (2) ß‚ ¬⁄U 30% ∑§⁄U ¬˝÷ÊÁ⁄Uà „ÊÃÊ „Ò
(3) ß‚ ¬⁄U 50% ∑§⁄U ¬˝÷ÊÁ⁄Uà „ÊÃÊ „Ò (4) ÿ„ ∑§⁄U ÿÊÇÿ „Ò

82. A body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, constituted for the purpose of assisting,
regulating or controlling the business of buying and selling or dealing in securities is called as :
(1) Stock Exchange (2) Bank
(3) Non-Banking Financial Company (4) Commodity Exchange

√ÿÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§Êÿ ÷‹ „Ë fl„ ÁŸªÁ◊à Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ê •ÕflÊ Ÿ„Ë¥, ∑§Ê ª∆UŸ ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë π⁄UËŒ •ÊÒ⁄U Á’∑˝§Ë ◊¥ ‚„ÊÿÃÊ
∑§⁄UŸ, ©‚ ÁflÁŸÿÁ◊à ∑§⁄UŸ •ÕflÊ ß‚ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§Ê ÁŸÿ¥ÁòÊà ∑§⁄UŸ •ÕflÊ ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁà ∑§ ‚¥√ÿfl„Ê⁄U ∑§ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄U ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ∑§
Á‹∞ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò, ÄÿÊ ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) S≈UÊÚ∑§ ∞Ä‚ø¥¡ (2) ’Ò¥∑§
(3) ªÒ⁄U-’Ò¥∑§∑§Ê⁄UË ÁflûÊËÿ ∑¥§¬ŸË (4) flSÃÈ ÁflÁŸ◊ÿ
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RAS-24 / ACT 21 F2
83. Consider the following statements with reference to recognition of revenue as per Accounting
Standard-9.
(i) Goods shipped subject to payment on delivery; recognised when the payment is received by
the seller or his agent.
(ii) Final dividend : Recognised an actual receipt of Bonus by the owner.
(iii) Export incentives : Recognised when the ultimate collection of export incentives is reasonably
certain although there may be uncertainty about the timing of the receipt of such incentives.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ? Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (4) (i) and (ii) are correct
‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§-9 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ⁄UÊ¡Sfl ∑§Ë ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U Á∑§Á¡∞ —
(i) ¬Á⁄UŒÊŸ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ÷ȪÃÊŸ ∑§ •äÿœËŸ ÷¡ ª∞ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê Ã’ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò ¡’ Áfl∑˝§ÃÊ •ÕflÊ ©‚∑§ ∞¡¥≈U ∑§Ê
‚¥ŒÊÿªË ¬˝Êåà „Ê ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(ii) •¥ÁÃ◊ ‹Ê÷Ê¥‡Ê — ß‚∑§Ë ◊ÊãÿÃÊ SflÊ◊Ë mÊ⁄UÊ flSÃÈ× ’ÊŸ‚ ¬˝Êåà „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò–
(iii) ÁŸÿʸà ¬˝Êà‚Ê„Ÿ — ß‚∑§Ë ◊ÊãÿÃÊ Ã’ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò ¡’ ÁŸÿʸà ¬˝Êà‚Ê„Ÿ ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ∑§Ê ‚¥ª˝„áÊ ÿÈÁÄÃÿÈÄà M§¬ ‚ ÁŸÁ‡øà „ÊÃÊ
„Ò ÿlÁ¬ ß‚ Ã⁄U„ ∑§ ¬˝Êà‚Ê„Ÿ ¬˝ÊÁåà ∑§ ‚◊ÿ ∑§ ’Ê⁄U ◊¥ •ÁŸÁ‡øÃÃÊ „Ê ‚∑§ÃË „Ò–
©¬ÿ¸ÈÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥U ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
(1) (ii) •ÊÒ⁄U (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) (i) •ÊÒ⁄U (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) (i), (ii) •ÊÒ⁄U (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) (i) •ÊÒ⁄U (ii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥

84. “Specific and short-term statements for achieving the goals of an organisation” are called as :
(1) Operational Plan (2) Objectives
(3) Vision (4) Mission Statement
““Á∑§‚Ë ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§ ‹ˇÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ¬˝ÊÁåà „ÃÈ ÁflÁ‡Êc≈U ÃÕÊ •À¬ÊflÁœ∑§ ∑§ÕŸ”” ∑§„‹ÊÃ „Ò¥ —
(1) ¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ÿÊ¡ŸÊ (Operational Plan) (2) ©g‡ÿ (Objectives)

(3) ¬Á⁄U∑§À¬ŸÊ (Vision) (4) äÿÿ ∑§ÕŸ (Mission Statement)

85. The most reliable pattern, widely used for indicating trend reversal, is :
(1) Stochastics (2) Moving Averages
(3) Head and Shoulders (4) Rectangles
¬˝flÎÁûÊ ¬˝àÿÊflûʸŸ ∑§Ê ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UŸ „ÃÈ √ÿʬ∑§ M§¬ ‚ ¬˝ÿÈÄà „ÊŸ flÊ‹Ê •àÿÁœ∑§ Áfl‡fl‚ŸËÿ SflM§¬ „Ò —
(1) ¬˝‚¥÷Ê√ÿÃÊ (2) ø‹Êÿ◊ÊŸ •ÊÒ‚Ã¥ (Moving Averages)

(3) „Ò«U ∞¥«U ‡ÊÊÀ«U‚¸ (Head and Shoulders) (4) •ÊÿÃ¥

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RAS-24 / ACT 22 F2
86. Which of the following relates to full disclosure principle ?
(1) Appending notes to the financial statements.
(2) Accounting of a small calculator as an expense and not as an asset.
(3) Following the written down valuation method of depreciating a particular asset year after
year.
(4) Classification of assets as current assets and fixed assets.
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ ¬Íáʸ ¬˝∑§≈UŸ Á‚hʥà ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò?
(1) ÁflûÊËÿ Áflfl⁄UáÊË ◊¥ Á≈Uå¬áÊË ‚¥‹ÇŸ ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
(2) ¿UÊ≈U ∑Ò§À∑ȧ‹≈U⁄U ∑§Ê √ÿÿ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ ∑§Ë ¬Á⁄U‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥–
(3) fl·¸ Œ⁄U fl·¸ Á∑§‚Ë ¬Á⁄U‚¥¬ÁûÊ Áfl‡Ê· ∑§ ◊ÍÀÿOÊ‚ ∑§Ë Á‹Áπà ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ ¬hÁà ∑§Ê •ŸÈ‚⁄UáÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ–
(4) ¬Á⁄U‚¥¬ÁûÊÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê øÊ‹Í •ÊÁSÃÿÊ° •ÊÒ⁄U ÁŸÿà •ÊÁSÃÿÊ° ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ flªË¸∑§⁄UáÊ–

87. Which of the following points do not relate to Audit against Regularity ?
(1) Rules do not conflict with the orders of, or rules made by, any higher authority.
(2) In case rules have not been separately approved by a competent authority, the issuing
authority possesses the necessary rule-making power.
(3) No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which
will be directly or indirectly to its own advantage.
(4) Rules are consistent with the essential requirement of audit.
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚ Á’ãŒÈ ÁŸÿÁ◊ÃÃÊ ∑§ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥/∑§ Á‹∞ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ÁŸÿ◊ ©ìÊÃ⁄U ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ •ÊŒ‡Ê ÿÊ ’ŸÊ∞ ª∞ ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∑§ ÁflL§h Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃ „Ò¥–
(2) ÿÁŒ ÁŸÿ◊Êfl‹Ë Á∑§‚Ë ‚ˇÊ◊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË mÊ⁄UÊ •‹ª ‚ SflË∑Χà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥ ÃÊ ß‚ Œ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ ÁŸª¸Ã ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§
¬Ê‚ •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ ÁŸÿ◊ ’ŸÊŸ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄà „ÊÃË „Ò–
(3) Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ê ∞‚ √ÿÿ ∑§Ë ‚¥SflË∑ΧÁà ∑§Ê •ÊŒ‡Ê ¬ÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ‡ÊÁÄÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊÁ„∞
Á¡‚‚ ¬˝àÿˇÊ •ÕflÊ ¬⁄UÊˇÊ M§¬ ‚ ©‚∑§ Sflÿ¥ ∑§Ê ‹Ê÷ „ÊŸ ∑§Ë ‚¥÷ÊflŸÊ „Ê–
(4) ÁŸÿ◊ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§Ë •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ •¬ˇÊÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ •ŸÈM§¬ „ÊÃ „Ò¥–

