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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 1 GUJARAT DRUG INSPECTOR-2024

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F
1. What is the name of the umbrella programme (b) Wildlife Sanctuary for barking deer
launched by the Ministry of Electronics and (c) Perlite production

PD
information Technology (MeitY) to promote (d) Shale Gas reserve
artificial intelligence in India 9. Paintings of which famous artist was
(a) INDIAai (b) AI-INDIA commissioned by the Maharaja of Baroda for
(c) Digital India (d) Art-Int-Ind Laxmi Viles Palace
2. Conjunctivitis disease is also known as (a) Natvar Bhavsar (b) Abdul Gafur Khatri
(a) Glaucoma (b) Myopia (c) Raja Ravi Varma (d) Ravishankar Raval

E
(c) Pink Eye (d) Presbyopia 10. Navlakhi Stepwell is located in
3. India aims to achieve the target of ‘net zero (a) Laxmi Vilas Palace in Baroda
emissions” by the year PL (b) Vijay Vilas Palace in Bhavnagar
(a) 2047 (b) 2050 (c) Prag Mahal in Kutch
(c) 2060 (d) 2070 (d) Nilambagh Palace in Bhavnagar
4. The phrase “Digital Culture’ refers to 11. The famous Harappan Seal that contains
(a) The way computers, laptops and mobiles are animal motifs and signs was made of a stone
M
used called
(b) The behaviours, practices and values that (a) Steatite (b) Limestone
develop from the use of digital technologies (c) Travertine (d) Igneous
(c) The way students learn from smart technologies 12. The Harappans used to procure materials like
SA

(d) The way people interact with audio-visual Carnelian stone for craft production from
technology which part of Gujarat
5. Which state has the longest mainland coastline (a) Dholavira (b) Bharuch
in India (c) Lothal (d) Surkotada
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra 13. Which among the following grains was found
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat relatively rarely at Harappan sites
C

6. The permanent campus of the National (a) Wheat and barley (b) Sesame
Academy of Coastal Policing (NACP) is located (c) Millets (d) Rice
in 14. In 1918, Gandhiji was involved in two
D

(a) Dwarka, Gujarat (b) Bhuj, Gujarat campaigns in Gujarat. One was in a labour
(c) Kutch, Gujarat (d) Salaya, Gujarat dispute in Ahmedabad, demanding better
G

7. The Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary in Gujarat is working conditions for the textile mill
situated in workers. What was his second campaign
(a) Little Rann of Kutch (a) He joined peasants in Kheda in asking the state
(b) Vansda National Park in Navsari for the remission of tases following the failure
(c) Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary in Vadodara of their harvest
(d) Velavadar National Park in Bhavnagar (b) In Champaran, demanding peasants’ security of
8. Surkotada in Kutch is known for tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the
(a) Remnants of Indus Valley Civilization crops of their choice

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 4 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
42. In which country’s electoral system does the II. People have the supreme right to make
indigenous people’s vote have more value than decisions
the citizens of Indian origin III. Head of the state is an elected person
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Fiji IV. People should live like brothers and
(c) Maldives (d) Myanmar sisters
43. Which session of the Indian National Congress (a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
dwelt on how independent India’s Constitution (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
should look like (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

F
(a) The Nagpur session 1920 (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(b) The Kanpur session 1925 47. Which statement(s) is/are correct
I. Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the

PD
(c) The Karachi session 1931
(d) The Bombay session 1934 Constituent Assembly
44. Beside C. Rajagopalachari, who among the II. Mahatma Gandhi’s ideas, vision and
following was the founder of the Swatantra philosophy were followed by many
Party members of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi (a) Only I is correct
(b) Minoo Masani (b) Both I and II are correct

E
(c) N.G. Ranga (c) Only II is correct
(d) Darshan Singh Pheruman (d) Both I and II are not correct
45. Match-I (leaders) with Match-II (roles in the
making of the Constitution)
PL 48. Which among the following statement(s) is/are
correct
I. The function of a Constitution is to provide
MATCH-I
a set of basic rules and specify who has the
A. Motilal Nehru
power to make decisions in a society
B. B.R. Ambedkar
M
II. The function of a Constitution is to set some
C. Rajendra Prasad
limits on what a government can impose
D. Sarojini Naidu
on its citizens and the government may
MATCH-II
SA

never trespass them

I. President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Only I is correct
II. Member of the Constituent Assembly
(b) Only II is correct
III. Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(c) Both I and II are correct
IV. Drafted a Constitution for India in 1928
(d) Both I and II are incorrect
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
49. Which among the following features of the
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
C

Indian Constitution is NOT adopted from the

(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
British Constitution
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(a) Parliamentary Form of Government
D

46. Match-I (guiding values of the Constitution)

(b) The idea of the rule of law
with Match-II (their meaning)
(c) Institution of the Speaker and her/his role
MATCH - I
(d) Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
G

A. Sovereign
50. Which statement(s) is/are correct
B. Republic I. The Fundamental Rights are protected and
C. Fraternity guaranteed by the Constitution of the
D. Secular country
MATCH - II II. The Fundamental Right can only be
I. The government will not favour any changed by amending the Constitution
religion itself

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 13 GUJARAT DRUG INSPECTOR-2024
186. Which of the following is a classical QSAR II. Boat-like carpal bone
method III. Largest carpal bone
(a) Hansch Analysis IV. Largest and strongest tarsal bone
(b) Pharmacophore hypothesis analysis (a) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (b) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
(c) Comparative molecular field analysis (CoMFA) (c) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III (d) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(d) None of these 195. Identify the CORRECT order of direction of flow
187. Which of the following programming in a typical neuron
languages is not commonly used for artificial (a) Cell body  Axon terminals  Axon on

F
intelligence  Dendrites
(a) LISP (b) PROLOG (b) Dendrites  Cell body  Axon
on

PD
(c) Perl (d) Python  Axon terminalss
188. Which of the following areas of clinical trials is (c) Axon terminals  Axon  Cell body dy
where artificial intelligence can be utilised  Dendrites
(a) Clinical trial design (d) Cell body  Dendrites  Axon terminalss
(b) Patient identification  Axon
(c) Monitoring trial 196. The apparatus commonly used to measure the
(d) All of these volume of air exchanged during breath and the

E
189. Which of the following is the latest FDA respiratory rate is known as
approved drug for the treatment of anaemia PL (a) Sphygmomanometer
due to chronic kidney disease (b) Spirometer
(a) Vadadustat (b) Danicopan (c) Pulse Oximeter
(c) Pegulicianine (d) None of these (d) Glucometer
190. Which of the following fields is used to redesign 197. Match the column
organisms that synthesise precursors for P. Human Growth Hormone
M
antibiotics and polymers Q. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone
(a) Microbiomics (b) Metabolomics R. Luteinizing Hormone
(c) Chemical Biology (d) Synthetic Biology S. Prolactin
SA

191. Sebaceous glands are absent in I. Gonadotrophs

(I) Hair follicles (II) Palms II. Somatotrophs
(III) Soles (IV) Breast III. Lactotrophs
(a) (II) and (III) (b) (I), (II) and (III) IV. Corticotrophs
(c) (II) only (d) (III) and (IV) (a) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III (b) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S-III
192. Which of the following sutures unites the two (c) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (d) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
C

parietal bones to the occipital bone 198. Match the column

(a) Coronal suture (b) Squamous suture (A) Lengthening of P-Q interval
(B) S-T segment Elevation
D

(c) Sagittal suture (d) Lambdoid suture

(C) Lengthening of Q-T interval
193. The gray colour of gray matter is due to
(D) Enlarged R waves
(a) Lipofuscin (b) Myelin
I. Acute Myocardial infarction
G

(c) Nissls bodies (d) Melanin

II. Myocardial ischemia
194. Match the column
III. Enlarged ventricles
P. Capitate
IV. Coronary Artery Disease
Q. Talus
(a) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
R. Calcaneus
(b) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
S. Scaphoid
(c) (A)-IV, (B)-I, (C)-II, (D)-III
I. Uppermost tarsal bone
(d) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 22 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Consultative Committee for Narcotics and (c) Active immunizing agent
Psychotropic Substances are constituted with (d) Blood-volume expansion

PD
(a) A Chairman and not more than 20 members 9. Which of the following test of emulsion may fail
(b) A Chairman and not more than 30 members in case of non-ionic o/w emulsions
(c) A Chairman and not more than 40 members (a) Dye test (b) Dilution test
(d) A Chairman and not more than 50 members (c) Cobalt chloride test (d) Conductivity test
2. Indian Pharmacopeia Commission got legal 10. The _________ may serve as adjuvant. that have
status under_____________of Drugs and Cosmetic lost their toxicity but retain their

E
Act and Rules immunogenicity are called and
(a) First Schedule (b) Second Schedule (a) Endotoxin, Pyrogen (b) Exotoxin, Toxoids

3.
(c) Third Schedule (d) Fourth Schedule
A price fixed by the Government for Scheduled
formulations is known as
PL 11.
(c) Exotoxin, Pyrogen (d) Endotoxin, Toxoids
Given, the K of morphine is 7.4 x 10-7. What is
the hydroxyl ion concentration of 0.02 M
(a) Ceiling price (b) Maximum retail price solution
(c) Price to retailer (d) Retail price (a) 0.1216×10-4 G-ion/L
M
4. The latest Pharmacy Education Regulations (b) 1.216×10-4 G-ion/L
have been notified in the year
(c) 0.148×10-4 G-ion/L
(a) 1991 (b) 2010
(d) 1.48×10-4 G-ion/L
SA

(c) 2018 (d) 2020

12. Capacity of ‘000’ size empty gelatin capsule is
5. The ratio of dry glycerine to dry gelatin in case
(a) 1.40 ml (b) 1.80 ml
of soft capsule is
(c) 0.95 ml (d) 0.68 ml
(a) 04/1 (b) 0.6/1
13. Medicinal and Toilet preparation are stored in
(c) 0.8/1 (d) 1.2/1
bulk jars or bottles, each containing
6. A reversible, time-dependent, isothermal, gel-
(a) Not less than 2,200 ml
C

sol transition flow is called

(a) Thixotropic flow (b) Not less than 2,273 ml
(b) Bingham-type plastic flow (c) Not less than 2,500 ml
D

(c) Pseudoplastie flow (d) Not less than 3,000 ml

(d) Elastic flow 14. The material (1.0 g/ml, density) fill capacity of
7. What would be osmotic pressure of 50 g hard gelatin capsule of size no. 1 is
G

dextrose in 1000 ml of water at room (a) 300 mg (b) 400 mg

temperature (25°C) (c) 500 mg (d) 600 mg
(a) 6.79 atm. (b) 68.4 atm. 15. Which one in the example of long acting insulin
(c) 0.684 atm. (d) 0.0684 atm. (a) Insulin lispro
8. The Histoplasmin USP is used as (b) Insulin glargine
(a) Diagnostic aid (c) Isophane (NPI) insulin
(b) Passive immunizing agent (d) Regular insulin

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 33 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2023

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1. According to GCP guidelines, the minimum (c) Subjects who were dropped from or failed to
number of members required in quorum of complete the study are noted in the report with

PD
Ethics Committee to review the protocol is the reason adequately explained
(a) 5 (b) 6 (d) Informed consent should be adequately
(c) 7 (d) 9 documented
2. According to GCP guidelines, which one of the 5. As per ICH GCP guidelines, whose
following statements does not hold true for responsibility is it to ensure that investigators
Ethics Committee are qualified by education and experience and

E
(a) All members serving in Ethics Committee that are trained on the conduct of the protocol
oversees human research at an institution must (a) FDA (b) Study sponsor
be employed by that institution PL (c) Investigator (d) Ethics Committee
(b) Ethics Committee should include at least one 6. The document retention period as required by
member whose primary area of interest is non- FDA following the date of marketing
scientific application approval or after the investigation
(c) Ethics Committee should have appropriate is discontinued and the FDA notified, is
M
gender representation (a) One year (b) Two years
(d) For review of each protocol the quorum of (c) Three years (d) Five years
Ethics Committee shall be at least five members 7. In indirect Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent
3. Which one of the following is not considered
SA

Assay
as the essential element in the study subject’s
(a) A standardized monoclonal antibody is
informed consent documents according to GCP
immobilized on the solid support for detection
guidelines
(b) A standardized polyclonal antibody is
(a) Expected duration of the subject’s participation
immobilized on the solid support for detection
(b) An explanation about whom to contact for trial
(c) Antigen-antibody complex is immobilized on
related queries, rights of subjects and in the
C

the solid support for detection

event of an injury
(d) A standardized antigen is immobilized on the
(c) A statement that there is a possibility of failure
solid support for detection
of investigational product to provide intended
D

8. Which one of the following antibodies is

therapeutic effects
responsible for allergic reaction
(d) A statement that the particular treatment or
(a) IgE (b) IgG
G

procedure may invoke risks to the subject,

(c) IgM (d) IgA
which are currently unforeseeable
4. As per ICH E 6 GCP guidelines, all of the 9. Which one of the following is not a bacterial
following should be complied EXCEPT vaccine
(a) Information recorded in the investigator’s (a) BCG vaccine
reports should be complete, accurate and legible (b) Pertussis vaccine
(b) Any missed study visits may not be noted in the (c) Meningococcal vaccine
reports (d) Measles vaccine

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 43 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2023
134. The drugs specified under which of the AUC (area under the curve) was found to be 362
following schedules to the Drugs and Cosmetics mg.hr/L. What will be the total clearance rate
Rules, 1945 will not be sold by retail except on (TCR), metabolic clearance rate (MCR) and
and in accordance with the prescription of renal clearance rate (RCR)
Registered Medical Practitioner (a) TCR = 23 mL/min, RCR = 16.1 mL/min, MCR =
1. Schedule U 2. Schedule Y 9.2 mL/min
3. Schedule H 4. Schedule H1 (b) TCR = 63 mL/min, RCR = 44.1 mL/min, MCR =
5. Schedule X 8.1 mL/min

F
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) TCR = 23 mL/min, RCR =16.1 mL/min, MCR
below 6.9 mL/min
(a) 3 and 4 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 (d) TCR = 46 mL/min, RCR = 32.2 mL/min., MCR

PD
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 13.8 mL/min
135. The medical devices shall conform to the 139. Which of the following statements are not
standards laid down by the correct regarding dissolution testing of solid
1. WHO dosage forms
2. US FDA 1. Dissolution tests are used to aid
3. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) formulation development, check product

E
4. ISO/IEC/Pharmacopoeial standards where quality and performance and to assess
BIS standards are not available batch-to-batch quality of a drug with respect
Select the correct answer using the code givenPL to drug product specifications
below
2. Dissolution test conditions are not
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
selected based on properties of the drug
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
and the type of drug form
136. Which one of the following is not applicable to
3. Dissolution is often the rate-limiting step
non-linear pharmacokinetics
M
in the absorption of drugs with poor water
(a) The elimination or absorption half-lives change
solubility
as doses are increased
4. Dissolution cannot be correlated to oral
(b) The area under the curve (AUC) increase in a
SA

bioavailability whilst disintegration of

proportional manner to the administered dose
dosage form is a strong indicator of oral
(c) The composition and/or ratio of the
bioavailability
metabolites of a drug may be affected by a
Select the correct answer using the code given
change in the dose
(d) Elimination or absorption of drug does not below
follow simple first-order kinetics (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
C

137. Presystemic metabolism (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

1. Occurs in liver as first-pass metabolism 140. Which one of the following is not correct for
2. Occurs in intestine and its walls dosage forms prepared using protein-based
D

3. Occurs when drug is administered drugs

transdermally or by inhalation (a) Trehalose and sucrose are ineffective in
preventing protein denaturation
G

4. Results in decrease in bioavailability

Select the correct answer using the code given (b) Low pH, i.e. pH 3-6 prevents chemical
below degradation
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1,3 and 4 (c) Cyclization of proteins makes them less
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 susceptible to gut amino and carboxy
138. An IV dose of 500 mg is administered to a peptidases
patient. It was observed that 70% of the dose (d) Metal chelating agents can be used to enhance
was recovered unchanged in the urine. The the stability

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 46 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Which of the antihistaminic drug was (a) Non-Enveloped RNA virus
withdrawn from the market owing to cardiac (b) Enveloped RNA virus

PD
adverse effects (c) Contagious
(a) Cetirizine (b) Loratadine (d) Can spread from person to person
(c) Terfenadine (d) Clemastine 12. Phenytoin should not be used during
2. Which one is not the side effect of steroids pregnancy because it cause
(a) Hyperglycaemia (b) Bone density decline (a) Gum hypertrophy
(c) Muscular weakness (d) Hypoxia (b) Hypersensitivity
(c) Hirsutism

E
3. For CNS penetration which is desirable quality
(d) Hypoplastic phalanges
(a) Lipid soluble (b) Weak bases
13. Digitalis improves atrial fibrillation by
(c) Weak acids (d) All of these PL (a) Decrease conduction through AV
4. Which of these is used as preanesthetic
(b) By decreasing cardiac contractility of AV
medication
(c) Increase in refractoriness nodal tissue
(a) Aspirin (b) Atropine (d) By causing bradycardia
(c) Amlodipine (d) Astaxanthin 14. Adverse effect of depot preparation of
5. Most common side effect of Morphine is
M
Triamcinolone
(a) Liver damage (b) Tinnitus (a) Atopic dermatitis (b) Proximal myopathy
(c) Blood dyscrasias (d) Constipation (c) Vasculitis (d) Atrophic rhinitis
6. Which of these should not be given to a patient 15. Which of the following drug is devoid of
SA

with active Tuberculosis decreasing angiotensin II activity

(a) Kanamycin (b) Hydrocortisone (a) Enalapril (b) Valsartan
(c) Alpha lipoic acid (d) Streptomycin (c) Nesiritide (d) Omapatrilat
7. Which of these anticoagulant is the fastest 16. Which of the following drug is having additional
acting platelet anti-aggregatory effect
(a) Heparin (b) Warfarin (a) Prazosin (b) Losartan
C

(c) Protamine sulfate (d) Ouabain (c) Amlodipine (d) Diazoxide

8. Colchicine was used mainly for treating 17. Metoprolol is metabolized by which of the
(a) Arthritis (b) Gout following enzyme
D

(a) CYP2C9 (b) CYP2C19

(c) Diabetes (d) Hypertension
(c) CYP2C8 (d) CYP2D6
9. Most useful treatment option for Bacterial
18. Which of the following statement is not true
Meningitis is
G

with respect to butyryl cholinesterase

(a) Tetracycline (b) Cefotaxime
(a) It is found in all cholinergic sites, RBC, and gray
(c) Kanamycin (d) Carbachol
matter
10. Which of the following is TNF blocker (b) It is found in plasma, liver, intestine, and white
(a) Atenolol (b) Sodium Barbiturate matter
(c) Etanercept (d) Cromolyn Sodium (c) It slowly hydrolyses Acetylcholine
11. Incorrect statement about the important (d) It is responsible for the hydrolysis of ingested
properties of Corona Virus esters

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 57 MPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2023

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F
1. The substance involved in the control of platelet (c) Pol (d) Env
production is 11. Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by

PD
(a) Plasminogen (b) Thrombopoietin antibodies
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Erythropoietin (a) IgM (b) IgA
2. Plasma from which the clotting factors are (c) IgG (d) IgE
removed is known as 12. Which drug among the following antifungals
(a) Lymph (b) Serum act by inhibiting the formation of glucan in
(c) Plasmin (d) Platelet fungal cell wall

E
3. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of the (a) Allylamines (b) Polyenes
following factors EXCEPT (c) Echinocandins (d) Azoles
(a) Factor IX (b) Factor X PL 13. is the main mineralocorticoid in
(c) Factor III (d) Factor II humans
4. The shape of erythrocyte disc is (a) Serotonin (b) Aldosterone
(a) Biconvex (b) Concave (c) Cortisol (d) Androgen
(c) Convex (d) Biconcave 14. One among the following drug is a Vitamin K
M
5. Neutrophils squeeze through the capillary antagonist anticoagulant
walls in the area of infection through a process (a) Enoxaparin (b) Dalteparin
called (c) Warfarin (d) Heparin
(a) Decussation (b) Dysplasia 15. A drug with high affinity for receptor and high
SA

(c) Deglutition (d) Diapedesis intrinsic activity is a/an

6. The clotting factor, Factor IX is otherwise known (a) Agonist (b) Antagonist
as (c) Partial agonist (d) Inverse agonist
(a) Christmas Factor (b) Hageman Factor 16. The major carrier protein of acidic drugs in
(c) Labile Factor (d) Stuart Prower Factor the blood stream is
7. AIDS is a/an immunodeficiency disease (a) Globulin (b) Keratin
C

(a) Secondary (b) Primary (c) Ferritin (d) Albumin

(c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary 17. Which among the following drug is a reversible
8. Trichomonas vaginalis is a carbamate inhibitor used for the treatment of
D

(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria Alzheimer disease

(c) Protozoa (d) Virus (a) Tacrine (b) Galantamine
G

9. The type of spirochaete bacteria responsible (c) Rivastigmine (d) Donepezil

for producing syphilis is 18. The enteral route of administration depicts one
(a) Leptospira (b) Helicobacter among the following route
(c) Borrelia (d) Treponema (a) Intrathecal (b) Buccal
10. The gene for reverse transcriptase which act (c) Transdermal (d) Inhalation
as marker for laboratory diagnosis of HIV 19. Dipeptidyl peptidase IV is a protease
infection is (a) Threonine (b) Aspartic
(a) Gag (b) Tat (c) Cysteine (d) Serine

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 62 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
(c) Either conclusion II follows or conclusions I a certain way and one is different. Select the odd
and III together follow one
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows, but III is
uncertain
96. Read the given statements and conclusions
carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be (a) D (b) C
at variance with commonly known facts, decide (c) B (d) A
which of the given conclusions logically 99. Three statements are given followed by three

F
follow(s) from the statements conclusions numbered I, II, and III. Assuming
Statements the statements to be true, even if they seem to be

PD
1. Use social media only if I am bored. I am at variance with commonly known facts, decide
not bored when I have my friend’s which of the conclusions logically follow(s)
company from the statements
Conclusions Statements
II. If I am bored, I seek my friend’s company (1) All sparrows are pigeons
III. I don’t use social media when my friend is (2) Some sparrows are crows
present (3) All crows are kites

E
Options Conclusions
(a) Only conclusion I follows I. All pigeons are kites
(b) Only conclusion II follows
PL II. Some kites are pigeons
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow III. All sparrows are kites
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows Options
97. Three of the following four figures are alike in (a) Only conclusion I follows
a certain way and one is different. Select the odd (b) Only conclusion II follows
M
one (c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
100. Which Letter-number cluster will replace the
question mark (?) in the following alpha-
SA

numeric series to make it logically complete

(a) A (b) B TG61, QJ56, NM52, KP49, ?
(c) C (d) D (a) IR47 (b) HS52
98. Three of the following four figures are alike in (c) IR52 (d) HS47

ANSWER KEY
C

1-b 2-b 3-c 4-d 5-d 6-a 7-a 8-c 9-d 10-c
D

11-d 12-c 13-b 14-c 15-a 16-d 17-c 18-b 19-d 20-a
21-c 22-a 23-a 24-d 25-c 26-a 27-c 28-a 29-b 30-d
31-c 32-a 33-b 34-a 35-d 36-c 37-b 38-a 39-b 40-d
G

41-c 42-d 43-b 44-a 45-a 46-b 47-d 48-b 49-c 50-d
51-c 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-d 56-a 57-a 58-d 59-c 60-b
61-a 62-b 63-d 64-b 65-d 66-c 67-c 68-c 69-b 70-d
71-d 72-d 73-a 74-a 75-d 76-b 77-d 78-a 79-a 80-b
81-d 82-b 83-b 84-d 85-c 86-c 87-b 88-c 89-a 90-d
91-b 92-b 93-c 94-c 95-d 96-b 97-d 98-c 99-b 100-d

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 63 TELANGANA DRUG INSPECTOR-2023 (SHIFT-I)

Previous Year
Paper SCAN ME

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INSPECTOR-2023 To Join FREE
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F
SHIFT-I

PD
1. In a certain code language, ‘IMP’ is written as (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
‘HJLNOQ’ 4. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate
Based on the given coding, match the following option.
We all are not pawns in the hands of time,
A. TAG 1. SUDFMO
we
B. TIE 2. SUHJDF

E
(a) aren’t (b) can’t
C. TEN 3. SUZBFH
(c) have (d) are
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1 (b) A-2, B-3, C-1 PL 5. Which country won the gold medal in men’s
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3 (d) A-1, B-2, C-3 hockey at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics
2. Which of the following statements about the (a) Australia (b) India
Telangana state is/are NOT correct (c) Belgium (d) Netherlands
A. It is surrounded by Karnataka in the West 6. Which of the following are unique arts of
B. It is surrounded by Maharashtra in the East Telangana state in which silver is engraved on
M
C. There are 32 Zilla Praja Parishads in metal and then black, gold, and silver coatings
Telangana state as on 2022 are applied
(a) Only B (b) Only A (a) Banjara Needle Crafts
SA

(c) Both B and C (d) A and B (b) Dokra Metal Crafts

3. Match the following Acts and Policies with their (c) Nirmal Arts
respective descriptions (d) Bidri Craft
1. Indian A. Policy of non- 7. Eight brothers, Aman, Binod, Chaman, Dev,
Independence cooperation with Eshan, Faisal, Gautam and Hemant are sitting
Act British around a square table in such a way that four of
C

2. Government of B. Act that granted them sit at four corners of the square while four
India Act, 1935 India Dominion sits in the middle of each of four sides. The one
status who sits at four corners faces the centre while
D

3. Swadeshi C. Act that provided those who sit in the middle of the sides face
Movement for the outside, Aman who faces the Centre sits third to
establishment of the right of Faisal. Eshan, who faces Centre, is
G

provincial not an immediate neighbour of Faisal. Only one

autonomy
person sits between Faisal and Gautam. Dev sits
4. Quit India D. Mass civil
second to the right of Binod. Binod faces the
Movement disobedience
movement against centre. Chaman is not an immediate neighbour
British rule of Aman
Which of the following statements) is/are true
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D (b) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
based on the above conditions

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 70 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
64. Read the following statements and choose the 68. Which of the following organs is responsible
correct answer for producing a hormone that regulates blood
Statement 1: Fundamental rights are enshrined sugar in the human body
in Part III of the Constitution of India (a) Kidney (b) Pancreas
Statement 2: Right to education is not a (c) Lungs (d) Liver
fundamental right in India 69. To avail of the benefits of the Kalyana Lakshmi
(a) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false Shaadi Mubarak scheme of Telangana state, a
(b) Both statements are true combined annual income of her parents NOT
(c) Both statements are false exceeding are eligible for the Scheme

