1

PRELIMS 5. What type of patient care model is the most common for student
FUNDA nurses and private duty nurses?
● Total patient care
1.The nurse questions a doctor's order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM ● Team nursing
for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fits that statement? ● Primary Nursing
● Change agent ● Case management
● Client advocate
● Case manager 6. A client who is recovering from surgery has been ordered a
● Collaborator change from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse would
offer which full liquid item to the client?
2. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the: ● Popsicle
● Person, Environment, Nurse, Health ● Carbonated beverages
● Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure ● Gelatin
● Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative ● Custard
● Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
7. The wall unit is not functioning: You then try to use the portable
3. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or suction equipment available, How much pressure of suction
well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and
he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and airways in case of portable suction units?
knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain ● 2-5 mmHg
independence as rapidly as possible. ● 5-10 mmHg
● Abdellah ● 10-15 mmHg
● Henderson ● 15-25 mmHg
● Levin
● Peplau 8. According to Leavell and Clark's ecologic model, All of this are
factors that affects health and illness except:
4. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness ● Reservoir
of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to ● Agent
higher human spirit. ● Environment
● Benner ● Host
● Watson
● Leininger 9. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates
● Swanson incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?
 2

● Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted "I feel weak" You saw that his TPN is already empty and another
by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe, to TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is
the xiphoid process. already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable
● Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion. complication being experienced by the client?
● The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 ● Hyperglycemia
seconds. ● Hypoglycemia
● Allow a 30 seconds interval between suctioning. ● Infection
● Fluid overload
10. A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV fluid in an 8 hour
shift. The IV drip factor is 60. The IV rate that will deliver this amount 14. The charge nurse observes a new staff nurse who is changing a
is: dressing on a surgical wound. After carefully washing her hands the
● 50 cc/ hour nurse dons sterile gloves to remove the old dressing. After removing
● 55 cc/ hour the dirty dressing, the nurse removes the gloves and dons a new pair
● 24 cc/ hour of sterile gloves in preparation for cleaning and redressing the
● 66 cc/ hour wound. The most appropriate action for the charge nurse is to:
11. A male client is being transferred to the nursing unit for ● interrupt the procedure to inform the staff nurse that sterile
admission after receiving a radium implant for bladder cancer. The gloves are not needed to remove the old dressing.
nurse in-charge would take which priority action in the care of this ● congratulate the nurse on the use of good technique.
client? ● discuss dressing change technique with the nurse at a later
● Place the client in reverse isolation date
● Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods ● interrupt the procedure to inform the nurse of the need
● Admit the client into a private room to wash her hands after removal of the dirty dressing
● Encourage family and friends to visit and gloves

12. An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the 15. The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a
workplace and encourages all employees to use it. This is an postoperative male client. The nurse Trish records the following
example of which level of health promotion? amounts of output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9 a.m.: 60
● Primary prevention ml. Based on these amounts, which action should the nurse take?
● Secondary prevention ● Increase the I.V. fluid infusion rate
● Tertiary prevention ● Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
● Passive prevention ● Notify the physician
● Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output
13. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness,
weakness, and diaphoresis. The client said
 3

16. A tuberculosis intradermal skin test to detect tuberculosis ● Under the client's tongue
infection is given to a high-risk adolescent. How long after the test is ● Between the client's cheeks and gums
administered should the result be evaluated? ● In the client's ear canal
● Immediately
● Within 24 hours 21. Which of the following positions is commonly used by a nurse for
● In 48 to 72 hours administering a cleansing enema?
● After 5 days
● Left lateral Sims
17. A child has third-degree burns of the hands, face, and chest. ● Dorsal recumbent
Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? ● Trendelenburg
● Ineffective airway clearance related to edema ● Prone
● Disturbed body image related to physical appearance
● Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss 22. A patient experiences difficulty swallowing a capsule medication.
● Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption What should the nurse do to address this issue?

18. When a nurse is preparing to measure the temperature of an ● Dissolve the capsule in water
alert patient admitted to the hospital due to dehydration caused by ● Inquire about the availability of a liquid formulation
vomiting and diarrhea, which method is most appropriate? ● Administer the capsule with a thickened beverage
● Crush the capsule and place it under the patient's tongue
● Oral method
● Axillary method 23. The nurse receives an order to administer ampicillin capsules
● Radial method TID p.o. The medication should be given...
● Rectal method
● Three times a day, taken orally
19. When providing mouth care for an unconscious patient, the most ● Four times a day, taken orally
appropriate position for the patient is: ● Twice a day, taken by mouth
● Twice a day, before meals
● Fowler's position
● Side-lying position
● Supine position
● Semi-Fowler's position 24. How can one prevent contamination of the surroundings while
making a bed?
20. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The
medicine should be placed.. ● Refrain from shaking soiled linens
● Remove all linens simultaneously
● On the client's skin ● Complete both sides of the bed at once
 4

● Use disposable gloves while handling linens ● patient with leukopenia

● patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
25. What is the primary objective of administering a cleansing bed ● postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic
bath? surgery
● newly diagnosed diabetic patient
● Provide hygiene, comfort, and refreshment for
bedridden patients 29. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical
● Expose essential body parts for examination asepsis?
● Stimulate circulation in immobile patients
● Assess the body temperature of a client in bed ● Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
● Nasogastric tube insertion
26. The nurse is preparing an intramuscular (IM) injection containing ● Urinary catheterization
an irritant to subcutaneous tissue. To prevent tracking of the ● Colostomy irrigation
medication, the most suitable action would be to:
30. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be
● Massage the injection site after administration careful that the first thing she touches is the:
● Apply ice to the injection site prior to administration
● Inject the medication at a 45-degree angle ● Waist tie and necktie at the back of the gown
● Employ the Z-track technique ● Waist tie in front of the gown
● Cuffs of the gown
27. Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated ● Inside of the gown
by preserving skin integrity?
31. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix)
● Host daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and
● Reservoir muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the
● Mode of transmission patient is experiencing:
● Portal of entry
● Hypokalemia
● Hyperkalemia
● Anorexia
● Dysphagia

32. The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum
specimen for culture is:
28. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an
infection? ● Early in the morning
 5

● After the patient eats a light breakfast 37. The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to
● After aerosol therapy instill ear medication properly is for the nurse to:
●
● After chest physiotherapy ● Ask the patient if he/she has used ear drops before
● Have the patient repeat the nurse's instructions using her
33. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections own words
because it: ● Demonstrate the procedure to the patient and encourage
to ask questions
● Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication ● Ask the patient to demonstrate the procedure
● Bruises too easily
● Can be used only when the patient is lying down
● Does not readily parenteral medication
38. Clay colored stools indicate:
34. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:
● Upper GI bleeding
● 18G, 1 ½" long ● Impending constipation
● 22G, 1" long ● An effect of medication
● 22G, 1 ½" long ● Bile obstruction
● 25G, 5/8" long
39. Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention
35. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic necessary for all patients with a Foley Catheter in place?
reaction to blood transfusion?
● Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with
● Hemoglobinuria the patient's bladder
● Chest pain ● Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin solution three times a
● Urticaria daily
● Distended neck veins ● Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the
bladder's elasticity
36. All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis ● Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below
except: bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity

● Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site 40. The two blood vessels most commonly used for TPN infusion are
● Edema and warmth at the IV insertion site the:
● A red streak exiting the IV insertion site
● Frank bleeding at the insertion site ● Subclavian and jugular veins
● Brachial and subclavian veins
 6

● Femoral and subclavian veins 45. A male patient undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy. When
● Brachial and femoral veins assessing the patient 10 hour: later, the nurse identifies which finding
as an early sign of shock?
41. When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse
should use which muscles to avoid back injury? ● Restlessness
● Pale, warm, dry skin
● Abdominal muscles ● Heart rate of 110 beats/ minute
● Back muscles ● Urine output of 30 ml/hour
● Leg muscles
● Upper arm muscles 46. Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment
of an unconscious male adult?
42. Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients with which of the
following conditions? ● Radial
● Brachial
● Increases partial thromboplastin time ● Femoral
● Acute pulsus paradoxus ● Carotid
● An impaired or traumatized blood vessel wall
● Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

43. Which action by the nurse in charge is essential when cleaning

the area around a Jackson-Pratt wound drain?

● Cleaning from the center outward in a circular motion

● Removing the drain before cleaning the skin
● Cleaning briskly around the site with alcohol
● Wearing sterile gloves and a mask 47. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?

44. The doctor orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused ● Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart
over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter. The failure
nurse in charge should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of: ● Administering a measles, mumps, and rubella
immunization to an infant
● 15 drop per minute ● Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical
● 21 drop per minute cancer
● 32 drop per minute ● Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with
● 125 drops per minute arthritis
 7

48. The nurse in charge is assessing a patient's abdomen. Which ● Superior vena cava
examination technique should the nurse use first? ● Basilica vein
● Jugular vein
● Auscultation ● Subclavian vein
● Inspection
● Percussion 53. Nurse Margaret is revising a client's care plan. During which step
● Palpation of the nursing process does such revision take place?

49. The nurse in charge identifies a patient's responses to actual or ● Assessment

potential health problems during which step of the nursing process? ● Planning
● Implementation
● Assessment ● Evaluation
● Nursing diagnosis
● Planning 54. One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is:
● Evaluation
● Developing a content outline
50. A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg P.O. ● Establishing outcome criteria
b.i.d. in the plan of care, the nurse should emphasize teaching the ● Documenting drugs given
patient abr the importance of consuming: ● Setting realistic client goals

● Fresh, green vegetables 55. A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender,
● Bananas and oranges reddened area on her right calf. Which contributing factor would the
● Lean red meat nurse recognize as most important?
● Creamed corn
● A history of increased aspirin use
51. A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which ● An active daily walking program.
nursing diagnosis should receive highest priority at this time? ● Recent pelvic surgery
● A history of diabetes
● Impaired gas exchanges related to increased blood flow
● Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease 56. Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client
● Risk for injury related to edema that exhibits signs of sleep disturbance?
● Altered peripheral tissue, perfusion related to venous
congestion ● Administer sleeping medication before bedtime
● Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of
52. When positioned properly, the tip of a central venous catheter sleep during the previous night
should lie in the:
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● Teach the client relaxation techniques, such as guided ● Provide time for privacy
imagery, medication, and progressive muscle relaxation ● Provide support for the spouse or significant other
● Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as ● Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other
pillows, back rubs, and snacks appropriate professional

57. While examining a client's leg, the nurse notes an open

ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound
specialist can be contacted, which type of dressings is most 59. Using Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs, a nurse
appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply? assigns highest priority to which client need?

● Dry sterile dressing ● Security

● Moist, sterile saline gauze ● Elimination
● Sterile petroleum gauze ● Safety
● Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze ● Belonging

58. A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has 60. A male client is on prolonged bed rest and has developed a
diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs of healing even though
that he's impotent and says that he's concerned about its effect on the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours.
his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal?
intervention would be to
● Inadequate vitamin D intake
● Encourage the client to ask questions about personal ● Inadequate massaging of the affected area
sexuality ● Inadequate protein intake
● Low calcium level
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——— ● Florence Nightingale

● Ramona Mercer
TFN ● Merle H. Mishel

1. Nola Pender identified concepts of Health Promotion Model. All 4. Which among the following statements best describes PostPartum
areas in the given options are considered, except. Depression Theory?

● Health promotion ● Postpartum Depression Predictors Inventory (PDPI) is a tool

● Individual characteristics and experience used by healthcare professionals to determine the risk of
● Behavioral outcomes female patients developing abruptio placenta.
● Health prevention ● Postpartum Depression Theory will help nurses understand
the drama and laziness among female patients after giving
2. It is the theory that will assist RNs in knowing and understanding birth.
the major determinants of health behaviors as a foundation for ● This theory explains postpartum depression as an acute
behavioral counseling to promote well-being and healthy lifestyles. illness that will not create an impact in the life of the mother
and the child.
● Transcultural Nursing Theory ● This theory will provide guidance to nurses dealing with
● Health as an Expanding Consciousness new moms, be knowledgeable about the risk factors,
● Theory of Humanbecoming and recognize those female patients who are greatly at
● Health Promotion Model risk.

3. She created the theory that views experience of acute and chronic 5. Who among the given theorists focuses her study about
illness and to organize nursing interventions to promote optimal postpartum depression?
adjustment.
● Ramona Mercer
● Lydia Hall
 10

● Dorothy Johnson 9. but one is included in the phases of nurse-patient interaction

● Sis Calista Roy according to Peplau's Theory of Interpersonal Relations.
● Joyce Travelbee
● Intervention Subphase
6. It is the theory developed to serve as a framework for nurses to ● Termination Phase
provide appropriate health care interventions for mothers to ● Orientation Phase
strengthen their maternal identities. ● Working Phase

● Health promotion theory 10. Which of the following statements best describe the self-
● Maternal role attainment theory transcendence theory?
● Human to human relationship
● Postpartum depression theory ● It helps an individual to create their own voyage of discovery.
● It focuses on overcoming the limits of the individual self
7. Hildegard Peplau enumerated the role of a nurse in her and its desires in spiritual contemplation.
interpersonal relations theory, which among the given roles best ● It assists client in determining their difficulty
describe a nurse as a counselor? ● It gives importance to the external factor as contributors in
patient recovery.
● Helps to clarify domains of dependence, interdependence,
and independence. 11. Phil Baker contributed his model in the field of nursing where it
● Assist clients assume maximum responsibility for meeting focuses on psychiatric nursing in acute settings to a more flexible
treatment goals in a mutual way. mental health recovery.
● Provides a specific needed information that aids in the
understanding of a problem ● Goal Attainment Theory
● Helps understand and integrate the meaning of current ● Self-actualization Model
life circumstances. ● Tidal Model of Mental Health
● Interpersonal Relations Theory
8. Nurse Mercury was able to impart her understanding about the
side effects of antibiotics to her 30-year-old female patient admitted 12. The following statements are correct about a patient as a social
due to a major surgery. This is an example of what specific role of a being, except.
nurse?
● The need to evaluate and validate their health
● Teacher information
● Counselor ● The need for care when a patient is unable to help
● Leader themselves.
● Surrogate ● The need for health information.
● The need for care to prevent diseases.
 11

13. What system focuses on the interaction, communication, ● Phil Baker

transaction, role and stress? ● Florence Nightingale
● Margareth Newmann
● Social
● Economic 18. She is a theorist who emphasizes the reciprocal relationship
● Personal between the nurse and the patient.
● Interpersonal
● Lydia Hall
14. pertains to the system that highlights the organization, authority, ● Dorothy Johnson
power, status, and decision making. ● Ida Jean Orlando
● Pamela Reed
● Social
● Economic 19. All but one is true about deliberative nursing practice theory.
● Personal
● Interpersonal ● Stresses the mutual relationship between a nurse and s
patient.
15. This consists of perception, self, growth, development, body ● What the nurse says the patient will just agree and they
image, space, and time. are not affected.
● The function of the professional nurse is to discover and
● Social meet the patient's immediate need for help.
● Economic ● Nursing deals with people, health, and environment.
● Personal
● Interpersonal 20. It refers to the basic aspect of deliberative nursing practice theory
where verbal and non-verbal communication relating to the nurse
16. It is the theory that defines nursing as a process of action, what the patient actually immediate needs, patients have their own
reaction, and interaction whereby nurses and a client share meanings.
information about their perception in the nursing situation.
● Patient Behavior
● Goal Attainment Theory ● Nurse's Reaction
● Self-actualization Model ● Nurse's Activity
● Tidal Model of Mental Health ● Patient Perception
● Interpersonal Relations Theory
21. is the active thought process by the nurse in which he/ she
17. Who contributed to the Goal Attainment Theory? observes the behavior, interprets them, and formulates the plan to
meet the patient needs.
● Imogene King
 12

● Patient Behavior ● Clinical Setting

● Nurse's Reaction ● Community
● Nurse's Activity ● Academics
● Patient Perception ● Research

22. It pertains to the interactive process wherein the patient and the 26. Select that all the applies as the major concepts of human-to-
nurse perform action for and with the patient to meet the patient's human relationship.
observed needs.
1 - Rapport
● Patient Behavior
● Nurse's Activity 2 - Emerging identities
● Nurse's Reaction
● Patient Perception 3 - Adaptation

23. is the practical application of human-to-human relationship model 4 - Empathy

where it helps the nurse how to build a relationship, influential in
hospicare, and helping setting goals for nurses. 5 - Original encounter

● Clinical Setting ● 1-2-3-4

● Academics ● 5-1-4-2
● Community ● 5-4-3-2
● Research ● 1-3-2-4

24. It is the practical application of the human-to-human relationship 27. She is the theorist who developed the human-to-human
model where it influenced the current nursing curriculum and focused relationship theory.
on nursing education.
● Joyce Travelbee
● Clinical Setting ● Dorothea Orem
● Academics ● Lydia Hall
● Community ● Rosemarie Parse
● Research
28. It refers to the attention given to the patient by the nurse and
25. It is the practical application of the human-to-human relationship other medical professionals.
model where it used to explore and discover how to improve patient
care. ● Cure
● Care
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● Core ● Transition Theory

● Communicate ● Transcultural Nursing Theory
● Transpersonal Theory
29. is the patient whom nursing care is directed. ● Transformative ing Theory

● Communicate 34. These are the reflected variability and unique features of human
● Care beings.
● Cure
● Core ● Universality of Care
● Care
30. It represents the role of the nurse and the performing the task of ● Diversity of Care
nurturing the patients. ● Transcultural Nursing

● Core 35. It is the aspect where there is a common nature of human beings
● Communicate and humanity.
● Care
● Cure ● Universality of Care
● Diversity of Care
31. She is the one who discovered the Health as Expanding ● Care
Consciousness Theory. ● Transcultural Nursing

● Ibrahim Meleis 36. is the theory that focuses on the assistance in helping people go
● Margaret Newman through healthy transitions.
● Patricia Benner
● Katie Ericksonn ● Transition Theory
● Transcultural Nursing Theory
32. Which of the given statements best describes consciousness? ● Transpersonal Theory
● Transformative Nursing Theory
● Informational capacity of the system
● Both A and C are correct 37.
● Interaction of the system to its environment
● Both A and C are incorrect 38. It is the theory that views the client as an open system that
responds to stressors in the environment.
33. It is the theory that emphasizes the lack of cultural and care
knowledge as a missing component to a nurse's understanding of ● Theory of Interpersonal Relationships
the many variations or diversity needed in patient care. ● Novice to Expert Nursing Model
 14

● Neuman Systems Model 43. It is the adaptive mode that focuses on attaining relational
● Theory of Caring integrity through the giving and the receiving of love, respect, and
value.
39. It refers to the variable that identifies the structure and functions
of the body. ● Interdependence
● Self-concept
● Sociocultural ● Role-function
● Psychological ● Physiological
● Physiological
● Developmental 44. Which of the given examples are classified as a basic need?

40. It is the variable which focuses on the influence of spiritual ● Rest

beliefs. ● Cardiovascular function
● Senses
● Spiritual ● Pulmonary function
● Sociocultural
● Psychological 45. Which of the following instances are categorized as a complex
● Physiological process?

41. Which among the given adaptive modes determine the goal of ● Oxygenation
coping is to have a sense of unity, the purposefulness in the ● Nutrition
universe, and the sense of identity? ● Neurological function
● Elimination
● Physiological
● Self-concept 46. It is defined as a state in which the system output of energy
● Role-function depletes and there is a need for the energy to maintain stability/
● Interdependence
● Subsystem
42. What adaptive mode refers to the primary, secondary, tertiary, ● Stability
roles that a person occupies in society? ● Instability
● System
● Role-function
● Physiological 47. This is the model that advocates the fostering of efficient and
● Interdependence effective behavioral functioning in the patient to prevent illness.
● Self-concept
● Theory of Caring
 15

● Environmental Theory ● Supportive-Educative

● Behavioral System ● Nursing System
● Transition Theory ● Wholly Compensatory
● Partial Compensatory
48. There are 7 subsystems determined to carry out specialized
tasks needed to maintain the integrity of the whole system. 51. It is the nursing system theory that identifies the patient who is
able to perform or able to learn to perform measures of therapeutic
Select all that applies. self-care but cannot do so without assistance.

