LPUNEST (Under Graduate) Set-1

General Instructions

1. The test contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

2. Multiple choice questions (MCQs) have four options. One of these four options is correct.
3. English is mandatory subject and you can choose any two subjects from the given optional subjects.
4. There is no negative marking. Please attempt all the questions.
5. Total time allowed for exam is 90mins.

Section – English
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Select the answer choice that identifies the noun in the sentence.
Sharks and lampreys are not true fish because their skeletons are made of cartilage rather
than bone.
a) true b) because c) their d) bone
2. What does ‘they’ refer to?
Those flowers on the tables look like little trumpets. What are they called?
a) Flower b)Tables c)Trumpets d) Both a & c
3. Choose the correct order of adjectives to fill the blank.
He recently married a ________ woman.
a) young beautiful Greek b) beautiful young
c) beautiful Greek young d) young Greek beautiful
4. Which kind of adverb is the word in capitals?
“He is so gentle that he NEVER shoots at animals.”
a) Adverb of Place b) Adverb of Degree
c) Adverb of Time/Frequency d) Adverb of Manner
5. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
At two o’clock tomorrow, she ________ at Golden Hawk Gym.
a) Exercise b) will be exercising c) exercising d) Both b & c
6. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
By the time Mr. Obama arrives, ________ the oration?
a) Will you have preparing b) Will you preparing
c) Will you prepare d) Will you have prepared
7. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
The panellists _________ Germany a day after tomorrow.
a) Will reach b) Shall be reached
c) Will have been reaching d) Both a & b
8. Choose the right modal verb.
This is impossible, it __________ be a mistake!
a) Might b) must c) ought to d) shouldn't
9. Choose the correct use of modal verb.
a) Any child will grow up to become Prime Minister of the country
b) Any child can grow up to become Prime Minister of the country
c) Any child will be grow up to become Prime Minister of the country
d) Any children could be grown up to become Prime Minister of the country
10. Identify the error in the sentence and choose the correct sentence as an option.
You need not come unless you want to.
Page 1 of 82
 a) You did not required to come unless you want to
b) You don't need to come unless you want to
c) You come only when you want to
d) You come unless you don't want to
11. Identify which part of the sentence has the error.
The teacher says that (1)/ there is (2)/ many important documents (3)/ to assemble before
this gets over. (4)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12. Pick the right meaning for the following phrase.
Baker’s dozen
a) Twelve b) Thirteen c) Ten d) Fifteen

13. Identify the correct meaning of the idiom.

Play devil's advocate
a) To argue the opposite, just for the sake of argument b) To spoil something
c) Saving money for later d) Postpone a plan
14. Choose one word for the following.
A notice of a person's death
a) Obituary b) Observatory c) Ablution d) Death Warrant
15. In the following question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five pairs of
words or phrases. Choose the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that in the
original pair.
Warm is to hot as
Old is to?
a) Antique b) Oldest c) New d) Obsolete
16. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
Infant’s _________ when they are hungry.
a) Cry b) Cries c) Cried d) Are crying
17. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
Johana _________ her black pants today, but usually she wears a long dress or a skirt.
a) wears b) wearing c) wear d) is wearing
18. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
__________ you ever been to Newcastle?
a) are b) were c) do d) have
19. Fill in the blank with correct word.
She wanted to improve her piano playing _______ she wanted to win the competition.
a) because b) so c) but d) therefore
20. Choose the most suitable interjection to complete the sentence.
__________! that’s really great news.
a) Hey b) Ah c) Yay d) Wow

Section – Physics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A bead of mass 1/2kg starts from rest from A to move in a vertical plane along a smooth fixed
quarter ring of radius 5 m, under the action of constant horizontal force F=5N as shown in the
figure. The speed of the bead as it reaches the pointB is (g = 10 ms-2)

Page 2 of 82
 A

B
a) 14.14 ms-1
b) 7.07 ms-1 c) 10 ms-1 d) None of these
2. A man of mass m has fallen into a ditch of width d. Two of his friends are slowly pulling him
out using a light rope and two fixed pulley as shown in figure. Both the friends exert force of
equal magnitude F. when the man is at a depth h the value of F is

mg mg
a) d 2 + 4h 2 b) hmg c) dmg d) h2 + d 2
4h 2h
3. A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular velocity ω. If it cools so that its
radius reduces to 1/nth of its original value, its time period of rotation is
2 2 n 2  n2 
a) T = 2 b) T = c) T = d) 2
n  2 n
4. Two discs have same mass and thickness. Their materials have densities d1&d2. The ratio of
their moments of inertia about central axis will be:
a) d1:d2 b) d1d2:1 c) 1:d1d2 d)d2:d1
5. a b c
The period of a body under SHM is T = P D S , where P is pressure, D is density and S is
surface tension. The value of a, b, c are
3 1 1 −3 1 1
a) − , ,1 b) −1, −2,3 c) , , − d) 1, 2,
2 2 2 2 2 3
6. The initial velocity of a particle is u [at t=0] and the acceleration f is given by at. Which of
the following relations valid?
at 2
a) v = u + at 2 b) v = u + c) v = u + at d) v = u
2
7. An electric fan has blades of length 30cm as measured from the axis rotation. If the fan is
rotating at 1200rpm. The acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade is about.
a) 1600 m/s2 b) 4740 m/s2 c) 2370 m/s2 d) 5055 m/s2
8. A particle of mass m is placed at the center of a uniform spherical shell of mass 3m and radius
R. The gravitational potential on the surface of the shell is :-
Gm 3Gm 4Gm 2Gm
a) b) c) d)
R R R R

9. Two pendulums of time period 3 s and 7s respectively start oscillating simultaneously from two
opposite extreme positions. After how much least time they will be in phase
21 21 21 21
a) s b) s c) s d) s
8 4 2 10
10. A wire of 10-2 kgm-1passes over a frictionless light pulley fixed on the top of a frictionless
inclined plane which makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal. Masses m and M tied at two
ends of wire such that m rests on the plane and M hangs freely vertically downwards. The
entire system is in equilibrium and a transverse wave propagates along the wire with a
velocity of 100 ms −1 . Then

Page 3 of 82
 m 1 m
a) M=5kg b) = c) m=20kg d) = 4
M 4 M
11. The velocity of the liquid coming out of a small hole at the bottom of a vessel containing two
different liquids of densities 2r and r as shown in the figure is

a) 6gh b) 2gh c) 2 2gh d) 2 gh

-2 2
12. The force required to separate two glass plates of area 10 m with a film of water
0.05 mm thick between them, is (surface tension of water is 70x10-3 N/m)
a) 28 N b) 14 N c) 50 N d) 38 N

13. A refrigerator absorbs 2000 coals of heat from ice trays. If the coefficient of performance is
4, then work done by the motor is
a) 2100 J b) 8000 J c) 33600 J d) 500 J
14. In an ideal gas at temperature T, the average force that a molecule applies on the walls of a
closed container depends on T as Tq. A good estimate for q is :
a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/4 d) ½
15. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1mm and 2mm are separated by a distance of 5cm
and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in
equilibrium condition, the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the surfaces of
spheres. A and B is
a) 4:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 1:4
16. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) A body has a constant velocity but a varying speed
b) A body has a constant speed but a varying aceleration.
c) A body having a constant speed cannot have an aceleration.
d) A body having a constant speed can have a varying velocity
17. A bomb travelling in a parabolic path under the effect of gravity explodes in mid air.The
centre of mass of fragments will;
a) Move vertically upwards and then vertically downwards
b) Move vertically upwards
c) Move in an irregular path
d) Move in the parabolic path the unexploded bomb would have travelled.
18. A stone tied to a string is rotated in a vertical circle. The minimum speed with which the
string has to be rotated;
a) decreases with increasing mass of the stone
b) is independent of mass of the stone
c) decreases with increasing length of the string
d) is independent of length of the string
19. Newton/metre2 is the unit of;
a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Force d) Pressure
20. The dimensions of potential are the same as that of;
a) Work b) Electric field per unit charge
c) Work per unit charge d) Force per unit charge

Page 4 of 82
 Section – Chemistry
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The ratio between number of atoms in equal masses of Helium and Hydrogen is
a) 1 : 4 b) 4 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 2 : 1
2. Solid AB has rock salt structure edge length of its unit cell is 200pm. Nearest distance
between A&B is , if radius of A is 30pm
a) 70pm b) 140pm c) 60pm d) 100pm
3. Longest wavelength occurs for
a) Lymann series b) Balmer series c) Paschen series d) Brackett series
••O• •• +
• N O ••
4. The formal charge of the O atoms in the ion is
a) -2 b) -1 c) 0 d) +1
5. The difference between the reaction enthalpy change ( r H ) and reaction internal
energychange ( rU ) for the reaction: 2C6 H6 ( l ) + 15O2( g ) → 12CO2( g ) + 6H 2O (l ) at 300K is
( R = 8.314 Jmol −1K −1 )
a) 0 J mol −1 b) −7482 J mol −1 c) 2490 J mol −1 d) −2490 J mol −1
( )
6. A mixture contains 1 mole volatile liquid A PA0 = 100mmHg and 3 moles volatile liquid
B ( PB0 = 80mm) . If solution behave ideally, total vapour pressure of the distillate is
approximately
a) 85 mmHg b) 86 mmHg c) 90 mmHg d) 92mmHg
7. A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a
certain temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to give NH3 and H2S and at
equilibrium total pressure in flask is 0.84 atm. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is:
a) 0.30 b) 0.18 c) 0.17 d) 0.11
8. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298K is 1500  .
What is the cell constant (in mm-1). If the conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution is
2 10−3 S mm−1
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)4
256
9. The half-life of Ra is 1600 yrs. How many disintegration per second would be undergone
by 1.0 g of the reactant?
a) 2.15 1018 b) 3.15 1018 c) 2.25 1018 d) 1.15 1018
10. 10−4 g of gelatine is required to be added to 10 cm3 of a standard gold solution to just
prevent precipitation by addition of 1cm 3 of 10% NaCl solution to it. Hence the gold
number of gelatine is
a) 10 b) 1.0 c) 0.1 d) 0.01
11. What is the atomic number of last member of the seventh period of the extended form of
periodic table?
Page 5 of 82
 a) 116 b) 118 c) 120 d) 122

12. Match items of Column-I with the items of Column-II and assign the correct code.
Column-I Column-II
A) sapphire 1) Al2O3
B) sphalerite 2) NaCN
C) depressant 3) Co
D) Corundum 4) ZnS
5) Fe2O3

a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 b) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2

c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5 d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
13. Incorrect statement about H2O2 is
a) Urea acts as stabilizes in the storage of H2O2
b) H2O2 acts as bleaching agent because of its oxidizing nature
c) H2O2 is prepared from BaO2 and not from MnO2 and PbO2
d) When CO2 is bubbled through cold solution of BaO2, H2O2 is not formed.
14. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which
one of the following does not occur?
a) Blue coloured solution is obtained
b) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
c) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity
d) Liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic
15. CH3Cl + Si ⎯⎯⎯ Cu
570 K
→ A ‘A’ on hydrolysis followed by polymerization gives
 CH| 3 
a) Si(CH3)3 b) −O − Si − O − 

 | 
 CH3 
 n

CH3
|
O − Si − O
|
O
|
O − Si − O
| CH3 CH3
CH3 | |
c) d) HO − SI − SI − OH
| |
CH3 OH

16. Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Column

Page 6 of 82
 Column I Column II
A. XeF4 1. Distorted octahedral
B. XeF6 2. Tetrahedral
C. XeO3 3. Square planar
D. XeO4 4. Pyramidal

a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
17. Misch metal is
a) an alloy of lanthanide and copper b) an alloy of lanthanide and nickel
c) an alloy of lanthanide, iron and carbon d) an alloy of calcium and copper
18. If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100 mL of a 0.024M solution of dichlorobis
(ethylenediamine) Cobalt (III) chloride. How many moles of AgCl be precipitated?
a) 0.0212 b) 0.016 c) 0.0024 d) 0.024
19. The laundry, the bleaching agent which gives better results and makes use of lesser amount
of water is
a) CCl2 = CCl2 b)H2O2 c)CO2 liquid d)Bleaching powder
20. Which one of the following can be purified by sublimation?
a) F2 b) Cl2 c) Br2 d) I2

