CHAPTER 16 – PRACTICE QUIZ

1) What is immunology primarily concerned with?

A. The study of infectious diseases
B. The study of microorganisms
C. The scientific study of the immune system and responses
D. The development of antibiotics

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Immunology is defined as the scientific study of the immune system and its responses.

2) Who introduced the terms “immune” and “immunity”?

A. Edward Jenner
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Emil Behring
D. Elie Metchnikoff

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Louis Pasteur was the first to use the terms "immune" and "immunity".

3) Which discovery marked the formal beginning of immunology in the 1890s?

A. Discovery of antibiotics
B. Discovery of antitoxins and phagocytes
C. Development of the microscope
D. Vaccination against rabies

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The discovery of antibodies by Emil Behring and Kitasato, and of phagocytes by Metchnikoff,
marked the formal beginning of immunology.

4) Which of the following scientists is associated with the discovery of antitoxins?

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Kitasato Shibasaburo
C. Elie Metchnikoff
D. Robert Koch

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kitasato Shibasaburo discovered antitoxins with Emil Behring.

5) Which cell type is primarily involved in phagocytosis?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Red blood cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Platelets
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Phagocytes are white blood cells that engulf and digest pathogens and debris.

6) Which theory of immunity focuses on cellular mechanisms such as phagocytosis?

A. Humoral theory
B. Germ theory
C. Cellular theory
D. Antigen-antibody theory

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cellular theory, proposed by Metchnikoff, emphasizes phagocytosis as the key immune
mechanism.

7) What are antigens?

A. Proteins produced by immune cells
B. Molecules that trigger an immune response
C. Types of white blood cells
D. Chemical signals between cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Antigens are foreign substances that elicit an immune response.

8) Which type of immunity is passed from mother to child through breast milk?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Natural passive immunity is acquired by receiving antibodies from the mother through the
placenta or breast milk.

9) Which type of immunity results from vaccination?

A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Natural active immunity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vaccination stimulates the immune system to produce its own antibodies, an example of
artificial active immunity.

10) What component of the immune system produces antibodies?

A. Macrophages
B. T cells
C. B cells
D. Neutrophils
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: B cells differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies.

11) What is the main function of T-helper (CD4+) cells?

A. Produce antibodies
B. Engulf pathogens
C. Activate B cells and other immune cells
D. Suppress immune responses

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: T-helper cells coordinate the immune response by activating B cells and other immune cells like
macrophages.

12) Cytotoxic T cells primarily:

A. Ingest bacteria
B. Kill virus-infected cells
C. Produce histamines
D. Differentiate into plasma cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) target and kill infected or abnormal cells.

13) Which immune cell is responsible for producing memory cells?

A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: B and T lymphocytes generate memory cells for long-term immunity.

14) Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in the serum?

A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the most abundant antibody in the blood and extracellular fluid.

15) Which immunoglobulin is first produced during a primary immune response?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
 Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.

16) Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgE binds to allergens and triggers histamine release from mast cells and basophils.

17) Which of the following cells are antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

A. Neutrophils
B. Erythrocytes
C. Dendritic cells
D. Natural killer cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dendritic cells process and present antigens to T cells, initiating an immune response.

18) Where do B lymphocytes mature?

A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph nodes

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.

19) Where do T lymphocytes mature?

A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland.

20) Which structure is part of the innate immune system?

A. Antibodies
B. Memory cells
C. Skin
D. Plasma cells
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Skin acts as a physical barrier and is part of the body's first line of defense in innate immunity.

21) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the innate immune system?
A. Immediate response
B. Memory formation
C. Non-specific defense
D. First line of defense

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Memory formation is a feature of the adaptive immune system, not the innate immune system.

22) What is the main role of natural killer (NK) cells?

A. Antibody production
B. Pathogen digestion
C. Destroy virus-infected and tumor cells
D. Activate complement system

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NK cells target and destroy virus-infected and abnormal (tumor) cells.

23) Which cytokine is known as the "fever inducer"?

A. Interleukin-2
B. Tumor necrosis factor
C. Interleukin-1
D. Interferon-gamma

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Interleukin-1 (IL-1) plays a role in inducing fever during infection.

24) Which component enhances phagocytosis by marking pathogens?

A. Lysozyme
B. Complement protein C3b
C. Interferons
D. Histamine

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C3b opsonizes pathogens, making them easier targets for phagocytes.

25) Which term refers to the coating of pathogens to enhance phagocytosis?

A. Neutralization
B. Inflammation
C. Opsonization
D. Precipitation
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Opsonization is the process of marking pathogens to enhance their uptake by phagocytes.

26) Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

A. Spleen
B. Lymph node
C. Tonsils
D. Thymus

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The thymus is where T lymphocytes mature, making it a primary lymphoid organ.

27) Which of the following is considered a secondary lymphoid organ?

A. Bone marrow
B. Thymus
C. Lymph nodes
D. Liver

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Secondary lymphoid organs include lymph nodes and spleen where immune responses are
initiated.

28) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down bacterial cell walls?

A. Amylase
B. Pepsin
C. Lysozyme
D. Protease

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lysozyme breaks down the peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.

29) Which type of T cell suppresses immune response to maintain tolerance?

A. Helper T cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Memory T cells
D. Regulatory T cells

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Regulatory T cells (Tregs) help maintain immune tolerance and prevent autoimmunity.

30) Which immune response occurs more rapidly after a second exposure to an antigen?
A. Primary response
B. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
C. Adaptive tolerance
D. Secondary response
 Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The secondary response is faster and more intense due to memory cell activation.

31) Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal areas?

A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgG
D. IgE

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IgA is found in mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk.

32) What is the role of interferons?

A. Neutralize toxins
B. Inhibit viral replication
C. Promote antibody production
D. Stimulate digestion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Interferons are cytokines that interfere with viral replication inside host cells.

33) Which hypersensitivity type is involved in anaphylaxis?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity (immediate) involves IgE-mediated allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis.

34) Which cell releases histamine during an allergic response?

A. Neutrophil
B. Mast cell
C. T cell
D. Macrophage

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mast cells degranulate and release histamine during allergic responses.

35) What triggers the classical complement pathway?

A. Mannose-binding lectin
B. C-reactive protein
C. Antigen-antibody complexes
 D. Pathogen cell wall

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The classical pathway is triggered when antibodies bind to antigens.

36) What is the role of the spleen in immunity?

A. Produces antibodies
B. Site for T cell maturation
C. Filters blood and helps detect blood-borne pathogens
D. Digests red blood cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The spleen filters blood and helps mount immune responses against blood-borne antigens.

37) Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the
fetus.

38) What is an epitope?

A. Entire pathogen
B. The part of an antigen recognized by an antibody
C. A type of immune cell
D. The active site of an enzyme

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: An epitope is the specific part of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor.

39) Which cells link innate and adaptive immunity?

A. Red blood cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Platelets

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dendritic cells act as a bridge by capturing antigens and presenting them to T cells.

40) The membrane attack complex (MAC) is a part of:

A. Phagocytosis
B. Cytokine signaling
 C. Complement system
D. Antibody production

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MAC is formed by the complement system and creates pores in target cell membranes.

41) What type of immunity results from recovering from an illness?

A. Artificial passive
B. Artificial active
C. Natural passive
D. Natural active

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Natural active immunity is developed after exposure to a pathogen and recovery.

42) What does clonal selection refer to?

A. Activation of non-specific immune cells
B. Selection of antibodies that bind strongest to antigen
C. The process by which specific lymphocytes are activated by an antigen
D. Differentiation of red blood cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Clonal selection activates and expands specific B or T cells that recognize a particular antigen.

43) Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Measles
C. Tetanus
D. Influenza (injection)

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Measles vaccine contains a live but weakened form of the virus.

44) Which organ is important in the destruction of old red blood cells and immune response?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Pancreas

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The spleen filters blood, removes old red blood cells, and contributes to immune functions.

45) Which of these best describes passive immunity?

A. Results from T cell activation
B. Involves memory cell production
 C. Is long-lasting
D. Involves receiving antibodies from another source

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Passive immunity comes from receiving antibodies directly rather than producing them.

46) What is the role of complement protein C5b?

A. Acts as a chemotactic agent
B. Begins MAC formation
C. Inhibits inflammation
D. Activates T cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C5b initiates formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC).

47) Which cell type is responsible for antibody production?

A. T cells
B. Macrophages
C. Plasma cells
D. Neutrophils

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plasma cells are differentiated B cells that produce antibodies.

48) Which class of MHC molecules is found on all nucleated cells?

A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. HLA-DR

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: MHC class I molecules present antigens from within the cell and are found on all nucleated
cells.

49) Which class of MHC molecules presents antigens to helper T cells?

A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. MHC Z

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: MHC class II molecules present external antigens to CD4+ helper T cells.

50) Which of the following is a function of antibodies?

A. Phagocytosis
 B. Complement activation
C. Cell lysis
D. Hormone regulation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Antibodies can activate the complement system, leading to opsonization and pathogen
destruction.

51) Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?

A. Recovery from chickenpox
B. Maternal antibodies through placenta
C. Receiving antiserum for rabies
D. MMR vaccination

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Artificial passive immunity involves receiving antibodies (like antiserum), not producing them.

52) What structure on an antibody binds to the antigen?

A. Constant region
B. Light chain base
C. Fab region
D. Fc region

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Fab (fragment antigen-binding) region binds specifically to antigens.

53) Which part of the antibody determines its class (IgG, IgA, etc.)?
A. Fab region
B. Variable region
C. Constant region
D. Epitope

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The constant region of the heavy chain determines the antibody class.

54) How does IgM differ structurally from IgG?

A. It is monomeric
B. It is pentameric
C. It lacks a variable region
D. It has no light chains

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IgM is a pentamer (five units), whereas IgG is a monomer.

55) Which immunoglobulin is most efficient at agglutination?

 A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgM’s pentameric structure allows it to bind multiple antigens, making it excellent at
agglutination.

56) Which immune cells are most involved in humoral immunity?

A. T helper cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells
D. NK cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: B cells and plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies, a key part of humoral
immunity.

57) Delayed-type hypersensitivity involves which type of T cells?

A. CD4+ helper T cells
B. Memory B cells
C. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
D. Regulatory T cells

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: CD4+ T helper cells mediate delayed-type hypersensitivity through cytokine release.

58) Which complement protein is responsible for initiating the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
A. C1q
B. C2b
C. C5b
D. C3a

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C5b triggers the assembly of the MAC that lyses pathogens.

59) What does antigen presentation by MHC molecules help activate?

A. Platelet aggregation
B. Eosinophil degranulation
C. T cell response
D. Red blood cell production

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Antigen presentation allows T cells to recognize and respond to infected or abnormal cells.
60) Which organ produces complement proteins?
A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. Liver
D. Pancreas

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The liver produces the majority of complement proteins found in serum.

61) What do CD4+ T cells primarily recognize?

A. MHC I molecules
B. Lipopolysaccharides
C. MHC II molecules
D. Self-antigens

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CD4+ helper T cells recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules.

62) Which cells are the first to arrive at the site of infection?
A. B cells
B. NK cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Plasma cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Neutrophils are the most abundant and first responders in acute inflammation.

63) Which molecule is responsible for the chemotaxis of immune cells?

A. Histamine
B. Cytokines
C. Chemokines
D. Antibodies

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Chemokines are a type of cytokine that direct cell movement toward infection.

64) Which of the following vaccines is inactivated?

A. Polio (IPV)
B. Measles
C. Rotavirus
D. Yellow fever

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) contains killed virus particles.
65) Which antibody is primarily involved in allergic reactions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering histamine release in allergic reactions.

66) Which cell type has the most potent antigen-presenting capacity?
A. B cells
B. Macrophages
C. Dendritic cells
D. T cells

Correct Answer: C
Eplanation: Dendritic cells are professional antigen-presenting cells that activate naïve T cells.

67) Which cytokine promotes B cell maturation and antibody production?

A. IL-2
B. IL-4
C. TNF-alpha
D. IFN-gamma

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IL-4 plays a key role in B cell activation and switching to IgE production.

68) Which process involves engulfing and digesting foreign particles?

A. Opsonization
B. Apoptosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Diapedesis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Phagocytosis is the cellular process of ingesting microbes and debris.

69) What is the function of MHC class I molecules?

A. Present antigens to B cells
B. Present endogenous antigens to CD8+ T cells
C. Activate helper T cells
D. Promote antibody secretion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: MHC I presents intracellular antigens to cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells.
70) Which hypersensitivity reaction is antibody-independent?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity is mediated by T cells, not antibodies.

71) Which immunoglobulin is first produced in a primary immune response?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgM is the first antibody secreted during the initial immune response.

72) Which type of immunity does a tetanus booster provide?

A. Natural active
B. Artificial active
C. Natural passive
D. Artificial passive

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The tetanus vaccine stimulates your immune system to create long-term protection.

73) Where do T cells mature?

A. Bone marrow
B. Liver
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: T cells mature in the thymus before becoming immunocompetent.

74) What causes redness in inflammation?

A. Increased lymph flow
B. Decreased permeability
C. Vasodilation
D. Cell death

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vasodilation increases blood flow, causing redness (rubor) at the site.
75) What is the function of perforin released by cytotoxic T cells?
A. Stimulates B cells
B. Forms pores in target cell membranes
C. Blocks viral replication
D. Engulfs antigens

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Perforin creates holes in infected cells, leading to apoptosis.

76) Which cell type plays a major role in helminth (worm) defense?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. NK cells
D. Dendritic cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Eosinophils release toxic proteins that are effective against parasites like helminths.

77) The ability to distinguish self from non-self is called:

A. Memory
B. Tolerance
C. Diversity
D. Clonality

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Immunological tolerance prevents the immune system from attacking the body’s own tissues.

78) Which complement pathway does not require antibodies?

A. Classical
B. Lectin
C. Alternative
D. Both B and C

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The lectin and alternative pathways are activated without antibody-antigen complexes.

79) Which region of the lymph node contains B cells?

A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Paracortex
D. Germinal center

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The germinal center within the cortex is rich in proliferating B cells.
80) Which immune function is enhanced by vaccination?
A. Innate immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Specific adaptive immunity
D. NK cell activation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vaccination stimulates specific memory B and T cells against particular pathogens.

81) Which substance triggers vasodilation and increased permeability?

A. Interferon
B. Histamine
C. Heparin
D. Complement C3b

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Histamine released from mast cells promotes inflammation.

82) What is the role of IL-1?

A. Induce fever
B. Neutralize toxins
C. Kill parasites
D. Stimulate erythropoiesis

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: IL-1 is a pyrogenic cytokine that helps induce fever.

83) Which antibody is most abundant in circulation?

A. IgE
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgM

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IgG accounts for about 75% of serum antibodies.

84) Which cells are targeted by HIV?

A. CD8+ T cells
B. Plasma cells
C. CD4+ T cells
D. B cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HIV binds to CD4 receptors, primarily on helper T cells.
85) Which antibody class is secreted in breast milk?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgA

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgA provides passive protection to infants via mucosal immunity.