1 - Sexual ● Supportive-Educative
● Nursing System
2 - Ingestive ● Wholly Compensatory
● Partial Compensatory
3 - Religious
52. This theory focuses on the human beings which are considered
4- Eliminative as a whole and cannot be viewed as subparts.

5 - Sociocultural ● Unitary Human Being Theory

● Theory of Caring
6- Dependency ● Transcultural Nursing Theory
● Novice to Expert Nursing Model
● 1-3-5
● 2-4-6 53. It is the model considered the most useful framework for
● 3-4-5 assessing the nurse's needs at different stages of professional
● 6-3-1 growth.

49. She is the theorist who explains that the patient is identified as a ● Transpersonal Nursing Theory
behavioral system composed of seven behavioral subsystems. ● Caring Model from Novice to Expert Nursing
● Theory of Caritative Caring
● Dorothea Orem
● Unitary Human Being Theory
● Dorothy Johnson
● Katie Eriksonn 54. Which theory describes human caring and nursing?
● Martha Rogers
● Theory of Caritative Caring
50. It pertains to the nursing system that views the patient has no ● Theory of Caring
active role in the performance of his care. ● Theory of Transpersonal Nursing
 16

● Health Promotion Theory 58. Which of the following periods introduce the advancement of
science and technology as well as the introduction of machinery in
55. All but one is recognized as the major concepts in Theory of healthcare?
Caritative Caring.
● Period of Educative Nursing
● Caring ethics ● Period of Apprentice Nursing
● Caring elements ● Period of Intuitive Nursing
● Caring communion ● Period of Contemporary Nursing
● Caring techniques
59. It is the first nursing school in the Philippines that was able to
56. It is considered as one of the highlights during the period of produce 22 graduates who eventually took the first licensure
apprentice nursing where nursing skills are dedicated to the poor and examination for nurses in the country.
abandoned. It was established by St. Vincent de Paul in France.
● Philippine General Hospital School of Nursing\
● Order of the Deaconesses ● St. Paul's College of Nursing
● Sisters of Charity ● University of Sto. Thomas School of Nursing
● Salvation Army ● Iloilo Mission Hospital School of Nursing
● National Red Cross
60. It is the nursing school established by the Archbishop of Manila
57. It is the first nursing training facility that enhances nursing skills. under the supervision of Sisters of St Paul de Chartes. This
institution provided general hospital service with free dispensary and
● Order of the Deaconesses dental clinic.
● Salvation Army
● Sisters of Charity ● Our Lady of Fatima University College of Nursing
● National Red Cross ● UP PGH School of Nursing
● Iloilo Mission Hospital School of Nursing
● St. Paul's Hospital School of Nursing
 17

—————— PHARMA
 18

A. Administer the eye ointment as ordered, as the first

1.Patient Berlin, 50 years old, female, informed Nurse bead of ointment should be discarded anyway.
Amsterdam, "This pill is different color than the one that I B. Notify the pharmacy and request a new, unopened
usually take at home." Which is the BEST response by Nurse tube of ointment.
Amslerdam? C. Have a second licensed nurse witness the waste and
A. "Go ahead and take your medicine." sign the chart.
B. "I will recheck your medication orders." D. Continue to squeeze the tube until a clear line of
C. "Maybe the doctor ordered a different medication." ointment has been discarded from the tip.
D. "I'll leave the pill here
5. a primary care provider writes a prescription for 0.15mg of
2. Patient London is prescribed a new medication. The digoxin IV every day. The medication is available in a
pharmacy notifies Nurse Manchester that the dosage is concentration of 400 mcg per ml. How many mi will the nurse
outside of route prescribing limits. Nurse Manchester is unable administer?
to reach the prescribing physician about the order. What A. 0.38ml
should the nurse do? B. 0.58ml
C. C. 0.46ml
A. Give the medication to Patient London as prescribed. D. D. 0.62ml
B. Withhold the medication.
C. Give one half of the medication dose prescribed. 6. Patient Seoul was admitted due to Urinary Tract Infection,
D. Administer the medication through the oral route. her doctor prescribed Ciprofloxacin 500mg. The dose on hand
is 250mg in 5 ml. Compute drug dosage for Patient Seoul.
3. The assigned nurse determines that an older client is A. 15ml
experiencing an adverse effect from a prescribed medication B. 30ml
because of which of the following? C. 25ml
A. Altered memory D. 10ml
B. Altered organ responsiveness
C. Decreased manual dexterity D. Decreased visual 7. Nurse Barcelona is organizing the medications in the
medicine trolley according to its generic name. Which of the
4.While preparing to administer an eye ointment, the nurse following statements about generic names is correct?
inadvertently squeezes the tube, discarding the first bead of A. It refers to the name under which a drug is listed in one
medication. What action should the nurse take at this point? of the official publications.
 19

B. It is the name that best describes the constituents of D. Any discrepancy in the inventory must be reported
the drug precisely. to the nurse supervisor, nurse manager, and
C. It is usually short and easy to remember. pharmacy.
D. It is assigned and used throughout the drug's
lifetime. 11. Nurse Arizona administers Morphine sulfate to Patient
Austin who complains of chest pain. Nurse Arizona is aware
8. It is a type of drug preparation characterized with clear or that Morphine sulfate will help relieve the pain but it will treat
translucent semisolid that liquifies when applied to the skin. the underlying disease. This is an example of what drug
A. Cream therapeutic action?
B. Gel A. Supportive
C. Ointment B. Palliative
D. Paste C. Curative
D. Restorative
9. Il is a type of drug preparation usually flat, round, or oval
preparation that dissolves and releases a drug when held in 12. Patient Seattle, 36 years old, male, ensures that he take
the mouth. his daily dose of vitamin B complex to nourish his nerves and
A. Lozenges its function. Taking B-vitamins restores the health and
B. Tablet wellness in Patient Seattle, which is an example of what drug
C. Capsule therapeutic action?
D. Suppository A. Restorative
B. Curative
10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding C. Chemotherapeutic
controlled drug administration? D. Palliative
A. Controlled substances must be counted and signed by
one nurse only 13. Patient Dallas, 50 years old, female, diagnosed with Type
B. Nurses must completely fill-up the special controlled 1 Diabetes Mellitus needs to start injecting insulin preparations
drug forms securing the signature of the physician which will help replace that specific body substance. This is an
ordered. example of which therapeutic action of the drug?
C. Nurses must count the controlled drug and replaced A. Substitutive
the missing one immediately. B. Curative
C. Supportive
D. Palliative
 20

A. 0.5
14. It refers to the intended primary effect of the medication B. 1
and the basis for the prescription of medicine. C. 1.5
A. Adverse effects D. 2
B. Therapeutic effects
C. Side effects 19. The nurse is preparing to set up an intravenous infusion of
D. Drug toxicity normal saline 1,000ml over a 6-hour period. Which of the
following rates of infusion should the nurse choose?
15 It pertains to the predictable and may be either harmless or A. 12 gtts/ min
potentially harmful effects of the substance in the body. B. 28 gtts/ min
A. Therapeutic effects C. 33 gtts/ min
B. Side effects D. 36 gtts/ min
C. Adverse effects
D. Drug toxicity 20. Patient California, 8 years old, female, was admitted due to
a fracture on her right leg. Her surgeon ordered 1 L LR to run
16. All but one causes drug toxicity. for 8 hours. Calculate for the volume of IV fluids to infuse lo
A. Impaired metabolism Patient California per hour.
B. Cumulative effect A. 125 gtts/ min
C. Overdosage B. 140 gtts/ min
D. All of the above C. 125ml
D. 140ml
17. It is an immediate, life-threatening, and severe allergic
reaction. 21. Referring to the case of Patient California, the nurse on
A. Adverse effects duty will document the total volume of IV fluids infused to the
B. Therapeutic effects patient. Compute the total volume of IV fluids received by the
C. Side effects patient within 6hrs.
D. Drug toxicity A. 570ml
B. 750ml
18. Patient Paris has been instructed by his surgeon to C. 600ml
increase his warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dose from 5mg to D. 480ml
7.5mg.There are 5mg tablets available. How many tablets
should the nurse instruct him to take?
 21

22. The nurse is regulating the IV fluids of Patient California, D. Antagonistic effect
based on the values stated on the above case, to determine
the IV flow rate in drops per minute. 26. Which among the following routes of drug administration
A. 140 gtts/ min will require time to achieve the concentration of the substance
B. 140ml in the body?
C. 125gtts/ min A. Oral
D. 125ml B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
23. Which among the following information is not included in D. Subcutaneous
the special inventory forms for recording the use of controlled
substances? 27. It occurs when the combined effect of two drugs is greater
A. Verifying signature of the surgeon ordered the than the sum of the effect of each drug given.
controlled drug. A. Additive effect
B. Date and time of the administration. B. Synergistic effect
C. Name of the drug. C. Potentiation effect
D. Signature of the nurse who administered the drug. D. Cumulative effect

24. It is a common mild allergic reaction characterized with 28. It is the route of drug administration where the
shortness of breath and abnormal breath sounds on inhalation concentration of the substance will immediately immerse in the
and exhalation. system.
A. Angioedema A. Oral
B. Lacrimal Tearing B. Intramuscular
C. Dyspnea and Wheezing C. Intravenous
D. Diarrhea D. Subcutaneous

29.It is a drug-to-drug interaction with similar action for double

25. It refers to the increasing response to repeated doses of a effect.
drug that occurs when the rate of administration exceeds the A. Additive effect
rate of metabolism or excretion. B. Potentiation effect
A. Cumulative effect C. Synergistic effect
B. Potentiation effect D. Cumulative effect
C. Additive effect
 22

30.It pertains to the inhibition or blockage as a reaction of a 34.It pertains to the mechanism of drug action, and the
drug to another drug. relationships between drug concentration and resulting effects
A. Cumulative effect in the body.
B. Potentiation effect A. Pharmacokinetics
C. Additive effect B. Pharmacognosy
D. Antagonistic effect C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacotherapeutic
31. Nurse Tokyo administer Cefalexin IV to her patient at 6AM.
This medicine's half life is 8hrs, After 16 hrs, identify the half- 35.It is the process by which a drug passes into the
life of this antibiotic. bloodstream.
A. 25% A. Excretion
B. 50% B. Metabolism
C. 12.5% C. Absorption
D. 6.25% D. Distribution

32. Tramadol's half-life is 10hrs. Nurse Taipei administers 36.Which of the given factors affects the absorption of drug in
Tramadol as needed. What is the half-life of this drug after the stomach?
20hrs? A. Food
A. 6.25% B. Gastric acids
B. 25% C. Fluids
C. 12.5% D. All of the above
D. 50%
37.It is the transportation of a drug from its site of absorption to
33. It is the drug specific target, usually a protein located on its site of action.
the surface of a cell membrane or within the cell. A. Excretion
A. Receptor B. Metabolism
B. Ribosomes C. Absorption
C. Cell membrane D. Distribution
D. Plasma
38.It refers to the part of pharmacokinetics where the
substances are converted to a less active form.
A. Excretion
 23

B. Absorption 43.This is the type of medication orders that may or may not
C. Metabolism have a termination date and can be carried out indefinitely.
D. Distribution A. PRN Order
B. Single Order
39.It is the process by which metabolites and drugs are C. STAT Order
eliminated from the body. D. Standing Order
A. Excretion
B. Metabolism 44.The following are the essential parts of a drug order,
C. Absorption ЕХСЕРТ.
D. Distribution A. Name of the Drug to be administered
B. Route of Administration
40.It is a type of medication order that indicates the medication C. Frequency of Administration
is to be given immediately and only once. D. Patient Outcome after Administration
A. PRN Order
B. Single Order 45.It is the route of administration where the pill is placed
C. STAT Order under the tongue, the area where it is dissolved and absorbed
D. Standing Order in the blood vessels.
A. Oral
41.It permits the nurse to administer the drug when, in the B. Parenteral
decision of the nurse, the patient requires it. C. Sublingual
A. PRN Order D. Rectal
B. Single Order
C. STAT Order 46.It is the administration of medicines held in the mouth
D. Standing Order against the mucous membranes of the cheek until the drug
dissolves.
42.It is also known as the one-time order where medicines are A. Buccal
given once at a specified time. B. Rectal
A. PRN Order C. Oral
B. Single Order D. Topical
C. STAT Order
D. Standing Order 47.It is a topical administration of drugs into the respiratory
tract by a nebulizer, or positive pressure breathing apparatus.
 24

A. Inhalation 49. It is the topical form of drugs applied to the skin

B. Instillation A. Inhalation
C. Irrigation B. Instillation
D. Dermatologic C. Irrigation
D. Dermatologic
48.The nurse will give Co-amoxiclav 400mg as ordered to a
40-year-old female patient diagnosed with Upper Respiratory 50. Patient Jersey is ordered to receive Amoxicillin 250mg.
Tract Infection. Stock dose is 200mg. How many tablets The nurse on hand drug is 125mg. How many tablets should
should the patient take? Patient Jersey take?
A. 2 TAB A. 2 TAB
B. 1 TAB B. 4 TAB
C. 4 TAB C. 1 TAB
D. 3 TAB D. 3 TAB
 25

———- B. impaired verbal communication related to stage of cognitive

MIDTERMS development
C. readiness for enhanced sleep related to desire to sleep in a
MATERNAL big kids' bed
D. risk for poisoning related to unawareness of
OB 1 environmental risks within reach

OB2 4. Which technique is best to calm a preschooler's fears before

auscultating
—-------------------- bowel sounds?
A. reassure the child that listening to bowel sounds will not hurt
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT in the least.
B. allow the child to use the stethoscope to listen to a
1.Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a toddler who is teddy bear's abdomen
not walking by the age of 24 months? C. explain how a stethoscope is used to listen to the
A. Delayed growth and development related to failure to functioning of the bowel.
achieve age appropriate motor skills D. seat the child in the parent's lap and have the parent hold
B. impaired walking related to inability to maintain a steady gait the child's hands.
along uneven surfaces
C. sedentary lifestyle related to preferred lifestyle that requires 5. a young child learns how to use scissors and catch a ball. which
minimal physical activity term best describes these developments?
D. impaired parenting related to unrealistic expectations for A. puberty
age-appropriate motor skills B. growth
C. adolescence
2. D. development

3. Which is the highest priority nursing diagnosis for a toddler who is 6. Which technique is used to assess fine-motor skills in a middle-
at the autonomy versus doubt stage of development? school child?
A. toileting self-care deficit related to readiness for transition A. observe the child drawing a picture on a piece of paper.
from diapers B. watch the child sit on the floor and rise to a standing position.
 26

C. ask the child to walk a straight line in a heel-toe (tandem)

gait. 10. A teenager refuses to wear the clothes his mother bought for
D. ask the child to stand on one leg and hop in place several him. he states he wants to look like the other kids at school and wear
times. clothes like they wear. the nurse explains this behavior is an
example of teenage rebellion related to internal conflicts of:
7. The mother of a healthy toddler reports that the child is eating less A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt.
than a few months ago but the child has not lost any weight. Which is B. trust vs. mistrust.
the most appropriate response of the nurse? C. identity vs. role confusion.
A. you need to make him eat more every day. At this stage, he D. initiative vs. inferiority.
is growing too fast to not eat.
B. I could show you a growth chart, but each child is different 11. A mother of a 15-month-old brings her son to the cliniC. while
so it doesn't mean much. doing a nursing assessment, the mother makes the following
C. toddlers have periods when they aren't growing as fast comments. Which comment merits further investigation by the
and they don't need to eat as much. nurse?
D. make him eat with a spoon and don't feed him snacks. He A. My son won't eat carrots.
will be hungrier at meal time. B. My son is attached to his blanket.
C. My son is not crawling yet.
8. The adolescent with a BMI of 18.5 feels overweight after seeing D. my son cries when left with others.
excessively slender actresses on tv and in the movies. Which
nursing diagnosis is appropriate for this adolescent? 12. According to kohlberg's preconventional phase of development,
A. decisional conflict related to how much weight should be lost what is the focus that dominates the behavior of the preschooler?
to look pretty A. obeying rules to avoid punishment or receive a reward
B. defensive coping related to denial of imbalanced weight to B. developing peer relationships to determine status, skill, and
height proportion personableness
C. powerlessness related to perception that weight loss is C. beginning to learn sex differences, form concepts, and
needed to gain friends distinguish right from wrong
D. disturbed body image related to cultural perception of D. stabilizing self-concept with the peer group acting as the
ideal body proportions greatest influence

9. one indication that the toddler is ready to begin toilet training is: 13. The nurse is examining a 10-month-old boy who was born 10
A. child recognizes urge to let go and hold on and is able weeks early. Which finding is cause for concern?
to communicate this sensation to the parent A. The child has doubled his birth weight.
B. child is able to stay dry all night B. the child exhibits plantar grasp reflex.
C. child demonstrates mastery of dressing and undressing self C. The child's head circumference is 49.53 см.
D. child asks parent to have wet or soiled diaper changed D. no primary teeth have erupted yet.
 27

19. in terms of fine motor development, the infant of 7 months should

14. a new mother shows the nurse that her baby grasps her finger be able to:
when she touches the baby's palm. How might the nurse respond to A. transfer objects from one hand to the other.
this information? B. use thumb and index finger in crude pincer grasp.
A. "This is a primitive reflex known as the plantar grasp." C. hold crayon and make a mark on paper.
B. "this is a primitive reflex known as the palmar grasp." D. release cubes into a cup.
C. "this is a protective reflex known as rooting."
D. "this is a protective reflex known as the moro reflex." 20. In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse
expect a 5-month-old infant to do?
15. Which reflex, if found in a 4-month-old infant, would cause the A. roll from abdomen to back.
nurse to be concerned? (analyze) B. roll from back to abdomen.
A. plantar grasp C. sit erect without support.
B. step D. move from prone to sitting position.
C. babinski
D. neck righting 21. a parent of an 18-month-old boy tells the nurse that he says "no"
to everything and has rapid mood swings. If he is scolded, he shows
16. The nurse is teaching a new mother about the development of anger and then immediately wants to be helD. the nurse's best
sensory skills in her newborn. What would alert the mother to a interpretation of this behavior is that:
sensory deficit in her child? (analyze) • A. this is normal behavior for his age.
A. the newborn's eyes wander and occasionally are crossed. • B. this is unusual behavior for his age.
B. the newborn does not respond to a loud noise. • C. he is not effectively coping with stress.
C. the newborn's eyes focus on near objects. • D. he is showing he needs more attention.
D. the newborn becomes more alert with stroking when drowsy.
22. What describes a toddler's cognitive development at age 20
17. During a thunderstorm, a 6-year-old child in Piaget's stage of months?
preoperational thought (stage 2) says, "the rain is following me." this • A. searches for an object only if he or she sees it being hidden
is an example of • B. realizes that "out of sight" is not out of reach
A. egocentrism • C. puts objects into a container but cannot take them out
B. conservation • D. understands the passage of time such as "just a minute" and "in
C. centration an hour"
D. abstract thought
23. which statement is correct about
18. toilet training?
• A. bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
 28

• B. wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use • C. help the child understand that these fears are illogical.
the toilet. • D. tell the child frequently that monsters and boogeymen do not
• C. watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the chilD. exist.
• D. children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
28. the role of the peer group in the life of school-age children is that
24. Which characteristic best describes the gross motor skills of a it:
24-month-old child? • A. gives them an opportunity to learn dominance and hostility.
• A. skips • B. allows them to remain dependent on their parents for a longer
• B. rides tricycle time.
• C. broad jumps • C. decreases their need to learn
• D. walks up and down stairs appropriate sex roles.
• D. provides them with security as they gain independence
25. in terms of cognitive development the 5-year-old child would from their parents.
beexpected to:
• A. use magical thinking. • 29. a group of boys ages 9 and 10 years have formed a "boys-only"
• B. think abstractly. club that is open to neighborhood and school friends who have
• C. understand conservation of matter. skateboards.
• D. be unable to comprehend another person's perspective. this should be interpreted:
• A. behavior that encourages bullying and sexism.
26. a 4-year-old boy is hospitalized with a serious bacterial infection. • B. behavior that reinforces poor peer relationships.
He tells the nurse that he is sick because he was "baD." the nurse's • C. characteristic of social development of this age.
best interpretation of this comment is that it is: • D. characteristic of children who later are at risk for membership in
• A. a sign of stress. gangs.
• B. common at this age.
• C. suggestive of maladaptation. 30. What is descriptive of the play of school-age children?
• D. suggestive of excessive discipline at home. • A. individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages.
• B. knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of
27. the parent of a 4-year-old son tells the nurse that the child belonging.
believes • C. they like to invent games, making up the rules as they go.
"monsters and boogeyman" are in his bedroom at night. the nurses • D. team play helps children learn the universal importance of
best suggestion for coping with this problem is to: competition and winning
• A. insist that the child sleep with his parents until the fearful phase
passes. 31. Which statement best describes fear in school-age children?
• B. suggest involving the child to find a practical solution such • A. They are increasingly fearful for body safety.
as a night light.
 29

• B. Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to • the infant smiles at the mother when she talks to him.
school and family. • B. the infant repeatedly flexes and extends his arms and legs when
• C. they should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule the mother picks him up.
by peers. • C. the infant turns and looks for the mother when she walks
• D. those who have numerous fears need continuous protective out of his view.
behavior • D. the infant cries when the mother hands him to a babysitter.
by parents to eliminate these fears.