88. How much amount is exempt out of Daily Allowance received by a Member of Parliament under
Section 10(17) of Income Tax Act 1961 ?
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) Entire amount (4) 25%
•Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1961 ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 10(17) ∑§ •œËŸ ‚¥‚Œ ‚ŒSÿ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬˝Êåà ŒÒÁŸ∑§ ÷ûÊÊ ¬⁄U Á∑§ÃŸË ¿ÍU≈U „Ò?
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) ¬Í⁄UË ⁄U∑§◊ (4) 25%

89. ‘Reward to Variability Ratio’ is also known as :

(1) Sharpe Ratio (2) Traynor Ratio (3) Jenson Ratio (4) Booking Ratio
“¬Á⁄UfløŸ‡ÊË‹ÃÊ ¬ÊÁ⁄UÃÊÁ·∑§ •ŸÈȬÊÔ (Reward to Variability Ratio) ∑§Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ Á∑§‚ •ãÿ ŸÊ◊ ‚ ÷Ë ¡ÊŸÊ
¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ‡Êʬ¸ •ŸÈȬÊà (2) ≈˛UÿŸÊ⁄U •ŸÈȬÊà (3) ¡ã‚Ÿ •ŸÈ¬Êà (4) ’ÈÁ∑¥§ª •ŸÈ¬ÊÃ
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RAS-24 / ACT 23 F2
90. In a worksheet, an intersection of a column and a row, is known as :
(1) Column (2) Value (3) Cell (4) Formula
∞∑§ fl∑¸§‡ÊË≈U ◊¥, ∞∑§ SÃ¥÷ ∞fl¥ ∞∑§ ¬¥ÁÄà ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃë¿UŒŸ, ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) SÃ¥÷ (Column) (2) ◊ÍÀÿ (Value) (3) ‚Ò‹ (Cell) (4) ‚ÍòÊ (Formula)

91. A Computer can not boot if it does not have :

(1) Music system (2) Application software
(3) Operating system (4) Printing system
∞∑§ ∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U “’Í≈U” Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄U ‚∑§ÃÊ ÿÁŒ ©‚◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê?
(1) ‚¥ªËà ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë (2) ∞å‹Ë∑§‡ÊŸ ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U
(3) ¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë (Operating system) (4) ◊ÈŒ˝áÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë

92. By preparing the total Creditors Account, which of the following information is ascertained as the
balancing figures ?
(1) Cash Sales
(2) Credit Purchases
(3) Cash Purchases
(4) Credit Sales
‚∑§‹ ‹ŸŒÊ⁄U πÊÃÊ ÃÒÿÊ⁄U ∑§⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚∑§Ë ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ÃÈ‹ŸÊà◊∑§ •Ê°∑§«∏ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò?
(1) ∑Ò§‡Ê ‚À‚ (Ÿ∑§Œ Á’∑˝§Ë)
(2) ∑˝§Á«U≈U ¬ø¸¡‚˜ (‚Êπ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U π⁄UËŒ)
(3) ∑Ò§‡Ê ¬ø¸¡‚˜ (Ÿ∑§Œ ∑˝§ÿ)
(4) ∑˝§Á«U≈U ‚À‚ (‚Êπ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U Á’∑˝§Ë)

93. Which type of software combines multiple application into one package ?
(1) Network software (2) Integrated software
(3) Application software (4) System software
‚Êç≈flÿ⁄U ∑§Ê ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ’„È-•ŸÈ¬˝ÿÊªÊ¥ ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ¬Ò∑§¡ ◊¥ ‚◊ÊÁ„à ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò?U
(1) Ÿ≈Ufl∑¸§ ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U (2) ∞∑§Ë∑Χà ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U
(3) •ŸÈ¬˝ÿÊª ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U (4) ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U

94. The Prime responsibility of the site management is :

(1) Establishment of Work Permit System (2) Training for Site Personnel
(3) Conduct the Field Quality Audit (4) Implement Safety Rules
SÕ‹ ¬˝’¥œŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝◊Èπ ©ûÊ⁄UŒÊÁÿàfl ÄÿÊ „Ò?
(1) ∑§Êÿ¸ ¬⁄UÁ◊≈U ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ∑§Ë SÕʬŸÊ (2) SÕ‹ ∑§Á◊¸ÿÊ¥ „ÃÈ ¬˝Á‡ÊˇÊáÊ
(3) ∑§Êÿ¸ˇÊòÊ ªÈáÊflûÊÊ •¥∑§ˇÊáÊ ∑§⁄UÊŸÊ (4) ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ ÁŸÿ◊ ‹ÊªÍ ∑§⁄UŸÊ
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RAS-24 / ACT 24 F2
95. “An enterprise has neither the intention nor the necessity of liquidation or curtailing materially its
scale of operations.”
With which of the Fundamental Accounting Assumptions the above statement relates ?
(1) Going concern (2) Consistency
(3) Accrual (4) Materiality
““Á∑§‚Ë ©l◊ ∑§Ë Ÿ ÃÊ ¬Á⁄U‚◊ʬŸ •ÕflÊ •¬Ÿ ∑§Êÿ¸∑§‹Ê¬ ∑§ ¬Ò◊ÊŸ ∑§Ê ∑§◊ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë ◊¥‡ÊÊ „ÊÃË „Ò Ÿ „Ë ©‚ ß‚∑§Ë ∑§Ê߸
•Êfl‡ÿ∑§ÃÊ ¬«∏ÃË „Ò–””
©¬ÿȸÄà ∑§ÕŸ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Í‹÷Íà ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝flÎûÊ ∑§Ê⁄UÊ’Ê⁄U (ªÊߥª ∑§Ÿ‚Ÿ¸) (2) ‚Ê¥Ã√ÿÃÊ (∑¥§‚ËS≈¥U‚Ë)
(3) flœ¸Ÿ (∞∑˝Í§•‹) (4) ÃÊÁàfl∑§ÃÊ/flÊSÃÁfl∑§ÃÊ

96. Accounting Information System, Manufacturing Information System and Human Resource
Information System put together are known as :
(1) Management Information System (2) Inventory Information System
(3) Financial Statements (4) Marketing Information System
‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë, ÁflÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë •ÊÒ⁄U ◊ÊŸfl ‚¥‚ÊœŸ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ÃËŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚◊Áãflà M§¬ ‚ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥
‚ ÄÿÊ ‚¥ôÊÊ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò?
(1) ¬˝’¥œ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë (∞◊ •Ê߸ ∞‚) (2) ◊Ê‹‚ÍøË ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë
(3) ÁflûÊËÿ Áflfl⁄UáÊ (4) Áfl¬áÊŸ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë

97. Capital Index Bonds are linked with :

(1) BSE Sensex (2) Consumer Price Index
(3) NSE Nifty (4) Wholesale Price Index
¬Í°¡Ë ‚Íø∑§Ê¥∑§ ’Ê¥«U Á¡‚‚ ’h „Ò¥ fl„ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ „Ò¥?
(1) ’Ë ∞‚ ߸ ‚¥‚Ä‚ (2) ©¬÷ÊÄÃÊ ◊ÍÀÿ ‚Íø∑§Ê¥∑§
(3) ∞Ÿ ∞‚ ߸ ÁŸç≈UË (4) ÕÊ∑§ ◊ÍÀÿ ‚Íø∑§Ê¥∑§

98. Which of the following is not included in the process of controlling ?

(1) Integrates employees’ efforts (2) Analysing deviations
(3) Taking corrective measures (4) Setting performance standards
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ, ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ◊¥ ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ∑§◊¸øÊ⁄UË ¬˝ÿÊ‚ ∞∑§Ë∑§⁄UáÊ (2) Áflø‹Ÿ Áfl‡‹·áÊ
(3) ‚ÈœÊ⁄UÊà◊∑§ ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë (4) ÁŸc¬ÊŒŸ ¬˝◊ʬ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ
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RAS-24 / ACT 25 F2
99. An income that has been earned but not received during the Current Accounting Period is
called :
(1) Unaccrued Income (2) Capital Receipt
(3) Revenue Receipt (4) Accrued Income
øÊ‹Í ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ •flÁœ ◊¥ •Á¡¸Ã •Êÿ ¡Ê ¬˝Êåà Ÿ„Ë¥ „È߸ „Ò, ∑§„‹ÊÃË „Ò —
(1) •ŸÈ¬ÊÁ¡¸Ã •Êÿ (2) ¬Í°¡ËªÃ ¬˝ÊÁåÃ
(3) ⁄UÊ¡Sfl ¬˝ÊÁåà (4) ©¬ÊÁ¡¸Ã •Êÿ