Section – Mathematics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If A,B and C are three sets such that A  B = A  C and A  B = A  C , then

a) A = C b) B = C c) A  B =  d) None
2. If n (A) = 4, then number of symmetric relations that can be defined on A is
a) 210 b) 26 c) 28 d) 216
  x 
1 − tan  2   1 − sin x 
 
3. lim  =
x→   x 
2 1 + tan
    − 2 x 
3

  2 
a) ∞ b) 1/8 c) 0 d) 1/32

1 + iz
4. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 and b + ic = (1 + a) z then =
1 − iz
a + ib a + ib a − ib a − ib
a) b) c) d)
1+ c 1− c 1− c 1+ c

Page 7 of 82
5. Let α,βbe the roots of the equation x2 – px+r = 0 and (α/2), 2β be the roots of the equation
x2 – qx+r = 0 then the value of ‘r’ is
2 2
a) ( p − q )(2q − p ) b) ( q − p )(2 p − q )
9 9
2 2
c) (q − 2 p )(2q − p ) d) (2 p − q )(2q − p )
9 9
6. In a G.P. if the first term is 3, nth term is 96 and the sum of n terms is 189, then the number
of terms is
a) 6 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
7. Matrix A has x rows and x+4 columns and another matrix B has y rows and 2y-10 columns. If
both AB and BA exist then x and y are
a) 3,8 b) 8,3 c) 6,2 d) 2,6
8. If a, b, c are integers such that b is always twice the sum of a and c and lies between 1 and 9
6 6𝑎2 𝑎
2 2 2
and 6a , 5b , 4c are three digit numbers then the value of |5 5𝑏 2 𝑏 | =
4 4𝑐 2 𝑐
a) a + b + c b) a – b + c c) 2a – b + c d) 0

9. The symbolic form of logic of the circuit given below is

a) ( p  q ')  p '  q b)  p  ( q ' p ')  q

c) ( p  p ')  q '  q d)  p  ( q ' p ')  q
10. Number of ways of arranging 4 subjects in 6 periods of a day
a)1080 b)480 c) 1560 d)1140
11. The interior angles of regular polygon are measured as 1500 each, then number of diagonals
of polygon are
a) 35 b) 54 c) 45 d) 50
4n 2 − 3n
12. If the sum of n terms of an A. P is , then nth term of A. P is
4
5n − 3 8n − 7 3n 2 − 2 8n + 7
a) b) c) d)
4 4 4 4
20
13. The value  r (20 − r )(20C )
r =0
r
2
=

a) 400 b) 400.38C20 c) 38C20 d) 0

Page 8 of 82
14. Let f ( x ) = 1+ | x − 2 | + | sin x |, then Lagrange’s mean value theorem is applicable for f (x) in
  3    
a) 0,  b)  , 2 c)  ,  d)  − , 
2 2   2 2
15. 20. If the vectors a and b are linearly independent satisfying
( ) (
3 tan  + 1 a + )
3 sec  − 2 b = 0 then the most general value of θ is equals to:

 11  11
a) n − ,nZ b) 2n  ,nZ c) n  ,nZ d) 2n + ,nZ
6 6 6 6

16. An investigator interviewed 100 students to determine their preferences for the three drinks
milk(M), coffee(C) and tea (T). He reported the following :10 students had all the three drinks
M, C, T;20 had M and C;30 had C and T;25 had M and T;12 had M only; 5 had C only; 8 had T
only. Then how many did not take any of the three drinks
A. 20 B. 3 C. 36 D. 42
17. Which of the following relations is not transitive?
A. ( a, b )  R1  a  b, a, b  z
B. ( x, y )  R2  x divides yif x, y  z
C. ( x, y )  R3 | x | + | y |= 1, for x, y  R
D. ( l1 , l2 )  R4  l1 parallel to l2 where l1 , l2 are lines
18. For each x  R, let  x be the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then

x ( x  + x ) sin  x 
lim is equal to
x →0− x
A. sin 1 B. -sin 1 C. 1 D. 0
19. Let z1 and z2 be two complex numbers satisfying z1 = 9 and z2 − 3 − 4i = 4 . then the
minimum value of z1 − z2 is
A. 10 B. √2 C. 1 D. 2

20. The area bounded by the x − axis , the curve y = f ( x) and the lines x = 1 , x = b is equal to

( )
b 2 + 1 − 2 for all b  1 then f ( x) =

x +1 x −1 x +1 x
A. B. C. D.
x x x x +1
2

Page 9 of 82
 Section – Biology
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The principles of Numerical taxonomy was developed by

a) Bentahm and Hooker b) Engler and Prantl
c) Sneath and Sokal d) Takhtaja
2. In animals, the group amniota includes
a) Birds and reptiles b) Birds and Mammals
c) Reptiles and mammals d) Reptiles, birds and mammals
3. What type of epithelium is associated with goblet cells?
a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Simple columnar epithelium d) Stratified squamous epithelium
4. Plasmodesmata are located in narrow areas of _______.
a) Protoplas b) Cell wall c) Nuclei d) Cellulose
5. Chiral carbon is
a) Carbon atom with four same groups b) Carbon atom with four different groups
c) Carbon atom with two same group d) None of these
6. The transpiration is regulated by the movements of
a) Subsidiary cells of the leaves b) Carriers c) Mesophyll tissue d) Guard cells
7. Man cannot synthesize_______
a) vitamin A b) vitamin B c) vitamin C d) vitamin D
8. Scientist awarded Nobel prize in 1961 for tracing the path of carbon in photosynthesis was
a) Calvin b) Ruben c) Blackman d) Hatch
9. In prokaryotes enzymes involved in citric acid cycle are present in
a) Mitochondrial membrane b) Plasma membrane c) Cytosol d) Peroxisomes
10. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is
a) Amylase b) Lipase c) Protease d) Invertase
11. If RBCs are placed in distilled water the corpuscles will
a) Increase in number b) Burst c) Stick to each other d) Shrink
12. Rathke’s pouch is associated in development of which following structure?
a) Kidney b) Hypothalamus c) Pituitary d) Thyroid
13. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the
development of
a) Toxic goitre b) Cretinism c) Simple goitre d) thyrotoxicosis
14. The difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell is called ______.
a) Spike potential b) Action potential c) Resting potential d) Reaction potential
15. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from
a) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule b) Synergid c) Diploid egg d) Antipodal cells
16. Sperm of an animal species ‘X’ is unable to fertilize the egg of ‘Y’ because
a) fertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are compatible b) antifertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are not compatible
c) fertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are not compatible d) antifertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are compatible
17. The most abundant type of RNA that can be found in a cell is _____
Page 10 of 82
 a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) siRNA
18. Which of the following is a polysaccharide vaccine
a) anthrax vaccine b) rabies vaccine c) hepatitis A d) Hib vaccine
19. Weeds effect the plants by
a) Killing of plants in the field before they grow
b) Dominating the plant to grow
c) Competing for various resources of crops causing low availability of nutrients
d) All of these
20. Which organism is used for commercial citric acid production?
a) Saccharomyces cereviseae b) Aspergillus niger
c) Streptomyces griseus d) None of these

Section – Accountancy
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Accounting does not record non -financial transactions because of

a) Accrual concept b) Cost concept
c) Continuity concept d) Money measurement concept
2. During the life-time of an entity accounting produce financial statements in accordance with
which basic accounting concept
a) Accounting period b) Matching
c) Conservation d) Going Concern
3. Which of the following Accounting Equation is not correct?
a) Assets = Liabilities + Capital b) Assets - Liabilities = Capital
c) Assets + Liabilities = Capital d) Assets - Capital = Liabilities
4. Which of the following errors are not disclosed by the trial balance?
a) Error of casting b) Wrong balancing of account
c) Double posting in one account d) Compensating errors
5. The amount of depreciation charged on a machinery will be debited to
a) Machinery A/c b) Depreciation A/c c) Cash A/c d) Repair A/c
6. A sold goods to B for Rs 20,000. A will grant 5% discount to B. B requested A to draw a bill.
The amount of bill will be
a) Rs 20,000 b) Rs 19,000 c) Rs 19,500 d) Rs 21,000
7. The Adjustment of Interest on drawings in financial statements will be Credited to _______
and will be Deducted from ________.
a) P&L A/c, Drawings b) P&L A/c, Capital
c) Trading A/c, Capital d) Trading A/c, Drawings
8. Rent expense of a non-profit organization paid in advance is an ________.
a) Expense b) Liability c) Equity d) Asset
9. To hide the name of the Company you need to define
a) Report Voucher b) Conventional Voucher
c) Unconventional Voucher d) Both report and conventional voucher
Page 11 of 82
10. In the absence of an agreement, Interest on loan advanced by the partner to the firm is
allowed at the rate of
a) 6% b) 12% c) 5% d) 9%
11. At the time of admission of a new partner the firm is
a) Re-organized b) Continued c) Not effected d) Dissolved
12. Under Garner Vs Murray Rule, the insolvency loss should be borne by solvent partners
according to
a) Capital ratio b) Profit sharing ratio
c) Final claims ratio d) Maximum loss ratio
13. When debentures are issued as collateral security, the final entry for recording the
transaction in the books is __________.
a) Credit debentures a/c. and debit cash a/c.
b) Debit debenture suspense a/c. and credit cash a/c.
c) Debit debenture suspense a/c. and credit debentures a/c.
d) Debit cash a/c. and credit the loan a/c. for which security is given.
14. In the vertical analysis of income statement, all the accounts are expressed as a percentage
of which of the following?
a) Net sales b) Gross sales c) Net income d) Total expenses
15. Which of the following is not included in Quick assets?
a) Debtors b) Cash at bank c) Stock d) Cash in hand
16. Cash Flow Statement is based upon
a) Cash basis of accounting b) Accrual basis of accounting
c) Credit basis of accounting d) None of these
17. What type of technology do businesses use to inspect financial transactions and to ensure
that they are in compliance with government regulations?
a) Virtual auditors b) Domain computing c) Cyber mapping d) Simulation browsers
18. DBMS stands for
a) Drawing Board Management Software b) Dividend Based Marking System
c) Data Base Management System d) Data Base Marketing Software
19. The main benefit of XBRL for accountants is that it offers
a) An improved way to display web pages to publish financial statements.
b) A common format for publishing financial statements across many countries.
c) A programming language which can be used to enhance the development of accounting
software.
d) A common set of meanings and format for accounting data to facilitate data interchange.
20. The maximum amount with which the company is registered is called
a) Authorized Share Capital b) Issued Share Capital
c) Paid up capital d) Called up capital