32. peer relationships become more important during adolescence . 36. skips - 5 yrs old
because: • 37. walk on tip toes- 3 yrs old
• A. adolescents dislike their parents. • 38. throws a ball - 3 yrs old
• B. adolescents no longer need • 39. hops- 4 yrs old
parental control. • 40. catches ball- 5 yrs old
• C. they provide adolescents with a feeling of belonging. • 41. pedals a tricycle- 3 yrs old
• D. they promote a sense of individuality in adolescents. • 42. kicks a ball- 2 yrs old

33. an adolescent boy tells the nurse that he has recently had bricks
homosexual feelings. the nurse's
response should be based on knowledge that: 43. 15 months- tower of 2
• A. this indicates that the adolescent is homosexual.• B. this 44. 18 months- tower of 3
indicates that the adolescent will become homosexual as an adult. 45. 2 years- tower of 6
• C. The adolescent should be referred for psychotherapy. 46. 3 years - tower of 9
• D. the adolescent should be encouraged to share his feelings
and experiences. fine motor skills

34. the most common cause of death in the adolescent age-group 47. 2 years- copies vertical lines
involves: 48. 3 years- copies circle
• A. drownings. 49. 4 years- copies cross
• B. firearms. 50. 5 years- copies triangle
• C. drug overdoses.
• D. motor vehicles.

35. An important milestone in the infant's life is the development of

object permanence. this milestone is represented by which of these
statements?
30
 31

IMCI 5. More than 3 watery stools

1.) These are all possible treatments for severe pneumonia ►C. 1,2,3,4
except:

A. Giver first dose of an appropriate antibiotic 4.) Which of the following age groups do the IMCI clinical
guidelines address?
B. Soothe the throat and relieve the cough with a safe remedy
Ans: Birth up to 5 years
c. Give vitamin A
5.) How do you classify a 10-month-old child living in a low
D. Treat the child to prevent low blood sugar malaria risk area who had a generalized rash with fever and
red eyes three weeks ago, now has an axillary temperature of
38,3°C, no general danger signs, has pus draining from the
2.) What is needed to count the respiratory rate correctly in a eye, has no other signs nor causes of fever?
3-month-old child with difficult breathing?
Answer: Fever - Malaria Unlikely, Measles With Eye Or Mouth
Ans:Child must be calm Complications

6.) Which of the following color-coded classification rows for

3.) Which of the following signs should you LOOK and FEEL fever of the IMCI chart booklet would apply to a 5-month-old
for in an 8-month-old child with diarrhea to classify his/her child with fever and stiff neck?
dehydration status? (circle all the correct options)
Ans:Pink color-coded row
1. Lethargic or unconscious
7.) Which of the following signs are "general danger signs" in a
2. Skin turgor (alin pinch) sick child age 11 months old?

3. Unable to drink 1. Axillary temperature ≥ 39.0°C

4. Restless, irritable 2. Lethargy

 32

3. History of convulsions related to this illness 12.) Which vital sign is important in classifying a child with
pneumonia from those who do not have any general danger
4. Blood in the stool sign?

5. Axillary temperature ≥ 37.5°C for more than 7 days Ans: Respiratory rate

C. 2,3 13.) What is the dose and schedule of amoxicillin (250 mg

tablet) for a 5-week-old infant who weighs 3.5 kilograms and
8.) What is a child's classification if he is 10 months old, has has local bacterial infection:
had a cough that lasted two days, has a breathing rate of 46
breaths per minute and chest in-drawing? Answer: 1½ tablet 2 times a day for 5 days

Answer: Pneumonia 14.) Which is the first-line antibiotic for cholera?

9.) What is the dose and schedule of amoxicillin (250 mg Answer: Tetracycline
tablet) for a 5-week-old infant who weighs 3.5 kilograms and
has local bacterial infection: 15.) If pneumonia is present with major signs and symptoms,
treatment will include:
Ans: 1/2 tablet 2 times a day for 5 days
Answer: Benzyl Penicillin IM
10.) Which of the following is not a danger sign?
16.) The world health organization is concerned of the
Ans: Difficulty of breathing unnecessary deaths of children below 5 years old in the
developing countries. Integrated management for childhood
11.) In home management of a child with pneumonia, illness is trying to fight these unnecessary deaths. according to
caretaker is counseled with all except: WHO, the most common cause of death among these under 5
children is:
Ans: Discontinue feeding
Answer: Pneumonia
 33

17.) Which of the following signs are "general danger signs" 4. Child vomits frequently
that you should always check for in every sick child age 2
months up to 5 years, according to the IMCI guidelines? 5. Child has cyanosis

1. Child is lethargic or unconscious A.1,3

2. Child is restless or irritable 18.) The appropriate amount of Vitamin A capsules (200,000
IU) to be given to a child aged 12 months to 5 years would be:
3. Child is not able to drink or breastfeed
Answer: 1 capsule
19.) How do you classify a 6-month-old child who has been
having diarrhea for 9 days, has vomited this morning, has 23.) Which of the following questions should you ask to check
sunken eyes and in whom the skin pinch goes back slowly? for "general danger signs" in a 3-month-old child with fever?

Answer: Some Dehydration, Diarrhea 1. How many times has s/he vomited in the past 24 hours?

2. Has s/he been having fever for more than five days?
20.) In routine worm treatment, every child should be given
ALBENDAZOLE/MEBENDAZOLE: 3. Did s/he have convulsions since birth?

Answer: 200mg single dose for 1 to 2 years 4. Is s/he able to drink or breastfeed?

21.) How do you classify a 7-month-old child living in a high 5. Does s/he vomit everything?
malaria risk area who has an axillary temperature of 38.0°C
and is lethargic? D. 4 and 5

Answer: Very Severe Febrile Disease

24.)How do you classify a two-year-old child with an axillary
22.) How do you classify a 25-month-old child who has MUAC temperature of 37.5°C, pus seen coming from the ear and no
12cm tender swelling behind the ear whose mother says that pus
has been coming for 5 days?
Answer: Moderate Acute Malnutrition
 34

Answer: Acute Ear Infection 30.) Which of these could be a proper treatment of anemia?

25.) IMCI is a management technique and aims in targeting Answer: Give Iron and Albendazole/Mebendazole
specific illnesses. The main aim of IMCI is to: if child 1 year or older

Answer: Assess, Classify, treatment, and immediate referral if

necessary 31.) If mouth ulcers are present, the nurse should:

26.) How do you classify a 25-month-old child who has MUAC Answer: Treat with Nystatin
12cm

Answer: Moderate Acute Malnutrition 32.) In routine worm treatment, every child should be given
ALBENDAZOLE/MEBENDAZOLE:

27.) Which is the first line Oral Antimalarial? Answer: 200mg single dose for children 1 to 2 years old

Answer: Artemether
33.) Patient Alfina was observed to have tender swelling
behind the ear, this can be classified as:
28.) The first line antibiotic for pneumonia or very severe
disease would be Answer: Mastoiditis

Answer: Amoxicillin
34.) You have observed pus draining from the ear of patient
Emely and discharge is reported for less than 14 days. This
29.) Treatment for acute ear infection would be: can be classified as

Answer: Give antibiotic for 5 days and dry the ear by wicking Answer: Acute Ear Infection

35.) Patient Luna is 4 months old and has visible severe

wasting and edema on both feet. This can be classified as:
 35

41.) Patient Nena, 5 months old has diarrhea for already 16

Answer: Severe Acute Malnutrition with Complications days. You also notice that dehydration is present. This could
be classified as?

36.) Treatment for chronic ear infection would be: Answer: Severe Persistent Diarrhea

Answer: Instill quinolone otic drops and dry the ear by wicking
42.) Patient Tulfo has measles for the last three months. There
is pus draining from his right eye. This can be classified as
37.) All the following options are signs of measles except:
Answer: Measles with eye or mouth complications
Answer: Stiff neck

43.) Which type of plan would the nurse instruct to a child who
38.) Which of these could be a treatment for Dysentery? was classified with severe dehydration?

Answer: Plan C
Answer: Give ciprofloxacin for 3 days

44.) If child has not enough signs to classify as some or

39.) Patient Darna has no runny nose, no measles and no severe dehydration, the child will be classified as what?
other causes of fever but has malaria risk. This could be
classified as? Answer: No Dehydration

Answer: Malaria
45.) You can classify that a child aged 2 years has fast
breathing if he has a respiratory rate of:
40.) If pus is draining from the eye, what should the nurse do?
Answer: 40 bpm or more
Answer: Apply tetracycline
 36

46.) What color is "NO PNEUMONIA: COUGH OR COLD" 49.) All these are signs of severe dehydration except:
classified as?
Answer: Green Answer: Restlessness

50.) Dysentery is classified if:

Answer: There is blood in the stool

47.) The following illnesses are covered by IMCI except:

51.) If the child has wheezing and either fast breathing or
Answer: Influenza chest indrawing present, the nurse should:

Answer: Give a trial acting inhaled bronchodilator for up to 3

48.) Baby May, 4 months old is not able to breastfeed and times
chest indrawing is present. This can be classified as:

Answer: Severe Pneumonia

 37

FINALS - POST TEST (CARDIO) c. Inform the patient that a warm sensation is felt when dye is
injected
1. A client with arterial insufficiency and CHF is seen in the d. None of the above
ward with leg pain. The nurse is aware that the patient should
keep the position of bed 5. After cardiac catheterization, the nurse assesses the pulses
a. Elevated distal to the catheter insertion site to be +2. This is interpreted
b. Dependent as
c. Supine a. Absent
d. Low fowler's b. Weak pulse
c. Normal
2. The leg of the patient who has gangrene due to venous d. Bounding
insufficiency is expected to appear
a. Cyanotic 6. This heart volume can be computed as follows SV
b. Pulses are present (vol/beat_) x HR beats/min
c. Edematous a. Cardiac output - vol/min
d. All of the above b. Mean Arterial Pressure
c. End systolic volume
3. After taking the blood pressure of the new patient in the d. Maximum volume
OPD, you recorded the BP is 138/90 mmHg. Which of the
following assessment questions should you ask the patient 7. A client with mitral regurgitation presents with murmur best
after taking the BP? heard
a. How old are you? Is this normal for you? a. 3rd to 4th_intercostal space right parasternal
b. Is this your normal BP? Do you feel anything? b. 2nd intercostal space left parasternal
c. Do you know your usual BP? c. 5th to 6th intercostal space left midclavicular line
d. When was the last time you had your antihypertensive drug d. 5th to 6th intercostal space left axillary line
taken?
8. When assessing patients with cardiac symptoms, the
4. Which of the following is not an intervention during cardiac following must be remembered, except
catheterization a. Women above 50 years old are more likely to be protected
a. Assess for breathing pattern against MI than men
b. ECG leads are placed to monitor cardiac function
 38

b. There is poor correlation between chest discomfort and its a. "The doctor saw a pathologic Q on your ECG which is a
source sign of an old infarct"
c. In a patient with history of CAD, the chest discomfort should b. "Sometimes heart attack may occur,silently”
be assumed to be caused by ischemia unless proven c. " Maybe you were sleeping when yoû had an attack"
otherwise d. "I will tell that to your doctor now”
d. All are correct
13. The client clarifies with the nurse, "The doctor said I have
9. Symptoms associated with cardiovascular disorders include to put this nitroglycerine under my tongue whenever I feel
the following, except chest pain, how come this drug is relieving the pain?" The
aCentral nurse best response is based on the principle that
a.cyanosis a. Nitroglycerine is a coronary vasodilator
b. Diaphoresis b. Nitroglycerine will decrease cardiac workload
c. Xanthelasma c. itroglycerine will improve oxygen flow to your heart
d. No exception d. All of the above

10. The sign of myocardial ischemia is 14. After giving nitroglycerine to a client with stable angina, the
a. ST elevation nurse should monitor for the primary adverse effect which is
b. Pathologic Q wave a. Hypotension
c. T wave is tall b. Relief of angina
d. ST depression c. Vasodilation
d. Headache
11. The most common dysrhythmias occurring post acute MI is
PVC which is characterized as a. An extra abnormal QRS after 15. Client is seen in the emergency room with crushing chest
a T wave, occurring without a P wave pain of 1 hour duration. After carefully taking the vital signs,
b. Saw toothed appearance on ECG ECG showed ST elevation. The doctor orders for enzyme
c. P wave is not recognizable, atrial rate very fast determination after 6 hours , blood was extracted and the
d. Prolonged P- R interval with a very slow heart rate nurse anticipates that CK MB and troponin in this client is
a. Normal
12. The client asks the nurse, "The doctor said I had an old b. Elevated
heart attack already seen in my ECG but this is the first time I c. Low
ever had this chest pain?" The nurse is correct in replying that d. Normal or elevated
 39

Situation: 70 year old male, hypertensive and diabetic and b. BP 170/80 HR 89 RR 22

chronic lung disease with previous history of myocardial c. BP 150/100 HR 95 RR 24
infarction is now in the emergency room with Congestive heart d. BP 120/80 HR 80 RR 26
failure. BP 180/100 HR 95 RR 28 in respiratory distress,
crackles are heard in the middle and lower lobes of the lungs. 20. Bipedal edema is seen in this client as well, the nurse
CXR shows pulmonary congestion. Answer the following knows that the most common cause of this
question a. Increase systemic venous pressure
b. Inability of the right ventricle to pump effectively
16.In the emergency room, the nurse will initially c. Fluid volume excess
a. Administer oxygen to the patient at 1- 2 liters per minute d. All of the above
b. Place the client in semi fowler's position
c. Take a complete history and thorough physical examination 21. The client's serum potassium is 3.0 meq/L. The nurse
d. Insert IV line and catheterize the client should be aware that this adverse effect is dangerous when
you administer
17. The doctor orders for Furosemide IV 40 mg stat. the nurse a. Furosemide
anticipates that this drug will b. Digoxin
a. Decrease respiratory rate c. Both
b. Relieve respiratory distress d. Neither
c. Slow down heart rate
d. Decrease pulmonary congestion 22. the patient is admitted with suspected CHF. What
diagnostic test would be most helpful with the identification of
18. After giving the drug, the nurse should monitor initially for this disorder?
a. BP a. Serial enzyme studies
b. Urine osmolality b. Cardiac catheterization
c. Lung sounds c. Echocardiography
d. Respiratory-rate d. Electrocardiography

19. After stabilizing the client, Digoxin is added to the 23. A patient is seen in the emergency department with heart
Furosemide which is shifted to oral form, the nurse knows that failure secondary to dilated cardiomyopathy. What key
these drugs are exerting their therapeutic effect when which of diagnostic test does the nurse assess to determine the
the following is manifested? severity of the patient's heart failure?
a. BP 160/90 HR 98 RR 20 a.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
 40

b. Complete blood count (CBC) d. No exception

c. B type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
d. Serum electrolytes 30. The first heart sound is caused by closure of the AV ales
which is best heard at the
26. A client has a small and deep ulcer in the lower a. 2nd intercostal space right parasternal area
extremities, the bed of the lesion is free of granulation tissues b. 2nd intercostal space left parasternal area
and is well circumscribed, as the nurse identifies this as c. 4th intercostal space left parasternal area
caused by arterial insufficiency, the priority nursing d. Apex of the heart
intervention is
a.Elevated the leg of the patient 31. Which of the following is a primary goal in the
b. Cover the wound with light dressing management of heart failure?
c. Administer topical antibiotics a. Increasing sodium intake
d. Assess pulses in the lower extremities b. Promoting physical inactivity
c. Reducing fluid intake
27. Thromboangitis obliterans is a peripheral vascular disease d. Improving cardiac function
is manifested by
a. Hardening of arterioles 32. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce fluid
b. Pain in the lower extremities retention in heart failure patients?
c. Common among smokers a.Beta blockers
d. Predominantly males are affected b. Diuretics
c. Calcium channel blockers
28. Rynaud's phenomenon is seen in which of the following d. ACE inhibitors
conditions?
a. Gouty arthritis 33. Which of the following lifestyle modifications is
b. Scleroderma recommended for heart failure patients?
c. Osteoarthritis a. Smoking cessation
d. All of the above b. Increased alcohol consumption
c. Sedentary lifestyle
29. Raynaud's disease has the following risk factors except d. High sodium diet
a. Women
b. Stress 35. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to assess cardiac
c. Blue - white red disease function in heart failure patients? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
 41

b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 40. Which of the following is released by the ventricles in
c. Complete blood count (CBC) response to congestion?
d. Urinalysis a. Beta type natriuretic peptide
b. CK MB isoenzyme
36. Which of the following is a nursing dependent intervention c. Myoglobin
for patients with congestive heart failure? d. Lactate dehydrogenase
a. Encouraging high sodium diet
b. Limiting fluid intake 41. Which of the following is a potential complication of heart
c. Administering diuretics as needed failure exacerbation?
d. Promoting physical inactivity a Hypertension
b. Hyperglycemia
37. Which of the following is a symptom of right-sided heart c. Bradycardia
failure? d. Pulmonary edema
a. Orthopnea
b. Crackles in the lungs 42. which of the following is not a cardiotonic drug?
c. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea a. Digoxin
d. Peripheral edema b.Milrinone
c. Dobutamine
38. Which of the following is a potential complication of heart d. None of the above
failure medication therapy?
a.Hypotension 43. Which of the following is a symptom of decreased cardiac
b. Hyperkalemia output in heart failure patients?
c. Tachycardia a. Increased urine output
d. Hypoglycemia b.Bradycardia
c.Hypertension
39. Which of the following is a nursing intervention to promote d.Peripheral edema
oxygenation in heart fallure patients?
a. Administering oxygen as needed 47. After positioning the client with CHF, it is most important
b. Encouraging smoking for the nurse to
c. Limiting physical activity a.Administer O2
d. Promoting fluld overload b. Refer lo the doctor
c.Get the ECG
 42

d. Put an IV Line

48. Which is the hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity?

a. Halos around lights
b. Bradycardia
c. Vomiting
d. ECG changes

49. The following should not be combined with digoxin except

a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta blocker
c. Amiodarone
d. No exception
 43

