NUR 200 SAS 1-23 WITH ANSWERS

ABELLO, ZYDRYHC GIO Y.

SAS 1
1. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which
of the following symptoms?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.

2. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is:

a. inflamed airways that obstruct airflow.
b. mucus secretions that block airways
c. overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange.
d. characterized by variations of all of the above.

3. The abnormal inflammatory response in the lungs

occurs primarily in the:
a. airways.
b. parenchyma.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. areas identified in all of the above.

4. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are:

a. asthma and atelectasis.
b. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
c. pneumonia and pleurisy.
d. tuberculosis and pleural effusions.

5. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the

following conditions?
a. adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. asthma
c. chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. emphysema

6. The most important environmental risk factor for

emphysema is:
a. air pollution.
b. allergens.
c. infectious agents.
d. cigarette smoking.

7. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is

thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has
no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his
knees to support his chest and shoulder for breathing.
This client has symptoms of which of the following
respiratory disorder?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.

8. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are given

diuretic therapy. Which of the following reasons
explains why?
a. reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand
b. reducing fluid volume improves clients’ morbidity
c. restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production
d. reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function

9. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive

pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of the
following topics?
a. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a
stethoscope
b. How to increase his oxygen therapy
c. How to treat respiratory infections without going to
the physician
d. How to recognize the signs of impending respiratory
infection.

10. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic

obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the client
is most likely to experience what type of acid- base
imbalance.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

SAS 2

1. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the

following clients are at risk for having a pulmonary
embolism? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client who has a BMI of 30
B. A female client who is postmenopausal
C. A client who has a fractured femur
D. A client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has
acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states that
she is anxious because she feels that she cannot get
enough air. Vital signs are: heart rate 117/min,
respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F),
and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. Which of the
following actions is the priority action at this time?

A. Notify the provider.

B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
C. Administer oxygen therapy.
D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.

3. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-

outs indicating adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). This syndrome results from;

A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
D. Renal failure

4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute

respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following
would the nurse expect to note in the client?
A. Pallor
B. Low arterial PaO2
C. Elevated arterial PaO2
D. Decreased respiratory rate.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary

embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations should
the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Petechiae
E. Tachycardia

6. You’re providing care to a patient who is being

treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a
100% nonrebreather mask. Which finding below is a
HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is
developing acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)?
A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea.
B. The patient is tired and confused.
C. The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96.

7. A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a

pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis.
Which clinical findings commonly accompany
respiratory alkalosis?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea
C. Hallucination or tinnitus
D. Lightheadedness and paresthesia

8. A client is suspected of having pulmonary embolism.

A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the
following is a common clinical manifestation of
pulmonary embolism?
A. Dyspnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Decrease respiration

9. A patient has been hospitalized in the ICU for a near

drowning event. The patient’s respiratory function has
been deteriorating over the last 24 hours. The physician
suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome. A STAT
chest x-ray is ordered. What finding on the chest x-ray
is indicative of ARDS?
A. infiltrates only on the upper lobes
B. enlargement of the heart with bilateral lower lobe
infiltrates
C. white-out infiltrates bilaterally
D. normal chest x-ray

10. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing

ARDS and has the worst prognosis?

A. A 52-year-old male patient with a pneumothorax.

B. A 48-year-old male being treated for diabetic
ketoacidosis.
C. A 69-year-old female with sepsis caused by a gram-
negative bacterial infection.
D. A 30-year-old female with cystic fibrosis.

11. The nurse assesses a patient for possible pulmonary

embolism. The nurse looks for the most frequent sign
of:
A. Cough
B. Hemoptysis
C. Syncope
D. Tachypnea
12. The following are nursing intervention to assist in
the prevention of pulmonary embolism in a hospitalized
patient include all except:

A. A liberal fluid intake

B. Assisting the patient to do leg elevation above the
level of the heart.
C. Encouraging the patient to dangle his or her legs over
the side of the bed for 30 minutes, four times a day.
D. The use of elastic stocking, especially when
decreased mobility would promote venous stasis.

13. You are caring for a patient with acute respiratory

distress syndrome. As the nurse you know that prone
positioning can be beneficial for some patients with
this condition. Which findings below indicate this type
of positioning was beneficial for your patient with
ARDS?

A. Improvement in lung sounds

B. Development of a V/Q mismatch
C. PaO2 increased from 59 mmHg to 82 mmHg
D. PEEP needs to be titrated to 15 mmHg of water

14. A patient is experiencing respiratory failure due to

pulmonary edema. The physician suspects ARDS but
wants to rule out a cardiac cause. A pulmonary artery
wedge pressure is obtained. As the nurse you know that
what measurement reading obtained indicates that this
type of respiratory failure is NOT cardiac related?
A. >25 mmHg
B. <10 mmHg
C. >50 mmHg
D. <18 mmHg

15. Which of the following is a type of embolism?

A. Travelling emboli
B. Fat emboli
C. Burn emboli
D. Diabetic emboli

SAS 3

1. The nurse is presenting a class on chest tubes. Which

statement describes a tension pneumothorax?
A. A tension pneumothorax develops when an air-filled
bleb on the surface of the lung ruptures.
B. When a tension pneumothorax occursasth, the air
moves freely between the pleural space and the atmosphere.
C. The injury allows air into the pleural space but
prevents it from escaping from the pleural space.

D. A tension pneumothorax results from a puncture of

the pleura during a central line placement.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a right-sided chest

tube secondary to a pneu- mothorax. Which
interventions should the nurse implement when caring
for this client? Select all that apply.
A. Place the client in a low-Fowler's position.
B. Assess chest tube drainage system frequently.
C. Maintain strict bed rest for the client.
D. Secure a loop of drainage tubing to the sheet.
E. Observe the site for subcutaneous emphysema.

3. The initial characteristics symptoms of a simple

pneumothorax is.
A. ARDS
B. Severe respiratory distress
C. Sudden chest pain
D. Tachypnea and chest discomfort

4. Clinical manifestation of related to pneumothorax

includes the following except for:
A. Pleuritic pain
B. Respiratory distress
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Tachypnea

5. Which of the following should the nurse assess in

patient with pneumothorax?
A. Tracheal alignment
B. Expansion of the chest
C. Breath sounds
D. All of the above

6. The pressure required in the pleural space to keep

the lungs inflated is:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Atmospheric
D. All of the above
7. The following are types of pneumothorax except:

A. Trauma
B. Simple
C. Tension
D. Direct.

8. On auscultation, which of the following suggest a

right pneumothorax/
A. Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles.
B. Absence of breath sounds in the right thorax.
C. Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax.
D. Bilateral pleural friction rub.

9. Nurse Lei is caring for a client with pneumothorax

and who has had a chest tube inserted notes continues
gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which
action is appropriate?
A. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding.
B. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the
physician.
C. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be
intermittent.
D. Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling
becomes vigorous.

10. An emergency room nurse is assessing a male client

who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall.
Which of the signs would indicate the presence of
pneumothorax in this client?
A. A low respiratory rate
B. Diminished breath sounds
C. The presence of barrel chest
D. A sucking sound at the site of injury

SAS 4
1. The physician diagnosed the patient with Class III
Primary Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse is aware
that the characteristic of this condition is:
A. No manifestation at rest and mild to moderate
physical activity induces dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain, or
lightheadedness.
B. No or slight manifestation at rest and mild (less than
ordinary) activity induces dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain or
lightheadedness.
C. Dyspnea and fatigue is present at rest, unable to
carry out any level of physical activity without
manifestations, and
manifestations of right sided heart failure apparent
(engorged neck veins, dependent edema and enlarged
liver).
D. Pulmonary hypertension diagnosed by pulmonary
function test and right sided cardiac catheterization, no
limitation of physical activity, and moderate physical
activity does not include dyspnea, fatigue, chest pain or
light headedness.

