Test 4

Ngày :26/08/2015

Q1: Other factors being equal , an increase in take-off weight will

a)increase lift off speed and decrease stalling speed
b)increase lift off speed and stalling speed remains
c)weight has no effect on take-off speed or lift-off speed
d)increase lift off speed and stalling speed
R d
Q2: How much is the safety margin Airbus recommends when calculating in-flight
landing distance?
a)15%
b)5%
c)20%
d)10%
R a
Q3: How many feet of obstacle clearance does the acceleration height (or altitude)
ensure when accelerating in level flight to greendot after an engine failure?
a)50ft
b)35ft
c)15ft
d)100ft
R b
Q4: What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into
account when calculating the take- off field length required?
a)100% headwind and 100% tailwind
b)50% headwind and 100% tailwind
c)150% headwind and 50% tailwind
d)50% headwind and 150% tailwind
R d
Q5: An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
a)A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
b)An increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
c)A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
d)An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
R a
Q6: Which of the following combinations will produce the best take-off performance
in a normal atmosphere?
a)High altitude, low ambient temperature
b)Low altitude, low ambient temperature
c)High altitude, high ambient temperature
d)Low altitude, high ambient temperature
R b
Q7: What is the effect of an increased flap setting on VDmin (minimum drag speed)?
a)VDmin decreases
b)None
c)VDmin increases
d)VDmin decreases first, but increases at the higher flap settings
R a
Q8: How can you change pressurisation controllers during flight?
a)Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO.
b)None of the above.
c)Cycle the cabin pressurisation MAN V/S CTL switch.
d)Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to AUTO.
R d
Q9: With fuel in the center tank the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO
 and CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), which of the following conditions
cause the center tank fuel pumps to stop?
a)Extension of the slats (after completion of the short test cycle).
b)None of the above.
c)For a short test period after the first Engine Master Switch is selected 'ON, when the
slats are extended.
d)Anytime the slats are extended or an overfill condition is detected in either winq inner
cell.
R a
Q10: The wing tip brakes, once activated:
a)can only be reset on the ground by ground personnel.
b)may be reset in flight.
c)lock the flap selector handle in its current position.
d)None of the above.
R a
Q11: Will the aircraft capture and navigate via the ILS signals if the ILS push button on
the FCU is not pushed?
a)Yes.
b)No.
R a
Q12: How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?
a)Both A and B are correct.
b)When Alpha floor protection is activated.
c)Whenever a takeoff or go-around is initiated.
d)None of the above.
R c
Q13: If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
a)Both A and B are WRONG.
b)By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will
be transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND.
c)By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control
panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
d)Both A and B are correct.
R d
Q14: What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?
a)A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the
masks.
b)It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.
c)Both A and B are correct.
d)None of the above.
R b
Q15: What systems are affected when the guarded red ENGINE PIRE push button is
pushed and released?
a)The master warning and the chime will be cancelled and the AGENT pb's will be armed.
b)All fluids, pneumatics and electrics relating to that engine are shut off.
c)Both A and B.
d)None of the above,
R c
Q16: What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?
a)Thrust and Mach.
b)Variable thrust and fixed speed.
c)Thrust and speed.
d)Mach and speed.
R c
Q17: How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?
a)with the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
b)With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
c)None of the above.
d)A and B.
R a
Q18: What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation?
a)Emergency path lighting only.
b)Right side Dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby
compass light.
c)located on normal circuit breaker panels.
d)Right side dome light, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass
R b
Q19: To make a PA announcement ...
a)depress and hold the PA transmission key push button.
b)use the pedestal mounted handset
c)None of the above.
d)Both A and B are correct.
R d
Q20: What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?
a)When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
b)When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC busses.
c)None of the above.
d)When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power
one fuel pump in each wing.
R d
Q21: Can you reconnect an IDG in flight?
a)Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control.
b)Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is no longer illuminated.
c)None of the above.
d)No.
R d
Q22: Normally how should you call a Flight Attendant?
a)Using the ACP CAB pb.
b)Using an overhead FWD or AFT call push button.
c)Use the P.A. microphone.
d)Selecting the ATTND ADV pb on.
R b
Q23: With the autopilot engaged, either sidestick can be moved freely.
a)True
b)False, moving either sidestick will cause the autopilot(s) to disengage.
c)None of the above.
d)False, only the nonflying pilot's sidestick will freely move.
R b
Q24: In addition to the CRC and red MASTER WARN light, a good engine fire test
display which of the following (AC power available)?
a)Lower ECAM engine page, pedestal mounted red FIRE annunciator, red ENG FIRE push
button and the AGENT SQUIB/DISC lights illuminate.
b)E/WD red 1 12) ENG FIRE warning, lower ECAM engine page, red FIRE annunciator, red
ENG FIRE push button, and AGENT SQUIB/DISC.
c)The CRC and red MASTER WARN light indicate a good engine fire test.
d)All of the above.
R b
Q25: Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by:
a)The zone controller and the SDCU.
b)The aft cargo rotary selector knob.
c)The cargo ventilation controller.
d)All of the above.
R c
Q26: What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
a)The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.