FINALS - POST TEST (ENDO/GI) 5. The nurse should educate the patient with hepatic
encephalopathy about:
1.The patient has been treated for a peptic ulcer. He enters a. The importance of regular exercise
the hospital reporting that he has vomited a very large amount b. The need for a low-sodium diet
of blood. The nurse should expect which sign to be present? c. The signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding
a. Decreased blood pressure d. The benefits of alcohol consumption in moderation
b. Decreased pulse
c. Decreased respirations 6. Which medication is commonly prescribed to manage
d. Increased urinary output hepatic encephalopathy in patients with liver cirrhosis?
a. Lactulose
2. The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with b. Furosemide
hepatic encephalopathy is: c. Spironolactone
a. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload D. propranolol
b. Encouraging a high-protein diet
c . Administering lactulose to reduce ammonia levels 7. Which nursing intervention is important for preventing
d. Restricting fluid intake to prevent cerebral edema complications related to bleeding in patients with liver
cirrhosis?
3. Which of the following nursing interventions is essential for a. Administering vitamin K as prescribed
preventing complications in a patient with hepatic b. Monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding
encephalopathy? c. Encouraging the use of soft toothbrushes
a. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours d. Assisting with ambulation to prevent blood clots
b. Administering antipyretics to reduce fever
c. Encouraging frequent ambulation 8. Which nursing intervention is important for managing
d. Assessing for signs of hepatic encephalopathy progression hepatic encephalopathy in patients with liver cirrhosis?
a. Administering laxatives as prescribed
4. The nurse should monitor which of the following parameters b. Monitoring ammonia levels
closely in a patient with hepatic encephalopathy? c. Encouraging high-protein diet
a. Blood glucose levels d. Administering anticoagulants as prescribed
b. Serum electrolyte levels
c. Coagulation profile 9. Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat
d. Oxygen saturation levels Helicobacter pylori infection?
 44

a. Omeprazole c. Restricting fluid intake during meals

b. Metoclopramide d. Monitoring blood pressure frequently
c. Amoxicillin
d. Ranitidine 14. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
monitor closely in a patient with esophageal varices?
10. Which of the following is a potential long-term complication a.Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
of dumping syndrome? b. Serum electrolyte levels
a Malabsorption of nutrients c. Liver function tests
b.Hypotension d. Coagulation profile
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Constipation 15. Which of the following is a potential complication of band
ligation, a common treatment for esophageal varices?
11. Dumping syndrome can lead to malnutrition. Which of the a.Esophageal perforation
following is a nursing intervention to promote adequate b.Gastric bleeding
nutrition in a patient with dumping syndrome? c.Pancreatitis
a. Encouraging the patient to consume high-fat foods d. Pulmonary embolism
b. Administering antidiarrheal medications regularly
c. Restricting fluid intake during meals 16. Which of the following nursing interventions is essential for
d. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently preventing bleeding in a patient with esophageal varices?
a. Administering stool softeners as prescribed
12. Dumping syndrome can result in electrolyte imbalances. b. Encouraging the patient to avoid straining during bowel
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with movements
dumping syndrome? c. Administering antihypertensive medications as prescribed
a. Hyperkalemia d. Educating the patient on the importance of regular exercise
b.Hypokalemia
c. Hyponatremia 17. Which of the following medications is commonly used to
d. Hypernatremia reduce portal hypertension and prevent bleeding in patients
with esophageal varices?
13. Which of the following is a nursing intervention to promote a. Omeprazole
adequate nutrition in a patient with dumping syndrome? b. Sucralfate
a. Encouraging the patient to consume high-protein foods c. Metoclopramide
b. Administering laxatives regularly d. Propranolol
 45

d. Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of

18. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse the lips, fingers and toes.
monitor closely in a patient with pancreatitis?
a.Serum amylase and lipase levels 22. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
b. Serum sodium levels monitor closely in a patient with thyroid crisis?
c. Serum potassium levels a.Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels
d. Serum calcium levels b. Serum calcium levels
c. Serum potassium levels
19. Which of the following is a potential complication of d. Serum sodium levels
pancreatitis that requires immediate nursing intervention?
a. Hypoglycemia 23. What is the recommended position for a patient in thyroid
b. Hyperglycemia crisis to promote comfort and reduce strain on the
C. Hypocalcemia cardiovascular system?
d. Hypercalcemia a. Supine with legs elevated
b. Semi-Fowler's position
20. A nurse develops a plan of care for a client with c. Prone with head turned to the side
hyperthyroidism and includes which of the following in the d. Trendelenburg position
plan?
a.Provide small meals 24. Which of the following is a nursing intervention to promote
b.Provide extra blankets thermoregulation in a patient with thyroid crisis?
c. Provide a high-fiber diet k a.Applying cold packs to the patient's forehead and neck
d. Provide a restful environment b. Encouraging the patient to drink warm fluids
c. Administering antipyretic medications as prescribed
21. The nurse is caring for a client who has a thyroidectomy d. Monitoring the patient's body temperature every hour
and is at risk for hypocalcemia. What should the nurse do?
a. Monitor laboratory values daily for an elevated thyroid - 25. When providing education to a patient with thyroid crisis,
stimulating hormone. which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize?
b. Observe for swelling of the neck, tracheal deviation, and a.Medication adherence and potential side effects
severe pain. b. Dietary restrictions and iodine intake
c. Evaluate the quality of the client's voice post-operatively, c. Stress management techniques and relaxation exercises
noting any drastic changes d. Importance of regular exercise and physical activity
 46

26. What is the recommended dietary modification for a patient c. 6 months

with thyroid crisis d. Indefinitely
a. High-iodine diet
b. Low-sodium diet 31. A clinical feature that distinguishes a hypoglycemic
c. Low-iodine diet reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction is:
d. High-sodium diet a. Blurred vision
b. Diaphoresis
c. Nausea
27. What is the primary goal of nursing care for a patient with d.Weakness
myxedema coma?
a. Maintaining normal thyroid hormone levels 32. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the
b.Preventing complications and promoting recovery following changes to their daily routine during periods of
c. Administering thyroid hormone replacement as prescribed infection?
d. Monitoring electrolyte levels a. No changes
b. Less insulin
28. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse c. More insulin
monitor closely in a patient with myxedema coma? d. Oral antidiabetic agents
a. Serum sodium levels
b. Serum potassium levels 33. Which of the following chronic complications is associated
c. Serum calcium levels with diabetes melitus?
d Serum glucose levels a. Dizziness, dyspnea on exertion and CAD
b. Retinopathy, neuropathy and CAD
29. What is the recommended treatment for myxedema coma? c. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic events and pulmonary infarcts
a. Surgical removal of the thyroid gland d. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness and cardiac
b. Radiation therapy for the thyroid gland arrhythmia
c. Thyroid hormone replacement therapy
d. Chemotherapy for thyroid cancer 34. Which of the following is a nursing intervention to prevent
complications related to DKA?
30. What is the recommended duration of thyroid hormone a. Encouraging the patient to eat a high-carbohydrate diet
replacement therapy for patients with myxedema coma? b. Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours
a. 1 week c. Administering antidiabetic medications as prescribed
b. 1 month d. Educating the patient on sick day management
 47

b. Hypokalemia
35. What is the primary goal of nursing care for a patient with c. Hypervolemia
DKA? d. Hyponatremia
a. Maintaining normal blood glucose levels
b. Preventing complications and promoting recovery 40. When administering desmopressin to a patient with
c. Administering insulin as prescribed diabetes insipidus, the nurse should prioritize which action?
d. Monitoring electrolyte levels a. Administering the medication intranasally
b. Monitoring urine specific gravity frequently
36. Which of the following is a nursing intervention to promote c. Assessing for signs of water intoxication
patient comfort during treatment for DKA? d. Monitoring blood glucose level
a. Administering analgesics as prescribed
b. Applying cold compresses to reduce fever 41. On assessment, you note the patient HR is 115 and BP
c. Encouraging the patient to rest and conserve energy 180/95 mmHg.
a.Patient sodium is 90.Which of the following conditions do
37. Which of the following is the primary nursing intervention you suspect the patient is most likely presenting with?
for a patient with hyperglycemia hyperosmolar non ketotic a. SIADH
(HHNK)? b. Addison's disease
a. Administering insulin c. Diabetes insipidus
b. Monitoring blood glucose levels d. Fluid volume deficit
c. Administering intravenous fluids
d. Assessing for signs of dehydration 42. Which of the following is most at risk of developing
Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?
38. Which of the following is a potential complication of HHNK a. A patient diagnosed with small cell lung cancer
that requires immediate nursing intervention? b. A patient hose kidney tubules are failing to reabsorb water
a. Hypoglycemia c. A patient with tumor on the anterior pituitary gland
b. Hyperglycemia d. A patient taking Demeclocycline
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypernatremia 43. Nurse Grazielle is assessing a client with possible
Cushing's syndrome. She would expect to find which of the
39. Which of the following is a potential complication of SIADH following?
that requires immediate nursing intervention? a. Hypotension
a. Hypernatremia b. Thick, coarse skin
 48

c. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical 47. When discussing a client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor
area of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine,
d. Weight gain in arms and legs nurse Xel is most likely to detect;
a. BP of 130/70 mmHg
44. A clinical instructor asks a student to describe the b. BP of 176/88 mmHg
pathophysiology that occurs in Cushing's disease. Which c. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
statement by a student indicates an accurate understanding of d. Bradycardia
this disorder? CHN
a. Cushing's disease is characterized by an oversecretion of
insulin COPAR is a big help in the community. COPAR
b. Cushing's disease is characterized by an under secretion of means
corticotropic hormone a. Community Organization Participatory
c. Cushing's disease is characterized by an over secretion of Action Report
glucocorticoid hormone b. Community Organization Participatory
d. Cushing's disease is characterized by an under secretion of Action Research
glucocorticoid hormone c. Community Organizing Participatory
Action Report
45. Which of the following would be observed in a patient with d. Community Organizing Participatory
Addisonian crisis? Action Research
a. Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
b. Tremors, tachycardia and headache COPAR is best described as:
c. Positive Chvostek sign, photophobia and numbness a. Essential healthcare made universally
d. Hypotension, rapid réspiration and pallor accessible to the people by means
acceptable to them
46. To reverse hypertensive crisis caused by b. Is a sustained and continuous process of
pheochromocytoma, nurse Xel expects to administer educating and mobilizing the peoples to
a. Methyldopa ( Aldomet ) solve their own problem
b. Mannitol ( Osmitrol ) c. Is a specialized field of nursing that
c. Phentolamine ( alpha adrenergic blocker ) renders care to individuals, families, and
d. Felodipine ( Plendil ) communities; focusing on health
promotion and disease prevention
through people empowerment
 49

d. The process of enabling people to 3. Telephone conference

increase control over and improve their 4. Pap smear of the adult female dwellers
health
One of the primary tasks of the community
Upon searching for qualified leader of the health nurse during the pre-entry phase is the
community organization, Nurse Jenny is selection of the barangay to become the initial
considering the requirements: site for their organizing efforts. The following are
a. Eagerness to help the steps in the selection of the project by the
b. Civil status team, except:
c. Employment position a. Developing criteria for selection
d. Education attainment b. Identifying potential barangays and
choosing the final project village
Nurse Jenny should follow criteria in selecting c. Identification of potential leaders
a site for COPAR. Which is not included? d. Identification of the host family
a. 100 or more families
b. High peace and order problem It is during this period that one member of
c. Economically depressed the team formed was given the role of a
d. Accessible community organizer
a. Community Analysis
Nurse Jenny is now ready to select potential b. Design and Initiation
leaders, the criteria for the selection should c. Implementation
include except? d. Program Maintenance-Consolidation
a. Non-informal leader
b. Well-respected in the community For the potential leaders to perform their
c. Aspiring counselor roles effectively, they have to possess certain
d. Member of the marginalized sector characteristics. Among these are the following,
except:
Health situation is also observed when: a. They must belong to the poor selection
1. Community dwellers utilizes the b. They must be respected members of the
community health centers community
2. Nurse and BHW goes out to conduct c. Preferably informal leaders
their responsibilities d. Formal leaders with many community
 50

responsibilities b. Start a community study

c. Make a courtesy call
This phase signals the start of community d. Conduct a small group meeting
self-management of any development program.
a. Community Analysis A step in organizing the community that Noy
b. Design and Initiation will do in order to have an overview of the
c. Implementation demographic characteristics of the community
d. Program Maintenance-Consolidation and community health related services is:
a. Form core group
Under this phase of education and training b. Community profiling
process, the conduct of training, monitoring and c. Integrate with the people
documentation of training are included: d. Area selection
a. Implementation phase
b. Planning phase As a new PHN in the community, Noy needs
c. Evaluation phase to establish rapport with the people and
d. Post-training phase establish mutual trust among them. As an ideal
community organizer, it is important for Noy to
In order to gain support of the community, a live with the people and imbibe community
new nurse Emy underscores the importance of lifestyle. This is part of the process known as:
COPAR which are the following except? a. Social participation
a. It encourages dependence on health b. Community integration
workers and representatives c. Networking
b. It gives the feeling of ownership to the d. Community diagnosis
community
c. It provides the community the In the preparation of teaching plan, the first
opportunity to assume responsibility and thing you would do is:
leadership a. Access community needs for health
d. It creates awareness and interests education
b. Identify subjects for health teaching
As a new nurse in the Barangay, which should c. Specify goals and targets
be the start of your activities: d. Identify who will support and type of
a. Making of spot map support provided
 51

modification, you should have:

You are an effective health educator if you a. Measurable outcome criteria
can: b. Well-documented activities
a. Listen to people’s problem and help them c. Written assessment of community needs
to decide the approach for meeting their d. A written community diagnosis
needs
b. Select the best strategy for health action This phase occurs when the community
for the people to implement organization has already been established and
c. Direct the people’s effort to implement the community members are already actively
community-based needs participating in community wide undertakings
d. Just tell your clients what to do for their a. Entry Phase
problems and needs b. Organizing-Building Phase
c. Pre-entry Phase
In teaching a responsible member of the d. Sustenance and Strengthening Phase
family to perform a certain procedure for the
patient, what is the best thing to do? It is the phase of community organizing that
a. Arrange for the practice of the procedure is the formation of more formal structure and the
b. Demonstrate the procedure inclusion of more formal process of planning,
c. Describe the procedure implementing, and evaluating of community
d. Do all the steps wide activities
a. Pre-entry Phase
Proper attitudes of barangay health worker b. Sustenance and Strengthening Phase
towards disease prevention can be developed by c. Organizing-Building Phase
using which of these teaching methods? d. Entry Phase
a. Providing information and examples of
models 27. It is the establishing of rapport with the
b. Providing experience and discussion people and imbibing community life by living
c. Role-playing with the community people and undergoing the
d. Any of the above choices same experience that they have, sharing their
hopes, aspirations, and hardships towards
In order to determine the success of your building mutual trust and cooperation?
health teaching plan and have some basis for a. Community Organizing
 52

b. Cooperation IV.
c. Integration Choose a family that rejects an interview
d. Being friendly a. II only
b. I, II, III, and IV
28. Refers to a systematic approach, a study of c. II and IV
the health condition of a community, involving d. IV only
the collection, analysis, and the interpretation of
data including statistical data 31. This phase is also called as “social preparation
a. Diagnosis phase”
b. Medical health diagnosis a. Strengthening and sustenance phase
c. Nursing care diagnosis b. Phase 4 B
d. Community health diagnosis c. Pre-entry phase
d. Entry phase
29. It is the initial phase of community organizing
in which the community organizer looks for a 32. What is the best definition for community
community to help/serve. organizing in the following choices?
a. Pre-entry phase a. A process by which people come together
b. Entry phase to talk about matters connected to their
c. Organizing-building phase health
d. Sustenance and strengthening phase b. A group of people who seek to change
errors in their community
30. Nurse Maya selecting a host family, the nurse c. Their goal is to develop a sense of
should remember the following, except: well-being to others
I. d. A process by which people organize
Choose a family with a strategic location themselves to take charge of their
II. situation and to develop a sense of being
A host family that belong to a right a community together
segment of the community
III. 33. A community is a small and private sharing
Family should be respected by both the group
formal and informal leader and a. True
community residents b. False
 53

participating in community wide undertakings:

34. What is the purpose of community a. Entry Phase
involvement? b. Organizing-Building Phase
a. To increase your awareness of community c. Pre-entry Phase
needs d. Sustenance and Strengthening Phase
b. To identify with your community
c. To learn to make a difference in your
community 41. The best way in gathering information of a
d. To develop a positive self image through contribution to community is:
community life a. Census
e. All of the above b. Sample survey
c. Random survey
35. The best way to get your children into d. Community survey
community service/volunteering is to:
a. Join the boys or girl scouts 42. In developing a potential leader the best way
b. Make phone calls to your friends about is through:
community service a. Asking and referring to the barangay
c. Volunteer as a family and be a good role b. Activity for should be well-prepared by
model you
c. Connect with a financially capable
36. What are the examples of community member of the community
service? d. Constant meeting regarding
a. Helping clean up a vacant lot organizational activities
b. Coaching a little league team
c. Organizing a can a bottle drive to raise 43. The following are criteria for selecting a core
money group, except:
d. Painting over Graffiti a. Has a affiliation with the barangay
e. All of the above b. Has good speaking skills and will to learn
c. Respected by the community
37. This phase occurs when the community d. Willing and responsible in working
organization has already been established and
the community members are already actively 44. On what phase of community organizing does
 54

ocular survey belong: b. Small group

a. Site-area selection c. Core group
b. Integration/entry phase
c. Mobilization 49. One of the primary tasks of the community
d. Study of the community health nurses during the pre-entry phase is the
selection of the barangay to become the initial
45. For what reason do we have to identify site for their organizing efforts. The following are the steps in
potential leaders: the selection of the project by the
a. For profiling the community team, except:
b. Social preparation a. Developing criteria for site selection
c. Formation of core group b. Identifying potential barangays and
d. Project proposal choosing the final project village
c. Identification of potential leaders
46. As a new PHN, what step of community d. Identification of the host family
organizing will you do to know the demographic
characteristic of the community? 50. A step in organizing the community that Noy
a. Core group formation will do in order to have an overview of the
b. Site selection demographic characteristics of the community
c. Community profiling and community health related services is:
d. Self-integration to community a. Form core group
b. Community profiling
47. You decide to do an ocular survey but upon c. Integrate with the people
entrance to the barangay you should: d. Area selection
a. Identify your subjects
b. Community meeting must be done 51. When prioritizing community health
c. Encourage community participation problems, the Nature of the problems includes
d. Make courtesy call to the political leader except:
a. Health Deficit
48. Manageable units of the community to b. Health needs
facilitate service delivery and peoples c. Health Threats
participation is called: d. Foreseeable crisis
a. Spot map
 55

52. The formula for the computation when an urgency attention needed.
prioritizing the health problems is/areL a. Nature of condition or problem
a. Decide on a score for each of the criteria b. Salience
b. Divide the score by the highest possible c. Prevention potential
score and multiply by the weight d. Magnitude of the problem
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above 57. Refers to the nature and magnitude of future
problems that can be minimized or totally
53. Four Criteria for Determining Priorities prevented if intervention is done one the
includes: problem under consideration
a. Health Deficit a. Nature of condition or problem
b. Nature of the problem b. Salience
c. Health threats c. Prevention potential
d. Foreseeable crisis d. Magnitude of the problem

54. Criteria for core group formation includes:

a. Setting up organization committee
b. Team buildings
c. None of the above
d. Formation of Community Health
Organization

55. Consolidation/Program Maintenance

evidence:
a. Update the community analysis
b. Assess effectiveness of
interventions/programs
c. Chart future directories and modifications
d. Establish an ongoing recruitment plan