100. An expenditure for which payment has been made or a liability incurred, but which is carried
forward on the assumption that it will be of benefit over a subsequent period is known as :
(1) Fixed Asset (2) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(3) Outstanding Expense (4) Prepaid Expenditure
√ÿÿ Á¡‚∑§ Á‹∞ ‚¥ŒÊÿªË ∑§Ë ªß¸ „Ò •ÕflÊ ŒÿÃÊ ©à¬ãŸ „È߸ „Ò Á∑§ãÃÈ Á¡‚ ß‚ ¬Ífl¸œÊ⁄UáÊÊ (¬ÍflʸŸÈ◊ÊŸ) ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U •Êª
‹ÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò Á∑§ ¬⁄UflÃ˸∑§Ê‹ ◊¥ ß‚‚ ‹Ê÷ „ÊªÊ, ÄÿÊ ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÁŸÿà •ÊÁSà (2) •ÊSÕÁªÃ ⁄UÊ¡Sfl √ÿÿ
(3) ‡Ê· √ÿÿ (4) ¬Ífl¸ ‚¥ŒûÊ √ÿÿ

101. What will be correct sequence of events ?

(i) Forfeiture of shares
(ii) Default on calls
(iii) Re-issue of shares
(iv) Amount transferred to Capital Reserve
ÉÊ≈UŸÊ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê ‚„Ë •ŸÈ∑˝§◊ ÄÿÊ „ÊªÊ?
(i) ‡Êÿ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚◊¬„Îà „ÊŸÊ
(ii) ∑§ÊÚÀ‚-√ÿÁÃ∑˝§◊
(iii) ‡Êÿ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬ÈŸ—ÁŸª¸◊
(iv) ¬Í°¡ËªÃ •Ê⁄UÁˇÊÁà ◊¥ •¥ÃÁ⁄Uà ⁄∑§◊
Choose the correct option :
ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
(1) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) (2) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (3) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (4) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

102. Which of the following is NOT the part of committed fixed cost ?
(1) Depreciation (2) Advertisement
(3) Rent (4) Pay and Allowances
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë ¬˝ÁÃ’h ÁSÕ⁄U ‹ÊªÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) OÊ‚ (2) ÁflôÊʬŸ
(3) Á∑§⁄UÊÿÊ (4) flß ∞fl¥ ÷ûÊ
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RAS-24 / ACT 26 F2
103. What is the maximum amount of gift in kind, per annum, exempted under Income Tax Act ?
(1) ` 5,000 (2) ` 7,500
(3) ` 10,000 (4) ` 2,000
•Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑§ •œËŸ ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸ •Áœ∑§Ã◊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ⁄U∑§◊ ∑§Ê ©¬„Ê⁄U ‹Ÿ ¬⁄U •Êÿ∑§⁄U ‚ ¿ÍU≈U „Ò?
(1) ` 5,000 Ã∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬„Ê⁄U (2) ` 7,500 Ã∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬„Ê⁄U
(3) ` 10,000 Ã∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬„Ê⁄U (4) ` 2,000 Ã∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬„Ê⁄U

104. GST is a trust based taxation regime where in assessee is required to file his returns and determine
tax liability by following :
(1) Self Assessment
(2) After Audit by Chartered Accountant
(3) After Audit by C & AG of India
(4) Regular Assessment
◊Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚flÊ ∑§⁄ ãÿÊ‚ •ÊœÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄Uʜʟ √ÿflSÕÊ „Ò Á¡‚◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄UÃË ‚ •¬ˇÊÊ ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò Á∑§ fl„ •¬Ÿ ¬˝ÁËÊ÷ ∑§Ê
»§Êß‹ ∑§⁄U •ÊÒ⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ∑§⁄U ŒÿÃÊ •flœÊÁ⁄Uà ∑§⁄¥U —
(1) Sfl-ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ
(2) ‚ŸŒË ‹πÊ∑§Ê⁄U (‚Ë ∞) mÊ⁄UÊ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑§ ¬‡øÊØ
(3) ÷Ê⁄Uà ∑§ ÁŸÿ¥òÊ∑§ •ÊÒ⁄U ◊„Ê‹πÊ ¬⁄UˡÊ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ ∑§ ¬‡øÊØ
(4) ÁŸÿÁ◊à ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ

105. What is the input device for Manual Data Entry ?

(1) Joystick (2) Key-Board (3) Light Pen (4) Trackball
„ÊÕ ‚ ŒûÊ («UÊ≈UÊ) ∑§Ë ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝ÿÈÄà ߟ¬È≈U Á«UflÊß‚ ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê „Ò?
(1) ¡ÊÚÿÁS≈U∑§ (2) ∑§Ë-’Ê«¸U (3) ‹Êß≈U ¬Ÿ (4) ≈Ò˛U∑§’ÊÚ‹

106. Which of the following items of PPE cannot be capitalised as per AS-10 ?
(1) Costs of site preparation
(2) Installation and Assembly costs
(3) Professional Fees
(4) Inauguration costs in connection with opening of a new business
‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§-10 ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ‚¥¬ÁûÊ, ‚¥ÿ¥òÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©¬S∑§⁄U (¬Ë ¬Ë ߸) ∑§ Á∑§‚ ◊Œ ∑§Ê ¬Í°¡Ë ◊¥ ¬Á⁄UáÊà Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ
„Ò?
(1) ∑§Êÿ¸SÕ‹ ÃÒÿÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ •Ê߸ ‹ÊªÃ
(2) ‚¥SÕʬŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚◊flß ‹ÊªÃ
(3) √ÿÊfl‚ÊÁÿ∑§ »§Ë‚
(4) ŸÿÊ √ÿfl‚Êÿ ‡ÊÈM§ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ‚¥‚Äà •Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ ‹ÊªÃ
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RAS-24 / ACT 27 F2
107. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India recognising the need to harmonise the diverse
accounting policies and practices, constituted an Accounting Standard Board (ASB) in :
(1) April 1977 (2) July 1977
(3) October 1977 (4) January 1977
“÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ‚ŸŒË ‹πÊ∑§Ê⁄U ‚¥SÕÊŸ” Ÿ ÁflÁflœ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ŸËÁÃÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ•Ê¥ ∑§Ê ‚È‚¥ªÃ ’ŸÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U ©Ÿ◊¥ ‚Ê◊¥¡Sÿ SÕÊÁ¬Ã
∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ÃÊ ∑§Ê •Á÷SflË∑§Ê⁄U Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ß‚ •Ê‡Êÿ ‚ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§ ’Ê«¸U (∞ ∞‚ ’Ë) ∑§Ê ª∆UŸ ∑§’
Á∑§ÿÊ?
(1) •¬Ò˝‹ 1977 (2) ¡È‹Ê߸ 1977
(3) •Ä≈ÍU’⁄U 1977 (4) ¡Ÿfl⁄UË 1977

108. Which of the following is a factor affecting Working Capital requirement ?

(1) Choice of Technique
(2) Diversification
(3) Availability of Raw Material
(4) Scale of Operations
∑§Êÿ¸‡ÊË‹ ¬Í°¡Ë •Êfl‡ÿ∑§ÃÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝÷ÊÁflà ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ê ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ „Ò —
(1) ¬˝ÁflÁœ ∑§Ê øÿŸ
(2) ÁflÁflœÃÊ
(3) ∑§ìÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ë ©¬‹éœÃÊ
(4) ¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ¬Ò◊ÊŸÊ (∑§Ê◊∑§Ê¡ ∑§Ë √ÿʬ∑§ÃÊ)