86) What is an adjuvant?

A. A toxin
B. A vaccine vector
C. An antibody subtype
D. A substance that enhances immune response

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Adjuvants boost the body’s immune response to an antigen in vaccines.

87) Which cells directly kill infected host cells?

A. B cells
B. CD8+ T cells
C. Mast cells
D. Dendritic cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells induce apoptosis in infected cells.

88) Where are plasma cells usually located?

A. Thymus
B. Spleen and lymph nodes
C. Bone marrow and skin
D. Liver and pancreas

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Plasma cells reside in secondary lymphoid organs to secrete antibodies.

89) What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

A. Oxygen transport
B. Waste excretion
C. Circulate immune cells and drain interstitial fluid
D. Digest fats

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The lymphatic system circulates immune cells and returns excess interstitial fluid to the
bloodstream.
90) Which cell helps activate both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
A. Cytotoxic T cell
B. Macrophage
C. NK cell
D. Helper T cell

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Helper T cells release cytokines that activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells.

91) Which immunoglobulin is dimeric in its secretory form?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Secretory IgA exists as a dimer, especially in mucosal secretions.

92) What is the primary role of interferons?

A. Stimulate antibody production
B. Promote phagocytosis
C. Inhibit viral replication
D. Trigger allergic reactions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Interferons are antiviral proteins that inhibit virus replication in host cells.

93) Which organ filters blood and removes old red blood cells?
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Thymus
D. Spleen

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The spleen filters blood, removes senescent RBCs, and participates in immune surveillance.

94) Which of the following describes opsonization?

A. Lysis of pathogens
B. Labeling antigens for phagocytosis
C. Inactivation of toxins
D. Chemotaxis of neutrophils

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Opsonization tags microbes for phagocytes to recognize and ingest them.
95) Which MHC class interacts with CD8+ T cells?
A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. Both I and II
D. None

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: MHC class I presents antigens to cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells.

96) Which immunoglobulin is responsible for providing long-term immunity?

A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the most abundant and provides long-term immunity post-infection or vaccination.

97) Which enzyme do phagocytes use to kill ingested microbes?

A. DNA polymerase
B. NADPH oxidase
C. Amylase
D. Lactase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: NADPH oxidase generates reactive oxygen species to kill engulfed microbes.

98) What is the role of toll-like receptors (TLRs)?

A. Bind antibodies
B. Recognize PAMPs on pathogens
C. Facilitate cell division
D. Digest antigens

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: TLRs detect pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and activate innate immunity.

99) Which cytokine is associated with fever production?

A. IL-10
B. IFN-gamma
C. IL-1
D. IL-4

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IL-1 is a pyrogen that induces fever by acting on the hypothalamus.
100) Which process allows white blood cells to exit the bloodstream?
A. Opsonization
B. Chemotaxis
C. Diapedesis
D. Margination

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Diapedesis is the passage of leukocytes through vessel walls into tissues.

101) Which complement component is central to all three activation pathways?

A. C1
B. C3
C. C4
D. C9

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: C3 is common to all complement pathways and is cleaved into C3a and C3b.

102) Which organ produces complement proteins?

A. Spleen
B. Bone marrow
C. Liver
D. Lymph nodes

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The liver synthesizes most of the complement proteins.

103) Which of the following cells bridge innate and adaptive immunity?\
A. Mast cells
B. Dendritic cells
C. Neutrophils
D. NK cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Dendritic cells present antigens to T cells, linking innate and adaptive responses.

104) Which hypersensitivity type involves immune complexes?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Type III reactions involve antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in tissues.
105) What is the key function of regulatory T cells?
A. Enhance antibody production
B. Suppress immune response
C. Activate neutrophils
D. Stimulate NK cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Regulatory T cells maintain immune tolerance and prevent autoimmunity.

106) Which of the following best describes antigenic shift?

A. Minor change in viral antigens
B. Sudden, major change in viral genome
C. Formation of memory cells
D. Surface protein tagging

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Antigenic shift is a significant genomic change often causing pandemics (e.g., influenza).

107) Which of these is a professional antigen-presenting cell?

A. NK cell
B. Erythrocyte
C. Macrophage
D. Basophil

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Macrophages engulf pathogens and present antigens via MHC molecules.

108) Which cytokine is primarily antiviral?

A. IL-4
B. IFN-alpha
C. TNF-beta
D. IL-12

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IFN-alpha is secreted in response to viral infections to inhibit replication.

109) Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the only class that can cross the placenta and provide passive immunity.
110) Which cells produce histamine during allergic responses?
A. NK cells
B. Mast cells
C. T cells
D. Dendritic cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mast cells degranulate to release histamine in allergic reactions.

111) What is the main role of NK cells?

A. Antibody production
B. Phagocytosis
C. Killing virus-infected and tumor cells
D. Memory formation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NK cells identify and kill abnormal cells without prior sensitization.

112) What defines an autoantigen?

A. Foreign molecule triggering immunity
B. Self molecule wrongly targeted by the immune system
C. Antigen from transplanted tissue
D. Antigen used in vaccination

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Autoantigens are body’s own proteins targeted in autoimmune diseases.

113) Which lymphocyte is involved in humoral immunity?

A. CD8+ T cell
B. CD4+ T cell
C. B cell
D. NK cell

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: B cells produce antibodies, a key component of humoral immunity.

114) Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?

A. Bone marrow
B. Thymus
C. Liver
D. Spleen

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The spleen is a secondary organ where immune responses are initiated.
115) Which of the following is NOT a primary lymphoid organ?
A. Bone marrow
B. Thymus
C. Lymph node
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs; primary ones are bone marrow and thymus.

116) Which enzyme is found in neutrophil granules?

A. Lysozyme
B. Amylase
C. Protease
D. Helicase

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lysozyme breaks down bacterial cell walls, aiding in bacterial killing.

117) Which cytokine activates macrophages?

A. IL-4
B. IFN-gamma
C. IL-10
D. IL-13

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IFN-gamma activates macrophages to enhance microbial killing.

118) Which antibody class is most effective at complement activation?

A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgM is highly efficient at initiating the classical complement pathway.

119) Which pathway is activated by mannose-binding lectin?

A. Classical
B. Lectin
C. Alternative
D. Terminal

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mannose-binding lectin activates the lectin pathway in response to carbohydrates.
120) Which immune cell has memory function?
A. Neutrophil
B. NK cell
C. Memory B cell
D. Mast cell

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Memory B cells persist after infection and provide a quicker response to reinfection.

121) What is the function of thymic selection?

A. Antibody generation
B. Cytokine secretion
C. Elimination of self-reactive T cells
D. Antigen binding

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: T cells undergo selection in the thymus to ensure self-tolerance.

122) Which class of MHC molecules is present on all nucleated cells?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Both I and II

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: MHC class I is expressed on all nucleated cells to present endogenous antigens.

123) Which cell primarily secretes IL-2?

A. NK cells
B. B cells
C. Activated helper T cells
D. Plasma cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IL-2 is critical for T cell proliferation and is secreted by activated T helper cells.

124) Which of these is a passive immunity method?

A. Natural infection
B. Breastfeeding
C. Vaccination
D. Delayed hypersensitivity
 Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Breastfeeding transfers maternal IgA antibodies to infants, a form of natural passive immunity.

125) Which cytokine is anti-inflammatory?

A. IL-1
B. IL-10
C. IL-2
D. TNF-alpha

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: IL-10 downregulates immune responses and inflammation.

126) Which process generates antibody diversity?