Page 12 of 82
 Section – Business Studies
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Board of directors and CEOs occupy position at

a) Top Level b) Middle level c) Lower level d) None of these

2. Deciding in advance about the future course of action.

a) Decision making b) Planning
c) Directing d) Controlling
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the Fayol's Principles of Management?
a) Division of Work b) Unity of Command
c) Discipline d) Impersonalization
4. Decision making is done by
a) Top management b) Middle management
c) All management d) Lower management
5. What is span of management?
a) No. of employees effectively controlled by the boss b) Levels of management
c) Informal management d) Recruitment
6. Job analysis means _______
a) Job description b) Job specification
c) Both job description and specification d) None of these
7. Identify the learning opportunity designed to improve skills and abilities of employees.
a) Training b) Development c) Recruitment d) Selection
8. What are the functions of directing?
a) Inspire b) Influence c) Motivate d) All of these
9. Establishing standards, comparing actual results with standards and taking corrective
actions are the steps included in the process of
a) Planning b) Controlling c) Directing d) Organizing
10. In the PEST framework for environmental analysis what does the letter E stand for?
a) Ethical b) Ecological c) Educational d) Economic
11. When a company taken over another one and clearly becomes the new owner, the action is
called
a) Merger b) Acquisition c) Strategic Alliance d) None of these
12. In which leadership style, employees play no role in decision-making?
a) Autocratic b) Participative c) Free-rein style d) None of these
13. Need for food can be included under which class for need?
a) Physiological needs b) Social needs c) Safety needs d) Ego needs
14. Organisation establishes relationship between
a) People, work and resources b) Customer, work and resources
c) People, work and management d) Customer, work and management
15. A notice circulated in English was poorly translated in Tamil. Name the type of barrier
relating to this
Page 13 of 82
 a) Semantic barrier b) Psychological barrier
c) Organisational barrier d) Personal barrier
16. Which is not the most commonly used methods of long-term finance?
a) Issue of Shares b) Issue of Debentures
c) Loans from financial institutions d) Mutual funds
17. Chimney Sweeps employs people to clean fireplaces and chimneys in homes and
apartments. The firm is primarily the marketer of which one of the following?
a) An image b) A service c) A good d) An idea
18. Consumer protection act is applicable to
a) Immovable goods b) Movable goods c) Specific goods d) All goods and services
19. Who suggested product, pricing, place, promotion all these in a company represents
“Market Mix”?
a) Philip Kotler b) Stephen Morse c) Neil Borden d) Neilsen
20. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and
a) Marketing b) Publicity c) Sales d) None of these

Section – Economics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. When Marginal utility diminishes, total utility

a) Diminishes b) Increases c) Remains constant d) Increases at diminishing rate
2. Demand for a commodity refers to
a) Need for the commodity
b) Desire for the commodity
c) Amount of the commodity demanded at a particular price and at a particular time
d) Quantity demanded of that commodity
3. The supply of a good refers to
a) Stock available for sale
b) Total stock in the warehouse
c) Actual Production of the good
d) Quantity of the good offered for sale at a particular price per unit of time
4. Assume that consumer’s income and the number of sellers in the market for good X both
falls. Based on this information, we can conclude with certainty that the equilibrium
a) Price will decrease b) Price will increase
c) Quantity will increase d) Quantity will decrease
5. An implicit cost is
a) The cost of giving up an alternative b) The cost of a chosen alternative
c) Calculated by subtracting the monetary cost d) None of these
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?
a) Firms are price setters b) There are few sellers in the market
c) Firms can exit and enter the market freely d) All of these
7. For which of the following market structures is it assumed that there are barriers to entry?
Page 14 of 82
 a) Perfect competition b) Monopoly
c) Monopolistic competition d) Both monopoly and monopolistic competition
8. In a monopolistically competitive market, the number of firms is
a) Few b) One c) Two d) Very large
9. Double counting means
a) Counting a product at the final stage of output process
b) Counting a product more than once
c) Under estimating national product
d) Misleading conclusions about national product
10. According to Keynes, marginal propensity to consume
a) Can never exceed unity
b) May exceed unity when dis-saving occurs
c) Can never exceed the average propensity to consume
d) Is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to save
11. The basic Keynesian concept of effective demand was given by
a) Malthus b) Ricardo c) Say d) None of these
12. Which of the following would be classified as unemployment?
a) A person who has given up looking for a job, after job hunting for a long time
b) A person who quits his/her job and attends college
c) A student who is looking for a job
d) All of these
13. A low interest policy is known as
a) Dear monetary policy b) Cheap monetary policy
c) Investment policy d) Policy to control speculation
14. The fiscal policy is weakened by the presence of
a) Public debt b) Fear of capital flight
c) Interest sensitiveness of investment d) All of these
15. Expansion in the business cycle is generally accompanied by
a) Deflation b) Inflation c) Negative growth d) None of these
16. The basic functions of ____________ include accepting deposits from individuals and firms
and providing loans to the public.
a) A commercial bank b) Bank Negara Malaysia
c) An insurance company d) All of these
17. Which of the following denotes an underdeveloped economy?
a) High level of inequalities b) Low level of capital productivity
c) A relatively closed economy d) All of these
18. A fall in bank rate leads to
a) Costlier credit to commercial banks b) More attractive deposits
c) Less attractive loans d) More attractive loans
19. A deficit budget occurs when
a) The government’s total expenditure exceeds revenue
b) The government’s total expenditure equals revenue
c) Tax collection exceeds government expenditure
Page 15 of 82
 d) The public debt decreases
20. Inflation resulting from shocks to aggregate demand
a) Cost –push inflation b) Profit – push inflation
c) Supply – push inflation d) Demand – pull inflation

Section – Computer Science

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The Equipment needed to allow home computers to connect internet is called

a) Monitor b) Gateway c) Modem d) Periphera
2. RG-59 is used in
a) Radio b) Ethernet
c) Thin Ethernet d) Cable TV
3. Physical or logical arrangement of network is
a) Routing b) Networking
c) Topology d) None of these
4. Full form of FTP is
a) File Transfer Protocol b) Fixed Transfer Protocol
c) Filled Transfer Protocol d) None of these
5. In Message Confidentiality, transmitted message must make sense to only intended
a) Receiver b) Sender c) Modular d) Translator
6. Which of the following tag will be used for creating a drop-down list in HTML?
a) Dropdown b) LIST c) SELECT d) INPUT
7. Which of the following is not a type of constructor?
a) Copy constructor b) Friend constructor
c) Default constructor d) Parameterized constructor
8. Which among the following is called first, automatically, whenever an object is created?
a) Class b) Constructor c) New d) Trigger
9. What is meant by multiple inheritance?
a) Deriving a base class from derived class
b) Deriving a derived class from base class
c) Deriving a derived class from more than one base class
d) None of these
10. Which is the pointer which denotes the object calling the member function?
a) Variable pointer b) This pointer c) Null pointer d) Zero pointer
11. What does it mean when we say that an algorithm X is asymptotically more efficient than Y?
a) X will always be a better choice for large inputs
b) X will always be a better choice for small inputs
c) Y will always be a better choice for small inputs
d) X will always be a better choice for all inputs
12. If the address of A [1] [1] and A [2] [1] are 1000 and 1010 respectively and each element
occupies 2 bytes then the array has been stored in _________ order.
Page 16 of 82
 a) matrix major b) column major c) row major d) none of these
13. Process of inserting an element in stack is called ____________.
a) Create b) Pop c) Push d) Insertion
14. A circular queue is implemented using an array of size 10. The array index starts with 0,
front is 6, and rear is 9. The insertion of next element takes place at the array index.
a) 0 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10
15. An ________ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or
attributes.
a) Entity set b) Attribute set c) Relation set d) Entity model
16. Which of the following are TCL commands?
a) UPDATE and TRUNCATE b) SELECT and INSERT
c) GRANT and REVOKE d) ROLLBACK and SAVEPOINT
17. The ______ clause allows us to select only those rows in the result relation of the _______
clause that satisfy a specified predicate.
a) Where, from b) From, select c) Select, from d) From, where
18. Boolean algebra is also called
a) switching algebra b) arithmetic algebra c) linear algebra d) algebra
19. Which law of Boolean algebra emphasizes the elimination of brackets from logical
expression along with the re-arrangement of grouping variables?
a) Distributive Law b) Associative Law
c) Commutative Law d) None of these
20. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. The gate is either
a) NAND or an EX-OR b) an OR or an EX-NOR
c) an AND or an EX-OR d) a NOR or an EX-NOR

Section – History
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The Mesolithic age in India continued up to

b) 2000 BC b) 4000 BC c) 6000 BC d) 8000 BC
2. One similarity found in both Egyptian and Sumerian civilizations is that each developed a
b) Monotheistic religion b) Ziggurat c) Compass d) Written language
3. Which revolution led to the development of these civilizations?
b) Industrial b) Green c) Neolithic d) Commercial
4. The technique of pot making originated in the
b) early stone age b) late stone age c) copper age d) iron age
5. Indus Valley Civilization belonged to:
b) Old Stone Age b) Medieval Stone Age c) New Stone Age d) Metal Age
6. As per the opinion of many historians the origin of Aryans may be
a) Arctic region b) Central Asia c) Southern Russia d) All of these
7. What were the four Vedas?
a) Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Vishnu Veda and Brahma Veda
b) Vishnu Veda, Brahma Veda, Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda
c) Yajur Veda, Atharva Veda, Vishnu Veda and Sama Veda
d) Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda
8. What was the period later Vedic civilization?
a) 2000-1500 B.C b) 1000-600 B.C. c) 1500-500 B.C d) 1200-300 B.C
9. The founder of Nanda Dynasty was
a) Mahapadma Nanda b) Dhana Nanda
c) Sishunag Nanda d) Shiva Nanda
10. Which of the following foreign traveller came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II?
Page 17 of 82
 a) Hiuen-Tsangb) Nicolo Contic) Fa Hein d) Marco Polo
11. The saint who wrote ‘Bijak‘ is-
a) Kabir b) Guru Nanak c) Guru Gobind Singh d) Ramdas
12. Who established Vijayanagara empire?
a) Hari Hara and Bukka b) Krishna Devaraya
c) Saluva Narasimha d) Sadasivaraya
13. Who among the following was the incharge of foreign affairs in the Shershah Government?
a) Diwan-i-Kohi b) Diwan-i-wazir c) Diwan-i-Rasalat d) Diwan-i-Bandagan
14. Who wrote Tuzuk-i-Baburi?
a) Kuli Kutub Shah b) Feroz Shah c) Abul Fazal d) Babar
15. The printing press was invented around:
a) 1450 b) 1453 c) 1550 d) 1553
16. Which of the following was not a foundational principle of the Enlightenment?
a) Relativism b) Rationalism c) Skepticism d) Individualism
17. Between 1649 and 1658, England was ruled by:
a) Charles I b) A committee of Puritans c) Oliver Cromwell d) Charles II
18. Where did the Third Estate form and announce the National Assembly?
a) Indoor Tennis Court b) Hall of Mirrors
c) Firoz Shah Ground d) Winter Palace
19. The main object of European cravings from the east was:
a) Silks b) Fine carpets and pottery c) Jewellery d) Spices
20. Guilds were associations of
a) Industrialization b) Exporters c) Traders d) Producers
21. Which among the following was not an economic cause of the revolt of 1857?
a) Heavy taxation
b) But down on major patronage for artisans and handicrafts
c) Increasing availability of market for Indian cotton
d) Increased pressure on agricultural land
22. Which of the following was not a cause of WWI?
a) Nationalism b) Balkan war
c) Hundred Year war d) Franco-Prussian war
23. Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin’s 'April Theses'?
a) World War I should be brought to an end
b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
c) Banks should be nationalised
d) All of these
24. What did Gandhiji mean by "Swaraj"?
a) Freedom for the country b) Freedom for the meanest of the countrymen
c) Self-Government d) Complete Independence
25. The ruling party in the U.K. when India got independence was:
a) Socialist Party b) Conservative Party
c) Liberal Party d) Labour Party
26. For the first time Indian Legislature was made "Bi-cameral" under:
a) Government of India Act, 1861 b) Government of India Act, 1892
c) Government of India Act, 1915 d) Government of India Act, 1919
27. In 1941, Germany invaded which country, in spite of the peace treaty signed between the
two nations just prior to the invasion of Poland:
a) Japan b) France c) Britain d) Soviet Union
28. Of the following countries, which one was NOT a permanent member of the United Nations
Security Council?
a) France b) Great Britain c) The United States d) Israel
29. What reforms did glasnost bring to the Soviet Union?
Page 18 of 82
 a) Openness of the government b) Accountability of government officials
c) Some freedom of speech d) All of these
30. UN Secretary General heads which principal organ of the United Nations Organisation?
a) General Assembly b) Security Council
c) Economic and Social Council d) The Secretariat
31. Who was the last Mughal Emperor?
a) Aurangzeb b) Bhahadur Shah II c) Ibrahim Lodh d) Shah Alam
32. The salt satyagraha began on 12 March and end in Dandi with Gandhi breaking the Salt Act
on
a) 6 April b) 12 April c) 21 April d) 19 April
33. In which session of the Indian National Congress split into two parts-Moderates and
Extremists?
a) Surat Session b) Nagpur Session c) Bombay Session d) Allahabad Session

