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Imp Ques Science Class 10th

The document contains important questions for Class 10 Science, focusing on chapters related to chemical equations, acids, bases, salts, and metals and non-metals. It includes multiple choice questions, fill in the blanks, one mark questions, assertions and reasons, three mark questions, five mark questions, and case studies. The questions cover various concepts such as types of chemical reactions, properties of acids and bases, and the characteristics of metals.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
4 views40 pages

Imp Ques Science Class 10th

The document contains important questions for Class 10 Science, focusing on chapters related to chemical equations, acids, bases, salts, and metals and non-metals. It includes multiple choice questions, fill in the blanks, one mark questions, assertions and reasons, three mark questions, five mark questions, and case studies. The questions cover various concepts such as types of chemical reactions, properties of acids and bases, and the characteristics of metals.

Uploaded by

malisushant83
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CLASS 10

Science
CHAPTER WISE
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
CHAPTER-1
CHEMICAL EQUATIONS AND REACTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. Barium chloride on reacting with am monium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium
chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(i ) Displacement reaction
(ii Decomposition reaction
(iii Combination reaction
(iv Double displacement reaction
2. Chemically, rust is (i) ferric sulphate
(ii) ferric oxide
(ii)hydrated ferrous oxide
(iv) hydrated ferric oxide
3. When green colour ferrous sulphate crystals are heated , its colour changes as
(i it is decomposed to ferric oxide
(ii it loses water of crystallisation
(iii it forms SO2
(iv it forms SO3

FILL IN THE BLANKS


4. Precipitation reactions are type of ______________.
5. Decomposition of calcium carbonate forms _________ and _________.
6. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper to remove________.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the gas produced by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on zinc granule.
8. Which gas is used to prevent rancidity in potato chips packets?
9. Write one equation to represent thermal decomposition.
ASSERTIONS AND REASON
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Colour of copper sulphate solution does not change when the iron nail is kept in
it. Reason: Iron is more reactive than copper and displaces it.

11. Assertion: Combustion reaction is also called an exothermic oxidation reaction. Reason:
In this reaction oxygen is added and heat energy is released.

12. Assertion: Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason: Sulphur dioxide is formed on the reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place with an
example of each:
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Change in state
14. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe it and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it.
(ii) How will the colour of salt change?
(iii) Mention one commercial use of this salt.

15. (a) Zinc oxide reacts with carbon, on heating to form zinc metal and carbon monoxide.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(ii) Name the oxidising agent and the reducing agent.
(b) Identify the reducing agent in the following reaction
4NH3 + 5H2O 4NO + 6H2O

16. Balance the following equation and Identify the type of reactions:
(i) CH4+O2 CO2 + H2O
(ii) Pb(NO3)2+ KI PbI2 + KNO3
(iii) Cu + AgNO3 Cu(NO)3+ Ag

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS


17. (a) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.
(i) State the type of reaction.
(ii) Translate the above statement into a balanced chemical equation.
(b) A metal ‘X’ acquires a green colour coating on its surface on exposure to air.
(i) Identify the metal ‘X’ and name the process responsible for this change.
(ii) Name and write the chemical formula of the green colour coating formed on the surface of the
metal.
18. 2g of Ferrous Sulphate crystals are heated in a boiling tube.
(i) State the colour of Ferrous Sulphate crystals both before heating and after heating.
(ii) Name the gases produced during heating.
(iii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
(b) Describe an activity to show a decomposition reaction in which light is used to decompose a
reactant.
Write the chemical equation of the reaction and state one of its uses.
19. (a)Why is it essential to balance a chemical equation?
(b) With the help of a chemical reaction, explain the decomposition of lead nitrate.
(c)Can rusting of iron take place in distilled water? Give a reason.
(d)Give two methods to prevent rancidity.
(e) How will you test for the gas which is liberated when HCl reacts with an active metal?

20. CASE- STUDY


Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
A strip of metal X is immersed in the aqueous solution of salt YSO4. After some time a layer of
metal Y from the salt solution is deposited on the strip of X. Whereas the metal X is used for
galvanisation and metal Y is used in electrical cables.
(a) Identify the metal X.
(b)What could be the metal Y?
(c)Can you name the salt YSO4?
(d)Represent the above change in the form of a chemical equation.
CHAPTER 2 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. Which is a soluble base in the water?
(i) Cu (OH)2
(ii) Fe(OH)3
(iii) Zn(OH)2
(iv) KOH
2. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH
paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper greenish-
blue? (i) Lemon juice
(ii) vinegar
(iii) common salt
(iv) antacid
3. Which of the following salt does not contain water of crystallization?
(i) Blue vitriol
(ii) Baking soda
(iii) Washing soda
(iv) Gypsum
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. __________ is a natural indicator whereas ____________ is a synthetic indicator.
5. The acid and base present in sodium acetate are ____________ and _________ respectively.
6. _____________ is called king of chemicals.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the substance obtained by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime.
8. In addition to sodium hydrogen carbonate baking powder contains a substance X. Name the substance
X.
9. How many molecules of water of crystallization are present in washing soda and POP?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using baking soda.
Reason: Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate and
removes bitter taste.
11. Assertion: Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason: The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in it.
12. Assertion: The aqueous solution of glucose and alcohol does not show acidic character. Reason:
Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not produce hydrogen ions.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. How can you prepare sodium hydroxide? Name the products formed on cathode and anode.
Write one use of each by-product formed in the above reaction.
14. A substance X is used as a building material and is insoluble in water. When reacted with
dilute HCl, it produces a gas that turns lime-water milky. Predict the substance and write the
chemical equations involved

15. Give a reason for the following :


(i) Ammonia is a base but does not contain a hydroxyl group.
(ii) Milk of Magnesia is used by a person suffering from acidity. (iii) Sodium hydroxide cannot be kept
in aluminium containers.
16. (a) Write an equation for the reaction of iron with steam. Name the compound of iron
obtained. (b)A small amount of copper oxide is taken in a beaker and dil. HCl is added slowly
while stirring.
(i) What is the colour of the solution obtained?
(ii) What happens to copper oxide during the reaction?