2. The morning weight for a client with emphysema

indicates that the client has gained 5 pounds in less
than a week, even though his oral intake has been
modest. The client's weight gain may reflect which
associated complication of COPD?
A. Polycythemia
B. Cor Pulmonale
C. Left Ventricular failure
D. Compensated acidosis

3. Hypertension is known as the silent killer. This phrase

is associated with the fact that hypertension often goes
undetected until symptoms of other system failures
occur. This may occur in the form of:
A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Liver disease
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary disease

4. A client is receiving spironolactone to treat

hypertension. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse provide?
A. Eat foods high in potassium
B. Take daily potassium supplements
C. Discontinue sodium restriction
D. Avoid salt substitute

5. The most important long-term goal for a client with

hypertension would be to:
A. Learn how to avoid stress
B. Explore a job change or early retirement
C. Make a commitment to long term therapy
D. Control high blood pressure

6. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a

client who was in a motor vehicle crash. Findings
include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe
with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate
124/min, respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.6° C
(101.4° F), and SaO2 92% on room air. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a chest x-ray.
B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
C. Administer oxygen via a high-flow mask.
D. Initiate IV access.
7. Which of the following regarding pulmonary
hypertension is false:
A. PH has many underlying etiologies
B. The disease affects the left side of the heart
C. The hemodynamic definition of PH is a mean
pulmonary arterial pressure (PAP) greater than 25
mmHg.
D. Pulmonary arterial hypertension is a subset of
pulmonary hypertension.

8. Which of the following statement is not correct

regarding pulmonary hypertension.
A. The disease affects men more than women.
B. Non- specific symptom such as fatigue and edema are
present clinically.
C. Catheterization is required when PH is suspected.
D. Underlying causes are evaluated.

9. Which of the following statement about pulmonary

arterial hypertension is incorrect.
A. Vasoconstriction is an issue
B. Vascular wall re-modelling is an issue
C. There is a cure for pulmonary arterial hypertension.
D. The balance of vasoconstriction and vasodilatation
may indicate PAH.

10. All of the following are true regarding calcium

channel blockers in pulmonary arterial hypertension.
A. Calcium channel blockers have a selective effect on
vascular smooth muscles.
B. Normal physiologic doses are sufficient for treatment
purposes.
C. Adverse effect must be considered.
D. Long -term clinical response is less than 10%.

SAS 5
1. An initial characteristic symptom of a simple
pneumothorax is:
A. ARDS
B. Severe onset of chest pain
C. Severe respiratory distress
D. Tachypnea and chest discomfort.

2. Clinical manifestations related to pneumothorax

include the following except for:
A. Pleuritic pain
B. Respiratory distress
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Tachypnea

3. Which of the following the nurse assesses in patient

with pneumothorax?
A. Tracheal alignment
B. Expansion of the chest
C. Breath sounds
D. All of the above
4. The pressure required in the pleural space to keep
the lungs inflated is:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Atmospheric
D. All of the above

5. The following are types of pneumothorax except:

A. Trauma
B. Simple
C. Tension
D. Direct

6. The healthcare provider is assisting during the

insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which of
these, if assessed in the patient, would indicate the
patient is experiencing a complication from the catheter
insertion?
A. Inspiration phase is greater than expiration
B. Diaphragmatic excursion of 3 cm
C. Tracheal deviation from normal
D. Vesicular breath sounds noted on auscultation

7. During the assessment of a 60-year-old female

patient, you note the following signs: dyspnea,
hypotension, reduced chest expansion on the left side,
hyper resonant percussion note and tactile fremitus on
the left side, absent breath sounds on the left side, and
a tracheal shift to the right. These findings suggest
which of the following?
A. A pleural effusion on the left side
B. A pneumothorax on the left side
C. Atelectasis on the left side
D. Consolidation on the left side

8. A 50-year-old male patient is intubated with a size 8

endotracheal tube and is receiving volume-controlled
A/C ventilation. Upon assessment, you note that the
patient’s cuff pressure is measured at 38 cm H2O.
Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Withdraw the tube 1-2 cm and reassess the patient’s
breath sounds
B. Recommend reintubation with a smaller
endotracheal tube
C. Lower the cuff pressure to < 30 cm H2O
D. Recommend ventilation via a tracheostomy instead

9. An adult patient who is receiving mechanical

ventilation suddenly started showing signs of
tachypnea. Upon assessment, you note tracheal
deviation to the right and decreased breath sounds and
hyperresonance on the left. Which of the following
would you recommend?
A. The patient needs suctioning
B. The patient needs a bronchoscopy
C. The insertion of a chest tube
D. The patient needs a thoracentesis

10. During the assessment of a 52-year-old female

patient that is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4
L/min, you hear the bubble humidifier making a
whistling noise. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of this finding?
A. There is an obstruction in the delivery tube
B. The patient’s ventilation has increased
C. There is a clogged system diffuser
D. The flowmeter pressure is set too high

SAS 6

1. A 60-year-old male client comes into the emergency

department with complaints of crushing chest pain that
radiates to his shoulder and left arm. The admitting
diagnosis is acute myocardial infarction. Immediate
admission orders include oxygen by NC at 4L/minute,
blood work, chest xray, an ECG, and 2 mg of morphine
given intravenously. The nurse should first:
A. Administer morphine
B. Obtain 12 leads ECG
C. Obtain laboratory work
D. Order chest X-ray

2. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets begin to work within 1

to 2 minutes. How should the nurse instruct the client
to use the drug when chest pain occurs?
A. Take one tablet every 2-5 minutes until pain stops.
B. Take one tablet and rest for 10 minutes. Call the
physician if pain persist after 10 minutes.
C. Take one tablet, then an additional tablet every 5
minutes for a total of 3 tablets. Call the physician if pain
persist after 3 tablets.
D. Take one tablet. If pain persist, after 5 minutes, take
two tablets. If pain still persist 5 minutes later, call the
physician.
3. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with
heart failure who is being sent directly to the hospital
from the physician’s office. The nurse would plan on
having which of the following medications readily
available for use?
A. Diltiazem ( Cardizem
B. Digoxin ( Lanoxin)
C. Propranolol ( Inderal)
D. Metoprolol ( Lopressor)

4. A nurse is conducting a health history with a client

with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the
following disorders reported by the client is unlikely to
play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
A. Recent URI
B. Nutritional anemia
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. A-fib

5. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor,

which begins to sound its alarm. A nurse sees no
electrocardiogram complexes on the screen. The first
action of the nurse is to:
A. Check the client status and lead placement.
B. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram
console.
C. Call the physician.
D. Call a code blue

6. Which of the following recurring conditions most

commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
A. Heart failure
B. Diabetes
C. MI
D. Pericardial effusion

7. When interpreting an ECG, the nurse would keep in

mind which of the following about the P wave? Select
all that apply.
A. Reflects electrical impulse beginning at the SA node
B. Indicated electrical impulse beginning at the AV node.
C. Reflects atrial muscle depolarization
D. Identifies ventricular muscle depolarization
E. Has duration normally of 0.11 seconds or less.

8. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the

anterior wall of the heart?
A. Circumflex artery
B. Internal mammary artery
C. Left anterior descending artery
D. Right coronary artery
9. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein
distention most prominent?
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Heart failure
C. MI
D. Pneumothorax

10. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and

edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the
following conditions?
A. Pericarditis
B. Hypertension
C. MI
D. Heart Failure

11. Which of the following factors can cause blood

pressure to drop to normal levels?
A. Kidney’s excretion of sodium only
B. Kidney’s retention of sodium and water
C. Kidney’s excretion of sodium and water
D. Kidney’s retention of sodium and excretion of water.

12. The physician refers the client with unstable angina

for a cardiac catheterization. The nurse explains to the
client that this procedure is being used in this specific
case to:
A. Open and dilate the blocked coronary arteries.
B. Assess the extent of arterial blockage
C. Bypass obstructed vessels
D. Assess the functional adequacy of the valves and
heart muscles.

13. As an initial step in treating a client with angina, the

physician prescribes nitroglycerin tablets, 0.3mg given
sublingually. This drug’s principal effects are produced
by:
A. Antispasmodic effect on the pericardium
B. Causing an increased myocardial oxygen demand
C. Vasodilation of peripheral vasculature
D. Improved conducting in the myocardium.

14. Furosemide is administered intravenously to a client

with HF. How soon after administration should the
nurse begin to see evidence of the drugs desired
effect?
A. 5 to 10 minutes
B. 30 to 60 minutes
C. 2-4 hours
D. 6-8 hours
15. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly
associated with left-sided heart failure?
A. Crackles
B. Arrhythmias
C. Hepatic engorgement
D. Hypotension

SAS 7

1. A patient is being treated for cardiogenic shock.

Which statement below best describes this condition?
Select all that apply:
A. “The patient will experience an increase in cardiac
output due to an increase in preload and afterload.”
B. “A patient with this condition will experience
decreased cardiac output and decreased tissue
perfusion.”
C. “This condition occurs because the heart has an
inadequate blood volume to pump.”
D. “Cardiogenic shock leads to pulmonary edema.”