A. Mitosis
B. Somatic recombination
C. Phagocytosis
D. Translation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: V(D)J recombination in developing B cells creates diverse antibody repertoires.

127) Which of the following defines an epitope?

A. Whole pathogen
B. Cytokine structure
C. Portion of antigen recognized by immune system
D. T cell receptor

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Epitopes are specific parts of antigens that antibodies or TCRs bind to.

128) What does a vaccine adjuvant do?

A. Inactivate virus
B. Boost immune response
C. Inhibit inflammation
D. Induce tolerance

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Adjuvants enhance antigen presentation and overall vaccine efficacy.

129) Which part of an antibody binds to antigens?

A. Fc region
B. Hinge region
C. Fab region
D. Constant region
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Fab (fragment antigen-binding) region specifically binds to antigens.

130) Which antibody class is pentameric?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgM exists as a pentamer in its secreted form, allowing strong initial response.

131) Which of the following statements best describes the function of a vaccine?
A. Vaccines directly destroy pathogens in the body
B. Vaccines contain high concentrations of antibiotics
C. Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce protective antibodies and memory cells
D. Vaccines inhibit the replication of viruses through chemical reactions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vaccines function by stimulating the immune system to produce protective antibodies and
memory cells, preparing the body to respond quickly and effectively to future infections by the same
pathogen. They do not directly destroy pathogens or involve antibiotics.

132) Which of the following types of vaccines is made from weakened pathogens?
A. Inactivated vaccines
B. Subunit vaccines
C. Attenuated vaccines
D. Toxoid vaccines

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Attenuated vaccines are created by weakening pathogens so they no longer cause disease but
still stimulate an immune response. These are typically more effective but should not be used in
immunosuppressed individuals.

133) Why are inactivated vaccines generally less effective than live (attenuated) vaccines?
A. They cause side effects that interfere with immunity
B. They usually stimulate a weaker immune response due to reduced antigenicity
C. They do not contain any antigens
D. They are not recognized by B cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Inactivated vaccines consist of pathogens killed by heat or chemicals. While safer, the antigens
on dead cells are less effective, resulting in a shorter period of immunity compared to live vaccines.

134) What is a subunit vaccine?

A. A vaccine that includes only parts of the pathogen that stimulate the immune system
 B. A vaccine composed of live, attenuated pathogens
C. A vaccine that uses bacterial toxins to stimulate immunity
D. A vaccine given only to infants under one year

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Subunit vaccines (also known as acellular vaccines) contain only the antigenic portions of a
pathogen, reducing the risk of side effects while still inducing an immune response.

135) Which vaccine type uses an inactivated exotoxin to stimulate an immune response?
A. DNA vaccine
B. Attenuated vaccine
C. Toxoid vaccine
D. Autogenous vaccine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Toxoid vaccines use exotoxins that have been inactivated (detoxified) to safely stimulate the
production of antitoxins, which can neutralize the real toxin if the pathogen is later encountered.

136) Which type of immunity is conferred by the injection of antibodies from an immune individual into a
non-immune individual?
A. Natural active acquired immunity
B. Artificial active acquired immunity
C. Natural passive acquired immunity
D. Artificial passive acquired immunity

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Artificial passive acquired immunity occurs when a person receives preformed antibodies from
another person (e.g., through immune globulin or antiserum). This provides immediate but temporary
protection.

137) What is the primary function of helper T cells (CD4+ cells)?

A. Destroying virally infected cells
B. Producing antibodies
C. Secreting cytokines to regulate immune responses
D. Phagocytizing pathogens

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Helper T cells (CD4+ cells) secrete cytokines that direct and enhance immune responses,
including the activation of B cells and cytotoxic T cells. They do not directly kill pathogens or produce
antibodies themselves.

138) Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies?

A. Helper T cells
B. Plasma cells derived from B cells
C. Macrophages
D. NK cells
 Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Plasma cells, which are differentiated B cells, are the cells that produce and secrete antibodies
in response to antigen exposure.

139) Which of the following best describes the primary immune response?
A. Immediate production of high antibody levels
B. Rapid response due to memory cells
C. First response to an antigen, requiring 10–14 days for significant antibody production
D. Response that occurs only after vaccination

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The primary immune response is the first exposure to an antigen, during which antibody
production takes approximately 10–14 days as the immune system processes the antigen and activates B
cells.

140) What is the term for the rapid and heightened immune response to a second exposure to an
antigen?
A. Passive response
B. Hypersensitivity reaction
C. Primary immune response
D. Secondary (anamnestic) response

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The secondary (anamnestic) response is faster and stronger due to the presence of memory
cells formed during the primary response. It leads to quicker antibody production upon re-exposure to the
same antigen.

141) Which class of antibodies is most abundant in the blood and provides long-term immunity?
A. IgM
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood, provides long-term immunity, and can
cross the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus.

142) What is the basic structural unit of an antibody molecule?

A. Two light chains and one heavy chain
B. A double helix
C. A monomer with two antigen-binding sites and two heavy and two light chains
D. A single polypeptide chain

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An antibody molecule is typically a Y-shaped monomer composed of two identical heavy chains
and two identical light chains, with two antigen-binding sites and an FC region at the base.
143) Which immune mechanism is primarily responsible for controlling infections by intracellular
pathogens?
A. Humoral immunity
B. Cell-mediated immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Antigen-antibody complexes

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) is essential for controlling chronic infections by intracellular
pathogens like viruses, some bacteria, and fungi. It involves T cells, macrophages, and cytokines, not
antibodies.

144) In cell-mediated cytotoxic response, what is the function of perforin released by cytotoxic cells?
A. Neutralizes toxins
B. Stimulates B cell activation
C. Creates pores in the target cell membrane
D. Activates memory cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Perforin is a protein that forms pores in the membranes of infected or abnormal cells, allowing
other toxic molecules like granzymes to enter and trigger cell death.

145) Natural Killer (NK) cells can kill which of the following?
A. Antibody-producing B cells
B. Uninfected host cells
C. Tumor cells and virus-infected cells
D. Red blood cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NK cells are part of the innate immune system and target tumor cells and virus-infected cells,
especially those lacking MHC markers or coated with antibodies.

146) Type I hypersensitivity reactions primarily involve which class of antibody?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity reactions (e.g., allergies, anaphylaxis) involve IgE antibodies, which bind
to mast cells and basophils, triggering histamine release upon allergen exposure.

147) What is a typical example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Serum sickness
B. Anaphylactic shock
 C. Positive tuberculin skin test
D. Hemolytic anemia

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Type IV hypersensitivity, also called delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH), involves T-cell
mediated immune responses. A classic example is the positive TB skin test.

148) Which autoimmune disease involves the joints and is associated with Type III hypersensitivity?
A. Graves disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Addison’s disease

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints and is associated with
immune complex formation (Type III hypersensitivity).

149) Which of the following is a major cause of acquired immunodeficiency worldwide?

A. Genetic mutation
B. Radiation
C. Malnutrition
D. Autoimmune disorders

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Malnutrition is the most common cause of acquired immunodeficiency worldwide. It weakens
the immune system, making the body more susceptible to infections.

150) Monoclonal antibodies are produced using hybridomas, which are created by fusing:
A. A virus and a B cell
B. Two T cells
C. A plasma cell and a tumor cell
D. A macrophage and a dendritic cell

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hybridomas are formed by fusing a plasma cell (which produces a specific antibody) with a
tumor cell (which divides rapidly). These cells produce monoclonal antibodies in large quantities.