FIVE MARK QUESTION


17. (a) A liquid has a pH less than 7 which represents an acidic solution.
(i) State the nature of the solution, if its pH increases from 7 to 14.
(ii) Mention the ion whose concentration increases with the increase in pH value.
(iii) Suggest a method that is generally used for measuring pH value.
(b)A student collected two samples of dil HCl and distilled water in a separate test tube. She forgot
to label the tubes. Both samples are colourless. The solution of litmus, phenolphthalein and lime
water is available to her.
(i) How will she distinguish between the two samples?
18. (i) What is the chemical name of the Plaster of Paris?
(ii) Write the chemical formula of plaster of Paris in two ways.
(iii) What happens when Plaster of Paris comes in contact with moisture? Also support your answer
with the help of chemical equation.
(iv) Write the two uses of the Plaster of Paris.
19. Demonstrate with the help of an experiment how acidic solution conducts electricity.
(i) If acetic acid and hydrochloric acid of the same concentration are taken, which of the two is
stronger acid and why?
(ii) How the strength of alkali solution is will be affected if sodium hydroxide added to it?

20. CASE- STUDY


Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
Sunita was learning to bake cakes. She added the ingredients according to the recipes and placed
them in the oven. When the cake was ready she took it out from the oven. She was surprised as the
cake was hard instead of soft and fluffy.
(a) What is the probable reason that the cake was not fluffy?
(b)What ingredient did she miss adding while preparing the cake?
(c) Write a chemical reaction to show how this ingredient makes the cake fluffy?
(d)What is the chemical constituent of this ingredient?
CHAPTER-3 METALS AND NON METALS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. Which of the following is not a property of metals?
(i) Conduction
(ii) Sonorous
(iii) Dullness (iv) Ductility
2. Metals are refined by using different methods .Which of the following metal is refined by electrolytic
refining? (i) Au (ii) Cu (iii) Na (iv) K
(i) (i) and (ii)
(ii) (i) and (iii)
(iii) (ii) and (iii) (iv) (iii) and (iv)
3. Which of the following contains mercury as one of its constituents? (i) Stainless Steel
(ii) Alnico
(c) Solder
(d) Zinc amalgam
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Aqua regia consists of ______ parts of conc. HCl and _____ parts of conc HNO3.
5. ________________ is a liquid non -metal.
6. __________ is an amphoteric oxide.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name one metal which is a good conductor of electricity and one which is a poor conductor of
electricity.
8. Why are food cans coated with tin and not with zinc?
9. Give the role of anhydrous calcium chloride in the process of roasting.
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion
(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Iron is found in the free state in nature.
Reason: Iron is a highly reactive element.
11. Assertion: The thermite welding process is based on reducing the property of iron.
Reason: The reduction of metal oxide to form metal by using aluminium powder is called
thermite reaction.
12. Assertion: Magnesium chloride is covalent.
Reason: Metals and non-metals react by mutual transfer of electrons.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. (a) A zinc rod was dipped in the CuSO4 solution. After a certain time, copper from the solution was
deposited on the zinc rod. State the reason why did it happen. Give the chemical equation of the
reaction involved.
(b)Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in the process
of extraction of metal from them?
14. An ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide.
(a)Which process would you suggest for its concentration?
(b)Describe briefly any two steps involved in the conversion of concentrated ore into related metal.

15. Give a reason for the following:


(a) Ionic compounds have a high melting point and boiling point.
(b) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in a molten state.
(c) Ionic compounds are solids at room temperature and are somewhat hard.
16. What happens when
(i) ZnCO3 is heated in the absence of
oxygen? (ii) A mixture of Cu2O and
Cu2S is heated?
(iii) A copper coin is kept immersed in a solution of silver nitrate for some time.

F IVE MARK QUESTIONS


17. (a) In the formation of compounds between two atoms A and B, A loses two electrons and B
gains one electron.
(i) What is the nature of the bond formed between A and B?
(ii) Suggest the formula of the compound formed between A and B.
(b) Explain the formation of the MgCl2 molecule.
(c) Write the electron dot structure of oxygen.
18. (a)What is meant by the refining of metals?
(b)Generally, no hydrogen gas is evolved when metals react with dilute nitric acid. Why?
(c)Write the chemical name of the coating that is formed on silver and copper articles.
(d)How do the properties of iron change when:
(i) A small quantity of carbon is mixed with it? (ii)Nickel and chromium are mixed with it?
19. (a)You are provided with three metals Sodium, Magnesium, and copper. Using only water as
the reactant how will you identify them?
(b)Hydrogen is not a metal but it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series of
metals. Explain.
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
A customer approached a newly trained Goldsmith and asked him to make ornaments. For
this, he gave advance money. The Goldsmith bought a bar of 24-carat gold and tried to make
ornaments from it. He was not as successful as the gold was too soft to handle. He
approached a trained goldsmith who advised him to use 22-carat gold for this purpose and
this time he was successful and could make the ornaments.
(a) What is the difference between 24-carat gold and 22-carat gold?
(b)Does gold corrode in saltwater?
(c) Name the chemical which can dissolve gold.
(d) Why is 22-carat gold used in making ornaments?

CHAPTER- 4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(i)carbon monoxide only
(ii)carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(iii)carbon dioxide
(d)coal
2. The name of the compound CH3 CH2 CHO is
(i)propanol
(ii)propanone
(iii)ethanol
(iv)ethanal
3. The soap molecule has a
(i)hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
(ii)hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
(iii)hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
(iv)hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Hydrogenation of vegetable oil is _________ reaction.
5. Soap reacts with hard water to form __________.
6. CnH2n is the general formula of _________.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name an element which exhibits the property of catenation only up to seven or eight atoms.
8. Draw a structure of isomers of butane.

9. Name the dehydrating agent used in the preparation of ester.


ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion
(A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Carbon compounds can form branched, chain and ring structures.
Reason: Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.
11. Assertion: Alkanes give an additional reaction.
Reason: Addition reactions are characteristics property of unsaturated compounds.
12. Assertion: Soaps are not suitable for washing purposes when water is hard.
Reason: Soaps have relatively weaker cleansing action.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
Write a chemical equation to represent the following:
13. (i)Hydrogenation of vegetable oil. (ii)Combustion of alcohol.
(iii)Dehydration of alcohol.

14. (a)What happens when ethanol reacts with the Sodium and Potassium permanganate
solution? (b)How would you bring about the following conversions? Name the process and
write the reaction involved.
(i)Ethanol to ethane
15. An organic compound burns with a sooty flame.
(i)Is it a saturated or an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(ii)Giving a balanced equation, state how you will convert methane to carbon
dioxide. (iii)What happens when sodium is dropped into ethanol?
16. (a) The black electrode of the dry cell on strong heating in the air gave a colourless gas which
turns lime water milky. Identify the material of the electrode and gas evolved.
(b)Draw the structure of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons having the molecular
formula C6H12.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a)Name the following compounds:
(i)CH3CH2CH3
(ii)CH3COCH2CH3(iii)HCO
OH (b)Draw the structure
for Benzene.
(c)Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid. Why?
18. (a)Identify the compounds ‘A’ ‘B ’and ‘ C’ in the following reactions:
(i)C2H5OH + CH3CHCOOH→A+H2O
(ii)CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → B + C2H5OH
(iii)CH3COONa + NaOH(CaO) → C + Na2CO3
(b)Define the functional group.
(c)Identify the functional group present in the following compounds: HCOOH, HCHO.

19. (a) A cyclic compound ‘X’ has molecular formula C6H6. It is unsaturated and burns with a sooty flame.
Identify ‘X’ and write its structural formula. Will it decolourise bromine water? Explain why or why not.
(b)Why detergents are considered more useful than soaps these days? Give two reasons.
20. CASE- STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
The teacher asked Heena to perform the test for unsaturation in the laboratory for ethylene
gas. She took some Schiff’s reagent in a test tube and passed it to the gas. Nothing happened
so the teacher asked her to pass the vapours of gas into bromine water. The colour of the
bromine water got discharged.
(a)What mistake was committed by Heena?
(b)Which type of a reaction takes place when bromine water reacts with ethylene gas?
(c)Give the chemical equation of the reaction.
(d)How is ethylene gas produced?
BIOLOGY
Chapter-6
Life-Processes

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. Which element is used in the synthesis of proteins?
(i) Hydrogen
(ii) Oxygen
(iii) Nitrogen
(iv) Carbon dioxide
2. Temporary finger-like extensions on amoeba are called as
(i) Cell membrane
(ii) Cell wall
(iii) Pseudopodia
(iv)Cilia
3. Bile juice is secreted by
(i) Stomach
(ii)Pancreas
(iii)Small intestine
(iv)Liver
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The sum of all the biochemical reactions is known as-----.
5. Haemoglobin is known as -------pigment.
6. Palisade and spongy parenchyma together called---.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Which mechanism plays an important role in the transportation of Water in plants? (a) During day
time (b) at night.
8. What is the purpose of sending blood to the kidney for filtration?
9. Why intestinal villi are highly vascular?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Saliva contains pepsin enzyme.
Reason: Pepsin digests lipids.
11. Assertion: Pyruvate is six carbon-containing compounds. Reason: It is formed during anaerobic
respiration.
12. Assertion: The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous fingers like projections called villi.
Reason: The villi increase the surface area of absorption.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. (a) Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell (i) In the presence of oxygen.
(ii) In the absence of oxygen.
(b)Define the term muscle fatigue.
14. Mention the role of following in digestion: (a) pepsin (b) amylase (c) lipase.
15. The pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5. What changes will occur in his mouth?
How can these changes be controlled? Write any two measures.
16. Describe an experiment to show that ‘sunlight is essential for photosynthesis.’
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of the human alimentary canal. Also, name the longest part of the
alimentary canal.
(b)Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
18. (a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of stomata. Also, mention its function.
(b) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata pore?
19. (a) What are the basic materials used during photosynthesis?
(b) List the three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis.
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
The oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the upper-left chamber of the heart, the left
atrium. The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood and then contracts, while the
next chamber, the left ventricle, expands so that the blood is transferred to it. When the
muscular left ventricle contracts in its turn, the blood is pumped out to the body. De-
oxygenated blood comes from the body to the upper – right chamber, the right atrium, as it
expands. As the right atrium contracts, the corresponding lower chamber, the right ventricle,
dilates. This transfers blood to the right ventricle, which in turn pumps it to the lungs for
oxygenation. Note that not all organisms have a 4-chambered heart. Amphibians or many
reptiles have three-chambered hearts, while fish, on the other hand, have only two-
chambered hearts. This pumping of heart around the body takes place through blood vessels
called veins and arteries.
(a) Which part of the heart contains oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?
(b) Why the wall of the ventricle is thick in comparison with the atrium?
(c) Differentiate between arteries and veins.
(d) What is the significance of the four-chambered heart?

Chapter-7
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to the:
(i) Effect of sunlight on the tendril cells facing the sun.
(ii) Effect of gravity on the part of tendril hanging down towards the earth.
(iii) Rapid cell division and elongation in tendril cells that are away from the support. (iv) Rapid cell
division and elongation in tendril cells in contact with the support.
2. The plant hormone which triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from the plant body is: (i) Auxin
(ii) Gibberellin
(iii) Abscisic acid
(iv) Cytokinin
3. The stimulus in the process of thigmotropism is:
(i) Touch
(ii) Gravity
(iii) Light
(iv) Chemical

FILL IN THE BLANKS


4. The----- gland is present just below the brain.
5. ----is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
6. The----nerve connects all the parts in the body directly by the brain.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals.
8. Name the hormones that help in regulating the level of sugar in our blood.
9. Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: The brain is the anterior-most part of the central nervous system.
Reason: The brain controls all the voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
11. Assertion: Endocrine glands secrete hormones.
Reason: Hormones are also known as chemical messengers.
12. Assertion: A receptor is a specialised group of cells in a sense organ that perceive a particular type of
stimulus.
Reason: Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. What is a reflex action? Draw the diagram of a reflex arc. Describe the steps involved in a reflex
action.
14. Name the system which facilitates communication between the central nervous system and other
parts of the body.
(a) Mention the two types of nerves it consists of along with their organs of origin.
(b) How does our nervous system detect stimuli or changes in the external or internal environment of
the body?
15. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label a cell body and the axon. (b) Name the parts of a
neuron- (i) which acquires information?
(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
16. What is phototropism? Describe an activity with the help of a diagram to demonstrate
phototropism.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) Draw a neat and well-labelled diagram of a human brain. (b) How is the brain
protected from injury and shock?
(c) Name two main parts of the hindbrain and state their functions.
18. Explain with the help of a diagram how auxin helps in the bending of the plant stems
towards the light.
19. Hormones are needed by our body in an appropriate amount; slightly more or less
secretion causes disorders in our body. Illustrate this process by using three examples.
(b)What will happen, if the pancreas of a person stops functioning?
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
Movement of a shoot towards light is called phototropism. This movement is caused due to
more growth of cells towards the shaded side of the shoot as compared to the side of the shoot
towards the light.
More growth of cells is due to secretion of auxin towards the shaded side.
(a) A potted plant is made to lie horizontally on the ground. Which part of the plant will show (i)
Positive geotropism? (ii) Negative geotropism?
(b) Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where is it synthesized?
(c) Define chemotropism in plants.
(d) Define nastic and tropic movement in the plant.

Chapter-8
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. When an animal is cut into pieces and each piece grows into a complex organism. This process is
called: (i) Budding
(ii) Fragmentation
(iii)Spore formation
(iv)Regeneration
2. The portion on which grafting is done and it provides the roots is called: (i)Stock
(ii)Scion
(iii)Both a and b
(iv)None of these
3. Where does fertilisation occur in human females?
(i)Uterus
(ii)Cervix
(iii)Oviduct
(iv)Ovary
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction is called----.
5. The number of chromosomes in parent and offspring of a particular species remains constant due to---
--.
6. Vegetative propagation refers to the formation of new plants from------.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?
8. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
9. What happens when Planaria gets cut into pieces?

ASSERTIONS AND REASONS


For the question numbers 10,11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Thin branched filaments of fungi are called hyphae.
Reason: Fungi are also known as decomposers.
11. Assertion: Flowers are the organs of sexual reproduction in
plants. Reason: Flowers are always bisexual.
12. Assertion: Genes are the stretch of DNA and determine genetic
characters. Reason: Functional unit of DNA is called genes.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. Reproduction is linked to the stability of population of a species. Justify the statement.
14. Correlate the number of chromosomes with the size of the organism and answer the following
questions:
(i)Do larger organisms have the more number of chromosomes?
(ii)Can an organism with fewer chromosomes reproduce more easily than an organism with
more number of chromosomes?
15. What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination in a
flowering plant?
16. Give reasons for the following:
(i)Leaves of bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of roses do not?
(ii)Why can’t more complex organisms give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
(iii)Why are the testes located in scrotum?
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system.
(i) Ovary (ii) Uterus (iii) Fallopian tube
(b) Write the structure and function of the placenta in the human female.
18. (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperm and secretes a
hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its function.
(b)Write the site of fertilisation and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human
female. (c) State in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body.
19. (a) Differentiate between germination and fertilisation. (b)Differentiate between pollen and ovule.
(c) What happens to the following parts after fertilisation? (i)) Ovary (ii)
Ovule (iii) Sepals and petals?
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
A scientist removed some cells from the growing point of a plant and placed it in a suitable
medium to the formation of a shapeless lump of mass X. X is then transformed to another
medium which stimulates it to develop roots. When X with developed roots is placed in a yet
another medium, then it develops shoots to form tiny plantlets. These plantlets can then be
transplanted in pots or soil where they can grow to form mature plants. Answers these
questions with the help of a given figure.
(a)What is the shapeless lump of mass X known as?
(b)What name is given to this method of producing new plants?
(c)Name any two plants which are produced by this method.
(d)State any two advantages of this method of producing plant.

Chapter-9
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is the impossible outcome of Mendel's Experiment?


(i) 3 tall 1 short plant
(ii) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(iii) 8 tall and 0 short plants
(iv) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant
2. Analogous organs have
(i) Same structure, same function
(ii) A different structure, different function
(iii)Same structure, different function
(iv) A different structure, same function
3. Which of the following is not controlled by genes?
(i)Weight of a person
(ii)Height of a person
(iii)Both 1 and 2
(iv)Sometimes 1 and
sometimes 2 FILL IN THE
BLANKS

4. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The
nature of the cross will be-----.
5. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a------.
6. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, radish and tomato. ------of them represent the correct
homologous structures.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS

7. Variation is an important aspect of reproduction. Which type of organism shows maximum variation?

8. Write one word for the formation of a new species due to gradual change over a long period of
time.
9. Inheritance is possible because of a certain factor present in organisms. What is this factor?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS

For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a),
(b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: Mutation is a sudden change in the genetic material.
Reason: Variation is useful for the survival of species.
11. Assertion: The cross between RR yy and rr YY seeds will obtain RrYy offspring which will
exhibit round and yellow phenotype as these traits are dominant one.
Reason: When two characters are crossed then it is called dihybrid cross.
12. Assertion: Sexual reproduction involves meiosis in gamete mother cells to form gametes.
Reason: Meiosis is also known as a reduction division.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

13. Give one example of each of the characters that are inherited and the ones that are acquired by
humans. Mention the difference between acquired and inherited characters.
14. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located. Explain its role in the process
of reproduction of the cell.
15. 'It is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a boy or a girl'. Justify the statement and
support your answer with a neat illustration.
16. A child questioned his teacher that why do organism resemble their parents more as compared to
grandparents. In which way will the teacher explain this answer to the child?

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. Explain with suitable examples of how artificial selection has helped in the formation of new
varieties of cauliflower.
18. Bacteria have a simpler body plan when compared to human beings. Does it mean that human
beings are more evolved than bacteria? Explain with a suitable example.
19. In pea plants, the round seed is dominant over the wrinkled. If a cross is carried out between these
two plants, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the genes for the trait of a parent.
(b) State the trait of the F1 hybrid.
(c) Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross? What is the
name of the cross?
CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
Homologous organs are the organs evolved from the same ancestors but they have different
functions. For example, forelimb of horse and wings of the bat. Flipper of the whale, human
hand are other examples of homologous organs.

(a)State with reasons whether the following are homologous or


analogous organs: (i) Wings of butterflies and wings of bats (ii)
Forelimbs of frog and human.
(b)Which vestigial organ in man suggests that he is descendant of herbivorous mammals?
(c)Identify the method which uses carbon for studying fossils.
(d)Why archaeopteryx is known as connecting link of reptiles and birds?
CHAPTER-15

OUR ENVIRONMENT

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The constituents who do not form eco-system are


(i) Biotic constituents
(ii)Plastic bags
(iii)Abiotic constituents
(iv)All of these
2. The functional unit of the environment is
(i)Ecosystem
(ii)Nitrogen
(iii)Carbon
(iv)Oxygen
3. Which of the following is an example of producers?
(i)Plastic pens
(ii)Plastic cans
(iii)Polythene
(iv)Green plants
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. The various level or stages in a food chain at which the transfer of food takes place is called---.
5. --------is used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
6. Two abiotic components of an environment are----and ----.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Give one example of aquatic food chain.
8. Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste be discarded in two separate dustbins?
9. State a way to prevent the accumulation of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: All green plants and blue-green algae can produce their food using abiotic and biotic
components.
Reason: Green plants capture 1% of sunlight and convert it into food energy.
11. Assertion: Ozone (O3) layer is present at higher levels of the atmosphere.
Reason: It is a deadly poison at ground level.
12. Assertion: Only 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level. The remaining 90% of energy
is
Used in the life processes.
Reason: Human activities lead to environmental problems such as the production of a huge
amount of garbage.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. (a) ‘Energy flow in the food chain is unidirectional’. Justify this statement.

(b) Explain how pesticides enter the food chain and subsequently enter in our body.
14. (a) What is an ecosystem? List two main components of the ecosystem.
(b) We don’t clean ponds and lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why?
15. Describe how decomposers facilitate recycling of matter to maintain balance in an ecosystem.

16. (a) In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available
to the producer?
Plants--------- Deer ---------Lion
(b) List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

17. Categorise any two activities performed by you as an eco-friendly person. Suggest any three eco-
friendly activities which we should adopt in our day to day life.
18. (i)How do food chains get shortened?
(ii) How does the shortening of the food chain affect the biosphere?
(iii)How will you justify that vegetarian food habits give us more calories?
(b) Carnivores cannot be self-dependent and have to depend on herbivores. Explain.
19. (a) Explain the phenomena of ‘biological magnification’. How does it affect organisms belonging to
different trophic levels, particularly to the tertiary consumers?
(b)Mention the ecologically amplified elements that lead to a decline in the population of predator
birds.
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
High UV radiation breaks down oxygen into oxygen atoms. These oxygen atoms when combining
with oxygen, they form ozone. The thickness of the ozone layer over Antarctica was found to be
decreased in the year 1985. This is defined as ozone depletion. This is due to excessive use of
chlorofluorocarbons in refrigerators, ACs, aerosols, etc. Thinning of ozone would allow
penetration of Ultraviolet rays into the earth's atmosphere causing blindness, skin cancers, and
mutations.

(a)What is the function of ozone in the upper stratosphere?


(b)Name the group of chemical compounds which adversely affect the ozone layer.
(C)Write one negative effect of the affluent lifestyle of a few people of a society on the environment.
(d)Write one effect of ozone on the ecosystem.

CHAPTER- 10 LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. The focal length of the plane mirror is
(i)Infinity
(ii) Zero
(iii)Negative
(iv)None of these
2. An image formed by a plane mirror is
(i) Real and erect
(ii) Real and inverted
(iii) Virtual and erect
(iv)Virtual and inverted
3 A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
(i)At F
(ii)At infinity
(iii)At C
(iv)Beyond C
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Image formed by a plane mirror is always ______ and ________.
5. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, that is faces towards the centre of the
sphere, is called a ______.
6. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to _________of its radius of curvature.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Differentiate between a converging and diverging lens.
8. Differentiate between a real image and a virtual image.
9. The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 600. What is the angle of incidence?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: The refractive index of a prism depends only on the kind of glass of which it is made of
and the
colour of light.
Reason: The refractive index of a prism depends on the refracting angle of the prism and the angle
of the minimum deviation.
11. Assertion: A red object appears dark in the yellow light. Reason: A red colour is scattered less.
12. Assertion: Incident ray is directed towards the centre of curvature of spherical mirror. After
reflection
it retraces its path.
Reason: Angle of incidence i = Angle of reflection r = 0o.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. Draw the image formation by a concave mirror of focal length 15cm for the following positions of the
object. Also, indicate the nature and relative size of the image:
(i)The object is placed at 30cm from the mirror.
(ii) The object is placed at 10cm from the mirror.

14. The size of the image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be
reduced to half of its size.
(a) At what distance has the object been placed from the mirror?
(b) What is the nature of the image and the mirror?
(c) The power of a lens is - 1.5D. What is the nature of this lens?
15. How does the velocity of light vary with change in the optical density of the media?
Absolute refractive indices of medium 'A' and medium 'B' are 'na' and 'nb' respectively. What is the
refractive index of medium 'B' concerning medium 'A'?
A concave lens made up of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index
n2. A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path of rays of light parallel to principal
axis incident on the concave lens after refraction when:
(i)n1>n2 (ii)n1=n2
16. (a) A ray of light falls normally on a face of a glass slab. What are the values of angle of incidence and
angle of refraction of this ray?
(b) Light enters from air to a medium ‘X’. Its speed in medium‘X’becomes1.5× 108m/s. The speed of
light in air is 3x108m/s. Find the refractive index of medium ‘X’.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) A concave mirror produces a three times enlarged image of an object placed at 10cm in front of it.
Calculate the focal length of the mirror.
(b)Show the formation of the image with the help of a ray diagram when an object is placed 6cm
away from the pole of a convex mirror.
18. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 80cm in front of a mirror by
keeping the candle flame at a distance of 20cm from its pole.
(i)Which type of mirror should the student use?
(ii)Find the magnification of the image produced.
(iii)Find the distance between the object and its image.
(iv)Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case and mark the distance between the
object and its image.
19. Name the spherical mirror used as (a) 1. Shaving mirror 2. Rear view mirror in vehicles.
(a)A man is holding a lighted candle in front of a thick glass mirror and on viewing it obliquely he
noticed several images of the candle. Why?
20. Case study
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
A stick immersed in water appears to be bent. A stick immersed in water reflects light rays. These
rays when traveling in water travel in a straight line path but when they go from water to air, they
deviate from their path and get deflected away from the normal. When these refracted rays are
produced, they appear to meet at point "I" which is higher than the actual point that is 'O'.
Therefore, a stick immersed in water appears to be bent due to refraction.
(a)Define lateral displacement.
(b) What is the cause of the refraction of light?
(c) Explain Snell’s law.
(d) Which quantity remains constant in case of refraction?

CHAPTER -11 The Human Eye and the Colourful World

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. The image formed by the retina of the human eye is
(i)Virtual and erect
(ii)Real and inverted
(iii)Virtual and inverted
(iv)Real and erect
2. The change in the focal length of the human eye is caused due to
(i)Ciliary muscles
(ii)Pupil
(iii)Cornea
(iv)Iris
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is (i)25m
(ii)20m
(iii)25cm
(iv)20cm
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the----.
5. The part of eye sensitive to light is-----.
6. The part of the eye which alters the size of the pupil is----.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Name the part of an eye which is equivalent to
(i)Diaphragm
(ii)Camera
8. A person is advised to wear spectacles with concave lenses. What type of defect of vision is he
suffering from?
9. Why does it take some time to see in a dim room when you enter the room from the bright sunlight?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: The Blue colour of the sky appears due to the scattering of light.
Reason: Blue colour has the shortest wavelength among all the colours of the white light.
11. Assertion: A normal human eye can see all the objects beyond a certain minimum distance. Reason:
The human eye can suitably adjust the focal length of its lens to a certain extent.
12. Assertion: Owls can move freely during the night.
Reason: They have a large number of rods on their retina.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. A person is unable to read a book clearly when kept at a distance of 25cm from his eye. Name the
defect. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for
(i) Defective eyes
(ii) Corrected eyes.
14. (a)Mention the names of two phenomena due to which a rainbow is formed.
(b)Explain with the help of a diagram of how a rainbow is formed.
15. Draw a labelled diagram of the human eye. What is the significance of the blind spot and yellow
spot?
16. (i)Demonstrate an activity with a labelled diagram to prove that white light is made up of seven
colours.
(ii)Why do different colours get separated when white light passes through a prism?
(iii)How can we recombine the components of white light after a prism has separated them?
Explain with the help of a diagram.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a)A child reads words of a book with the help of a convex lens keeping it close at the book. He finds
words enlarged and erect then he gradually withdraws the lens away from the book. At one position
the words again become distinctly visible but this time these are enlarged and inverted. Explain this
difference with the help of a ray diagram for both the cases.
(b) A concave lens has a focal length of 15cm. At what distance should the object from the lens be
placed so that it forms an image at 10cm from the lens? Also, find the magnification.
18. (a)Ravi is given lenses with powers+5D,-5D, +10D,-10D and -20D.Considering a pair of lenses at a
time, which two lenses will he select to have a combination of total focal length when two lenses are
kept in contact in each case. (i)-10cm (ii)20cm (iii)-20cm
(b) A person having presbyopia uses a bifocal lens to restore proper vision. Which part of the lens
is convex and which part is concave?
19. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.

Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen
DE. (i)Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed. (ii)Where else in nature is this
phenomenon observed?
(iii)Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituent of
white light.
20. CASE STUDY-
Answer question numbers 20(a) to 20(d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
When light falls on the prism it splits the incident light into a band of colours. The sequence of
colours observed is VIBGYOR (Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red). This band of
colour is known as Spectrum. So, this splitting of incident light into different colours is known as
Dispersion. This splitting is due to the bending of light rays at different angles.

(a)Which colour has the highest wavelength?


(b)Which colour has the highest velocity?
(c)Which colour has the highest refractive index?
(d)Why the dispersion of light takes place.
CHAPTER–12 Electricity

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called
(i)Electric potential
(ii)Electric conductance
(iii)Electric current
(iv)None of these
2. Which of the following is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
(i)Ohm
(ii)Ampere
(iii)Volt
(iv)Faraday
3. Which instrument is used for measuring the electric potential difference between two points of the
circuit? (i)Ammeter
(ii)Galvanometer
(iii)Voltmeter
(iv)All of these
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. ---- -and------are the two types of electric charges.
5. Two resistances of 4 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel. ------- is the combined resistance of the
system.
6. -----------is an instrument that measures electric current in a circuit.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of a circuit is doubled. By what factor does
the current change in the circuit?
8. A charge of 2C moves between two plates maintained at a Potential difference of 1V. What is the
energy acquired by the charge?
9. Consider the units volt, ohm, and ampere. One of them is the same as the product of the other two.
Which one is this?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10, 11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures
thereby increasing its resistivity.
11. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest potential is the positive terminal of the
battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the higher potential as it flows in such a circuit
from the negative to the positive terminal.
12. Assertion: There is no current in the metals in the absence of an electric field. Reason: The
motion of the free electron is random.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. Give reason-
(a)The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with an increase in temperature.
(b) Copper and aluminium are generally used for electricity transmission.
(c) Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices such as electric iron and toaster.
14. In the given circuit resistors A and B made of the same metal are of the same length but A is thicker
than B. Which of the two ammeters will show a higher reading? Justify your answer.

15. Find the total resistance between the points A and B in the circuit diagram shown.

16. Five resistors are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. Find the ammeter reading when the
circuit is closed.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. State Ohm’s law. Write the mathematical representation of Ohm’s law. Use this relationship to
define 1ohm. List two disadvantages of connecting different electrical appliances in series.
18. In an experiment, the current flowing through a resistor and the potential difference across it is
measured. The values are given below.
I (ampere) 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5
V(Volt) 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.00
(i)Plot a V-I graph from the given values.
(ii)State one conclusion drawn from the graph.
(iii)State the law which is confirmed by this graph.
(iv)Calculate the resistance of the resistor using the graph.
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following paragraph
and the related studied concepts.
A continuous conducting path between the terminals of a source of electric energy and other
electrical components along which the electric current flows is called an electric circuit. Types of
electric circuits -
1.Closed electric circuit 2. Open circuit

Open electric circuit: It is the circuit in which electric contact is broken at some point such that no
current flows through the components of the circuit.
Closed electric circuit: The circuit in which all the components of a circuit are joined to one another
such that a continuous current flows through them is a closed electric circuit.
Some electronic devices with symbols used are:
Rheostat - It is defined as the variable resistance. It is connected to change the current in the circuit
without changing the voltage source like cell etc.
Galvanometer- It is a device used to measure a very small amount of current as it has very low
resistance.
(a) What is the SI unit of electric charge?
(b) What is the difference between open and closed circuit?
(c) Can a galvanometer be converted into ammeter?
(d) Define Ohm’s law.

CHAPTER–13 MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


1. What is electromagnetic induction?
(i)the process of charging a body
(ii)the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
(iii)producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
(iv)the process of generating a magnetic field due to current passing through a coil
2. What happens to the current in the short circuit?
(i)reduces substantially
(ii)does not change
(iii)increases heavily
(iv)vary continuously
3. An alpha particle is diverted towards the west is deflected towards the north by a field. The field is
magnetic. What will be the direction of the field?
(i)towards south
(ii)towards east
(iii)downward
(iv)upward
FILL IN THE BLANKS
4. ---------is the strength of the magnetic field at a point near a current-carrying wire related to the
current.
5. The frequency of A.C. used in India is-------------.
6. -------- Is the purpose of a soft iron core in making electromagnet?
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
7. Why magnetic field lines are form closed curve?
8. State the direction of the magnetic field inside the bar magnet?
9. What will you do if you see a person coming in contact with a live wire?
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS
For the question numbers 10,11 and 12, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10. Assertion: The magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.
Reason: A moving charge produces a magnetic field.
11. Assertion: If an electron is not deflected while passing through a certain region of space, then
only
the possibility is that there is no magnetic region.
Reason: Force is directly proportional to the magnetic field applied.
12. Assertion: Free electron always keeps on moving in a conductor even then no magnetic force act
on them in the magnetic field unless the current is passed through it. Reason:
The average velocity of a free electron is zero.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
13. What happens to the force acting on current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field when:
(i)The current in conductor increases.
(ii)The length of the conductor increase.
(iii)The direction of the current and magnetic field both are reversed.
14. Consider a circular wire lying in a plane of the table and the direction of current in its
anticlockwise. (i)Draw the magnetic field lines produced around it.
(ii)Why does the magnetic field at the centre of the current-carrying a circular loop appear
straight?
15. If we place a compass needle straight conductor carrying current:
(a) What happens to the deflection of the compass needle if the direction of the current is
reversed? (b)What change will you notice in the compass needle if it is moved away from the
conductor but the current through the conductor remains the same?
16. State one main difference between A.C. and D.C. Why A.C. is preferred over D.C. for long-range
transmission of electric power? Name one source each of D.C and A.C.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
17. (a) What is a solenoid?
(b)Draw the pattern of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid.
(c)How is the magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid used to make an electromagnet?
Explain with the help of a diagram.
(d)List two factors on which the strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying
solenoid depends.
18. (a) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic circuit showing provision of: (i) Earth wire, (ii)
Main fuse (iii) Electricity meter and (iv) distribution box (b) Distinguish between Short Circuiting
and Overloading.
19. In the arrangement shown in the figure, there are two coils A and B wound on non–conducting
cylindrical
Initially, the key is not inserted.
Then the Key is inserted and later removed.
(i)State your observation in each case.
(ii)State the conclusion based on your observations.
20. CASE STUDY
Answer question numbers 20 (a) to 20 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and the related studied concepts.
When the current flows through a conductor from South to North then the magnetic needle placed
beneath it, gets averted to the west, thereby proving that the flow of electric current produces a
magnetic field. This is because the compass needles work as a small bar magnet, so when this
magnetic needle is brought near another magnetic property surrounding then the like poles will
repel, thereby the needle gets deflected.

(a) Define the magnetic field.


(b) Write any two properties of a magnet.
(c) Write the properties of magnetic field lines.
(d) How can we get the polarity of magnets?

SAMPLE PAPER-II
General Instructions:
The question paper comprises three sections- A, B, and C. Attempt all the sections.
All questions are compulsory.
Internal choices are given in each section.
All questions in Section A are one-mark questions comprising MCQ, VSA type and assertion-reason type
questions. They are to be answered in one word or one sentence.
All questions in Section B are three-marks, short-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about 50-60
words each.
All questions in Section C are five-marks, long-answer type questions. These are to be answered in about 80-90
words each.
This question paper consists of a total of 30 questions.

1. Name and draw the structure of the simplest ketone. 1

2. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their atomic radii - Li, Be, F, N. 1

3. The sun contains mainly light elements like Hydrogen and Helium. When the nuclei of these
elements fuse at extremely high temperatures in the interior of the Sun, a large amount of
energy is radiated in the form of heat and light continuously by the Sun. This process is known as
Nuclear fusion. Answer the following questions based on the given diagram.

3(a) (a) Define Solar panel. 1


3(b) (b) Name two activities in our daily life in which solar energy is used. 1
3(c) (c) State the energy conversion taking place in solar panels. 1
3(d) (d) Name chief component of a solar cell. 1
4. Answer question numbers 4 (a) to 4 (d) based on your understanding of the following
paragraph and related studies concepts.
The river Ganga is not only held
sacred, but it also supplies water to
more than 50 million people. It flows
for 2500 km from Gangotri in the
Himalayan to Ganga Sagar in the Bay
of Bengal. Ganga along with its
tributaries is the largest river basin of
the country. On the way, it passes
through over 100 towns and cities of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. It is
turning into a dirty water drain.

Total coliform count levels in the Ganga (1993-1994). It was 1600 MPN/100 ml during 2005-
2008 even at Haridwar.
The coliform itself is harmless, but its presence in river water indicates that other harmful,
intestinal bacteria might also be present. The increased pollution load and the resultant toxicity
kill fishes in parts of the river.
4(a) Which environmental pollution does the graph given above of total coliform count levels 1
indicate?
4(b) Ganga is turning into a dirty drain in the passage, why is this happening? Write any two factors. 1
4(c) Name the significant step taken by the government in concern with the problem stated in the 1
passage.
4(d) Which of the following steps/methods cannot be considered helpful in reducing the problem 1
stated in passage?
(i) Diversion of sewers away from the river.
(ii) Wallowing of cattle.
(iii)Construction of community toilets.
(iv)Setting up of effluent treatment plants by industry.
5. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the 1
(a) crystalline lens. (b) the outer surface of the cornea. (c) iris. (d) pupil.
OR
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected using a
lens of power.
(a) +0.5 D (b) -0.5 D (c) +0.2 D (d) -0.2 D
6. Least count of a voltmeter and an ammeter in given figures would respectively be: 1
(a) 0.2V, 0.2mA (b) 0.2V, 0.2A (c) 0.1V, 0.2mA (d) 1V, 2mA.

7. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. The number of an electron passing 1


through
a cross-section of the filament in 16 sec would be rough.
(a) 1020 (b) 1016 (c) 1018 (d) 1023
8. Involuntary action in the body is controlled by
1
a medulla in forebrain (b) medulla in midbrain
(c) medulla in hindbrain (d) medulla in the spinal brain
OR
The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
(a) effect of light
(b)effect of gravity (c
)rapid cell division in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
(d)rapid cell division in tendrillar cells that are in contact with the support.
9. The main constituent of biogas is 1
(a)Methane (b)carbon dioxide (c) hydrogen (d) hydrogen sulphide

10. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium 1
chloride. Which of the following represents correctly the type of reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction (iii)
Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction.
a (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv)
11. Which of the following is used for the dissolution of gold? 1
a Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Nitric acid (d) Aqua regia
12. What type of oxide would Eka aluminium form? 1
a
EO3 (b) E3O2 (c) E2O3 (d) EO
OR
Which of the following elements would lose electrons easily?
(a) Mg (b) Na (c) K (d) Ca
For the question numbers 13 and 14, two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. ASSERTION (A): In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent. 1
REASON (R): The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction is reducing agents.
14. ASSERTION (A): A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond a certain minimum
1 distance.
REASON (R): The human eye has the capacity to suitable adjust the focal length of its lens to a
certain extent.

SECTION-B

15. (a) Two reactions are given below : 3


(i) KI + Cl 2 KCl + I2
(ii)2K + Cl2 2KCl
Identify the type of reaction and give justification in each case.
(b) Write the essential condition and application of the reaction given below 2AgBr
2Ag + Br2
16. (a) A metal M forms an oxide having the formula M2 O3. It dissolved in both dilute hydrochloric
3
acid and dilute sodium hydroxide solution. Identify the metal and write equations involved in the reaction.
(b) Name the chemicals used in fire extinguisher and the gas evolved by their reaction.
OR
Write the chemical name of Na2CO3.10H2O.Write the significance of 10H2O. How is
Na2CO3.10H2O prepared?
17. An element X which is yellow solid at room temperature shows catenation and allotropy. X 3
forms two oxides which are also formed during the thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate
crystals and are the major air pollutants.
(a) Identify the element and write its electronic configuration.
(b) Locate the position of the element in the modern periodic table.
(c) What would be the nature of oxides of X? Give reason
18. What is the feedback mechanism of harmonic regulation? Take the example of insulin to 3
explain this phenomenon.
OR
(a) Plants do not have any nervous system but yet, if we touch-sensitive plant, some
observable changes take place in its leaves. Explain how this plant could respond to the
external stimuli and how it is communicated.
(b) Why nervous system is not sufficient in control and coordination in multi-cellular
organisms? (two points)
19. (a)Do guard cells have rigid or elastic cell walls? Justify your answer. 3
(b)How are guard cells different from the rest of the epidermal cells?
(c )Why is it preferred to take an epidermal peel from the lower surface of the leaf?
20. Write the main difference between the asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which 3
species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival-the one reproducing asexually or
the one reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
21. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of 3
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
22. If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of a focal length 8
3 cm, draw the ray diagram and find the position, nature and height of the image formed.
23. Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the following network. Also, find 3
ammeter reading.
24. A person wears spectacles of power – 2.5 D name the defect of vision he’s suffering from. Draw
3 the ray diagram for defective eyes and corrections of its suitable lens.

OR
Write the power of accommodation of the human eye. Use mirror formula show that convex
mirror always forms virtual image?
SECTION – C
25. A metal P, when exposed to moist air, loses its shining brown surface and gains green coating:
5 what has happened? Identify the metal; write the name and chemical formula of green
coating and two ways to prevent this process.
OR
State the property utilized in the following (i)
Graphite is used in making electrodes.
(ii) Electric wires are coated with poly vinyl chloride or rubber-like
material.
(iii) Ornaments are made of gold and silver. (iv) School bells are made
of metals.
(v) Solder is used for welding electric wires.
26. (a) River water, tap water, distilled water – Out of these three which will form the 5
maximum length of foam/lather after shaking these samples in a test tube and why?
(b)What happened when 2 ml of acetic acid was added in drops to 5 ml of water?
(b) Explain the given reactions with equations:
(i) Substitution (ii) esterification
27. (i)In the given representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in 5
human heart label and the parts marked as a, b, c, d, e and f.
(ii) Write two points of difference between the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein.

28. (a) Draw a longitudinal section of a flower and label the following parts: 5
(i) Part that produces pollen grain.
(ii)The part that transfers the male gametes to the female gametes.
(iii) )The part that is sticky to trap pollen grain.
(iv) The part that develops into a fruit.
(b) How does the fusion of male and female gametes in plants take place, by explaining double
fertilisation and triple fusion?
OR
(a) Draw a neat diagram of the human male reproductive system and label the parts
performing the following function:
(i) Production of sperm.
(ii)The gland which provides fluid.
(iii) What provides low temperature for the formation of sperms.
(iv)Common passage for sperms and urine.
(b)Name a sexually transmitted disease with a pathogen category and method to avoid it.
(c)State any two changes seen in boys at the time of puberty.

29. (a)What do you understand by the term fuse in an electric circuit? 5


(b)State two properties of a material, which make it suitable for making fuse wire.
(c )Why fuse wire is always placed in the live wire of an electric circuit?
(d )How does fuse wire protect an electric circuit?
(e)Which has more resistance: 100w bulb or 60w bulb? Why.
30. (a)What is the role of two conducting stationary brushes in a simple electric motor? 5 (b) How
does the strength of the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire depend on (i) radius
of the coil (ii) number of turns of the wire of the coil?
OR
A current of one ampere flows in a series circuit containing an electric lamp and a conductor of
5Ω when connected to a 10V battery. Calculate the resistance of the electric lamp. Now if the
resistance of 10Ω is connected in parallel with this series combination. What change (if any) in
current flowing through 5Ω conductor and potential difference across the lamp will take place?
Give reason. Draw circuit diagram.

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