34. Surat Split took place in

a) 1902 b) 1903 c) 1904 d) 1907
35. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) Vivekananda participated in the All-World Religions Conference in 1893 at Chicago,
U.S.A.
b) Satyashodhak samaj was established by the Jyotiba Phule.
c) Dayanand Saraswati established the Prarthna Samaj.
d) ARYA Samaj was founded in 1875 in Bombay.
36. Which of the following periods was known as transitional phase?
a) Paleolithic period b) Mesolithic periods
c) Neolithic period d) Upper Paleolithic
37. Which of the following is a foreign account?
a) Kautilya’s Arthashastra b) Megasthenes Indica
c) Ain-i-Akbari of Abul fazl d) All of these
38. ‘Dancing Girl’ figurine found in Indus valley was made of
a) Silver b) Copper c) Iron d) Bronze
39. Which God was not worshipped by the Aryans in the vedic period?
a) Indra b) Vasudeva c) Suryadeva d) Shiva
40. Which was the famous town during Ancient time?
a) Pataliputra b) Chedi c) Vatsa d) Panchal

Section – Sociology
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Sociology is the study of
a) The individual b) Groups c) Society and Social Institutions d) Associations
2. Who has written “The Rules of Sociological Method”?
a) Durkheim b) Parsons c) Hobhouse d) Weber
3. Essential attributes of the members of a society are
a) Interdependence b) Cooperation
c) Both a and b d) Neither interdependence nor cooperation
4. A collection of individuals, interacting with one another and having common objects of
attention. It indicates
a) Community b) Aggregate c) Social group d) Organization
5. Which of the following group is characterized by intimate face-to-face association?
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Formal d) Political
Page 19 of 82
6. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Institutions are abstract
b) Institutions are associations
c) Institutions regulate the behaviour of individuals in the society
d) All of these

7. The customary system of statuses and roles governing the behaviour of persons related
through descent or marriage is called
a) Societal norm b) Cultural trait c) Kinship system d) Family tradition
8. Which of the following is defined as ‘a contract for the production and maintenance of
children’?
a) Kinship b) Marriage c) Family d) None of these
9. ______________ is a group defined by a sex relationship sufficiently precise and enduring
for the procreation and upbringing of children.
a) Marriage b) Kinship c) Family d) None of these
10. Which of the following bring together people from surrounding villages, who come to sell
their agricultural or other produce and to buy manufactured goods and other items that are
not available in their villages?
a) Food Corporation of India (FCI) Procurement Centers. b) Regular Markets
c) Krishi Vignan Kendras(KVKs) d) Weekly Markets
11. Acquired behaviour would indicate
a) Civilization b) Hypocrisy c) Culture d) None of these
12. Culture is
a) Learned b) Transmitted from one generation to another generation
c) Dynamic d) All of these
13. Transmission of culture is called
a) Integration b) Diffusion c) Invasion d) Imperialism
14. The social process involves
a) Understanding b) Discipline c) Mutuality d) All of these
15. Which one of the following comes under Primary Socialization?
a) Infancy b) Childhood
c) Both infancy and childhood d) Later stage of puberty
16. ‘Historically, an Indian nationalism took shape under British colonialism’. Which of the
following statement is correct?
a) It helped unify and energize different sections of the community
b) The emerging middle classes began to challenge colonialism on its own ground
c) The urban middle classes were the main carriers of nationalism and they led the
campaign for freedom
d) All of these
17. Which of the following was a well-known issue in India in the 19th and early 20th century?
a) Sati b) Child marriage and the issue of widow remarriage
c) Caste discrimination d) All of these
18. Which of the following is the systematic study of population?
a) Demography b) Economics c) Ethnology d) Anthropology
19. In India, censuses began to be conducted by the British Indian government between 1867-
72, and regular ten yearly (or decennial) censuses have been conducted since
a) 1871 b) 1881 c) 1891 d) 1901
20. ‘As with fertility rates, there are wide regional variations in the age structure in India’.
Which of the following statement is true?
a) A state like Kerala is beginning to acquire an age structure like that of the developed
countries.

Page 20 of 82
 b) Uttar Pradesh presents a very different picture with high proportions in the younger age
groups and relatively low proportions among the aged.
c) India as a whole is somewhere in the middle, because it includes states like Uttar Pradesh
as well as states that are more like Kerala.
d) All of these.
21. Social inequality and exclusion are social because
a) They are not about individuals but about groups
b) They are not economic, although there is usually a strong link between social and
economic inequality.
c) Both they are not about individuals but about groups and they are not economic,
although there is usually a strong link between social and economic inequality.
d) They are not systematic and structured – there is no a definite pattern to social
inequalities.
22. Which of the following statement is correct about social exclusion?
a) Social exclusion refers to ways in which individuals may become cut off from full
involvement in the wider society.
b) Social exclusion is not accidental but systematic – it is the result of structural features of
society.
c) Social exclusion is involuntary.
d) All of these.
23. The caste system is a distinct __________ social institution that legitimises and enforces
practices of discrimination against people born into particular castes.
a) Indian b) Iranian c) Nepali d) Pakistani
24. The most important State initiative attempting to compensate for past and present caste
discrimination is the one popularly known as
a) Benefits b) Reservations c) Provisions d) Guards
25. The Other Backward Classes (OBCs) are
a) The service castes b) The artisanal castes
c) Socially and educationally backward classes d) All of these
26. ___________ is an economic system in which the means of production are privately owned
and organised to accumulate profits within a market system.
a) Capitalism b) Socialism c) Communalism d) Communism
27. __________ is the process by which a ‘low’ caste or tribe or other group takes over the
customs, ritual, beliefs, ideology and style of life of a high and, in particular, a ‘twice-born
caste’.
a) Socialization b) Sanskritization c) Globalization d) Parochialization
28. Which of the following is the single most important source of livelihood for the majority of
the rural population?
a) Skills b) Agriculture c) Talents d) Trade
29. Which of the following involves a stretching of social and economic relationships
throughout the world?
a) Westernization b) Modernization c) Globalization d) Liberalization
30. Which of the following recent Supreme Court judgment is correct regarding LGBT (lesbian,
gay, bisexual, transgender)?
a) Adult gay sex is not a crime b) Adult gay sex is a crime
c) Adult gay sex is allowed in the public places d) None of these
31. Norms are enforced by:
a) Positive sanctions b) Negative sanctions
c) Both A and B d) Order
32. One important contributor to human development is:
a) Culture b) Genetics c) Language d) Economics

Page 21 of 82
 33. Which one of the following is not necessary for Sociology as science?
a) Value neutrality b) Objectivity c) Universality d) Subjectivity
34. Which factors had not enhanced the need of Sociology?
a) Social Change b) Social Dynamics c) Social Statics d) None of these
35. C. Wright Mills once said that sociologists need to develop a sociological __________ to study
how society affects individuals.
a) Culture b) Imagination c) Method d) Tools
36. In a community, effect of common locality is being much reduced by:
a) Common ways of living
b) Developed means of transportation and communication
c) Westernization
d) Sanskritization
37. Association is the salient feature of:
a) Rural society b) Feudal society c) Primitive society d) Modern Society
38. Flow of cultural traits from the place of origin to other places is called:
a) Diffusion b) Cooperation c) Competition d) Acculturation
39. Material culture is lagging behind non material culture; this is called:
a) Cultural Strain b) Cultural Lag
c) Cultural Reproduction d) None of these
40. The theorist most commonly associated with symbolic interactionism is:
a) Mead b) Burke c) Cronen d) Garfunkel

Section – Psychology
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The field of Psychology is defined as the

a) Scientific study of behaviour and mental processes
b) Study of all mental activities
c) Methodological analysis of behaviour
d) Observational record of behaviours
2. Structuralism was led by
a) William James b) Sigmund Freud c) G. Stanley Hall d) Wilhelm Wundt
3. Which of the following is NOT the goal of psychological enquiry?
a) Description b) Prediction c) Study d) Control
4. The basic unit of human nervous system is
a) Atom b) Cell c) Neuron d) Fibre
5. Hereditary elements of the body are
a) DNA b) Chromosomes c) Hormones d) Zygote
6. The relationship between stimuli and the sensation they evoke has been studied in
a) Physics b) Chemistry c) Mathematics d) Psychophysics
7. The process of organizing visual field into meaningful wholes is known as
a) Good figure b) Pragnanz
c) Form perception d) Figure-ground segregation

