K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
CIVICS
1. Indian Constitution
I Choose the Correct Answer
1. One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary.
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
2. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies (d) Right to property
3. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires (b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency (d) All of the above
4. We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the
(a) American Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (c) Russian Constitution (d) Irish Constitution1.
5. Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign (b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic (d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
6. How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Never
7. A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through
(a) Descent (b) Registration (c) Naturalisation (d) All of the above
8. Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Property (d) Cultural and Educational Rights
9. Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 368
10. Which of the following committees/ commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission 2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 2 & 3
II Fill in the Blanks
1. The Constitution of India was adopted on________.
2. ________ writs are mentioned in Article 32.
3. The concept of constitution first originated in ________.
4. ________was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article________.
III Match the Following
1. Citizenship Act - Jawaharlal Nehru
2. The Preamble - 42nd Amendment
3. The mini Constitution - 1955
4. Classical language - 1962
5. National Emergency - Tamil
1
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
2. Central Government
I Choose the correct answer
1. What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 30 years
2. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
a) The President b) The Prime Minister c) State Government d) Parliament
3. Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
a) Article 352 b) Article 360 c) Article 356 d) Article 365
4. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by:
a) The President b) The Attorney General c) The Governor d) The Prime Minister
5. The Constitutional Head of the Union is
a) The Presiden b) The Chief Justice c) The Prime Minister d) Council of Ministers
6. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
a) The President b) Attorney General c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
7. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
a) The President b) Lok Sabha c) The Prime Minister d) Rajya Sabha
II Fill in the blanks
1. ______________ is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
2. ________ has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
3. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ________years.
4. ____________ is the Guardian of the Constitution.
5. _________ Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
6. __________ is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
III Choose the correct statement
1. i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of
literature, science, art and social service.
iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i, ii & iii are correct
2. i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
a) ii & iv are correct b) iii & iv are correct c) i & iv are correct d) i & ii are correct
IV Match the following
1. Article 53 - State Emergency
2. Article 63 - Internal Emergency
3. Article 356 - Executive power of President
4. Article 76 - Office of the Vice President
5. Article 352 - Office of the Attorney General
2
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
3. State Government
I Choose the Correct Answer
1. The State Council of Ministers is headed by
(a) The Chief Minster (b) The Governor (c) The Speaker (d) The Prime Minister
2. The Governor of the State is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice
3. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(a) 25 years (b) 21 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years
4. The Speaker of a State is a
(a) Head of State (b) Head of government (c) President’s agent (d) None of these
5. Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
6. Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Judicial (d) Diplomatic
7. The High Courts in India were first started at
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras (d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
8. Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President (b) The Governor (c) The Chief Minister (d) The Speaker of State legislature .
9. The Governor does not appoint
(a) Chief Minister (b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State (d) Judges of the High Court
10. Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
II Fill in the blanks
1. ______ acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
2. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the _______.
3. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to _______.
4. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) elected by the _______.
III Match the following
1. Governor - Head of the Government
2. Chief Minister - Head of the State
3. Council of Ministers - Tribunals
4. MLC - Responsible for the Assembly
5. Armed forces - cannot vote for grants
3
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
4. India’s Foreign Policy
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which is not related to our foreign policy
a) World co operation b) World peace c) Racial equality d) Colonialism
2. Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
a) Yugoslavia b) Indonesia c) Egypt d) Pakistan
3. Non-Alliance means
a) being neutral b) freedom to decide on issues independently
c) demilitarization d) none of the above
4. Non – military issues are
a) Energy security b) Water security c) Pandemics d) All the above.
5. The Panchaseel treaty has been signed between
a) India and Nepal b) India and Pakistan c) India and China d) India and Sri Lanka
6. Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
a) Article 50 b) Article 51 c) Article 52 d) Article 53
7. The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to
a) Trade and Commerce b) Restoration of normal relations
c) Cultural exchange programmes d) The Five Principles of Co existence
II. Fill in the blanks
1. ____________is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
2. India conducted its first nuclear test at ___________.
3. _____________ was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
III Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer
1. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given
below. (i) Panchsheel (ii) China's Nuclear test (iii) Indo - Soviet treaty (iv) First Nuclear test of India
a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
2. Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries.