F
(d) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true (a) ฀2 lakhs per annum
65. Choose the correct combination of statements (b) ฀2.5 lakhs per annum

PD
related to the State Legislature under the Union (c) ฀1.5 lakhs per annum
and State Government of India (d) ฀3 lakhs per annum
1. The State Legislature consists of the 70. Select the most appropriate meaning of the
Governor and the Legislative Council proverb given below
2. The Legislative Assembly is the lower “Easy come, easy go”
house of the State Legislature (a) When something is easily obtained, it is typically
3. The maximum strength of the Legislative

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lost just as easily
Assembly is determined by the size of the (b) Be patient, things take time to happen
state’s population (c) If you associate with bad or dishonest people,
4. The term of the Legislative Assembly is five
years, unless dissolved earlier
(a) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct
PL bad will happen to you
(d) You cannot change the past
71. From the options choose the correct active
(b) Statements 2 and 4 are correct voice form for the sentence given below.
(c) Statements 2 and 3 are correct The thoughts in her mind didn’t match the
M
(d) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct words she spoke is what she realized
66. Which of the following is a serious public (a) Her words didn’t match her thoughts
health concern associated with the excessive (b) Her thoughts do not match her words
SA

use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in (c) The words she spoke didn’t match the thoughts
agriculture in her mind, is what she realised
(a) Increased risk of COVID-19 (d) She realised that the words she spoke didn’t
(b) Increased risk of malaria match the thoughts in her mind
(c) Neurological disorders 72. The Bar graph shows the number of different
(d) High changes of human immunodeficiency types of electronics sold (in thousands) by a
virus infection and acquired immune
C

shop in the years 2021 and 2022. The quantity

deficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS) of Laptops sold in 2021 is what percent of the
67. Arrange the following events in chronological quantity of TV and AC sold in 2022 together
D

order based on their timeline of 90 2021 2022

implementation in India 80
82 80

A. Introduction of HYVP (High-Yielding 70 66

Number in thousands

60
G

60
Variety Programme) 50 48
44
B. The Advisory Board for the Imperial 40
40 39

Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) 30

20 26
plans India’s participation in the UN FAO 20

C. The Great Bengal Famine occurs 10

D. First Five-Year Plan

0
TV AC Geyser Laptop Refrigerator

Appliances Sold
(a) C, B, D, A (b) B, A, D, C
(c) A, C, B, D (d) A, D, C, B (a) 30% (b) 20% (c) 33% (d) 25%

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 77 TELANGANA DRUG INSPECTOR-2023 (SHIFT-I)
131. Which of the following statements about the
Pair Event Year
Himalayas is NOT true
A K Chandrasekhar Rao 2022
(a) The Himalayas are the tallest mountain range in launched his Bharat
the world Rashtra Samiti (BRS)
(b) The Himalayas spread across five countries, party by renaming the
including India existing Telangana
(c) The Himalayas are primarily made up of Rashtra Samiti
sedimentary rocks B K Chandrashekar Rao 2018

F
(d) The Himalayas were formed due to the went for early
collision of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic assembly elections
C K Chandrashekar Rao 2014

PD
plates
132. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate was sworn in as the
first chief minister of
option
the Telangana state
I was too______ to make sense of any of it
(a) daisy (b) dazzled (a) Only A (b) A, B, and C
(c) days (d) dazed (c) Both A and B (d) Both C and B
137. Which of the following dishes of Telangana
133. Lizard comes under which category of animals

E
state is also known as Tapala Chekka or Grinne
(a) Fish (b) Reptile
Appa
(c) Mammal (d) Amphibian PL (a) Sarva Pindi (b) Garijalu
134. Two Statements are given followed by two (c) Pacchi Pulusu (d) Sajja Rotte
conclusions numbered I and II Assuming the 138. Perini Sivathandavam or Perini Thandavam
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at dance of Telangana state used to be performed
variance with commonly known facts, decide by which of the following groups of people
which of the conclusions logically follow(s) (a) Farmers (b) Clerics
M
from the statements (c) Storyteller (d) Warriors
Statements 139. The following Venn diagram shows subjects
Some books are schools selected by the number of students in a class.
SA

All schools are hospitals Find the number of students who have selected
Conclusions only 2 subjects
I. Some banks are hospitals Maths English
II. All hospitals are school 15
40 50
(a) Only II follows 8
12 17
(b) Only I follows
C

35
(c) Neither I nor II follows Science
(d) Both I and II follows
(a) 52 (b) 36 (c) 44 (d) 50
D

135. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate

140. Which of the following initiatives was launched
option
by the Government of India to encourage
The so-called Brahmin before him might be
innovation and research in the field of science
G

__________ Yudhishthir himself and technology, especially among women

(a) however (a) Make in India Initiative
(b) perhaps (b) Digital India Programme
(c) somewhat (c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
(d) actually (d) Knowledge Involvement in Research
136. Match the CORRECT pair of event and year of Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN
occurrence of the event scheme)

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 79 TELENGANA DRUG INSPECTOR-2023 (SHIFT-II)

SHIFT-II
1. Which statement is correct regarding drug (c) 1-3, II-1, III-2 (d) I-1, II-3, III-2
Ivermectin BP 6. What is the clear, colourless liquid composed
(a) Its peak levels in plasma are achieved within primarily of water that protects the brain and
24-36 hours after oral administration spinal cord from chemical and physical

F
(b) It is green crystalline powder injuries called
(c) It is practically insoluble in water (a) Synovial fluid (b) Transcellular fluid

PD
(d) It has terminal half-life of about 2 hours in adults (c) Cerebrospinal fluid (d) Pleural fluid
2. What is the name given to hypertension with a 7. Match the following Receptors with their
known cause locations and choose the correct option
(a) Essential hypertension I. Nicotinic receptor
(b) Primary hypertension II. 1 receptor
(c) Malignant hypertension III.  2 receptor

E
(d) Secondary hypertension 1. Ciliary muscle in eye
3. Which of the following statement is correct 2. Salivary gland cells
regarding the sterilization of needles PL 3. Chromaffin cells of adrenal medullae
I. Needles can be sterilized by autoclaving (a) I-1, II-2, III-3 (b) I-2, II-3, III-1
or dry heat method (c) I-1, II-3, III-2 (d) I-3, II-2, III-1
II. Suture needles may be sterilized in the air 8. Which drug is used in some patients with sickle
at 16°C for 60 minutes cell disease to promote transcription of the
M
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Only II normal Hb-F gene
(c) Both I and II (d) Only I (a) Prednisone (b) Hydroxyurea
4. Which of the following statements is correct (c) Cotrimoxazole (d) Diethylcarbamazine
regarding the coronary artery disease 9. Which of the following statement is correct
SA

I. Chest pain is the most common symptom about Collodions

associated with this disease I. Collodions are the liquid preparations
II. The entire symptom complex of meant for external application to skin
thisdisease has been termed angina II. They are applied with a brush or rod
pectoris III. Flexible collodion contains pyroxillon,
castor oil and alcohol in solvent ether
C

(a) Only I (b) Only II

(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (a) Only III (b) II and III only
5. Match the following types of shocks with their (c) II and III (d) I and II only
D

etiological factors 10. Which of the following treatments can be used

Types of shock for Scabies
I Neurogenic shock I. Single application of gamma benzene
G

II Cardiogenic shock hexachloride (GBH) 1% to the whole body

III Hypovolemic shock below the neck
Etiological factors II. Crotamiton applied as cream twice during
1. Arrhythmias a 48-hour period
2. Spinal Anesthesia III. Dapsone and rifampicin for 3 days
3. Loss of plasma due to burns (a) I and II only (b) I, II and III
(a) I-2, II-3, III-1 (b) I-2, II-1, III-3 (c) II and III only (d) Only III

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 83 TELENGANA DRUG INSPECTOR-2023 (SHIFT-II)
52. In the context of Hospital acquired infections, 57. In the adult human brain, the pons lies directly
which pair of type of hospital infection-Its superior to the medulla and anterior to the
description is correct cerebellum and is
I. Infections of alimentary tract - These occur (a) About 2.5 cm long (b) About 1.5 cm long
more commonly in infants in maternity (c) About 1 cm long (d) About 3 cm long
wards and children in paediatric ward. For 58. Which of the following statement is correct
example coliform enteritis is common in regarding Aerosols
infants I. Aerosols may be defined as the
pressurized dosage form of medicament

F
II. Infections of urinary tract - These continue
major type of hospital acquired infection in which the liquid or solid drug or drugs
are dissolved or suspended in gas
which may occur due to catheterization

PD
II. Aerosols used in the treatment of
(a) Both I and II (b) Only I
respiratory conditions, are atomized in
(c) Only II (d) Neither I nor II
devices known as nebulizers
53. By intramuscular route, what is the usual dose
(a) Only I (b) Only II
of Tetracycline Hydrochloride, BP, IP
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II
(a) 2000 mg to 2400 mg daily in divided doses
59. The normal serum osmolality is in the range of
(b) 1000 mg to 1200 mg daily in divided doses mOsmol/kg

E
(c) 1500 mg to 2000 mg daily in divided doses (a) 180-200 (b) 40-60
(d) 200 mg to 300 mg daily in divided doses (c) 275-300 (d) 120-140
54. In the context of parts of prescription, whichPL 60. In the context of evaluation of ophthalmic
statement is correct regarding “Signatura” suspension, the rate at which the suspension
I. It consists of the directions to be given to particles settle in the vehicle is called
the patient regarding the administration (a) Sedimentation rate (b) Squeesability
of drug (c) Redispersibility (d) Viscosity
II. It is usually abbreviated as “Sig” 61. Which of the following is a method of
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III. It is always written at the beginning of disinfection which used chemical agent
prescription (a) Using autoclaving (b) Using burning
(a) Only III (b) Only II and III (c) Using halogens (d) Using radiation
SA

(c) Only I and II (d) Only I 62. In the context of antiviral drugs, match the
55. Consider the asexual cycle of different following
parasites and choose the correct pair Classification of Drug Name
I. P. vivax, P. ovale: 48 hours, synchronous Anti – viral Drugs
II. P. falciparum: 48 hours asynchronous I Anti – Influenza 1 Amantadine
III. P. malariae: 72 hours asynchronous II Anti – Herpes virus 2 Tenofovir
C

III Anti – Hepatitis virus 3 Cidofovir

(a) I and II only (b) I, II and III
(a) I-1, II-3, III-2 (b) I-2, II-1, III-3
(c) II and III only (d) Only III
(c) I-2, II-3, III-1 (d) I-1. II-2, III-3
56. Match the following granular leukocytes with
D

63. Which of the following statement is correct

their corresponding distinctive features.
regarding Tinctures
Choose the correct option
I. They are alcoholic liquid preparations
G

I Neutrophil
containing the active principles of
II Basophil vegetable drugs
III Eosinophil II. They are usually prepared by maceration
1. Smaller and evenly distributed granules or percolation
2. Large and uniform-sized granules III. Aromatic Cardamom and Nux vomica are
3. Round and variable sized ranules its examples
(a) I-3, II-2, III-1 (b) I-2, II-1, III-3 (a) I, II and III (b) Only I and II
(c) I-1, II-2, III-3 (d) I-1, II-3, III-2 (c) Only I (d) Only III

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 92 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

7
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BIHAR DRUG
INSPECTOR-2023 To Join FREE
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F
8. Sulfur dioxide (0.15%) is used in the
PHARMACEUTICS manufacturing of hard gelatin capsules to

PD
1. The enteric-coated tablets are initially tested (a) Impart strength to capsules
for disintegration in which media (b) Improve flexibility of capsule shell
(a) Simulated gastric fluid (c) Opacify the shell
(b) Simulated intestinal fluid (d) Prevent decomposition
(c) Purified water 9. Identify the rate limiting step in the absorption
of drugs from orally administered solution

E
(d) Phosphate buffer (pH 6-8)
2. Which of the following excipient is not used dosage forms.
in chewable tablets (a) Gastric emptying (b) Dissolution
(a) Diluent
(c) Disintegrant
(b) Flavouring agent
(d) Sweetening agent
PL 10.
(c) Disintegration (d) All of these
The large volume of distribution (Vd) of the
drug indicates that it
3. The function of cam tracks in tableting machine
is to (a) Is not bioavailable
(b) Is ineffective
M
(a) Feed the granules
(b) Guide the movement of punches (c) Has short half-life
(c) Compress the granules (d) Is accumulated in various tissues and organs
11. The pKa of drug X is 4.2. It means that at pH of
SA

(d) Fix the shape of tablets

4. The capping of tablets can be prevented by 4.2 the drug X will be
(a) Pre-compression (a) 90% unionized (b) 50% ionized
(b) Reducing the final compression rate (c) 10% ionized (d) 100% unionized
(c) Using the flat punches 12. The units of area under plasma concentration
(d) All of these us time curve are
5. The Maillard reaction is due to the reaction of (a) mg/cm/min (b) cm2
C

amine drugs with _____ used in tablets (c) mg/ml/min (d) cm2/min
(a) Disintegrant (b) Binder 13. Limulus amoebocyte lysate test is used for
D

(c) Diluent (d) Glidant testing

6. The deformity in _______ of the tablet is called as (a) Pyrogenicity (b) Clarity
mottling (c) Isotonicity (d) Sterility
G

(a) Shape (b) Flavour 14. The base adsorption is used for determining
(c) Thickness (d) Colour the
7. The elasticity of soft gelatin capsule shells can (a) Amount of liquid absorbed by the drug
be controlled by adding (b) Minimum capsule size
(a) Povidone (b) Lactose (c) Flow properties of capsule contents
(c) Sorbitol (d) Sorbic acid (d) Suppository size

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 104 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
40. Cell was discovered by
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Robert Hooke PHARMACOLOGY
(c) Robert Swanson (d) Robert Brown
1. The study of mechanism of action of drug
41. ABCs of basic life support are and pharmacological effects of drug on the
(a) Airway, Bridge, Canal human body is known as
(b) Airway, Breathing, Circulation (a) Pharmacokinetics (b) Toxicology
(c) Action, Breathing, Circulation (c) Pharmacology (d) Pharmacodynamics
(d) None of the above 2. Drugs are not excreted from the body through

F
42. An efficient dressing should be (a) Kidney
(a) With germ (b) Germ-free (b) Breast milk, saliva, sweat and bile
(c) Oily (d) Moist

PD
(c) Intestine
43. The aim of first aid is to (d) Heart
(a) Preserve life and limbs 3. Putting a drug in liquid form into a body
(b) Limit further injuries cavity is known as
(c) Promote recovery (a) Inhalation (b) Instillation
(d) All of these (c) Insertion (d) Insufflation
44. HIV belongs to which of the of following genus 4. When a drug is administered through the

E
members virus layers of skin into areolar tissue, this is
(a) Rotavirus (b) Retrovirus known as
(c) Parvovirus
45. What is sex ratio
(d) Reovirus

(a) The number of females per thousand male

PL (a) Intradermal administration
(b) Intra-arterial administration
(c) Subcutaneous administration
(b) The number of females per hundred male (d) Intramuscular administration
(c) The study of population growth 5. A drug that relieves itching is
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(d) The difference between birthrate and death rate (a) Antiseptic (b) Antipruritic
46. Name the State having the highest percentage (c) Anti-infective (d) Anti-inflammatory
of literacy level 6. 5% glucose saline means
SA

(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (a) Each 100 ml contains 5 gm glucose and 5 gm
(c) Punjab (d) West Bengal sodium chloride
47. The number of people in different age groups (b) Each 100 ml contains 5 gm glucose and 0.9 gm
is referred as sodium chloride
(a) Sex ratio (c) Each 100 ml contains 5 gm glucose and 0.4 gm
(b) Age composition sodium chloride
C

(c) Adolescent population (d) Each 100 ml contains 0.5 gm glucose and
(d) Occupational structure 0.9 gm sodium chloride
48. Water-soluble vitamin is 7. 5% dextrose in normal saline (NS) is
D

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (a) Isotonic fluid (b) Hypotonic fluid
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B (c) Hypertonic fluid (d) None of these
49. Which vitamin is abundant in citrus fruits 8. In the following, which fluid solution is an
G

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C isotonic solution

(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B (a) Ringer’s lactate solution (RL)
50. Pepsin converts (b) 0.45% sodium chloride solution
(a) Starch to glucose (c) Normal saline (NS) solution
(b) Fat to fatty acid (d) Ringer’s lactate solution (RL) and Normal
(c) Carbohydrate to glucose saline (NS) solution
(d) Protein to amino acid

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 116 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY
1-c 2-c 3-a 4-c 5-b 6-c 7-c 8-c 9-d 10-b
11-c 12-c 13-d 14-a 15-b 16-d 17-a 18-a 19-a 20-b
21-d 22-c 23-b 24-c 25-c 26-c 27-b 28-c 29-a 30-d
31-a 32-a 33-b 34-d 35-a 36-d 37-c 38-d 39-a 40-c
41-c 42-d 43-d 44-c 45-a 46-b 47-d 48-b 49-b 50-b

F
PHARMACOGNOSY
1-a 2-d 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-d 7-a 8-b 9-a 10-c

PD
11-c 12-c 13-b 14-d 15-d 16-b 17-d 18-a 19-b 20-c
21-c 22-a 23-a 24-a 25-d 26-d 27-c 28-b 29-d 30-b
31-c 32-a 33-c 34-a 35-a 36-b 37-b 38-c 39-b 40-b
41-c 42-a 43-c 44-a 45-b 46-a 47-a 48-c 49-b 50-a

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

E
1-d 2-a 3-b 4-d 5-c 6-a 7-d 8-c 9-a 10-d
11-b 12-b 13-c 14-b 15-c
PL 16-a 17-a 18-a 19-a 20-a
21-b 22-a 23-a 24-b 25-a 26-b 27-a 28-c 29-a 30-d
31-c 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-a 36-c 37-d 38-c 39-b 40-b
41-b 42-b 43-d 44-b 45-a 46-a 47-b 48-d 49-b 50-d
PHARMACOLOGY
M
1-d 2-d 3-b 4-c 5-b 6-b 7-a 8-d 9-a 10-b
11-c 12-a 13-c 14-c 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-b 19-c 20-b
SA

21-d 22-d 23-a 24-d 25-d 26-d 27-d 28-a 29-d 30-a
31-a 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-c 36-c 37-b 38-a 39-c 40-b
41-a 42-c 43-d 44-c 45-b 46-c 47-d 48-a 49-b 50-c
PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE
1-b 2-c 3-a 4-d 5-a 6-a 7-b 8-d 9-a 10-d
C

11-b 12-a 13-d 14-c 15-a 16-c 17-a 18-c 19-c 20-a
21-a 22-c 23-b 24-c 25-b 26-c 27-b 28-d 29-c 30-a
D

31-d 32-c 33-b 34-d 35-c 36-b 37-c 38-d 39-a 40-d
41-b 42-a 43-c 44-b 45-d 46-c 47-a 48-d 49-b 50-a
G

MICROBIOLOGY

1-b 2-b 3-a 4-d 5-c 6-a 7-d 8-c 9-a 10-d
11-a 12-b 13-b 14-c 15-c 16-a 17-c 18-d 19-d 20-a
21-b 22-b 23-a 24-a 25-c 26-d 27-b 28-c 29-b 30-d
31-d 32-c 33-b 34-c 35-c 36-b 37-d 38-d 39-c 40-a
41-c 42-a 43-b 44-d 45-d 46-a 47-a 48-b 49-c 50-c

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 117 MP DRUG INSPECTOR-2022

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1. Young’s modulus is a type of (a) Chloride (b) NaCl
(a) Pseudo modulus (b) Bingham modulus (c) Oxygen (d) KOH

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(c) Plastic modulus (d) Elastic modulus 8. Pisiform bone is found in which of the
2. Fill in the blank with the correct option. Zeta following joint
potential determination is a significant (a) Sternoclavicular joint (b) Ankle joint
characteri zation technique of nanocrystals (c) Wrist joint (d) Shoulder joint
employed for understanding the stability of 9. What are the reasons that dry granulation
nanosuspensions method of tablet preparation is becoming more

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(a) Chemical (b) Physical popular than other methods
(c) Organic (d) Inorganic (P) No reaction due to heat or moisture
3. What is the correct sequence of steps involvedPL (Q) Low cost of equipment handling
in the herbal drug production (R) Ability to produce uniform tablets in
(a) Identification, cultivation, collection, composition
processing, authentication (a) (P), (Q) and (R) (b) Only (P)
(b) Authentication, cultivation, collection, (c) Only (R) (d) (P) and (Q)
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processing, identification 10. The computer language HTML is
(c) Identification, authentication, cultivation, (a) Cannot ignore small errors
collection ,processing (b) Case sensitive
(d) Cultivation, collection, processing, (c) Not static
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authentication, identification (d) Does not preserve white tags

4. Which method is appropriate for analysing data 11. What is the quantity of dextrose required to
when there are two or more measurements of prepare a solution isotonic with blood plasma.
each observations and the variables are to be The molecular weight of dextrose is 180 and it
analysed simultaneously is non-ionizing
(a) Linear regression analysis (a) 8.5 grams (b) 10.2 grams
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(b) Multivariate analysis (c) 5.4 grams (d) 5 grams

(c) Two-way ANOVA 12. What is the name of the process by which
(d) Correlation analysis benzene molecule is stabilized
D

5. Which immunoglobin is the first one to be (a) Reflection (b) Resonance

produced during an immune response (c) Refraction (d) Retraction
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(a) Immunoglobulin E (b) Immunoglobulin A 13. What is the formula of partition coefficient to
(c) Immunoglobulin M (d) Immunoglobulin G represent the lipophilicity of an organic
6. Which of the following does not increase compound if A is the concentration of
Digoxin toxicity unionized compound
(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Renal impairment (a) log P=1/{A}aqueous
(c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypomagnesemia (b) log P = {A} organic X (A}aqueous
7. Which of the following is determined in (c) log P = {A} organic/{A}aqueous
saponification value (d) log P = 1/{A} organic

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 127 MP DRUG INSPECTOR-2022
The code for “Find ball under the tree” is “ble
fop bhu yug tib.”
‘nhy zde rub dlo ble tib’ is the code for the phrase
“under one ball try to score.”
Where can I find the “beat the ball score” code
(a) qsp tib bhu rub (b) rnu fop ble rub (a) 65 (b) 45 (c) 30 (d) 25
(c) kir fop ble bhu (d) qsp fop ble rub 169. Ziya is seated seventh from the bottom in a class
162. ‘TEACHER’ is represented by the code VGCEJGT of 35 kids, whereas Sofia is seated ninth from
in some languages. How does that code translate the top. Shah stands between Ziya and Sofia.

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to “CHILDREN” How many places away is Ziya from Shah
(a) EJKNFTGP (b) EJKNTFPG (a) 10 places away (b) 9 places away

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(c) 8 places away (d) 15 places away
(c) PEJKNTFJ (d) EJNKTFPG
170. Find the missing letters in the following series
163. In the following question, select the related
Z, D, X, G, V, J, T, M,..?...?
number from the given alternatives
(a) F, K (b) H,N (c) X, P (d) R, P
12 : 62 :: 14 : ? 171. In a queue, Mr. X is 14 from the front and Mr. Y
th

(a) 70 (b) 75 (c) 72 (d) 80 is 17th from the end. While Mr. Z is exactly in
164. In the following figure, enter the omitted between both. How many people are between

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number in place of question mark (?) Mr. X and Mr. Z if Mr. X is in front of Mr. Y and
there are 48 people in line
PL (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 8
172. A man can row a boat in still water at a speed of
8 km per hour, if the speed of the river is 2 km
(d) 6

per hour, he takes 80 minutes to go to a place

and return, then what is the distance of the place
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(a) 3600 (b) 1800 (a) 2.20 km (b) 2.81 km
(c) 5000 (d) 5400 (c) 3.56 km (d) 4.34 km
165. Rishabh walks a certain distance, say X m, from 173. Three years ago, the value of my pen was Rs.
675. If the value of profit increases by 5% every
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his Office towards the west. Then he turns left

year, now its value (in rupees) is
and walks 46 m. After that, he turns left and
(a) 715.31 (b) 781.39 (c) 854.35 (d) 698.32
walks 72 m. Then he turns left again to walk 46
174. A train travelling at an average speed of 80 km
m. He finally turns left and walks 36 m to reach
per hour reaches its destination on time, if it
his Office. Find the value of X
travels at an average speed of 40 km per hour
(a) 40 m (b) 82 m it is late by 20 minutes. What is the distance of
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(c) 44 m (d) 36 m the whole journey

166. Find the missing letter in the series (a) 28.5 km (b) 25.5 km
AAZ, BCT, DEN, _____ ? (c) 24.5 km (d) 26.6 km
D

(a) GGT (b) GGH 175. Evaluate the following expression

(c) KIB (d) GGJ 1 5
167. How would STATION be described in that code +
G

1 1
if SENSATIONAL may be outlined as 1 2 3 1+ 6+
1 1
2+ 7+
1456734 1 8
3+
(a) 1574683 (b) 1545667 4
(c) 1545673 (d) 1545657 2886 5978
168. Read the given pattern carefully and select the (a) (b)
7779 3254
number which can replace the question mark 1205 4551
(?) in it (c) (d)
1347 3010

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 130 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Proton pump inhibitors act through (a) Proton pump inhibitor
(a) Reduced absorption of pectin (b) Salicylate

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(b) Altered gastric pH (c) Furosemide
(c) Coating gastric mucosa (d) All of these
(d) All of these 11. Schick test is performed to ascertain
2. Special test for Syphilis is susceptibility to
(a) VDRL test (b) FAT test (a) Tetanus (b) Syphilis
(c) ELISA test (d) None of these (b) Mumps (d) Diphtheria

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3. Nitrofurantoin contains 12. Hyperkalemia is seen with the ingestion of
(a) Furan ring (b) Nitro group following drugs EXCEPT
(c) Imidazole ring (d) All of these PL (a) ACE inhibitors
4. Which of the following molecule antagonizes (b) Spironolactone
the antihypertensive effect of diuretics (c) Calcium channel blockers
(a) Aspirin (b) Indomethacin (d) Eplerenone
(c) Statin (d) Quinidine 13. Gas chromatography technique can be used for
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5. The number of waves passing a point per (a) Qualitative analysis only
second is (b) Quantitative analysis only
(a) Power (b) Wave number (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Wavelength (d) Frequency
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(d) None of these

6. Which of the following indicator is used in
14. Drug used in Leprosy is
Complexometric titration
(a) Physostigmine (b) Dapsone
(a) Crystal Violet (b) Murexide
(c) Biperiden (d) Selegiline
(c) Eosin (d) Methyl Orange
15. The tear secretion contains an antibacterial
7. Papaverine is
enzyme known as
(a) Weak analeptic (b) Vasodilator
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(a) Zymase (b) Diastase

