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Title: Basic Research Methodology & Biostatistics Practice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
a) Blood pressure c) Gender
b) Number of children d) Income
2. What type of research focuses on testing theories?
a) Exploratory c) Descriptive
b) Basic d) Case Study
3. Which type of data has an absolute zero point?
a) Nominal c) Interval
b) Ordinal d) Ratio
4. What is the primary role of a control variable?
e) To influence the dependent g) To remain constant
variable h) To measure cause and effect
f) To interfere with research
findings
5. Which of the following is NOT a principle of research ethics?
a) Informed consent c) Randomization
b) Confidentiality d) Freedom to withdraw
6. The process of converting data into meaningful conclusions is called:
a) Sampling c) Interpretation
b) Hypothesis testing d) Experimentation
7. A literature review helps in:
a) Conducting interviews c) Avoiding duplication of
b) Choosing a journal research
d) Drafting the abstract
8. What does ‘MeSH’ in PubMed stand for?
a) Medical Safety Handbook c) Medical Study Hub
b) Medical Subject Headings d) Meta-Scientific Hierarchy
9. A mediator variable:
a) Changes the outcome c) Has no effect on research
b) Explains the relationship d) Prevents confounding
between IV and DV
10. Which sampling technique ensures equal chance for each subject?
a) Purposive sampling c) Stratified sampling
b) Convenience sampling d) Simple random sampling
11. Which is an example of a secondary data source?
a) Lab experiment results c) Face-to-face interview
b) Hospital record archive d) Field observations
12. The first step in research is:
a) Data analysis c) Asking a question
b) Constructing hypothesis d) Collecting data
13. Which is NOT a type of variable by role?
a) Independent variable c) Split variable
b) Control variable d) Moderator variable
14. What is a composite variable?
a) Variable that explains IV
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b) A combined score from d) Variable used only in

multiple variables observation
c) Variable with two values
15. Time-series data is:
a) Collected at one point in time c) Categorical data
b) Collected over time d) Binary data
16. Which variable influences the strength of a relationship?
a) Confounder c) Moderator
b) Mediator d) Independent variable
17. Which one is NOT a free research database?
a) PubMed c) ScienceDirect
b) DOAJ d) PLOS
18. Which of the following describes nominal data?
a) Ordered categories c) Numerical data
b) Categories with no order d) Continuous data
19. Which type of article reports on one specific patient?
a) Case Report c) Editorial
b) Review Article d) Systematic Review
20. Which is a method to prevent plagiarism?
a) Copy-paste technique
b) Quoting with reference
c) Paraphrasing without citation
d) Using someone else’s idea without mentioning
21. What does a confounding variable do in research?
a) Enhances the independent variable
b) Helps in statistical testing
c) Distorts the relationship between IV and DV
d) Measures variability
22. Which research design collects data at one single point in time?
a) Experimental c) Longitudinal
b) Cross-sectional d) Case-control
23. Which type of study provides the highest level of evidence?
a) Case study c) Randomized controlled trial
b) Cohort study d) Cross-sectional study
24. A null hypothesis generally states:
a) There is a relationship c) There is no relationship
b) The findings are significant d) The variables are correlated
25. What is the first section in a research paper?
a) Results c) Methods
b) Introduction d) Discussion
26. Which test is used to compare means between two independent groups?
a) ANOVA c) Chi-square test
b) Paired t-test d) Independent t-test
27. A Likert scale is typically considered what type of data?
a) Nominal c) Interval
b) Ordinal d) Ratio
28. What is the purpose of operationalizing a variable?
a) To eliminate bias b) To control variation
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c) To define how it is measured d) To reduce sample size