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
a) (i) and (ii) b) (iii) and (iv) c) (ii) only d) (iv) only
3. Assertion(A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason(R): India is the World’s second most populous country.
a) A is correct and R explains A b) A is correct and R does not explain A
c) A is wrong and R is correct d) Both are wrong
4. Avoidance of military blocs was necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from
a) acute poverty b) illiteracy c) chaotic socio-economic conditions d) all the above
IV Match the following
1. Indian Ocean island - 1955
2. Land bridge to ASEAN - 1954
3. Panchsheel - Maldives
4. Afro Asian Conference - Foreign Policy
5. World Peace - Myanmar
4
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
5. India’s International Relations
I Choose the correct answer
1. How many countries share its border with India?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
2. Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
c) Maldieves and Nicobar island d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
3. Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Assam
4. How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two
5. Who drew up the borders for independent Pakistan?
a) Lord Mountbatten b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe c) Clement Atlee d) None of the above.
6. Mc Mahon Line is a border between
a) Burma and India b) India and Nepal c) India and China d) India and Bhutan
7. India is not a member of which of the following
1) G20 2) ASEAN 3) SAARC 4) BRICS
a) 2 only b) 2 and 4 c) 2, 4 and 1 d) 1, 2 and 3
8. OPEC is
a) An international insurance Co. b) An international sports club
c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries d) An international company
9. With which country does India share its longest land border?
a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Afghanistan d) China
10. Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
i) Salma Dam - 1. Bangladesh
ii) Farakka accord - 2. Nepal
iii) Chukha hydroelectric project - 3. Afghanistan
iv) Sharda River project - 4. Bhutan
a) 3 1 4 2 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 4 3 2 1
II Fill in the blanks
1. ____________ is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ____________.
3. A strip of land ____________, belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
4. ____________ is known as the Land of thunderbolt.
III Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer
1. The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads 2. Railways 3. Shipping 4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
5. Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-
operation of solar energy.
a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is wrong and R is correct
d) Both are wrong
IV Match the following
1. Brandix - Vienna
2. COMCASA - Japan
3. Shinkansen system - Shanghai
4. BRICS - USA
5. OPEC - Garment city in Vishakapatnam
6
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
ECONOMICS
1. Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction
I Choose the correct answer
1. ______ approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final
good.
a) Expenditure approach b) Value added approach c) income approach d) National Income
2. Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at ______ lakh crore in 2018-19.
a) 91.06 b) 92.26 c) 80.07 d) 98.29
3. India is ______ larger producer in agricultural product.
a) 1st b) 3rd c) 4th d) 2nd
4. India’s life expectancy at birth is ______ years.
a) 65 b) 60 c) 70 d) 55
5. Which one is a trade policy?.
a) irrigation policy b) import and export policy c) land-reform policy d) wage policy
6. GNP equals
a) NNP adjusted for inflation b) GDP adjusted for inflation
c) GDP plus net property income from abroad d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
7. National Income is a measure of
a) Total value of money b) Total value of producer goods
c) Total value of consumption goods d) Total value of goods and services
8. Primary sector consist of
a) Agriculture b) Automobiles c) Trade d) Banking
II Fill in the blanks
1. GDP is the indicator of _____ economy.
2. _____ is the primary sector in India.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as _____.
III Match the following
1. Electricity / Gas and Water – National Income / Population
2. Price policy – Gross Domestic Product
3. GST – Industry Sector
4. Per capita income – Agriculture
5. C + I + G + (X – M) – Tax on goods and service
7
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
2. Globalization and Trade
I Choose the correct answer
1. India signed the Dunkel proposal in
a) 1984 b) 1976 c) 1950 d) 1994
2. Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632
a) Jahangir b) Sultan of Golconda c) Akbar d) Aurangzeb
3. Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in
a) June 1991 b) July 1991 c) July- Aug-1991 d) Aug 1991
4. Who is the head of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)
a) Ministerial conference b) Director General c) Deputy Director General d) None of these
5. Colonial advent in India
a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
6. GATT’s first round held in
a) Tokyo b) Uruguay c) Torquay d) Geneva
II Fill in the Blanks
1. WTO agreement came into force from ___________.
2. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ___________.
3. The term globalization invented by ___________.
III Match the following
1. Multination corporation in India - 1947
2. MNC - enforce international trade
3. GATT - Minimize cost of production
4. WTO - Infosis
8
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
3. Food Security and Nutrition
I Choose the correct answer
1. ________ is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
a) Kerala b) Andhra Pradesh c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka
2. ________ is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
a) Health b) Nutrition c) Sanitation d) Security
3. ______ extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
a) United States of America b) India c) Singapore d) UK
4. _______ revolution was born in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
a) Blue Revolution b) White Revolution c) Green Revolution d) Grey Revolution
5. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the .
a) FCI b) Consumer Cooperatives c) ICICI d) IFCI
6. Which is correct?
i) HYV–High Yielding Varieties ii) MSP–Minimum Support Price
iii) PDS–Public Distribution System iv) FCI–Food Corporation of India
a) i and ii are correct b) iii and iv are correct c) ii and iii are correct d) all are correct
II Fill in the blanks
1. ___________ is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
2. ____________ play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common people.
3. In the year ____________ National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
III Match the following
1. Consumer cooperatives – subsidized rates
2. Public Distribution System – 2013
3. UNDP – supply of quality goods
4. National Food Security Act – United Nations Development Programme
IV Assertion and Reason
1. Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is
affected.
a) A is correct, R is false
b) Both A and R are false statements
c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
9
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
4. Government and Taxes
I Choose the correct answer
1. __________ tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
a) Income tax b) Wealth tax c) Corporate tax d) Excise duty
2. What are identified as causes of black money?
a) Shortage of goods b) High tax rate c) Smuggling d) All of above
3. The three levels of governments in India are
a) Union, state and local b) Central, state and village
c) Union, municipality and panchayat d) None of the above
4. In India, taxes are including
a) Direct taxes b) Indirect taxes. c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
5. Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured
a) Value added tax (VAT) b) Income tax c) Goods and service tax d) Sales tax
6. Income tax was introduced in india for the first time in the year __________ .
a) 1860 b) 1870 c) 1880 d) 1850
7. Which is the role of government and development policies?
a) Defence b) Foreign policy c) Regulate the economy d) all of above
8. The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is
a) Service tax b) Excise duty. c) Income tax d) Central sales tax
II Fill in the blanks
1. The burden of the __________ tax cannot be shifted to others.
2. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on __________.
3. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called __________.
4. __________ is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy.
5. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word __________.
III Choose the correct statement
1. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?
(i) GST is the ‘one point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
a) (i) and (ii) are correct b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct d) All are correct
IV Match the following
1. Income Tax - Value added tax
2. Excise duty - 1 July 2017
3. VAT - Smuggling
4. GST - Direct tax
5. Black money - Indirect tax
10
K. KAMARAJAR MAT. HR. SEC. SCHOOL, ANUPPANKULAM, SIVAKASI.
5. Industrial Clusters in Tamilnadu
I Choose the correct answer
1. ___________ are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
a) agriculture b) industry c) railway d) none of these
2. Tiruppur is known for
a) Leather tanning b) Lock making c) Knitwear d) Agro-processing
3. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
a) Hosur b) Dindigul c) Kovilpatti d) Tirunelveli
4. ‘The Detroit of Asia’ is ___________.
a) Tuticorin b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Madurai
5. Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
a) Salem b) Coimbatore c) Chennai d) Dharampuri
II Fill in the blanks
1. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ___________ District in Tamil Nadu.
2. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced on in ___________.
III Pick out odd one
1. Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
a) Ranipet b) Dharmapuri c) Ambur d) Vaniyambadi
2. Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency?
a) TIDCO b) SIDCO c) MEPZ d) SIPCOT
IV Match the following
1. Entrepreneur - Export Processing Zone
2. MEPZ - Coimbatore
3. TANSI - Innovator
4. Manchester of South India - 1965
11