(c) Antineoplastic (d) Central Vasoconstrictor
(c) Lysozyme (d) Lipase
8. Drug administered through the following
16. Which one of the following device is used to
route is most likely to be subjected to first pass
D

increase the efficiency of drug delivery via

metabolism
aerosols
(a) Sublingual (b) Subcutaneous
(a) Tube spacers (b) Metered valve
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(c) Oral (d) Rectal

(c) Actuator (d) Pressure valve
9. Which one of the following ingredients
improves the flow property of granules 17. Select the equation that gives the rate of drug
(a) Glidant (b) Emollient dissolution from a tablet
(c) Diluent (d) Surfactant (a) Fick’s law
10. Which of the molecule reduces the renal (b) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
clearance of Methotrexate leading to (c) Noyes-Whitney equation
Methotrexate toxicity (d) Michaelis-Menten equation

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 136 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. The particle size of colloidal dispersion is Diseases
(a) 1 nm to 0.5 µm 8. A rule for evaluating the dosage of medicine

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(b) Less than 1 nm for a child by adding 12 to the child’s age, and
(c) Greater than 0.5 µm dividing the sum by the age of the child, then
(d) None of these dividing the adult dose by the result obtained
2. Identify the complex which belongs to the is known as
category of inclusion type (a) Nomogram Method (b) Young’s rule
(a) Clathrates (c) Fried’s Rule (d) Clark’s rule

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(b) Chelates 9. Identify the incompatibility present in the
(c) Sandwich compounds following prescription
(d) Pi complexes PL Rx
3. In the Gram staining iodine is used Benzalkonium chloride
(a) To stain Gram positive bacteria Sodium lauryl sulfate
(b) To stain gram negative bacteria (a) Physical incompatibility
(c) As mordant (b) Chemical incompatibility
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(d) None of these (c) Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
4. Identify the D value of B. pumilus under (d) Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
irradiation sterilization protocol 10. Identify the instrument used for moist heat
(a) 3 kGy (b) 15 min sterilization
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(c) 5 min (d) 12 kGy (a) Hot air oven (b) Glass bead sterilizer
5. The minute molecules that elicit an immune (c) Autoclave (d) All of these
response only when attached to a large carrier 11. The study in real conditions and on large
such as a protein are known as populations, of use, effectiveness and risk of
(a) Proimmune (b) Hapten drugs is known as
(c) Antigen (d) All of these (a) Pharmacoeconomics
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6. List of drugs exempted from the provision of (b) Pharmacoepidemiology

import of drugs is described in (c) Pharmacovigilance
(a) Schedule E (b) Schedule D (d) Both (b) and (c)
D

(c) Schedule A (d) Schedule J 12. Which one of the size reduction apparatus
7. Identify the Chairman of Central Insecticides works based on the principle of impact and
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Board (Established Under Section 4 of the attrition

Insecticides Act, 1968) (a) Ball Mill (b) Roller Mill
(a) Director General of Health Services (c) Hammer Mill (d) All of these
(b) Director General, Indian Council of Agricultural 13. Identify the industrial filter
Research (a) Filter press (b) Rotary filter
(c) Plant Protection Adviser to the Government of (c) Edge filter (d) All of these
India 14. Identify the capsule of smallest size
(d) Director, National Institute of Communicable (a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 000

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 143 GUJARAT DRUG INSPECTOR-2021

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1. Which of the following is not the fundamental (c) Coalescence (d) Caking
dimension of matter 9. Andreasen apparatus is used for the

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(a) Length (b) Mass determination of particle size of a powder using
(c) Time (d) Area (a) Sedimentation method
2. The disadvantage of Sieving method used for (b) Elutriation method
size distribution analysis of powder is (c) Sieving method
(a) Agglomerates can be identified (d) Coulter current technique
(b) Attrition of powder is possible 10. Surfactants with HLB value 6 and above are

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(c) Lange number of sieves are required (a) Detergents
(d) Tedious and time consuming (b) Solubilizing agents
3. Hausner ratio is PL (c) Anti-foaming agents
(a) Tapped density/Bulk density (d) Wetting agents
(b) Bulk density/Tapped density 11. Vanishing cream is an example of
(c) Bulk volume/Void volume (a) o/w (b) w/o
(d) Void volume/Bulk volume (c) w/o/w (d) Microemulsion
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4. The term micromeritics was given by 12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(a) J.M. Dalla Valle correct regarding suppository bases
(b) James Kelvin (a) Maintain shape
(c) William Procter (b) Help in insertion into the body cavity
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(d) Mahadeva Lal Schroff (c) Theobroma oil is an example of base

5. The distance between two tangents on opposite (d) All of these
side of the particle parallel to some fixed 13. Which is NOT direct compressible diluents used
direction is called for tablet manufacturing
(a) Stoke’s diameter (b) Martin diameter (a) Sta Rx 500 (b) Emdex
(c) Projected diameter (d) Ferets diameter (c) Celutab (d) Mannitol
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6. The cleaning action of soaps and detergents is 14. Which of the following is used to fill powdered
due to dry solid into soft gelatin capsule
(a) Internal friction (a) Accogel (b) Rotobil
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(b) High hydrogen bonding (c) Rotosort (d) Rotoweigh

(c) Surface tension 15. Flash point test is performed for
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(d) Viscosity (a) Parenteral (b) Capsule

7. Brookfield viscometer is an example of type of (c) Aerosol (d) Sustained release
viscometer 16. Dose dumping is a problem with the
(a) Cone and plate (b) Extrusion formulation of
(c) Rotation sphere (d) Rotating spindle (a) Compressed tablets
8. Separation of concentrated emulsion from the (b) Suppository
emulsion is termed as (c) Soft gelatin capsules
(a) Breaking (b) Creaming (d) Controlled release drug products

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 155 GOA DRUG INSPECTOR-2020

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1. Punishment for illegal possession in small (d) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
quantity for personal consumption of cocaine, 5. The list of narcotic drugs and psychotropic

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morphine, diacetyl-morphine or any other substances that are prohibited from import into
narcotic drug or any psychotropic substance and export from India is found in
as may be specified in this behalf by the Central (a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II
Government, by notification in the Official (c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV
Gazette is 6. Form 2, under Schedule A refers to
(a) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to (a) Memorandum to the Central Drugs Laboratory

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one year or with fine or with both (b) Application for license to import drugs
(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to specified in Schedule X to the drugs and
three years or with fine or with both PL Cosmetics Rules 1945
(c) Rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall (c) Form of undertaking to accompany an
not be less than ten years but which may extend application for an import license
to twenty years and shall also be liable to fine (d) Certificate of test or analysis by the Central
which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but Drugs Laboratory
7. Schedule L1 refers to
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which may extend to two lakh rupees
(d) Rigorous imprisonment for a term, which may (a) Good manufacturing practices
extend to ten years and shall also be liable to (b) Good laboratory practices
fine, which may extend to one lakh rupees (c) GMP-Homeo medicines
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(d) Factory medical devices

2. Retail price of a formulation can be calculated
8. Cultivation of poppy seeds is taken only in the
using the formula
areas notified by the Central government in
(a) R.P = (M.C. - C.C. + P.M. + P.C.)  (1 + MAPE/
three states of
100) + E.D.
(a) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh
(b) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. - P.M. + P.C.)  (1 + MAPE/
(b) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
100) + E.D.
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(c) Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(c) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. - P.C.)  (1 + MAPE/
(d) Rajasthan, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh
100) + E.D.
9. As per DPCO 2013, MRP of a scheduled
(d) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.)  (1 + MAPE/
D

formulation is “Ceiling price + Local Taxes

100) + E.D.
applicable” whereas the MRP for a new drug
3. As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act Prescription
will be
Drugs are included in
G

(a) Retail price fixed by Manufacturer + Local

(a) Schedule C (b) Schedule H Taxes applicable
(c) Schedule P (d) Schedule X (b) Retail price fixed by Govt + Local Taxes
4. Schedule W to the Drug Rules refers to applicable
(a) List of prescription drugs (c) Retail price fixed by Distributor + Local Taxes
(b) List of drugs which are to be marketed under applicable
generic names only (d) Retail price fixed by Retailer + Local Taxes
(c) List of drugs exempted from import of drugs applicable

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 162 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Which one of the following families is known (a) Endometriosis
for presence of volatile oils in trichomes (b) Endometrial carcinoma

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(a) Lauraceae (b) Loganiaceae (c) Medical termination of pregnancy
(c) Labiatae (d) Leguminosae (d) Breast carcinoma
2. Listed below are the chemical tests used to 10. Rifampicin an anti-mycobacterial agent acts on
identify a group of phytoconstituents. Identify (a) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
the test for the detection of the purine alkaloids (b) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(a) Keller-Kiliani Test (b) Murexide Test (c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

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(c) Shinoda Test (d) Vitali-Morin Test (d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
3. Atropine biosynthesis involves a pair of 11. An anti-schizophrenic agent having no extra-
precursors. Identify the correct pair PL pyramidal side effects is
(a) Ornithine and phenylalanine (a) Haloperidol (b) Olanzapine
(b) Tyrosine and Tryptophan (c) Thioxanthenes (d) Pimozide
(c) Tryptophan and Dopamine 12. Which one of the following types of the glass
(d) Tyrosine and Dopamine containers should be used for packaging of
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4. What is Chemotaxis human blood and blood components
(a) Toxicity of chemicals (a) Type I (b) Type II
(b) Taxonomy of chemicals (c) Type III (d) Type IV
(c) Inhibition of inflammation
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13. Which one of the followings is the commonly

(d) Movement of leukocytes in inflammation
used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze
5. Which one of the following antihistaminic
dried low dose drug products
agents causes serious cardiac dysrhythmias
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Mannitol
(a) Fexofenadine (b) Terfenadine
(c) Gelatin (d) HPMC
(c) Cetirizine (d) Loratadine
14. The administration of Enteric coated products
6. Which one of the following is an oral
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in elderly patients in some cases is not

anticoagulant
recommended because
(a) Heparin (b) Warfarin
(a) Decrease in gastric secretion has been noted
(c) Lepirudin (d) Melagatran
D

in elderly patients
7. Following is an example of the long acting
(b) Intestinal blood flow is reduced in elderly
bronchodilator
patients
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(a) Salmeterol (b) Salbutamol

(c) Active absorption is reduced in elderly patients
(c) Sotalol (d) Montelukast
8. Following is an example of anti-emetic drug (d) Gastric emptying rate is increased in elderly
acting on 5-HT3 receptors patients
(a) Nabilone (b) Ondansetron 15. Which one of the following properties is
(c) Metoclopramide (d) Domperidone desirable in liquid formulations
9. The combination of Mifepristone and (a) Thixotropy (b) Dilatancy
(c) Syneresis (d) Tackiness
Gemeprost is used for

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 169 TAMIL NADU DRUG INSPECTOR-2019

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1. Uses of ‘Fuses’ with less capacity prevents (c) Schedule M II of Drugs and Cosmetics act 1940
(a) Mechanical hazard (b) Chemical hazard (d) Schedule M III of Drugs and Cosmetics act 1940

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(c) Electrical hazard (d) Dust hazard 9. The following test are used for evaluation of
2. The following tests are usually performed for parenteral EXCEPT
rubber closure EXCEPT (a) Sterility test (b) Friability test
(a) Test for penetrability (b) Extractive test (c) Pyrogen test (d) Clarity test
(c) Fragmentation test (d) Dissolution test 10. As per I.P. all blood products should pass
3. Flow property of a drug can be determined by (a) The test for sterility (b) Legal test

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measurement of (c) Benedict’s test (d) Molisch test
(a) Its angle of repose 11. Choose the correct statement
(b) Its partition coefficient PL (a) Plasma substitutes should have viscosity similar
(c) Its solubility to that of plasma
(d) Its dissociation constant (b) Plasma substitutes should be immunogenic
4. The Henderson Hasselbalch equation is useful (c) Plasma substitutes must be colourless
determination of (d) Plasma substitutes must be retained by the
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(a) pKa of a drug (dissociation constant of a drug) human body
(b) Melting point of a drug 12. Which of the following influences the drug
(c) Boiling point of a drug distribution in the body
(a) Protein binding capacity of the drug
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(d) Amount of drug in a dosage form

(b) Weight of the individual
5. Pre-formulation studies involve
(c) First pass metabolism of the drug
(a) Development of suitable dosage form for a drug
(d) “Solubility” of the drug
(b) Determination of pharmacological action of a
13. Which of the following parameter are
drug
evaluated by comparing curves of serum
(c) Determination of molecular structure of a drug
concentration versus time
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(d) Determination of adverse drug reaction

(a) Peak concentration, biological half-life and
6. The sweetening agent commonly used in
elimination rate constant
chewable tablet is
(b) Biological half-life, tmax and absorption rate
D

(a) Sucrose (b) Honey

constant
(c) Mannitol (d) Saccharine
(c) Peak concentration, tmax the curve and total area
7. The maximum absorption is shifted to longer
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under
wavelengths, is
(d) Adsorption rate constant, area under the curve
(a) Bathochromic shift (b) Hyperchromic shift and elimination rate constant
(c) Hypsochromic shift (d) Hypochromic shift 14. The time period for which the plasma
8. In India GMP guidelines for manufacture of concentration of drug remains aboves
sterile products is given in minimum therapeutic level is known as
(a) Schedule M of Drugs and Cosmetics act 1940 (a) Duration of action (b) Intensity action
(b) Schedule M I of Drugs and Cosmetics act 1940 (c) Maximum action time(d) Termination of action

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 180 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
200. Mercury poisoning can be treated with 9. If a2 + b2 = 117 and ab = 54, then find the value
(a) Desferrioxamine (b) Trientine of a + b/a - b
(c) Deferiprone (d) Dimercaprol (a) 5 (b) 12/3
(c) 7 (d) 11/3
NON-PHARMA QUESTIONS
10. A man riding. a bicycle, completes one. lap of a
1. In a single throw of a die, the probability of circular field along is circumference at the
getting a multiple of 3 is speed of 14.4 km/h in 1 mt 28 sec. What is the
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 area of the field

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(c) 1/6 (d) 2/3 (a) 7958 sq. m. (b) 9856 sq. m.
2. The product of two consecutive numbers is (c) 8842 sq. m. (d) None of these

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4032. Find the numbers 11. A speed of 54 km/hr is the same as
(a) 61,62 (b) 63,64 (a) 13.5 m/sec. (b) 15 m/sec.
(c) 64,65 (d) 62,63 (c) 21 m/sec. (d) 27 m/sec.
3. Two equal sums of money were lent at simple 12. A constable is 114 m behind a thief. The
interest at 11% p.a. for 3(1/2) years and 4(1/ constable runs 21m and the thief 15min a
2) years respectively If the difference in minute. In what time will the constable catch the

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interests for two periods was 412,50 then each thief
sum is (a) 16 min. (b) 18 min.
(a) 3,250 (b) 3,500 PL (c) 17 min. (d) 19 min.
(c) 3,750 (d) 4,250 13. Name the Indian representative, who attended
4. Calculate the mode of the following data the International socialist conference held in
Germany in 1907
Size of shows 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) Anne Besant (b) Madam Cama
No. of papers 15 17 13 21 18 16 11
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(c) Ajit Singh (d) Gopal Singh
(a) 9 (b) 8 14. Who established the Indian Home rule society
(c) 7 (d) 5 in London in 1905
SA

5. Find the approximate length of the longest pole (a) V.D. Savarkar
that can be put in a room 10 m × 8 m × 5 m (b) Bhupendra Nath Datta
(a) 15.25 m (b) 13.75 m (c) Shyamji Krishna varma
(c) 14.35 m (d) 12.55 m (d) V.V.S. Aiyar
6. In a well shuffled pack of 52 cards, a card is 15. Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna
drawn at random, find the probability of mission in _________
C

diamond or kind card (a) 1898 A.D. (b) 1897 A.D.

(a) 4/ 13 (b) 5/13 (c) 1858 A.D. (d) 1859 A.D.
(c) 6/13 (d) 9/13 16. The popular greeting word ‘Jai Hind’ was
D

7. January 1, 2009 was a Thursday. What day of introduced by whom

the week lies on Jan 1, 2010 (a) Subash Chandra Bose
G

(a) Thursday (b) Wednesday (b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Friday (d) Saturday (c) Vivekananda
8. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25 (d) Aurobindo Ghosh
paise coins in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If the total amount 17. Which one of the following rivers is shortest in
is 390, find the number of coins of each kind length
(a) 200, 280, 240 (b) 240, 200, 280 (a) Chambal (b) Damodar
(c) 200, 240, 280 (d) 280, 240, 200 (c) The son (d) Kaveri

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 187 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2019

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F
1. A non-volatile, highly lipid soluble drug is 8. Which one of the following drugs used in the
metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On treatment of diabetes does NOT contain

PD
intravenous injection, it produces general heterocyclic nucleus
anaesthesia for 10 minutes. Which process is (a) Glyburide (b) Glimepiride
responsible for termination of its action (c) Repaglinide (d) Glipizide
(a) Metabolism in liver 9. An amino acid which gives a yellow precipitate
(b) Excretion by kidney in the Xanthoproteic reaction is
(c) Plasma Protein Binding (a) Glycine (b) Alanine

E
(d) Redistribution (c) Tyrosine (d) Leucine
2. Aspirin overdose is characterized by 10. Which one of the following drugs causes
(a) Hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis and coma PL physiological dependence only
(b) Fever, hepatic dysfunction and encephalopathy (a) Cocaine (b) Morphine
(c) Rash, interstitial nephritis and acute renal (c) Alcohol (d) Nalorphine
failure 11. Which one of the following non-depolarizing
(d) Rapid, fulminant hepatic failure blockers can be used as alternative to
3. A 40-year-old patient complains of severe pain
M
Succinylcholine for tracheal intubation without
along left side of jaw and face. The best choice the disadvantage of depolarizing block and
for this neuralgic pain is cardiovascular changes
(a) Methadone (b) Tramadol
SA

(a) Doxacurium (b) Atracurium

(c) Lorazepam (d) Carbamazepine
(c) Rocuronium (d) Pancuronium
4. The first Phenothiazine derivative introduced
12. Homatropine is a
into the therapy of psychotic disorders was
(a) Tropine ester of mandelic acid
(a) Promazine (b) Chlorpromazine
(b) Tropine ester of amino acetic acid
(c) Triflupromazine (d) Thioridazine
(c) Tropine ester of amino formic acid
5. Which one of the following is NOT a rapid
C

(d) Tropine methyl bromide ester of Mandelic acid

acting insulin
13. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Insulin lispro (b) Insulin aspart
Glycyrrhizin
(c) Insulin glulisine (d) Insulin glargine
D

1. It is a bioactive constituent of Glycyrrhiza

6. Which one of the cardiac aglycones contains an
glabra
aldehydic group in its structure
2. It interacts with CYP3A12
G

(a) Scillaren A (b) Digitoxigenin

3. It has a higher interaction potential with
(c) Digoxigenin (d) Strophanthidin
7. Which one of the following is the only life CYP2D6 compared with CYP3A4
saving measure in case of anaphylactic shock 4. It causes sweetness of Liquorice
(a) Intravenous Hydrocortisone Which of the statement given above is/are
(b) Intravenous Adrenaline correct
(c) Intravenous Chlorpheniramine maleate (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Intravenous Glucose-saline (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 198 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. In Utilization of finance, the Fixed Capital in (c) The presence of antigen indicates increased
invested on which of the following infectivity

PD
(a) Purchase of raw Material (d) A recognized cause of liver cancer
(b) Wages and Rent 9. Spironolactone is a pro-drug and its main
(c) Plant and Machinery active metabolite is
(d) Taxes and Internet (a) Desmethyl Spironolactone
2. Blood group antigen belong to which of the (b) Acetyl Spironolactone
following classes of protein (c) Canrenone

E
(a) Chromoproteins (b) Lipoprotein (d) None of these
(c) Glycoprotein (d) Nucleoprotein 10. Acetylcholine and physostigmine are example
3. Which of the following enzymes is markedly
increase in “Obstructive Livers Disease”
(a) Creatine kinase
PL of which type of drug interactions
(a) Synergism
(c) Potentiation
(b) Addition
(d) Antagonism
(b) Alanine Amino transferase 11. Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert
(c) Alkaline phosphatase action by
M
(d) Aspartate Aminotransferase (a) Blocking receptor
4. Which of the following is primary site of (b) Blocking receptor
action of local anaesthetic (c) Stimulating receptor
SA

(a) Mitochondria (b) Cell Membrane (d) Stimulating receptor

(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
12. Which hormone is released at all
5. Which of the following in an example of
postganglionic sympathetic fiber
aromatic amino acid
(a) Dopamine (b) Isoprenaline
(a) Asparagine (b) Threonine
(c) Adrenaline (d) Acetylcholine
(c) Glutamine (d) Tyrosine
13. Regulation of insulin secretion from beta cell
C

6. How many coccygeal vertebrae fuse to form

is regulated by
coccyx bone
(a) Chemical mechanism
(a) 4 (b) 6
D

(c) 8 (d) 2 (b) Hormonal mechanism

7. Conjunctival xerosis occur due to deficiency (c) Neural mechanism
of which of the following vitamin (d) All to these
G

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin H 14. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause

(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K (a) Bronchodilation (b) Mydriasis
8. All statement below are true for Hepatitis H (c) Bradycardia (d) Constipation
virus EXCEPT 15. Chloroquine is used for treatment of malaria
(a) DNA virus caused by
(b) Antibody to surface antigen usually appear (a) P. ovale (b) P. vivax
within two weeks of infection (c) P. malaria (d) All of these

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 207 RAJASTHAN DRUG INSPECTOR-2018

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1. Nernst equation is generally practice in (b) Acidic
(a) Complexometric titration (c) No acidic or basic

PD
(b) Potentiometry (d) Both acidic and basic properties
(c) Polarimetry 7. In Gas Chromatography, which detector is
(d) Non-aqueous titration preferred when analysis of drugs contain
2. Match the following term used for explanation halogens
P. Red shift (a) FID (b) TCD
Q. Auxochrome (c) ECD (d) PID

E
R. Chromophore 8. The glass electrode used in pH measurement is
S. Blue shift (a) A metal oxide electrode
1. Carbonyl group PL (b) Ion selective electrode
2. Increase in wave length of absorption
(c) A membrane electrode
3. Amino group
(d) Plastic electrode
4. Decrease wavelength absorption
9. In size exclusion chromatography of a mixture
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
of molecules, which one will elute first
M
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(a) The largest molecule
3. The molar absorptivity’s for peak associated
(b) The smallest molecule
with exciton to the - state generally ranged
(c) The most polar molecule
SA

from
(a) 1000 to 10000 L cm-1 mol-1 (d) The most non polar molecule
(b) 1000 to 500 L cm-1 mol-1 10. Iodine vapors for TLC are used to detect the
(c) 100 to 10 L cm-1 mol-1 (a) Steroids
(d) 200 to 400 L cm-1 mol-1 (b) Carboxylic acids
4. Which is the correct order of increasing wave (c) Volatile compound
C

number of the stretching vibrations of (d) Unsaturated compound

(1) C-H (alkane) (2) O-H (alcohol) 11. An example of strongly acidic cation exchange
(3) C=O (ketone) (4) C  C (alkyne) resin is
D

(a) (4) < (3) < (1) < (2) (b) (4) < (3) < (2) < (1) (a) Quarterly polymethacrylate
(c) (3) < (4) < (2) < (1) (d) (3) < (4) < (1) < (2) (b) Phenol formaldehyde
5. Solochrome black indicator used in which type (c) Quarterly polystyrene
G

of titration (d) Sulphonated polystyrene

(a) Non aqueous titration 12. Which method cannot useful for the bacterial
(b) Acid base titration endotoxin test
(c) Complexometric titration (a) Gel clot test method
(d) Gravimetric analysis (b) Kinetic turbidimetric method
6. Aprotic solvents have (c) Titrimetric method
(a) Basic (d) End point chromogenic method

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 213 ANDHRA PRADESH DRUG INSPECTOR-2018

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1. All of the following are psychotropic (a) S (b) R
substance, EXCEPT (c) Q (d) T

PD
(a) Amobarbital (b) Meprobamate 13. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act has been divided
(c) Barbital (d) All of these into ____ parts
2. As per schedule P of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, (a) 15 (b) 16
the Diphtheria toxoid has expiry period of (c) 18 (d) 24
(a) 6 months (b) 12 months 14. The Central Drugs Laboratory is established in
(c) 2 years (d) 5 years
(a) Calcutta (b) Lucknow

E
3. Chloramphenicol comes under schedule
(c) Mumbai (d) Kasauli
(a) G (b) H
15. The members of the D.T.A.B. hold the office for
(c) W (d) P PL (a) 1 year (b) 3 years
4. Example of Narcotic drug is
(c) 5 years (d) 7 years
(a) Coca (b) Opium
16. The dose of a drug is 5 mg per kg body weight.
(c) Charas (d) Doxapram
How much of the drug is required for a boy of a
5. Ergot and its preparation belong to schedule
year weighing 21 kg
(a) P (b) Q
M
(a) 0.5 mg (b) 1 mg
(c) C1 (d) L
(c) 5 mg (d) 2 mg
6. Schedule X drug is
(a) Amphetamine (b) Cyclobarbital 17. Morphine is the drug of choice in
SA

(c) Glutethimide (d) All of these (a) Urinary tract infection

7. Drug Inspector is appointed under section (b) Colic pain
(a) 19 (b) 42 (c) Bronchial asthma
(c) 21 (d) 30 (d) Cardiac asthma
8. Schedule M and Y were introduced in Drugs and 18. Hypotensive effect of clonidine is due to its
Cosmetics Act in action on
C

(a) 1976 (b) 1982 (a) -adrenergic receptor

(c) 1988 (d) 1980 (b) -adrenergic receptor
9. Example of Schedule G drug is (c) H2-receptor
D

(a) Tetracycline (b) Ampicillin (d) H1-receptor

(c) Ibuprofen (d) Tolbutamide 19. Tetracyclines are avoided during pregnancy
10. Example of Schedule X drug is because
G

(a) Diazepam (b) Emetine (a) It is teratogenic

(c) Quinidine (d) Ciprofloxacin (b) Affects bone growth
11. Opium has been under legislative control since (c) Causes discoloration of teeth
(a) 1820 (b) 1857 (d) May cause abortion
(c) 1925 (d) 1949 20. Powerful cardiac stimulant is
12. Standards for mechanical contraceptives are (a) Digitoxin (b) Dopamine
given in schedule (c) Epinephrine (d) Dobutamine

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 221 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2018

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F
1. Consider the following statements regarding 5. Which Microsoft TCP/IP (Transfer Control
‘data structure’ Protocol) / (Internet Protocol) can be used