8. In learning experiment Skinner box experiments are related to

a) Classical conditioning b) Operant conditioning
c) Observational learning d) Social learning
9. Which of the following is right sequence of memory stages?
a) Encoding, retrieval, storage b) Retrieval, storage, encoding
Page 22 of 82
 c) Encoding, storage, retrieval d) Storage, encoding, retrieval
10. Which of the following is categorized as childhood amnesia?
a) When children fail to memorize
b) When children fail to retrieve
c) When there are no memories for early 4-5 years of life
d) When children fail to encode
11. An image for sensory experiences in human thinking process is
a) Sensory modality b) Sensory memory
c) Block of thoughts d) Mental representation
12. From general assumption to particular decision is identified as
a) Deductive reasoning b) Inductive reasoning
c) Particular reasoning d) General reasoning
13. A period when learning must occur if it is to occur successfully
a) Brainstorming b) Learning period c) Critical period d) Incubation
14. Which among the following is used for communicating one’s thought, ideas and feelings to
others?
a) Impulse b) Language c) Gesture d) Rule
15. The start of motivation cycle is in which of the following sequence?
a) Need, drive, arousal c) Arousal, need, drive
c) Need, arousal, drive d) Arousal, drive, need
16. In Maslow’s need hierarchy model which types of needs are at bottom of the pyramid?
a) Self-esteem needs b) Lower level needs
c) Higher level needs d) Self-actualization needs
17. Emotions exist on a
a) Continuum b) Experience c) Time d) Culture
18. Global capacity to understand the world is known as
a) Mental ability b) Intelligence c) Aptitude d) Attitude
19. Which one of the following is NOT an approach or theory to understand personality?
a) Type approach b) Trait approach
c) Clinical approach d) Psychodynamic approach
20. When people are hesitant to consult a doctor or psychologist because they are ashamed of
their illness is described as
a) Stress b) Stigma c) Norms d) Culture
21. The ability of intellectual understanding of different person’s situation is described as
a) Sympathy b) Empathy c) Positive regards d) Insight
22. Eustress is the level of stress when a person can perform at
a) His peak b) His least c) His worst d) His risk
23. The components of attitude do NOT include which of the following?
a) Affective b) Behavioural c) Aggression d) Cognition
24. The ability to deal with a high density or crowded environment is identified as
a) Competition tolerance b) Crowding tolerance
c) Environmental tolerance d) Cultural characteristics
25. The study of relationship between living being and the environment is described as
a) Ecology b) Psychology c) Sociology d) Geology
26. The ability of a counsellor to reflect on what the client says and feels using different words
refers to
a) Paraphrasing b) Confronting c) Empathy d) Skills
27. The stage in which intra-group conflicts that how the target of group is to be achieved is
described as
a) Norming b) Forming c) Storming d) Performing
28. The school of Functionalism was established by
a) Darwin b) Francis Bacon c) William James d) Descartes
Page 23 of 82
 29. Tendency to think that if a person has one set of positive qualities he must also have other
positive qualities is described as
a) Primacy effect b) Practice effect
c) Halo effect d) Actor-observer effect
30. The judgment about our own value and worth is explained as
a) Self-efficacy b) Self-regulation c) Self-conceptd) Self-esteem
31. A psychologist with a ______________ perspective focuses on how people know,
understand, and think about the world:
a) Behavioral b) Oral
c) Humanistic d) Cognitive
32. Anything which evokes a response in the Organism is called.
a) Stimulus b) Thing
c) Situation d) Incidence
33. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts" is represented by which of the following?
a) the Gestalt psychologists. b) the behaviorists.
c) the structuralists. d) the functionalists.
34. The first published work on this subject in (1933) is by
a) Prof. R. N. Rath b) Prof. K. Kautilya
c) Jadunath Sinha d) None of these
35. In developmental psychology, the term nature refers to _____ factors that influence
development.
a) Biological b) Environmental
c) Physical d) All of these
36. Standard deviation is a measure of:
a) range b) central tendency
c) inference d) dispersion
37. Which of the following is out of place here?
a) phobic disorder b) panic disorder
c) seasonal affective disorder d) obsessive-compulsive disorder
38. The process of detecting, translating and transmitting from external environment to brain is
called:
a) perception b) sensation
c) selective attention d) adaptation
39. Empirical statements are based on:
a) belief b) data
c) intuition d) common sense
40. The most common research instrument used is the
a) Moderator b) Telephone interviewer
c) Live interviewer d) Questionnaire

Section – Geography
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Earth has _____ types of motions.

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5
2. Deep valley with very steep sides
a) Mountain b) Canyon c) Valley d) Incision
3. Due to which of the following factors does Pune receive much lesser rainfall as compared to
Mumbai?
a) It is located on the leeward side of Western Ghats.
b) It is located on windward side of Western Ghats.
Page 24 of 82
 c) Continentally
d) Distance from the sea
4. The periodic phenomenon of alternate rise and fall in sea level is known as
a) Tides b) Waves c) Tsunami d) Currents
5. Which biome has a long dry season?
a) Tundra b) Cool Temperate c) Tropical Rain Forest d) Savanna
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the
potential to cause harm to people or property or both.
2. Natural disasters are relatively sudden and cause large scale, widespread death, loss of
property and disturbance to social systems and life over which people have a little or no
control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of these
7. Who created the Concentric Zone Model?
a) Homer Hoyt b) Harris/ Ullman
c) EW Burgess d) John Heinrich von Thunen
8. Primary activity that is practiced on a larger scale is ___________.
a) Gathering b) Hunting c) Mining d) None of these
9. High speed railway Wuhan-Guangzhou is used for transport in
a) Greenland b) Denmark c) Italy d) China
10. Which of the following is international trade?
a) Trade between provinces b) Trade between regions
c) Trade between countries d) Both trade between regions and countries
11. Which of the following rivers does not flow into the Arabian Sea?
a) Tungabhadra b) Sabarmati c) Mandovi d) Narmada
12. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
a) North of Tropic of Cancer b) South of the Equator
c) South of the tropic of Capricorn d) North of the Equator
13. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in
a) Early May b) Early June c) Early July d) Early August
14. Trees that do not shed their leaves are mostly found in
a) hot desert vegetation b) tropical monsoon forests
c) coniferous forests d) temperate deciduous forests
15. Which of the following factors affect the formation of soil?
a) Parent materials b) Time c) Climate d) All of these
16. Which year is called the 'demographic divide' in India?
a) 1881 b) 1901 c) 1921 d) 1951
17. Factors such as presence of river, climate and soil are classified as
a) reclamation factors b) social factors
c) economic factors d) physical factors
18. Economic development is characterized by
a) Structural change in the economy
b) Change in the occupational structure
c) Both structural change in the economy and change in the occupational structure
d) None of these
19. Which among the following is not a cereal?
a) Rice b) Wheat c) Gram d) Maize
20. Which among the following is the oldest refinery of India?
a) Chennai b) Digboi c) Jamnagar d) Panipat
21. Which among the following does not belong to India's major large-scale industries?
a) Cotton textile industry b) Iron and steel industry
Page 25 of 82
 c) Jute industry d) Khadi and village industry
22. When was the first five-year plan of India started?
a) 1949 b) 1950 c) 1952 d) 1951
23. When was the first railway in India operated for public traffic?
a) 1857 b) 1858 c) 1855 d) 1853
24. Bokaro steel plant established with the help of
a) China b) USA c) Germany d) Soviet Union
25. What is source of lead compounds?
a) Aerosol sprays foams
b) Exhaust fumes of motor vehicles
c) Incomplete burning of wood
d) Both aerosol sprays foams and exhaust fumes of motor vehicles
26. By ‘spatial data’ we mean data that has
a) Complex values b) Positional values
c) Graphic values d) Decimal values
27. Imaginary lines that are used on maps to join places of same height are called
a) legend lines b) north arrow lines
c) grid lines d) contour lines
28. Colour of infrared images that represent sandy areas, beaches and sand dunes is
a) red-magenta b) white-cream
c) yellow d) pink-red
29. What does the total number of pixels in the region defines?
a) Perimeter b) Area c) Intensity d) Brightness
30. Measurement of distance along surface of Earth
a) apostasy b) cumulative graph
c) geographical distance d) cardinal directions
31. Which of the following is not studied under population geography?
a) Sex Ratio b) Pollution
c) Migration and Occupational Structure d) Population Density
32. Which expert gave the nebular hypothesis?
A. Immanuel Kant B. Laplace C. Chamberlain D. Moulton
33. What two scientists proposed the theory of seafloor spreading in the early 1960s?
A. Charles Darwin and James Hutton B. Harry Hess and Robert Dietz
C. John Butler and Arthur Smite D. F. Vine and D. Mathews
34. Very coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some minor fractions of rock debris
carried into this stream settle in the valley of ice beneath the glacier and after the ice melts
can be found as a sinuous ridge called what?
A. Meanders B. Esker C. Delta D. Cirque
35. Which of the following has longest day and nights?
A. Poles B. Equator
C. Tropic of Cancer D. Tropic of Capricorn
36. The most important anthropogenic effect on the climate is the increasing trend in the
concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. What can happen because of it?
A. Global warming B. Air pollution C. Water pollution D. Land degradation
37. In India the rainfall is mainly orographic. Which among the following follows the word in bold?
A. The rainfall occurs when the moist air becomes saturate
B. The rainfall occurs when the masses of air pushed by wind are forced up by large mountains
C. The rainfall occurs on only one side of the mountains
D. The rainfall is lesser in Rain shadow areas
38. Which term is used to denote animal species of a particular region or period?
A. Fauna B. Ferns C. Flora D. None of these
39. Ebony, mahogany and rosewood trees are grown in which type of the forests?
Page 26 of 82
 A. Coniferous forest B. Tropical rainforest
C. Tropical thorn forest D. None of these
40. The Karewas soil of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits?
A. Volcanic B. Fluvial C. Lacustrine D. Aeolian and glacial

Section – Agriculture
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Total food production in 2016-2017.