151) Which immunoglobulin class is primarily found in mucosal secretions like saliva and tears?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgA is the major immunoglobulin in mucosal areas and secretions, providing localized protection
on surfaces such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.

152) What is the main function of the FC region of an antibody molecule?

A. Antigen binding
B. Activation of enzymes
C. Binding to immune cell receptors
D. DNA replication

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The FC region of the antibody interacts with receptors on immune cells like macrophages and
NK cells, helping mediate immune responses such as phagocytosis or cytotoxicity.

153) Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to appear in a primary immune response?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgM is the first antibody produced during a primary response, providing an initial defense
before class switching to other immunoglobulins like IgG.

154) Which antigen–antibody interaction leads to the clumping of pathogens for easier phagocytosis?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Precipitation
D. Agglutination

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Agglutination occurs when antibodies link antigens together, forming clusters that are more
easily recognized and ingested by phagocytes.

155) Which of the following cells function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

A. B cells
B. Macrophages
C. Dendritic cells
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells are all capable of presenting antigens to T cells via
MHC molecules.

156) What are haptens?

A. Large proteins that trigger strong immune responses
 B. Incomplete antigens that become immunogenic when attached to carrier molecules
C. Antibodies that neutralize toxins
D. Phagocytic cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Haptens are small molecules that are not immunogenic by themselves but can stimulate an
immune response when bound to a larger carrier protein.

157) A secondary immune response is characterized by:

A. Delayed antibody production
B. Rapid production of IgM
C. Rapid and high production of IgG
D. Suppression of memory B cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The secondary response involves rapid production of IgG antibodies due to the presence of
memory cells from a prior exposure.

158) Which of the following is an example of artificial active acquired immunity?

A. Maternal antibodies in colostrum
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Recovery from chickenpox
D. Receiving the MMR vaccine

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vaccination (like the MMR vaccine) induces the production of protective antibodies and
memory cells, which is an example of artificial active acquired immunity.

159) Which type of immune cells destroy virus-infected or tumor cells without prior sensitization?
A. Plasma cells
B. Helper T cells
C. NK cells
D. Dendritic cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NK cells (natural killer cells) are part of the innate immune system and can kill virus-infected or
abnormal cells without the need for prior sensitization.

160) In what way do antitoxins work?

A. Stimulate B cell proliferation
B. Neutralize toxins produced by pathogens
C. Destroy viral particles
D. Activate NK cells

Correct Answer: B
 Explanation: Antitoxins are antibodies that specifically bind to and neutralize toxins, preventing their harmful
effects on host cells.

161) Which of the following types of vaccines is not commonly used in humans?
A. DNA vaccine
B. Inactivated vaccine
C. Toxoid vaccine
D. Subunit vaccine

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: DNA vaccines are still experimental in humans and not yet widely used in clinical practice.

162) Which immune disorder results from the immune system attacking the body’s own tissues?
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Immunosuppression
C. Autoimmune disease
D. Allergic reaction

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system fails to recognize self and mounts an
attack against the body’s own cells or tissues.

163) Which hypersensitivity reaction involves IgG or IgM antibodies binding to host cells, leading to cell
destruction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Type II hypersensitivity is cytotoxic and involves IgG or IgM antibodies binding to cell surfaces,
triggering complement-mediated lysis.

164) What is a common symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?

A. Mild sneezing
B. Diarrhea only
C. Drop in blood pressure
D. Muscle cramping

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Systemic anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that may cause a rapid drop in blood pressure,
respiratory distress, and can be life-threatening.

165) What is the purpose of allergy shots (immunotherapy)?

A. To increase IgE levels
 B. To desensitize mast cells
C. To stimulate production of blocking IgG antibodies
D. To increase histamine release

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Allergy shots help the immune system produce IgG blocking antibodies, which bind allergens
before they can bind to IgE on mast cells, preventing allergic reactions.

166) Which term refers to the ability of an antigen to stimulate the production of antibodies?
A. Allergenicity
B. Immunogenicity
C. Toxicity
D. Sensitivity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Immunogenicity is the ability of a substance (antigen) to stimulate an immune response,
particularly the production of antibodies.

167) Which antibody class is responsible for allergic reactions?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils, and its interaction with allergens leads to the release of
histamine, triggering allergic reactions.

168) What is the role of memory cells in the immune system?

A. Destroy foreign pathogens immediately
B. Trigger allergic reactions
C. Retain information for quicker responses to future infections
D. Produce toxins

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Memory cells remain in the body after initial exposure and enable a faster, stronger immune
response upon re-exposure to the same antigen.

169) Which structure allows antibodies to bind specifically to antigens?

A. FC region
B. Heavy chain
C. Light chain
D. Antigen-binding site

Correct Answer: D
 Explanation: The antigen-binding site at the top of the "Y" shape of an antibody binds specifically to the
epitope on an antigen.

170) Which immunoglobulin is the largest in size and primarily found in the bloodstream during the early
stages of infection?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgM is the largest immunoglobulin and is the first antibody produced in response to infection,
especially during a primary immune response.

171) What are antigenic determinants also known as?

A. Plasmids
B. Pathogens
C. Epitopes
D. Toxins

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Epitopes are the specific parts of an antigen that are recognized and bound by antibodies.

172) Which type of antigen processing does not require T cells?

A. T-dependent
B. T-independent
C. Autoantigen
D. Hapten

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: T-independent antigens can directly activate B cells without help from T cells, typically through
repetitive antigenic structures like polysaccharides.

173) Which response is associated with booster shots?

A. Primary response
B. Passive immunity
C. Secondary (anamnestic) response
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Booster shots trigger the secondary immune response, characterized by a rapid and stronger
antibody production, especially IgG.

174) What is the main function of IgD?

 A. Neutralizes toxins
B. Unknown; may act as a receptor on B cells
C. Crosses the placenta
D. Mediates allergic reactions

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The function of IgD is not fully understood, but it is believed to act as a receptor for antigens on
B cell surfaces.

175) What type of immunity is provided by colostrum?

A. Artificial active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Colostrum, the first breast milk, contains maternal antibodies, providing natural passive
immunity to the infant.

176) What happens during opsonization?

A. Bacteria multiply rapidly
B. Complement proteins destroy tissues
C. Antibodies coat pathogens, enhancing phagocytosis
D. NK cells become memory cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Opsonization is the process by which antibodies or complement proteins coat a pathogen,
making it easier for phagocytes to recognize and engulf it.

177) Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta to provide immunity to a fetus?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta, offering passive immunity to the fetus
during pregnancy.

178) The basic Y-shaped antibody structure is referred to as a:

A. Monomer
B. Polymer
C. Tetramer
D. Dimer

Correct Answer: A
 Explanation: An antibody in its simplest form is a monomer, containing two heavy and two light chains,
forming a Y shape.

179) Which type of hypersensitivity involves immune complexes that lead to tissue damage?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity occurs when antigen–antibody complexes accumulate in tissues,
triggering inflammation and tissue damage (e.g., lupus).

180) Which hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by T cells rather than antibodies?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated, known as delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH), and is
exemplified by reactions like the TB skin test.

181) What substance released by mast cells is responsible for many symptoms of allergic reactions?
A. Serotonin
B. Histamine
C. Perforin
D. Interferon

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Histamine, released from mast cells during allergic responses, causes swelling, redness, and
itching.

182) Which autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Graves disease
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Scleroderma

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder where autoantibodies stimulate the thyroid, leading
to hyperthyroidism.

183) What type of hypersensitivity is involved in contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy)?
A. Type I
B. Type II
 C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Contact dermatitis is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction, caused by T cell responses to
certain chemicals.

184) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:

A. T cells
B. Hybridomas
C. Memory cells
D. Mast cells

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hybridomas, created by fusing a plasma cell and a tumor cell, produce monoclonal antibodies in
large quantities.

185) Which vaccine type should not be given to immunosuppressed individuals?

A. Inactivated
B. Toxoid
C. Attenuated (live)
D. Subunit

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Live attenuated vaccines can still cause infection in immunosuppressed individuals, so they are
contraindicated.

186) Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for transplant rejection?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Transplant rejection is a Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity involving T cells responding to
foreign tissue antigens.

187) A positive TB skin test is an example of:

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: D
 Explanation: The TB skin test involves a Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, requiring 24–48
hours to produce visible effects.

188) Which autoimmune disease affects multiple organs, including the skin, kidneys, and brain?
A. Addison disease
B. Scleroderma
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SLE (lupus) is a systemic autoimmune disorder affecting various organs, often due to immune
complex deposition (Type III hypersensitivity).

189) Blocking antibodies are produced in response to:

A. Tetanus infection
B. Allergy shots (immunotherapy)
C. Tuberculosis
D. Histamine

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Allergy shots stimulate the immune system to produce IgG blocking antibodies that intercept
allergens before they bind to IgE on mast cells.

190) Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?

A. Maternal antibodies in newborns
B. Recovery from a cold
C. Injection of gamma globulin
D. Immunization with the MMR vaccine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Artificial passive immunity is achieved through the injection of preformed antibodies, such as
gamma globulin, offering temporary protection.

191) Regulatory T cells are primarily involved in:

A. Stimulating NK cell activity
B. Suppressing immune responses
C. Activating plasma cells
D. Enhancing inflammation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Regulatory T cells act as "brakes" on the immune system, preventing overreaction and
autoimmunity by suppressing immune responses.

192) What immune structure is primarily responsible for responses to bloodborne antigens?
A. Lymph nodes
 B. Peyer patches
C. Spleen
D. Tonsils

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The spleen plays a major role in filtering bloodborne pathogens and initiating immune
responses against them.

193) Which of the following is a multivalent vaccine?

A. DTaP
B. Rabies
C. Tetanus
D. Hepatitis A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The DTaP vaccine is multivalent, combining antigens for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis into
a single injection.

194) The formation of immune complexes that cause inflammation and tissue damage is characteristic of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity involves antigen–antibody complexes that deposit in tissues, triggering
inflammation (e.g., lupus, serum sickness).

195) The term "anamnestic response" refers to:

A. The initial immune response
B. An allergic reaction
C. A suppressed immune response
D. A memory (secondary) immune response

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
An anamnestic response is a secondary immune response, occurring more rapidly and effectively due to
immunologic memory.

196) The primary target of HIV is:

A. B cells
B. Macrophages
C. CD4+ T helper cells
D. Plasma cells

Correct Answer: C
 Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T helper cells, which impairs both humoral and cell-mediated immunity,
leading to immunodeficiency.

197) Which immune cells produce cytokines that stimulate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells?
A. TH1 cells
B. Plasma cells
C. NK cells
D. Memory B cells

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: TH1 cells produce type 1 cytokines, which activate macrophages, NK cells, and cytotoxic T cells
in cell-mediated immunity.

198) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) present antigens to:

A. NK cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Memory B cells
D. Neutrophils

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: APCs like macrophages and dendritic cells process and present antigens to helper T cells (CD4+),
initiating adaptive immune responses.

199) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) results in:

A. Overactive B cells
B. Absence of NK cells
C. Lack of both B and T cells
D. Excessive cytokine production

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SCID is a genetic condition involving a lack of functional B and T cells, leading to severe
immunodeficiency and recurrent infections.

200) Which cytokine test can help detect latent TB infections?

A. CRP test
B. IFN-γ release assay
C. ANA test
D. Complement C3 assay

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) detect latent TB infections by measuring IFN-γ
produced in response to TB-specific antigens.

201) Which immune system disorder is not caused by hypersensitivity?

A. Asthma
B. Latex allergy
 C. SCID
D. Serum sickness

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SCID is a primary immunodeficiency, not a hypersensitivity disorder, while the others result
from immune overreaction.

202) Botulism antitoxin therapy is an example of:

A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Botulism antitoxin provides immediate passive immunity using preformed antibodies, often
from animal serum.

203) What occurs when IgE-bound mast cells are cross-linked by allergens?
A. Memory cell activation
B. Suppression of cytokines
C. Degranulation and release of histamine
D. Activation of the complement system

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cross-linking of IgE by allergens causes mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and other
mediators of Type I hypersensitivity.

204) Which vaccine contains bacterial capsular antigens conjugated to proteins?

A. Toxoid
B. Subunit
C. Conjugate
D. Attenuated

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Conjugate vaccines enhance immune response by attaching weakly antigenic capsular
polysaccharides to protein carriers.

205) Contact with catechols from poison ivy triggers what type of reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This is a classic Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity, involving T cells and manifesting as
contact dermatitis.
206) The immune system's failure to recognize self-antigens leads to:
A. Immunosuppression
B. Autoimmune disease
C. Allergy
D. Anaphylaxis

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Autoimmune diseases arise when the immune system mistakenly targets the body’s own
tissues.

207) Antitoxins are especially important for which diseases?

A. Influenza and rabies
B. Measles and mumps
C. Tetanus and diphtheria
D. Hepatitis A and B

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tetanus and diphtheria are caused by toxin-producing bacteria, and antitoxins can neutralize
the toxins before damage occurs.

208) The Mantoux skin test measures:

A. IgG titer
B. B-cell activation
C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity to TB antigens
D. Immediate allergic response

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mantoux test is a Type IV DTH reaction that measures memory T cell response to TB
antigens.

209) Which vaccine uses killed pathogens?

A. Oral polio (Sabin)
B. BCG
C. Subcutaneous polio (Salk)
D. MMR

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Salk vaccine contains inactivated poliovirus, providing safe but less robust immunity than
the live oral (Sabin) version.

210) Antigenic variation is a challenge in developing vaccines for:

A. Tetanus
B. Polio
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis A
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Influenza viruses frequently change their surface antigens, requiring new vaccines each year
due to antigenic variation.

211) Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for transplant rejection?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Transplant rejection is a Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity involving T cells responding to
foreign tissue antigens.

212) A positive TB skin test is an example of:

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The TB skin test involves a Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction, requiring 24–48
hours to produce visible effects.

213) Which autoimmune disease affects multiple organs, including the skin, kidneys, and brain?
A. Addison disease
B. Scleroderma
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SLE (lupus) is a systemic autoimmune disorder affecting various organs, often due to immune
complex deposition (Type III hypersensitivity).

214) Blocking antibodies are produced in response to:

A. Tetanus infection
B. Allergy shots (immunotherapy)
C. Tuberculosis
D. Histamine

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Allergy shots stimulate the immune system to produce IgG blocking antibodies that intercept
allergens before they bind to IgE on mast cells.

215) Which of the following is an example of artificial passive immunity?

 A. Maternal antibodies in newborns
B. Recovery from a cold
C. Injection of gamma globulin
D. Immunization with the MMR vaccine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Artificial passive immunity is achieved through the injection of preformed antibodies, such as
gamma globulin, offering temporary protection.

216) Regulatory T cells are primarily involved in:

A. Stimulating NK cell activity
B. Suppressing immune responses
C. Activating plasma cells
D. Enhancing inflammation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Regulatory T cells act as "brakes" on the immune system, preventing overreaction and
autoimmunity by suppressing immune responses.

217) What immune structure is primarily responsible for responses to bloodborne antigens?
A. Lymph nodes
B. Peyer patches
C. Spleen
D. Tonsils

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The spleen plays a major role in filtering bloodborne pathogens and initiating immune
responses against them.

218) Which of the following is a multivalent vaccine?

A. DTaP
B. Rabies
C. Tetanus
D. Hepatitis A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The DTaP vaccine is multivalent, combining antigens for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis into
a single injection.

219) The formation of immune complexes that cause inflammation and tissue damage is characteristic of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: C
 Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity involves antigen–antibody complexes that deposit in tissues, triggering
inflammation (e.g., lupus, serum sickness).

220) The term "anamnestic response" refers to:

A. The initial immune response
B. An allergic reaction
C. A suppressed immune response
D. A memory (secondary) immune response

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: An anamnestic response is a secondary immune response, occurring more rapidly and
effectively due to immunologic memory.

Question 216
221) The primary target of HIV is:
A. B cells
B. Macrophages
C. CD4+ T helper cells
D. Plasma cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T helper cells, which impairs both humoral and cell-mediated immunity,
leading to immunodeficiency.

222) Which immune cells produce cytokines that stimulate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells?
A. TH1 cells
B. Plasma cells
C. NK cells
D. Memory B cells

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: TH1 cells produce type 1 cytokines, which activate macrophages, NK cells, and cytotoxic T cells
in cell-mediated immunity.

223) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) present antigens to:

A. NK cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Memory B cells
D. Neutrophils

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: APCs like macrophages and dendritic cells process and present antigens to helper T cells (CD4+),
initiating adaptive immune responses.

224) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) results in:

A. Overactive B cells
 B. Absence of NK cells
C. Lack of both B and T cells
D. Excessive cytokine production

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SCID is a genetic condition involving a lack of functional B and T cells, leading to severe
immunodeficiency and recurrent infections.

225) Which cytokine test can help detect latent TB infections?

A. CRP test
B. IFN-γ release assay
C. ANA test
D. Complement C3 assay

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) detect latent TB infections by measuring IFN-γ
produced in response to TB-specific antigens.

226) Which immune system disorder is not caused by hypersensitivity?

A. Asthma
B. Latex allergy
C. SCID
D. Serum sickness

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: SCID is a primary immunodeficiency, not a hypersensitivity disorder, while the others result
from immune overreaction.

227) Botulism antitoxin therapy is an example of:

A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Botulism antitoxin provides immediate passive immunity using preformed antibodies, often
from animal serum.

228) What occurs when IgE-bound mast cells are cross-linked by allergens?
A. Memory cell activation
B. Suppression of cytokines
C. Degranulation and release of histamine
D. Activation of the complement system

Correct Answer: C
 Explanation: Cross-linking of IgE by allergens causes mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and other
mediators of Type I hypersensitivity.

229) Which vaccine contains bacterial capsular antigens conjugated to proteins?

A. Toxoid
B. Subunit
C. Conjugate
D. Attenuated

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Conjugate vaccines enhance immune response by attaching weakly antigenic capsular
polysaccharides to protein carriers.

230) Contact with catechols from poison ivy triggers what type of reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This is a classic Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity, involving T cells and manifesting as
contact dermatitis.

231) The immune system's failure to recognize self-antigens leads to:

A. Immunosuppression
B. Autoimmune disease
C. Allergy
D. Anaphylaxis

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Autoimmune diseases arise when the immune system mistakenly targets the body’s own
tissues.

232) Antitoxins are especially important for which diseases?

A. Influenza and rabies
B. Measles and mumps
C. Tetanus and diphtheria
D. Hepatitis A and B

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tetanus and diphtheria are caused by toxin-producing bacteria, and antitoxins can neutralize
the toxins before damage occurs.

233) The Mantoux skin test measures:

A. IgG titer
B. B-cell activation
 C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity to TB antigens
D. Immediate allergic response

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mantoux test is a Type IV DTH reaction that measures memory T cell response to TB
antigens.

234) Which vaccine uses killed pathogens?

A. Oral polio (Sabin)
B. BCG
C. Subcutaneous polio (Salk)
D. MMR

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Salk vaccine contains inactivated poliovirus, providing safe but less robust immunity than
the live oral (Sabin) version.

235) Antigenic variation is a challenge in developing vaccines for:

A. Tetanus
B. Polio
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Influenza viruses frequently change their surface antigens, requiring new vaccines each year due to antigenic
variation.

236) Which class of immunoglobulin is primarily involved in mucosal immunity?

A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgA

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgA is abundant in mucosal secretions (e.g., saliva, tears, intestinal fluids), where it helps
neutralize pathogens at entry points.

237) What do granzymes, released by NK cells and cytotoxic T cells, do?

A. Trigger inflammation
B. Promote antibody production
C. Enter target cells and induce apoptosis
D. Block viral replication

Correct Answer: C
 Explanation: Granzymes are cytotoxic enzymes that enter target cells (via perforin pores) and initiate
programmed cell death (apoptosis).

238) Which of the following is not a known autoimmune disease?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lupus
C. Psoriasis
D. Influenza

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Influenza is a viral infection, not an autoimmune disease. The others are all immune-mediated
conditions.

239) Which autoimmune condition is associated with antibodies against acetylcholine receptors?
A. Scleroderma
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Hashimoto thyroiditis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors, impairing
muscle contraction and leading to weakness.

240) What is the primary cause of death in patients with AIDS?

A. HIV virus replication
B. Immune overreaction
C. Opportunistic infections
D. Antibody overproduction

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: AIDS weakens the immune system by destroying CD4+ cells, making patients vulnerable to
opportunistic infections that are typically fatal.

241) What role do chemokines play in the immune response?

A. Destroy viruses
B. Attract immune cells to sites of infection
C. Neutralize antigens
D. Inhibit cytokines

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chemokines are a type of cytokine that recruit leukocytes to sites of infection or inflammation.

242) Which cells are involved in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)?

A. T cells
B. Macrophages
C. Neutrophils
 D. NK cells

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: NK cells can kill target cells that are coated with IgG antibodies, a process known as ADCC.

243) A person with DiGeorge syndrome has impaired immunity due to:
A. B cell deficiency
B. Absence of bone marrow
C. Lack of thymus development
D. Excessive T cell activity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: DiGeorge syndrome results from a congenital absence of the thymus, leading to impaired T cell
development and function.

244) What is the role of TH2 cells?

A. Suppress autoimmunity
B. Stimulate B cells for antibody production
C. Kill infected host cells
D. Neutralize bacterial toxins

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: TH2 cells promote humoral immunity by activating B cells and promoting their differentiation
into plasma cells.

245) Which vaccine is made using genetically engineered yeast?

A. Hepatitis A vaccine
B. Tetanus vaccine
C. Hepatitis B vaccine
D. Rabies vaccine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Hepatitis B vaccine uses recombinant DNA technology to express viral surface antigens in
yeast cells, which are then purified and used as the vaccine.

246) What kind of immunity does recovery from measles provide?

A. Artificial active immunity

B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Natural active immunity

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Recovering from measles leads to natural active immunity because the body produces its own
antibodies following natural infection.
247) Which immune response typically requires 10–14 days to reach protective levels?
A. Secondary response
B. Passive immunity
C. Primary response
D. Anamnestic response

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A primary response (first exposure) takes 10–14 days to build a significant antibody
concentration due to antigen processing and cell activation.

248) Autoimmune thyroiditis is also known as:

A. Grave’s disease
B. Addison’s disease
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis
D. Myasthenia gravis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hashimoto thyroiditis is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks the
thyroid gland, leading to hypothyroidism.