56. Refers to the family’s perception and

evaluation of the problem in terms of seriousness CDN
 56

1. A child with rubeola (measles) is being c. Apply an ice pack to the injection site
admitted to the hospital. When preparing for the admission of d. Leave the injection site alone, because
the child, which precaution should this always occurs.
be implemented? Select all that apply.
1. Enteric
2. Contact 4. The admitting diagnosis was Tetanus. What is the other
3. Airborne name of this illness?
4. Protective a. Weil’s disease
5. Neutropenic b. Lock jaw
a. 1,2 c. Canicola fever
b. 2,3 d. Dengue fever
c. 3,4
d. 5,1 5. A child is diagnosed with chicken pox. The nurse collects
data regarding the child. Which finding is characteristic of
2. The mother of a toddler with mumps asks the nurse that she chicken pox?
needs to watch for her child with this disease. The nurse a. Macular rash on the trunk and scalp
bases the response on the understanding that mumps is which b. Pseudomembrane formation in the throat
type of communicable disease? c. Maculopopular or petechial rash on the
a. Skin rash caused by a virus extremities
b. Skin rash caused by a bacteria d. Small, red spots with a bluish white
c. Respiratory disease caused by a virus center and red base
involving the lymph nodes
d. Respiratory disease caused by a virus 6. The nurse reviews the home care instructions
involving the parotid gland with the parent of a 3-year-old with pertussis.
Which statement by the parent indicates a need
3. A 6-month old infant receives a diphtheria,tetanus, and for further teaching?
acellular pertussis (DTaP) immunization at the well baby clinic. a. I know that my child will make a loud
The parent returns home and calls the clinic to report that the whooping sound
infant has developed swelling and redness at the site of b. I understand this whooping cough is viral
injection. Which instructions by the nurse are appropriate? and i have to let it run its course
a. Monitor the infant for fever c. I understand that i need to watch for
b. Bring the infant back to the clinic respiratory distress signs with pertussis
 57

d. I can reduce the environment factors that 9. Several children have contracted rubeola
can trigger coughing, like dust and smoke (measles) in a local school, and the school nurse
conducts a teaching session for the parents of the school
7. The nurse reinforces home care instructions to the parent of children. Which statement made by a parent needs further
a child hospitalized with pertussis. The child is in the teaching regarding this communicable disease?
convalescent stage and is being 1. Small blue white spots with a red base
prepared for discharge. Which statement by the parents may appear in the mouth
indicates a need for further teaching? 2. The rash usually begins centrally and
a. We need to encourage adequate fluid spreads downward to the limbs
intake 3. Respiratory symptoms such as a very
b. Coughing spells may be triggered by dust runny nose, cough and fever occur before
or smoke the development of a rash
c. We need to maintain respiratory 4. The communicable period ranges from 10
precautions and a quiet environment for days before the onset of symptoms to 15
at least 2 weeks days after the rash appears
d. Good hand washing techniques need to
be instituted to prevent spreading the
disease to others

8. A child seen in the clinic is found to have 10. Achild is brought to the clinic after developing
rubeola (measles) and the mother asks the nurse how to care a rash on the trunk, and on the scalp. The
for the child. Which instructions should the nurse provide for parents report that the child has had a low grade fever, has not
the mother? felt like eating, and has been generally tired. The child is
a. Keep the child in a room with dim lights diagnosed with chickenpox. Which statement by the nurse is
b. Give the child warm baths to help prevent accurate regarding chicken pox?
itching 1. The communicable period is unknown
c. Allow the child to play outdoors because 2. The communicable period ranges from 2
sunlight will help the rash weeks or less up to several months
d. Take the child’s temperature every 4 hours and administer 1 3. The communicable period is 10 days
baby aspirin for before the onset of symptoms to 15 days
fever after the rash appears
4. The communicable period is 1 to 2 days
 58

before the onset of the rash to 6 days 2. We will watch for the complication of
after the onset and crusting of lesions otitis media
3. The symptoms increases in severity after
11. A mother brings her 4 month old infant to the well baby the rash appears
clinic for immunizations. Which immunizations should be 4. Small, irregular and red spots in a minute
administered to this infant? bluish white center are seen on the
1. Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis buccal mucosa before the rash appears
DTaP, Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR),
inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) 13. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized child
2. Varicella and Hepatitis B vaccines with a diagnosis of rubella (German Measles).
3. MMR, Hib, DTaP The nurse reviews the primary health care
4. DTaP, Hib, IPV, Pneumococcal vaccine provider’s progress notes and reads that the child
(PVC) has developed the Forchhemer sign. Based on the
documentation, which should the nurse expect
to note in the child?
1. Swelling of the parotid gland
2. Petechiae spots located on the palate
3. Small blue white spots noted on the
buccal mucosa

14. The nurse assigned to care for a child with mumps in the
monitoring the child for and symptoms associated with the
common
complication of mumps. The nurse monitors for which
sign/symptoms that are indicative of these common
complications?
12. Several children have contracted rubeola (measles) in a 1. Pain
local school, and the nurse provides information to the 2. Deafness
mothers of the children about this communicable disease. 3. Nuchal rigidity
Which statement by a mother indicates a need for 4. A red swollen testicle
further teaching?
1. The disease is caused by a virus 15. A mother brings her child to the clinic
 59

because the child has developed a rash on the 4. Any recent ear infection
trunk and scalp. The child is diagnosed with
varicella. What will the nurse tell the mother
about the infectious period?
1. The infectious period is unknown
2. The communicable period ranges from 2
weeks or less up to several months
3. The communicable period is 10 days 18. As an infection control nurse in the acute care
before the onset of symptoms to 15 days hospital, which action will you take to most
after the rash appears effectively reduce the incidence of healthcare
4. The communicable period is 1 to 2 days associated infection?
before the onset of the rash to 6 days a. Screen all newly admitted clients for
after the onset and crusting of lesions colonization of infection with MRSA
b. Develop policies that automatically start
16. The nurse prepares to administer measles,mumps, and antibiotic therapy for clients colonized by
rubella (MMR) vaccine to a five year old child. How should the multi drug resistant organism
nurse plan to administer the vaccine? c. Ensure that dispensers for alcohol based
1. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle hand rubs are readily available in all
2. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle clients care areas of the hospital
3. Subcutaneously in the upper aspect of d. Require nursing staff to don gowns to
the upper arm change wound dressing for all the clients
4. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral
aspect of the thigh 19. Acquiring chickenpox by developing such
condition is said to be
17. The nurse obtained a health history from a. Active artificial immunity
another of a 15 month old child before b. Active natural immunity
administering a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. c. Artificial passive immunity
Which is essential information to obtain before the d. Artificial acquired immunity
administration of this vaccine?
1. 1 recent cold 20. A foreign protein when injected into the
2. Allergy to eggs tissues of an animal which stimulates the
3. The presence of diarrhea formation of protective substance is called
 60

a. Lysosome should the nurse make to the mother about

b. Competent varicella?
c. Antigen a. The rash is nonvesicular
d. Antibody b. The treatment of choice is aspirin
c. Varicella has an incubation period of 5
21. Nurse Lazada performs a PPD test on his right forearm days to 10 days
today. When should he return to have the test read? d. A child is no longer contagious once the
a. Immediately after performing the test rash has crusted over
b. 24 hours after performing the test
c. 48 hours after performing the test 25. Which statement is correct about the rash
d. 1 week after performing the test associated with varicella?
a. Its diagnosis in the presence of Koplik’s
spot in the oral mucosa
b. It's a maculopapular rash starting on the
scalp and hairline and spreading
22. A client has active tuberculosis. Which downward
symptoms will he exhibit? c. It's a vesicular maculopapular rash that
a. Chest and lower back pain appears abruptly on the trunk, face, and scalp
b. Fever more than 40 degree celsius and d. It appears as yellow ulcers surrounded by
nausea red halos on the surface of hands and
c. Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis feet.
d. Headache and photophobia
26. A client with disseminated herpes zoster is given I.V
23. Which diagnostic test is definitive for hydrocortisone. Which laboratory value should the nurse
tuberculosis? expect to be elevated as a result of this therapy
a. Chest X-ray a. Calcium
b. Sputum culture b. Magnesium
c. Mantoux test c. Glucose
d. Tuberculin test d. Potassium

24. A mother is concerned because her child was 27. A 36 year old client who has never had
exposed to varicella in day care. Which statement
 61

mumps reports that he was notified that an 8 year old child of the legs and respiratory paralysis can occur if the
a family with whom he stayed recently has been diagnosed brain is infected
with mumps. Which treatment should the client receive? a. Abortive poliomyelitis
a. I.V antibiotics b. Non paralytic poliomyelitis
b. Application of a scrotal support c. Paralytic poliomyelitis
c. Ice packs to the scrotum d. Non abortive poliomyelitis
d. Administration of gamma globulin
32. Post polio syndrome is observed in about
28. True about measles 25% of persons who survived this type of
a. Centrifugal, stimson’s line, pastia line poliomyelitis. The syndrome appears 30-40 years
b. Centripetal, Koplik’s spots after acute polio infection and is characterized
c. Both A and B fatigue, pain, muscle weakness, and atrophy
d. NOTA a. Abortive poliomyelitis
b. Non paralytic poliomyelitis
29. True about chicken pox c. Paralytic poliomyelitis
a. Centrifugal, Forcheimer’s spots d. Non abortive poliomyelitis
b. Celestial map, centripetal
c. Both A and B 33. Which characteristics best describes the
d. NOTA cough of an infant who was admitted to the
hospital with suspected pertussis?
30. The most common clinical form of a. Dry, hacking, more frequent on
poliomyelitis and is characterized by flu like awakening
illness, with fever, headache, sore throat, and b. Loose, non productive coughing episodes
nausea followed by spontaneous recovery c. Occurring more frequently during the day
without CNS sequelae d. Harsh, associated with a high pitched
a. Abortive poliomyelitis crowing sound
b. Nonparalytic poliomyelitis
c. Paralytic poliomyelitis
d. Non abortive poliomyelitis

31. This type of poliomyelitis is characterized by

asymmetric flaccid paralysis most often affecting
 62

trismus but does not recognize any punctured or

severe wound. The following injuries are possible
34. Which of the following communicable diseases require cause of tetanus, EXCEPT
isolating an infected child from pregnant women? a. Carious teeth, dental abscess
a. Pertussis b. Close blast injuries
b. Roseola c. Ingrown nail/paronychia
c. Rubella d. Hairpin wound/ear ring hole
d. Scarlet fever
39. Period of communicability of tetanus
35. Which of the following characteristics is a. From the time of injury until lesions are
commonly seen in a child with pertussis? healed
a. Barking cough b. As long as there’s presence of tetanus
b. Whooping cough organism in blood
c. Abrupt high fever c. Both
d. Inspiratory stridor d. None of the above

36. Signs and symptoms of headache and fever, pain or 40. Tetanustoxin responsible for RBC destruction?
numbness of bite site, delirium and paralysis, muscle spasm a. Tetanospasmin
and hydrophobia and aerophobia b. Tetanolysin
a. Rabies c. Hemolysis
b. Leptospirosis d. Exotoxin
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Tetanus 41. The nurse was asked by the doctor to collect
some of the penile discharge. Using standard
37. The nurse on duty should place the child in a quiet dimly lit precaution, the nurse will use;
room to prevent the child from: a. Gloves
a. Depression b. Gloves and mask
b. Excitement c. Gloves and gown
c. Muscle spasm d. None, it is non contagious
d. Difficulty breathing

38. Nurse Jeju suspects tetanus in a patient with

 63

ejaculations

2. In the male, a primary reason for the scrotal sac to be

descended is to:
a. Rapidly squeeze the sperm from their
storage site into the urethra.
b. Release an alkaline fluid that helps
provide an environment favorable for
sperm motility and metabolism.
c. Promote sexual arousal during
intercourse.
d. Maintain a temperature lower than that
of the body to ensure spermatogenesis

3. Mr X asked the nurse "Why is my left testicle is lower than

the right"? The most appropriate answer is.
a. If a person is right handed his right testis
FINALS is higher than the left.
MCHN b. Its normal to have one testicle higher
than the other.
1. The following statement is true regarding c. It prevents friction during active
Ductus Deferens, except: movement.
a. It carries sperm from the epididymis d. It reduces the sperm even one is slightly
through the inguinal canal into the suspended
abdominal cavity, where it ends at the
seminal vesicles and the ejaculatory
ducts.
b. The length is controversial,
approximately 20 ft long. Situation: Mang Juan was a jeepney driver and working for too
c. Sperm mature as they pass through the long during his trip on Cubao to Baclaran. For 1 year of
vas deferens continued unprotected coitus he never realized that there must
d. It acts as reservoir for sperm between
 64

be something wrong with him. His wife never gets pregnant a. Function in increasing the mobility of the
again. sperm
b. Secretion is thin and milky colored
4. What will be your health teaching to Mang Juan? c. Located inferior to the urinary bladder
a. Avoid tight jeans d. Secretion is acidic in nature
b. Avoid sauna bath
c. Avoid sitting long 8. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to
d. All of the above occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
a. Sperm motility
5. As a nurse what will you expect about the b. Sperm volume
conditions of Mang Juan except? c. Sperm count
a. Because of prolonged sitting on a warm surface he might d. Sperm maturity
get infertile.
b. The testes must maintain a <2 degree C 9. The layer of the nonpregnant uterus that
body temperature sloughs off during menstruation is the;
c. One testis is slightly distended lower a. Myometrium
most common is the left testis b. Stratum basalis
d. There is slightly decrease on the basal c. Parametrium
body temperature the day before the d. Stratum functionalis
ovulation
10. The patient complains of dyspareunia, one factor would be
6. If a man has had a vasectomy, will he still be able to lack of lubrication. What gland is responsible for lubrication of
ejaculate? the vagina?
a. YES, but the semen will not contain a. vulvovaginal gland
sperm b. bulbourethral gland
b. YES, but he will not have an erection c. Paraurethral gland
c. NO. because he will not produce any d. skene's gland
semen
d. NOTA 11. The client decided to undergo tubal ligation.She asks the
nurse which part of the fallopian tube will be cut and tied. The
7. Mark the INCORRECT statement about appropriate response of the nurse is
prostate gland. a. Interstitial
 65

b. Infundibular c. Increase level of estrogen

c. Ampulla d. Release of mature egg cell
d. Isthmus
16. Which of the following statements are true about
12. During sexual excitement, this part of the female genitalia menstruation?
change its color to dark pink: a. In a normal 28 day menstrual cycle you
a. clitoris would expect menstruation to last
b. Labia minora approximately 3-5 days.
c. Vaginal orifice b. During menstruation the entire
d. vestibule endometrium is shed.
c. During menstruation only the functional
13. A student nurse asks, "What causes milk layer of the endometrium is shed, with
let-down?" The nurse's correct response is; the basal layer remaining intact.
a. Prolactin d. Absence of menstruation always indicates
b. Oxytocin an active pregnancy
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone 17. Which of the following are functions of
luteinizing hormone (LH)?
14. At the beginning of menstruation, the a. Formation and maintenance of the corpus
following physiologic changes occur except? luteum
a. An ovum begins to mature in the grafian b. Release the graafian follicle
follicle c. Stimulation of follicle development
b. Estrogen and progesterone are at their d. Stimulation of GnRH production
lowest level
c. Luteinizing hormone level is at its peak
d. Follicle stimulating hormone has just 18. Bella, a 21 year old student, approached you one
begun to rise afternoon asking about her fertile days. She stated that she is
on 25th day cycle and she had contact with her current
15. During the 14th day cycle of the findings are normal boyfriend, Edward, last July 13. Her last day of menstrual
except.? period was on July 1-5. Was Bella fertile on the time she had
a. Elevation of Basal Body Temperature contact with her bf?
b. Increase level of progesterone a. Yes she is fertile
 66

b. No she isn't
c. Both A and B
d. none of the above 22. It is a proteolytic enzyme release by the
mature sperm necessary to dissolves the outer covering of an
19. During the follicular phase the nurse is ovum:
correct if he/she will reply to that? a. Hyaluronidase
a. Estrogen is starting to increase during day 5 to 13 day of a b. Blastocyst
regular 28 menstrual c. Morula
cycle d. Trophoblast
b. Development and maturation of the
ovum takes place 23. Which of the following final process
c. Progesterone level is low until the spermatozoa must undergo to be ready for
estrogen reach its peak during the 13th fertilization?
day of the cycle a. Spermatogenesis
d. All of the above b. Capacitation
e. None of the above c. Nidation
d. Fecundation
20. Which hormone is responsible for the
production of clear, elastic cervical mucus 24. A pregnant client reveals a low
associated with spinnbarkeit and ferning? alpha-fetoprotein. The nurse is aware that this test result may
a. FSH indicate the presence of:
b. Progesterone a. cystic fibrosis
c. Prostaglandin b. Phenylketonuria
d. Estrogen c. Down syndrome
d. Neural tube defects
21. A regular 32-day menstrual cycle, the client will probably
ovulate: 25. Which precaution would you take with a
a. On day 16-20 pregnant woman following an amniocentesis?
b. on day 18-22 a. Remind her not to raise her head for 4
c. on day 12-16 hours
d. 10 days after the start of the last menses b. Assess fetal heart rate and possible
uterine contractions
 67

c. Perform a vaginal examination for a d. Negative

ferning pattern
d. Assess for increased abdominal distention 29. The following statements of the nurse are correct,when
asked about Contraction Stress Test (CST), EXCEPT
26. A pregnant client reveals an elevated a. to evaluate the respiratory function of the
alpha fetoprotein. The nurse is aware that this placenta.
test result may indicate the presence of: b. Assess the ability of the fetus to
a. Cystic fibrosis withstand the stress of uterine
b. Phenylketonuria contraction
c. Down syndrome c. Deceleration means that the fetus is
d. Neural tube defects normal and can withstand the stress of
labor contractions
27. All but one is a normal result in performing biophysical d. done during labor
profile:
a. at least one episode of 30 secs of 30. Which of the following would the nurse
sustained breathing movement w/in identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
30mins a. Hegar sign
b. at least 3 episodes of fetal limb or trunk b. Nausea and vomiting
movement w/in 30 mins c. Skin pigmentation changes
c. must extend and then flex extremities or d. Positive serum pregnancy test
spine at least once in 30 mins. 31. A 30-year-old multigravida client has missed three periods
d. 2 or more heart decelerations at least 15 and now visits the prenatal clinic because she assumes she is
beats/min pregnant. She is experiencing enlargement of her abdomen, a
positive pregnancy test, and changes in the pigmentation on
28. Mrs. Cherry Santos tells the nurse that she had a weekly her face and abdomen. These assessment findings reflect this
Non-stress test. A review of Mrs. Santos last non-stress test woman is experiencing a cluster of which signs of
shows that, after 20 minutes 2 periods of fetal activity were pregnancy?
noted with accelerations of 15 beats/min lasting for 15 secs. a. Positive
The nurse would interpret the result as: b. Probable
a. Reactive c. Presumptive
b. Positive d. Diagnostic
c. Non-reactive
 68

32. Bernadette did a urine pregnancy test but was surprised to 35. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of
learn that a positive result is not a sure sign of pregnancy. She the following?
asks you what would be a positive sign. You tell her would be a. January 2
if b. March 28
a. She is having consistent uterine growth c. April 12
b. She can feel the fetus move inside her d. October 12
c. HCG can be found in her bloodstream
d. The fetal heart can be seen on 36. A patient report that the first day of her last normal menses
ultrasound was January 28. The calculated EDD is:
a. November 4
33. Mrs. Lazatin had her prenatal visit and was advised for b. October 31
CBR because of threatened abortion. This is her fourth c. November 5
pregnancy and she's now on her 18th week AOG. The first d. November 7
pregnancy resulted in identical twins at 38 weeks AOG, the
second was delivered at 41 weeks AOG and the third was lost 37. To Bartholomew's rule, if the fundus is
at 8 weeks AOG. Using the GIPALM format, her history will be palpable slightly above the symphysis pubis, the
written as follows pregnancy is on how many lunar months?
a. G4P3(4-3-1-1-3-1) a. 7th lunar mo.
b. G4P2(4-2-0-1-3 1) b. 5th lunar mo
c. G5P4 (5-3-1-1-3-2) c. 3rd lunar mo.
d. G4P3(4-3-0-1-3-1) d. 4th lunar mo.