a) 251.56 million tonne b) 275.68 million tonne
c) 110.15 million tonne d) 138.52 million tonne
2. The (vertically) downward and lateral movements of water into soil or substrata from a
source of supply such as a reservoir or irrigation canal are called:
a) percolation b) Water intake c( interflow d) seepage
3. Mimicry weed of rice
a) Echinochloa crusgalli b) Phalaris minor
c) Euphorbia hirta d) Cynodon dactylon
4. Study of soil in relation to higher plants is called
a) Edaphology b) Geology c) Pedology d) Tillage
5. Whiptail in cauliflower is caused due to
a) Deficiency of iron b) Deficiency of boron
c) Deficiency of molybdenum d) Deficiency of Sulphur
6. Which one of the following concentrated organic manures has maximum phosphorus
content?
a) Fish meal b) Stera meal c) Poultry manure d) Guano
7. In high P fixing soils, water soluble phosphatic fertilizers are applied to the crop essentially
as
a) Broadcast b) Placement below the seed
c) Placement above the seed d) Top dressing
8. Improper use of fertiliser can cause:
a) soil acidity only b) soil erosion
c) soil alkalinity & soil acidity d) soil acidity and soil erosion
9. In soil science micelle stands for:
a) Colloidal particles carrying positive charge
b) Colloidal particles carrying negative charge
c) Micro pores in between textural particles
d) Negatively charged silt particles with high CEC
10. The availability of molybdenum is more at pH
a)5 b)7 c)7.5 d)9
11. Which one of the following occupies the highest volume percent in a fine sandy loam
surface soil in good condition for plant growth?
a) Organic matter b) Pore space which include air and or water
c) Mineral matter d) Others including macro and micro flora and fauna
12. Chlorites are basically silicates of
a) Magnesium with some iron and aluminium
b) Iron with some magnesium and aluminium
c) Aluminium with iron and magnesium
d) Iron and aluminium
13. Formation of vermicompost manure involves addition of :
a) Earthworms b) Bacteria c) Leeches d) Mycorrhiza
14. Father of tillage
Page 27 of 82
 a) Jethrotull b) Swaminathan c) Peter descrenzi d) Norman Borlaug
15. The chemical, which attracts opposite sex insects of a species, is known as
a) Hormones b) Allomones c) Kairomones d) Pheromones
16. Soil having 20-50 kg/ha P2O5 considered as
a) Soil having low phosphorous b) Soil having medium phosphorous
c) Soil having high phosphorous d) None of these
17. Glycolysis occurs only in the
a) Absence of O2 b) Presence of O2
c) Both absence and presence of O2 d) None of these
18. Biofertilizers are
a) Organic manures b) Green manure
c) Culture of micro-organism d) None of these
19. How much NPK% presents in poultry manure?
a) 3.03%N, 2.63%P and 1.4%K b) 3.0%N, 1.0%P, 1.5 % K
c) 3%N,1%P,2%k d) 0.5%N, 02. %P, 0.5%K
20. Numbers of agro-climate and ecological zones classified by ICAR respectively are
a) 15, 131 b) 131, 8 c) 8, 131 d) 21, 15
21. In DAP how much amount (%) of N and P2O5 is present?
a) 18% N, 46% P2O5 b) 46% N,18% % P2O5
c) 60%N,18%% P2O5 d) 16% N, 20% P2O5
22. Pisum sativum is inoculated with which rhizobium strain
a) Rhizobium melilotii b) Rhizobium trifoli
c) Rhizobium leguminosorum d) Rhizobium phaseoli
23. India produced _______ MT of milk during 2016-17
a) 130.12 b) 163.07 c) 200.15 d) 155.5
24. National Dairy Development Board located at
a) Karnal b) New Delhi c) Ludhiana d) Anand
25. Which cattle breed is known for its sawai chal
a) Tharparkar b) Kankrej c) Bargur d) Jersey
26. The black colour of skin of Kadaknath poultry breed is due to
a) Melanin b) Thiamine c) Cytokine d) All of these
27. Following stage of estrus is known as period of sexual desire
a) Proestrum b) Oestrum c) Metaestrum d) Anestrus
28. __________means artificial heat provide to the chicks.
a) Incubation b) Hatching c) Brooding d) Flooding
29. Disease causes due nutritional deficiency are known as______ diseases
a) Protozoan b) Infectious c) Non- infectious d) Viral
30. Which of the following is the most potent source of the bacterial contamination in milk?
a) Udder b) Feed c) Milk utensils d) Atmosphere
31. Pulses productivity(kg/ha) in India during 2016-2017
a) 799 b) 779 c) 882 d) 810
32. Out of following quantity, which is required to irrigate 1ha land area with 50mm depth of
irrigation?
a) 100 litres b) 1000 litres c) 10000 litres d) 50000 litres
33. In the following aquatic weed is
a) Amarathus viridis b) Salvinia c) Phalaris minor d) Echinochloa colonum
34. Of the following, which is soil macro fauna?
a) Protozoa b) Nematode c) Earthworm d) Diatoms
35. Iron, zinc, boron and molybdenum are called as_____
a) Macro nutrients b) Micro nutrients
c) Secondary nutrients d) Beneficial nutrients
36. First permanent manual experiment in India was started at_____
Page 28 of 82
 a) Coimbatore b) Kanpur c) Pusa (Bihar) d) Punjab
37. Which fertilizer contains sulphur?
a) Urea b) Calcium ammonium nitrate
c) Sodium nitrate d) Ammonium sulphate
38. Estimate the leaching requirement when electrical conductivity (EC) value of a saturated
extract of soil is 10 m mho/cm at 25% reduction in the yield of the crop. The EC of irrigation
water is 1.5 m mho/cm.
a) 15% b) 6.66% c) 7.5% d) 10%
39. Erosion of very fine particles is seen on account of
a) Suspension b) Surface creep c) Saltation d) Saltation
40. Mica is a ______ type of clay mineral
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 2:1:1 d) None of these

Section – Physical Education

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. "Let me win. But if i cannot win, let me be brave in the attempt." is an oath for.
a) NCC b) NSS c) Scouts & Guides d) Special Olympic Bharat
2. What is the minimum eligibility of Post Graduate Teacher?
a) MPEd b) MPEd + NET c) BPEd d) BPEd + NET
3. The ability to overcome resistance is known as
a) Strength b) Flexibility c) Endurance d) Speed
4. The Indian Olympic Association was formed in
a) 1942 b) 1927 c) 1947 d) 2018
5. What is the prize money given in a Dronacharya Award?
a) 1 lakh b) 3 lakhs c) 5 lakhs d) 7 lakhs
6. How many chapters are there in Patanjali Yoga Sutra?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
7. An asana is defined as
a) Posture or devoted to the practice of the yoga postures
b) A victory breath or ocean breath
c) A three part breath
d) None of these
8. Name a substance which is not banned by IOC?
a) Caffeine b) Cocaine c) Alcohol d) None of these
9. Full form of WADA
a) World Academy of Dance and Athletics b) World Association of Dance Academy
c) World Anti-Defence Agency d) World Anti-Doping Agency
10. Elements of Positive Sports Environment includes
a) Well educated Coaches b) Discipline c) Good Infrastructure d) All of these
11. The ability to move quickly in changing direction maintaining balance is
a) Speed b) Agility c) Endurance d) Strength
12. If Rahul has weight = 70kgs height = 1.7m, BMI is
a) 20.9 b) 24.2 c) 18 d) 30
13. Number of Bones in Axial Skeleton
a) 80 b) 72 c) 128 d) 50
14. For every action, there is equal and opposite reaction is Newton’s
a) 1st Law of motion b) 2nd Law of motion c) 3rd Law of motion d) none of these
15. Heredity is considered as a social structure
a) Primary b) secondary c) dynamic d) static
Page 29 of 82
16. Laws of learning was given by
a) Sigmund Freud b) El Thorndike c) Ivan Pavlov d) Bandura
17. Name the bio- motor ability that is generally considered most difficult to improve?
a) Speed b) Endurance c) Flexibility d) Strength
18. If a player is in optimum load, his performance will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Constant d) Stop
19. Teams of the same school plays a match with each other is
a) Intramural b) Extramural c) National d) International
20. All are leadership development programs except
a) NCC b) NSS c) Scouts & Guides d) Industrial training
21. Rice, wheat, oats are an example of
a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Fats d) Minerals
22. The forward rounding of the back is known as
a) Kyphosis b) Lordosis c) Scoliosis d) None of these
23. Which is the vital nutrient to be consumed by children which otherwise is neglected?
a) Protein b) Carbohydrates c) Fats d) Minerals
24. Female athletes are prone to
a) Disordered Eating b) Amenorrhea c) Osteoporosis d) All of these
25. How can you test flexibility?
a) Sit & Reach Test b) 50 yard dash c) Sit-ups d) Push-ups
26. Who has more muscular strength?
a) Men b) Women c) Both men and women d) None of these
27. How soft tissues injuries are treated?
a) HARM b) PRICE c) ACE d) None of these
28. The most common injury i.e. twisting of ankle is a
a) Strain b) Sprain c) Contusion d) Laceration
29. When a bone is displaced from its original position in a joint is known as
a) Fracture b) Dislocation c) Sprain d) Strain
30. The path followed by a flying object in the air
a) Projectile b) Trajectory c) Airplane d) Curve
31. Those individuals who are physically active have shown a ___% reduction in the magnitude
of cardiac injury during a heart attack when compared to non-physically active individual.
a) 66 b) 20 c) 56 d) 90
32. Total wellness can only be achieved by the balance of
a) Physical, intellectual, and social health
b) Emotional, social, and spiritual health
c) Spiritual, physical, and intellectual health
d) All of these
33. Good health is
a) Achieving a balance of physical, spiritual, emotional, social, intellectual, and physical
health
b) Controlling one's environment
c) Living a proper lifestyle
d) Preventing obesity
34. The practice of placing children with disabilities in physical education classes with able
children is referred to as
a) Selective placement b) Mainstreaming
c) Least-restricted environment d) Normative placement
35. Which of the following is a diagnostic cretrion for anorexia nervosa in DSM-IV-TR?
a) A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
b) A pathological gaining weight

Page 30 of 82
 c) A distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist
they are overweight
d) All of these
36. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a sprain
a) swelling and warmth b) blistering of the skin
c) pins and needles in the foot d) painless feeling
37. The main purpose of immobilization is to ________
a) Make it easier to walk to the doctor
b) Bind the casualty to prevent him from causing more harm to others
c) Prevent further damage and restrict movement as to lessen pain
d) None of the mentioned
38. How many Indian women have won medals at the Olympics? Who was the first?
a) Five & Karnam Malleswari b) Four & Saina Nehwal
c) Six & MC Mary Kom d) Seven & Sania mirza
39. The Heredity component of learning are?
a) Body composition b) Physical structure
c) Height and weight d) All of these
40. In which year NSNIS, Patiala was established
a) 1961 b) 1971 c) 1978 d) 1965

Section – Political Science

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The total number of members represented in UN General assembly is

a) 191 b) 193 c) 195 d) 197
2. The Soviet political system was based on ______ ideology.
a) Neo-Liberalist b) Liberalist c) Communist d) Feminist
3. First European conference after the world war took place in:
a) 1540 b) 1590 c) 1648 d) 1780
4. Hague peace conferences have been regarded as landmarks for development of
a) Development machinery b) International law
c) International disputes d) World peace
5. Name the international union established in 1874 which still exists?
a) Universal postal union
b) International telegraphic Bureau
c) International bureau of weights and measures
d) International institute for agriculture
6. The principal purpose of the league was
a) International organizations b) International laws
c) Prevent disasters d) Settle disputes
7. Which of the following is not a permanent member of Security Council?
a) France b) China c) Germany d) United Kingdom