249) What is the main benefit of memory T cells?

A. Production of IgE
B. Rapid response to repeat antigen exposure
C. Stimulation of NK cells
D. Blocking histamine release

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Memory T cells remain after the initial immune response and respond rapidly and effectively if
the same antigen is encountered again.

250) Which hypersensitivity type is characterized by IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity (e.g., allergies) involves IgE binding to mast cells, causing degranulation
and release of histamine when exposed to allergens.

251) In serum sickness, which component causes tissue damage?

A. Viral antigens
B. T cells
C. Antigen–antibody complexes
D. NK cells
 Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Serum sickness is a Type III hypersensitivity reaction caused by deposition of antigen–antibody
complexes in tissues, leading to inflammation.

252) Which immune deficiency is often associated with eczema and bleeding in children?

A. SCID
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
D. Lupus

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome includes eczema, thrombocytopenia (bleeding), and
immunodeficiency, often leading to recurrent infections.

253) Cytotoxic T cells primarily function to:

A. Stimulate antibody production
B. Kill infected or abnormal host cells
C. Neutralize viruses in fluids
D. Secrete histamine

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) recognize and kill infected, cancerous, or foreign cells, often by inducing
apoptosis through perforin and granzymes.

254) Which molecule on T helper cells is targeted by HIV?

A. MHC II
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. IgD

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CD4 is a surface molecule on T helper cells that HIV binds to, leading to their destruction and
immune suppression.

255) Which condition results when the immune system fails to produce protective antibodies or immune
cells?
A. Autoimmunity
B. Immunodeficiency
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Seroconversion

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Immunodeficiency is the failure of the immune system to function properly, making the body
susceptible to infections and cancer.
256) What is the Rh factor?
A. A blood clotting protein
B. An antigen found on red blood cells
C. An antibody produced against platelets
D. A complement protein

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Rh factor is an antigen (D antigen) found on the surface of red blood cells. Individuals with
it are Rh-positive, those without are Rh-negative.

257) An Rh-negative mother is at risk of producing antibodies if:

A. Her baby is also Rh-negative
B. Her baby is Rh-positive
C. She has type O blood
D. She has anemia

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, fetal RBCs may enter her bloodstream
during delivery, stimulating anti-Rh antibody production.

258) What is the immune reaction called when maternal anti-Rh antibodies destroy fetal red blood cells?
A. Hemophilia
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
D. Autoimmunity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) occurs when maternal anti-Rh antibodies cross the
placenta and destroy fetal RBCs, leading to anemia and jaundice.

259) Which class of immunoglobulin is responsible for crossing the placenta and causing HDN?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgG antibodies, unlike IgM, can cross the placenta and attack fetal red blood cells if the fetus is
Rh-positive and the mother has developed anti-Rh IgG.

260) What is the preventive treatment given to Rh-negative mothers to avoid sensitization?
A. Hepatitis vaccine
B. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
C. Tetanus antitoxin
D. MMR vaccine
 Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent sensitization by
destroying any fetal Rh-positive RBCs before the mother can react to them.

261) When is RhoGAM typically administered?

A. Before conception
B. At 6 weeks of gestation
C. At 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery
D. Only after the first child is born

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: RhoGAM is administered at 28 weeks and again within 72 hours after delivery to prevent the
mother’s immune system from making anti-Rh antibodies.

262) Which hypersensitivity reaction type does HDN fall under?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: HDN is a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, in which antibodies bind to antigens on fetal RBCs,
leading to their destruction.

263) Why doesn’t HDN usually occur in a first Rh-incompatible pregnancy?

A. The fetus is immune to the Rh antibodies
B. IgM is the predominant antibody at first
C. IgG antibodies are blocked by the placenta
D. The mother is always treated early

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In the first exposure, the mother usually produces IgM, which cannot cross the placenta. Upon
re-exposure, IgG is produced, which can cross and cause HDN.

264) What is the likely outcome of untreated HDN?

A. Increased immunity
B. Decreased allergy sensitivity
C. Fetal anemia and possible death
D. Liver hypertrophy in the mother

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Untreated HDN can cause severe anemia, jaundice, and fetal death due to destruction of red
blood cells.

265) In Rh incompatibility, which parent typically contributes the Rh-positive gene?

 A. The Rh-negative mother
B. The Rh-negative father
C. The Rh-positive father
D. The fetus itself

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The father usually contributes the Rh-positive gene, which the fetus inherits. If the mother is
Rh-negative, this sets up the risk for Rh incompatibility.

SELF-ASSESSMENT EXERCISES
266) Which of the following is least likely to be involved in CMI?
a. antibodies
b. cytokines
c. macrophages
d. T cells

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Cell-mediated immunity (CMI) is primarily carried out by T cells, macrophages, and cytokines. It
involves direct cellular responses rather than antibody production. While antibodies are central to humoral
immunity, they play only a minor role in CMI.

267) Antibodies are secreted by:

a. basophils
b. macrophages
c. plasma cells
d. T cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Plasma cells are derived from activated B lymphocytes and are responsible for producing and
secreting antibodies, which are key components of humoral immunity.

268) Humoral immunity involves all the following except:

a. antibodies
b. antigens
c. NK cells
d. plasma cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Humoral immunity relies on antibodies, plasma cells, and the presence of antigens, but NK cells
are part of the innate immune system and cell-mediated immunity, not humoral immunity.

269) Immunity that develops as a result of an actual infection is called:

a. artificial active acquired immunity
b. artificial passive acquired immunity
c. natural active acquired immunity
 d. natural passive acquired immunity

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Natural active acquired immunity occurs when a person is infected naturally by a pathogen and
develops immunity as their body responds and produces protective antibodies.

270) Artificial passive acquired immunity would result from:

a. having the measles
b. ingesting colostrum
c. receiving a gamma globulin injection
d. receiving a vaccine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Artificial passive immunity is obtained when a person receives preformed antibodies, such as
gamma globulin, to provide immediate but temporary protection against infection.

271) The vaccines that are used to protect people from diphtheria and tetanus are:
a. antitoxins
b. attenuated vaccines
c. inactivated vaccines
d. toxoids

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Toxoid vaccines are made from inactivated toxins (toxoids) produced by certain bacteria. These
are used in vaccines like those for diphtheria and tetanus to stimulate immunity without causing disease.

272) Natural passive acquired immunity would result from:

a. having the measles
b. ingesting colostrum
c. receiving a gamma globulin injection
d. receiving a vaccine

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Natural passive immunity involves maternal antibodies transferred to the infant, either through
the placenta (IgG) or via colostrum during breastfeeding (mainly IgA).

273) Which of the following statements is not true about IgM?

a. IgM contains a J-chain
b. IgM has a total of 10 antigen-binding sites
c. IgM is a pentamer
d. IgM is a long-lived molecule

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IgM is the first antibody produced during a primary immune response and is a pentamer with
10 antigen-binding sites and a J-chain. However, it is short-lived, unlike IgG, which persists longer in
circulation.
274) Which of the following could be an effect of type III hypersensitivity?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. SLE
d. all of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues,
triggering inflammation. Examples include glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE).

275) Most likely, immunology got its start in 1890 when these scientists discovered antibodies while
developing a diphtheria antitoxin.
a. Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur
b. Élie Metchnikoff and Robert Koch
c. Emil Behring and Kitasato Shibasaburo-
d. Jonas Salk and Albert Sabin

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Emil Behring and Kitasato Shibasaburo are credited with the discovery of antibodies while
working on a diphtheria antitoxin in 1890. This milestone marks the beginning of modern immunology.