34. When giving her OB history, your pregnant client tells you 38. The nurse is assessing Mrs. Teresa Manabat
that she has had two prior pregnancies; she has a miscarriage who is 24 weeks pregnant. She tells the nurse the
with the first pregnancy (@ 8th week. The second pregnancy following information regarding her pregnancy
was twin girls who were born @ 34-weeks, but died 3 days outcomes: She have 3 children (ages: 6, 10, 15),
later. The nurse should record that the patient is all of them were born at 39 and 42 weeks gestation, and one
a. G3 P2 miscarriage. How would you document her GPTPALM?
b. G3 P2 a. G5 P3 T3 P0 A1 L3 MO
c. G3 P0 b. G5 P2 T1 P2 A0 L3 MO
d. G2 P3 c. G4 P2 T1 P1 A1 L3 MO
d. G4 P1 T3 PO A0 L2 MO
 69

iron fortified foods because low irons

39. The nurse is assessing Mrs. Leony Fernandez levels can cause leg cramps
who is 20 weeks pregnant. She tells the nurse the d. A prenatal workup needs to be performed
following information regarding her pregnancy for this is not normal in the third
outcomes: She have 1 child age 4 and was born trimester of pregnancy
at 38 weeks gestation, she had a miscarriage for 5
times. How would you document her GPTPALM? 42. During the first trimester, which of the
a. G7 P1 T1 P0 A5 L1 MO following changes regarding her sexual drive
b. G5 P2 T1 P2 A0 L3 MO should a client be taught to expect?
c. G7 P1 T1 P0 A5 L1 MO a. Increased sexual drive, because of
d. G6 P1 T1 P0 A5 L1 MO enlarging breasts
b. Decreased sexual drive, because of
40. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and fatigue
aching, swollen leg veins, the nurse would probably explain c. No change in her sexual drive
that this is most probably the result of which of the following? d. Increased sexual drive, because of
a. Pressure on blood vessels from the increased levels of female hormones
enlarging uterus
b. Thrombophlebitis 43. A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation
c. Pregnancy-induced Hypertension calls the clinic to report that she has been
d. The force of gravity pulling down on the experiencing occasional backaches of mild to moderate
uterus intensity Which intervention should
does the nurse recommend it?
41. A patient is the third trimester of her a. Kegel exercises
pregnancy states she has been getting "terrible" b. Pelvic rock exercises
leg cramps at night. Which statement is true c. Softer mattress
about leg cramps during pregnancy? d. Bed rest for 24 hours
a. Dorsiflexing the foot will help the 44. How can you differentiate a patient's true labor pains from
affected leg false? True labor pains are characterized by:
b. Avoiding regular exercise with help 1. pain is relieved by walking
prevent tiredness in the legs, therefore, 2. accompanied by effacement and
resting the legs will decrease leg cramps dilatation
c. Tell the patient to increase her intake of 3. bloody show
 70

4. duration increases transition phase of labor tells the nurse that she has the urge
a. 1 & 2 to push. After a vaginal examination indicates that her cervix is
b. 2, 3 & 4 fully dilated, she should instruct her to
c. 2 & 3 a. Breathe more rapidly with her thoracic
d. 1 only muscles and bear down
b. Lie on her side and concentrate on total
45. What statement is false about the transition relaxation while breathing deeply
phase of stage 1? c. Take a deep breathe, hold it for a count
a. The mother may experience intense pain, of 10 and push, repeat until the
irritation, nausea and deep concentration contraction ends
b. The transition phase is the longest phase d. First try to urinate and then continue with
of stage 1 and contractions are very the panting and blowing type of breathing Situation: Nurse
intense and long in duration Rachelle, a clinical instructor is
c. The cervix will dilate from 8-10 cm educating nursing students about the anatomy
d. The transition phase ends and progresses and physiology of male and female genitalia
to stage 2 of labor when the cervix has
dilated to 10 cm 48. They will be correct mn saving that the
function of Clitoris include :
46. Mrs. Gonzales, a primigravida client arrives in a. Secrete substances that enhance sexual
the labor and delivery urut and descubes her contraction as stimulation
occurring every 10-12 minutes lasting 30 seconds. She is b. Secrete a mucus with an alkaline pH that
smiling and very excited about the possibility of being in labor. enhances the viability and motility of
On exam, her cervix is dilated 2 cm, 50 % effaced,head is 2 sperm
station. Which of the following best c. Lubricate the vulvar skin and provide
describes this labor? bactericidal secretions
a. Second phase d. Assists with sexual stimulation by
b. Latent phase secreting smegma
c. Acute phase
d. Transition phase 49. One of the nursing student asked Nurse
Rachelle about the female sex gland, Nurse
Rachelle is correct if she said that it is the
47. The client who has just undergone the a. Uterus
 71

b. Vagina
c. Ovary
d. Fallopian tube

50. Nurse Michelle is discussing about

fertilization; she is correct if she stated that the most common
site of fertilization is the:
a. Ampulla
b. Isthmus
c. Fimbriae
d. Interstitial
 72

OB Based on the above fetal position of Catherine’s baby, the best

1. Catherine is undergoing true labor. Assessment reveals site to auscultate the FHR will be on what part of Catherine’s
cervical dilation of 6 cm, (+) BOW, moderate contractions abdomen?
lasting for 50 seconds and occurring every 4 minutes with the a. RUO
fetal head at +2 station. Vertex is located near Catherine’s b. RLQ
right buttock and angular parts facing her left c. LUQ
Abdomen. Catherine is undergoing what stage and phase of
labor? 4. Catherine is undergoing true labor. Assessment reveals
a. Stage 1 phase 1 cervical dilation of 6 cm, (+) BOW,moderate contractions
b. Stage 1 phase 2 lasting for 50 seconds and occurring every 4 minutes with the
c. Stage 2 phase 2 fetal head at +2 station. Vertex is located near Catherine’s
d. Stage 3 right buttock and angular parts facing her left
Abdomen. How will you describe Catherine’s baby?
2. Catherine is undergoing true labor. Assessment reveals a. Cephalic, assuming the attitude of flexion,
cervical dilation of 6 cm, (+) BOW,moderate contractions engaged and head is located 2 cm below
lasting for 50 seconds and occurring every 4 minutes with the ischial spines
fetal head at +2 station. Vertex is located near Catherine’s b. Cephalic, head is extended, floating and
right buttock and angular parts facing her left facing the maternal left anterior
Abdomen. Based on the assessment findings of Catherine,her c. Transverse, flexed, engaged, presenting
baby in what fetal position? part located at 2 cms above ischial spines
a. ROA d. None of the above
b. LOA
c. ROP 5. Catherine is undergoing true labor. Assessment reveals
d. LOP cervical dilation of 6 cm, (+) BOW, moderate contractions
lasting for 50 seconds and occurring every 4 minutes with the
3. Catherine is undergoing true labor. Assessment reveals fetal head at +2 station. Vertex is located near Catherine’s
cervical dilation of 6 cm, (+) BOW, moderate contractions right buttock and angular parts facing her left abdomen. What
lasting for 50 seconds and occurring every 4 minutes with the do you expect with Catherine’s present labor condition?
fetal head at +2 station. Vertex is located near Catherine’s a. Normal but with possible intense
right buttock and angular parts facing her left abdomen. lumbosacral pain
b. Normal without intense lumbosacral pain
c. Abnormal with possible intense
 73

lumbosacral pain symphysis pubis. The student thinks that what the CI will be
d. Abnormal without intense lumbosacral measuring is the:
pain a. Obstetric conjugate
b. Diagonal conjugate
6. All true regarding engagement, except? c. Transverse diameter
a. Refer to the setting of the presenting part d. Conjugate vera
of a fetus far enough into the pelvis to be
at the level of ischial spines, a midpoint of 9. If the fetus is in LOA position during labor, you would
the pelvis interpret this mean the fetus is:
b. If the baby is said to be engaged, it means a. In a longitudinal lie facing the right
that the widest part of the fetus has posterior of the pelvic quadrant
passed through the pelvic inlet b. Facing the right anterior of the mother’s
c. Non engagement of the head can be a abdominal quadrant
sign of cephalopelvic disruption especially c. In a common breech delivery position
to primigravida d. Presenting with the face as the presenting part
d. Fetal engagement is a sure sign that the
patient will undergo normal spontaneous
delivery
10. A woman with a term, uncompleted
7. After doing Leopold’s Maneuver on a laboring patient, the pregnancy comes into the labor and delivery unit in early labor
nurse determines that the fetus is in the ROP position. The saying that she thinks her bag of water has broken. Which of
best auscultate the fetal heart tone, the Doppler is placed: the following actions by the nurse would be most appropriate?
a. Above the umbilicus in the midline a. Prepare the women for delivery
b. Above the umbilicus in the left side b. Note the color and amount of the fluid
c. Below the umbilicus on the right side c. Immediately contact the physician
d. Below the umbilicus near the left groin d. Collect sample of fluid from microbial
analysis
8. The clinical instructor instructed her students to assist Mrs
Andres to help into a position for Internal examination to have 11. How can you differentiate a patient’s true labor pains from
her pelvis be determined for pelvic adequacy. The CI informed false? True labor pains are characterized by:
that she will measure between the anterior surface of the 1. Pain is relieved by walking
2. Accompanied by effacement and dilation
 74

3. Bloody show monitoring

4. Duration increases b. Preparing for immediate delivery
a. 1, 2 c. Checking for ruptured membranes
b. 2, 3, 4 d. Providing comfort measure
c. 2, 3
d. 1 only 15. To assess the frequency of women’s labor contractions,
you would time:
12. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse a. The beginning of one contraction to the
interprets this to be the result of which of this following? beginning of the next
a. Lanugo b. The time interval between the acme of
b. Hydramnios contractions
c. Meconium c. How many contractions occur in 5 minute
d. Vernix time span
d. The end of one contraction to the
13. Discussing of walking to a multigravida beginning of the next
patient on labor with ruptured membranes is
advised to prevent the possibility of: 16. Which of the following is the nurse's initial action when
a. Placenta previa umbilical cord prolapse occurs?
b. Abruptio placenta a. Begging monitoring vital signs and FHR
c. Cord prolapse b. Place the client in knee chest position in bed
d. Eclampsia c. Notify the physician and prepare the
client for delivery
d. Apply a sterile warm saline to the
exposed cord

17. Mrs. Velasco is examined by the nurse with the following

14. A client who is being admitted to the labor and delivery unit data: cervix 9 cm, position ROA, and station +2. The nurse
has the following assessment findings: determines what Mrs. Velasco in which stage of labor?
Gravida 2, para 1, estimated 40 weeks gestation.Contraction 2 a. First
minutes apart. Lasting 45 seconds.Vertex +4 station. What b. Second
should be the priority at this time? c. Third
a. Placing the client in bed to begin fetal d. Fourth
 75

18. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with d. Support the perineum with the hand to
contractions that are regular 2 minutes apart, and lasting for prevent tearing and tell the patient to
60 sec. She reported that she had a bloody show earlier that pant
morning. A vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 100%
effectuated and 8 cm dilated. The nurse interpret this to
indicate the client is 21. Forceful pulling of the cord in attempt to it placenta rapidly
a. Active is dangerous because it can lead to:
b. Latent a. Infections
c. Transition b. Laceration th
d. Fourth c. Placenta separation
d. Inversion of uterus
19. A primigravida client who arrived in the labor and delivery
unit described her contractions as occurring every 10 to 12 22. Ten minutes after the birth of the baby, the placenta has
minutes, lasting 30 seconds. She is smiling and very excited been expelled. What action would be most appropriate?
about the possibility of being in labor. On exam her cervix is a. Pull the cord
dilated 2 cm, 50% effectuated, and is a -2 station. Which of the b. Massage the abdomen
following best describe this labor? c. Wait for another 10 minutes
a. Second d. Do internal examination
b. Latent
c. Active 23. Following placental delivery your best action would be to:
d. Transition a. Assess her perineum
b. Apply ice packs on the abdomen
20. A patient is admitted in active labor. The baby’s head is c. Assess her blood pressure
crowning. The patient is bearing down. The delivery appears d. Palpate her fundus
imminent. The nurse should?
a. Transfer her immediately by stretcher to 24. Based on the EINC guidelines what are the signs that the
the delivery room women entered the active phase of labor?
b. Tell her to breath through her mouth and a. Cervical dilation of 4 cms, with 2-3 uterine
not to bear down contractions in 5 minutes duration
c. Instruct the patient to pant during b. Cervical dilation of 3 cms, with 2-3 uterine
contractions ad to breath through her contractions in 10 minutes duration
mouth c. Cervical dilation of 4 cms, with 2-3 uterine
 76

contractions in 20 minutes duration b. Contractions regular with increasing

d. Cervical dilation of 4 cms, with 4-5 uterine interval and decreasing duration
contractions in 20 minutes duration c. A rate of cervical dilation at 1 cm per hour
during the active phase of labor
25. Using the partograph the nurse monitors the d. None of the above
labor progress using which of these parameters?
a. FHR, amniotic membranes and liquor, 28. The four protocols in EINC is done in the
molding following order:
b. Maternal VS, urine, drugs 1. Immediate and thorough drying
c. Cervical dilation, descent of fetal head, 2. Proper cord clamping and cutting
and uterine contractions 3. Skin to skin contact with the mother
d. FHT, maternal VS, and cervical dilation 4. No separation of mother and child
a. 1,2,3,4
26. Important principles in monitoring labor b. 1,3,2,4
progress of a primigravida using the partograph c. 1,4,3,2
do not include: d. 4,2,1,3
a. Active phase should not exceed 8 hours
b. The rate of cervical dilation should be 1.5
cm/hr
c. Vaginal examination should be performed 29. The following choices are included in AMTSL except:
as frequently as is compatible with safe a. Administration of uterotonic within one
practice, ei. Once every four hours minute of delivery of the baby
d. During active labor, the rate of cervical b. Controlled cord traction with counter
dilation should not be slower than 1 traction on the uterus
cm/hour c. Uterine massage
d. Properly time cord clamping
27. You are monitoring the labor of multigravida Georgia using
the partograph. Findings suggestive of satisfactory progress in 30. It is not recommended to remove the vernix after birth, the
first stage of labor of multigravida include the following purpose of vernix caseosa is/are?
EXCEPT: a. To regulate temperature of the infant
a. Regular contractions of progressive b. To prevent infection
increasing frequency duration c. To prevent hypothermia
 77

d. To help hypothalamus to mature serosa

31. When should the cord be clamped after 34. It has been 12 hours since the client delivered a newborn.
birth? The nurse assess the client for the process of involution and
a. When the cord pulsation stop documents that it is progressing normally when palpation of
b. Not less than 1 minute in terms and the client's fundus is noted:
preterms a. At the level of umbilicus
c. Between 1 and 3 minutes b. One finger breadth below the umbilicus
d. All of the above are appropriate c. Two finger breadth below the umbilicus
d. Midway between the umbilicus and the
32. Assessing the woman’s physiology after birth is essential symphysis pubis
to promote the health of the mother. Which of the following is
not normal during the postpartum period? 35. A 32 year old gravida vaginally delivered a full term infant
a. An extensive diuresis begins to take place without complications. She states that would like to take a nap
almost immediately after birth to rid the but allows the nurse to take the vital signs and perform an
body of the fluid assessment. According to Reva Rubin, the nurse recognizes
b. The uterus is completely return to its pre that the client is experiencing what phase?
pregnancy level by the first and second a. Postpartum phase
week after birth b. Taking in phase
c. Elevate the body temperature after 24 c. Taking hold phase
hour period d. Letting go phase

33. One hour after delivery, which of the 36. A multiparous client visits the urgent care center 5 days
following findings would the nurse expect in a patient who after a vaginal delivery
didn't have complications? experiencing persistent lochia rubra in a
a. Boggy uterus: heavy amount of lochia moderate to heavy amount. The client asks the nurse. “Why
rubra with small clots am I continuing to bleed like this?” The nurse should instruct
b. Boggy uterus: moderate amount of lochia the client that this type of postpartum bleeding is usually
serosa caused by which of the following?
c. Firm uterus: heavy amount of lochia rubra a. Uterine atony
with small clots b. Cervical lacerations
d. Firm uterus: scant amount of lochia c. Vaginal lacerations
 78

d. Retained placenta fragments b. Use of external fetal monitoring during

37. Which temperature indicates the presence of postpartum labor
infection? c. Ruptured membranes for 4 hours prior to
a. 99.6F in the first 48 hours delivery
b. 100F for 2 days postpartum d. Spontaneous vaginal delivery after a
c. 100.4F in the first 24 hours hours of labor
d. 100.8F on the second and third
postpartum days
41. About 2 weeks after delivery Mrs. Demetria develops a
38. The nurse who is caring for a client who small, reddened area on one breast that is hot and tender to
delivered a full term baby 1 hour ago defects a firm fundus, yet touch. She complains that she feels as if she’s coming down
on inspection of the perineum with a flu, and her temperature is 38.4 degrees. The nurse
there is a constant trickle of blood. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are
should assess the client for: indicative of:
a. Retained placenta fragments a. Mastitis
b. Uterine atony b. DVT
c. Uterine inversion c. Breast engorgement
d. Vagina tears or lacerations d. Puerperal infection

39. A nurse in the recovery room should know that her primary 42. Which of the following clients are
nursing responsibility when caring for a woman experiencing experiencing subinvolution?
postpartum hemorrhage associated with uterine atony is to: a. A 2 day postpartum with her fundus
a. Perform fundal massage located at 2 fingerbreadths below
b. Establish venous access umbilicus
c. Prepare the woman for surgical b. A 2 day postpartum with her fundus
intervention located at 2 fingerbreadths above
d. Catheterize the bladder umbilicus
c. A woman who has just delivered her baby
40. The nurse interprets that which factors in a client history with her fundus located at the level of her
place the women at greatest risk for postpartum endometritis? umbilicus
a. Cesarean delivery after 24 hours of labor d. None of the above
and failure to progress
 79

43. All of the following are true about the legs, active movement and crying when stimulated. What is
newborn except: the APGAR score?
a. The average N.B temperature at birth is a. APGAR 9
around 37.2 degrees celsius b. APGAR 10
b. Newborns are obligatory mouth breathers c. APGAR 8
c. Every N.B is born slightly acidotic d. APGAR 5
d. Neonates have physiological resilience
47. A newborn 5 minutes APGAR score is 5, which of the ff
44. In comparing baby Bella’s head and chest measurement interventions will you provide to this newborn?
which of the ff. observation would a. Routine post delivery care
the nurse expects to find? b. Continue to monitor and re assess the
a. The chest circumference is approx. 1 inch APGAR score in 10 minutes
smaller that the head circumference c. Some resuscitation assistance such as
b. The chest circumference is approx. 1 inch oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and re
larger that the head circumference assess APGAR score
c. The head and chest circumference are d. Full resuscitation assistance is needed and reassess
equal APGAR score
d. The chest circumference is approx. 3 inch
smaller that the head circumference 48. When instilling erythromycin ointment into the eyes of a
neonate 1 hour old, the nurse would explain to the parents that
45. When assessing a neonate a few hours after birth, the the medication is used to prevent which of the following?
nurse notes an edematous area over the parietal area that a. Chorioretinitis from gonorrhea
does not cross the sagittal suture line. This most likely b. Blindness secondary to gonorrhea
indicates: c. Cataracts from B hemolytic streptococcus
a. Craniosynostosis d. Strabismus resulting from the neonatal
b. Caput succedaneum maturation
c. Craniotabes
d. Cephalohematoma 49. The nurse observe that the newborn has a hoarse cry, she
knows that this indicates:
46. You are assessing the one minute APGAR score of the a. Hypoglycaemia
newborn baby, you note about the ff. Heart rate 130 bpm, pink b. Laryngeal stridor
body and hands with cyanotic feet, flexion of the arms and c. Increase ICP
 80

d. Prematurity 53. Contractions were noted at 3-4 minutes

intervals and at 50 mm Hg pressure on the
50. Nurse Lyn is on duty at the labor room, she knows that she monitor record. This contraction:
should transfer a primipara patient to a delivery room when her a. Intensity and duration
cervix dilates to: b. Duration and frequency
a. 7 cm c. Frequency and intensity
b. 10 cm d. Frequency and intensity
c. 9 cm
d. 8 cm 54. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when
umbilical cord prolapse occurs?
51. A client having false labor most likely would have which of a. Begin monitoring maternal VS and FHR
the following? b. Place the client in knee chest position
1. Contractions that do not intensify while c. Notify the physician and prepare the
walking client for delivery
2. An increase in the intensity and frequency d. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to
of contractions the exposed cord
3. Progressive cervical effacement
4. Pain in the abdomen that does not
radiate
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 4
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 3

52. Vital signs are taken frequently on a patient in labor. Which

time would be most appropriate to ascertain the fetal heart
tone and the patient’s BP.
a. Midway between contractions
b. Just before contractions
c. During contractions
d. Just after contractions
81
 82

HEMA

1. AMNIOCENTESIS HAS SUGGESTED THAT A COUPLE'S

FIRST CHILD WILL BE BORN WITH SICKLE CELL DISEASE
THE PARENTS ARE UNFAMILIAR WITH THE HEALTH
PROBLEM AND THEIR CAREGIVER IS EXPLAINING THE
COMPLEXITIES. WHICH STATEMENT BY THE PARENTS
WOULD SUGGEST A NEED FOR FURTHER TEACHING OR
CLARIFICATION? (ANALYZE)

A. "OUR BABY'S RED CELLS ARE PRONE TO EARLY

DESTRUCTION BECAUSE OF THEIR WEAK MEMBRANES."
BB. "NOT ALL OF HIS OR HER RED CELLS WILL BE
SICKLED,BUT LOW OXYGEN LEVELS CAN CAUSE THEM
TO BECOME SO."
C. "SICKLED CELLS CAN BLOCK HIS OR HER BLOOD
VESSELS, ESPECIALLY IN THE ABDOMEN, CHEST, AND
BONES."
D. "OUR SON OR DAUGHTER LIKELY WON'T SHOW THE
EFFECTS OF SICKLING UNTIL HE OR SHE IS SCHOOL-
AGED BECAUSE OF THE DIFFERENT HEMOGLOBIN IN
BABIES."