8. General Assembly is headed by

a) Judge b) President c) Chief d) None of these
9. The Security Council has a Presidency which
Page 31 of 82
 a) Is for one year b) Two year c) Rotates d) 6 months
10. Only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York
a) Economic and Social Council b) Trusteeship Council
c) International Court of Justice d) Security Council
11. Specialized agencies are
a) Independent international organizations
b) Rules, membership and organs of their own
c) Into relationship with the United Nations
d) all of these
12. UNICEF was created by
a) Secretariat b) Economic and Social Council
c) Trusteeship Council d) UN General Assembly
13. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up
a) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1946
b) Under a resolution of the Provisional Government
c) By the Indian National Congress
d) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
14. Who of the following was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru b) Sardar Patel
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) B.R. Ambedkar
15. The preamble was amended for the first time by
a) The 24th amendment b) The 42nd amendment
c) The 44th amendment d) None of these
16. The Directive Principles of State Policy aim at
a) Establishing a free society
b) Establishing a genuine political democracy
c) A social and economic base for the political democracy in the country
d) All of these
17. Which of the following is a 'nation without a state?
a) Tibet b) Israel c) Belgium d) All of these
18. Which of the following is an example of the Marshall Plan at work?
a) The United Nations sent military forces to Korea
b) The Soviet Union blockaded the city of Berlin
c) The United States helped France rebuild its economy
d) The United States set up the North Atlantic Treaty Organization
19. The frames of the Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of Fundamental Rights from the
constitution of
a) USA b) USSR c) Canada d) All of these
20. Judges of the High Court are appointed by the
a) Chief Justice of the High Court b) President
c) Governor d) Chief Justice of India
21. Who gives the final approval to the five-year plan of India?
a) National Development Council (NDC) b) Ministry of Finance
c) Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) d) President of India
22. In which five-year plan India opted for mixed economy?
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
23. Which is the oldest political party in India?
a) Bharatiya Janata Party b) Indian National Congress
c) Communist Party of India d) Bahujan Samaj Party
24. Which among the following is one of the princely states that resisted to merger with the
Indian Union?
a) Nagaland b) Hyderabad c) Jaipur d) Baroda
Page 32 of 82
25. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a) V.S. Sampath b) S.N Shrinivasan c) V.K Naidu d) Om Prakash Rawat
26. Which Political Party is headed by Mamata Banerjee?
a) All India Forward Bloc b) All India Trinamool Congress
c) Lok Jan Shakti Party d) Indian National Lok Dal
27. What is the minimum age for the eligibility to be a Presidential candidate?
a) 30 b) 28 c) 21 d) 35
28. The rules and guidelines laid down in the Part VI of the Constitution are NOT applicable to
which state?
a) Telangana b) Chhattisgarh c) Jammu & Kashmir d) Manipur
29. What is name of maritime operation in Mediterranean Sea by 'NATO'?
a) Operation Active Endeavour b) Operation Eagle Assist
c) Operation Active Eagle d) Operation Eagle Endeavour
30. Which of the following contributed the MOST to the fall of the Soviet Union?
a) President Nixon’s policy of détente
b) The collapse of a flawed economic system
c) The United States boycott of the 1980 Olympics
d) The destruction of the Berlin Wall
31. What is the true meaning of "Secular"?
a) All religions are equal in the eyes of the government
b) Special importance to a religion related to minorities
c) One religion is promoted by the government
d) None of these
32. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights stands automatically suspended during the
proclamation of emergency?
a) Right to freedom of religion b) Right to constitutional remedies
c) Right against exploitation d) Right to freedom
33. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the constitution of India?
a) President b) Union Cabinet
c) Supreme Court d) Parliament
34. The First-Class Magistrates are competent to award sentence of imprisonment up to
a) 4 years b) 2 years c) 1 year d) 3 years
35. Which of the following constitutional amendments equipped President to impose National
Emergency on any particular part of India?
a) 38th b) 40th c) 42nd d) 62nd
36. Which is the oldest political party in India?
a) Bharatiya Janata Party b) Indian National Congress
c) Communist Party of India d) Bahujan Samaj Party
37. Which among the following statements about the partition is incorrect?
a) Partition of India was the outcome of the “two-nation theory”.
b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the basis of religion.
c) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of population across the border.
d) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
38. Three annual plan were launched between:
a) 1966 to 1969 b) 1969 to 1972 c) 1986 to 1989 d) 1988 to 1991
39. Which When was the word "armed rebellion" added to the Constitution to declare a National
Emergency?
a) After 44th Constitution Amendment Act b) After 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
c) After 40th Constitution Amendment Act d) After 38th Constitution Amendment Act
40. Which Article is related to Equality before law?
a) Art. 13 b) Art. 14 c) Art. 15 d) Art. 1

Page 33 of 82
 Section – Public Administration
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly, setup up in 1946 under
the provisions of the:
a) Cabinet Mission plan b) Gandhi plan c) Prasad plan d) Ambedkar plan
2. Who was the first country to begin with a Preamble?
a) France b) United States of America c) Germany d) Japan
3. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the
untouchability?
a) Article 15 b) Article 16 c) Article 17 d) Article 18
4. The fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of:
a) USA b) France c) UK d) USSR
5. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in which part of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Part – IV b) Part – III c) Part – II d) Part – I
6. Which part of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union Executive?
a) Part III b) Part V c) Part II d) Part I
7. President is the head of the state while the Prime Minister is the:
a) Head of legislature b) Head of judiciary
c) Head of government d) Head of no department
8. The Prime Minister’s Office came into existence in:
a) 1964 b) 1978 c) 1946 d) 1947
9. It is necessary to be a member of a house after 6 months of becoming a minister, but in
what way should a member of the house be elected?
a) By election b) By nomination
c) Either by election or nomination d) None of these
10. Which one is the senior most civil servant in India
a) Principle Secretary b) Secretary General of Lok Sabha
c) Cabinet Secretary d) Chief Secretary
11. The age for retirement of judges from supreme courts and high courts are respectively?
a) 62 & 60 Year b) 65 & 62 Year c) 70 & 65 Year d) None of these
12. Which of the following statement is/are not true about the status of Governor of a state in
India?
a) Governor is a nominal executive head (titular or constitutional head) of the state
b) A Governor acts as an agent of the central government
c) The office of governor of a state is an employment under the Central government
d) Appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states is possible
13. What is the minimum age to be appointed as the Chief Minister of a state?
a) 25 Years b) 30 years c) 35 Years d) 18 Years
14. The State Council of Minister is responsible to whom?
a) To the Governor b) To the Legislative Assembly
c) To the Legislative Council d) To the State Legislature
15. Which of the following state secretariat department is headed by a specialist civil servant
secretary?
a) Home Department b) Public Works Department
c) Revenue Department d) Agriculture Department
16. State Secretariat is a-
a) Line Agency b) Staff Agency c) Auxiliary Agency d) None of these
17. Who is the administrative head of the state secretariat?
Page 34 of 82
 a) Cabinet Secretary b) Principle Secretary
c) Chief Secretary d) Deputy Secretary
18. Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977 recommended for the establishment of:
a) Nagar Panchayat b) Panchayat Samiti
c) Maha Panchayat d) Mandal Panchayat
19. As per the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, Legislatures of States have not been
conferred the power to empower municipalities with the responsibility of:
a) Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
b) Management of law and order
c) Implementation of schemes as may be entrusted to them
d) Levy, collection and appropriation of taxes, duties, tolls, etc
20. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on
a) December 10, 1948 b) December 11, 1948
c) December 10, 1949 d) December 15, 1945
21. Under voluntary disclosure of information, every public authority shall publish different
prescribed types of information on their website within ---- days of enactment
a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120
22. Which one of the following committees recommended the establishment of the institutions
of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
a) Gorwala Committee b) Appleby Committee
c) Administrative Reforms Commission d) Ashok Mehta Committee
23. Which organisation supports liberalisation of foreign trade and investments in India?
a) International Labour Organisation (ILO)
b) World Bank
c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
24. Which one of the following does not qualify for curtailing the freedom of speech and
expression under Indian Constitution?
a) Security of the state
b) Public order, decency, morality
c) Demand for autonomy
d) Contempt of Court
25. Who is the head of Administration at the District level?
a) Divisional Commissioner b) Superintendent of Police
c) Deputy Commissioner d) None of these
26. In India, the office of District Collector was created in:
a) 1972 b) 1872 c) 1772 d) 1672
27. Duties of the Deputy Commissioner as a District Collector includes:
1. Land assessment and Land acquisition
2. Collection of land revenue
3. Collection of income tax dues, excise duties, irrigation dues etc.
a) 1 only b) 1 & 2 c) 2 & 3 d) 1,2 & 3
28. The Returning Officer for elections to Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies is:
a) Superintendent of Police b) District Collector
c) Divisional Commissioner d) None of these
29. District Rural Development Agency is attached with the:
a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Agriculture d) None of these
30. Which among the following statements is true?
a) 73rd amendment act introduced three tier Panchayati system
b) 73rd amendment act introduced part X to the Indian Constitution
c) Both A and B
Page 35 of 82
 d) None of these
31. The Constitution of India came into force on:
a) 20 May 1950 b) 26 November 1949
c) 26 January 1950 d) 20 May 1949
32. The word ‘sovereign’ in Preamble implies that India is neither a dependency nor a
dominion of any other nation but ______________________.
a) Right state b) Wrong state
c) Dependent state d) Independent state
33. Fundamental rights are:
a) Justiciable b) Non justiciable c) Bad d) Only meant of politicians
34. Which committee was set up to make the recommendations about fundamental duties?
a) Mandal Commission b) Sardar Swaran Singh Committee
c) Nehru Commission d) Patel Commission
35. Who has described the Directive Principles of State Policy as “novel features” of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Woodrow Wilson b) Gordan Brown
c) Dr B R Ambedkar d) Chester Barnard
36. The President is elected by the:
a) People directly b) Senior ministers directly
c) Chief Justice of India d) Electoral college indirectly
37. President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the _______________as the
Prime Minister.
a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha
c) Panchayati Raj elections only d) Vidhan Parishad only
38. The Prime Minister’s Office is a:
a) Constitutional body b) Extra-Constitutional body
c) Statutory body d) Social body
39. If any minister does not agree with any decision of the Cabinet then-
a) The president can remove him without asking the Prime Minister
b) He has to resign
c) He can remain a minister
d) None of these
40. The position and role of the Cabinet Secretariat has been affected by the emergence of
a) NITI Aayog b) Finance Commission
c) National Development Council d) Prime Minister Office

Section – Quantitative Aptitude and Logical Reasoning

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. By what greatest number is the product of five consecutive natural numbers always
divisible?
a) 120 b) 15 c) 60 d) 75
13 5 2
2. The last digit of the expression 7 x 9 x 4 is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6
3. An article is bought for Rs 600 and sold for Rs 750.What is the profit percentage?
a) 25% b) 20% c) 30% d) None of these
4. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years.
The sum is:
a) Rs. 650 b) Rs. 690 c) Rs. 698 d) Rs. 700

Page 36 of 82
 5. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1 1⁄2 years at 4% per
annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?
a) Rs. 2.04 b) Rs. 4.80 c) Rs. 3.06 d) Rs. 8.30
6. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7: 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4
hours, then the speed of the first train is:
a) 70 km/hr b) 75 km/hr c) 84 km/hr d) 87.5 km/hr
7. Roy takes 8 hours to do a job. Ria takes 10 hours to do a job. How long should it take both
Roy and Ria, working together to do that job?
a) 4h b) 40/3h c) 40/9h d) None
8. Find the total surface area of a pyramid having a slant height of 8 cm and a base which is a
square of side 4 cm (in cm square)?
a) 80 b) 64 c) 72 d) 84
9. Find the value of question mark to complete the following series:
111, 122, 89, 144, 67,
a) 160 b) 166 c) 170 d) 162
10. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?
a) CPNCBX b) CPNCBZ c) CPOCBZ d) CQOCBZ
11. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's
shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
a) East b) West c) North d) South
12. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother."
How is Suresh related to that boy?
a) Father b) Brother c) Father-in-Law d) None of These
13. Amit said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to the
girl?
a) Father-in-Law b) Father c) Brother d) Son
14. If day after tomorrow is Saturday, what day was 3 days before yesterday
a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Sunday d) Thursday
15. The sum of the ages of 3 people A, B and C is 90 years. What would be the total of their ages
4 years back?
a) 74 years b) 78 years c) 86 years d) 80 years
16. Out of the given pair of numbers, find the pair whose sum is 80 and L.C.M. is 364
a) 22, 58 b) 32, 46 c) 24, 56 d) 28, 52
17. On reversing the digits of a two-digit number, the difference between the original number
and new number is 45. Find the difference between the digits.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
18. Sarah sold 250 cycles and had a gain equal to the selling price of 50 cycles. What is his profit
percentage?
a) 20% b) 10% c) 25% d) None of these
19. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years. What
is the sum?
a) Rs. 4462.50 b) Rs. 8032.50 c) Rs. 8900 d) Rs. 8925
20. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Section – General Awareness