PD
1. In Hash table, access time is independent over the Internet to create a secure virtual
of the size of the collection network
2. In Search tree, elements are accessible in (a) SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)
their natural order (b) PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol)
Which of the above statements is/are correct (c) TCP (Transfer Control Protocol)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol)

E
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. ‘Mahila Udyog Nidhi’ is a special scheme for
2. Consider the following statements with PL promoting women entrepreneurship and
reference to ‘Open Market Operations’ (OMO) operated through
1. OMO makes the bank rate policy more (a) Reserve Bank of India and State Bank of India
effective (b) State Financial Corporations and Scheduled
2. OMO can be used to bear out seasonal Commercial Banks
M
shocks (c) State Ministry of Women and Child Welfare
3. OMO helps in stabilizing the prices of (d) Central Ministry of Women and Child Welfare
securities 7. Which one of the following is NOT covered
SA

Which of the above statements are correct under the rules framed by ‘World Trade
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Organization’ (WTO)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
3. Which of the following shells are found in the (b) General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS)
‘UNIX Operating System’ (c) General International (GAIC) Agreement on
1. Bourne shell Collaboration
C

2. C shell (d) Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of

3. Korn shell Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
4. Restricted shell 8. ‘Hutton Theory’ explains the origin of
D

Select the correct answer using the codes given ‘Untouchability’ due to
below (a) People doing certain dirty professions are
G

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only excluded from mixing with others
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Partly racial, partly religious and partly a matter
4. A ‘Brouter’ combines the features of a of social customs
(a) Router and a Gateway (c) Idea of Purity and Impurity
(b) Bridge and a Gateway (d) People occupying dirty occupations are
(c) Router and a Bridge condemned, considered as dirty and
(d) Bridge and a Repeater untouchables

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 227 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2018
76. Which one of the following crystal systems is (b) int, short, char, long
having an interaxial angles of (c) byte, int, char, long
a = γ = 90o  β (d) int, short, byte, long
85. Which one of the following is more efficient
(a) Hexagonal (b) Tetragonal
multiway branch approach in Java
(c) Rhombohedral (d) Monoclinic
(a) switch (b) if
77. Consider the following data for BCC iron
(c) else if (d) if-else-if
regarding the (220) planes: For iron (Fe) with
86. A technology which uses the hiding of the

F
h=2, k=2, l=0, and a=0.2866nm (lattice
information in a picture is called
parameter), the interplanar spacing will be
(a) Steganography (b) Image rendering
(a) 0.3239 nm (b) 0.2126 nm

PD
(c) Bitmapping (d) Root kits
(c) 0.1013 nm (d) 0.0866 nm
87. The presentation quality and the size of image
78. For a binary system, when 3 phases are present,
storage depend on
the number of degrees of freedom will be
(a) Resolution and color depth
(a) 0 (b) 1
(b) Color pallets
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) Color models
79. A 305 mm long copper piece is pulled in tension

E
(d) Color combinations
with a stress of 276 MPa and with its modulus
88. The server replication is a technique for
of elasticity EE of 110 GPa. If the deformation is
PL improving the performance of server side is
entirely elastic, the resultant elongation will be
called
(a) 0.45 mm (b) 0.57 mm
(a) Caching (b) Mirroring
(c) 0.65 mm (d) 0.77 mm
(c) Flash crowds (d) Proxy
80. Which one of the following factors affects the
89. Which one of the following is NOT belonging to
selection of materials regarding ‘thermal
M
the string class in Java
conductivity’
(a) boolean equals (str) (b) int indexOf (str)
(a) Manufacturing process
(c) int void (d) char char At (index)
(b) Functional requirement
SA

90. Methods declared as ‘static’ have following

(c) Cost consideration
restrictions
(d) Operating parameter
1. They can directly call only other ‘static
81. The art of breaking of ciphers is called
methods
(a) Cryptanalysis (b) Cryptography
2. They can directly access only static’ data
(c) Cryptology (d) Cipherology
3. They do not have a ‘this’ reference
82. A digital signature is a mathematical
C

Which of the above are correct

(a) The authenticity, integrity and nonrepudiation
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
of a message
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D

(b) The clarity of the messages

91. ‘It is better for a city to be governed by a good
(c) The attacks from the viruses
man than by good laws’. Who said this
(d) The handwritten signatures
G

(a) Plato (b) Aristotle

83. Which one of the following is a keyword in Java
(c) Socrates (d) Karl Marx
(a) True (b) Static
92. An exoteric care about a tribe is called
(c) False (d) Null
(a) Marginal care
84. Which of the following are the integer types of
(b) Communitarian care
Java
(c) Peripheral care
(a) char, int, short, byte
(d) Respite care

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 229 UP DRUG INSPECTOR-2018

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1. Senna is (c) Oxidized cellulose
(a) Irritant laxative (b) Osmotic laxative (d) Calcium alginate

PD
(c) Bulk laxative (d) Emollient laxative 9. Bacteria which can derive their nutritional
2. Long term use of cimetidine may cause requirements and energy from simple
(a) Sexual dysfunction inorganic source are called
(b) Renal failure (a) Autotrophic (b) Heterotrophic
(c) Rebound acidity (c) Parasite (d) Saprophyte
(d) Parietal cell blockade 10. Ziehl Neelsen’s method is used to identify

E
3. Piperazine is used in the treatment of (a) Acid fast bacteria
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Helminthiasis (b) Gram positive bacteria
(c) Giardiasis (d) Malaria PL (c) Spores
4. The drug of choice for the treatment of (d) Flagella
filariasis is 11. P wave of ECG is the result of
(a) Diethyl carbamazine (a) Atrial depolarization
(b) Niclosamide (b) Atrial repolarization
M
(c) Biloscanate (c) Ventricular depolarization
(d) None of these (d) Ventricular repolarization
5. The prescription starts with the symbol R x, 12. Incompatible blood transfusion can result in
(a) Hypovolemic shock
SA

means
(b) Anaphylactic shock
(a) Send (b) Prescribe
(c) Cardiogenic shock
(c) Take thou (d) Prepare
(d) Obstructive shock
6. Which type of prescription should contain the
13. Sucralfate is used in the treatment of
age of the patient
(a) Vomit (b) Constipation
(a) Prescription for a child
(c) Duodenal ulcer (d) Diarrhea
C

(b) Prescription containing special formula

14. Which property of chlorpromazine is
(c) Prescription containing patient medicament
responsible for its antipsychotic effect
(d) Prescription for elderly patient
(a) Antidopaminergic
D

7. The plasma substitute, dextran is a homo

(b) Antimuscarinic
polymer of glucose, which is produced by
(c) Adrenoreceptor blocking
(a) Polymerization of glucose
G

(d) Anti 5-HT property

(b) Chemical modification of starch
15. Which of the following is broad spectrum
(c) Chemical modification of cellulose anthelmintic
(d) By growing the organism leuconostoc (a) Mebendazole (b) Piperazine
mesenteroides in sucrose containing medium (c) Diethylcarbamazine (d) Chloroquine
8. Most acceptable absorbable hemostat is 16. Cancer of epithelial tissue is called
(a) Human fibrin foam (a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma
(b) Gelatin sponge (c) Leukemia (d) Hodgkin’s disease

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 238 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. The first order kinetics time required to preparation of antitoxin
achieve steady state level can be predicted from (a) Rabbit (b) Horse

PD
which of the following parameter is helpful in (c) Rat (d) Mice
determining the time required to achieve 7. The potency of diphtheria antitoxin is
steady state if drug follows first order kinetics determined by comparing the dose necessary
(a) Half life to protect the experimental animals against the
(b) Maximum loading dose erythrogenic effects of the standard
(c) Clearance preparation of diphtheria antitoxin to give the

E
(d) Volume of distribution same protection. Which of the following
2. In hepatic metabolism, which of the following animals are specified for their test
is a phase-II
biotransformation
(a) Oxidation
reaction in PL
drug (a) Guinea pigs or Rabbits
(b) Beagle dogs or Cats
(c) Albino mice or Wistar rats
(b) Reduction (d) Hamsters or Frogs
(c) Glucuronide conjugation 8. What is the recommended antimicrobial
M
(d) Hydrolysis preservative for test toxin refined for
3. Which of the following pharmacokinetics biological assay of diphtheria antitoxin
parameter is useful in calculation of extent (a) Toluene (b) Sodium benzoate
SA

of adsorption (c) Salt (d) Sugar

(a) Cmax 9. In the tetanus vaccine (adsorbed) the potency
(b) Clearance of tetanus can be determined by injecting
(c) Tmax subcutaneously into a Guinea pigs. The weight
(d) Area under curve (AUC) of the Guinea should be
4. DPT (Tripple antigen) is given for prevention (a) 25g and 35g (b) 250g and 350g
C

of (c) 200g and 225g (d) 2500g and 3500g

(a) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus 10. Two monochromators are essential for
(b) Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus (a) Colorimetry
D

(c) Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tuberculosis (b) Spectrophotometry

(d) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tuberculosis (c) Spectrofluorimetry
G

5. Identify the endotoxin producing bacteria (d) Flame photometry

among the following 11. Which of the following is the recommended
(a) Clostridium botulism diluents used in the determination of test dose
(b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae of toxin used for biological assay of diphtheria
(c) Salmonella typhi antitoxin
(d) Clostridium tetani (a) Sugar solution (b) Ringer solution
6. Which animal is commonly used for (c) Saline solution (d) Tyrode solution

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 249 TAMIL NADU DRUG INSPECTOR-2018
194. The topical sulfonamide which prevents 198. The H 1 receptor antagonist having a high
colonization of burns by both gram-positive antimuscarinic action is
and gram-negative bacteria is (a) Diphenhydramine HCl
(a) Sulfisoxazole (b) Mafenide propionate (b) Loratadine
(c) Sulfadiazine (d) Sulfasalazine (c) Fexofenadine
195. Amikacin is semisynthetic derivative of (d) Hydroxyzine
(a) Kanamycin (b) Penicillin
199. Ondansetron acts on
(c) Mitomycin (d) Bleomycin
(a) 5HT3 receptor (b) H1 receptor

F
196. The antiulcer drug, which has a thiazole ring, is
(c) D2 receptor (d) NKI receptor
(a) Famotidine (b) Ranitidine
200. All of the following drugs are mucosal
(c) Cimetidine (d) Dexrabeprazole

PD
protective agents, EXCEPT
197. Bromocriptine is a selective
(a) D1 agonist (b) D2 agonist (a) Bismuth salts (b) Sucralfate
(c) D1 antagonist (d) D2 antagonist (c) Misoprostol (d) Pirenzepine

ANSWER KEY

E
1-a 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-c
PL 6-b 7-a 8-a 9-b 10-c
11-c 12-c 13-d 14-a 15-d 16-b 17-b 18-a 19-d 20-c
21-a 22-c 23-c 24-a 25-d 26-c 27-b 28-c 29-d 30-d
31-c 32-c 33-b 34-a 35-c 36-b 37-c 38-d 39-c 40-d
41-a 42-d 43-a 44-a 45-b 46-a 47-a 48-d 49-b 50-b
M
51-d 52-d 53-b 54-b 55-c 56-d 57-a 58-a 59-a 60-a
61-a 62-b 63-c 64-c 65-d 66-b 67-c 68-a 69-b 70-b
71-d 72-c 73-c 74-b 75-c 76-a 77-a 78-a 79-b 80-b
SA

81-b 82-a 83-b 84-c 85-b 86-b 87-b 88-b 89-a 90-d
91-b 92-a 93-a 94-b 95-c 96-c 97-a 98-a 99-d 100-c
101-b 102- 103-a 104-d 105-d 106-b 107-a 108-d 109-a 110-c
111-c 112-b 113-c 114-c 115-c 116-b 117-d 118-a 119-b 120-a
121-a 122-d 123-d 124-b 125-c 126-a 127-d 128-c 129-b 130-d
C

131-a 132-c 133-b 134-b 135-d 136-b 137-b 138-b 139-a 140-d
141-c 142-c 143-a 144-c 145-b 146-d 147-c 148-b 149-b 150-c
D

151-a 152-c 153-d 154-a 155-c 156-a 157-b 158-c 159-c 160-c
161-a 162-b 163-c 164-c 165-d 166-b 167-c 168-d 169-c 170-d
171-c 172-c 173-c 174-a 175-c 176-d 177-c 178-c 179-b 180-a
G

181-c 182-a 183-b 184-c 185-b 186-c 187-a 188-b 189-a 190-b
191-c 192-a 193-b 194-b 195-a 196-a 197-b 198-a 199-a 200-d

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 250 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. The ___ is used by the user to give instructions 10. In Excel, how many worksheets are present
to the computer in a workbook by default

PD
(a) Input Device (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Output Device 11. Choose the option that best fills in the sentence
(c) Control Unit Mumbai is ____ but Kolkata is ____ in area
(d) Arithmetic and Logic Unit (a) big, bigger (b) big, biggest
2. Which of the following is NOT a File system (c) bigger, biggest (d) bigger, more bigger
(a) FAT (b) NTFS 12. Choose the option that is opposite in meaning

E
(c) UFS (d) LCD to the word italicized in the following sentence
3. In MS Word, how many margins are on a page The little girl looked absolutely beautiful in her
(a) Two (header and footer) PL new dress and shoes
(b) Four (top, bottom, right, left) (a) Dirty (b) Lovely
(c) Two (landscape and Portrait) (c) Filthy (d) Ugly
(d) Two (top and bottom) 13. Choose the correct form of expression to
4. What kind of Font would you use for displaying
complete the sentence
the 2 in 10²
This is the _____ of the bicycle, which was stolen
M
(a) Italic (b) Small
(a) description (b) account
(c) Superscript (d) Subscript
(c) information (d) profile
5. Which icon is used to check spelling
14. Choose the appropriate preposition for the
SA

(a) (b) given sentence

(c) (d) The dog may bite you if you try to take ________
6. What defines a transaction of buying or selling the bone it is chewing
online (a) on (b) away
(a) Online transaction processing (OLTP) (c) off (d) over
(b) E-commerce 15. Choose the correct form of tense for the given
C

(c) Commercial Networking sentence

(d) None of these Maya_______of giving up her job
7. The  symbol refer to o the ____________ key in the (a) is thinking
D

keyboard (b) thinks

(a) Enter (b) Shift (c) will have been thinking
(c) Tab (d) Backspace
G

(d) has thought

8. ________ is an input device 16. Choose the correct form of verb for the given
(a) Pendrive (b) Scanner sentence
(c) Printer (d) Plotter At the rally, the spokesman ____that most
9. Which of the following is NOT a programming people looked at the government’s economic
language policy to be a great success
(a) C++ (b) JavaScript (a) measured (b) contemplated
(c) Visual Basic (d) HTML (c) claimed (d) declared

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 253 MP DRUG INSPECTOR-2017
57. Choose the correct answer and fill up the blanks 1/7 of the larger number, the numbers are
-1 × - 97321 = ------------ (a) 33,7 (b) 28,7
(a) 97321 (b) -97321 (c) 40,0 (d) 35,5
(c) -1 (d) 1 66. Express the ratio 550 g to 5 kg
58. What is the range of the data given below (a) 11:1 (b) 55:50
20, 35, 70, 65, 45,95,15,80 (c) 11:5 (d) 11: 100
(a) 15 (b) 80 67. If the arithmetic mean of 18, 15, 16, 10 and x
(c) 45 (d) 95 is 14, find the value of x

F
59. Gourav bought a scooter for 45000 rupees. If (a) 10 (b) 13
the shopkeeper has given him a discount of (c) 12 (d) 11

PD
10%, what was the marked price of the scooter 68. An express train runs 900 km at an average
(a) Rs. 50000 (b) Rs. 55000 speed of 90 km/hour, stopping for 3 minutes at
(c) Rs. 65000 (d) Rs. 60000 stations after every 100 km. How long it would
60. The difference 20p² - 15q²-21, and -12+ 11p²- take to reach its destination
6q² is (a) 10 hr 30 min (b) 10 hr 24 min
(a) 9p2 -9q2-9 (b) 9p2 +9 q2+ 9 (c) 10 hr 27 min (d) 10 hr
(c) 9p +9 q -12
2 2
(d) -9p2 +9 q2 -12 69. Complete the table of values for the following

E
61. What is the measure of the base angle of an equation : X + 2 = Y
isosceles triangle, if its vertical angle is 70°
PL X4 -10
(a) 110° (b) 55° (a) 2, 4, 5 (b) -3, -6, -5
(c) 90° (d) 70° (c) 6, 1, 2 (d) 1, 4, 5
62. Madhuri took a loan of 70000 rupees at the rate 70. A set of 6 T-shirts costs Rs. 900, how much
of 5% from a bank and bought a scooter. After would be the cost of 90 of the same T-shirts
two years, she cleared the loan. How much (a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 13500
M
money she would have paid in all (c) Rs. 1350 (d) Rs. 1400
(a) Rs. 75000 (b) Rs. 35000 71. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He works at
(c) Rs. 77000 (d) Rs. 7000 it for 20 days but leaves the task incomplete. B
SA

63. Find the predecessor of – (9² - 6²) / -(9² - 6²) takes over and completes it in 12 days. If A
(a) -44 (b) -46 and B had worked together, how many days
(c) 44 (d) 46 would it have taken them to complete the work
64. Sugar contained in sweet items represented in 1 4
(a) 16 days (b) 16 days
this graph. 11 11
C

7 10
(c) 16 days (d) 16 days
11 11
72. If one litre of water is added to 4 litres of sugar
D

solution containing 25% sugar, the percentage

of sugar in the new solution will be
(a) 25% (b) 20%
G

(c) 30% (d) 15%

73. A cloth merchant, on selling 27 metres of cloth,
From the adjoining graph, find out what is the obtains a profit equal to the selling price of
percentage of sugar in the chocolate cake 9 metres of the same cloth. Find his profit
(a) 33.2% (b) 30.3% percentage
(c) 11.8% (d) 28.9% (a) 60% (b) 50%
65. The sum of two numbers is 40. If one number is (c) 40% (d) 30%

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 261 KERALA DRUG INSPECTOR-2017

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F
1. Silk is obtained from 13. Water soluble ointment base
(a) Ovis aries (b) Bombyx mori (a) Hard paraffin (b) Macrogol

PD
(c) Gossypium hirsutum (d) Cannabis sativa (c) Soft paraffin (d) Wool fat
2. Warfarin is 14. Pyrogen test is carried out in
(a) Hypoglycaemic (b) Urinary antiseptic (a) Guinea pig (b) Rabbit
(c) Oral anticoagulant (d) In vitro anticoagulant (c) Rat (d) Chicken
3. An absorbable suture is 15. Proton pump inhibitor
(a) Silk (b) Nylon (a) Cimetidine (b) Misoprostol

E
(c) Catgut (d) Linen (c) Omeprazole (d) Benzhexol
4. Hypolipidaemic agent 16. A prokinetic drug
(a) Simvastatin (b) Metformin PL (a) Ramipril (b) Triamterene
(c) Methimazole (d) Olanzapine (c) Metoclopramide (d) Ondansetron
5. Molisch test is used for the estimation of 17. Cotrimoxazole is a combination of
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Sugar (a) Clotrimazole and ketoconazole
(c) Glycosides (d) Protein (b) Trimethoprim and Pyrimethamine
M
6. Selenium sulphide is used as (c) Clotrimazole and Sulphadiazine
(a) Antacid (b) Antidandruff (d) Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
(c) Emetic (d) None of these 18. -lactam antibiotic
SA

7. The joint that help for the movement of knee (a) Erythromycin (b) Cephalosporins
(a) Pivot joint (b) Synovial joint (c) Tetracycline (d) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Hinge joint (d) Gliding joint 19. The main adverse effect of chloramphenicol
8. Strongest bone, that bears the weight of our (a) Diarrhoea
body (b) Cardiac failure
(a) Femur (b) Clavicle (c) Dry cough
C

(c) Vertebral column (d) Hip girdle (d) Bone marrow depression
9. Dry heat sterilization is usually carried out in 20. Streptomycin is
(a) Autoclave (b) Hot air oven (a) Quinolone (b) Macrolide
D

(c) Membrane filters (d) Centrifuge (c) Aminoglycoside (d) Tetracycline

10. Eugenol is found in 21. Artemisinin is
(a) Myrrh (b) Clove (a) Antineoplastic (b) Antimalarial
G

(c) Asafoetida (d) Bael (c) Antifungal (d) Diuretic

11. Vinca is 22. The causative agent of chicken pox is
(a) Antimalarial (b) Expectorant (a) Rubeola (b) Arbora virus
(c) Antineoplastic (d) Antiemetic (c) Varicella zoster (d) Yersinia pestis
12. Brunner’s glands are found in 23. An example of arthropod-borne infection
(a) Pancreas (b) Stomach (a) Tuberculosis (b) Amoebiasis
(c) Liver (d) Small intestine (c) Leprosy (d) Plague

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 266 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the 7. Density can be measured by the following
Schedule relating to GLP is apparatus

PD
(a) Schedule M (b) Schedule L1 (a) Soxhlet extraction (b) Karl Fischer Titrator
(c) Schedule M1 (d) Schedule P (c) Pycnometer (d) Distillation
2. Which separation technique is suitable for 8. The most commonly used carrier gas in gas
simultaneous analysis of standards and samples chromatography
in a single run (a) Hydrogen (b) Argon
(a) HPLC (b) GC (c) TLC (d) UV (c) Helium (d) Neon

E
3. The following plant bark is used as cardiotonic 9. Moisture content of pharmaceuticals is
(a) Withania somnifera (b) Terminalia bellirica determined by
(c) Terminalia arjuna (d) Zingiber offcinale
PL (a) RP-HPLC (b) GC-FID
4. The typical dry heat condition employed in the (c) Karl Fischer method (d) None of these
sterilization of pharmaceutical products 10. All of the following are AIDS tests, EXCEPT
(a) 250°C for 90 min (b) 180°C for 30 min (a) ELISA (b) Fuji
(c) 200°C for 45 min (d) 100°C for 60 min (c) RIA (d) Western’s test
M
5. Match the reagent with major composition and 11. In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the
select correct answer from the codes given Schedule relating to GMP for non-allopathic
below (AYUSH) is
SA

(P) Mayer (a) Schedule M (b) Schedule T

(Q) Dragendorff ’s (c) Schedule S (d) Schedule M1
(R) Wagner reagent 12. 0.9% of NaCl is _____ with blood plasma
(S) Hager reagent (a) Hypertonic (b) Hypotonic
(I) Potassium bismuth iodide (c) Isotonic (d) None of these
(II) Iodine in potassium iodide 13. The following carbohydrate is commonly
C

(III) Picric acid known as invert sugar

(IV) Potassium mercuric iodide (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(a) P-(IV), Q-(I), R-(III), S-(II) (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
D

(b) P-(III), Q-(I), R-(II), S-(IV) 14. USP stands for

(c) P-(II), Q-(I), R-(IV), S-(III) (a) Universal Standard Pharmacopoeia
(d) P-(I), Q-(IV), R-(II), S-(III) (b) United States National Formulary
G

6. For USP-content uniformity, out of 10 tablets, 9 (c) United States Pharmacopoeia

tablets may contain X% and NOT more than Y% (d) United States Nations Pharmacopoeia
of labeled drug content 15. Government Analyst for Ayurvedic, Siddha or
(a) X 75%, Y = 125% Unani drug appointed by Central or State
(b) X = 85%, Y = 115% Government under
(c) X=65%, Y = 135% (a) Section 20 (b) Section 33F
(d) X 95%, Y = 105% (c) Section 33G (d) Section 21

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 272 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. HIV/AIDS is diagnosed by some specific tests. 8. Basophils originate in
Identify which among the following test is/are (a) Megakaryoblast (b) Monoblast

PD
used (c) Megakaryocyte (d) Myeloblast
(a) ELISA 9. Match the following anticancer drugs with their
(b) DNA-PCR by amplification cell cycle effects
(c) Western blot (P) Cytarabine (ARA-c) (I) G1-S phase
(d) All of these (Q) Etoposide (II) M phase
2. What is the antidote for Lead poisoning (R) Vincristine (III) G2-M phase

E
(a) Dimercaptosuccinic acid (S) Bleomycin (IV) S phase
(b) Physostigmine (a) P-(IV), Q-(I), R-(II), S-(III)
(c) Fomepizole PL (b) P-(IV), Q-(II), R-(I), S-(III)
(d) Atropine
(c) P-(I), Q-(II), R-(III), S-(IV)
3. Which of the following drugs is NOT a Tocolytic
(d) P-(IV), Q-(III), R-(I), S-(II)
(a) Ritodrine (b) Magnesium sulfate
10. Which of the following is an ester and short-
(c) Nifedipine (d) Ergotamine
acting Local anaesthetic
M
4. Which of the following NSAIDs is NOT a
(a) Tetracaine (b) Dibucaine
propionic acid derivative
(c) Lidocaine (d) Procaine
(a) Ibuprofen (b) Naproxen
11. Antifungal Antibiotic Amphotericin B is
SA

(c) Oxaprozin (d) Piroxicam

obtained from
5. Which anticoagulant is produced by mast cells
(a) Streptomyces pimprina
and basophils
(b) Penicillium griseofulvin
(a) Heparin (b) Prostaglandin
(c) Histidine (d) Vitamin K (c) Streptomyces nodosus
6. Under which rule of Drugs and Cosmetics Act, (d) Both (a) and (c)
12. Which of the following drugs is NOT an enzyme
C

1940 and rules 1945, licences for blood banks

are issued - inducer
(a) 122 G (b) 122 A (a) Phenobarbitone (b) Phenytoin
D

(c) 160 B (d) 150 B (c) Rifampin (d) Cimetidine

7. Match the following 13. One of the following drugs is most widely used
(P) Thromboplastin (I) Factor VII as local anaesthetic for infiltration, regional
G

(Q) Proconvertin (II) Factor III nerve block, epidural and subarachnoid
(R) Fibrinogen (III) Factor II anaesthesia. It is also commonly used for
(S) Prothrombin (IV) Factor I topical anaesthesia
(a) P-(II), Q-(I), R-(IV), S-(III) (a) Cocaine hydrochloride
(b) P-(III), Q-(IV), R-(I), S-(II) (b) Procaine hydrochloride
(c) P-(I), Q-(II), R-(III), S-(IV) (c) Lidocaine hydrochloride
(d) P-(III), Q-(IV), R-(II), S-(I) (d) Mepivacaine hydrochloride

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 280 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
93. Drug will be deemed to be spurious if 96. Select a set of logically appropriate images for
(P) If it is imported under a name which filling empty places
belongs to another drug
(Q) If it is coloured, coated, powdered or
polished so that damage is concealed
(R) If it is not labelled in the prescribed manner
(S) If it is made to appear of better or greater
therapeutic value
Which of the above statement/s is/are

F
CORRECT
(a) (P) and (Q) only (b) (R) and (S) only

PD
(c) (P) and (R) only (d) Only (P)
94. Select the logically equivalent option with
respect to the statement given below. (a) (b)
“If Uma and Sohil go for a beach walk, then it is
raining.”
(a) If it is not raining then Uma and Sohil do not go
for a beach walk.

E
(c) (d)
(b) If Uma and Sohil do not go for a beach walk,
then it is raining.
(c) If Uma and Sohil do not go for a beach walk,
PL 97. Select logically appropriate set of images to fill
then it is not raining. the blank places of following arrangement
(d) If it is not raining then Uma and Sohil go for a
beach walk.
95. Donu, Nanu and Yonu who belong to three
M
different communities, participated in a
chapati making competition and one of them
won the trophy. They belong to communities
SA

namely Romi, Mori and Bori. All members of

Romi community always make true statements,
all members of Mori community always make
untrue statements, all members of Bori
community make true and untrue statements (a) (b)
alternately. They made the following statements
when reporter asked them to comment.
C

Donu: If Yonu had not disturbed me by singing

loudly while making chapatis I would have won (c) (d)
the trophy. Yonu always speaks the truth. Yonu
D

is the winner. 98. A family consists of H, G, F, E, D and C as its

Nanu: Donu won the trophy. Yonu is not the members. Chas two sons, an unmarried
member of Mori community. daughter and a daughter-in-law and his wife
G

Yonu: I was not singing to disturb Donu. Nanu shares all his responsibilities. H and his
won the trophy. mother D are very supportive to G’s wife in her
Who won the trophy social work. H is the brother-in-law of above
(a) Yonu mentioned daughter-in-law. G’s sister assists
(b) Donu G’s wife E in her social work. Select option that
(c) Nanu indicates C’s daughter
(d) Yonu and Donu jointly won the trophy (a) G (b) F (c) E (d) H

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 282 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. The WIDAL test is performed for (b) Average price to retailer
(a) Typhoid fever (b) Malaria fever (c) Margin to retail

PD
(c) Dengue fever (d) None of these (d) Maximum Retail price
2. The types of toothed tissue forceps are 9. Mosquito clamp is used to
(a) All is type (b) Lane’s type (a) Hold mosquitoes
(c) Magnitan’s type (d) All of these (b) Stop blood flow
3. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Central (c) Hold delicate tissue and compress bleeding
Insecticide Board constituted to government vessels

E
about manufacture sale storage transport and (d) None of these
distribution of insecticides with a view to ensure 10. Which body is entrusted with the task of
safety to human beings or animals PL maintaining the Central Register of Pharmacists
(a) Drugs Controller, India (a) State Pharmacy Council
(b) Plant Protection Advisor, to the Govt. of India (b) Pharmacy Council of India
(c) Chief Advisor of Factories (c) Medical Council of India
(d) Director- General of Health Services (d) Drug Controller of India
4. Trephine and Trocar are
M
11. Which chapter of the Pharmacy Act, 1948 deals
(a) Surgical cutting instrument with the Registration of Pharmacists
(b) Accessories and implants (a) Chapter II (b) Chapter III
(c) Refractor (c) Chapter IV (d) Chapter V
SA

(d) All of these 12. When can a person interested may make an
5. To declare and make rule for any manufacturing application to the controller for grant of
process or operation as ‘Dangerous compulsory licence on patent on specific
operations’ who is empowered under the grounds
Factories Act, 1948 (a) After the expiration of seven years from the
(a) Central Government (b) State Government date of grand of patent
C

(c) District Administration (d) Inspector of Factories (b) After the expiration of ten years from the date
6. The total number of members nominated by of grant of a patent
Central Government in Pharmacy Council of (c) After the expiration of twenty years from the
D

India date of grant of a patent

(a) 5 (b) 6 (d) After the expiration of three years from the date
G

(c) 4 (d) 8 of grant of a patent

7. The Metzenbaum scissors are used 13. Along with the duties of Controller of patents
(a) To dissect soft tissue (b) To cut surface this Authority discharges what other duties
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) Controller of Designs
8. Ceiling price of Schedule formulation is (b) Registrar of Trademark
calculated by the formula (c) Controller – General of patents Designs and
P(c) = P(s) (1 + M/100) In this P(s) signifies Trademark
(a) Price of highest paid formulation (d) All of these

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 292 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all EXCEPT (a) Electronic excitation (b) Resonance
(a) Salicylates (b) Barbiturates (c) Dissociation (d) Molecular vibrations

PD
(c) Phenytoin (d) Ethanol 11. Williamson Synthesis is used for the
2. Which one of the following is NOT a prodrug preparation of
(a) Chloral hydrate (b) Diazepam (a) Aldehydes (b) Alcohols
(c) Enalapril (d) Oxcarbazepine (c) Ethers (d) Amides
3. Which one of the following drugs does NOT 12. Ketoconazole structure contains
cross the placental barrier (a) Imidazole ring (b) Triazole ring

E
(a) Morphine (b) Lithium (c) Tetrazole ring (d) Thiazole ring
(c) Warfarin (d) Heparin 13. Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is
4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is
stored extravascularly is
(a) Small clearance
PL 14.
(a) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin B12
Dragendorff ’s reagent is employed for the
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution identification of
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution (a) Carbohydrates (b) Alkaloids
M
(d) Large clearance (c) Flavonoids (d) Proteins
5. Which one among the following drugs can be 15. In which one among the following is Pteridine
ring system present
given safely during pregnancy
SA

(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Thiamine

(a) Tetracycline (b) Chloroquine
(c) Pyridoxine (d) Folic acid
(c) Thalidomide (d) Primaquine
16. Aminophylline is a combination of
6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of
(a) Theophylline and dimethylamine
(a) Atrial Flutter
(b) Caffeine and theophylline
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
(c) Theophylline and ethylenediamine
(c) PSVT
C

(d) Caffeine and ethylenediamine

(d) Ventricular tachycardia 17. Purine ring system is a fusion of
7. Which one among the following drugs is used (a) Pyridine and imidazole
D

in AV block (b) Pyrimidine and imidazole

(a) Isoprenaline (b) Propranolol (c) Piperidine and pyrazole
(c) Dopamine (d) Disopyramide (d) Piperidine and imidazole
G

8. Mineralocorticoids cause 18. Furosemide contains the following heterocycle

(a) Gluconeogenesis (b) Glycogen synthesis (a) Furan (b) Thiophene
(c) Lipolysis (d) Sodium reabsorption (c) Pyrrole (d) Imidazole
9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is 19. Term of every patent in India (under Indian
(a) Tungsten lamp (b) Sodium lamp Patent Act) from the date of filing is
(c) Deuterium lamp (d) None of these (a) 10 years (b) 14 years
10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon (c) 20 years (d) 24 years

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 302 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. ________is NOT the component of blood proteins (d) Rate of absorption in the body
(a) Albumin (b) Proconvertin 8. Match the following antibiotics with the

PD
(c) Globulin (d) Fibrinogen organism from which they are obtained
2. For import of drugs specified in the “Schedule 1. Streptomycin
X” a license in which form will license be 2. Neomycin
required 3. Chloramphenicol
(a) Form -10 (b) Form – 10A 4. Rifampicin
(c) Form -10B (d) Form 8 (A) Streptomyces fradiae

E
3. “Illicit traffic” in relation to narcotic and (B) Streptomyces venezuelae
psychotropic substances means (C) Streptomyces mediterranei
(A) Cultivating any coca plant or gathering anyPL (D) Streptomyces griseus
portion of coca plant (a) 1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(D), 4-(B)
(B) Cultivating opium poppy or any other (b) 1-(D), 2-(A), 3-(B), 4-(C)
cannabis plant (c) 1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(C), 4-(D)
(C) Selling of Metoprolol tartrate (d) 1-(B), 2-(D), 3-(C), 4-(A)
(D) Importing Montelukast
M
9. An interview was scheduled at certain time.
(a) (A) only (b) (A) and (B) only Personal Assistant arrived at 10:40 AM that is
(c) (A), (B) and (C) (d) (A), (B) and (D) 35 minutes earlier than Chairperson.
4. Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity are the selective
SA

Chairperson was late for interview by

toxicities of
25 minutes. What the scheduled time of the
(a) Penicillin (b) Cephalosporin
interview
(c) Aminoglycosides (d) Quinolones
(a) 11:50 AM (b) 11:15 AM
5. The scarlet fever
(c) 11:05 AM (d) 11:10 AM
(A) Is caused by streptococcus pyogenes
10. What is a Central Drug Authority
(B) Is caused by enteric viruses
C

(A) DCGI
(C) Is caused by respiratory viruses
(B) DGHS
(D) Caused fever with rose spot formation
(C) Drugs Inspector
(a) (A), (B), (C) (b) (A), (D)
D

(D) Independent office under the Ministry of

(c) (A), (C) (d) (B), (C)
Health and Family Welfare
6. The antidote BAL is used to reduce toxicity of
(a) (A) only (b) (A) and (B) only
G

(a) Iron (b) Pesticides

(c) (A) and (C) only (d) (D) only
(c) Barbiturates (d) Mercury
7. The time a drug takes to reach an effective 11. As per I.P. the dispersion obtained when
concentration or steady state level depends on dispersible tablets are added to water, must pass
its through a sieve with nominal mesh aperture
(a) Plasma protein binding of
(b) Plasma concentration in circulation (a) 710 µm (b) 250 µm
(c) Rate of elimination from the body (c) 425 µm (d) 510 µm

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 307 MPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2014
60. The confirmation of AIDS is by one of the (C) Cholera and plague vaccines are of
following tests inactivated type
(a) ELISA (b) Western blot (a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) PCR test (d) Southern blot (c) (A), (B), (C) (d) None of these
61. Act responsible of regulation of Nutraceuticals 66. Catgut cannot be sterilized by
in India is (A) Heat (B) X-ray
(a) State food and drug administration (C) Ionizing radiation (D) Chemicals
(b) Food with nutrient function claims (a) (A) only (b) (B) only
(c) (A) and (B) (d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

F
(c) Food safety and standard Act
(d) Food for specified health use 67. There is some relationship between the two
62. Observe the figures. Select a figure from the terms, to the left of :: the same relationship is

PD
given alternatives, which will fit in place of (?) between the two terms, to the right of :: Out of
appropriately these four terms, one is missing, shown by (?).
This missing term is given as one of the
alternatives. Find it
(a) R18U21 (b) 015R18
(c) Q1ST21 (d) Q17T20
68. A polyene macrolide antibiotic, used against

E
Candida infections is
(a) Fluconazole (b) Terbinafine
PL 69.
(c) Nystatin (d) Rifampicin
___________anemia results in destruction of red
bone marrow
(a) Iron deficiency (b) Pernicious
(c) Aplastic (d) Hemolytic
M
70. The effect of Human Immunodeficiency Virus
(a) (b)
(HIV) infection results in
(a) Affecting cell-mediated immunity and severe
SA

loss of CD4+ cells

(c) (d) (b) Affecting cell mediated immunity and severe
loss of CD8+ cells
63. In dry powder inhalation products lactose is
(c) Affecting both antibody and cell-mediated
used as
immunity with increased CD4 cells
(A) Filler (B) Thinner
(d) Affecting both antibody and cell-mediated
(C) Carrier (D) None of these
immunity and increased CD4 and CDS cells
C

(a) (A) and (B) (b) (A) and (C) 71. In patients with AIDS the most common fungal
(c) (C) only (d) (D) only infection is
64. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has cell
D

(a) Toxoplasmosis (b) Candidiasis

– mediated (delayed) type of action (c) Cryptococcosis (d) Aspergillosis
(a) Type I Hypersensitivity 72. Diazonium ions are
(b) Type II hypersensitivity
G

(a) Weakly electrophilic (b) Strongly electrophilic

(c) Type III hypersensitivity (c) Weakly nucleophilic (d) Strongly nucleophilic
(d) Type IV hypersensitivity 73. The mechanism of action of Doxorubicin is
65. Which of the following statement are TRUE (a) It inhibits DNA polymerase
(A) T.B. and Polio vaccines are of attenuated (b) It stabilized DNA -Topoisomerase
type (c) It interferes with regeneration of lipid carrier
(B) Diphtheria and tetanus vaccines are by blocking its phosphorylation
inactivated endotoxins (d) It disrupts microtubule function

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 311 JHARKHAND DRUG INSPECTOR -2013

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F
PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE (a) Display of signboard by a registered medical
practitioner offering treatment for any disease

PD
1. A nonbonded manufactory shall inspected by
(b) Publication of a book only for scientific
the other officer at least
purpose, suggesting the use of a drug in the
(a) Once every month
treatment of any disease
(b) Once every two months
(c) Advertisement relating to any drug sent
(c) Once every six months
confidentially to a registered medical
(d) Once every year
practitioner
2. Applications for licence to manufacture goods

E
liable to duty of excise, under medicinal and (d) None of these
toilet preparations (Excise Duties) shall be 8. The prevention of Cruelty to Animal Act was
made in
(a) Form A.L.1
(c) Form A.L.3
(b) Form A.L.2
(d) Form A. L.4
PL enacted in
(a) 1940
(c) 1960
(b) 1950
(d) 1970
3. The Drug and Magic Remedies (Objectionable 9. Which of the following does NOT comes under
Advertisement) Rules came into force in the year the cruelty to animals
M
(a) 1954 (b) 1955 (a) Experiments on animals for use discovery
(c) 1956 (d) 1957 useful for using human life
4. Publications of the advertisements is prohibited (b) Usefully and unreasonably disinterring any
SA

that refers to the use of any drug for the injurious drug to animal
treatment of (c) Treating any animal so as to subject it to
(a) Cancer (b) Plaque unnecessary pain or suffering
(c) Tuberculosis (d) All of these (d) Failure to provide sufficient food, drink or
5. Person contravening any provision of the shelter to the animal by its owner
drugs and magic remedies (objectionable 10. Experiments of animals for the discovery of new
C

advertisements) act is punishable with drugs is allowed under which of the following
(a) Imprisonment up to three months or fine or Sections of the prevention of Cruelty to Animals
both Act
D

(b) Imprisonment up to four months or fine or (a) Section 4 (b) Section 14

both
(c) Section 24 (d) Section 34
(c) Imprisonment up to five months or fine or both
G

11. Who among the following has the responsibility

(d) Imprisonment up to six months or fine or both
to establish Society for Prevention of Cruelty to
6. Which of the following is a Magic Remedy
Animals (SPCA)
(a) Talisman (b) Mantra
(a) Central government
(c) Kavach (d) All of these
(b) State government
7. Which of the following is violation of the Drugs
(c) Animal Welfare Board
and Magic Remedies (Objectionable
Advertisements) Act (d) Institutes carrying out animal experiments

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 334 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
96. Which of the following methods would be 5. Replacement of oxygen at C-2 of barbituric acid
appropriate for sterilization of a heat-labile by a sulfur
antibiotic solution (a) Increases lipid solubility
(a) Dry heat using hot-air oven (b) Decreases lipid solubility
(b) UV radiation (c) Shows no change in lipid solubility
(c) Filtration through membrane filters (d) None of these
(d) Gaseous using ethylene oxide 6. In the limit test for sulphate which one of the
97. Which of the following methods would be following is used to prevent super saturation

F
appropriate for sterilization of hospital linen (a) Barium sulphate (b) Potassium sulphate
(a) Moist heat (b) Dry heat (c) Alcohol (d) None of these
(c) Gamma radiation (d) Gaseous 7. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent

PD
98. In iodophor povidone-iodine, what is the role (a) Hydrogen peroxide
of povidone (b) Potassium permanganate
(a) It acts as solubilizer/carrier for iodine (c) Concentrated nitric acid
(b) It causes slow release of iodine (d) All of these
(c) It imparts nonstaining and nonirritant 8. Molecule to become IR active in IR spectroscopy
properties (a) Must show dipole moment

E
(d) All of these (b) Must show change in dipole moment
99. A common example of quaternary ammonium (c) Must show magnetic moment
compound is PL (d) Must show change in magnetic moment
(a) CTAB (b) IPA
9. Electromagnetic radiation used in NMR
(c) ETO (d) PUP-I
spectroscopy is
100. The test organism employed in phenol
(a) Microwave
coefficient test for evaluation of disinfectants
(b) Radiofrequency wave
is
M
(c) Ultraviolet
(a) E. coli (b) Candida albicans
(d) Infrared radiation
(c) Aspergillus niger (d) Salmonella typhi
10. Which one of the following indicators is used
SA

PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY in complexometric titration

(a) Methyl orange (b) Murexide
1. Alfentanil is a/an
(c) Eosin (d) Crystal violet
(a) Synthetic opioid analgesic agent
11. Sulphur containing B-complex vitamin is
(b) Naturally occurring analgesic agent
(a) Biotin (b) Riboflavin
(c) COX-2 inhibitor
(c) Niacin (d) Pyridoxine
(d) Anilide derivative used as NSAID
C

12. Triamcinolone is
2. Which one of the following does not contain
(a) 9 -fluoro 16  - hydroxyprednisolone
piperidine moiety in its structure
(b) 9 -fluoro 16 -hydroxy-prednisolone
D

(a) Mepivacaine (b) Ropivacaine

(c) 9 -fluro 16 -hydroxy-prdnisolone
(c) Lidocaine (d) Bupivacaine
(d) 9 -fluoro 16 -hydroxy-prednisolone
3. The phenothiazine derivative used for
13. 2,6-Dimethoxyphenyl penicillin is the IUPAC
G

Parkinson’s disease is
name of
(a) Prochlorperazine (b) Promethazine
(a) Ampicillin (b) Methicillin
(c) Ethopropazine (d) Chlorpromazine
(c) Amoxicillin (d) Carbenicillin
4. Which one of the following belongs to
14. In gel permeation chromatography, molecules
imidazolidine 2,4- dione class
are separated on the basis of their
(a) Phenytoin (b) Trimethadione
(a) Size and shape (b) Chemical nature
(c) Phensuximide (d) Paramethadione
(c) Adsorptive properties(d) Partition coefficient

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 340 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

PHARMACOLOGY
1-c 2-b 3-b 4-c 5-d 6-b 7-b 8-a 9-b 10-c
11-a 12-c 13-a 14-b 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-d 19-b 20-a
21-a 22-c 23-b 24-c 25-b 26-c 27-c 28-c 29-c 30-b
31-b 32-c 33-c 34-c 35-b 36-a 37-c 38-d 39-d 40-b
41-d 42-d 43-b 44-c 45-d 46-a 47-a 48-a 49-d 50-b

F
51-c 52-b 53-a 54-c 55-c 56-c 57-d 58-b 59-c 60-c
61-d 62-b 63-c 64-c 65-b 66-a 67-b 68-a 69-c 70-c

PD
71-d 72-c 73-b 74-b 75-d 76-c 77-b 78-d 79-b 80-d
81-b 82-b 83-a 84-c 85-a 86-b 87-b 88-b 89-c 90-b
91-c 92-b 93-a 94-d 95-b 96-a 97-c 98-a 99-c 100-a

MICROBIOLOGY

1-a 2-a 3-d 4-c 5-c 6-b 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-b

E
11-c 12-d 13-c 14-d 15-d 16-a 17-b 18-c 19-d 20-d
21-d 22-d 23-a 24-c 25-b
PL 26-b 27-b 28-c 29-c 30-b
31-d 32-d 33-b 34-a 35-a 36-d 37-a 38-a 39-b 40-d
41-b 42-a 43-d 44-c 45-d 46-c 47-b 48-c 49-b 50-c
51-c 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-d 57-c 58-d 59-d 60-a
61-a 62-d 63-b 64-d 65-c 66-d 67-c 68-c 69-d 70-d
M
71-c 72-d 73-c 74-a 75-b 76-a 77-c 78-a 79-b 80-c
81-b 82-d 83-a 84-c 85-c 86-d 87-a 88-d 89-a 90-d
91-d 92-a 93-d 94-c 95-a 96-c 97-a 98-d 99-a 100-d
SA

PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

1-a 2-c 3-c 4-a 5-a 6-c 7-d 8-b 9-b 10-b
11-a 12-a 13-b 14-a 15-a 16-c 17-d 18-b 19-c 20-a
C

21-b 22-a 23-a 24-a 25-d 26-b 27-c 28-c 29-b 30-c
31-c 32-c 33-c 34-b 35-b 36-d 37-c 38-a 39-b 40-b
41-c 42-b 43-b 44-a 45-b 46-c 47-a 48-b 49-c 50-d
D

51-a 52-d 53-c 54-b 55-a 56-a 57-a 58-b 59-c 60-d
61-b 62-c 63-c 64-c 65-a 66-d 67-c 68-d 69-a 70-b
G

71-a 72-b 73-a 74-b 75-b 76-d 77-b 78-d 79-b 80-c
81-b 82-b 83-a 84-b 85-c 86-d 87-c 88-a 89-b 90-c
91-b 92-c 93-c 94-b 95-a 96-a 97-b 98-d 99-a 100-b

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 341 ANDRA PRADESH DRUG INSPECTOR- 2012 (PAPER-I)

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PAPER-I

PD
1. ‘Unguentum’ means 11. Zidovudine is used in chemotherapy of
(a) Cream (b) Lotion (a) Acute immune deficiency syndrome
(c) Ointment (d) Plaster (b) Small pox
2. What is rectified spirit (c) Influenza pneumonia
(a) 75% ethanol (b) 100% ethanol (d) Bronchogenic carcinoma

E
(c) 90% ethanol (d) 50% ethanol 12. In what disease heart fails as a pump
3. In a prescription ‘vespere’ mean (a) Angina pectoris
(a) Talk in whisper
(c) In the evening
(b) Russel’s viper
(d) At the morning
4. Function of sympathetic system include all
PL (b) Hepatic coma
(c) Congestive cardiac failure
(d) Nephrotic syndrome
EXCEPT 13. In a prescription ‘OID’ means
(a) Dilation of pupil (a) One fourth (b) One quart
M
(b) Constriction of pupil (c) Once in four days (d) Four times a day
(c) Conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver 14. Catgut is sterilized by
(d) Production of sweat (a) Dry heat method (b) Autoclave
SA

5. Antihypertensive agent (c) Ionizing radiation (d) Chemical method

(a) Amphetamine (b) Adrenaline 15. Example for type I hypersensitivity reaction
(c) Salbutamol (d) Propranolol (a) Complement mediated cell damage
6. One kilo gram is equal to (b) IgE mediated reaction
(a) 2.2 pound (b) 3.0 pound (c) Serum sickness
(c) 3.3 pound (d) 4 pound (d) Cell mediated immunity reaction
7. What is strophanthus 16. What is the normal cardiac output
C

(a) Diuretics (b) Antianemic (a) 1 liter/minute (b) 2 liter/minute

(c) Cardiac glycoside (d) Antianginal (c) 4 liter/minute (d) 5 liter/minute
D

8. Drug classified under narcotic drugs and 17. Enzyme responsible for conversion of glucose to
psychotropic agent include all EXCEPT glucose 6-PO4
(a) Ephedrine (b) Cocaine (a) Glycogen synthase (b) G-6-Phosphatase
G

(c) Heroin (d) Hashish (c) Glucokinase (d) Phosphorylase

9. Dapsone is useful in 18. Containers for eye drops should be having all the
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Leprosy properties EXCEPT
(c) Malabsorption (d) AIDS (a) Child proof
10. Vehicles in ophthalmic drops include all EXCEPT (b) Preserving the stability of content
(a) Ethanol (b) Isotonic phosphate (c) Not adversely affect content
(c) Special boric acid (d) Boric acid (d) Withstand sterilization

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 353 ANDRA PRADESH DRUG INSPECTOR- 2012 (PAPER-II)
115. D. Sanjeevaiah was the Chief Minister of 123. Number to be at the question mark
Andhra Pradesh during
(a) 30-9-1971 to 10-1-1973
(b) 1-11-1956 to 11-1-1960
(c) 11-1-1960 to 12-3-1962
(d) 12-3-1962 to 29-2-1964 (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 1
116. K. Vijaya Bhaskar Reddy was the Chief 124. Number of triangles in the following
Minister of Andhra Pradesh during

F
(a) 16-8-1920 to 17-9-2001
(b) 1-11-1956 to 11-1-1960
(c) 11-1-1960 to 12-3-1962

PD
(d) 12-3-1962 to 29-2-1964 (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 16
117. P.V. Narasimha Rao was the Chief Minister of 125. Number of triangles in the following
Andhra Pradesh during
(a) 30-9-1971 to 10-1-1973
(b) 1-11-1956 to 11-1-1960
(c) 11-1-1960 to 12-3-1962

E
(d) 12-3-1962 to 29-2-1964 (a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 24
118. To eradicate poverty in India, World Bank 126. Number to be at the question mark

of
(a) 12.10% (b) 9.20%
PL
would help India in a novel way to the extent

(c) 7.80% (d) 10.96%

119. Highest percentage of votes polled by the (a) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55
M
successful candidate in Kamareddy Assembly 127. Number to be at the question mark
seat by-election held recently
19 3 25
(a) 55.2% (b) 51.2% 17 11 39
SA

(c) 46.1% (d) 47.2% 9 5 ?

120. In the recently held Rajya Sabha elections
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22
from Andhra Pradesh, how many are elected
128. Number to be at the question mark
unopposed
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
121. Number to be at question mark in the
C

following
3 4 2
9 12 8 10 10 12 8 ? 12
D

2 3 2
(a) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (d) 56
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 32
129. Number to be at the question mark
G

122. Number to be at question mark in the

following

(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 80 (d) 90 (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 356 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. The committee appointed by Government of 7. The sale of opium to the State Government or
India to look in to the drug industry and various manufacturing chemists is made by Central

PD
aspects of drugs like licensing price control, Government opium factory located at
imports, role of foreign sector quality control (a) Ghaziabad (b) Ghazipur
was headed by (c) Gorakhpur (d) Goa
(a) Mudaliar (b) Bhatia 8. Pharmacy Council of India was constituted in
(c) Hathi (d) Bhore which year
2. The Poison Act was introduced in the year (a) 1949 (b) 1948

E
(a) 1878 (b) 1894 (c) 1947 (d) 1950
(c) 1919 (d) 1930 9. All products of parenteral use are listed under
3. One of the following is NOT correct objectives PL the following schedule
of Pharmacy Act 1948 of India (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) Restoration of pharmacy profession in its due 10. The total number of State Pharmacy Council
place in the health service members are
(b) Raising the status of pharmacy profession (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
M
(c) To regulate the practice of pharmacy 11. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was
(d) To have common syllabus of pharmacy out in
throughout India (a) 1945 (b) 1950 (c) 1955 (d) 1960
4. Find for false claim to be a registered 12. Applications for grant or renewal of licence for
SA

pharmacist on first conviction is manufacturing Ayurvedic Siddha and Unani

(a) Rs. 500 drug is required to be made in
(b) 6 months imprisonment (a) Form 24-D (b) Form 48
(c) Rs. 1,000 (c) Form 25-E (d) Form 24-E
(d) Both fine and imprisonment 13. Drugs to be taken under the medical
5. The main objective of Drugs and Cosmetic act, supervision are included under the following
C

1940 and subsequent amendments is to schedule

regulate the import manufacture distribution (a) E (b) G (c) H (d) K
and sale of drugs and cosmetics of allopathy 14. The drugs (price control) order, 1995 does not
D

and the following categories, EXCEPT take into account one of the following in fixing
(a) Ayurveda (b) Siddha the retail price
G

(c) Unani Tibb (d) Homoeopathy (a) Material cost and conversion cost
6. One of the following does NOT come under the (b) Packing material and packing charges
purview of PCI (c) Excise duty
(a) Education regulations (d) Local taxes
(b) Recognition of foreign qualification 15. New drugs developed through research are
(c) Approval of pharmacy institutions and exempted from price control for a period of
withdrawal of approvals (a) 5 years (b) 10 years
(d) Issuing licenses to pharmacists (c) 15 years (d) 20 years

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 362 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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F
1. Which one of the following is Correctly 8. Crystalluria is a side effect associated with
matched (a) Erythromycin (b) Streptomycin

PD
(a) Digitalis-Uniseriate, multicellular trichomes (c) Chloramphenicol (d) Sulfonamide
(b) Senna- Multiseriate, thin walled trichomes 9. Which of the following drugs has a narrow
(c) Opium- Contain starch and tannins therapeutic window
(d) Rasna- Family: Euphorbiaceae (a) Sulfadiazine (b) Verapamil
2. The vernacular Tamil name for Rasna is (c) Digoxin (d) Tetracycline
(a) Rasana (b) Nannari 10. Inadequacy of hepatic drug metabolizing

E
(c) Valaipalam (d) Perarathai systems in newborns leads to gray baby
3. The decreasing order of Narcotic action is syndrome. Which of the following antibiotics
(a) Morphine, codeine, papaverine, narcotine, PL causes it
thebaine (a) Streptomycin (b) Erythromycin
(b) Morphine, codeine, thebaine, papaverine, (c) Tetracycline (d) Chloramphenicol
narcotine 11. Match the following
(c) Morphine, papaverine, codeine, narcotine,
(A) (1) Gabapentin
M
thebaine
N
(d) Morphine, papaverine, narcotine, codeine,
O C NH2
thebaine
4. Allethrin, a synthetic allyl is homologue of
SA

O
(a) Cinerin-I (b) Pyrethrin-I (B) (2) Carbamazepine
H2 N
(c) Cinerin-II (d) Pyrethrin-II OH
5. Pallets are used in drug stores to Et
(a) Transport horizontally Me
(b) Cold storage (C) (3) Trimethadione
(c) Secure storage N
C

(d) Stacking at ground level or vertically on shelves O O

6. Sodium valproate is known to cause ............... in H
Me
newborn
D

Me O
(a) Virilization of female foetus
(b) Spine bifida (D) (4) Ethosuximide
N O
G

(c) Hypoplastic phalanges O

(d) Fetal death Me
Codes :
7. Tetracyclines are known to cause which of the
birth defects in the foetus A B C D
(a) Foetal goiter (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) Discoloured and deformed teeth (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) Spina bifida (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) Virilization of female foetus (d) 4 2 1 3

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 370 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
137. The study adverse drug reaction or monitoring 147. The system which release the drug in
the adverse events is the concern of the field predetermined rate is
known as (a) Controlled release (b) Sustained release
(a) Pharmacotherapeutics (c) Long acting (d) Repeat action
(b) Pharmacovigilance 148. Simple syrup contains………………… % w/v of
(c) Pharmacoeconomics sucrose
(d) Idiosyncrasy (a) 66.7 (b) 76.7
138. Factors influencing drug absorption includes (c) 86.7 (d) 50

F
all EXCEPT 149. Bioavailability is expressed as
(a) pH of the stomach
AUCOral AUCIV
(b) Presence of food in GIT (a) (b)

PD
(c) Solubility of the drug
AUCIV AUCOral
(d) Protein binding AUCOral AUCSC
(c) (d)
139. Drug used as anti-inflammatory agent is AUCSC AUCOral
(a) Allopurinol (b) Diclofenac sodium 150. The chemical penetration enhancer used in
(c) Colchicine (d) TNF transdermal drug delivery system is
140. The mechanism of action of Benzodiazepine is (a) Acetamide (b) Propylene glycol

E
(a) Mediated through GABA receptor and (c) Span 20 (d) All of these
chloride channel activation 151. Example for venous vasodilator is
(b) Mediated through hyperpolarization PL (a) Minoxidil (b) Nimodipine
(c) Mediated through chloride channel opening
(c) Nitrates (d) Acetyl choline
(d) Mediated through GABA receptor and
152. A drug which contains chlorine and aniline
deactivation of chloride channel
group is
141. Under BCS class I drug are having
(a) Diclofenac (b) Ibufenac
M
(a) High solubility and permeability
(c) Indomethacin (d) Sulindac
(b) Low solubility and permeability
153. Salbutamol is
(c) High solubility and low permeability
(a)  1 receptor stimulant
(d) Low solubility and high permeability
SA

(b) 1 receptor stimulant

142. In the bioequivalence studies parallel studies
(c)  1 receptor blocking agent
may be required if the drug has
(d) 1 receptor blocking agent
(a) Long half-life (b) Short half-life
154. Carbamazepine has
(c) Low solubility (d) High permeability
(a) Phenothiazine ring (b) Piperazine ring
143. Emulsion made with tween are usually
(c) Triketo Pyridine ring (d) None of these
(a) Oil in water type (b) Water in oil type
C

(c) Reversible type (d) Clear 155. Chemical name of Pentobarbitone is

144. Manufacturing of aerosol involves (a) 5-ethyl-5(1-methyl butyl)
(a) Gas filling (b) 5-ethyl-5(1-cyclohexen-1-yl)
D

(b) Pressure filling (c) 4-ethyl-5(1-methyl butyl)

(c) Compressed gas filling (d) 4-ethyl-5(1-cyclohexen-1-yl)
156. The use of Clonidine hydrochloride is
G

(d) All of these

145. Progesterone injection BP is a sterile solution (a) Local anesthetic (b) Diuretic
in (c) Antihypertensive (d) Sedative
(a) Water (b) Ethyl alcohol 157. Theophylline is
(c) Propylene glycol (d) Glycerol (a) 1, 3-dimethyl xanthine
146. The HLB value for W/O emulsifying agent is (b) 2, 3-dimethyl xanthine
(a) 1-3 (b) 3-8 (c) 3, 3-dimethyl xanthine
(c) 7-9 (d) 8-16 (d) 1, 2-dimethyl xanthine

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 374 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Mini Pill contains 10. Zeatin
(a) Estrogen (a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin

PD
(b) Non-Hormonal contents (c) Cytokinin (d) Abscisic acid
(c) Progesterone 11. Cap Aloe is
(d) Estrogen and Progesterone (a) Aloe barbadensis (b) Aloe perryi
2. Longer use of organic nitrates in Angina (c) Aloe vera (d) Aloe ferox
pectoris cause one of the following side effects 12. Most toxic constituent of Red Squill is
(a) Hepatotoxicity (b) Tolerance
(a) Scillaren A (b) Scillaren B

E
(c) Aplastic anemia (d) Nephrotoxicity
(c) Scilliroside (d) Glucoscillaren
3. Zafirlukast is used as anti-asthmatic acts as
13. Rutin is rhamnoglucoside of
(a) Prostaglandin antagonist PL (a) Scopoletin (b) Hesperidin
(b) Lipoxygenase inhibitor
(c) Esculetin (d) Quercetin
(c) Cyclooxygenase inhibitor
14. Castor oil is
(d) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
(a) Nondrying oil (b) Semi drying oil
4. Phloem does NOT contain
(c) Drying oil (d) Super drying oil
M
(a) Phloem fibers (b) Sieve-tubes
15. Animal wool fat is
(c) Companion cells (d) Tracheids
(a) Fat (b) Lipid
5. Group of plants of a species which have
(c) Wax (d) Fixed oil
identical morphological characters but differ
SA

16. Hyoscyamus is
in their chemical nature known as
(a) Belladonna (b) Henbane
(a) Hybrids (b) Chemodemes
(c) Polyploidy (d) Mutation (c) Stramonium (d) Duboisia
6. Which of the following is the major cause of 17. Murexide test is used for identification of____
drug instability Alkaloid
(a) Oxidation (b) Photolysis (a) Purine (b) Tropane
C

(c) Hydrolysis (d) Racemization (c) Quinoline (d) Indole

7. What is the unit of rate constant for zero 18. Gas sterilization is done by using which gas
order kinetics (a) Ethylene oxide (b) Formaldehyde
D

(a) s-1 (b) Mol L-1s-1 (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Acetaldehyde
(c) Mol L s-1 (d) Mol-1L-1s 19. Diazotization titration is not used for
8. Talc is used as glidant in composition of (a) Pyrimethamine (b) Sulphadiazine
G

(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) Sulfamethoxazole (d) Thiamine HCl

(c) 15% (d) 20% 20. In gas chromatography column length is
9. The surface material from a tablet that is (a) 5-10 meter (b) 1-4 meter
sticking to and being removed from the tablet’s (c) 10-15 meter (d) 15-20 meter
surface by a punch is known as 21. What is the unit of specific conductance
(a) Capping (b) Lamination (a) Ohm (b) Mho
(c) Sticking (d) Picking (c) Ohm cm -1
(d) Mho cm-1

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 379 UPSC DRUG INSPECTOR-2011

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F
1. Assume that for a digoxin, the therapeutic range (c) 80%-85% of the brand product
is cited as Cavg 5.5 = 0.82 mg/ml. If the patient is (d) 80%-90% of the brand product

PD
assumed to have an estimated digoxin t1/2 of 48 5. The renal clearance of inulin is used as a
hours, how long would you wait to take serum measurement of
digoxin concentration measurement and when (a) Effective renal blood flow
during the dosing interval would you schedule (b) Active renal secretion
it (c) Glomerular filtration rate
(a) 28 days than 3-4 hours after the dose is (d) Intrinsic enzyme activity

E
administered 6. Which condition usually increases the rate of
(b) 14 days than 6-8 hours after the dose is drug dissolution from a tablet
administered
(c) 7 days than 10-14 hours after the dose is
administered
PL (a) Increases in the particle size of the drug
(b) Use of the ionized or salt form of the drug
(c) Decreases in the surface area of the drug
(d) 3 days than 1-2 hours after the dose is (d) Use of the free acid or free base form of the
administered drug
M
2. Which drug is used to prevent embolism in 7. The amount of nitroglycerine that a
lungs and also during myocardial infarction transdermal patch delivers within a 24-hour
(a) Human growth hormone period will not depend on
SA

(b) Alteplase (a) Occlusive backing on the patch

(c) Epogen (EPO) (b) Diffusion rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
(d) Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating (c) Surface area of the patch
factor (GM-CSF) (d) Dissolution rate of nitroglycerine from the patch
3. Which enzyme is used by the human 8. A very fine powdered chemical/drug is defined
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to form as one that
C

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the host cell (a) Completely passes through a sieve #240
(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) Completely passes through a sieve #120
D

(b) DNA directed polymerase only (c) Completely passes through a sieve #60
(c) Reverse transcriptase only (d) Passes through a sieve #60 and not more than
(d) Both (b) and (c) 40% through a sieve #120
G

4. For two drug products, generic and brand to be 9. Which equation is used to predict the stability
considered bioequivalent, the 90% confidence of a drug product at room temperature from
intervals about the ratio of the mean of the experiment at accelerated temperature
C max and AUC values for generic/brand (a) The Stokes equation
product must be within (b) The Arrhenius equation
(a) 80%-120% of the brand product (c) The Michaelis Menten equation
(b) 80%-100% of the brand product (d) The Hixson Crowell equation

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 388 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Where is the Institute of Himalayan project is
Bio-resource Technology situated at (a) 500 MW (b) 540 MW

PD
(a) Shimla (b) Nahan (c) 800 MW (d) 650 MW
(c) Bilaspur (d) Palampur 11. The Lowest layer of atmosphere is called
2. In which District ‘Kol Dam’ is located (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere
(a) Kangra (b) Bilaspur (c) Ionosphere (d) Exosphere
(c) Mandi (d) Chamba 12. The typical area of ‘Sal’ forest in the Indian
3. When was Mandi and Suket ‘Riyasat’ merged Peninsular upland occurs

E
to create Mandi District (a) On the Western Ghats
(a) 12th Sept 1966 (b) 25th April 1958 (b) Between the Tapti and the Narmada
th
(c) 15 April 1948 (d) 1st Jan 1950
4. Which District covers only 2.01% area of
Himachal Pradesh
PL 13.
(c) To the north each of the Godavari
(d) On the Malwa plateau
First Nuclear device test was done in
(a) Hamirpur (b) Solan (a) Rajasthan (b) Punjab
(c) Mandi (d) Una (c) Sikkim (d) Maharashtra
M
5. Which is the estimated hydro electricity potential 14. The tide of minimum rise is called
of Himachal Pradesh (a) Spring Tide (b) Neap Tide
(a) 20,000 MW (b) 30,000 MW (c) Ebb Tide (d) None of these
SA

(c) 28,000 MW (d) 40,000 MW 15. Which Indian has been elected as Judge of
6. In the memory of Rani Naina Devi, which ‘Mela’ International Court of Justice
is held in Himachal Pradesh (a) Man Chand Bhandari (b) Dayanand Bhandari
(a) Renuka Mela (b) Holi Mela (c) Dalveer Bhandari (d) J.S. Verma
(c) Hamir Mela (d) Suhi Mela 16. Which type of Industry is mostly found in
7. How many percent of area of Himachal Pradesh Bangladesh
C

is under thick forest (a) Fishing (b) Tea

(a) 50.77% (b) 72.87% (c) Jute based (d) None of these
(c) 63.9% (d) 48.90% 17. Jwala Gutta is a player of
D

8. What is the estimated production capacity of (a) Squash (b) Badminton

(c) Cricket (d) Tennis
Kol Dam
18. Which of the following countries is known as
G

(a) 800 MW (b) 1000 MW

Island of Cloves
(c) 1200 MW (d) 450 MW
(a) Zanzibar (Africa) (b) Kerala (India)
9. The Shivalik hills are at an attitude of about ............
(c) Kenya (Africa) (d) Nassau (Bahamas)
above sea level
19. At the equator the duration of a day is
(a) 600 meter (b) 800 meter
(a) 16 hours (b) 12 hours
(c) 1200 meter (d) 700 meter
1
10. Capacity of Chamera dam hydroelectric power (c) 10 hours (d) 12 hours
2

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 394 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. On cancellation of manufacturing license, the (a) Nux vomica (b) Rauwolfia
loan license is (c) Ashwagandha (d) Cinchona

PD
(a) Cancelled 9. If Cyanocobalamin is imported under the name
(b) Suspended of tetracycline, it will be called
(c) Temporary suspended (a) Adulterated drug (b) Spurious drug
(d) None of these (c) Misbranded drug (d) Substitute drug
2. Drug retail sale licenses are issued by 10. Ergot powder gives blue color with
(a) Drugs controller of India (a) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde

E
(b) Union health minister (b) o-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
(c) Drug controller authority of the states (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Director of Health Services PL (d) None of these
3. The record for the drugs having date of expiry 11. Neomycin is obtained from
should be preserved for a period of at least (a) E coli (b) B. subtilis
(a) 5 Years (b) 2 Years (c) S. aeruginosa (d) S. fradiae
(c) 1 Year (d) 3 Years 12. Biological and Biotechnological products are
M
4. Which type of trichomes is present in listed in Schedule
ashwagandha (a) A (b) B
(a) Branched (b) Lignified (c) C and C1 (d) X
SA

(c) Glandular (d) None of these 13. Carbopols are polymerized from
5. Chota-chand is synonym for (a) Methacrylate esters
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Acrylic acid
(b) Rauwolfia densiflora (c) Ethylene glycol
(c) Rauwolfia perakensis (d) Bis-phenol + phosgene
(d) Rauwolfia tetraphylla 14. Hard gelatin capsule of size 3 will accommodate
C

6. How can we detect the rhizome from the root approximately volume in ml
of the ‘Rauwolfia (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.75
(a) By the presence of small central pith 15. The international name for small-pox vaccine
D

(b) By the absence of small central pith is

(c) By the presence of vascular bundle (a) BCG (b) DTP
(d) None of these (c) Variola (d) Vibrio
G

7. Ergotoxine group of alkaloid is/are mixture of 16. Blood flow through a capillary is described by
[1] Ergocristine [2] Ergocornine the equation known as
[3] Ergocryptine [4] Ergometrine (a) Langmuir (b) Noyes-Whitney
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Stokes’ (d) Hilderbrand
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) None of these 17. Compact size, low weight mass instrument is
8. A disease called ‘stripe canker’ is connected (a) EI-TOF (b) Maldi-Quadrupole
with which of the following drugs (c) Maldi-TOF (d) Ion-trap

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 400 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant 10. Morphine does NOT cause
tuberculosis can be treated with all of the (a) Constriction of the pupil

PD
following drugs EXCEPT (b) CNS depression
(a) Tobramycin (b) Amikacin (c) Respiratory depression
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Clarithromycin (d) Diarrhoea
2. Which of the following anti-malarial drug is 11. o,m,p-isomers can be differentiated on the
safe during pregnancy basis of
(a) Amodiaquine (b) Proguanil (a) Chemical Shift
(c) Primaquine (d) Chloroquine (b) Coupling constant

E
3. Mechanism of action of Ketoconazole is (c) Extinction coefficient
(a) Inhibits ergosterol synthesis (d) Dipole moment
(b) Inhibits DNA gyrase
(c) Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
(d) Induces translation misreadings
PL 12. Isotopes differ in
(a) The number of protons
(b) The valency number
4. Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful (c) The chemical activity
while using (d) The number of neutrons
M
(a) Antihypertensive drugs (b) Levodopa 13. Purity of water for injection is checked by
(c) Lithium carbonate (d) MAO inhibitors (a) Potential testing (b) Pyrogen testing
5. Codeine differs in structure from morphine by (c) Conductivity testing (d) pH Testing
(a) N-methyl group 14. The phosphate of a metal has the formula
SA

(b) Acetyl group at C1 and C6 MHPO4. The formula of its Bromide would be
(c) -OC2H5 group (a) MBr (b) MBr3
(d) -OCH3 group (c) MBr2 (d) MBr4
6. Sanguinarine belongs to the subgroup of 15. Geometrical isomerism is possible in case of
(a) Morphinans (a) 2-Pentene (b) Pentane
(b) Benzyl isoquinolines (c) Propene (d) Ethene
C

(c) Phthalide isoquinolines 16. The IUPAC name of the compound having the
(d) Benzophenanthrenes formula (CH3)2CHCH2Cl
7. Dover powder used as a diaphoretic contains (a) 2 - methyl-3-chloropropane
D

(a) Ipecac and Opium (b) Senna and Cinchona (b) l - chloro-3-methyl butane
(c) Opium and Cinchona (d) All of these (c) 1 - chloropentane
8. _____ is the dimmer of flavones and flavonones (d) 2- methyl-4-chlorobutane
G

(a) Chalcones (b) Aurones 17. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissue is
(c) Biflavanoids (d) Dihydroflavones (a) Triglyceride (b) Cholesterol
9. The wavelength source in NMR spectrometer (c) Sphingolipids (d) Phospholipids
is 18. Ferritin is
(a) Goniometer (a) Co-enzyme
(b) Radiofrequency oscillator (b) The stored form of iron
(c) High voltage generator (c) Non-protein moiety
(d) Klystron oscillator (d) Enzyme

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 405 CHHATTISGARH DRUG INSPECTOR - 2009

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1. Separation of a Tablet into two or more distinct (a) Salbutamol (b) Aminophylline
layers is called as (c) Nedocromil (d) All of these

PD
(a) Capping (b) Mottling 10. Absorption of which drug is significantly
(c) Chipping (d) Lamination increased when orally administered with high fat
2. The polyethylene glycol ointment is an example meal
of which type of ointment base (a) Riboflavin (b) Griseofulvin
(a) Hydrocarbon base (b) Absorption base (c) Ibuprofen (d) Clindamycin
(c) Cream base (d) Water-soluble base 11. The deficiency of which vitamin cause the disease

E
3. In the production facility of injectable drug called ‘Pellagra’
products, the water for injection is stored in tanks (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Nicotinic acid
at
(a) 10°C
(c) 50°C
(b) 37°C
(d) 80°C
PL 12.
(c) Pantothenic acid

(a) Preservative
(d) Vitamin B12
What is the pharmaceutical use of vitamin C
(b) Diluent
4. Which of the following drugs is available in the (c) Solubilizing agent (d) Antioxidant
form of transdermal patch in Indian market 13. Which one of the following is considered as
M
(a) Diclofenac (b) Diazepam fourth generation cephalosporin antibiotic
(c) Digoxin (d) Insulin (a) Cefadroxil (b) Cefoxitin
5. For the treatment of jaundice in newly born (c) Cefepime (d) Cefixime
SA

infants the which is administered is 14. Which one of the following is used as
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Dexamethasone antineoplastic drug
(c) Phenobarbitone (d) Ascorbic acid (a) Goserelin (b) Cyclophosphamide
6. Which of the following micro-organisms is (c) TICE BCG (d) All of these
believed to be a cause of gastric ulcers 15. Which one of the following drugs is categorized
(a) Candida (b) H. pylori as atypical antipsychotic drug
C

(c) E. coli (d) Enterococcus (a) Chlorpromazine (b) Quetiapine

7. Which one of the following drug preparations (c) Fluphenazine (d) Trifluoperazine
should be orally administered after meals 16. Aspirin tablet are NOT given in dengue fever
D

(a) Tetracycline tablet because

(b) Enteric-coated aspirin tablet (a) GIT bleeding tendency
G

(c) Vitamin B-complex tablet (b) Anti inflammatory activity

(d) All of these (c) Uricosuric activity
8. Ergot alkaloids are used in the treatment of (d) Antiplatelet activity
(a) Reye’s syndrome (b) 3M-syndrome 17. Which one of the following drugs carries lowest
(c) Emesis (d) Migraine risk of hypoglycemia
9. Which one of the following drug is used in the (a) Glipizide (b) Chlorpropamide
prophylaxis of asthma (c) Tolbutamide (d) None of these

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 409 CHHATTISGARH DRUG INSPECTOR - 2009
75. In the following figure, missing figure is 85. From the point of view if coal deposits, what is
the rank of Chhattisgarh in the country
(a) First (b) Third
(c) Fifth (d) Seventh
86. Which of the following pairs (sanctuaries of
Chhattisgarh and districts) is rightly matched
(a) 27 (b) 81 (a) Udanti - Durg (b) Sitanadi- Dhamtari
(c) 243 (d) 54 (c) Pamed- Baster (d) Badalkhol – Surguja

F
1 1 87. By which of the following names Chhattisgarh was
76. If then a + = 2 the value of a + 2 will be known in ancient times
2 a
(a) Kosala (b) Mahakosala

PD
(a) 0 (b) -1
(c) North Kosala (d) South Kosala
(c) 2 (d) 2+ 2
88. Whom of the following was the founder of the
77. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at
Kalchuri dynasty in Chhattisgarh
3 o’ clock
(a) Kalingraj (b) Kamalraj
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) Ratnadev (d) Jajaldev
(c) 60° (d) 90°
89. Which of the following statements is associated
78. 5% of (25% of Rs. 1,600) will be

E
with the Revolt of 1857 in Chhattisgarh
(a) Rs. 25 (b) Rs. 20 (a) The peasants of Chhattisgarh participated in this
(c) Rs. 18 (d) Rs. 17.5 PL revolt
79. If 2n = 64 , then the value of n will be (b) The leader of this Revolt was Maharaj Singh
(a) 3 (b) 4 Zamindar of Deori
(c) 12 (d) 6 (c) The hero of this Revolt was Veer Narayan Singh,
80. 9 term of the following series will be
th Zamindar of Sonakhan
M
1, 4, 9, 16, .... ? (d) This Revolt was spread throughout
(a) 67 (b) 81 Chhattisgarh region
(c) 64 (d) 100 90. The following leaders of Chhattisgarh were Chief
Minister of Madhya Pradesh
SA

81. Which of the following two states are tying at the

1. Ravishankar Shukla
northern and northeast boundary of
2. Shyamacharan Shukla
Chhattisgarh
3. Motilal Vora
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand
4. Raja Nareshchandra
(b) Jharkhand and Bihar
Decide their sequence on the basis of codes
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
below Code
C

(d) Bihar and Odisha

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
82. What is the rank of Chhattisgarh in India in terms (c) 1, 4, 2, 3 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2
of literacy according to Census of 2001 91. At which of the following two place in
D

(a) 15th (b) 18th Chhattisgarh fairs of Kabir Panth are organized
(c) 21st (d) 23rd on Magh Purnima
83. Which is the highest ‘pat’ in the Chota Nagpur
G

(a) Damakheda and Girodpuri

Plateau in the north of Chhattisgarh (b) Damakheda and Kudurmal
(a) Jashpur pat (b) Main pat (c) Damakheda and Madku Dweep
(c) Jarang pat (d) Jamir pat (d) Damakheda and Sonpur
84. Which of the following two tree species are largely 92. Which of the following regions of Chhattisgarh
found in the forests of Chhattisgarh terracotta is a famous craft
(a) Sal and Bija (b) Bija and Teak (a) Surguja (b) Abujhmad
(c) Sal and Teak (d) Teak and Mahua (c) Ramgarh (d) Bastar

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 411 TAMIL NADU DRUG INSPECTOR -2009

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F
1. Which of the following trade marked sustained 6. Agglomeration in aerosols can be reduced by
release systems are based on encapsulated including

PD
drug particles that will dissolve at various rates (a) Anionic surfactants with HLB greater than 10
I. Sequels (b) Cationic surfactants with HLB less than 10
II. Spansules (c) Non-ionic surfactants with HLB greater than
III. Extentabs 10
Of these (d) Non-ionic surfactants with HLB less than 10
(a) I only (b) III only 7. In a suspension, open network aggregate or

E
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III floccule tends to
2. Compartment models are often used to (a) Settle quickly and cannot be easily redispersed
illustrate the various principles of PL (b) Settle slowly and can be easily redispersed
pharmacokinetics. A compartment is best (c) Settle quickly and can be easily redispersed
defined as (d) Settle slowly and cannot be easily redispersed
(a) Any anatomic entity that is capable of 8. The particle size range of nano-particles is
absorbing drug (a) 1 nm - 1 nm (b) 1 nm - 1000 nm
M
(b) A kinetically distinguishable pool of drug (c) 1 nm - 100 nm (d) 0 nm – 5 nm
(c) Specific body organs in tissues that can be 9. Transdermal drug delivery systems contain
assayed for drug drugs meant for
SA

(d) Anybody fluid such as blood in urine that may (a) Local action (b) Systemic action
contain drug (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
3. Dimethyl sulphoxide is commonly used as an 10. Which one of the following per oral dosage
excipient in transdermal patches as forms is likely to exhibit the longest lag time
(a) Adhesive
(a) Delayed release tablet
(b) Permeation enhancer of lipophilic drugs
(b) Elixir
C

(c) Permeation enhancer of hydrophilic drugs

(c) Enteric coated tablet
(d) Release liner
(d) Sustained release capsule
4. Ideal conditions for effective transdermal drug
11. The equation that describes the process of
D

delivery would Include molecular weight of

‘Passive Transport’ is
_______ and pH of _______ for the saturated
(a) Noyes-Whitney equation
aqueous solution of the drug
G

(b) Stokes law

(a) < 500 Da, 1 - 5 (b) > 500 Da, 1 - 5
(c) Fick’s law
(c) < 500 Da, 5 - 9 (d) > 500 Da, 5 - 9
(d) Hofmeister rule
5. All of the following drugs are believed to
12. The gelatin used in the manufacture of capsules
undergo significant first-pass hepat ic
is obtained from collagenous material by
biotransformation, EXCEPT
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Decarboxylation
(a) Phenytoin (b) Lidocaine
(c) Acetylation (d) Conjugation
(c) Morphine (d) Nitroglycerine

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 417 TAMIL NADU DRUG INSPECTOR -2009
104. From the given pairs of diuretics in which pair 113. Which of the following is anticholinergic drug
both the drugs do not require the presence of (a) Carbachol (b) Phenylephrine
aldosterone to produce diuresis (c) Eucatropine (d) Procainamide
(a) Mannitol and Spironolactone 114. Clonidine is used in the treatment of the following
(b) Spironolactone and Triamterene disorders, EXCEPT
(c) Triamterene and Amiloride (a) Glaucoma (b) Hypertension
(d) Spironolactone and Amiloride (c) Arrhythmia (d) Opioids
105. The diuretic that is natriuretic, chloruretic,
115. O NHCH(CH3 )2 is the structure
e of

F
saluretic and antikaliuretic, is
(a) Spironolactone (b) Furosemide OH
(c) Ethacrynic acid (d) Acetazolamide

PD
106. Which of the given pairs of antihistamines,
the pair in which both are, ‘dual-acting’ on
CH2 CONH2
histamines is
(a) Atenolol (b) Metoprolol
(a) Cetirizine and Cromolyn sodium
(c) Acebutolol (d) Timolol
(b) Azelastine and Cetirizine
116. A central carbon atom not directly connected
(c) Azelastine and Ketotifen

E
to any H2 and is connected to a tertiary nitrogen
(d) Ketotifen and Cromolyn sodium
through a 2-carbon unit on the other side with
107. Diazoxide and Minoxidil can be described as
(a) Potassium channel openers PL relatively small groups on the nitrogen is the
(b) Potassium sparing diuretics pharmacophore of
(c) Calcium channel blockers (a) H1 receptor antagonists
(d) Sodium channel openers (b) Narcotic analgesics
108. In the Lidocaine series of local anaesthetics (c) Thiazide diuretics
M
increasing the length of the ethylene chain up (d) Butyrophenone antipsychotics
to three carbon units, ______ the local an 117. Homatropine is a semisynthetic obtained or
aesthetic potency synthesized by reacting
SA

(a) Increases (b) Abolishes (a) Tropine and Succinic acid

(c) Reduces (d) Does not alter (b) Tropine and Malic acid
109. Which of the following anti-histamines does (c) Tropine and Fumaric acid
not cross the blood brain barrier easily (d) Tropine and Mandelic acid
(a) Diphenhydramine 118. The 2-chloro substituted analogue of oxazepam
(b) Cyclizine hydrochloride is
C

(c) Chlorpheniramine maleate (a) Lorazepam (b) Diazepam

(d) Cetirizine (c) Temazepam (d) Prazepam
110. The fluorine in Flurazepam is present in 119. Analgesic with N-Aryl anthranilic acid nucleus
D

(a) 5' position (b) 3' position is

(c) 2' position (d) 4' position (a) Paracetamol (b) Meclofenamic acid
111. Ranitidine contains _______ heterocyclic ring (c) Phenyl butazone (d) Anti-pyrine
G

(a) Imidazole (b) Furan 120. Cholinergic receptor antagonist existing as

(c) Thiazole (d) Pyridine enantiomer is
112. Aspirin can be estimated by (a) Methacholine (b) Carbachol
(a) Non-aqueous titration (c) Acetyl choline (d) Bethanechol
(b) Complexometry 121. Tripheniramine is used as its
(c) Acid- base titration (a) Succinate (b) Maleate
(d) Dead-stop end point method (c) Adipate (d) Citrate

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 423 MPSC DRUG INSPECTOR -2008

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F
1. Which enzyme is used by the HIV to form DNA (c) 121°C and 15 psi pressure for 15 minutes
in host cell (d) 100°C and 10 psi pressure

PD
(a) Endonuclease (b) Reverse Transcriptase 9. The limit test for acid-insoluble ash gives
(c) Isomerase (d) None of these (a) Inorganic impurities (b) Organic impurities
2. Mumps is an acute disease caused by_________ (c) Siliceous impurities (d) None of these
organism 10. Which of the following equations is useful in
(a) HIV (b) Paramyxovirus calculating shelf life of pharmaceuticals in
(c) Polio virus (d) Hepatitis virus accelerated stability testing

E
3. The agents that control growth of (a) Noye’s-Whitney equation
microorganisms on inanimate objects are (b) Gibb’s Helmholtz equation
referred as PL (c) Arrhenius equation
(a) Sterilants (b) Antiseptics
(d) Stokes equation
(c) Antibiotics (d) Disinfectants
11. Drug sample taken by the drug inspector for
4. Preservatives are not to be included in the
analysis is sent to
formulation of injectables, administered by
(a) Drug controller
M
_________ route
(b) Chief inspector
(a) Intramuscular (b) Subcutaneous
(c) Government analyst
(c) Intraocular (d) Intradermal
5. In the LAL test cells are used for the detection (d) Public testing Laboratory
SA

of pyrogen 12. Central Register of pharmacists is maintained

(a) Plasma (b) Lymphocyte by
(c) Red blood (d) Amoebocyte (a) State Health Ministry
6. Nandu remembers that Sachin’s birthday is (b) Pharmacy Council of India
certainly after 18th August but not after 22nd (c) State Pharmacy Council
August. Meeta certainly remembers that (d) Drug Controller of India
C

Sachin’s birthday is before 20 th August and 13. The drug _________is not included in the first
after 17th August. If both of them correct, then schedule of DPCO
when is Sachin’s Birthday (a) Rifampicin (b) Paracetamol
D

(a) 19 (b) 22 (c) Aspirin (d) Vitamin C

(c) 21 (d) 20 14. A local anaesthetic agent suitable only for
G

7. Which one of the following is NOT a Sexually injection is

Transmitted Disease (STD) (a) Tetracaine (b) Benzocaine
(a) Gonorrhea (b) Syphilis (c) Dibucaine (d) Procaine
(c) Chancroid (d) Hepatitis 15. In a person infected with HBV, the first
8. In an autoclave, sterilization by moist heat is virological marker detectable in serum is
carried out at (a) HBsAg (b) HBcAg
(a) 160°C for 1 hour (c) HBeAg (d) Anti-HBs
(b) 180°C for 30 minutes

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 431 MPSC DRUG INSPECTOR -2008
132. If in the examination hall, you find that the CH3 CH3
question paper is too tough to be answered and
satisfactorily by you, the best thing to do for you (b)
CH3 CH3
is to
C2H5 C2H5
(a) Tell the examiner that the questions are out of
course (c) and
(b) Provoke the candidates to walk out of the
examination hall C 2H5 CHO

F
(c) Try to know something from your neighbor (d) and
(d) Try to solve the questions as much as you know

PD
with a cool head 141. HIV infection predominate in India is
133. Schedule V of D and C Act gives the standards for (a) HIV 1a (b) HIV 1b
(a) Patent and proprietary medicines containing (c) HIV 1c (d) HIV 1e
vitamins 142. Which of the following is NOT a type of industrial
(b) Cosmetic preparations Intellectual Property
(c) Disinfectant fluids (a) Patents (b) Trademarks
(d) Contraceptives (c) Copyright (d) Industrial Designs

E
134. Chargaff ’s rule of base equivalence for DNA 143. Find out which of the alternative indicates the
states that correct relationship between the given words:
(a) A + T = G
(c) A + C = T + G
(b) T + G = T + C
(d) C + A = D + E
PL Triangle four sided figure square

135. Choose the one which is different from the rest

three (a) (b)
(a) 7 (b) 15
M
(c) 31 (d) 57
136. Which letter will replace the question mark (?)
JLNPRT?
SA

(c) (d)
(a) S (b) U
(c) V (d) W 144. Which of the following does NOT belong to 5-
137. Which of the following pollutants produces alpha series
pulmonary oedema and death (a) Androgens (b) Estrogens
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Progesterone (d) Bile acids
(c) Sulfur dioxide (d) Ozone
C

145. Baker’s yeast is the common name for

138. Multiple, superficial grouped erosions over (a) Bacillus subtilis
genitals are due to (b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
D

(a) Chancroid (b) Syphilis (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(c) Condyloma acuminate (d) Herpes genitalis (d) Candida albicans
139. Vitamin K is necessary for 146. DHO (District Health Officer) is responsible for
G

(a) Prevention of rickets enforcement of one of the following

(b) Formation of prothrombin (a) NAMP - National Anti-malaria Programme
(c) Prevention of night blindness (b) NLEP - National Leprosy Eradication
(d) Formation of DNA Programme
140. Which of the following pair indicates isomers (c) NMHP - National Mental Health Programme
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH3 (d) NWSS - National Water Supply and Sanitation

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G
D
C
SA
M
PL
E
PD
F
G
D
C
SA
M
PL
E
PD
F
GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 433 MODEL PAPER -1

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1. In preformulation study, which technique is (b) Cetyl and stearyl alcohol
used to determine the atomic and molecular (c) Only Boric acid

PD
structure of a crystal (d) Undecylenate
(a) Differential Scanning calorimetry 7. According to Schedule P, the life period of
(b) Fourier transform infrared Insulin injection is
(c) Counter current chromatography (a) 24 months (b) 12 months
(d) X-Ray Diffraction (c) 18 months (d) 6 months
2. Which of the following parenteral container 8. One of the following is not a qualification

E
material shows the highest Gas permeation
criterion for government analyst
(a) Polypropylene (b) Polystyrene
(a) Associateship diploma of the Institution of
(c) Polyisoprene (d) Neoprene PL Chemists (India) and 3 year’s experience
3. Match the method of sterilization with their
(b) A post graduate in medicine or science or
biological indicator
pharmacy with 3 year’s experience
Method of Biological
(c) A graduate in medicine or science or pharmacy
Sterilization indicator
or pharmaceutical sciences with 5 year’s
[P] Dry heat I. Bacillus pumilus
M
[Q] Moist heat II. Bacillus subtilis experience
var niger (d) A diploma holder in pharmacy with 7 year’s
[R] Filtration III. Pseudomonas experience
SA

diminuta 9. Select the correct statement regarding

[S] UV radiation IV. Bacillus Kinematic viscosity
stearothermophilus (P) The relative increase in the viscosity of
(a) [P]-[II], [Q]-[IV], [R]-[I], [S]-[III] the dispersion over that of the solvent
(b) [P]-[II], [Q]-[IV], [R]-[III], [S]-[I] alone
(c) [P]-[II], [Q]-[I], [R]-[III], [S]-[IV] (Q) Viscosity divided by the density of the
C

(d) [P]-[IV], [Q]-[II], [R]-[I], [S]-[III] liquid

4. A synthetic sweetening agent which is
(R) Unit is stokes and centistokes
approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose
(S) Unit is poise
D

(a) Saccharin (b) Aspartame

Choose the correct combination
(c) Cyclamate (d) Sorbitol
(a) P, Q and S are correct but R is incorrect
5. Which of the following surfactant are mostly
G

(b) P and R are correct but Q and S are incorrect

used as principle surfactant because of their
(c) Q and R are correct but P and S are incorrect
superior foaming properties and low cost
(d) All P, Q, R and S are correct
(a) Non-anionic (b) Cationic
(c) Anionic (d) Amphoteric 10. When one molecule with a permanent dipole
6. Which of the following compound is repels another molecule’s electrons are
prohibited in preparation of baby powder (a) Van Der Waals force (b) Keesom force
(a) Boric acid and zinc stearate (c) London force (d) Debye force

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 440 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. Which of the following model of machine is 6. Which detector is used in gas chromatography
used for capsule dedusting and polishing for halogen containing compounds specifically

PD
(a) Erweka KEA (b) Rotosort (a) Katharometer
(c) Zanasi (d) Osaka (b) Electron capture detector
2. For the manufacture of aerosol containers, (c) Flame ionization detector
materials must withstand pressures as high as (d) Thermal conductivity detector
(a) 130 to 150 psig at 130°F 7. Which one is di phenyl butyl piperidine
(b) 140 to 180 psig at 130°F derivative atypical antipsychotic agent

E
(c) 140 to 170 psig at 120°F (a) Molindone (b) Haloperidol
(d) 120 to 140 psig at 120°F (c) Pimozide (d) Thioridazine
3. Study the following statements PL 8. Which test is used to used only with containers
[P] Fixatives in perfumes decrease rate of that have been exposed to sulfur dioxide fumes
evaporation under controlled humidity conditions
[Q] Astringent is main ingredient in (a) Pyrogen test (b) Water Attack test
(c) Bubble-point test (d) Leak test
antiperspirant
9. The Franz diffusion cell which is used for the
[R] Melanin protects breakdown of bones
M
evaluation of transdermal drug delivery
[S] Hard water contains a lot of calcium and
systems consists of
potassium salt
(a) 1 chamber (b) 2 chamber
Choose the CORRECT combination of statements
SA

(c) 3 chamber (d) None of these

(a) [P] and [Q] are correct
10. Listed below are the chemical tests used to
(b) [R] and [S] are correct
identify some groups of phytoconstituents.
(c) [P] and [S] are correct
Identify the test for the detection of the purine
(d) [Q] and [R] are correct
alkaloids
4. What is the IP specification for solubility of (a) Keller-Kiliani Test (b) Murexide Test
slightly soluble compounds (c) Shinoda Test (d) Vitali-Morin Test
C

(a) 1 part in 10-30 parts of solvent 11. IVIVC utilizes the principles of a single point
(b) 1 part in 30-100 parts of solvent correlation
(c) 1 part in 100-1000 parts of solvent
D

(a) Level A (b) Level B

(d) 1 part in 1-10 parts of solvent (c) Level C (d) Level D
5. Which of the following is an example of Cross 12. If the given drug is absorbed by passive
conjugation
G

diffusion what will be its absorption kinetics

(a) Zero order (b) First order
(c) Second order (d) Pseudo-zero order
(a) (b)
13. What will be the AUC value of lidocaine if the
administered dose is 0.2 g and the total body
clearance is 45 L/h
(c) (d) (a) 9000 h.mg/L (b) 9.00 h.mg/L
(c) 0.0044 h.mg/L (d) 4.44 h.mg/L

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 445 MODEL PAPER -2
71. Mayer’s test does NOT give positive result with (a) Chloride, Silver nitrate
(a) Areca nut (b) Colophony (b) Barium sulphate, Dil. Hydrochloric acid
(c) Opium (d) Belladonna (c) Thioglycolic acid, Citric acid
72. Aldosterone antagonists are NOT useful in the (d) Iron, Hydrogen sulphide
treatment of 81. A woman introduces a man as the son of the
(a) Hypertension brother of her mother. How is the man related
(b) Congestive heart failure to the woman
(c) Hirsutism (a) Nephew (b) Son

F
(d) Gynaecomastia (c) Cousin (d) Uncle
73. Vigabatrin is a GABA analogue that potentiates 82. Which of the following are physical devices of
action of GABA in the brain because it a computer

PD
(a) Binds to GABA receptor and acts as agonist (a) Hardware (b) Software
(b) Inhibits GABA transaminase (c) System Software (d) Package
(c) Blocks NMDA receptor via the glycine binding 83. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to
site the face with number 4
(d) Inhibits neuronal reuptake of GABA from
synapses

E
74. Quinine differs from cinchonidine in its
structure by having
(a) One Hydroxyl group (b) One Methoxy group
(c) One Methyl group
75. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPglucose)
PL
(d) One Epoxide group (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2/3
84. Select the most appropriate Antonym of Modest
with the alcoholic or phenolic group of a (a) Unhappy (b) Conceited
second compound. Such glycosides, sometimes (c) Sullen (d) Glum
M
called 85. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, what will be the 8th
(a) C-glycosides (b) S-glycosides term
(c) O-glycosides (d) N-glycosides (a) 4370 (b) 4374
SA

76. Bacillus subtilis is used in assay of which (c) 7443 (d) 7434
antibiotics 86. In the following question, select the related
(a) Penicillin (b) Cephalosporin word from the given alternatives
(c) Vancomycin (d) Streptomycin Player: Team : : Minister: ?
77. Head quarter of Bureau of Indian Standard (a) Army (b) Solar System
(BIS) is situated in (c) Council (d) Crowd
C

(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai 87. Who has addressed the India-Sri Lanka
(c) Mumbai (d) New Delhi Business Summit
78. Kjeldahl analysis is an acid–base titrimetric (a) Piyush Goyal (b) Nirmala Sitharaman
D

method for determining the amount of _________ (c) Rajnath Singh (d) S Jaishankar
in organic compounds 88. Where is located ‘Indian Diamond Institute’ in
(a) Water (b) Carbon India
G

(c) Nitrogen (d) Sulphur (a) Rajkot (b) Surat

79. In IR spectra, C-H stretching of aldehyde at (c) Ahmedabad (d) Vadodara
(a) 2850-2750 cm-1 (b) 1750-1725 cm-1 89. In a certain code ‘CALANDER’ is written as
-1
(c) 2250-2150 cm (d) 2100 cm-1 ‘CLANAEDR’ how ‘CIRCULAR’ is written in that
80. Limit test of iron based on reaction iron code
Interact with _________________ in the presence of (a) CRICUALR (b) ICCRLURA
___________ and ammoniacal alkaline solution (c) CIRUCLAR (d) CRIUCALR

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 447 MODEL PAPER -3

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1. Under the Drugs Prices Control Order 2013, (a) 10-2 to 10-4 cm (b) 1010 to 1020 cm
Maximum retail price of scheduled formulation (c) 10-6 to 10-10 cm (d) None of these

PD
is calculated by 7. A high level of personal hygiene should be
(a) Ceiling price + Local taxes followed and observed by all those concerned
(b) Retail price + Local taxes with processes
(c) Average price + Local taxes (a) Manufacturing (b) Transporting
(d) Minimum price + Local taxes (c) Warehousing (d) None of these
2. Which of the following statements about lispro- 8. Ivermectin is used for the treatment of

E
insulin are true (a) Filariasis
(P) Action is faster and short in duration than (b) Ascariasis
regular insulin PL (c) Taeniasis
(Q) It is given 15 minutes prior to meal (d) Hookworm infestation
(R) Source is lamb 9. Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family
(S) Action is faster and of longer duration than (a) Scrophulariaceae (b) Leguminosae
regular insulin (c) Polygonaceae (d) Rubiaceae
(a) P and Q are true R and S are false 10. Which of the following causes misreading of
M
(b) P and S are true Q and R are false m-RNA code and affect permeability
(c) P is true Q, R and S are false (a) Vancomycin (b) Amphotericin B
(d) P and R are true Q and S are false (c) Aminoglycosides (d) Erythromycin
SA

3. In Gilles de la Tourette’s syndrome which drug

11. Which drug probably acts by inhibiting influx
is used
of Ca2+ from endolymph into the vestibular
(a) Halothane (b) Haloperidol
sensory cells which mediates labyrinthine
(c) Sulpiride (d) Clozapine
reflexes
4. In State Pharmacy Council all following are
(a) Meclizine (b) Doxylamine
ex-officio members, EXCEPT
(c) Prochlorperazine (d) Cinnarizine
C

(a) President of India

12. Match the parts of tablet punching machines
(b) Chief Administrator Medical Officer of State
with their corresponding functions
(c) The Officer in Charge of Drug Control
PART FUNCTION
D

Organization
P. Punches I. Guide the movement of
(d) Government Analyst
the punches
5. Zingiber officinale consist the chemical
Q. Camtrack II. Hold upper and lower
G

constituents
(a) -Phellandrene, Carvone, Limonene punches
(b) -Phellandrene, Camphene, Cineole, Borneol R. Turrets III. Used for the
compression of
(c) Quercetin, Camphene
granules with die
(d) Eugenol, Ester
S. Die table IV. Portion holding the die
6. X-ray diffraction (XRD) is a technique where
(a) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV (b) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
compounds diffract (scatter) the X-rays of
(c) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV (d) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
wavelength ranging from

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 454 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY

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1. The sample taken by the drug inspector for the 6. Regarding the hard gelatin capsule, which of
purpose of test or analysis is sent to the the following statements are TRUE

PD
government analyst by registered post or by (a) Moisture content of capsule shell ranged
hand in a sealed packet with a memorandum in between 6% and 10%
………. addressed to the government analyst (b) Capsules should be used for highly efflorescent
(a) Form 18 (b) Form 1 or deliquescent materials
(c) Form 2 (d) Form 16 (c) Thickness of the capsule wall is controlled by
2. Acid-fast organism is seen in the sputum of a the viscosity of the gelatin solution and the

E
48 yrs old alcoholic man. A test to confirm speed and time of dipping
whether he needs long- term multidrug therapy (d) Hard gelatin capsule shells are prepared using a
for tuberculosis is
(a) Chest X-rays
(b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the sputum
PL 7.
polymerization process
Regarding emulsions, which of the following
statements are TRUE
(c) Sputum cytology (a) Multiple emulsions are more stable than
(d) Mycobacterial cultures of the sputum primary emulsions
M
3. The dissolution rate of drugs from tablets may (b) Water in oil emulsions is commonly
be increased by administered orally
(a) Increasing the compression stress during (c) Oil in water emulsions is stable following
SA

tableting dilution with water

(b) Increasing the concentration of lubricant (d) Dispersed globules of the internal phase do not
(c) Increasing the concentration of disintegrant possess a zeta potential
(d) Film-coating tablets with ethyl cellulose 8. Schedule J of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and
4. All new prescription only medicines must be Rules gives
issued with a marketing authorization from the (a) List of substances that are required to be used
C

MHRA before they can only under medical supervision

(a) Undergo phase I clinical trials (b) List of drugs that are sold by retail only on
(b) Undergo phase III clinical trials prescription by an RMP
D

(c) Be advertised to the public (c) List of diseases or ailments which a drug may
(d) Be advertised to prescribers not claim to cure
5. Which of the following is INCORRECT match of
G

(d) None of these

excipients are employed in tablets for the stated 9. The following are manufacturing facilities
reasons required for production of solid dosage forms
(a) Lactose - as a diluent EXCEPT
(b) Sucrose - as a binder (a) Material handling
(c) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose - as an (b) Chemical weighing
enteric coating (c) Tablet blending and granulation
(d) Polyethylene glycol - as a lubricant (d) Sterile filling material

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 459 MODEL PAPER -4
63. Calculate the absorption maximum for the (a) β - cell, It increases the action of insulin
following compound (b) - cell, It opposes the action of insulin
(c) β - cell, It decreases the action of insulin
COOH (d)  - cell, It works as agonist for the action of
insulin
70. Which of the following is a only
immunoglobulin secreted by Seromucinous
Br glands

F
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgG (d) IgM
(a) 245 m (b) 235 m
71. Aortic arch syndrome is also known as
(c) 255 m (d) 275 m

PD
(a) Takayasu’s Arteritis
64. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding UV
(b) Wegener’s Granulomatosis
spectroscopy
(c) Kawasaki’s Disease
Statement I: Absorbance v/s Concentration
(d) Raynaud’s Disease
graph used in UV spectroscopy
72. Karyolysis is associated with which one of the
Statement II: Type of sample used in UV
following statements
spectroscopy is liquid and gas sample
(a) Condensation and clumping of nucleus which

E
Choose the CORRECT combination
becomes dark basophilic
(a) Statement – I is TRUE and statement – II is false
(b) Nuclear fragmentation in to small bits dispersed
(b) Statement – I, II both are TRUE PL in the cytoplasm
(c) Statement – I, II both are false
(c) Dissolution of the nucleus
(d) Statement – I is false and statement – II is TRUE
(d) Excessive generation of free radicals
65. Ionization technique MALDI is
73. Select the CORRECT statement about Genetic
(a) Matrix assisted laser desorbed ionization
finger printing
M
(b) Molecule associated laser desorbed ionization
(a) Fusion of sensitized lymphocytes and
(c) Matrix assisted light dependent ionization
myelomas from different sources to produce
(d) Molecule assisted light dependent ionization
continuous antibody-producing cell lines
SA

66. Cyanide poisoning kit contains followings

(b) Technique involved in comparing the DNA
EXCEPT
components of two samples
(a) Sodium nitrite (b) Amyl nitrite
(c) Involves using enzymes and various laboratory
(c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) Sodium thiosulphate
techniques to manipulate and isolate DNA
67. Compound A decomposes to form B and C the
segments of interest
reaction is first order. At 25°C the rate constant
(d) Laboratory technique for rapidly producing
C

for the reaction is 0.450 s–1. What is the half-

(Amplifying) millions to billions of copies of a
life of A at 25°C
specific segment of DNA
(a) 2.54 seconds (b) 3.54 seconds
D

74. Current good manufacturing Practice (CGMP)

(c) 1.54 seconds (d) 0.54 seconds
regulations are established by
68. Name the organs where T- lymphocyte
(a) United State FDA (b) Indian FDA
maturation occurs and where B- lymphocyte
G

(c) WHO (d) All of these

maturation occurs respectively
75. In Kjeldahl method for determination of
(a) Bone marrow and cerebrum
nitrogen in organic compound, the nitrogen in
(b) Spleen and thymus
an organic compound is converted
(c) Thymus and bone marrow
quantitatively to which of the following
(d) Adenoids and lymph vessel
(a) Ammonia (b) Amines
69. Glucagon is secreted by which cell of pancreas
(c) Cyanides (d) None of these
and what is its mechanism of action