2. A CHILD HAS BEEN DIAGNOSED WITH THALASSEMIA.

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMORBIDITIES MAY
OCCUR AS A RESULT OF HAVING THALASSEMIA?
(UNDERSTAND)
A. HYPOCOAGULATION
B. IRON DEFICIENCY
 83

C. SPLENOMEGALY APPLY. (ANALYZE)

D. NEUTROPENIA A. ELEVATED SERUM BILIRUBIN
B. LOW PH ON AN ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS
3. A FEMALE CLIENT ARRIVES AT THE CLINIC C. ELEVATED SERUM OSMOLALITY
REPORTING FATIGUE THAT IS EXHAUSTING BRUISING D. DECREASED HEMOGLOBIN
ON THE SKIN, AND BLEEDING FROM THE GUMS. WHICH E. ELEVATED WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT
DIAGNOSTIC RESULT(S) OR HISTORY FINDING(S)
CORRELATES WITH A DIAGNOSIS OF 6. THE NURSE IS CARING FOR A 30-YEAR-OLD WOMAN
APLASTIC ANEMIA? EXCEPT(ANALYZE) WHO IS DIAGNOSED WITH IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA.
A. WHITE BLOOD CELL (WBC) COUNT <1,000/ML THE CLIENT IS CONFUSED HOW THIS CONDITION
(1 x109/L) DEVELOPED BECAUSE SHE ATE MANY FOODS HIGH IN
B. PLATELET COUNT 50 x103/ML (50 X109/L) IRON. HOW SHOULD THE NURSE RESPOND? (APPLY)
C. HEMOGLOBIN LEVEL OF 12.5 G/DL (125 G/L) A. THIS IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA WAS MOST LIKELY
D. RECENT BOUT WITH MONONUCLEOSIS VIRAL THE RESULT OF CHRONIC BLOOD LOSS OVER A
INFECTION PERIOD OF TIME.
E. COMPLETED CHEMOTHERAPY FOR LEUKEMIA IN B. SOME PEOPLE HAVE A CONDITION THAT IMPAIRS
THE PAST YEAR THE ABILITY TO USE THE IRON THEY TAKE IN
EFFECTIVELY.
4. THE NURSE IS ASSESSING A CLIENT. WHAT FINDINGS C. DIET DEFICIENCIES ARE THE MOST COMMON
SHOULD THE NURSE APPLY AS EVIDENCE OF IRON REASON, SO IT IS LIKELY THE INTAKE WAS NOT
DEFICIENCY ANEMIA? EXCEPT. (UNDERSTAND) SUFFICIENT.
A. DYSPNEA ON EXERTION D. IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA IS ACTUALLY MORE
B. ORAL LESIONS LIKELY LINKED TO DEFICITS OF VITAMIN B12 AND
C. CONCAVE FINGERNAILS (KOILONYCHIA) FOLATE IN THE DIET.
D. JAUNDICE E. PARESTHESIA OF THE FEET
AND FINGERS 7. TWO YEARS AFTER CHEMOTHERAPY AND RADIATION
THERAPY FOR LUNG CANCER, A 72- YEAR-OLD CLIENT
5. THE NURSE IS CARING FOR A TEENAGER WITH REPORTS BEING EXTREMELY TIRED
SICKLE CELL ANEMIA. WHEN COMPARING NEW ALL THE TIME. THE PHYSICIAN SUSPECTS THE CLIENT
LABORATORY RESULTS WITH THE CLIENT'S BASELINE, MAY HAVE DEVELOPED APLASTIC ANEMIA. THE
WHICH RESULTS SHOULD THE NURSE PRIORITIZE AS NURSE ASSESSING THE CLIENT WILL LIKELY FIND
REQUIRING INTERVENTION? SELECT ALL THAT WHICH CLINICAL MANIFESTATION OF APLASTIC
 84

ANEMIA? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. (APPLY) A. THROMBUS.

A. COMPLAINTS OF WEAKNESS AND FATIGUE B. CARDIOMYOPATHY.
B. SMALL SPOTS OF SKIN HEMORRHAGES OVER ENTIRE C. PULMONARY EDEMA.
BODY D. DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR
C. EXCESS BLEEDING FROM GUMS AND NOSE COAGULATION (DIC).
D. SPOON-SHAPED DEFORMITY OF THE
FINGERNAILS 11. THE NURSE WOULD ANTICIPATE THAT A PATIENT
E. HEMOLYSIS FROM RENAL DIALYSIS TREATMENTS WITH VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE UNDERGOING
SURGERY WOULD BE TREATED WITH ADMINISTRATION
8. WHEN OBTAINING ASSESSMENT DATA FROM A OF VWF AND
PATIENT WITH A MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC ANEMIA, A. THROMBIN.
THE NURSE WOULD QUESTION THE PATIENT ABOUT B. FACTOR VI.
A. FOLIC ACID INTAKE C. FACTOR VII.
B. DIETARY INTAKE OF IRON D. FACTOR VIIl.
C. A HISTORY OF GASTRIC SURGERY
D. A HISTORY OF SICKLE CELL ANEMIA 12. WHICH PATIENT IS MOST LIKELY TO EXPERIENCE
ANEMIA RELATED TO AN INCREASED DESTRUCTION OF
9.THE NURSING MANAGEMENT OF A RED BLOOD CELLS?
PATIENT IN SICKLE CELL CRISIS INCLUDES (SELECT ALL A. A 59-YEAR-OLD MAN WHOSE ALCOHOLISM HAS
THAT APPLY) PRECIPITATED FOLIC ACID DEFICIENCY
A. MONITORING CBC. B. A 23-YEAR-OLD AFRICAN AMERICAN MAN WHO HAS A
B. OPTIMAL PAIN MANAGEMENT AND O2 DIAGNOSIS OF SICKLE CELL DISEASE
THERAPY. C. A 30-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH A HISTORY OF 'HEAVY
C. BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS IF REQUIRED PERIODS" ACCOMPANIED BY ANEMIA
AND IRON CHELATION. D. A 3-YEAR-OLD CHILD WHOSE IMPAIRED GROWTH
D. REST AS NEEDED AND DEeP VEIN AND DEVELOPMENT IS ATTRIBUTABLE TO
THROMBOSIS PROPHYLAXIS. THALASSEMIA
E. ADMINISTRATION OF IV IRON AND DIET HIGH IN IRON
CONTENT. 13. A PATIENT WITH A DIAGNOSIS OF
HEMOPHILIA HAD A FALL DOWN AN
10. A COMPLICATION OF THE ESCALATOR EARLIER IN THE DAY AND IS NOW
HYPERVISCOSITY OF POLYCYTHEMIA IS EXPERIENCING BLEEDING IN HER LEFT KNEE JOINT.
 85

WHAT SHOULD BE THE EMERGENCY NURSE'S

IMMEDIATE RESPONSE TO THIS? 16. A 36-YEAR-OLD MOTHER OF TWO
A. IMMEDIATE TRANSFUSION OF PLATELETS CHILDREN HAS ANEMIA RELATED TO
B. RESTING THE PATIENT'S KNEE TO PREVENT INADEQUATE INTAKE OF ESSENTIAL NUTRIENTS. WHICH
HEMARTHROSES INTERVENTION WOULD BE APPROPRIATE FOR THE
C. ASSISTANCE WITH INTRACAPSULAR NURSE TO INCLUDE IN THE PLAN OF CARE FOR THIS
INJECTION OF CORTICOSTEROIDS WOMAN?
D. RANGE-OF-MOTION EXERCISES TO PREVENT A. PLAN FOR 30 MINUTES OF REST BEFORE AND AFTER
THROMBUS FORMATION EVERY MEAL.
B. ENCOURAGE FOODS HIGH IN PROTEIN, IRON,
14. AN OLDER PATIENT RELATES THAT SHE HAS VITAMIN C, AND FOLATE.
INCREASED FATIGUE AND A HEADACHE. THE NURSE C. INSTRUCT THE PATIENT TO SELECT SOFT, BLAND,
IDENTIFIES PALE SKIN AND GLOSSITIS ON AND NONACIDIC FOODS.
ASSESSMENT. IN RESPONSE TO D. GIVE THE PATIENT A LIST OF MEDICATIONS THAT
THESE FINDINGS, WHICH TEACHING WILL BE HELPFUL INHIBIT IRON ABSORPTION.
TO THE PATIENT IF SHE HAS MICROCYTIC,
HYPOCHROMIC ANEMIA? 17. THE NURSE INSTRUCTS AN AFRICAN AMERICAN
A. TAKE ENTERIC-COATED IRON WITH EACH MEAL. MAN WHO HAS SICKLE CELL DISEASE ABOUT SYMPTOM
B. TAKE COBALAMIN WITH GREEN LEAFY VEGETABLES. MANAGEMENT AND PREVENTION OF SICKLE CELL
C. TAKE THE IRON WITH ORANGE JUICE ONE HOUR CRISIS. THE NURSE DETERMINES FURTHER TEACHING
BEFORE MEALS. IS NECESSARY IF THE PATIENT MAKES WHICH
D. DECREASE THE INTAKE OF THE ANTISEIZURE STATEMENT?
MEDICATIONS TO IMPROVE. A. "WHEN I TAKE A VACATION, I SHOULD NOT GO TO
THE MOUNTAINS."
15.A PATIENT WHO HAS SICKLE B. "I SHOULD AVOID CONTACT WITH ANYONE WHO HAS
CELL DISEASE HAS DEVELOPED A RESPIRATORY INFECTION."
CELLULITIS ABOVE THE LEFT ANKLE. C. "WHEN MY VISION IS BLURRED, I WILL CLOSE MY
WHAT IS THE NURSE'S PRIORITY FOR THIS PATIENT? EYES AND REST FOR AN HOUR."
A. START IV FLUIDS. D. "I MAY EXPERIENCE SEVERE PAIN DURING A CRISIS
B. MAINTAIN OXYGENATION AND NEED NARCOTIC ANALGESICS.'
C. MAINTAIN DISTAL WARMTH.
D. CHECK PERIPHERAL PULSES
 86

19. IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO WASH YOUR HANDS 23.HAND HYGIENE IS TO BE USED IN THE FOLLOWING
AFTER REMOVING GLOVES BECAUSE YOUR HANDS ARE SITUATIONS BY IMAGING PROFESSIONALS IN THE
PROTECTED BY THE GLOVES. WORKPLACE.

A. TRUE A. BEFORE CARING FOR A PATIENT

B. FALSE B. AFTER CARING FOR A PATIENT
C. WHEN PREPARING FOR AN INVASIVE
20.AN INSECT OR ANIMAL CARRIER OF A DISEASE IS PROCEDURE
KNOWN AS: D. A AND C ONLY
E. A, B, AND C
A. FOMITE
B. VEHICLE 24.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO A PATIENT
C. VECTOR WHO ENTERS A HOSPITAL WITH A KNOWN INFECTION?
D. CARRIER A. NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION
B. IATROGENIC INFECTION
21.THE MOST COMMON MEANS OF C. COMMUNITY-ACQUIRED INFECTION
SPREADING INFECTION ARE: D. IDIOPATHIC INFECTION
A. SOILED INSTRUMENTS
B. INFECTED PATIENTS 25. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE
C. HUMAN HANDS ELEMENTS NEEDED TO TRANSMIT AN
D. DOMESTIC ANIMALS INFECTION?
A. INFECTIOUS AGENT
22.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE B. RESERVOIR
FACTORS THAT INCREASE A PATIENT'S C. MEANS OF TRANSMISSION
POTENTIAL FOR ACQUIRING A D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION?
A. AGE 26. IT IS THE PERIOD OF WHEREIN THE HOST
B. NUTRITIONAL STATUS EXPERIENCES THE MAXIMUM IMPACT OF THE
C. CLOSE PROXIMITY TO OTHER PATIENTS INFECTION
D. INADEQUATE STRESS MANAGEMENT
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE A. CONVALESCENT
B. ACUTE STAGE
 87

C. PRODROMAL D. NONE
D. INCUBATION
31. HOW MANY YEARS OF PROTECTION
27. A PROTEIN THAT RESPONDS TO A DOES T. T. 4 CAN GIVE FOR THE MOTHER?
SPECIFIC ANTIGEN. A.5 YEARS
A. ANTIGEN B. 10 YEARS
B. ANTIBODY C.3 YEARS
C. MACROPHAGE D.4 YEARS
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
32. MEASLES VACCINE IS CONTRAINDICATED FOR THE
28. THE GENERAL ANTIBODY THAT CROSSES THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:
PLACENTA. A. PREGNANCY
A.IG G B. IMMUNODEFICIENCY
B. IG E C. MALIGNANCY
C.IG M D. NORMAL BABY
D.IG A
33. THE FOLLOWING ARE ABNORMAL
29. THE FOLLOWING BELONGS TO SIX REACTIONS TO DPT VACCINE EXCEPT:
IMMUNIZABLE DISEASES EXCEPT: A. CONVULSION
B. PERSISTENT SCREAMING
A. DIPHTHERIA C. NEUROLOGIC SYMPTOMS
B. POLIO D. DIARRHEA
C. MEASLES
D. CHICKENPOX 34. THIS IS GIVEN WITHIN 12 HOURS AFTER
BIRTH IF MOTHER IS HEPA B (+):
30. MRS. REGALADO RECEIVED HER FIRST T. T. 1 A. TOXOID
INJECTION ON JULY 9, 2009 DURING HER 4TH MONTH OF B. HEPA C IMMUNOGLOBULIN
PREGNANCY . WHEN IS THE NEXT SCHEDULE T. T. C. HBIG
INJECTION.? D. NONE
A. AUGUST 9
B. SEPTEMBER 9
C. JULY 20
 88

35. MICROORGANISM THAT IS LIVING AND CAPABLE OF THINGS WERE SEPARATED FROM HIS FAMILY'S
INVADING AND MULTIPLYING IN THE BODY OF THE BELONGING. WHAT HAS BEEN OBSERVED ?
HOST. A. ISOLATION
A. ENVIRONMENT B. SEPARATION
B. HOST C. INOCULATION
C. VIRUS D. TRANSGRESSION
D. AGENT
40. THE DEGREE OF PATHOGENECITY OF
36. EXTENDS FROM THE ENTRY OF MICROORGANISM.
MICROORGANISM INTO THE BODY UPTO THE ONSET OF A. DISEASE
SIGN AND SYMPTOMS. B. VIRULENCE
A. PRODROMAL C. RECOVERY
B. INCUBATION D. ENDEMIC
C. CONVALESCENT
D. INVASION TUBERCULOSIS
SITUATION: TUBERCULOSIS IS CONSIDERED AS THE
37. DISTURBANCE OF BODY STRUCTURE AND WORLD'S DEADLIEST DISEASE
FUNCTION AND REMAINS A MAJOR PUBLIC HEALTH PROBLEM IN
A. PANDEMIC THE PHILIPPINES. TB HEALTH BEEN DECLARED
B. VIRULENCE EMERGENCY IN 1993 BY THE WHO. THE FOLLOWING
C. RECOVERY QUESTIONS PERTAIN TO TB.
D. DISEASE
41. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE
38. A HOST AGENT RELATIONSHIP WHEREIN BOTH MODE OF TRANSMISSION OF TB?
BENEFITS FROM THE RELATIONSHIP A. SKIN CONTACT
A. COMMENSALISM B. INGESTED BACILLI
B. SYMBIOTIC C. AIRBORNE DROPLET
C. PARASITISM D. BACILLI EXPOSURE
D. NATURALISM
42. A STANDARD PROCEDURE IN RURAL INSTITUTE AND
39. MR. CRUZ, 75 YRS.OLD HAS TB, HE IS PUTH" IN ALL GOVERNMENT HEALTH CENTERS FOR
SINGLE, SEPARATE ROOM BY THE FAMILY AND ALL HIS
 89

SYMPTOMATIC PATIENTS WHICH IS LOW BUT D. NEITHER

ADEQUATE SENSITIVITY AND SPECIFICITY AND THE
PRIMARY DIAGNOSTIC TOOL IN NTP CASE 46. AFTER A WEEK OF TAKING MEDICATION, THE CLIENT
FINDING IS: IS ADVISED THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:
A. DIRECT SPUTUM SMEAR MICROSCOPY A. THE POSSIBLE ADVERSE EFFECT OF HIS
B. CHEST X-RAY MEDICATIONS
C. BLOOD CULTURE B. THE NEED TO DISCONTINUE
D. TUBERCULIN TESTING MEDICATION IMMEDIATELY IF NAUSEA OR ALLERGIES
WOULD OCCUR
C. THE PLAN FOR REGULAR FOLLOW-UP CARE
43. A TEST TO DETERMINE D. THE NEED TO COVER HIS NOSE AND
IF A PATIENT HAS TB INFECTION MOUTH WHEN COUGHING, SNEEZING AND LAUGHING
A. MANTOUX TEST
B. CHEST X-RAY 47. WHAT TB DRUG IS NOT GIVEN TO
C. SCHICK TEST CHILDREN UNDER AGE 6 WHO ARE TOO YOUNG TO
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE REPORT VISUAL DISTURBANCES?
A. INH
44. TRUE STATEMENT/S REGARDING TB: B. RIFAMPICIN
A. THE PATIENT CONTRACTED THE DISEASE FROM HIS C. ETHAMBUTOL
SON WHO IS SUFFERING FROM PRIMARY COMPLEX D. PZA
B. THE PATIENT IS NO LONGER
CONTAGIOUS ONCE TREATMENT HAS 48. CASE FINDING OF TB BY THE DOH USES PRIMARILY
STARTED WHICH DIAGNOSTIC TESTS:
C. PATIENT'S RELATIVES AND OTHER CLOSE CONTACTS A. CHEST X-RAY AND SPUTUM EXAM
SHOULD BE SCREENED FOR THE INFECTION B. SPUTUM EXAM AND TUBERCULIN TEST
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE C. TUBERCULIN TEST AND MANTOUX TEST
D. TUBERCULIN TEST AND CHEST X-RAY
45. WHAT TB DRUG IS USED WITH CAUTION IN PATIENTS
WHO ARE ALCOHOLIC OR HAVE LIVER PROBLEMS? 49. TRUE STATEMENTS WITH REGARDS TO
A. ISONIAZID MANAGEMENT AND PREVENTION:
B. RIFAMPICIN A. THE PATIENT IS STILL INFECTIOUS DURING THE
C. BOTH FIRST 2 MONTHS OF TREATMENT
 90

B. BCG CAN PROVIDE 100% PROTECTION

C. TREATMENT WOULD LAST FOR AT LEAST 6 MONTHS
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

50. SHORT COURSE CHEMOTHERAPY FOR PTB IN

ADULTS
A. INH, RIF, PZA,EMB FOR 2
MONTHS + INH, RIF FOR 4 MONTHS
B. INH,RIF, PZA, EMB FOR 3 MONTHS
+ INH, RIF FOR 3 MONTHS
C. INH, RIF, PZA FOR 2 MONTHS +
INH, RIF FOR 4 MONTHS
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
 91

d. Secretion of the bartholin's gland

OBSTETRIC NURSING 5. Family centered nursing care for women and newborn focuses on
which of the following?
1. Mr. and Mrs. Cremasteric arrive at the clinic
for their first prenatal visit. Mr. Crema tells the a. Assisting individuals and families achieve their optimal health
nurse that the women in his family usually have b. Diagnosing and treating problems promptly
girl babies first and wonders why some women c. Preventing further complications from developing
always have girls. The nurse correct response d. Conducting nursing research to evaluate clinical skills
is:
6. When reviewing the ethical dilemmas facing maternal and
a. “The sex of the baby is determined by newborn nurses today, which of the following has contributed to their
the sperm.” complexity?
b. “Some women are just more fertile with
females.” a. Limitation of available options
c. “Nature determines whether the baby will be b. Support for one viable action
a girl or a boy.” c. Advancement in technology
d. “The sex of the baby is determined by the
d. Consistent desirable standards
egg.

2. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during

the menstrual cycle is? 7. The frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the?

a. Estrogen a. Fossa Navicularis

b. Progesterone
b. Mons veneris
c. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Labia majora
d. Labia minora
3. Which hormone is not responsible for differentiation of male
reproductive organs during fetal life? 8. The vas deferens is a:

a. Mullerian duct inhibitor (MDI)

a. storage for spermatozoa
b. Dihydrotestosterone
c. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate b. Site of spermatozoa production
d. Testosterone c. Conduit of spermatozoa
d. Passageway of sperm
4. Which principal factor causes vaginal pH to be acidic?
9. Cremasteric visits the clinic and is told that his sperm count is
a. Cervical mucus changes
b. Secretion of the Skene's gland normal. A normal sperm count ranges from:
c. The action of the doderlein bacillus
 92

a. 20 to 100/ml a The fetus had infection

b. 100, 000 to 200, 000/ml b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
c. 100 to 200/ml c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
d. 20 to 100 million/ml d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress

10. During which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle is it 14. The nurse established an IV line, and then connected Calamares
ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur? to an electronic fetal monitor The fetal monitoring strip shows FHR
deceleration occurring about 30 sec after each contraction begins,
a. Ischemic phase the FHR returns to baseline after the contraction is over. This type of
b. Menstrual phase deceleration is caused by:
c. Proliferative phase
d. Secretory phase a Fetal head compression
b. Umbilical cord compression
11. Variation on the length of the menstrual cycle is due to variations c. Utero-placental insufficiency
in the number of days in which of the following phases? d. Cardiac anomalies

a. Proliferative phase 15. With this type of deceleration, the nurse's first action should be to
b. Luteal phase D
c. Ischemic phase
d. Secretory phase a. Do nothing, this is a normal occurrence
b. Call the physician
Situation. Mrs. Calamares G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor and C. Position the patient on her left side
delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic membranes and d. Continue monitoring the FHR
contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. The
fetus is in LOA position 12. The nurse's first action should be to: 16. Which of the following methods would be avoided for a woman
who is 38 years old, has 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarettes
a.Check the FHR per day?
b. Call the physician
c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine a. Oral contraceptives
paper b. Cervical cap
d. Admit Mrs. Calamares to the delivery area c. Diaphragm
d. IUD (Intrauterine device)
13. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Calamares
states that it is "brown tinged" This indicates that: 17 A woman using a diaphragm for contraception should be
instructed to leave it in place for at least how long after intercourse?
 93

a 1 hour
b. 6 hours 21 The nurse knows that Melanie is knowledgeable about the
c. 12 hours occurrence of PIH when she remarks:
d. 28 hours
a. "It usually appears anytime during the pregnancy"
18. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, b. "Its similar to cardio-vascular disease"
which of the following is the most helpful criterion? c. "PIH occurs during the 1st trimester"
d. "PIH occurs after the 20th wks AOG"
a sperm count
b. sperm motility 22. After several hours of MgSO4 administration to Melanie, she
c. Sperm maturity should be observed for clinical manifestations of
d. Semen volume
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypoglycemia
19. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for c. Hypermagnesemia
several years to have another child. Which of the following terms d. Hypercalcemia
would describe the situation?

a. Primary Infertility 23. The nurse instructs Melanie to report prodromal symptoms of
b. Secondary Infertility seizures associated with PIH. Which of the following will she likely
c. Irreversible infertility identify?
d. Sterility
a. Urine output of 15 ml/hr
Situation: Melanie a 33y/o G1P0 at 32 weeks AOG is admitted to the b. (-) deep tendon reflex
Hospital with the diagnosis of PIH. c. sudden increase in BP
d. Epigastric pain
20. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV Which of the following
should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians prior to
administration of the drug? Situation: The following questions pertain to intrapartum
complications:
a. BP= 180/100
B. Urine output is 40 ml/hr 24. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes over-
C. RR=12bpm stimulated by oxytocin during induction of labor?
D. (+) 2 tendon reflex
 94

a. Weak contractions prolonged to more than 70 sec d. skeletal system

b. Titanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec
c. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding 29. The average length of the umbilical cord in human is:
d. Increased restlessness
a. 35 cm
25. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of b. 55 cm
dystocia? c. 65 cm
d. 45 cm
a. Nutritional
b. Environmental 30. Urinary excretion of HCG is maximal between which days of
c. Mechanical gestation?
d. Medical
50-60
26. When Umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta is
termed 40-50

a. Central insertion
b. Battledore insertion
c. Velamentous insertion 31. Which of the following is not a part of conceptus?
d. Lateral insertion a. deciduas
b. amniotic fluid
27. When fetal surface of the placenta presents a central depression c. fetus
surrounded by a thickened grayish white ring, the condition is known d. membranes
as:
32. Protection of the fetus against syphilis during the 1st trimester is
a. Placenta succenturiata attributed to :
b. Placenta marginata
c. Fenestrated placenta a. amniotic fluid
d. Placenta Circumvallata b. langhan's layer
c. syncytiotrophoblast
28. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm? d. placenta

a. lining of the GI tract Situation: Diane is pregnant with her first baby: She went to the clinic
b. liver for check up.
c. brain
 95

33. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period 37. In providing education to your clients, you should take into
will you ask? account the fact that the most effective method known to control the
spread of HIV infection is:
a. first
b. last a. Premarital serological screening
c. third b. Prophylactic treatment of exposed person
d. second c. On going sex education about preventive behaviors
d. Laboratory screening of pregnant woman
34. According to Diane, her LMP is November 15, 2002, using the
Naegle's rule what is her EDC? 38. You counseled one of your clients who developed herpes
genitalis concerning follow up care. Women who have developed the
a. August 22, 2003 disease are at risk of developing:
b. August 18, 2003
C. July 22,2003 a. Heart and CNS damage
d February 22, 2003 b. Cervical cancer
c. Infant Pneumonia and eye infection
35 She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at night. To d. Sterility
provide relief, the nurse tells Diane to:

a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs 39. Cremasteric, 19 y/o states that he has Gonorrhea. In performing
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee assessment, the nurse should expect to identify which of the
when the cramps occur following symptoms?
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramn
occur a. Lesion on the palms and soles
b. A pinpoint rash on the penis
Situation: Marita is a nurse working in a STD clinic (question 36-45) c. Urinary dribbling
d. Dysuria
36. The main symptom of gonorrhea in male is :
40. The nurse should explain to Rhone, 15 y/o that untreated
a. Maculopapular rash Gonorrhea in the female frequently leads to:
b. Jaundice
c. Urinary retention a. Obstruction of the Fallopian tubes
d. Urethral discharge b. Ovarian cysts
c. Ulceration of the cervix
 96

d. Endometrial polyps
45. You should be aware that a major difficulty in preventing spread
41. Diane, a 16 y/o female high school student, has syphilis. of gonorrhea is that many women who have the disease:
Treatment is initiated. Before the client leaves the clinic, which of the
following actions is essential for the nurse to take? a. Is unaware that they have it
b. Have milder form of the disease than most men
a. Advice the client to avoid sexual contact for 2 months c. Are more reluctant to seek health care than men
b. Ask the client to identify her sexual contacts d. Acquire the disease without having sexual contact
c. Arrange for the client to have hearing and vision screening
d. Have the client to return to the clinic weekly for blood test Situation: Mrs. Rhona Mahilum was admitted to the hospital with
signs and symptoms of pre- eclampsia
42. Kris complains of fishy smelling, white cheese like vaginal
discharge with pruritus. You suspect that Kris may have: 46. Because of the possibility of convulsive seizures, which of the
following should the nurse have available at the client's bed side?
a. Moniliasis
b. Trichomoniasis a. Oxygen and nasopharyngeal suction
c. Syphilis b. leather restraints
d. Gonorrhea c. cardiac monitor
d. venous cutdown set
43. Demi who has a history of repeated Trichomonas infections was
advised to have Pap Smear by her physician. She asked you what 47. One morning, Rhona tells the nurse that she think she is having
the test is for. Your appropriate response is: contractions. Which of the following approaches should the nurse
use to fully assess the presence of uterine contractions?
a. It's a screening for cervical cancer
b. It's a screening test for presence of cancer in the female a. Place the hand on the opposite side of the upper part of the
reproductive tract abdomen, and curve them somewhat around the uterine fundus.
c. It is a diagnostic test for the presence of Trichomonas infection b. Place the heel of the hand on the abdomen just above the
d. It is a test that will show if she has cervical cancer or not. umbilicus firmly
C. Place the hand flat on the abdomen over the uterine fundus, with
44. The result of the pap-test is class II. This means that : the fingers apart and press lightly
d. Place the hand in the middle of the upper abdomen and then
a. Presence of malignant bells move hand several times to different parts of the abdomen
b. Presence of benign or possible malignancy
c. Normal finding
d. Possible inflammation or infections
 97

48. Exposure of a woman pregnant of a female offspring to which of c. Oxytocin

the following substance increases the risk of the offspring during d. Relaxin
reproductive years to cervical and uterine cancer
53. Which is a primary power of labor?
49. In which of the following conditions is vaginal rugae most
prominent? a. uterine contractions
b. pushing of the mother
a. multiparous women c. intrathoracic pressure
b. before menopause d. abdominal contraction
c. after menopause
d. nulliparous women
54. The lower uterine segment is formed from the:
50. The deepest part of the perineal body surrounding the urethra,
vagina and rectum that when damaged can result in cystocele, a. cervix
rectocele and urinary stress incontinence is the? b. isthmus and cervix
c. body of the uterus
a. Pubococcygeus muscle d. isthmus
b. Sphincter of urethra and anus
c. Bulbocavernosus muscle 55. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the :
d. Ischiocavernosus muscle
a. first stage
Situation: Review of concepts of parturition was made by the clinical b. second stage
instructor to a group of nursing students preliminary to their c. third stage
assignment to Labor and delivery room 51. Which plays an important d. fourth stage
role in the initiation of labor?
56. In the second stage of labor, uterine contraction last:
a. maternal adrenal cortex
b. fetal adrenal cortex a. 20 seconds
c. fetal adrenal medulla b. 30 seconds
d. maternal adrenal medulla c. 60 seconds
d. 120 seconds
52. Which is not considered an uterotonin?
57. The time between uterine contractions is :
a. Prostaglandin
b. Endothelin-1 a. intensity
 98

b. Interval 62. The true conjugate can be measured by subtracting the diagonal
c. duration conjugate?
d. frequency
a, 2.5-3 cm
58. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by: b. 3,5-4 cm
c. 3-4 cm
a. imaging studies d. 1.5-2 cm
b. clinical measurement of the sidewall convergence
c. clinical measurement of the ischial spine prominence 63. The most important muscle of the pelvic floor is the:
d. sub pubic angel measurement
a. levator ani muscle
59. The inanimate bone of the pelvis is not composed of the: b. ischiocavernosus
c. bulbocavernosus
a. sacrum d. pubococcygeus
b. ilium
c. Pubis 64. Which pelvic shape has the poorest prognosis for vaginal
d. Ischium delivery?

60. Which does not refer to the transverse diameter of the pelvic a. platypelloid
outlet? b. anthropoid
c. android
a. Bi-ischial diameter d. gynecoid
b. Bi-spinous diameter
c. Bi-tuberous diameter 65. The two pubic bones meet anteriorly at the :
d. Intertuberous diameter
a. symphysis pubis
61. The Antero-posterior diameter of the pelvic inlet where the fetus b. coccyx
will likely most difficulty during labor is the: c. sacrococcygeal
d. sacro-illiac joint
a. Diagonal conjugate
b. True conjugate 66. In the second stage of labor, expulsion of the fetus from the birth
c. conjugate Vera canal depends on which important factor?
d. obstetric conjugate
a. Maternal bearing down
b. Cervical dilatation
 99

c. Uterine contractions 70. Because of the position of the fetus, an episiotomy has to be
d. Adequate pelvic size performed to enlarge the birth canal. Which of the following is an
advantage of episiotomy over lacerations?
67. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion?
a. it is more difficult to repair than laceration
a. sinciput b. it is more painful than laceration
b. brow c. it involve a more blood loss than laceration
c. vertex d. heals more faster than laceration
d. face
71. Supporting the perineum at the time of crowning will facilitate:
Situation: a 26 y/o primigravida admitted to the hospital. Vaginal
exam reveals that her cervix is 5cm dilated, 80% effaced and the a. flexion of the fetal head
presenting part in zero station, membranes still intact, occiput is in b. external rotation
posterior position c. extension of the fetal head
d. expulsion
68. Due to fetal position, the nurse caring for her would be correct in
telling her that: 72. When the bi-parietal diameter of the fetal head passes through
the pelvic inlet, this is referred as:
a. she will not have the urge to bear down when she becomes fully
dilated a. descent
b. she can expect to have more back discomfort than most women in b. flexion
labor c. engagement
c. the position of baby's head is optimum for passing through the d. extension
pelvis
d. a caesarian section may be necessary to deliver the baby in thin 73. Sudden gush of blood or lengthening of the cord after the
position delivery of infant should warn the nurse of:

69. Upon IE, you noted that the cervix is ¼ its original length. This a. placenta accreta
mean that effacement is: b. placental separation
c. placental retention
a. 25% d. abruptio placenta
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 50% Situation: Nurse Tsunade is a staff nurse in the OB ward of Konoha
Medical Hospital
 100

74. When separation begins at the center of the placenta and slides c. head
down the birth canal like a folded umbrella this is referred as: d. buttocks

a. Duncan mechanism 78. Marisse, a newly delivered multipara complains of heavy and
b. Shultz mechanism painful breasts accompanied by fever. The nurse tells Gina that it is
c. Brandt Andrews mechanism normal breast engorgement as the fever is characterized by
d. Ritgen's maneuver
a. More than 38 degrees
75. Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of b. Does not last more than 24 hours
labor? c. Caused by infection
d. Needs to be treated with antibiotic
a. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus of oxytocin
because it can cause hypertension 79. Postpartum depression occurs during which time frame?
b. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord, sudden
gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the uterus a. within weeks after delivery
c. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the delivery of b. within 12 weeks
the placenta c. within 16 weeks
d. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after d. within 24 hours
delivery of the baby
80. Demi, a 38 y/o multipara is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of
76. In the immediate postpartum period the action of femoral thrombophlebitis. The nurse assesses the patient with:
methylergonovine is to:
a. burning on urination
a. cause sustained uterine contractions b. leg pain
b. causes intermittent uterine contractions c. abdominal pain
c. relaxes the uterus d. increased lochial flow
d. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an exhausting 81. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are
labor signs of:

77. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to preeclampsia. The a. puerperal psychosis

doctor decided to perform NST. The nurse should apply the fetal b. puerperal sepsis
transducer over the fetus: c. postpartum hemorrhage
d. hypertensive disorder
a. chest
b. back
 101

82. Which is most important when caring for high risk postpartum c. It should be taken at every visit at the clinic
clients? d. It is normal for blood pressure to increase as much as 33 in
systolic in the 3rd tri when a woman is near delivery
a. discussing hygiene and nutrition
b. referring the mother to others for emotional support 87. Nurse Tsunade referred Diane to an Obstetrician. At 8 months
c. discussing complications and treatment she was ordered for a contraction stress test and the result was
d. promoting mother-newborn contact negative. Diane asked when she should be back for her next check
up?
83. A direct cause of mis-management of the third stage of labor is:
a. Monthly
a. inversion of the uterus b. Within 24-hours
b. cord prolapse c. Within a week
c. prolonged labor d. Weekly for 2 weeks then monthly
d. all of these
89. Diane wants to know how many fetal movements per hour is
84. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks gestation is scheduled for normal. The correct response of Nurse tsunade is:
biophysical profile in order to:
a. twice
a. ascertain correct gestational age b. thrice
b. determine fetal lung maturity c. four times
c. determine fetal well being d. 10-12 times
d. determine fetal size and obvious congenital anomaly
90. Which of the following statements about L/S ratio in amniotic fluid
85. In a primigravida, the following demotes contracted pelvis except: is correct?

a. absence of quickening a. a slight variation in technique does not significantly affect the
b. absence of lightening accuracy of
c. absence of engagement b. a L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life
d. none of these c. a L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible with fetal survival
d. when L/S ratio is 2:1 below, majority of infants develop respiratory
86. Which of the following changes in Diane's BP would nurse distress
Tsunade not expect?
91. Every visit, you obtain the pregnant woman's fundal height.. At
a. it tends to be highest in sitting what age of gestation does the fundal height in cm strongly
b. BP may increase a little in the 2nd tri correlates with gestational age in weeks?
 102

c. ABO compatible, RH-

a. 20-24 wks d. Type B, RH-
b. 18-24 wks
C. 18-32 wks 95. Immediately after delivery of Erica's Baby, the nurse should
d. 12-38 wks remember to:

a. delay clamping of the cord to provide the newborn with more blood
b. cut immediately after birth of the baby
92. Which is not an indication of amniocentesis? c. administer RHoGam to the NB immediately on the 3rd stage of
labor
a. previous pregnancy with chromosomal abnormal fetus d. place the NB in an isolette for phototherapy
b. down syndrome in siblings
c. pregnancies in women over 35 y/o 96. The doctor ordered Kleihauer-Betke. The nurse know which of
d. at 8 wks gestation for chromosomal study the following to be wrong about the test:

Situation: Erica is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She is a. it is used to identify the amount of antibodies in the maternal
pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. She is RH serum
(-) with blood type B b. it is used to determine presence of fetal blood
c. it is used to assess whether the mother is RH or RH +
93. Erica gave birth to a term baby with yellowish skin and sclera. d. It is used to determine fetal blood type and RH factor
The baby is placed on phototherapy. The treatment is effective when
blood test shows: 97. Which of the following findings in Erica's history would identify a
need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin?
a. Low serum bilirubin
b. 02 level of 99% a. Rh, coombs +
c. Normal RBC and WBC count b. Rh, Coombs-
d. Low platelet count c. Rh+, Coombs -
d. Rh +, Coombs +

94. Because of rapidly rising bilirubin levels, exchange transfusion

was performed on Erica's NB. The nurse understands that the blood 98. The portion of the placenta overlying the blastocyst
to be transfused to the baby should be:
a. decidua capsularis
a. Type B, RH + b. decidua vera
b. Type O, RH- c. decidua basalis
 103

d. decidua parietalis

99. The cardinal function of deciduas is

a. Immune response
b. Production of hormones
c. Maintenance of pregnancy
d. None of the above

100. O2 and Co2 are exchanged in the placenta through the process
of:

a. pinocytosis
b. diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport