AP Bio Organic Practice Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient
energy, a possible result is that
a. an electron may move to an electron shell farther out from the nucleus.
b. an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
c. the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
d. the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation.
e. the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

____ 2. Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to
a. form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
b. form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
c. be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
d. be unstable and chemically very reactive.
e. be isotopes and very radioactive.

Use the information extracted from the periodic table in Figure 2.2 to answer the following
questions.

Figure 2.2

____ 3. Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior most like
that of oxygen?
a. carbon
b. hydrogen
c. nitrogen
d. sulfur
e. phosphorus

____ 4. Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is
correct about the atoms in ammonia ( )?
a. Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
b. The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
c. Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
d. The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge.
e. There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms.

____ 5. When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
a. equal numbers of isotopes.
 b. ions.
c. polar covalent bonds.
d. nonpolar covalent bonds.
e. ionic bonds.
____ 6. What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
a. a nonpolar covalent bond
b. a polar covalent bond
c. an ionic bond
d. a hydrogen bond
e. a hydrophobic interaction

____ 7. A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

a. one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other
atom.
b. the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
c. the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
d. it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
e. the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.
____ 8. Which of the following molecules contains the strongest polar covalent bond?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

____ 9. Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?
a. nonpolar covalent bond
b. polar covalent bond
c. ionic bond
d. hydrogen bond
e. hydrophobic interaction

____ 10. Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
a. a covalent bond
b. a van der Waals interaction
c. an ionic bond in the presence of water
d. a hydrogen bond
e. A and B only

____ 11. Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?

a. Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the
reactants and products.
b. Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
c. Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the
reactants equals the concentration of the products.
 d. Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
e. There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have
stopped.
____ 12. Which of the following describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?
a. The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
b. The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
c. All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
d. All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
e. Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the
concentration of the reactants and the products.
____ 13. A group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the
effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to you for advice.
Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone?
a. a compound with the same number of carbon atoms as the hormone
b. a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormone
c. a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone
d. a compound with the same number of orbital electrons as the hormone
e. a compound with the same number of hydrogen and nitrogen atoms as the
hormone
____ 14. The reactivity of an atom arises from
a. the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
b. the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
c. the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
d. the potential energy of the valence shell.
e. the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.

____ 15. In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. nonpolar covalent bonds.
c. polar covalent bonds.
d. ionic bonds.
e. van der Waals interactions.

____ 16. An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between

a. C and H in methane (CH ).
b. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule.
c. Na and Cl in salt.
d. the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H ).
e. Mg and Cl in MgCl .

____ 17. Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because

a. oxygen has a valence of 2.
b. the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron.
 c. the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent
bonds.
d. the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge.
e. each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.

____ 18. What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

a. hydrophobic interactions
b. nonpolar covalent bonds
c. ionic bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
e. both A and C

____ 19. Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?
a. Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
b. A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
c. Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical
reactions. D) Water can act as a solvent.
d. The pH of water remains exactly neutral.

____ 20. Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
a. Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
b. Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
c. A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
d. The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
e. Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

____ 21. Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

a. small size of the water molecules.
b. high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
c. absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
d. fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
e. inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.

____ 22. Why does ice float in liquid water?

a. The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice.
b. The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
c. Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
d. Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the
water molecules of liquid water.
e. The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

____ 23. The following question is based on Figure 3.1: solute molecule surrounded by a hydration shell of
water.
 Figure 3.1
Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely
a. positively charged.
b. negatively charged.
c. without charge.
d. hydrophobic.
e. nonpolar.

____ 24. Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

a. nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.
b. nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.
c. polar substances that repel water molecules.
d. polar substances that have an affinity for water.
e. charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

____ 25. The molar mass of glucose ( ) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you
carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?
a. Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water
until the total volume of solution is 1 L.
b. Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until
the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
c. Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water
until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
d. Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
e. Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.

____ 26. A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL
of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment
are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax?
 a. 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
b. 5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
c. 10 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
d. 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
e. 50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
____ 27. Identical heat lamps are arranged to shine on identical containers of water and methanol (wood
alcohol), so that each liquid absorbs the same amount of energy minute by minute. The covalent
bonds of methanol molecules are non-polar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol
molecules. Which of the following graphs correctly describes what will happen to the temperature of
the water and the methanol?

a.

b.

c.
 d.

e.

____ 28. A given solution contains 0.0001(10 ) moles of hydrogen ions [H ] per liter. Which of the
following best describes this solution?
a. acidic: H acceptor
b. basic: H acceptor
c. acidic: H donor
d. basic: H donor
e. neutral

____ 29. Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H ]?
a. gastric juice at pH 2
b. vinegar at pH 3
c. tomato juice at pH 4
d. black coffee at pH 5
e. household bleach at pH 12

____ 30. Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxyl ions [OH ]?
a. lemon juice at pH 2
b. vinegar at pH 3
c. tomato juice at pH 4
d. urine at pH 6
e. seawater at pH 8

____ 31. Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
a. They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are
added to them.
b. They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are
added to them.
c. They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids.
 d. They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to
them.
e. They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.

____ 32. Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by

a. releasing H in acidic solutions.
b. donating H to a solution when they have been depleted.
c. releasing OH in basic solutions.
d. accepting H when the are in excess.
e. Both B and D are correct.

____ 33. One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid . Carbonic
acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO
) and a hydrogen ion (H ). Thus,

If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

a. a decrease in the concentration of and an increase in the concentration of
.
b. an increase in the concentration of and a decrease in the concentration of
.
c. a decrease in the concentration of and an increase in the concentration of
.
d. an increase in the concentration of and a decrease in the concentration of
.

____ 34. Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by
a. buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams.
b. decreasing the H concentration of lakes and streams.
c.
increasing the OH concentration of lakes and streams.
d. washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential
nutrients for plant growth.
e. both B and C

____ 35. Carbon dioxide (CO ) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO + H O H CO .
Carbonic acid (H CO ) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO . What prediction can we make
about the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells?
a. Blood pH will decrease slightly.
b. Blood pH will increase slightly.
c. Blood pH will remain unchanged.
d. Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO combines with hemoglobin.
 e. Blood pH will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO combines with
hemoglobin.

Self-Quiz Questions

____ 36. A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L
container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water?
(Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg.)
a. 50°C
b. 5°C
c. 10°C
d. 100°C
e. 1°C

____ 37. The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are
a. ionic bonds.
b. hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
c. covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules.
d. polar covalent bonds.
e. nonpolar covalent bonds

____ 38. How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2) would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution
of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for
hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)
a. 10.0 g
b. 0.1 g
c. 6.0 g
d. 60.0 g
e. 0.6 g

____ 39. The experimental approach taken in current biological investigations presumes that
a. simple organic compounds can be synthesized in the laboratory from inorganic
precursors, but complex organic compounds like carbohydrates and proteins can
only be synthesized by living organisms.
b. a life force ultimately controls the activities of living organisms and this life force
cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods.
c. although a life force, or vitalism, exists in living organisms, this life force cannot
be studied by physical or chemical methods.
d. living organisms are composed of the same elements present in nonliving things,
plus a few special trace elements found only in living organisms or their products.
e. living organisms can be understood in terms of the same physical and chemical
laws that can be used to explain all natural phenomena.
____ 40. Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?
a. The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
b. The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
c. They are hydrophilic.
d. They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
 e. They are lighter than water.

____ 41.

Figure 4.4
What is the name of the functional group shown in Figure 4.4?
a. carbonyl
b. ketone
c. aldehyde
d. carboxyl
e. hydroxyl

____ 42. Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a. an alcohol such as ethanol
b. a monosaccharide such as glucose
c. a steroid such as testosterone
d. an amino acid such as glycine
e. a hydrocarbon such as benzene

____ 43. Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
a. ketone and aldehyde
b. carbonyl and carboxyl
c. carboxyl and amino
d. phosphate and sulfhydryl
e. hydroxyl and aldehyde

____ 44. Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?
a. amino
b. carbonyl
c. carboxyl
d. sulfhydryl
e. aldehyde

____ 45. Which functional groups can act as acids?

a. amine and sulfhydryl
b. carbonyl and carboxyl
c. carboxyl and phosphate
d. hydroxyl and aldehyde
e. ketone and amino

The following questions refer to the structures shown in Figure 4.5.

 Figure 4.5

____ 46. Which of the structures is an impossible covalently bonded molecule?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

____ 47. What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?
a. phosphodiester linkages
b. hydrolysis
c. dehydration reactions
d. ionic bonding of monomers
e. the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

____ 48. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers
long?
a. 12
b. 11
c. 10
d. 9
e. 8

____ 49. A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a

a. carbohydrate.
b. lipid.
c. monosaccharide
d. carbohydrate and lipid only.
e. carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

____ 50. Which of the following is true of cellulose?

a. It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers.
b. It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
c. It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells.
d. It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
e. It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.

____ 51. Which of the following statements is false for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?
a. They are soluble in water.
b. They are an important constituent of cell membranes.
 c. They contain more energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
d. They are not true polymers.
e. They contain waxes and steroids.

____ 52. The hydrogenation of vegetable oil results in which of the following?
a. saturated fats and unsaturated fats with trans double bonds
b. an increased contribution to artherosclerosis
c. the oil (fat) being a solid at room temperature
d. A and C only
e. A, B, and C

____ 53. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
a. the release of a water molecule.
b. the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.
c. the addition of a nitrogen atom.
d. the addition of a water molecule.
e. both B and C

____ 54. There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
a. different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon
b. different amino groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon
c. different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (α) carbon
d. different alpha (α) carbons
e. different asymmetric carbons

____ 55.

Figure 5.5
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure
5.5?
a. It is a hydrolysis reaction.
b. It results in a peptide bond.
c. It joins two fatty acids together.
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C

____ 56. Polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins are similar in that they
a. are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.
b. are synthesized from monomers by dehydration reactions.
c. are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
d. are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
e. all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.

____ 57. Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many
peptide bonds are present in this protein?
 a. 101
b. 100
c. 99
d. 98
e. 97
____ 58. Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
a. peptide bonds
b. hydrogen bonds
c. disulfide bonds
d. phosphodiester bonds
e. A, B, and C

____ 59. Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet structures of
proteins?
a. hydrophobic interactions
b. nonpolar covalent bonds
c. ionic bonds
d. hydrogen bonds
e. peptide bonds

____ 60. The tertiary structure of a protein is the

a. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
b. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.
c. unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.
d. organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet.
e. overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide
subunits.
____ 61. A strong covalent bond between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific
three-dimensional shape is a (an)
a. ionic bond.
b. hydrophobic interaction.
c. van der Waals interaction.
d. disulfide bond.
e. hydrogen bond.

____ 62. At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most
important?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary
e. all of the above

____ 63. What would be an unexpected consequence of changing one amino acid in a protein consisting of
325 amino acids?
a. The primary structure of the protein would be changed.
 b. The tertiary structure of the protein might be changed.
c. The biological activity or function of the protein might be altered.
d. Only A and C are correct.
e. A, B, and C are correct.
____ 64. Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a
protein?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary
e. all of the above

____ 65. What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?
a. tertiary protein
b. chaperonin
c. enzyme protein
d. renaturing protein
e. denaturing protein

____ 66. Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

a. the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of
water
b. the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
c. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water
d. the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water
e. the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous
base with the production of a molecule of water

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in Figure 5.8. Each molecule may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
 Figure 5.8

____ 67. Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?

a. 1
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
e. 9

____ 68. Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?
a. 1, 4, and 6
b. 2, 7, and 8
c. 7, 8, and 13
d. 11, 12, and 13
e. 12, 13, and 15

____ 69. The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the
a. primary level.
 b. secondary level.
c. tertiary level.
d. quaternary level.
e. All structural levels are equally affected.

Short Answer

Refer to Figure 5.6 to answer the following questions.

Figure 5.6

70. At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its
component amino acid?

71. Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?

72. Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?

AP Bio Organic Practice Test
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
3. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
4. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
5. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
6. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
7. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
8. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
9. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
10. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
11. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
12. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
13. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 2.4 SKL: Application/Analysis
14. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
15. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
16. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Application/Analysis
17. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
18. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
19. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
20. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
21. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
22. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
23. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
24. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
25. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Application/Analysis
26. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
27. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.2 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
28. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
29. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
30. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
31. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
32. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
33. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Application/Analysis
34. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
35. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 3.3 SKL: Synthesis/Evaluation
36. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
37. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
38. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
39. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
40. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
42. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
43. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
44. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
45. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
46. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 4.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
47. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
48. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.1 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
49. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.2 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
51. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
52. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
53. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Application/Analysis
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concepts 5.1-5.4
SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
57. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
59. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
61. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
63. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
64. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
66. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Concepts 5.1-5.4
SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
67. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.3 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
68. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Self-Quiz Questions

SHORT ANSWER

70. ANS:
C

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

71. ANS:
A

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension

72. ANS:
E

PTS: 1 TOP: Concept 5.4 SKL: Knowledge/Comprehension