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1. Anticoagulant acid citrate injection is required (S) Facilitate inward sodium conductance
to be pyrogen free, because pyrogens are during rapid depolarization

PD
(a) Products causing febrile reaction upon injection Choose the correct combination
(b) Organic catalysts formed in living cells (a) Only P is correct but Q, R, S are incorrect
(c) Antigens contained in bacteria (b) R & S are correct but P & Q are incorrect
(d) Non-specific globulins (c) P & S are correct but Q & R are incorrect
2. Match the followings (d) P, Q, R are correct but S is incorrect
AGENT EXAMPLE 6. Why amines absorb at higher wavelengths in

E
[P] Bulk forming [I] Polyethylene glycol comparison to alcohols
[Q] Stimulant [II] Mineral oil (a) Because oxygen is more electronegative than
[R] Emollient [III] Methyl cellulose PL nitrogen
[S] Hyperosmotic [IV] Castor oil (b) Because nitrogen is more electronegative than
Choose the correct combination oxygen
(a) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (b) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (c) Because nitrogen is more electropositive than
(c) P-III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I (d) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV oxygen
3. For schedule X drug use of human beings,
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(d) Because oxygen is more electropositive than
special labelling requirement is nitrogen
(a) Symbol X given in red 7. As per D & C Act, the label for ophthalmic
(b) Symbol N in red displayed on left top corner of
SA

ointments should bear the warning

the label (a) If irritation persists or increases discontinue the
(c) Symbol N displayed on the left top corner of
use and consult the physician
the label
(b) To be sold by retail on the prescription of an
(d) Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the
RMP
label
(c) Do not apply and drive
4. Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT) is antioxidant,
C

(d) Shake well before use

it acts by
8. Match the chemical name with their brand
(a) Gets preferentially oxidized in place of drug
name
(b) Blocks the oxidative reaction chain
D

CHEMICAL NAME BRAND NAME

(c) Increases the effectiveness of antioxidant
[P] Colloidal silica [I] Sta Rx 1500
(d) Forms complex with catalyst responsible for
[Q] Microcrystalline [II] Avicel
G

oxidation
cellulose
5. Read the properties of the class IA -
[R] Directly compressible [III] Emcocel
antiarrhythmic drugs
(P) Reduce automaticity of his-Purkinje fibers starch
[S] Cellulose [IV] Cab-O-Si
(Q) Decrease the rate of rise and amplitude of Choose the correct combination
phase 0 polarization (a) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (b) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
(R) Prolong P-R and Q-T intervals (c) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III (d) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 469 MODEL PAPER -5
89. If in any code language NATIONAL is written as anticlockwise direction and then another 90°
MZGRLMZO than how is JAIPUR written in that in the same direction. Which direction is he
language facing now
(a) QZRKFI (b) PZRKFI (a) South (b) South-West
(c) QZRIFK (d) QARKFI (c) West (d) South-East
90. If × means ÷, - means ×, ÷ means + and + means 95. Recently, which ministry has launched the “Jal
-, then (3 - 15 ÷ 19) × 8 + 6 = ? hi AMRIT” program to incentivize states/UTs
(a) 8 (b) 4 to promote efficient reuse of water
(c) 2 (d) -1 (a) Ministry of Jal Shakti

F
91. Pointing towards a man is the photograph, lady (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
said “the father of his brother is the only son of (c) Ministry of Urban Development

PD
my mother” How is the man related to lady (d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
(a) Bother (b) Son Change
(c) Cousin (d) Nephew 96. Barnawapara wildlife sanctuary, is located in
92. Choose the correct mirror image from which state
alternatives A, B, C, and D of the Word/figure(X). (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Odisha
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
97. We waited until the plane

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(a) take off (b) took off
X (c) see off (d) take over

(a) (b)
PL 98. The girl, along with her friends
(a) are going to a party to night
(b) would be going to a party to night
(c) gone to a party to night
(c) (d) (d) is going to a party to night
M
93. Karan was born on Saturday 22nd March 1982. 99.
On what day of the week was he 14 years 7 (a) rn~Hko (b) rRle
months and 8 days of age (c) ns”kt (d) fons”kt
SA

(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday 100.

(c) Wednesday (d) Monday (a) ikod (b) lnu
94. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in the (c) “kkyk (d) fudsru
clockwise direction, then 180° in the

ANSWER KEY
C

1-a 2-c 3-b 4-b 5-d 6-a 7-a 8-c 9-a 10-b
D

11-b 12-a 13-a 14-c 15-b 16-a 17-b 18-d 19-a 20-d
21-b 22-b 23-a 24-d 25-b 26-b 27-b 28-b 29-a 30-c
31-d 32-c 33-b 34-b 35-c 36-d 37-d 38-a 39-b 40-d
G

41-d 42-b 43-a 44-a 45-d 46-d 47-c 48-a 49-d 50-b
51-b 52-a 53-a 54-c 55-a 56-c 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-b
61-c 62-d 63-a 64-d 65-c 66-d 67-b 68-c 69-c 70-d
71-c 72-d 73-c 74-d 75-b 76-a 77-a 78-c 79-a 80-b
81-d 82-c 83-d 84-b 85-c 86-c 87-b 88-b 89-a 90-c
91-d 92-c 93-c 94-b 95-b 96-d 97-b 98-d 99-b 100-a

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1. In multi-station punching machine, the upper (a) Basic drugs (b) Acidic drugs
as well as lower punches are connected by (c) Neutral drugs (d) Non-ionic drugs

PD
(a) Cams (b) Turrets 10. The area under the serum concentration time
(c) Wire meshes (d) Revolving belts curve represents the
2. Pasteur effect denotes (a) Biological half-life of the drug
(a) Presence of oxygen suppressing alcohol and (b) Amount of drug that is cleared by kidneys
yeast formation (c) Amount of drug absorbed
(b) Presence of excess glucose suppressing alcohol (d) Amount of drug excreted in the urine

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and yeast production 11. Identify the reagents used in Thalleoquin test
(c) Metal ions suppressing alcohol and yeast (a) Glacial acetic acid + Water
fermentation PL (b) Bromine water + Conc. NH3
(d) High inoculum level stimulating fermentation (c) Bromine water + Dil. NH3
3. The synonyms for Cresol with soap solution is (d) Mercuric chloride + Alcohol
(a) Lysol’s solution (b) Ringer’s solution 12. Which ash value parameter is NOT used in
(c) Dakin’s solution (d) Lugol’s solution Quality control of crude drugs
4. Antifungal activity of Flucytosine is because of
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(a) Water insoluble (b) Acid insoluble
(a) Binding to ergosterol (c) Total ash (d) Water soluble
(b) Conversion to 5-flurouracil 13. The time difference between drug
(c) Inhibition of sterol 14--demethylase
SA

administration and start of absorption is called

(d) Inhibition of ergosterol biosynthesis as
5. Minimum area of the shop to obtain a wholesale
(a) Time lag (b) Absorption phase
license to sell and stock drugs shall be
(c) Residual curve (d) Onset of time
(a) Five square meters (b) Ten square meters
14. A second order reaction follows pseudo-first
(c) Fifteen square meters (d) Twenty square meters
order reaction, when the concentration of
6. The distribution of globules is NOT uniform in
C

(a) Two reactants are high

an emulsion. This stage is termed as
(b) Two reactants are low
(a) Breaking (b) Caking
(c) One reactant is far higher than the other reactant
(c) Coalescence (d) Creaming
D

(d) Two reactants are equal

7. Which apparatus is used to determine the
15. Which of the following expression is CORRECT
dissolution of suppositories
for the determination of shelf life for a first
G

(a) Basket type (b) Wire mesh basket

order decomposition
(c) Paddle type (d) Cylinder type
(a) t1/2 = 0.105/k (b) t90 = 0.693/k
8. Weight variation limits as per IP for the tablet
(c) t1/2 = 0.693/k (d) t90 = 0.105/k
weight is more than 80 mg through 250 mg
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% 16. Dipole-dipole force is the interaction between
(c) 5% (d) 5% pi-electron orbitals in systems is
9. Which of the following category of drugs will (a) Orbital Overlap (b) Ion–Ion Interactions
have small apparent volume of distribution (c) Hydrogen Bonds (d) Van der Waals Forces

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1. The containers used to package drugs may (d) Absolute Dose Reaction
consist of several components and/or be 6. Which of the following properties is desirable

PD
composed of several materials. The release of in a pharmaceutic suspension
an ingredient from packaging components into I. Caking II. Pseudoplastic flow
the actual product is best described by the term III. Thixotropy
(a) Adsorption (a) I only (b) III only
(b) Absorption (c) I and II only (d) II and III only
(c) Leaching 7. Drugs Inspector is appointed as per the
(d) Permeation and porosity provisions of

E
2. Following reagents are used in the Vitali -Morin (a) Pharmacy Act 1948
test and gives which colour (b) Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1945
(a) Nitric acid + 3% NaOH in methanol and gives
purple colour
(b) Fuming nitric acid + 3% KCl in methanol and
PL (c) Drugs Inspector Act 1940
(d) NDPS Act 1985
8. The upper critical solution temperature is
gives yellow colour defined as
(c) Fuming nitric acid + 1% KCl in ethanol and gives (a) The maximum temperature at which two
M
yellow colour components will remain immiscible as two
(d) Fuming nitric acid + 3% KOH in methanol and distinct liquids
gives violet colour (b) The minimum temperature at which two
3. Millard reaction in tablet formulation occurs components will remain immiscible as two
SA

due to which of the following reason distinct liquids

(a) Lactose reacts with amino group of drugs in (c) The maximum temperature at which two
absence of metal stearate components remain miscible
(b) Lactose reacts with amino group of drugs in (d) The minimum temperature at which two
presence of metal stearate components remain miscible
(c) MCC reacts with basic group of drug protein 9. The sugar moiety of Digitalis purpurea is
C

(d) Croscarmellose reacts with acidic group of (a) 2, 6-deoxy allose (b) 2, 6-deoxy glucose
drugs (c) 2, 6-deoxy Rhamnose (d) 2, 6-deoxy galactose
4. Prohibit advertisements of drugs which makes 10. With regard to clinical trials of new drugs, which
D

false claim for the drug or which gives the of the following is most CORRECT
misleading information about the drug (a) Phase I involves the study of a small number of
(a) Drugs and Magic Remedy (Objectionable normal volunteers by highly trained clinical
G

advertisements) Act, 1954 pharmacologists

(b) Medicinal and Toilet Preparations Act,1955 (b) Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a
(c) The Pharmacy Act, 1948 large number of patients (100-5000) who have
(d) Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 the disease to be treated
5. In pharmacovigilance the term ADR stands for (c) Phase III involves the determination of the
(a) Adverse Drug Reaction drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious
(b) Adverse Dose Reaction induction of toxicity
(c) Absolute Drug Reaction (d) Chemical antagonist

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 483 MODEL PAPER -7
73. All of the following are actions of muscarinic (c) Debt (d) Tax
antagonists choose the INCORRECT one 82. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman
(a) Decreases gastric secretion said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my
(b) Prolongs A-V conduction grandfather.” How is the woman related to the
(c) Decreases tracheobronchial secretions man in the photograph
(d) Causes contraction of radial muscle of iris (a) Mother (b) Aunt
74. In which of the following type of paper, (c) Sister (d) Daughter
chromatography does the mobile phase move 83. Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there

F
horizontally over a circular sheet of paper he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3
(a) Ascending paper chromatography km towards East. How far and in which

PD
(b) Descending paper chromatography direction is he with reference to his starting
(c) Radial paper chromatography point
(d) Ascending – descending chromatography (a) 3 km West (b) 7 km West
75. Pilocarpine nitrate is Assay by which method (c) 7 km East (d) 5 km North-East
(a) Acid base titration (b) Non aqueous titration 84. Select from the four alternative diagrams, the
(c) Karl Fischer titration (d) NMR one that best illustrates the relationship among
76. Antiglobulin or Coomb’s test is for the three classes: Pigeons, Birds, Dogs

E
(a) Detection of non-agglutinating antibodies
(Brucellosis) PL (a) (b)
(b) Detection of agglutinating antibodies
(c) Detection of all type of antibodies
(d) Detection of mycoplasma pneumonia
77. Which of the following is a nonselective but (c) (d)
very potent and efficacious bronchodilator that
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is not active by the oral route 85. If the 25th of August in a year is Thursday, the
(a) Aminophylline (b) Cromolyn number of Mondays in that month is
(c) Epinephrine (d) Ipratropium (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
SA

78. Which of the following is true for HPLC detector 86. A team played 40 games in a sea- son and won
(a) Bulk property detector - UV detectors 24 of them. What percent of games played did
(b) Solute property detectors - Refractive index the team win
detectors (a) 70% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 35%
(c) Bulk property detector - Fluorescence 87. A coconut merchant finds that the cost price of
Detectors 2750 coconuts is the same as the selling price
C

(d) Solute property detectors - UV detectors of 2500 coconuts. His loss or gain will be
79. In Alkaline Picrate method creatinine reacts (a) 5% (b) 10% gain
(c) 15% loss (d) 20% gain
D

with alkaline picrate to form which colour

complex 88. What must be added to each term of the ratio 2:
(a) Violet-blue (b) Pink-purple 5 so that it may equal to 5:6
G

(c) Yellowish-green (d) Orange-red (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 65 (d) 78

80. Which of the following combination is 89. 15 men take 20 days to complete a job working
important in asthma 8 hours a day. The number of hours a day
(a) IgE, neutrophils (b) IgE, mast cells should 20 men take to complete the job in 12
(c) IgG, neutrophils (d) IgG, mast cells days
81. Import : Export : : Expenditure : ? (a) 5 hours (b) 10 hours
(a) Deficit (b) Revenue (c) 15 hours (d) 18 hours

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1. Which statement is CORRECT about mechanism (b) The electrons in the bond are unequally shared
of antibacterial action of Cephalosporins between the atoms

PD
involves (c) The electron density around each atom is equal
(a) Inhibition of the synthesis of precursors of in the bond
peptidoglycan (d) There is a significant development of charge
(b) Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol on one of the atoms
(c) Inhibition of transpeptidation reaction 6. Read the following statements regarding
(d) Inhibition of beta-lactamase Halothane

E
2. What is the primary purpose of conducting a [P] It has primarily been used clinically as an
melting point determination in pharmaceutical inhalational anesthetic
analysis PL [Q] It potentiates competitive neuromuscular
(a) To assess the purity of the compound blockers
(b) To determine the molecular weight of the [R] Causes respiratory depression
compound [S] Halothane is in under local anesthetic drug
(c) To evaluate the solubility of the compound Choose the correct combination
M
(d) To study the stability of the compound (a) [P], [Q], [R] & [S] all are correct
3. Cosmetic preparations containing which of the (b) [R] is correct but [P], [Q] & [S] are incorrect
following heavy metals is prohibited from (c) [Q] is incorrect but [P], [R] & [S] are correct
SA

import (d) [P], [Q] & [R], are correct but [S] is incorrect
(a) More than 2 ppm of arsenic 7. In quantitative analysis using UV-Visible
(b) More than, 20 ppm of lead spectrophotometry, what is the primary factor
(c) More than 100 ppm of antimony that can lead to deviations from Beer’s Law
(d) All of these (a) High concentrations of the analyte
4. Read the statements (b) The use of a monochromatic light source
C

Statement I: Strong acid and strong base are (c) Constant temperature during the analysis
(d) Calibration with a single standard solution
ionized in all media, whatever it is acid or base
8. Which of the following statements are TRUE for
Statement II: Weak acids are ionized in the
D

ginseng root
alkaline medium
[PI It is among the most traded plant material
Choose the correct combination
of Brazil
G

(a) Statement I is true but statement II is false

(b) Statement II is true but statement I is false [Q] It is obtained from Panax ginseng and
(c) Statement I and II both are false Panax quinquefolium
(d) Statement I and II both are true [R] It is obtained from young plants of six
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE months to one year age
about a nonpolar bond [S] It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol
(a) The bond is formed between atoms with (a) P and Q (b) R and S
significantly different electronegativity (c) Q and R (d) Q and S

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AIM DRUG INSPECTOR 492 GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY
84. Statements: (b) If only argument II is strong
All roses are flowers (c) If both I and II are strong
Some flowers are red (d) If neither I nor II is strong
Conclusion: 91. In programming, what does ‘looping’ refer to
I. Some roses are red (a) Repeating a set of instructions
II. All red things are flowers (b) Storing data
(a) Only conclusion I follows (c) Comparing values
(b) Only conclusion II follows (d) Creating functions

F
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow 92. Which of the following is a type of malware
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (a) Firewall (b) Antivirus
85. A person is facing east and turns 90 degrees to (c) Trojan horse (d) Router

PD
the right. Then he turns 180 degrees to his left. 93. Fill in the blank: He was very _____ about his
Which direction is he facing now achievements
(a) North (b) South (a) Modest (b) Arrogant
(c) West (d) East (c) Humble (d) Proud
86. Bird is to Fly as Fish is to 94. What is the antonym of the word “diligent”
(a) Swim (b) Walk (a) Hardworking (b) Lazy

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(c) Crawl (d) Dive (c) Attentive (d) Careful
87. DAZE is written as 41265 in a certain code. How 95. What is the theme of World Environment Day
will BOY be written in the same code PL 2024
(a) 16751 (b) 28662 (a) Beat Plastic Pollution
(c) 21525 (d) 41842 (b) Restore Our Earth
88. Which of the following diagrams correctly (c) Our Land, Our Future
represents the relationship between the (d) Time for Nature
following classes 96. Who won the 2024 FIFA U-20 Women’s World
M
Potato, Ladyfinger, Vegetables Cup
(a) USA (b) Brazil
(c) North Korea (d) Germany
SA

(a) (b) 97. Who is the current Secretary-General of the

United Nations as of 2024
(a) Ban Ki-moon
(b) Antonio Guterres
(b) (d)
(c) Kofi Annan
89. Identify the CORRECT synonym of the (d) Boutros Boutros-Ghali
C

underlined word 98. Which city hosted the 2024 Eurovision Song
He’s not very optimistic about the outcome of Contest
(a) London (b) Malmo
D

the interview
(a) Nervous (b) Quiet (c) Paris (d) Berlin
(c) Lively (d) Hopeful 99. Which country hosted the 2024 Summer
G

90. Statement: Olympics

Should eating paan at public places be made (a) Japan (b) France
punishable (c) China (d) Brazil
Argument: 100. The famous “Dharasana Satyagraha” was
I. Yes, people eat paan and spit and makes aimed at protesting against which of the
public places dirty following
II. No, Indians love paan (a) British tax on salt (b) Rowlatt Act
(a) If only I argument is strong (c) Partition of Bengal (d) Simon Commission

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1. Brand name of carboxymethy cellulose 7. Select the CORRECT statement regarding drug-
sodium is binding sites on human serum albumin

PD
(a) Avicel (b) Nymcel [P] Site I is also known as Tamoxifen binding
(c) Cellosize (d) Pharmasorb site
2. Commercially available AQUAPHOR and [Q] Site II is also known as Diazepam binding
POLYSORB is site
(a) Absorption bases [R] Site III is also known as Digitoxin binding
(b) Oleaginous bases site

E
[S] Site IV is also known as Warfarin binding
(c) Water removable base
site
(d) Water soluble base
Choose the CORRECT combination
3. The optimum moisture content of capsule shell PL (a) P, Q and S are correct but R is incorrect
ranged is
(b) P and R are correct but Q and S are incorrect
(a) 10% (b) 12-15%
(c) Q and R are correct but P and S are incorrect
(c) 20% (d) 18% (d) All P, Q, R and S are correct
4. Select the CORRECT statement regarding 8. The characteristic toxicity of Doxorubicin is
M
Deflocculated suspension (a) Kidney damage (b) Liver damage
[P] Suspending agent settles down rapidly (c) Cardiomyopathy (d) Pulmonary fibrosis
[Q] Particles settles as a separately due to low 9. BAL (British Anti-Lewisite) is used to counter
SA

particle size the toxic effects of

[R] Suspending agent remains suspended for (a) Atropine (b) Mercury
long time (c) Morphine (d) Barbiturates
[S] Exhibits plastic or pseudoplastic flow 10. Spironolactone is contraindicated with which
Choose the CORRECT one of the following drugs
(a) P, Q and S are correct but R is incorrect (a) Enalapril (b) Atenolol
(c) Verapamil (d) Chlorothiazide
C

(b) Q and R are correct but P and S are incorrect

(c) Q and R are incorrect but P and S are correct 11. Which of the following electromagnetic
(d) All P, Q, R and S are correct radiation spectrum are used in ESR
spectroscopy
D

5. Select the equation that gives the rate of drug

dissolution from a tablet (a) Infra-red spectrum (b) UV spectrum
(c) Microwave (d) X-ray spectrum
(a) Fick’s equation
G

12. Which of the following drugs can be used to

(b) Henderson Hasselbalch equation
treat both constipation and diarrhea
(c) Noyes Whitney Equation
(a) Kaopectate (b) Parepectolin
(d) Michaelis Menten equation
(c) Bisacodyl (d) Polycarbophil
6. Which class of antifungal drugs work by
13. The  and  cyclic forms of D- glucose are
inhibiting squalene epoxidase known as
(a) Polyenes (b) Echinocandins (a) Anomers (b) Epimers
(c) Allylamines (d) None of these (c) Enantiomers (d) Tautomerization

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 501 MODEL PAPER -10

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1. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding pKa (P) Mafenide not a typical sulfonamide,
determination because a — CH2 —bridge separates the

PD
[P] The Kozeny Carman equation provides an benzene ring and the amino group
estimate of the ionized and unionized drug (Q) Silver sulfadiazine used topically as 1%
concentration at a particular pH cream, it is active against a large number
[Q] The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation of bacteria and fungi, even those resistant
provides an estimate of the ionized and to other sulfonamides, e.g. Pseudomonas
(R) Sulfamethoxazole has slowest duration of
unionized drug concentration at a

E
action; t½ in adults averages 1 hours
particular pH
(S) Sulfacetamide is a highly soluble
[R] For basic compound
PL compound used in the treatment of TB
[ionizeddrug] Choose the CORRECT combination
pH = pKa + log
[un - ionizeddrug] (a) R, S are true but P, Q are false
[S] For acidic compound (b) P, S are true but Q, R are false
[Un - ionizeddrug] (c) Q is true but P, R are false
pH = pKa + log (d) P, Q are true but R, S is false
[ionizeddrug]
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5. Terfenadine is a second generation H 1
Choose the CORRECT combination antagonist which does not have anti-
(a) Q, R and S are correct but P is incorrect cholinergic, anti-adrenergic and anti-
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(b) Q and R are correct but P and S are incorrect serotonergic activity due to presence of
(c) R and S are correct but P and Q are incorrect (a) N-phenyl-butanol
(d) All P, Q, R and S are correct (b) Formation of fexofenadine as active metabolite
2. Indicate which of the following statements is (c) Absence of K+ channel blocking activity
TRUE for Oil-soluble surfactants (d) All of these
(a) Have high HLB values 6. A woman needs treatment for an upper
respiratory tract infection. Six years ago, she
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(b) Are hydrophilic

(c) Can be used as emulsifiers to produce water- was found to be hypersensitive to penicillin V.
in-oil emulsions Cultures now reveal a strain of Streptococcus
pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the
D

(d) Are efficient solubilizing agents

following drugs. Which one would be the best
3. In this type incompatibility, the interactions can
choice for the patient
be changed by changing the order of mixing
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(a) Amoxicillin (b) Erythromycin

the solutions in dilute forms
(c) Cefaclor (d) Cyclacillin
(a) Adjusted incompatibility 7. Mechanism of action of calcitonin is
(b) Tolerated incompatibility (a) Inhibits hydroxyapatite crystal formation,
(c) Delayed incompatibility aggregation, and dissolution
(d) All of these (b) Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts
4. Read the statements regarding Sulfonamide (c) Activates bone resorption
based drugs (d) Inhibits macrophages

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GPAT DISCUSSION CENTER : MAKES STUDY EASY 507 MODEL PAPER -10
79. Which of the following plasminogen 89. Which of the following is NOT a conjunction
activator(fibrinolytic) can be given as bolus (a) And (b) On
dose in patients with acute myocardial (c) But (d) None of these
infarction 90. Match the columns
(a) Urokinase (b) Alteplase List I
(c) Reteplase (d) None of these Names of instruments
80. CDSCO work under the Ministry of A. Anemometer
(a) Health and Family Welfare B. Ammeter

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(b) Chemicals and fertilizers C. Tachometer
(c) Science and Technology D. Pyrometer

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(d) Environment control List II
81. 14785 – 358 – 4158 - 9514 The quantities they measure
(a) 755 (b) 825 1. Speed of rotation
(c) 721 (d) 785 2. High temperatures
82. Identify the CORRECT venn diagram for the 3. Wind speed
following 4. Electric current
Building material, Cement, Wood 5. Pressure difference

E
A B C D
(a) (b) (a) 4 3 1 5

(c) (d)
PL (b) 3 4
(c) 3 5
1
2
2
1
(d) 1 4 5 2
83. Calendar of 1992 will repeat in
91. Which of the following is not a vector quantity
(a) 2020 (b) 1998
(a) Speed (b) Velocity
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(c) 2012 (d) 2016
(c) Torque (d) Displacement
84. Fifth generation computers are based on
92. This plasma protein is responsible for blood
(a) Artificial Intelligence
clotting
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(b) Programming Intelligence

(a) Fibrinogen (b) Globulin
(c) System Knowledge
(c) Serum amylase (d) Albumin
(d) VVLSI
93. What is 348 times 265
85. “Landing” is the antonym for
(a) 88740 (b) 89750
(a) Take away (b) Take down
(c) 95700 (d) 92220
(c) Take off (d) Take in
94. Who is the minister of Health and Family
C

86. What is the Theme of world Earth Day in 2024

Welfare in government of India
(a) Save in our planet (b) Planet vs Plastics
(a) Sushma Swaraj (b) Nitin Gadkari
(c) Save Water (d) Save the tree
D

(c) J. P. Nadda (d) Uma Bharti

87. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of
95. The memory sizes in mainframe computers
Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who will be
and advanced technology micro-computer are
second to the left of person opposite to O
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expressed as
(a) Q (b) P
(a) Bytes (b) Kilobytes
(c) E (d) D
(c) Bits (d) Megabytes
88. Three numbers are in the ratio 4:5: 6 and their
96. Which of the following words most nearly
average is 25. The largest number is
means deplete
(a) 42 (b) 36
(a) Decorate (b) Beg
(c) 30 (d) 32
(c) Exhaust (d) Hurry

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