2. Cardiac output is very important for determining if a

patient is in cardiogenic shock. What is a normal cardiac
output in an adult?
A. 2-5 liters/minute
B. 1-3 liters/minute
C. 4-8 liters/minute
D. 8-10 liters/minute

3. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing

cardiogenic shock?
A. A 52-year-old male who is experiencing a severe
allergic reaction from shellfish.
B. A 25-year-old female who has experienced an upper
thoracic spinal cord injury.
C. A 72-year-old male who is post-op from a liver
transplant.
D. A 49-year-old female who is experiencing an acute
myocardial infarction.

4. You’re caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock.

Which finding below suggests the patient’s condition is
worsening? Select all that apply:
A. Blood pressure 95/68
B. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
C. Cardiac Index 3.2 L/min/m2
D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure 30 mmHg
5. You’re precepting a new nurse. You ask the new
nurse to list the purpose of why a patient with
cardiogenic shock may benefit from an intra-aortic
balloon pump. What responses below indicate the new
nurse understands the purpose of an intra-aortic
balloon pump? Select all that apply:

A. “This device increases the cardiac afterload, which

will increase cardiac output.”
B. “This device will help increase blood flow to the
coronary arteries.”
C. “The balloon pump will help remove extra fluid from
the heart and lungs.”
D. “The balloon pump will help increase cardiac
output.”

6. A patient is receiving treatment for an acute

myocardial infarction. The nurse is closely monitoring
the patient for signs and symptoms associated with
cardiogenic shock. Which value below is associated with
cardiogenic shock?
A. Cardiac index 1.5 L/min/m2
B. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 10
mmHg
C. Central venous pressure (CVP) 4 mmHg
D. Troponin <0.01 ng/mL

7. A patient who has cardiogenic shock is experiencing

labored breathing and low oxygen levels. A STAT chest
x-ray is ordered. The x-ray results show pulmonary
edema. The physician orders Furosemide IV. What
finding would require immediate nursing action?
A. Blood pressure 98/54
B. Urinary output 45 mL/hr
C. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
D. Heart rate 110 bpm

8. They physician orders a Dobutamine IV drip on a

patient in cardiogenic shock. After starting the IV drip,
the nurse would make it priority to monitor for?
A. Rebound hypertension
B. Ringing in the ears
C. Worsening hypotension
D. severe headache
9. Which medications below are used in cardiogenic
shock that provide a positive inotropic effect on the
heart? Select all that apply:
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Sodium Nitroprussidde
C. Dobutamine
D. Norepinephrine
E. Dopamine

10. A patient with cardiogenic shock has an intra-aortic

balloon pump. As the nurse you know that during
________ the balloon deflates and during _____ the
balloon inflates in a section of the aorta.

A. systole, diastole
B. diastole, systole
C. inspiration, expiration
D. expiration, inspiration

SAS 8
1. The client is admitted to the hospital with a
hypertensive crisis. Diazoxide (Hyperstat) is ordered.
During administration the nurse should:
A. Utilize an infusion pump
B. Check the blood glucose level
C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
D. Cover the solution with foil

2. A 52-year-old patient who has no previous history of

hypertension or other health problems suddenly
develops a BP of 188/106 mm Hg. After reconfirming
the BP, it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient
that
A. a BP recheck should be scheduled in a few weeks.
B. the dietary sodium and fat content should be
decreased.
C. there is an immediate danger of a stroke and
hospitalization will be required.
D. more diagnostic testing may be needed to determine
the cause of the hypertension.

3. Which action will be included in the plan of care

when the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving
sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) to treat a hypertensive
emergency?
A. Organize nursing activities so that the patient has
undisturbed sleep for 6 to 8 hours at night.
B. Assist the patient up in the chair for meals to avoid
complications associated with immobility.
C. Use an automated noninvasive blood pressure
machine to obtain frequent BP measurements.
D. Place the patient on NPO status to prevent aspiration
caused by nausea and the associated vomiting.

4. The nurse has just finished teaching a hypertensive

patient about the newly prescribed quinapril (Accupril).
Which patient statement indicates that more teaching is
needed?
A. "The medication may not work as well if I take any
aspirin."
B. "The doctor may order a blood potassium level
occasionally."
C. "I will call the doctor if I notice that I have a frequent
cough."
D. "I won't worry if I have a little swelling around my lips
and face."

5. During change-of-shift report, the nurse obtains this

information about a hypertensive patient who received
the first dose of propranolol (Inderal) during the
previous shift. Which information indicates that the
patient needs immediate intervention?
A. The patient's most recent BP reading is 156/94 mm
Hg.
B. The patient's pulse has dropped from 64 to 58
beats/minute.
C. The patient has developed wheezes throughout the
lung fields.
D. The patient complains that the fingers and toes feel
quite cold.

6. Which action will the nurse in the hypertension clinic

take in order to obtain an accurate baseline blood
pressure (BP) for a new patient?
A. Obtain a BP reading in each arm and average the
results.
B. Deflate the BP cuff at a rate of 5 to 10 mm Hg per
second.
C. Have the patient sit in a chair with the feet flat on the
floor.
D. Assist the patient to the supine position for BP
measurements.

7. The nurse obtains this information from a patient

with prehypertension. Which finding is most important
to address with the patient?
A. Low dietary fiber intake
B. No regular aerobic exercise
C. Weight 5 pounds above ideal weight
D. Drinks wine with dinner once a week
8. Your patient's blood pressure is 172/98. Is this a
hypertensive emergency?
A. Yes -it this
B. No - it would be considered Stage 2 Hypertension
C. No - this is considered pre-hypertension
D. No - it would be considered Stage 1 Hypertension

9. Why is HTN considered a silent killer?

A. Because symptoms don't usually present until end

organ damage occurs
B. It is not; myocardial infarctions are considered the
silent killer
C. Because at no point in the disease progression does
symptoms ever present
D. Because it never progresses slowly, it occurs
suddenly and immediately

10. You are taking care of a patient in the hospital and

the CNA reports to you that their blood pressure is
198/101. They have been running 140's/80's
throughout their stay. What will you do first?

A. Check the cuff size to make sure it’s appropriate and

recheck blood pressure
B. STAT page the physician
C. Ensure the recording has been appropriately
documented and continue to monitor them with their
next BP reading in 4 hours
D. Check the chart, obtain any PRN antihypertensives
and immediately administer them

SAS 9
1 Which of the following heart muscle diseases is
unrelated to other cardiovascular diseases?
A. Cardiomyopathy
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pericardial effusion

2. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can

be associated with childbirth?
A. Dilated
B. Hypertrophic
C. Myocarditis
D. Restrictive
3. Septal involvement occurs in which type of
cardiomyopathy?
A. Congestive
B. Dilated
C. Hypertrophic
D. Restrictive

4 Which of the following recurring conditions most

commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
A. Heart failure
B. DM
C. MI
D. Pericardial effusion

5 What is the term used to describe an enlargement of

the heart muscle?
A. Cardiomegaly
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Myocarditis
D. Pericarditis

6. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and

edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the
following conditions?
A. Pericarditis
B. Hypertension
C. Obliterative
D. Restricted

7. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does

not affect cardiac output?
A. Dilated
B. Hypertrophic
C. Restrictive
D. Obliterative

8. Which of the following cardiac conditions does a

fourth heart sound (S4) indicate?
A. Dilated aorta
B. Normally functioning heart
C. Decreased myocardial contractility
D. Failure of the ventricle to eject all the blood during
systole

9. Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely

used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?
A. Antihypertensive
B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitrates

10. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative

of cardiac damage?
A. Lactic dehydrogenase
B. Complete blood count
C. Troponin I
D. Creatine kinase

SAS 10

1 A client with rapid rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse

why the physician is going to perform carotid massage.
The nurse responds that this procedure may stimulate
the:
A. Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate
B. Vagus nerve to increase the heart rate; overdriving
the rhythm
C. Diaphragmatic nerve to slow the heart rate
D. Diaphragmatic nerve to overdrive the rhythm

2. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices

that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P
waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular
rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that
the client is experiencing:
A. Premature ventricular contractions
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus tachycardia

3. A nurse notices frequent artifact on the ECG monitor

for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a
console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to
determine the cause. Which of the following items is
unlikely to be responsible for the artifact?
A. Frequent movement of the client
B. Tightly secured cable connections
C. Leads applied over hairy areas
D. Leads applied to the limbs

4 A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular

tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which
of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of
ventricular tachycardia?
A. Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily
B. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3
seconds
C. Lie down flat in bed
D. Remove any metal jewelry

5 When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a CCU, the first

person reaching the client should:
A. Administer oxygen
B. Defibrillate the client
C. Initiate CPR
D. Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously

6. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client’s

rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves;
instead there are wavy lines. The QRS complexes
measure 0.08 second, but they are irregular, with a rate
of 120 beats a minute. The nurse interprets this rhythm
as:
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Ventricular fibrillation

7. A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a

premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T
wave of the preceding beat. The client’s rhythm
suddenly changes to one with no P waves or definable
QRS complexes. Instead there are coarse wavy lines of
varying amplitude. The nurse assesses this rhythm to be
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Asystole

8. When auscultating the apical pulse of a client who

has atrial fibrillation, the nurse would expect to hear a
rhythm that is characterized by:
A. The presence of occasional coupled beats
B. Long pauses in otherwise regular rhythm
C. A continuous and totally unpredictable irregularity
D. Slow but strong and regular beats

9. A client is having frequent premature ventricular

contractions. A nurse would place priority on
assessment of which of the following items?
A. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion
B. Sensation of palpitation
C. Causative factor such as caffeine
D. Precipitating factors such as infections
10. A client with a bundle branch block is on a cardiac
monitor. The nurse should expect to observe:
A. Sagging ST segment
B. Absence of P wave configurations
C. Inverted T waves following each QRS complex
D. Widening of QRS complexes to 0.12 seconds or
greater

SAS 11

1. The nurse is caring for a female client with active

upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this
client during the first 24 hours after admission?
A. Nothing by mouth
B. Regular diet
C. Clear liquids
D. Skim milk
2. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits
coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?
A. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier
B. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding
C. He needs transfusion of packed RBC
D. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage

3. Which diagnostic tests would be used first to evaluate

a client with upper GI bleeding?
A. Upper GI series
B. Arteriography
C. Endoscopy
D. Hemoglobin level and hematocrit

4. A male client with extreme weakness, pallor, weak

peripheral pulses, and disorientation is admitted to the
emergency department. His wife reports that he has
been “spitting up blood.” A Mallory-Weiss tear is
suspected, and the nurse begins taking a client history
from the client’s wife. The question by the nurse that
demonstrates her understanding of MalloryWeiss
tearing is:
A. “Tell me about your husband’s alcohol usage”
B. Has your husband recently fallen or injured his
chest?”
C. “Is your husband being treated with tuberculosis?”
D. “Describe spices and condiments your husband uses
on food.”
5. A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting
bright red blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding
duodenal ulcer. The client develops a sudden, sharp
pain in the mid epigastric area along with a rigid,
boardlike abdomen. These clinical manifestations most
likely indicate which of the following?
A. The esophagus has become inflamed
B. Additional ulcers have developed
C. An intestinal obstruction has developed
D. The ulcers have perforated

6. Patient admitted to ER has profuse bright-red

hematemesis. During initial care of the patient, the
nurse's first priority is to:
A. perform a nursing assessment of patient's status
B. establish 2 IV sites
C. obtain a thorough health history
D. perform a gastric lavage with cool tap water in prep
for endoscopic exam

7. You promote hemodynamic stability in a patient with

upper GI bleeding by:
A. Encouraging oral fluid intake.
B. Monitoring central venous pressure
C. Monitoring laboratory test results and vital signs
D. Giving blood, electrolyte and fluid replacement

8. Your patient has a GI tract that is functioning, but has

the inability to swallow foods. Which is the preferred
method of feeding for your patient?
A. TPN
B. PPN
C. NG feeding
D. Oral liquid supplement

9. A 24-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy after a

gunshot wound to the abdomen. The patient has
multiple injuries including significant liver laceration,
colon injuries, multiple small bowels and an injury to
the intrahepatic vena cava. The patient receives 34 units
of packed red blood cells, 15 liters of crystalloid, 11
units of FFP, and 12 pack of platelets. The patient’s
abdomen is packed close and he is taken to the
intensive care unit for further resuscitation. Which of
the following is sequela of abdominal compartment
syndrome?
A. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
B. Increased intracranial pressure
C. Decreased plasma renin and aldosterone
D. Decreased peak airway pressure

10. The patient is at risk for developing intra-abdominal

hypertension (IAH) after surgery to correct abdominal
trauma. Inwhich way will the nurse measure the
progress of this complication?
A. Monitoring the amount of respiratory distress
exhibited by the patient
B. Monitoring the amount of gastrointestinal tube
drainage
C. Measurement of abdominal distention
D. Monitoring transurethral bladder pressure

11. A patient has severe abdominal compartment

syndrome and will undergo surgical decompression. The
nurse will expect to administer which drugs before this
surgery to help reduce unstable cardiac dysrhythmias?
Select all that apply
A. Furosemide
B. Vasopressin
C. Sodium Bicarbonate
D. Epinephrine
E. Mannitol

12. A 52-year-old man was referred to the clinic due to

increased abdominal girth. He is diagnosed with ascites
by the presence of a fluid thrill and shifting dullness on
percussion. After administering diuretic therapy, which
nursing action would be most effective in ensuring safe
care?
A. Measuring serum potassium for hyperkalemia
B. Assessing the client for hypovolemia
C. Measuring the client’s weight daily
D. Documenting precise intake and output.

13. A client with suspected gastric cancer undergoes an

endoscopy of the stomach. Which of the following
assessments made after the procedure would indicate
the development of a potential complication?
A. The client displays signs of sedation
B. The client demonstrates lack of appetite
C. The client complaints of a sore throat
D. The client experiences a sudden increase in
temperature.

14. Thrombus formation is a danger for all

postoperative clients. The nurse should act
independently to prevent this complication by:
A. Encouraging adequate fluids
B. Performing active -assistive leg exercise
C. Massaging gently the legs with lotion
D. Applying elastic stocking
15. Oxygen 3L/min by nasal cannula is prescribed for
Joey who is admitted to the hospital for chest pain. The
nurse institutes safety precautions in the room because
oxygen:
A. Supports combustion
B. Converts to an alternate form of matter
C. Has unstable properties
D. Is inflammable

SAS 12

1. A male client with a history of cirrhosis and

alcoholism is admitted with severe dyspnea resulted to
ascites. The nurse should be aware that the ascites is
most likely the result of increased.
A. Pressure in the portal vein
B. Production of serum albumin
C. Secretion of bile salt
D. Interstitial osmotic pressure
2. Which diagnostic test is best to evaluate liver
enlargement and ascites?

A. Ultrasound
B. X-ray
C. CT Scan
D. Nuclear medicine

3. Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with

ascites and jaundice. To rule out cirrhosis of the liver:
Which laboratory test indicates liver cirrhosis?
A. Decreased red blood cell count
B. Decreased serum acid phosphatase
C. Elevated white blood cell count
D. Elevated serum aminotransferase

4. A patient with chronic alcohol abuse is admitted with

liver failure. You closely monitor the patient’s blood
pressure because of which change that is associated
with the liver failure?
A. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Abnormal peripheral vasodilation
D. Excess renin release of the kidney
5. You’re caring for Lewis, a 67 y.o. patient with liver
cirrhosis who developed ascites and requires
paracentesis. Relief of which symptom indicated that
the paracentesis was effective?
A. Pruritus
B. Dyspnea
C. Jaundice
D. Peripheral neuropathy

6. You’re caring for Betty with liver cirrhosis. Which of

the following assessment findings leads you to suspect
hepatic encephalopathy in her?
A. Asterixis
B. Chvostek sign
C. Trousseau’s sign
D. Hepatojugular reflex

7. Develop a teaching care plan for Angie who is about

to undergo a liver biopsy. Which of the following points
do you include?
A. “You’ll need to lie on your stomach during the test”
B. “you’ll need to lie on your right side after the test.”
C. “During the biopsy you’ll be asked to exhale deeply
and hold it.”
D. “The biopsy is performed under general anesthesia.”

8. The student nurse is teaching the family of a patient

with liver failure. You instruct them to limit which foods
in the patient’s diet?

A. Meats and beans

B. Butter and gravies
C. Potatoes and pasta
D. Cakes and pastries

9. When teaching a client about pancreatic function, the

nurse understands that pancreatic lipase performs
which function?
A. Transport fatty acids into the brush border
B. Breaks down fat into fatty acids and glycerol
C. Triggers cholecystokinin to contract the gallbladder
D. Breaks down protein into dipeptides and amino acid

10. For Rico who has chronic pancreatitis, which nursing

intervention would be most helpful?
A. Allowing liberalized fluid intake
B. Counseling to stop alcohol consumption
C. Encouraging daily exercise
D. Modifying dietary protein
11. A clinical manifestation of acute pancreatitis is
epigastric pain. Your nursing intervention to facilitate
relief of pain would place the patient in a:
A. Knee chest position
B. Semi-Fowler’s position
C. Recumbent position
D. Low -Fowlers position

12. What assessment finding of a patient with acute

pancreatitis would indicate a bluish discoloration
around the umbilicus?
A. Grey-Turner’s sign
B. Homan’s sign
C. Rovsing’s sign
D. Cullen’s sign

13. Pancreatitis is commonly characterized by:

A. Edema and inflammation
B. Pleural effusion
C. Sepsis
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

14. A major symptom of pancreatitis that brings the

patient to medical care is:
A. Severe abdominal pain
B. Fever
C. Jaundice
D. Mental agitation

15. The nurse should assess for an important early

indicator of acute pancreatitis, which is a prolonged and
elevated level of:
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum lipase
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Serum amylase

SAS 13
1. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the
condition progresses, which of the following symptoms
might the nurse see?
A. Kussmaul’s respirations and a fruity odor on the
breath
B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output.
D. Cheyne-stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
2. When a client is in diabetic ketoacidosis, the insulin
that would be administered is:
A. Human NPH insulin
B. Human regular insulin
C. Insulin lispro injection
D. Insulin glargine injection

3. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis

(DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a
nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis?
A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma
bicarbonate
B. Decreased urine output
C. Increased respirations and an increase in Ph
D. Comatose state

4. Which of the following methods of insulin

administration would be used in the initial treatment of
hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. IV bolus only
D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion.

5. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the ER with

DKA. In the acute phase the priority nursing action is to
prepare to:
A. Administer regular insulin intravenously
B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
C. Correct the acidosis
D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor.

6. During the admission of a client with diabetic

ketoacidosis, Nurse Kendra will anticipate the physician
ordering which of the following types of intravenous
solution if the client cannot take fluids orally?
A. Lactated Ringer’s solution
B. 0.9 normal saline solution
C. 5% dextrose in water (D5W)
D. 0.45% normal saline solution

7. Which adaptations should the nurse caring for a

client with diabetic ketoacidosis expect the client to
exhibit? Select all that apply:
A. Sweating
B. Low PCO2
C. Retinopathy
D. Acetone breath
E. Elevated serum bicarbonate
8. Which of the following chronic complications is
associated with diabetes?
A. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion, and coronary artery
disease.
B. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and coronary artery
disease
C. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events, and pulmonary
infarcts
D. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and
cardiac arrhythmia’s

9. Which of the following if stated by the nurse is

correct about Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic
Syndrome (HHNS)?
A. This syndrome occurs mainly in people with Type I
Diabetes
B. It has a higher mortality rate than Diabetic
Ketoacidosis
C. The client with HHNS is in a state of over hydration
D. This condition develops very rapidly

10. Blood sugar is well controlled when Hemoglobin

A1C is:
A. Below 5.7%
B. Between 12%-15%
C. Less than 180 mg/dL
D. Between 90 and 130 mg/dL
11. The client’s blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis. The
nurse should expect:
A. Increased pH
B. Decreased PO2
C. Increased PCO2
D. Decreased HCO3

12. Dr. Hugo has prescribed sulfonylureas for Rebecca in

the management of diabetes mellitus type 2. As a nurse,
you know that the primary purpose of sulfonylureas,
such as long-acting glyburide (Micronase), is to:
A. Induce hypoglycemia by decreasing insulin sensitivity.
B. Improve insulin sensitivity and decrease
hyperglycemia.
C. Stimulate the beta cells of the pancreas to secrete
insulin.
D. Decrease insulin sensitivity by enhancing glucose
uptake.
13. When a client is first admitted with hyperglycemic
hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), the nurse’s
priority is to provide:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fluid replacement
D. Dietary instruction

14. A nurse performs a physical assessment on a client

with type 2 DM. Findings include a fasting blood glucose
of 120mg/dl, temperature of 101, pulse of 88,
respirations of 22, and a bp of 140/84. Which finding
would be of most concern of the nurse?
A. Pulse
B. BP
C. Respiration
D. Temperature

15. The principal goals of therapy for older patients who

have poor glycemic control are:
A. Enhancing quality of life.
B. Decreasing the chance of complications.
C. Improving self-care through education.
D. All of the above.

SAS 14

1. Which sign indicated the second phase of acute renal

failure?
A. Daily doubling of urine output (4 to 5 L/day)
B. Urine output less than 400 ml/day
C. Urine output less than 100 ml/day
D. Stabilization of renal function

2. The most common early sign of kidney disease is:

A. Sodium retention
B. Elevated BUN level
C. Development of metabolic acidosis
D. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine

3. Your patient is complaining of muscle cramps while

undergoing hemodialysis. Which intervention is
effective in relieving muscle cramps?
A. Increase the rate of dialysis
B. Infuse normal saline solution
C. Administer a 5% dextrose solution
D. Encourage active ROM exercises
4. Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used in renal
failure to:
A. Correct acidosis
B. Reduce serum phosphate levels
C. Exchange potassium for sodium
D. Prevent constipation from sorbitol use

5. What change indicates recovery in a patient with

nephrotic syndrome?
A. Disappearance of protein from the urine
B. Decrease in blood pressure to normal
C. Increase in serum lipid levels
D. Gain in body weight

6. Which sign indicated the second phase of acute renal

failure?
A. Daily doubling of urine output (4 to 5 L/day)
B. Urine output less than 400 ml/day
C. Urine output less than 100 ml/day
D. Stabilization of renal function

7. Which cause of hypertension is the most common in

acute renal failure?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Hypervolemia
C. Hypovolemia
D. Anemia

8. You have a patient that is receiving peritoneal

dialysis. What should you do when you notice the
return fluid is slowly draining?
A. Check for kinks in the outflow tubing
B. Raise the drainage bag above the level of the
abdomen
C. Place the patient in a reverse Trendelenburg position
D. Ask the patient to cough

9. Dietary intervention for renal deterioration includes

limiting the intake of:
A. Fluid
B. Protein
C. Sodium and potassium
D. All of the above

10. Significant nursing assessment data relevant to renal

function should include information about:
A. Any voiding disorders.
B. The patient’s occupation.
C. The presence of hypertension or diabetes.
D. All of the above
SAS 15

1. In chronic renal failure (end-stage renal disease),

decreased glomerular filtration leads to:
A. Increased pH.
B. Decreased creatinine clearance.
C. Increased BUN.
D. All of the above.

2. A patient with diabetes has had many renal calculi

over the past 20 years and now has chronic renal
failure. Which substance must be reduced in this
patient’s diet?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Protein
D. Vitamin C

3. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports

pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this
patient’s teaching plan?
A. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel
B. Take frequent baths
C. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin
D. Keep fingernails short and clean

4. A major sensitive indicator of kidney disease is:

A. BUN level.
B. Creatinine clearance level.
C. Serum potassium level.
D. Uric acid level.

5. Decreased levels of erythropoietin, a substance

normally secreted by the kidneys, leads to which serious
complication of chronic renal failure?
A. Anemia.
B. Acidosis.
C. Hyperkalemia.
D. Pericarditis.

6. In chronic renal faiure (end-stage renal disease),

decreased glomerular filtration leads to:
A. Increased pH.
B. Decreased creatinine clearance.
C. Increased BUN.
D. All of the above.
7. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a
patient in end-stage renal disease?
A. Risk for injury
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
D. Activity intolerance

8. Frequent PVCs are noted on the cardiac monitor of a

patient with end-stage renal disease. The priority
intervention is:
A. Call the doctor immediately
B. Give the patient IV lidocaine (Xylocaine)
C. Prepare to defibrillate the patient
D. Check the patient’s latest potassium level

9. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for a

patient in end-stage renal disease?
A. Risk for injury
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
D. Activity intolerance

10. What is the appropriate infusion time for the

dialysate in your 38 y.o. patient with chronic renal
failure?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 2 to 3 hours

SAS 16

1. A client arrives in the emergency department with an

ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen
activator (t-PA) administration. Which is the priority
nursing assessment?
A. Complete physical and history.
B. Upcoming surgical procedures.
C. Time of onset of current stroke.
D. Current medications.

2. During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic therapy

for ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to control the
client’s:
A. Respirations
B. Temperature
C. Pulse
D. Blood pressure
3. The most common cause of cerebrovascular accident
is:
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Embolism
C. Hypertensive changes
D. Vasospasm

4. The degree of neurologic damage that occurs with an

ischemic stroke depends on the:
A. Location of the lesion.
B. Size of the area of inadequate perfusion
C. Amount of collateral blood flow.
D. Combination of the above factors.

5. The majority of strokes have what type of origin?

A. Cardiogenic emboli.
B. Cryptogenic.
C. Large artery thrombotic.
D. Small artery thrombotic.

6. Mr. Mendoza who has suffered a cerebrovascular

accident (CVA) is too weak to move on his own. To help
the client avoid pressure ulcers, Nurse Celia should:
A. Reduce the client's fluid intake.
B. Encourage the client to use a footboard.
C. Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.
D. Turn him frequently.

7. A 78-year old client is admitted to the emergency

department with numbness and weakness of the left
arm and slurred speech. Which nursing intervention is
priority?
A. Notify the speech pathologist for an emergency
consult.
B. Prepare to administer recombinant tissue
plasminogen activator (rt-PA).

C. Discuss the precipitating factors that caused the

symptoms.
D. Schedule for A STAT computer tomography (CT) scan
of the head.

8. What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24

hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic
stroke?
A. Echocardiogram
B. Cholesterol level
C. Pupil size and papillary response
D. Vowel sounds

9. Which action should take the highest priority when

caring for a client with hemiparesis caused by a
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
A. Apply antiembolism stockings
B. Place the client on the affected side.
C. Use hand rolls or pillows for support.
D. Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

10. A 70 yr-old client with a diagnosis of leftsided

cerebrovascular accident is admitted to the facility. To
prevent the development of diffuse osteoporosis, which
of the following objectives is most appropriate?
A. Maintaining vitamin levels.
B. Promoting weight-bearing exercises
C. Promoting range-of-motion (ROM) exercises
D. Maintaining protein levels

SAS 17

1. A patient with a spinal cord injury (SCI) complains

about a severe throbbing headache that suddenly
started a short time ago. Assessment of the patient
reveals increased blood pressure (168/94) and
decreased heart rate (48/minute), diaphoresis, and
flushing of the face and neck. What action should you
take first?
A. Administer the ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol).
B. Check the Foley tubing for kinks or obstruction.
C. Adjust the temperature in the patient’s room.
D. Notify the physician about the change in status.

2. A patient with a spinal cord injury at level C3-4 is

being cared for in the ED. What is the priority
assessment?
A. Determine the level at which the patient has intact
sensation.
B. Assess the level at which the patient has retained
mobility.
C. Check blood pressure and pulse for signs of spinal
shock.
D. Monitor respiratory effort and oxygen saturation
level.

3. You are pulled from the ED to the neurologic floor.

Which action should you delegate to the nursing
assistant when providing nursing care for a patient with
SCI?
A. Assess patient’s respiratory status every 4 hours.
B. Take patient’s vital signs and record every 4 hours.
C. Monitor nutritional status including calorie counts.
D. Have patient turn, cough, and deep breathe every 3
hours.

4. You are helping the patient with an SCI to establish a

bladder-retraining program. What strategies may
stimulate the patient to void? (Choose all that apply).
A. Stroke the patient’s inner thigh.
B. Pull on the patient’s pubic hair.
C. Initiate intermittent straight catheterization.
D. Pour warm water over the perineum.
E. Tap the bladder to stimulate detrusor muscle.

5. You are preparing a nursing care plan for the patient

with SCI including the nursing diagnosis Impaired
Physical Mobility and Self-Care Deficit. The patient tells
you, ―I don’t know why we’re doing all this. My life’s
over.‖ What additional nursing diagnosis takes priority
based on this statement?
A. Risk for Injury related to altered mobility
B. Imbalanced Nutrition, Less Than Body Requirements
C. Impaired Adjustment to Spinal Cord Injury
D. Poor Body Image related to immobilization

6. A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have

which of the following symptoms?
A. Aphasia
B. Hemiparesis
C. Paraplegia
D. Tetraplegia

7. A 20-year-old client who fell approximately 30’ is

unresponsive and breathless. A cervical spine injury is
suspected. How should the first-responder open the
client’s airway for rescue breathing?
A. By performing a jaw-thrust maneuver
B. By inserting a nasopharyngeal airway
C. By inserting a oropharyngeal airway
D. By performing the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

8. The nurse is planning care for the client in spinal

shock. Which of the following actions would be least
helpful in minimizing the effects of
A. Using vasopressor medications as prescribed
B. Applying Teds or compression stockings.
C. Moving the client quickly as one unit
D. Monitoring vital signs before and during position
changes
9. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with spinal
cord injury. The nurse minimizes the risk of
compounding the injury most effectively by:
A. Logrolling the client on a soft mattress
B. Keeping the client on a stretcher
C. Logrolling the client on a firm mattress
D. Placing the client on a Stryker frame

10. After falling 20’, a 36-year-old man sustains a C6

fracture with spinal cord transaction. Which other
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Quadriplegia and loss of respiratory function
B. Loss of bowel and bladder control
C. Paraplegia with intercostal muscle loss
D. Quadriplegia with gross arm movement and
diaphragmic breathing

SAS 18

1. A patient who is in hypovolemic shock has the

following clinical signs: Heart rate 120 beats/minute,
blood pressure 80/55 mmHg and urine output 20ml/hr.
After administering an IV fluid bolus, which of these
signs if noted by the healthcare provider is the best
indication of improved perfusion?
A. Heart rate drops to 100 beats/minute.
B. Right atrial pressure increases.
C. Urine output increases to 30mL/hour.
D. Systolic blood pressure increases to 85 mmHg.

2. An anxious female client complains of chest tightness,

tingling sensations, and palpitations. Deep, rapid
breathing, and carpal spasms are noted. Which of the following priority
action should the nurse do first?
A. Provide oxygen therapy.
B. Notify the physician immediately.
C. Administer anxiolytic medication as ordered.
D. Have the client breathe into a brown paper bag.

3. Nurse Kelly, a triage nurse encountered a client who

complaints of mid-sternal chest pain, dizziness, and
diaphoresis. Which of the following nursing action
should take priority?
A. Complete history taking.
B. Put the client on ECG monitoring.
C. Notify the physician.
D. Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula.
4. A 65-year-old patient arrived at the triage area with
complaints of diaphoresis, dizziness, and left-sided
chest pain. This patient should be prioritized into which
category?
A. Non-urgent.
B. Urgent.
C. Emergent.
D. High urgent.

5. A client arrived at the emergency department after

suffering multiple physical injuries including a fractured
pelvis from avehicular accident. Upon assessment, the
client is incoherent, pale, and diaphoretic. With vital
signs as follows: temperature of 97°F (36.11° C), blood
pressure of 60/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 143
beats/minute, and a respiratory rate of 30
breaths/minute. The client is mostly suffering from
which of the following shock?
A. Cardiogenic.
B. Distributive.
C. Hypovolemic.
D. Obstructive.

6. A patient with a spinal cord injury is recovering from

neurogenic shock. The nurse realizes that the patient
should not develop a full bladder because what
emergency condition can occur if it is not corrected
quickly?
A. Autonomic dysreflexia.
B. Autonomic crisis.
C. Autonomic shutdown.
D. Autonomic failure.

7. The nurse is evaluating neurological signs of the male

client in neurogenic shock following spinal cord injury.
Which of the following observations by the nurse
indicates that neurogenic shock persists?
A. Positive reflexes.
B. Hyperreflexia.
C. Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex.
D. Reflex emptying of the bladder.

8. The nurse is planning care for the client in neurogenic

shock. Which of the following actions would be least
helpful in minimizing the effects of vasodilation below
the level of the injury?
A. Monitoring vital signs before and during position
changes
B. Using vasopressor medications as prescribed
C. Moving the client quickly as one unit
D. Applying Teds or compression stockings.

9. A client with a T1 spinal cord injury arrives at the

emergency department with a BP of 82/40, pulse 34,
dry skin, and flaccid paralysis of the lower extremities.
Which of the following conditions would most likely be
suspected?
A. Autonomic dysreflexia.
B. Hypervolemia.
C. Neurogenic shock.
D. Sepsis.

10. A client comes into the ER after hitting his head in

an MVA. He’s alert and oriented. Which of the following
nursing interventions should be done first?
A. Assess full ROM to determine extent of injuries
B. Immobilize the client’s head and neck
C. Call for an immediate chest x-ray
D. Open the airway with the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver

11. Emergency treatment for a client with impending

anaphylaxis secondary to hypersensitivity to a drug
should include which of the following actions first?
A. Administering oxygen
B. Inserting an I.V. catheter
C. Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC)
D. Taking vital signs

12. Anaphylactic shock is associated with which type of

hypersensitivity?
A. Type I hypersensitivity.
B. Type II hypersensitivity.
C. Type III hypersensitivity.
D. Type IV hypersensitivity.

13. Following the initial care of a client with asthma and

impending anaphylaxis from hypersensitivity to a drug,
the nurse should take which of the following steps next?
A. Administer beta-adrenergic blockers.
B. Administer bronchodilators.
C. Obtain serum electrolyte levels.
D. Have the client lie flat in the bed.

14. Nurse Ejay is assigned to a telephone triage. A client

called who was stung by a honeybee and is asking for
help. The client reports of pain and localized swelling
but has no respiratory distress or other symptoms of
anaphylactic shock. What is the appropriate initial
action that the nurse should direct the client to
perform?
A. Removing the stinger by scraping it.
B. Applying a cold compress.
C. Taking an oral antihistamine.
D. Calling the 911.

15. An anxious 24-year-old college student complains of

tingling sensations, palpitations, and chest tightness.
Deep, rapid breathing and carpal spasms are noted.
What priority nursing action should you take?
A. Have the student breathe into a paper bag.
B. Notify the physician immediately.
C. Obtain an order for an anxiolytic medication.
D. Administer supplemental oxygen

SAS 19

1.The main goal of treating septic shock is:

A. Preserving the myocardium.
B. Restoring adequate fluid status.
C. Identification and elimination of the cause of
infection.
D. Identification and elimination of the cause of allergy.

2. Medical management of septic shock includes all of

the following except:
A. Administration of colloids.
B. Administration of Drotrecogin alfa.
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation.
D. Aggressive nutritional supplementation.

3. Patients receiving fluid replacement therapy should

be frequently monitored for:
A. Adequate urinary output.
B. Changes in mental status.
C. Vital sign stability.
D. All of the above.

4. Physiologic responses to all types of shock include the

following except:
A. Activation of the inflammatory system.
B. Activation of the coagulation system.
C. Hypoperfusion of tissues.
D. Vasoconstriction.

5. What age group is the most susceptible to sepsis?

A. Infants.
B. Adolescents.
C. Elderly.
D. Young adults.
6. Following emergency endotracheal intubation, you
must verify tube placement and secure the tube. List in
order the steps that are required to perform this
function?
I. Obtain an order for a chest x-ray to document tube
placement.
II. Secure the tube in place.
III. Auscultate the chest during assisted ventilation.
IV. Confirm that the breath sounds are equal and
bilateral.
A. IV, I, III, II
B. III, IV, II, I
C. III, II, IV, I
D. IV, III, I, II

7. The emergency medical service (EMS) has

transported a patient with severe chest pain. As the
patient is being transferred to the emergency stretcher,
you note unresponsiveness, cessation of breathing, and
no palpable pulse. Which task is appropriate to delegate
to the nursing assistant?
A. Placing the defibrillator pads
B. Chest compressions
C. Bag-valve mask ventilation
D. Assisting with oral intubation

8. Which client factors should alert the nurse to

potential increased complications with a burn injury?
A. The client is a 26-year-old male.
B. The client has had a burn injury in the past.
C. The burned areas include the hands and perineum.
D. The burn took place in an open field and ignited the
client’s clothing.

9. The burned client’s family ask at what point the client

will no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “When fluid remobilization has started.”
B. “When the burn wounds are closed.”
C. “When IV fluids are discontinued.”
D. “When body weight is normal.”

10. In reviewing the burned client’s laboratory report of

white blood cell count with differential, all the following
results are listed. Which laboratory finding indicates the
possibility of sepsis?
A.The total white blood cell count is 9000/mm3.
B.The lymphocytes outnumber the basophils.
C.The “bands” outnumber the “segs.”
D.The monocyte count is 1,800/mm3.
SAS 20

1. The nurse assesses the client who has chronic renal

failure and notes the following: crackles in the lung
bases, elevated blood pressure, and weight gain of 2
pounds in one day. Based on these data, which of the
following nursing diagnoses is appropriate?

A. Excess fluid volume related to the kidney’s inability to

maintain fluid balance.
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to interrupted
arterial blood flow.
C. Ineffective therapeutic Regimen Management related
to lack of knowledge about therapy.
D. Increased cardiac output related to fluid overload.

2. Crackles in the lungs, weight gain, and elevated blood

pressure are indicators of excess fluid volume, a
common complication in chronic renal failure. The
client’s fluid status should be monitored carefully for
imbalances on an ongoing basis.
A. Accumulation of waste products
B. Oliguria
C. Gastric ulcers
D. Electrolyte imbalances

3. A client has been admitted with chest trauma after a

motor vehicle crash and has undergone subsequent intubation. The nurse checks the
client when the high- pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, and notes that the client
has absence of breath sounds in the right upper lobe of the lung. The nurse
immediately assesses for other signs of which
condition?
A. Right pneumothorax
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Displaced endotracheal tube
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

4. The nurse is assessing a client with multiple trauma

who is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress
syndrome. The nurse should assess for which earliest
sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
A. Bilateral wheezing
B. Inspiratory crackles
C. Intercostal retractions
D. Increased respiratory rate
5. A client with myocardial infarction is developing
cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial
ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully
assess the client for?
A. Bradycardia
B. Ventricular dysrhythmias
C. Rising diastolic blood pressure
D. Falling central venous pressure

6. What is the priority nursing diagnosis with your

patient diagnosed with end-stage renal disease?
A. Activity intolerance
B. Fluid volume excess
C. Knowledge deficit
D. Pain

7. Frequent PVCs are noted on the cardiac monitor of a

patient with end-stage renal disease. The priority
intervention is:
A. Call the doctor immediately
B. Give the patient IV lidocaine (Xylocaine)
C. Prepare to defibrillate the patient
D. Check the patient’s latest potassium level

8. A patient with diabetes mellitus and renal failure

begins hemodialysis. Which diet is best on days
between dialysis treatments?
A. Low-protein diet with unlimited amounts of water
B. Low-protein diet with a prescribed amount of water
C. No protein in the diet and use of a salt substitute
D. No restrictions

9. After the first hemodialysis treatment, your patient

develops a headache, hypertension, restlessness,
mental confusion, nausea, and vomiting. Which
condition is indicated?
A. Disequilibrium syndrome
B. Respiratory distress
C. Hypervolemia
D. Peritonitis
10. Your 60 y.o. patient with pyelonephritis and possible
septicemia has had five UTIs over the past two years.
She is fatigued from lack of sleep, has lost weight, and
urinates frequently even in the night. Her labs show:
sodium, 154 mEq/L; osmolarity 340 mOsm/L; glucose,
127 mg/dl; and potassium, 3.9 mEq/L. Which nursing
diagnosis is priority?

A. Fluid volume deficit related to osmotic diuresis

induced by hyponatremia
B. Fluid volume deficit related to inability to conserve
water
C. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements
related to hypermetabolic state
D. Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements
related to catabolic effects of insulin deficiency

SAS 21
1. The following clients are presented with signs and
symptoms of heat-related illness. Which of them needs
to be attended first?
A. A relatively healthy homemaker who reports that the
air conditioner has been broken for days and who
manifest fatigue, hypotension, tachypnea, and profuse
sweating.
B. An elderly person who complains of dizziness and
syncope after standing in the sun for several hours to
view a parade.
C. A homeless person who is a poor historian; has
altered mental status, poor muscle coordination, and
hot, dry ashen skin; and whose duration of heat
exposure is unknown.
D. A marathon runner who complains of severe leg
cramps and nausea, and manifests weakness, pallor,
diaphoresis, and tachycardia.

2. You are caring for a client with a frostbite on the feet.

Place the following interventions in the correct order.
1. Immerse the feet in warm water 100° F to 105° F
(40.6o C to 46.1° C).
2. Remove the victim from the cold environment.
3. Monitor for signs of compartment syndrome.
4. Apply a loose, sterile, bulky dressing.
5. Administer a pain medication.
A. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
B. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
C. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
3. You are caring for a patient who was brought into the
emergency department unresponsive, hypotensive and
tachypneic. Upon further assessment, you realize that
the patient’s temperature is 106 degrees Fahrenheit.
You suspect heat stroke. What would your priority
nursing intervention be?
A. Obtain a history from the patient.
B. Take oral temperature to monitor effectiveness of
treatment.
C. Call the family for consent to treat.
D. Take off the patient’s clothing, wrap him or her in
wet towels and place a fan on the patient.

4. An elementary school nurse is teaching children how

to prevent injuries from cold exposure in the winter.
Which student statement demonstrates that the
teaching has been effective?
A. "Dressing in layers is important."
B. "I will drink lots of water when I exercise."
C. "Taking frequent breaks will help me rest."
D. "Wearing three pairs of cotton socks is very
important.''
5. Which client is at greatest risk for heat exhaustion?

A. 24-year-old construction worker

B. 34-year-old policeman
C. 42-year-old swimming instructor
D. 78-year-old gardener

6. A 16-year-old high school athlete recently suffered

heat exhaustion. The school nurse is instructing the
student on how to prevent a recurrence of this
situation. Which student statement demonstrates that
the teaching is effective?
A. "I should try to exercise between noon and 3 PM."
B. "I will limit my fluids to drinking 'sports' drinks after I
exercise."
C. "Taking frequent rests is important when working in a
hot environment."
D. "Wearing dark-colored clothing to deflect the sun
away from me will help me stay cooler."
7. On a hot summer day, an older adult is found by a
neighbor lying on the apartment floor, agitated and
confused. After calling 911, the neighbor places ice bags
to the client's groin area and armpits. Upon arrival at
the hospital, which action does the emergency
department (ED) nurse perform first?
A. Administers 2 acetylsalicylic acid tablets (aspirin)
orally
B. Checks the client's airway, continuing oxygen by mask
C. Monitors the client's vital signs
D. Places a cooling blanket on the client

8. While at a soccer match, a player drops to the ground

with heat exhaustion and a diminished level of
consciousness (LOC). What does the team nurse do
first?
A. Gives salt tablets
B. Moves the player to the shade
C. Places ice packs under the arms
D. Provides a cool electrolyte fluid drink

9. Which of the following nursing interventions is

appropriate for a client who is suffering from a fever?
A. Avoid giving the client food
B. Increase the client's fluid volume
C. Provide oxygen
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C

10. A client has started sweating profusely due to

intense heat. His overall fluid volume is low and he has
developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most
likely suffering from:
A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Heat stroke
D. Heat cramps
SAS 22

1. You are assessing a patient who has sustained a cat

bite to the left hand. The cat is up-to-date
immunizations. The date of the patient’s last tetanus
shot is unknown. Which of the following is the priority
nursing diagnosis?

A. Risk for Impaired Mobility related to potential tendon

damage.
B. Risk for Infection related to organisms specific to cat
bites.
C. Ineffective Health Maintenance related to
immunization status.
D. Impaired Skin Integrity related to puncture wounds.

2. You are assigned to telephone triage. A patient who

was stung by a common honey bee calls for advice,
reports pain and localized swelling, but denies any
respiratory distress or other systemic signs of
anaphylaxis. What is the action that you should direct
the caller to perform?
A. Remove the stinger by scraping.
B. Take an oral antihistamine
C. Call 911.
D. Apply a cool compress.

3. A client calls the office of his primary care health care

provider and tells the nurse that he was just stung by a
bumblebee while gardening. The client is afraid of a
severe reaction, because the client's neighbor
experienced such a reaction just 1 week ago. The
appropriate nursing action is to:experienced such a
reaction just 1 week ago. The appropriate nursing action
is to:

A. Advise the client to soak the site in hydrogen

peroxide.
B. Ask the client if he ever sustained a bee sting in the
past.
C. Tell the client to call an ambulance for transport to
the emergency room.
D. Tell the client not to worry about the sting unless
difficulty with breathing occurs
4. The camp nurse prepares to instruct a group of
children about Lyme disease. Which of the following
information would The nurse include in the
instructions?
A. Lyme disease is caused by a tick carried by deer.
B. Lyme disease is caused by contamination from cat
feces.
C. Lyme disease can be contagious by skin contact with
an infected individual.
D. Lyme disease can be caused by the inhalation of
spores from bird droppings.

5. The client is diagnosed with stage I of Lyme disease.

The nurse assesses the client for which characteristic of
this stage?
A. Arthralgias
B. Flu-like symptoms
C. Enlarged and inflamed joints
D. Signs of neurological disorders

6. A camp nurse is providing snakebite prevention tips.

Which statement by a client camper indicates a need for
additional education?
a. "A dead snake is a safe snake."
b. "Snakes are most active on warm nights."
c. "Snakes should be transported in sealed glass
containers."
d. "Venomous snakes are not good pets."

7. A 12-year-old client comes to the emergency

department (ED) after being bitten by a scorpion at a
local petting zoo. Which action does the nurse perform
first?
A. Administers a tetanus shot
B. Applies an ice pack to the sting site
C. Assesses the client's vital signs
D. Calls the poison control center

8. A nurse is teaching a class of park rangers-in-training

about prioritizing care for clients who have received
snakebites. Which ranger's statement demonstrates a
need for further clarification?
A. ''Do not allow the client to ingest any alcohol or
caffeine.''
B. ''The extremity should be kept below the level of the
heart.''
C. ''The first priority is to move the client to a safe area
away from the snake.''
D. ''You should first place a tourniquet above the bite.''
9. While on the playground, a school child is stung by a
bee, resulting in redness and swelling. The school nurse
is nearby when it happens. What does the nurse do
first?
A. Applies an ice pack to the stinger
B. Gently scrapes out the stinger with a credit card
C. Injects the child with an epinephrine pen (Epi-Pen
auto-injector)
D. Removes the bee and saves it for evidence of the
sting

10. A young man is brought to the Emergency

Department after receiving multiple fire ant bites while
working in his yard. Although initially alert and oriented,
he begins to develop wheezing and an itchy throat. He
complains of nausea and severe anxiety. The ED nurse
should prepare to administer all of the following for
initial treatment EXCEPT:
A. Adrenaline
B. Antibiotic
C. Oxygen
D. Antihistamines

SAS 23

1. Nurse Kelly is teaching the parents of a young child

how to handle poisoning. If the child ingests poison,
what should the parents do first?
A. Call an ambulance immediately.
B. Call the poison control center.
C. Punish the child for being bad.
D. Administer ipecac syrup.

2. A client arrives in the emergency unit and reports

that a concentrated household cleaner was splashed in
both eyes. Which of the following nursing actions is a
priority?
A. Use Restasis (Allergan) drops in the eye.
B. Flush the eye repeatedly using sterile normal saline.
C. Examine the client's visual acuity.
D. Patch the eye.

3. In relation to submersion injuries, which task is most

appropriate to delegate to an LPN/LVN?
A. Monitor an asymptomatic near-drowning victim.
B. Remove wet clothing and cover the victim with a
warm blanket.
C. Talk to a community group about water safety issues.
D. Stabilize the cervical spine for an unconscious
drowning victim.
4. The nurse employed in an emergency department is
assigned to triage clients coming to the emergency
department for treatment on the evening shift. The
nurse should assign priority to which client?
A. A client complaining of muscle aches, a headache,
and history of seizures
B. A client who twisted her ankle when rollerblading
and is requesting medication for pain
C. A client with a minor laceration on the index finger
sustained while cutting an eggplant
D. A client with chest pain who states that he just ate
pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce

5. Which of these toxic substances is more likely to

cause sickness in infants and elderly adults?
A. Lead
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Bee venom
D. Bleach
E. Turpentine

6. How can you reduce the risk that a child will be

accidentally poisoned by medicine?
A. Never say that medicine is “candy”
B. Keep medicines in their original containers and in
locked cabinets
C. Make sure you put medicines away after using them
D. All of the above

7. How can you reduce your risk for accidental

poisoning with medicine?
A. Always turn on the light when taking medicine
B. Clean out your medicine cabinet regularly
C. Carefully read the labels on your medicine
D. All of the above

8. If your child eats or drinks a toxic substance, what

should you do?
A. Call the poison control center right away
B. Try to get your child to throw up (vomit)
C. Call your child's healthcare provider
D. None of the above

9. What information should you have ready when you

call a poison control center?
A. Time the poisoning occurred
B. Age of your child
C. Name of the product taken
D. All of the above
10. How can you help prevent accidental poisoning by
household products?
A. Never mix household chemical products together
B. Open a window or turn on a fan when using a
chemical product
C. Never sniff containers to find out what's inside
D. All of the above