b)The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
c)The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.
d)The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.
R b
Q27: When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:
a)the APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap and
supplies fuel pressure.
b)the APU computer automatically starts the APU.
c)connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system.
d)the APU door opens.
R a
Q28: What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurisation
a)Engine bleed air and recirculated air.
b)Engine bleed air.
c)Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.
d)None of the above.
R c
Q29: Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
a)No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
b)Yes, in all phases-of flight.
c)No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts and single-engine
operations.
d)None of the above.
R a
Q30: During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect
to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?
a)Intermediate
b)Fire.
c)AOpen
d)Closed.
R c
Q31: If both FAC's fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?
a)It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are
selected.
b)Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.
c)It immediately assumes the low speed position.
d)Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.
R a
Q32: 198. When is the SRS active?
a)During a Go Around (after the thrust levers are placed in the TOGA position) up to the
acceleration altitude.
b)At T/O, when TOGA or FLX power is set, SRS is displayed on the FMA and provides
guidance up to the acceleration altitude.
c)Both A and B.
d)None of the above.
R c
Q33: While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and
subsequent return to neutral will command
a)the control surfaces to continue rolling the aircraft until reaching 55 degrees roll angle.
b)a load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for
pitch attitude.
c)control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to
straight and level flight.
d)control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim,and
maintain its current attitude.
R b
Q34: Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank:
a)in flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN.
b)Fuel can never be transferred.
c)only on the ground.
d)in flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN and center tank MODE SEL push
button is selected to MAN.
R c
Q35: How many DMC's are there?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
R d
Q36: Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND?
a)All modes except plan.
b)ROSE NAV mode only.
c)ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
d)ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes.
R a
Q37: Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push
button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct?
a)Engine Gen #1 is supplyinq AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2
through the bus tie contactors.
b)None of the above.
c)External power is supplying all electrical needs.
d)Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power supplies
AC bus #2 .
R d
Q38: Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
a)separate to the right side.
b)separate to the left side.
c)separate on each side of the runway.
d)stagnate on the runway.
R c
Q39: What are the restrictions for crew rest (sleep) on the flight deck?
a)should be no longer than 30 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes
before TOD
b)should be no longer than 45 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 30 minutes
before TOD
c)should be no longer than 30 minutes and should be terminated at leaset 45 minutes
before TOD
R b
Q40: Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type
of precipitation. Which of the following would give the longest holdover time?
a)Freezing fog.
b)Frost.
c)Steady snow.
d)Rain on a cold soaked wing.
R b
Q41: What are the planning minima for alternates for destination and enroute airports
for the different types of approaches?
a)CAT II, III: CAT I minima; CAT I: NPA minima; NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Circling:
Circlining minima
b)Remain no change if the alternates has CAT 3B ILS
c)ILS App: NPA minima; NPA: minima plus 200ft/1000m; Visual APP: Circling minima
R a
Q42: Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the
aeroplane is airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy?
a)The operator.
b)A JAA authorised person.
c)The maintenance supervisor.
d)The commander.
R d
Q43: Who makes up the MMEL?
a)The authority.
b)The manufacturer and it must be approved by the state of certification.
c)The state of registry.
d)The operator.
R b
Q44: An aircraft has a threshold speed of 135kts. Into which ICAO aircraft approach
category is such an aircraft designated?
a)D
b)B
c)C
d)A
R c
Q45: When a rain shower approaches and passes an airfield, the following will
happen:
a)The temperature remains unchanged and dew point drops.
b)The temperature rises and dew point drops.
c)The temperature drops and dew point rises.
d)The temperature rises and dew point remains unchanged.
R c
Q46: How many knots do the pennants and feather correspond to?
a)pennant 100kts, feather 20kts
b)pennant 100kts, feather 10kts
c)pennant 50kts, feather 20kts
d)pennant 50kts, feather 10kts
R d
Q47: Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
a)It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere.
b)It is, by definition, a temperature inversion.
c)It is, by definition, an isothermal layer.
d)It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate.
R a
Q48: Which statement is true?
a)None of the above.
b)Air density generally stays the same as altitude increases.
c)Air density generally decreases as altitude increases.
d)Air density generally increases as altitude increases.
R c
Q49: What does the following line mean "TAF AMD VVNB 161500Z 1606/1624 CNL"?
a)Amended TAF issued at 1500Z and valid from 06 to 24 hour on the 16?
b)The TAF forcast from 06 to 24 hour on the 16 will be cancelled at 1500Z.
c)New TAF issued at 1500Z and valid from 06 to 24 hour on the 16?
d)Amended TAF issued at 1500Z cancelling the previosly issued TAF valid from 06 to 24
hour on the 16?
R a
Q50: In SIGMET chart, what does XXX stand for?
a)Tops or bases are outside the layer of the atmosphere to which chart applies
b)No informaiton is available
c)No cloud below the base or above the top of the layer to which chart applies
R a