109. Which of the following is a Prior Period Item ?

(1) Omission to pass an entry for receipts of Insurance claim in a previous year
(2) Estimate of useful life of Fixed Assets
(3) Loss due to earthquake/fire/strike
(4) Method of valuation of Investments
ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ◊Œ “¬Ífl¸ ∑§ÊÁ‹∑§ ◊Œ” „Ò?
(1) Á¬¿U‹ fl·¸ ◊¥ ’Ë◊Ê ŒÊflÊ ¬˝ÊÁåà ∑§Ë ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U (∑§Ë øÍ∑§) Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ
(2) ÁŸÿà •ÊÁSÃÿÊ¥ ∑§ ©¬ÿÊª ◊¥ ⁄U„Ÿ ∑§Ë •flÁœ ∑§Ê •Ê∑§‹Ÿ
(3) ÷Í∑¥§¬/•Êª¡ŸË/„«∏ÃÊ‹ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ „È߸ „ÊÁŸ
(4) ÁŸfl‡Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ ÁflÁœ

110. A customer’s behaviour of leaving the queue due to impatience is known as :

(1) Reneging (2) Jockying (3) Collusion (4) Balking
•œË⁄UÃÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ¬¥ÁÄà ¿UÊ«∏Ÿ ∑§Ê ª˝Ê„∑§ √ÿfl„Ê⁄U ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) àÿʪŸÊ (2) ¬¥ÁÄà •¥Ã⁄UáÊ (3) •Á÷‚¥Áœ (4) ’ÊÁÀ∑¥§ª
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RAS-24 / ACT 28 F2
111. Salary received by a teacher/researcher from SAARC member state is not taxable upto the period :
(1) 3 Years (2) 4 Years (3) 5 Years (4) 2 Years
ŒˇÊ‚ (‚Ê∑¸§) ∑§ ‚ŒSÿ Œ‡ÊÊ¥ ‚ •äÿʬ∑§/‡ÊÊœ∑§Ãʸ ∑§Ê ‚¥ŒûÊ flß ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§ÃŸË ‚◊ÿÊflÁœ Ã∑§ ∑§⁄Uʜʟ ÿÊÇÿ
Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) 3 fl·¸ (2) 4 fl·¸ (3) 5 fl·¸ (4) 2 fl·¸

112. A long term investment decision is called :

(1) Cash Flow Statement (2) Capital Budgeting Decision
(3) Working Capital Decision (4) Fund Flow Statement
ŒËÉÊʸflÁœ∑§ ÁŸfl‡Ê ∑§Ê ÁŸáʸÿ ∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) Ÿ∑§Œ ¬˝flÊ„ Áflfl⁄UáÊË (2) ¬Í°¡Ë ’¡≈U ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ÁŸáʸÿ
(3) ∑§Êÿ¸‡ÊË‹ ¬Í°¡Ë ÁŸáʸÿ (4) ÁŸÁœ-¬˝flÊ„ Áflfl⁄UáÊË

113. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the choice of Capital Structure ?
(1) Return of Investment (2) Availability of Raw Material
(3) Cost of Debt (4) Cash Flow Position
ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ∑§Ê⁄U∑§ ‚ ¬Í°¡ËªÃ ‚¥⁄UøŸÊ ∑§Ê Áfl∑§À¬ ¬˝÷ÊÁflà Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ÁŸfl‡Ê ¬⁄U ¬˝Êåà ¬˝Áû§‹ (2) ∑§ìÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ë ©¬‹éœÃÊ
(3) ´§áÊ ‹ÊªÃ (4) ⁄UÊ∑§«∏ ¬˝flÊ„ ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁÃ

114. The relation between output response and input signal in closed loop system is :
(1) Linear (2) Non-linear
(3) Exponential (4) Parabolic
‚¥flÎà ¬Ê‡Ê Ã¥òÊ ◊¥ ÁŸª¸Ã ¬˝àÿÈûÊ⁄U ÃÕÊ •ÊªÃ ‚¥∑§Ã ∑§ ’Ëø ∑§Ê ‚¥’¥œ „ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ⁄ÒÁπ∑§ (Linear) (2) •⁄ÒÁπ∑§ (Non-linear)
(3) ÉÊÊÃÊ¥∑§ (Exponential) (4) ¬⁄Ufl‹Áÿ∑§ (Parabolic)

115. Which of the following is not included in Hardware ?

(1) Monitor (2) M.S. Office (3) CPU (4) Keyboard
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ, „Ê«¸Uflÿ⁄U ◊¥ ‚Áê◊Á‹Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ◊ÊÚŸË≈U⁄U (2) ∞◊. ∞‚. •ÊÚÁ»§‚ (3) ‚Ë ¬Ë ÿÍ (4) ∑È¥§¡Ë¬≈U‹

116. In Excel, the number of numeric entries can be known, through the function :
ß‚ »¥§Ä‡ÊŸ ∑§ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ “∞Ä‚‹” ◊¥, ‚¥ÅÿÊà◊∑§ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈UÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ ¡ÊŸË ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃË „Ò —
(1) COUNT (2) CHKNUM (3) NUM (4) SUM

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RAS-24 / ACT 29 F2
117. ‘Span of Control’ refers to :
(1) The resources available to a manager
(2) The geographical area of business operation
(3) The chain of command in any organisation
(4) The number of employees reporting to a superior
“ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ÁflSÃÎÁÔ ‚ ÄÿÊ ÃÊà¬ÿ¸ „Ò?
(1) ∞∑§ ¬˝’¥œ∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬‹éœ ‚¥‚ÊœŸ
(2) √ÿfl‚Êÿ ¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ∑§Ê ÷ÊÒªÊÁ‹∑§ ˇÊòÊ
(3) Á∑§‚Ë ‚¥ª∆UŸ ◊¥ ‚Ê¬ÊŸ oÎ¥π‹Ê
(4) ∞∑§ ©ìÊÊÁœ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ê Á⁄U¬Ê≈¸U ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ ∑§◊¸øÊÁ⁄UÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ‚¥ÅÿÊ

118. Opening stock of Raw Materials 10,000

Closing stock of Raw Materials 15,000
Expenses of Purchases 5,000
Direct Wages 50,000
Prime Cost 1,00,000
From the above data what is the cost of raw material purchased from the options given below ?
∑§ìÊÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê •Ê⁄¥UÁ÷∑§ S≈UÊÚ∑§ 10,000
∑§ìÊÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ê •¥ÁÃ◊ S≈UÊÚ∑§ 15,000
∑˝§ÿ ∑§Ê √ÿÿ 5,000
¬˝àÿˇÊ ◊¡ŒÍ⁄UË 50,000
◊Í‹ ‹ÊªÃ 1,00,000
©¬ÿ¸ÈÄà •Ê°∑§«∏ ∑§ •ÊœÊ⁄U ¬⁄U ôÊÊà ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ŒûÊ (•Ê°∑§«∏) ‚ π⁄ËŒ ª∞ ∑§ìÊ ◊Ê‹ ∑§Ë ‹ÊªÃ Á∑§ÃŸË „Ò?
(1) ` 50,000 (2) ` 30,000 (3) ` 25,000 (4) ` 1,10,000

119. The organisations that are formed for the purpose of promoting commerce, art, science, religion,
charity or other useful objects are called :
(1) Private Limited Company
(2) Not for Profit Organisation
(3) Public Limited Company
(4) Partnership firm
Á¡‚ ‚¥ª∆UŸ ∑§Ê ª∆UŸ flÊÁáÊíÿ, ∑§‹Ê, ÁflôÊÊŸ, œ◊¸, ¬⁄U◊ÊÕ¸ •ÕflÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ◊„ûfl¬Íáʸ ©g‡ÿ ∑§Ê ’…∏ÊflÊ ŒŸ ∑§ ¬˝ÿÊ¡ŸÊÕ¸
Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ©‚ ÄÿÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝Êßfl≈U Á‹Á◊≈U«U ∑¥§¬ŸË
(2) •‹Ê÷∑§Ê⁄UË ‚¥ª∆UŸ (ŸÊÚ≈U »§ÊÚ⁄U ¬˝ÊÚÁ»§≈U •ÊÚª¸ŸÊß¡‡ÊŸ)
(3) ¬Áé‹∑§ Á‹Á◊≈U«U ∑¥§¬ŸË
(4) ‚ʤÊŒÊ⁄UË ¬˝ÁÃc∆UÊŸ
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RAS-24 / ACT 30 F2
120. Income Tax due for net Income range of ` 50 lakh to ` one crore for A.Y. 2024-25 shall be increased
by surcharge as follows :
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 37% (4) Nil
` 50 ‹Êπ ‚ ∞∑§ ∑§⁄UÊ«∏ L§¬ÿ ∑§ ŒÊÿ⁄U (range) ◊¥ ÁŸfl‹ •Êÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ fl·¸ 2024-25 ◊¥ •Êÿ∑§⁄U ¬⁄ UŒÿ •Áœ÷Ê⁄U
◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ¬˝ÁÇÊà Œÿ „ÊªÊ?
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 37% (4) ‡ÊÍãÿ

121. When more than two accounts are involved in a transaction and transaction is recorded by means
of a single journal entry instead of passing several journal entries, such entry is termed as :
(1) Double Entry (2) Compound Journal Entry
(3) Special Journal Entry (4) Single Entry
¡’ Á∑§‚Ë ‚¥√ÿfl„Ê⁄U (‹Ÿ ŒŸ) ◊¥ ŒÊ πÊÃ •¥Ãª˝¸Sà „ÊÃ „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚¥√ÿfl„Ê⁄ ∑§Ê •Á÷‹πŸ ∑§ß¸ ¡Ÿ¸‹ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈UÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë ’¡Êÿ
∞∑§‹ ¡Ÿ¸‹ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U mÊ⁄UÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ ß‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U ∑§„‹ÊÃË „Ò —
(1) mÿ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U (2) ‚¥ÿÊÁ¡Ã ¡Ÿ¸‹ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U
(3) Áfl‡Ê· ¡Ÿ¸‹ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U (4) ∞∑§‹ ¬˝ÁflÁc≈U

122. Long term financial instruments having maturity of more than one year is subject matter of :
(1) Capital Market (2) Retail Market
(3) Wholesale Market (4) Money Market
ŒËÉÊʸflÁœ∑§ ÁflûÊËÿ Á‹πà (ŒSÃÊfl¡) Á¡‚∑§Ë Á◊ÿÊŒ (¬Á⁄U¬ÄflÃÊ •flÁœ) ∞∑§ fl·¸ ‚ •Áœ∑§ „ÊÃË „Ò, fl„ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥
‚ Á∑§‚∑§Ê Áfl·ÿ flSÃÈ „Ò?
(1) ¬Í°¡ËªÃ ’Ê¡Ê⁄U (2) πÈŒ⁄UÊ ’Ê¡Ê⁄U
(3) ÕÊ∑§ ’Ê¡Ê⁄U (4) ◊ÈŒ˝Ê ’Ê¡Ê⁄U

123. In a linear programming problem, the infeasibility may be removed by :

(1) Removing a constraint (2) Removing a Variable
(3) Adding a Variable (4) Adding a constraint
∞∑§ ⁄ÒUÁπ∑§ ∑˝§◊ÊŸÈŒ‡ÊŸ ‚◊SÿÊ ‚ •√ÿfl„Êÿ¸ÃÊ ∑§Ê „≈UÊŸ „ÃÈ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ∞∑§ ÁŸª˝„ „≈UÊŸÊ (2) ∞∑§ ø⁄U „≈UÊŸÊ
(3) ∞∑§ ø⁄U ¡Ê«∏ŸÊ (4) ∞∑§ ÁŸª˝„ ¡Ê«∏ŸÊ

124. The Equally likely decision criteria is also known as :

(1) Laplace (2) Hurwicz (3) Bayes (4) Minimax
‚◊¬˝ÊÁÿ∑§ ÁŸáʸÿ ◊ÊŸŒ¥«U ∑§Ê ß‚ ŸÊ◊ ‚ ÷Ë ¡ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ‹Ò¬‹‚ (2) „Áfl¸ø (3) ’ÿ‚ (4) Á◊ÁŸ◊ÒÄ‚
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RAS-24 / ACT 31 F2
125. When atleast one of the basic variable is zero, then the basic feasible solution to a linear programming
problem is said to be :
(1) Infeasible (2) Degenerate (3) Feasible (4) Non-degenerate
ÿÁŒ ◊Í‹÷Íà ø⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑§◊-‚-∑§◊ ∞∑§ ø⁄U ‡ÊÍãÿ „Ê, ÃÊ ⁄ÒUÁπ∑§ ∑˝§◊ÊŸÈŒ‡ÊŸ ‚◊SÿÊ ∑§ ◊Í‹÷Íà √ÿfl„Êÿ¸ ‚◊ʜʟ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ
∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) •√ÿfl„Êÿ¸ (2) Áfl∑Χà (3) √ÿfl„Êÿ¸ (4) •Áfl∑ΧÃ

126. An appeal to the Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling under the Central GST Act 2017 shall
be filed within :
(1) 30 Days (2) 45 Days (3) 60 Days (4) 15 Days
◊Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄U ‚flÊ ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 2017 ∑§ •œËŸ •Áª˝◊ ÁflÁŸáʸÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ •¬Ë‹Ëÿ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊¥ Á∑§ÃŸ ‚◊ÿ ∑§ ÷ËÃ⁄U
•¬Ë‹ ŒÊÿ⁄U ∑§Ë ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃË „Ò?
(1) 30 ÁŒŸ (2) 45 ÁŒŸ (3) 60 ÁŒŸ (4) 15 ÁŒŸ

127. If the feasible region of a linear programming problem is empty, the solution will be :
(1) Infeasible (2) Unbounded (3) Feasible (4) Alternative
ÿÁŒ ∞∑§ ⁄ÒUÁπ∑§ ∑˝§◊ÊŸÈŒ‡ÊŸ ‚◊SÿÊ ∑§Ê √ÿfl„Êÿ¸ ˇÊòÊ Á⁄UÄà „Ê, ÃÊ ‚◊ʜʟ ÄÿÊ „ÊªÊ?
(1) •√ÿfl„Êÿ¸ (2) •’Êœ (3) √ÿfl„Êÿ¸ (4) flÒ∑§ÁÀ¬∑§

128. Overheads according to nature can be classified as :

(1) Normal overheads and abnormal overheads
(2) Factory and office overheads
(3) Selling and Distribution overheads
(4) Indirect material, Indirect Labour and Indirect expenses
¬˝∑ΧÁà ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ©¬Á⁄U√ÿÿ ∑§Ê ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã M§¬ ◊¥ flªË¸∑Χà Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ©¬Á⁄√ÿÿ •ÊÒ⁄U •¬‚Ê◊Êãÿ ©¬Á⁄U√ÿÿ U
(2) ∑§Ê⁄UπÊŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Êÿʸ‹ÿ ©¬Á⁄U√ÿÿ
(3) Áfl∑˝§Ë •ÊÒ⁄U ÁflÃ⁄UáÊ ©¬Á⁄U√ÿÿ
(4) •¬˝àÿˇÊ (¬⁄UÊˇÊ) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë, •¬˝àÿˇÊ üÊÁ◊∑§ (üÊ◊) •ÊÒ⁄U •¬˝àÿˇÊ √ÿÿ

129. Continuous stock taking is related with :

(1) Perpetual Inventory (2) Annual Stock taking
(3) ABC Analysis (4) Annual Inventory Analysis
“‚ÃØ S∑¥§œ ‹ŸÊ” Á∑§‚‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò?
(1) ‡Êʇflà ⁄U„ÁÃÿÊ (2) flÊÁ·¸∑§ S∑¥§œ ‹ŸÊ
(3) ∞ ’Ë ‚Ë Áfl‡‹·áÊ (4) flÊÁ·¸∑§ ⁄U„ÁÃÿÊ Áfl‡‹·áÊ
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RAS-24 / ACT 32 F2
130. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) Auditor must educate as well as investigate.
(2) Auditor should not only point out mistakes but also indicate how they may be rectified and
avoided in future.
(3) Improvements in system is the duty of Auditor.
(4) Audit is one of the instruments of the financial control
ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •ÁŸflÊÿ¸Ã— Á‡ÊÁˇÊà ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ‚ÊÕ ‚ÊÕ •ãfl·áÊ ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
(2) ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ª‹ÁÃÿÊ° Ÿ„Ë¥ ߥÁªÃ ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ •Á¬ÃÈ ÿ„ ÷Ë ’ÃÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ Á∑§ ßã„¥ ∑Ò§‚ ‚ÈœÊ⁄UÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ
„Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ÷Áflcÿ ◊¥ ß‚∑§Ê ¬Á⁄U„Ê⁄U Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò–
(3) ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë (Ã¥òÊ) ◊¥ ‚ÈœÊ⁄U ‹ÊŸÊ ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ∑§Ã¸√ÿ „Ò–
(4) ‹πʬ⁄UˡÊÊ ÁflûÊËÿ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ∑§Ë ∞∑§ ÿÈÁÄà „Ò–

131. The concept of ‘Job Enrichment’ is contributed by :

(1) Fredrick Winslow Taylor (2) Peter F. Drucker
(3) Ardway Tead (4) Fredrick Hertzberg
“∑§Êÿ¸ ‚¥flœ¸Ÿ” ∑§Ë ‚¥∑§À¬ŸÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁìʌŸ Á∑§Ÿ∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Ë ªß¸?
(1) »˝§«UÁ⁄U∑§ Áfl¥‚‹Ê ≈U‹⁄U (2) ¬Ë≈U⁄U ∞»§. «˛U∑§⁄U
(3) •Ê«¸Ufl ≈UË«U (4) »˝§«UÁ⁄U∑§ „≈˜¸¡’ª¸

132. An assessment under Section 143 of Income Tax Act shall be completed within what period from
the end of relevant assessment year ?
(1) 9 months (2) 12 months (3) 18 months (4) 6 months
•Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, ∑§Ë œÊ⁄UÊ 143 ∑§ •œËŸ ∑§⁄U ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ‚¥ªÃ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ fl·¸ ∑§ ‚◊Êåà „ÊŸ ‚ Á∑§ÃŸË ‚◊ÿÊflÁœ ∑§ ÷ËÃ⁄U
¬Í⁄UÊ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ?
(1) 9 ◊Ê„ (2) 12 ◊Ê„ (3) 18 ◊Ê„ (4) 6 ◊Ê„

133. Which of the following is not treated as Inventory as per Accounting Standard-2 ?
(1) Spares specific to a particular fixed asset.
(2) Asset held in the process of production for such sale e.g. WIP (Work-in-Progress).
(3) Assets held in the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the process of production
on rendering services.
(4) Assets held for sale in ordinary business e.g. finished goods.
“‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊ÊŸ∑§-2” ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ◊Ê‹‚ÍøË Ÿ„Ë¥ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) Á∑§‚Ë Áfl‡Ê· ÁŸÿà •ÊÁSà ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁflÁ‡Êc≈U ∑§‹¬È¡¸–
(2) ß‚ Ã⁄U„ ∑§Ë Á’∑˝§Ë ∑§ Á‹∞ ©à¬ÊŒŸ ∑§Ë ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ ◊¥ œÊÁ⁄Uà •ÊÁSÖ
(3) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ œÊÁ⁄Uà •ÊÁSÃÿÊ° •ÕflÊ •Ê¬ÍÁøÿÊ¥ ∑§Ë π¬Ã (∑§Ê ©¬÷Êª) ‚flÊ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ©à¬ÊŒŸ ∑§Ë ¬˝Á∑˝§ÿÊ
◊¥ ∑§Ë ¡Ê∞–
(4) ‚ÊœÊ⁄UáÊ √ÿfl‚Êÿ ◊¥ Á’∑˝§Ë ∑§ Á‹∞ œÊÁ⁄Uà ¬Á⁄U‚¥¬ÁûÊ ÿÕÊ-ÃÒÿÊ⁄U ◊Ê‹–
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RAS-24 / ACT 33 F2
134. Statistical quality control techniques were developed by :
(1) F.W. Taylor (2) Clark Gable
(3) Walter Shewhart (4) Elton Mayo
‚Ê¥ÁÅÿ∑§Ëÿ ªÈáÊflûÊÊ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ Ã∑§ŸË∑¥§ Áfl∑§Á‚à ∑§Ë ªß¸ —
(1) ∞»§. «UéÀÿÍ. ≈U‹⁄U (2) Ä‹Ê∑¸§ ªÊ’‹
(3) flÊÀ≈U⁄U ‡Ê√„Ê≈¸U (4) ∞À≈UŸ ◊ÿÊ

135. Consider the following statements with reference to objections to installation of cost accounting
system in an organisation.
(i) The system is quite expensive as it requires considerable amount of clerical work.
(ii) Costing system itself does not control costs or improve efficiency.
(iii) Adequate costing records supply to the Management such data as may be necessary for
preparation of Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet, at such intervals as may be desired
by the Management.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct with reference to objections to the installation of
cost accounting system ? Choose from the codes given below.
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (2) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (4) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
Á∑§‚Ë ‚¥ª∆UŸ ◊¥ ‹ÊªÃ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ‚¥SÕʬŸ ∑§Ë •Ê¬ÁûÊ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
(i) ÿ„ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ’„Èà πø˸‹Ë „Ò ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ ß‚◊¥ ’„Èà •Áœ∑§ Á‹Á¬∑§Ëÿ ∑§Êÿ¸ •¬ÁˇÊà „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(ii) ‹ÊªÃ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ‚ Sfl× ‹ÊªÃ ∑§◊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË „Ò •ÕflÊ ŒˇÊÃÊ (∑§Êÿ¸∑ȧ‡Ê‹ÃÊ) ◊¥ ‚ÈœÊ⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(iii) ¬˝’¥œŸ ∑§Ê ß‚ Ã⁄U„ ∑§ ŒûÊ ∑§Ë ¬ÿʸåà ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ •Á÷‹π ∑§Ë •Ê¬ÍÁø ¡Ê “‹Ê÷ •ÊÒ⁄U „ÊÁŸ” πÊÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U “ÃÈ‹Ÿ ¬òÊ”
ÃÒÿÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬˝’¥œŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ∑§Áìÿ ‚◊ÿÊ¥Ã⁄UÊ‹ ◊¥ •¬ÁˇÊà „Ê–
©¬ÿ¸ÈÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‹ÊªÃ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ‚¥SÕʬŸ ∑§Ë •Ê¬ÁûÊ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑ͧ≈U ◊¥ ‚
‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U øÈÁŸ∞ —
(1) ∑§fl‹ (ii) •ÊÒ⁄ (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (2) ∑§fl‹ (i) •ÊÒ⁄ (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥
(3) (i), (ii) •ÊÒ⁄ (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) ∑§fl‹ (i) •ÊÒ⁄U (ii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥

136. In contracts where besides ‘cost’ an agreed sum or percentage to cover overheads and profit is
paid to the contractor; what is the method called ?
(1) Cost plus costing (2) Operation costing
(3) Batch costing (4) Process costing
∞‚Ë ‚¥ÁflŒÊ•Ê¥ ◊¥ ¡„Ê° “‹ÊªÃ” ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ ©¬Á⁄U√ÿÿ ∑§Ë ÷⁄U¬Ê߸ ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§Áìÿ ‚„◊à œŸ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ÿÊ ∑ȧ¿U ¬˝ÁÇÊà •ÊÒ⁄U
‹Ê÷ (◊ÈŸÊ»§Ê) ∑§Ë ‚¥ŒÊÿªË ‚¥ÁflŒÊ∑§Ãʸ (∆U∑§ŒÊ⁄U) ∑§Ê ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò, ß‚ ¬hÁà ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ‹ÊªÃ fl ‹Ê÷ÿÈÄà ‹ÊªÃ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ (2) ¬˝øÊ‹Ÿ ‹ÊªÃ
(3) ’Òø ‹ÊªÃ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ (4) ¬˝∑˝§◊ ‹ÊªÃ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ

137. A portion of the capital available only for the creditors on winding up of the company is called :
(1) Reserve Capital (2) Called up Capital
(3) Uncalled up Capital (4) Authorised Capital
∑¥§¬ŸË ∑§Ê ’¥Œ Á∑§∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑§Ë Œ‡ÊÊ ◊¥ ∑§fl‹ ‹ŸŒÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ „Ë ¬Í°¡Ë ∑§Ê ∞∑§ •¥‡Ê ©¬‹éœ „ÊÃÊ „Ò, ß‚ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) •Ê⁄UÁˇÊà ¬Í°¡Ë (2) ¬˝ÁÃŒÿ ¬Í°¡Ë (Called up Capital)
(3) •¬˝ÁÃŒÿ ¬Í°¡Ë (Uncalled up Capital) (4) •Áœ∑Χà ¬Í°¡Ë
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RAS-24 / ACT 34 F2
138. A Budget is an example of which type of plans ?
(1) Standing Plan (2) Single Use Plan
(3) Strategic Plan (4) Informal Plan
’¡≈U, ÿÊ¡ŸÊ•Ê¥ ∑§ Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò?
(1) SÕÊ߸ ÿÊ¡ŸÊ (2) ∞∑§‹ ©¬ÿÊª ÿÊ¡ŸÊ
(3) ⁄UáÊŸËÁÃ∑§ ÿÊ¡ŸÊ (4) •ŸÊÒ¬øÊÁ⁄U∑§ ÿÊ¡ŸÊ

139. Consider the following statements with reference of Debt financing :

(i) A business that doesn’t grow, dies.
(ii) Higher the volatility in your business the more debt you should have.
(iii) Smaller the volatility, less debt you can afford.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct; choose the correct option :
(1) Only (ii) is correct (2) Only (iii) is correct
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (4) Only (i) is correct
´§áÊ ÁflûʬÊ·áÊ ∑§ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ∑§ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄U ÁfløÊ⁄U ∑§ËÁ¡∞ —
(i) fl„ √ÿfl‚Êÿ Á¡‚◊¥ ¬˝ªÁà Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË „Ò, ‚◊Êåà „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(ii) •Ê¬∑§ √ÿfl‚Êÿ ◊¥ Á¡ÃŸË •Áœ∑§ ¬Á⁄Uflàÿ¸ÃÊ „ÊªË •Ê¬∑§ ¬Ê‚ ©ÃŸÊ „Ë •Áœ∑§ ´§áÊ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
(iii) ¬Á⁄Uflàÿ¸ÃÊ Á¡ÃŸË ∑§◊ „ÊªË •Ê¬ ©ÃŸÊ „Ë ∑§◊ ´§áÊ ‹Ÿ ◊¥ ‚ˇÊ◊ „Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥–
©¬ÿ¸ÈÄà ◊¥ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê/‚ ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥; ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬U øÈÁŸ∞ —
(1) ∑§fl‹ (ii) ‚„Ë „Ò (2) ∑§fl‹ (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò
(3) (i), (ii) •ÊÒ⁄ (iii) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ (4) ∑§fl‹ (i) ‚„Ë „Ò

140. Under which type of accounting, the accounting information developed primarily for internal
decision makers ?
(1) Management Accounting
(2) Financial Accounting
(3) Risk Accounting
(4) Audit Accounting
Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ◊¥, ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ ‚ÍøŸÊ ◊ÈÅÿ M§¬ ‚ •Ê¥ÃÁ⁄U∑§ ÁŸáÊʸÿ∑§Ê¥ „ÃÈ Áfl∑§Á‚à ∑§Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò?
(1) ¬˝’¥œ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ (Management Accounting)
(2) ÁflûÊËÿ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ (Financial Accounting)
(3) ¡ÊÁπ◊ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ (Risk Accounting)
(4) •¥∑§ˇÊáÊ ‹πÊ¥∑§Ÿ (Audit Accounting)

141. A primary record of the quantity of stocks, kept on an in/out/balance, held in designated storage
area is called :
(1) Bin Card (2) Stores Ledger
(3) Inventory System (4) Bill of Material
¬ŒÊÁ÷Á„à / ŸÊÁ◊à ÷¥«UÊ⁄UáÊ ◊¥ œÊÁ⁄Uà ‡Ê· ∑§ M§¬ ◊¥ ÿÊ ‡Ê· ∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà S≈UÊÚ∑§ ∑§Ë ◊ÊòÊÊ (⁄UÊÁ‡Ê) ∑§Ê ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ Á⁄U∑§Ê«¸U
∑§„‹ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) Á’Ÿ ∑§Ê«¸U (2) ÷¥«UÊ⁄U πÊÃÊ’„Ë
(3) ◊Ê‹‚ÍøË ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë /Ã¥òÊ (4) ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê Á’‹
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RAS-24 / ACT 35 F2
142. According to ‘Capital Asset Pricing Model’, overpriced securities have :
(1) Positive Betas (2) Negative Alphas
(3) Negative Betas (4) Positive Alphas
“¬Í°¡Ë ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ◊ÍÀÿÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ ◊ÊÚ«‹” ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U •Áœ◊ÍÁÀÿà ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁÃÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê — U
(1) œŸÊà◊∑§ “’Ë≈UÊ” „ÊÃÊ „ÒU (2) ´§áÊÊà◊∑§ “•À»§Ê” „ÊÃÊ „Ò
(3) ´§áÊÊà◊∑§ “’Ë≈UÊ” „ÊÃÊ „ÒÒ (4) œŸÊà◊∑§ “•À»§Ê” „ÊÃÊ „Ò

143. Who introduced the ‘Arbitrage Pricing Theory’ ?

(1) Charles Dow (2) Benchamin Graham
(3) Stephen Ross (4) William Sharp
◊äÿflÃ˸ ◊ÍÀÿÁŸœÊ¸⁄UáÊ Á‚hʥà ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁìʌŸ Á∑§‚Ÿ Á∑§ÿÊ?
(1) øÊÀ‚¸ «UÊ (2) ’¥øÊÁ◊Ÿ ª˝Ê„◊
(3) S≈UË»§Ÿ ⁄UÊÒ‚ (4) ÁflÁ‹ÿ◊ ‡Ê¬¸

144. Employer’s contribution towards approved superannuation fund will be chargeable to tax to the
extent it exceeds :
(1) ` 7,50,000 per annum
(2) ` 10,00,000 per annum
(3) ` 15,00,000 per annum
(4) ` 5,00,000 per annum
•ŸÈ◊ÊÁŒÃ •ÁœflÁ·¸ÃÊ ÁŸÁœ ◊¥ ÁŸÿÊÄÃÊ ∑§Ê •¥‡ÊŒÊŸ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§ÃŸË œŸ⁄UÊÁ‡Ê ‚ •Áœ∑§ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ∑§⁄Uʜʟ ÿÊÇÿ „Ò?
(1) ` 7,50,000 ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸ (‚Ê…∏ ‚Êà ‹Êπ ` ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸)
(2) ` 10 ‹Êπ ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸
(3) ` 15 ‹Êπ ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸
(4) ` 5 ‹Êπ ¬˝ÁÃfl·¸

145. Cost of Production of Goods Sold+Selling expenses+Profit is called :

(1) Sales (2) Prime cost
(3) Total cost (4) Purchases

’øË ªß¸ flSÃÈ (’ø ª∞ ◊Ê‹) ∑§Ë ©à¬ÊŒŸ ‹ÊªÃ+Áfl∑˝§ÿ √ÿÿ+‹Ê÷ ∑§Ê ÁŸêŸÊ¥Á∑§Ã ◊¥ ‚ ÄÿÊ ‚¥ôÊÊ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò?
(1) Áfl∑˝§Ë§ (2) ¬˝œÊŸ ‹ÊªÃ (◊ÈÅÿ ‹ÊªÃ)
(3) ∑ȧ‹ ‹ÊªÃ (4) ∑˝§ÿ
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RAS-24 / ACT 36 F2
146. A ‘Price Weighted Index’ is an arithmetic mean of :
(1) Current Prices (2) Future Prices
(3) Annual Prices (4) Historical Prices
∞∑§ “◊ÍÀÿ ÷ÊÁ⁄Uà ‚Íø∑§Ê¥∑§” Á¡Ÿ∑§Ê •¥∑§ªÁáÊÃËÿ ◊Êäÿ „ÊÃÊ „Ò, fl„ „Ò —
(1) øÊ‹Í ◊ÍÀÿ (2) ÷Áflcÿ ∑§ ◊ÍÀÿ
(3) flÊÁ·¸∑§ ◊ÍÀÿ (4) ∞ÁÄÊÁ‚∑§ ◊ÍÀÿ

147. Which of the following security is considered as highly liquid ?

(1) Treasury Bills (2) Mutual Fund Units
(3) Shares (4) Debentures
ÁŸêŸ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑§‚ ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁà ∑§Ê •àÿ¥Ã “Ã⁄U‹” ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) π¡ÊŸÊ Á’‹ (2) êÿÈëÿÈ•‹ »¥§«U ÿÍÁŸ≈U
(3) •¥‡Ê (‡Êÿ⁄U) (Shares) (4) ´§áʬòÊ

148. In a computer, the main function of the CPU is :

(1) Executing Instructions (2) Networking
(3) Storing data (4) Input and Output
∑§êåÿÍ≈U⁄U ◊¥, ‚Ë ¬Ë ÿÍ ∑§Ê ◊ÈÅÿ ∑§Êÿ¸ „Ò —
(1) •ŸÈŒ‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Ê‹Ÿ (2) Ÿ≈UflÁ∑Z§ª
(3) «UÊ≈UÊ ÷¥«UÊ⁄UáÊ (4) •ÊªÃ ∞fl¥ ÁŸª¸Ã

149. Specialisation is a characteristic of which type of organisational structure ?

(1) Matrix (2) Divisional (3) Functional (4) Line
Áfl‡Ê·ôÊÃÊ, Á∑§‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ‚¥ª∆UŸ …UÊ°ø ∑§Ë Áfl‡Ê·ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ◊ÒÁ≈˛UÄ‚ (2) ¬˝÷ʪËÿ (3) Á∑˝§ÿÊà◊∑§ (4) ⁄UπÊ

150. Which of the following income received by a Government servant in a previous year is exempt
under Income Tax Act ?
(1) Leave encashment while in service (2) Gratuity
(3) Annuity from employer (4) Advance Salary
Á¬¿U‹ fl·¸ Á∑§‚Ë ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§◊¸øÊ⁄UË mÊ⁄UÊ ¬˝Êåà Á∑§‚ •Êÿ ∑§Ê •Êÿ∑§⁄U •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ‚ ¿ÍU≈U ŒË ªß¸ „Ò?
(1) ‚flÊ⁄Uà ⁄U„Ÿ ∑§ ŒÊÒ⁄UÊŸ ¿ÈU^Ë Ÿ∑§ŒË∑§⁄UáÊ (2) ©¬ŒÊŸ
(3) ÁŸÿÊÄÃÊ ‚ ¬˝Êåà flÊÁ·¸∑§ flÎÁûÊ (4) •Áª˝◊ flß

-oOo-
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RAS-24 / ACT 37 F2
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„

RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

RAS-24 / ACT 38 F2
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¡ª„

RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

RAS-24 / ACT 39 F2
 READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY : ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥ —
1. The manner in which the different questions are to be answered has been 1. Á¡‚ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ‚ ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ÁŒ∞ ¡ÊŸ „Ò¥ ©‚∑§Ê fláʸŸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ
explained in the Test Booklet which you should read carefully before actually ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò, Á¡‚ •Ê¬ ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ‚ ¬„‹ äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏
answering the questions. ‹¥–
2. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one circle for the correct 2. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ øÊ⁄U Áfl∑§À¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ OMR
answer is to be darkened completely with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen on ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ¬Îc∆U-2 ¬⁄U ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê „Ë ¬Í⁄UË Ã⁄U„ ŸË‹/∑§Ê‹ ’ÊÚ‹ ¬ÊÚßã≈U
Side-2 of the OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not liable ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄¥U– ∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U •¥Á∑§Ã ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ©‚ ’Œ‹Ê Ÿ„Ë¥ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ
to be changed. In case more than one circle is darkened, the question „Ò– ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ flÎûÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ
will not be assessed.
¡Ê∞ªÊ–
3. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not 3. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ ß‚ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ◊Ê«∏Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞ ∞fl¥ ©‚ ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸
make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. •ãÿ ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ Ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬ŸÊ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊Ê¥∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄UÃ
anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.
SÕÊŸ ∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄà •ãÿòÊ Ÿ Á‹π¥–
4. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no 4. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑§ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑§ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë
circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code or Number ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ (∑§fl‹ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∞fl¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§ ∑§Ê«U ÿÊ ‚¥ÅÿÊ ◊¥
and Answer Sheet Code or Number), another set will be provided. Á÷ãŸÃÊ ∑§Ë ÁSÕÁà ∑§Ê ¿UÊ«∏∑§⁄U) ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ©¬‹éœ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UÊÿË
5. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code and Number as ¡Ê∞ªË–
given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 5. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê/©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê«U fl ‚¥ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê
6. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer Sheet. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ‚„Ë Ã⁄UË∑§ ‚ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ◊¥ Á‹π¥–
Hence, no information should be left incomplete and it should not be different 6. OMR ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ◊¥ ∑§ÊÁ«Uà ¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ∑§Ê ∞∑§ ◊‡ÊËŸ ¬…∏ªË– ß‚Á‹∞ ∑§Ê߸
from the information given in the Admit Card. ÷Ë ‚ÍøŸÊ •œÍ⁄UË Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ◊¥ ŒË ªß¸ ‚ÍøŸÊ ‚ Á÷㟠Ÿ„Ë¥
7. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written „ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞–
bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material 7. ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ mÊ⁄UÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ∑§ Á‚flÊÿ Á∑§‚Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë
except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. ¬Ê∆K-‚Ê◊ª˝Ë, ◊ÈÁŒ˝Ã ÿÊ „SÃÁ‹Áπà ∑§Êª$¡ ∑§Ë ¬Áø¸ÿÊ°, ¬¡⁄U, ◊Ê’Êß‹
8. Mobile phones, wireless communication devices (even in switched off »§ÊŸ, ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§ ©¬∑§⁄UáÊ ÿÊ Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë ‚Ê◊ª˝Ë ∑§Ê ‹ ¡ÊŸ ÿÊ
mode) and the other banned items should not be brought in the examination ©¬ÿÊª ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
halls/rooms. Failing to comply with this instruction, it will be considered as 8. ◊Ê’Êß‹ »§ÊŸ, ’ÃÊ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U ÿÈÁÄÃÿÊ° (ÁSflø •ÊÚ»§ •flSÕÊ ◊¥ ÷Ë) •ÊÒ⁄U •ãÿ
using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them ¬˝ÁÃ’¥ÁœÃ flSÃÈ∞° ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹Ê߸ ¡ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞– ß‚ ‚ÍøŸÊ ∑§Ê
including cancellation of examination.
¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈÁøà ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. ©Ÿ∑§ ÁflL§h ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë ∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ªË, Á¡‚◊¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ⁄Ug ∑§⁄UŸÊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Centre Superintendent or „Ò–
Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. 9. ¬Í¿U ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸, ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ¬˝fl‡Ê-¬òÊ ÁŒπÊ∞°–
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall/Room without handing 10. ∑§ãŒ˝ •œËˇÊ∑§ ÿÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ë Áfl‡Ê· •ŸÈ◊Áà ∑§ Á’ŸÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸
over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance •¬ŸÊ SÕÊŸ Ÿ ¿UÊ«∏¥–
Sheet twice. Cases where candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet 11. ∑§Êÿ¸⁄Uà ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ ∑§Ê •¬ŸÊ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŒ∞ Á’ŸÊ ∞fl¥ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ
second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Á∑§∞ Á’ŸÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¿UÊ«∏¥ª– ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë
dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ Ÿ ŒÍ‚⁄UË ’Ê⁄U ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-¬òÊ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§∞, ÃÊ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸÊ
put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the
¡Ê∞ªÊ Á∑§ ©‚Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹ÊÒ≈UÊÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ •ŸÈÁøà ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê
Attendance Sheet.
◊Ê◊‹Ê ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ’Ê∞° „ÊÕ ∑§ •¥ªÍ∆U ∑§Ê ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ©¬ÁSÕÁÃ-
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. ¬òÊ ◊¥ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •fl‡ÿ ‹ªÊ∞°–
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examining 12. ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§/„SÃøÊÁ‹Ã ¬Á⁄U∑§‹∑§ ∑§Ê ©¬ÿÊª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
Body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall/Room. All cases 13. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ◊¥ •Êø⁄UáÊ ∑§ Á‹∞ ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ‚÷Ë
of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ mÊ⁄UÊ ÁŸÿÁ◊à „Ò¥– •ŸÈÁøà ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑§ ‚÷Ë ◊Ê◊‹Ê¥ ∑§Ê
Examining Body.
»Ò§‚‹Ê ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ‚¥SÕÊ ∑§ ÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ÁflÁŸÿ◊Ê¥ ∑§ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄U „ÊªÊ–
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any 14. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬Á⁄UÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê߸ ÷ʪ •‹ª
circumstances. Ÿ ∑§⁄¥U–
15. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer 15. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚ê¬ãŸ „ÊŸ ¬⁄U, ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ¿UÊ«∏Ÿ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ ©ûÊ⁄U ¬òÊ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§
Sheet to the Invigilator in the Hall / Room. The candidates are ∑§Ê •fl‡ÿ ‚ÊÒ¥¬ Œ¥– ¬⁄UˡÊÊÕ˸ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ß‚ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. „Ò–¥
RAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACTRAS24ACT

RAS-24 / ACT 40 F2