29. What type of sampling is best for generalizability?
a) Snowball sampling c) Simple random sampling
b) Quota sampling d) Convenience sampling
30. Which section of a research article explains data collection methods?
a) Results c) Methods
b) Introduction d) Discussion
31. Which one is a method of qualitative data collection?
a) Focus groups c) Experiments
b) Surveys d) Statistical tests
32. Which part of an article contains an interpretation of findings?
a) Methods c) Results
b) Abstract d) Discussion
33. What is an example of interval data?
a) Temperature in Celsius c) Blood pressure
b) Height d) Number of children
34. Which of the following would be considered a primary source?
a) Textbook c) Original research article
b) Meta-analysis d) Systematic review
35. What type of bias occurs when only successful results are published?
a) Sampling bias c) Publication bias
b) Recall bias d) Confirmation bias
36. A systematic review differs from a narrative review in that it:
a) Is subjective c) Follows a structured method
b) Summarizes theories only d) Is shorter
37. Which of the following best defines reliability?
a) Accuracy of measurement c) Flexibility in results
b) Consistency of measurement d) Truthfulness
38. What does p < 0.05 typically indicate?
a) The null hypothesis is true c) There is strong evidence
b) Results are not significant against null
d) The sample size is large
39. Which variable is manipulated in experimental research?
a) Dependent c) Control
b) Independent d) Moderator
40. Which of the following is a method to control confounding?
a) Increasing sample size c) Using qualitative data
b) Randomization d) Conducting interviews
41. What is the purpose of a pilot study?
a) Final report writing c) Feasibility testing
b) Funding estimation d) Proving hypothesis
42. Which of the following best represents ordinal data?
a) Age c) Education level
b) Gender d) Income in dollars
43. If a study involves tracking individuals over years, it’s called:
a) Cross-sectional c) Longitudinal
b) Experimental d) Retrospective
44. A conclusion should:
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a) Provide detailed analysis c) Summarize and interpret the

b) Introduce new findings findings
d) Report statistics only
45. What is the aim of hypothesis testing?
a) To collect data c) To make statistical decisions
b) To compare articles d) To describe a population
46. An open-ended question provides:
a) Binary responses c) Detailed and subjective
b) Fixed multiple choices answers
d) Yes/No responses
47. Which data type is appropriate for Pearson correlation?
a) Nominal c) Interval or ratio
b) Ordinal d) Categorical
48. Which software is commonly used for qualitative data analysis?
a) SPSS c) Excel
b) NVivo d) GraphPad
49. What type of review is Cochrane known for?
a) Narrative c) Systematic
b) Editorial d) Policy
50. What part of a research paper briefly summarizes the entire work?
a) Introduction
b) Abstract
c) Methods
d) Conclusion
51. What is the main purpose of descriptive statistics?
a) Predict future trends c) Summarize data features
b) Test hypotheses d) Infer population parameters
52. Which measure of central tendency is not affected by extreme values? a) Mean b) Median c)
Mode d) Range
53. A positive skewed distribution has: a) Longer left tail b) Equal tails c) Longer right tail d) Flat
peak
54. Which of the following is a parametric test? a) Mann-Whitney U b) Wilcoxon signed-rank c) T-
test d) Kruskal-Wallis
55. In SPSS, which menu is used to run a one-way ANOVA? a) Analyze > Regression b) Analyze >
Descriptive Statistics c) Analyze > Compare Means d) Graphs > Chart Builder
56. A z-score of 0 represents: a) One SD above mean b) Mean value c) One SD below mean d) An
outlier
57. Which measure reflects the spread of the middle 50% of a dataset? a) Range b) Standard
Deviation c) Interquartile Range d) Mean Deviation
58. What does a p-value < 0.05 typically indicate? a) Hypothesis is proved b) Strong correlation c)
Statistically significant result d) Null hypothesis is accepted
59. Which correlation test is appropriate for ordinal data? a) Pearson b) T-test c) ANOVA d)
Spearman
60. What is the purpose of Bessel's correction in variance calculation? a) To reduce error b) To
normalize data c) To correct for bias in small samples d) To log transform data
61. In a normal distribution, about 95% of the values lie within: a) ±1 SD b) ±2 SD c) ±3 SD d) ±4
SD
62. Which test compares the means of three or more independent groups? a) T-test b) ANOVA c)
Chi-square d) Z-test
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63. What assumption must be met for parametric tests? a) Ordinal data b) Normal distribution c)
Skewed data d) Large sample size
64. Which value measures how much a data point deviates from the mean? a) Mean b) Z-score c)
Median d) Mode
65. Which statistical test is most appropriate for comparing proportions in categorical data? a) T-test
b) ANOVA c) Chi-square test d) Pearson correlation
66. Which of the following is a measure of variability? a) Mean b) Mode c) Range d) Median
67. A Type I error occurs when: a) The null hypothesis is wrongly accepted b) The sample is biased
c) A true null hypothesis is rejected d) The p-value is > 0.05
68. Which test is used to assess the relationship between two continuous variables? a) Chi-square test
b) ANOVA c) Pearson correlation d) Mann-Whitney U
69. The standard error of the mean decreases when: a) Sample size increases b) Mean increases c)
Standard deviation increases d) Sample variance decreases
70. Which of the following tests would you use to compare the medians of two independent samples?
a) Independent t-test b) Chi-square c) Mann-Whitney U test d) Paired t-test
71. What kind of variable is required for logistic regression as the dependent variable? a) Continuous
b) Categorical c) Ordinal only d) Nominal only
72. What does a confidence interval that includes 0 imply? a) Statistically significant result b) Strong
correlation c) No significant effect d) Directional hypothesis confirmed
73. If data are not normally distributed, which test is more appropriate? a) T-test b) Pearson
correlation c) Wilcoxon signed-rank test d) ANOVA
74. What is the null hypothesis in a chi-square test of independence? a) Groups have different means
b) Variables are dependent c) Variables are independent d) Proportions are unequal
75. The central limit theorem states that: a) Every distribution is normal b) Larger samples produce
smaller means c) Sample means approximate a normal distribution d) Population variance is
always known
76. What happens to the confidence interval as sample size increases? a) It widens b) It narrows c) It
stays the same d) It becomes invalid
77. Which value is most influenced by outliers? a) Mode b) Median c) Mean d) IQR
78. What does a p-value indicate? a) Probability the null is true b) Strength of effect c) Probability of
observing the result if the null is true d) Sample size adequacy
79. Which assumption is necessary for using the independent t-test? a) Equal medians b) Equal
variances c) Large sample d) Normal population size
80. The null hypothesis in ANOVA is that: a) Group means differ b) Group variances are equal c) All
group means are equal d) Distributions are normal
81. Which term refers to the number of independent pieces of information in a calculation? a)
Confidence interval b) p-value c) Degrees of freedom d) Level of measurement
82. What is the primary purpose of regression analysis? a) Compare means b) Measure correlation c)
Predict an outcome d) Create bar graphs
83. What does it mean if the standard deviation is zero? a) All values are different b) The sample is
large c) All values are identical d) The mean is zero
84. What is the best way to check data distribution in SPSS? a) Frequency table b) Scatter plot c)
Histogram d) Pie chart
85. The level of significance usually set in biomedical research is: a) 0.01 b) 0.05 c) 0.1 d) 0.005
86. An R² value of 1.0 indicates: a) No correlation b) Poor model fit c) Perfect prediction d) Random
error
87. If the test statistic falls in the critical region: a) Accept the null hypothesis b) Reject the null
hypothesis c) Increase sample size d) Calculate the standard deviation
88. An outlier can: a) Improve mean accuracy b) Reduce correlation c) Skew the results d) Indicate
normality
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89. When is the chi-square test inappropriate? a) With frequencies b) With small expected cell counts
less than 5 c) With nominal data d) When assumptions are met
90. What does a small standard deviation indicate? a) Wide data spread b) High variability c)
Consistent data d) Presence of outliers
91. If the 95% CI for a mean difference does not include 0: a) The result is not significant b) There is
no effect c) The result is statistically significant d) The sample is biased
92. Which test is best for comparing pre- and post-treatment means in the same group? a)
Independent t-test b) Paired t-test c) ANOVA d) Pearson correlation
93. What is the primary goal of a descriptive study?
a) To establish cause-and-effect relationships
b) To describe the distribution of a disease in a population
c) To compare exposed and non-exposed groups
d) To conduct laboratory experiments
94. Which study design is best suited for investigating rare diseases?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-control study
d) Randomized controlled trial
95. In a cross-sectional study, data is collected:
a) Over a long period of time
b) At a single point in time
c) Only from experimental groups
d) Retrospectively
96. What is the key feature of a cohort study?
a) Randomization of participants
b) Comparison of cases and controls
c) Longitudinal follow-up of groups
d) Immediate intervention
97. Which of the following is a limitation of cross-sectional studies?
a) High cost
b) Inability to establish causality
c) Long duration
d) Ethical concerns
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98. What does an odds ratio (OR) of 2.5 indicate in a case-control study?
a) No association between exposure and outcome
b) Exposure decreases the risk of the outcome
c) Exposure increases the risk of the outcome
d) The study is invalid
99. Which phase of clinical trials focuses on post-marketing surveillance?
a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV
100. What is the purpose of randomization in experimental studies?
a) To ensure all participants receive the intervention
b) To minimize bias and ensure group comparability
c) To reduce the sample size
d) To eliminate the need for a control group
101. Sensitivity of a diagnostic test refers to:
a) The ability to correctly identify healthy individuals
b) The ability to correctly identify diseased individuals
c) The proportion of false positives
d) The cost-effectiveness of the test
102. Which study design is most appropriate for assessing disease prevalence?
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Randomized controlled trial
103. What is the main advantage of a cohort study?
a) Quick and inexpensive
b) Establishes temporal relationships
c) Suitable for rare outcomes
d) No risk of bias
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104. A double-blind randomized controlled trial ensures:

a) Only the researcher knows the treatment allocation
b) Neither the participant nor the researcher knows the treatment allocation
c) The participant knows the treatment allocation
d) The control group receives no treatment
105. Which statistical measure is used to compare survival times between groups?
a) Odds ratio
b) Kaplan-Meier curve
c) Sensitivity
d) Prevalence ratio
106. What is the primary purpose of a case report?
a) To conduct a large-scale survey
b) To describe a unique or rare clinical case
c) To compare two treatment methods
d) To establish a causal relationship
107. Which of the following is a characteristic of analytical studies?
a) They only describe disease distribution
b) They compare groups to identify associations
c) They are always experimental
d) They do not use statistical analysis
108. What is the gold standard for diagnostic test evaluation?
a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) A test with 100% accuracy
d) A test with high cost
109. In a diagnostic test, a high false-negative rate indicates:
a) High sensitivity
b) Low sensitivity
c) High specificity
d) Low specificity
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110. Which of the following is an example of a quasi-experimental study?

a) Randomized controlled trial
b) Before-and-after study without randomization
c) Cross-sectional survey
d) Case-control study
111. Which of the following is a disadvantage of cohort studies?
a) Quick results
b) High cost and long duration
c) Inability to study rare exposures
d) No need for follow-up
112. What is the purpose of a systematic review?
a) To present original research findings
b) To summarize and analyze existing literature on a topic
c) To conduct laboratory experiments
d) To describe a single case
113. Which study design is best for evaluating the efficacy of a new drug?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Randomized controlled trial
d) Descriptive study
114. What is the primary limitation of case-control studies?
a) They cannot establish causality
b) They are too expensive
c) They require a large sample size
d) They are only used for common diseases
115. Which of the following is a measure of diagnostic test accuracy?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Area under the ROC curve (AUC)
d) Kaplan-Meier curve
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116. What is the main ethical consideration in experimental studies?

a) Cost-effectiveness
b) Informed consent
c) Sample size
d) Data collection methods
117. Which of the following is a key feature of a case series?
a) It includes only one patient
b) It compares two treatment groups
c) It describes a group of similar cases
d) It is always prospective
118. What is the purpose of blinding in clinical trials?
a) To reduce bias
b) To increase sample size
c) To ensure all participants receive treatment
d) To eliminate the need for a control group
119. Which of the following is a strength of experimental studies?
a) High external validity
b) Ability to establish causality
c) Low cost
d) No need for randomization
120. What is the primary goal of Phase III clinical trials?
a) To test toxicity
b) To confirm efficacy and safety
c) To conduct post-marketing surveillance
d) To recruit healthy volunteers
121. Which of the following is an example of a prospective cohort study?
a) A study analyzing past medical records
b) A study following smokers and non-smokers for 10 years
c) A survey conducted at a single point in time
d) A case-control study of lung cancer
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True/False Questions
1. A dependent variable is manipulated in research.
2. Applied research seeks practical solutions.
3. Case reports are considered quantitative research.
4. Nominal data have no natural order.
5. Ethics approval is optional for all research studies.
6. Observational data collection involves direct interaction.
7. Data collected at one point in time is called longitudinal data.
8. PubMed is a paid database.
9. Citation and referencing prevent plagiarism.
10. Binary data can have more than two outcomes.
11. Qualitative research often uses words and descriptions.
12. Ratio data has no true zero.
13. MeSH terms help in accurate literature searching.
14. Continuous data can have decimal values.
15. Hypothesis testing is done before data collection.
16. Plagiarism includes using your own previously published work without citation.
17. Peer-reviewed journals do not allow plagiarism.
18. A control variable changes frequently during experiments.
19. Informed consent is an optional ethical component.
20. Systematic reviews evaluate multiple studies.
21. A hypothesis can be proven absolutely true.
22. The sample size has no effect on the validity of research.
23. Random sampling increases the representativeness of a sample.
24. In descriptive research, variables are manipulated.
25. Ethics in research protect participants from harm.
26. A moderator variable can affect the direction or strength of a relationship.
27. Case-control studies are always prospective.
28. SPSS is used primarily for qualitative analysis.
29. A literature review includes critical evaluation of previous research.
30. Blinding can help reduce bias in clinical trials.
31. Review articles usually include original data collection.
32. An abstract provides a detailed review of the entire paper.
33. Interval data can be ranked and measured, but lacks a true zero.
34. Informed consent includes describing potential risks to participants.
35. Purposive sampling selects participants based on specific characteristics.
36. Reliability ensures repeatable results.
37. Validity refers to the accuracy of a measurement.
38. Quantitative research deals mostly with narratives and themes.
39. Tables and graphs are used to summarize data visually.
40. Structured interviews use the same set of questions for all participants.
41. Cross-sectional studies follow subjects over time.
42. Bias can affect the generalizability of results.
43. Peer review improves the quality of published research.
44. A variable that cannot be measured numerically is qualitative.
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45. The introduction section of a paper explains methodology.

46. Ethical research must maintain participant confidentiality.
47. The conclusion of a study should include new data collection.
48. Observational studies manipulate variables to see the effect.
49. The discussion section interprets the results of the study.
50. Qualitative and quantitative research can be combined in a mixed-method study.
51. The median is sensitive to outliers.
52. ANOVA can be used to compare two groups only.
53. Pearson's correlation requires interval or ratio data.
54. A histogram can help check normality of data.
55. Kruskal-Wallis test is used when data is normally distributed.
56. Quartiles divide the dataset into four equal parts.
57. Paired t-tests are used for dependent samples.
58. Logistic regression can be used for continuous outcomes.
59. Descriptive studies aim to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
60. Cross-sectional studies are longitudinal in nature.
61. Case-control studies are retrospective.
62. Cohort studies can be prospective or retrospective.
63. Sensitivity measures the proportion of true negatives.
64. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are the gold standard for experimental studies.
65. A high specificity means a test has few false positives.
66. Phase I clinical trials involve large-scale testing of a drug’s efficacy.
67. A case report describes a single patient’s unique medical condition.
68. Quasi-experimental studies always include randomization.
69. The odds ratio (OR) is used in case-control studies to measure association.
70. A Kaplan-Meier curve is used to visualize survival data.
71. A diagnostic test with 100% sensitivity has no false negatives.
72. Confounding variables can distort study results.
73. A case series must include at least 10 cases.
74. The Framingham Heart Study is an example of a cohort study.
75. A double-blind study ensures that only the participants are unaware of their treatment
group.
76. The positive predictive value (PPV) depends on disease prevalence.
77. Ethical approval is not required for experimental studies.

Short Answer Questions (including scenario-based)

78. Define independent and dependent variables with examples.
79. What are the ethical requirements before starting human research?
80. Differentiate between nominal and ordinal data.
81. What is plagiarism and how can it be avoided?
82. Describe the purpose of a literature review.
83. How is ‘ratio data’ different from ‘interval data’?
84. Name and describe two types of research based on data type.
85. List and describe two methods of primary data collection.
86. What is a case report and what are its main components?
87. Define mean, median, and mode with examples.
88. Describe how to check for normality in SPSS.
89. What is the purpose of the Mann-Whitney U test?
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90. Explain the difference between parametric and non-parametric tests.

91. When should you use a paired t-test?
92. Write the interpretation of p < 0.001 in a hypothesis test.
93. What is the role of confidence intervals in hypothesis testing?
94. Provide an example scenario for using logistic regression.
95. Scenario: A study wants to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug by comparing outcomes
before and after treatment. Identify the design and main variables.
96. Scenario: A researcher finds contradictory results in existing studies. What type of gap is
this?
97. Scenario: If gender influences the strength of the relation between exercise and weight
loss, what kind of variable is it?
98. Scenario: In a survey on smoking prevalence conducted in a week, what kind of data is
this?
99. Scenario: You’re asked to find the latest treatments for diabetes in PubMed. Describe your
strategy.
100. Scenario: A journal rejects your paper citing a lack of novelty. What step could have
prevented this during topic selection?
101. Scenario: In a neonatal sepsis study, poor hygiene is both related to low income
and infection risk. What kind of variable is it?
102. Scenario: A hospital reviews 10 years of cancer treatment records. What type of
study is this?
103. Describe the difference between structured and unstructured interviews.
104. Scenario: A research proposal is denied for lack of ethical approval. Why is this
important?
105. Define mean, median, and mode with examples.
106. What is the purpose of the Mann-Whitney U test?
107. Explain the difference between parametric and non-parametric tests.
108. When should you use a paired t-test?
109. Write the interpretation of p < 0.001 in a hypothesis test.
110. What is the role of confidence intervals in hypothesis testing?
111. Provide an example scenario for using logistic regression.
112. How do you compute the interquartile range from a dataset?
113. What are the headings included in a research paper?
114. What are the headings included in a research proposal?
115. For selecting the proper journal for our paper, what characteristics should be
checked?
116. Scenario: A researcher wants to study the association between smoking and lung
cancer. Which study design would be most appropriate, and why?
117. Scenario: A new rapid test for COVID-19 has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity
of 95%. Interpret these values in the context of disease diagnosis.
118. Scenario: A clinical trial is testing a new drug for hypertension. Explain the
importance of randomization and blinding in this study.
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119. Scenario: A cross-sectional study finds a high prevalence of diabetes in an urban

population. Can this study determine if sedentary lifestyle causes diabetes? Justify your
answer.
120. Scenario: A case-control study reports an odds ratio (OR) of 3.0 for the
association between alcohol consumption and liver disease. Interpret this finding.
121. Scenario: A diagnostic test has a high false-negative rate. What does this imply
about its sensitivity, and how could this impact patient care?
122. Scenario: A cohort study follows 1,000 individuals for 10 years to assess the
impact of diet on heart disease. What are the strengths and limitations of this design?
123. Scenario: A Phase III clinical trial shows that a new vaccine is 95% effective. What
further research might be needed before widespread use?
124. Scenario: A researcher conducts a study without a control group. What type of
experimental design is this, and what are its limitations?
125. Scenario: A meta-analysis combines data from 10 RCTs on a new antidepressant.
What is the advantage of this approach over a single RCT?
126. Scenario: A case report describes a rare adverse reaction to a commonly used
drug. Why is this publication important for clinical practice?
127. Scenario: A study finds a strong association between coffee consumption and
reduced risk of Parkinson’s disease. Can causality be inferred? Why or why not?
128. Scenario: A diagnostic test has an AUC of 0.85. What does this indicate about its
performance?
129. Scenario: A retrospective cohort study uses medical records to assess the link
between obesity and diabetes. What are potential sources of bias?
130. Scenario: A quasi-experimental study evaluates a school-based anti-bullying
program. How does this differ from a true experiment?
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131. Please analyze the following abstract from a Research & Biostatistics perspective.
Include details such as: Journal Name, Issue, Volume, and DOI (if available), Research
Design (e.g., RCT, cohort, case-control). Statistical Methods used (e.g., regression,
Kaplan-Meier, ANOVA), Key Findings and their biostatistical significance,
Limitations (e.g., sample size, bias, confounding), etc.

Note: Please review the context of each question carefully. While wording or structure may vary across
assessments, the core concepts remain consistent. Focus on the underlying principles rather than exact
phrasing.

For example, in question 93 of MUCQs: What is the primary goal of a descriptive study?

Correct Answer: (b) To describe the distribution of a disease in a population.

Context: Descriptive studies focus on what (prevalence, patterns), not why (causation).