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Who has been appointed the Governor of the Sri Lanka's Tamil-dominated Northern
Province?
a) Muttiah Muralitharan
Page 37 of 82
 b) Sanath Jayasuriya
c) Kumar Sangakkara
d) Mahela Jayawardene
2. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi Premchand?
a) Gaban b) Godan c) Guide d) Manasorovar
3. Which film won the Golden Peacock Award 2019?
a) Marighella b) Particles c) Rwanda d) Jallikattu
4. J. B. Dunlop invented….......
a) Pneumatic rubber tire
b) Automobile wheel rim
c) Rubber boot
d) Model airplanes
5. What is the full form of "ISRO"?
a) Indian Satellite Research Organisation
b) Indian Solar Research Organisation
c) Indian Site Research Organisation
d) Indian Space Research Organisation
6. 1st July is celebrated as:
a) Doctor’s Day b) Postal Worker day c) Canada Day d) All the above
7. Original name of International Telecommunication Union was
a) international Telegraph Organization
b) International Telegraph Union
c) International Telegraph Bureau
d) International Telecommunication Organizers
8. Which city organized the DEFCOM INDIA 2019?
a) Bengaluru b) New Delhi c) Mumbai d) Noida
9. Which country organized the WATEC Conference?
a) UAE b) Israel c) Egypt d) Qatar
10. What is the full form of "DVD"?
a) Digital Vision Device
b) Digital Versatile Disc
c) Desktop Video Device
d) Digital Voice Disc
11. Who has been named as the new Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?
a) Mahinda Rajapaksa
b) Maithripala Sirisena
c) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
d) Ranil Wickremesinghe
12. The famous book 'Anandmath' was authored by
a) Sarojini Naidu b) Bankim Chandra Chottapadhya c) Sri Aurobind d) None
13. Who was conferred with Lifetime Achievement Award by Indian Council of Medical
Research (ICMR)?
a) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
b) Naina Lal Kidwai
c) Shobhana Bhartia
d) Roshni Nadar
14. Who invented Gunpowder?
a) G. Ferdinand Von Zeppelin
b) Sir Frank Whittle
c) Roger Bacon
d) Leo H Baekeland
15. What is the full form of "CDMA"?
Page 38 of 82
 a) Common Division Multiple Account
b) Code Divided Multiplier Access
c) Code Distributed Multiple Access
d) Code Division Multiple Access
16. International Women’s Day is celebrated on
a) March 8 b) March 11 c) March 18 d) March 21
17. Headquarter of 'World Bank' is located in
a) Geneva, Switzerland
b) Washington D.C, United States
c) Berlin, Germany
d) Brussels, Belgium
18. Intel and which company have partnered to bring 5G support to laptops?
a) Exynos b) Realtek c) Qualcomm d) MediaTek
19. India has made an agreement with which country for expeditious grant of patents to Indian
entities and individuals?
a) Japan b) USA c) South Korea d) Russia
20. What is the full form of "SAIL"?
a) Silicon Authority of India Limited
b) Steel Authority of India Limited
c) System Analysis in Logistics
d) Sales Analyst Income Level
21. Who has sworn in as the 47th Chief Justice of India recently?
a) C.H.Mishra b) Sharad Arvind Bobde c) Ravinder Gulati d) Jeorge Walter
22. 'Alice in Wonderland' the famous TV serial is based on a book written by
a) Father Discoste b) Thomas Hardy c) Charles Dickens d) Lewis Caroll
23. Who won the 2019 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development?
a) David Attenborough
b) Jane Goodall
c) Dian Fossey
d) Birute Galdikas
24. Who invented Gramophone?
a) Michael Faraday
b) Fahrenheit
c) Sir Alexander Graham Bell
d) Thomas Alva Edison
25. IAEA' is abbreviation of
a) International Atomic Energy Agency
b) Intergovernmental Atomic Energy Agency
c) International Agency of Energy and Atom
d) Interregional Atomic Energy Agency
26. United Nations' was founded in
a) 24 October, 1945
b) 24 October, 1948
c) 24 October, 1949
d) 25 October, 1944
27. Name of judicial branch of 'United Nations' is
a) International Court of Justice
b) World Court
c) International Criminal Court
d) Both A and B
28. Which city organized the 10th Commonwealth Youth Parliament?
a) Kolkata b) New Delhi c) Chennai d) Mumbai
Page 39 of 82
29. Which country hosted the World Customs Organization RCP meeting of Asia Pacific?
a) Belgium b) India c) Thailand d) Myanmar
30. What is the full form of "SIM"?
a) Subscriber Identity Module
b) Send Important Mails
c) Subscriber Information Method
d) System Information Management
31. Who is first female pilot of the Indian Navy?
a) Shivangi b) Parul Chauhan c) Shruti Sharma d) Payal Sinha
32. Who wrote 'War and Peace'?
a) Leo Tolstoy b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Charles Dickens d) Kipling
33. Who was conferred with the CII's 'Quality Ratna' award?
a) Sarath Babu b) Nita Ambani c) Azim Premji d) Suresh Krishna
34. What is the name of the CalTech seismologist who invented the scale used to measure the
magnitude of earthquakes?
a) Charles Richter b) Hiram Walker c) Giuseppe Mercalli d) Joshua Rumble
35. United States government agency 'NASA' is abbreviation of
a) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
b) National Administration of Space Aeronautics
c) National Administration of Space Astronauts
d) National Atomic and Space Administration
36. 4 July is celebrated as:
a) National Fried Clam Day
b) Independence Day USA
c) World UFO Day
d) None
37. International body 'ITU' stands for?
a) International Telecommunication Union
b) international Telegraph Organization
c) International Telegraph Bureau
d) International Telecommunication Organizers
38. Which institute has developed catalytic convertor using Rajasthani clay?
a) MNIT Jaipur b) IIT Jodhpur c) NIIT Neemrana d) BITS Pilani
39. Singapore with which country has recently signed an MOU on Cybersecurity Cooperation?
a) Japan b) South Korea c) Indonesia d) China
40. What is the full form of "VIRUS"?
a) Various Information Resource Under Stage
b) Vital Information Resource Under Siege
c) Various Information Resource Unlimited Storage
d) Vital Images Reviews Universal Studios

Page 40 of 82
 LPUNEST (Under Graduate) Set-2

General Instructions

6. The test contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

7. Multiple choice questions (MCQs) have four options. One of these four options is correct.
8. English is mandatory subject and you can choose any two subjects from the given optional subjects.
9. There is no negative marking. Please attempt all the questions.
10. Total time allowed for exam is 90mins.

Section – English
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
.
1. Select the answer choice that identifies the noun in the sentence.
Joe, have you met your new boss?
a) have b) boss c) met d) your
2. Complete this sentence.
Paul is coming. Don't let _____ see us!
a) his b) him c) he d) she
3. Choose the correct order of adjectives to fill the blank.
This is a ________ movie.
a) New Italian wonderful b) Wonderful Italian new
c) Wonderful new Italian d) Italian wonderful new
4. Which kind of adverb is the word in capitals?
“The boy ate the chocolates GREEDILY”.
a) Adverb of Place b) Adverb of Degree
c) Adverb of Time/Frequency d) Adverb of Manner
5. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
By the time you finish your exam tomorrow, your friends _________.
a) Will be sleeping b) Will have slept
c) Won’t have slept d) All of these
6. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
Professor Brown _________ grading our English papers by Monday.
a)Will finishing b)Will have finished
c)Will have been finishing d)Will have been finished
7. Choose the right option to fill the gap.
____________ to get married?
a)Did you plan b)Will you plan
c)Are you plan d)Both a & b
8. Choose the right modal verb.
You __________ borrow keys of this car until you can be more careful with it.
a) may not b) might not c) shall not d) can not
9. Choose the right modal verb.
Jim ____________ have seen me because he walked past without saying 'Hello'.
a) can b) couldn't c) have to d) might
10. The sentence below contains an error. Identify which part has the error and choose the
correct sentence from the options.
I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident - my behavior is speaking itself.
Page 41 of 82
 a) I need not offered any explanation b) Regarding those incident
c) My behavior, speaks for itself d) No error
11. Identify which part of the sentence has the error.
The three friends (1),Tina included (2),was supposed to meet(3) for dinner later that night.
(4)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12. Pick the right meaning for the following phrase.
Bone of contention
a) Point of an argument b) Worthless
c) Without any hesitation d) to succeed
13. Identify the correct meaning of the idiom.
A penny for your thoughts.
a) Tell me what you're thinking b) To make a bad situation worse
c) Make people feel more comfortable d) Very expensive
14. Choose one word for the following.
A mournful poem or a song
a) Epic b) Elegy c) Ode d) Hymn
15. In the following question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by five pairs of words
or phrases. Choose the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that in the original
pair.
Europe is to Spain as North America is to?
a) Greece b) Canada c) England d) India
16. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
Jully: "What ________ in the afternoons?"
Maya: "Usually I watch discovery channel or read a book."
a) you doing b) you do c) do you do d) are you doing
17. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
Sorry, you can't borrow her pen. She _________ it herself.
a) was using b) using c) use d) is using
18. Choose the correct form of the verb to fill the gap so as to make a meaningful sentence.
She is looking for her pencil. She ___________ it.
a) has lost b) lost c) did lost d) was lost
19. Fill in the blank with correct word.
Tina got good marks _______ she studied hard.
a) then b) so c) because d) but
20. Choose the most suitable interjection to complete the sentence.
____________! what a beautiful dress.
a) Oh b) Aww c) Hum d) Oops

Section – Physics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A ball of mass m moving with velocity  0 collides a wall as shown in figure. After impact it
3
rebounds with a velocity 0 . The impulse acting on ball during impact is
4

Page 42 of 82
 0

370

530

3 0
4
−m  −3  −5  −3  m 
a) 0 i b) m 0 i c) m 0 i d) m 0 i +  0 i
2 4 4 4 2

2. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest. The first ball is brought to rest by the
impact, if half of the kinetic energy is lost by impact the value of coefficient of restitution is
1 1 1 3
a) b) c) d)
2 2 3 2 2
3. A uniform meter stick of mass M is hinged at one end and supported in a horizontal direction
by a string attached to the other end. What should be the initial acceleration of the stick if
the string is cut?
3
a) g rads −2 b) g rads −2 c) 3g rads −2 d) 4 g rads −2
2
4. A thin rod of length L and mass m is bent at the middle point ‘O’ at an angle of 600. The
moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through ‘O’ and perpendicular to the plane
of the rod will be
ML2 ML2 ML2 ML2
a) b) c) d)
6 12 24 3
5. Electric displacement is given by D=  F, where  = electric permittivity
E = Electric field strength
a)[M L-2 TA] b)[L-2 T-1 A] c)[L-2 TA] d) None of these
6. A man in a car at location Q on a straight highway moving with speed V. He decides to reach
a point pin a field at a distance d from the highway [point M] as shown in the figure speed of
the car in the field is half to that on the highway. What should be the distance RM. So that
the time taken to reach p is minimum?
p

v
2
d

V
a R x M
U L
d d d
a) d b) c) d)
2 2 3
7. A boat moves relative to water with a velocity which is n times less than a river flow velocity
at what angle to the stream direction must the boat move to minimizing drifting [ u is velocity
of water].
v v
a) θ = sin -   From normal direction b) θ = cos-1   From normal direction
u u
v v
c) θ = tan -1   From normal direction d) θ = sin -1   From normal direction
u u

Page 43 of 82
8. Figure shows a planet in an elliptical orbit around the sun S. Where is the kinetic energy of
the planet maximum?

a) P1 b)P2 c)P3 d)P4

9. Find the angular frequency  (in rad/s) of mass M when displaced from its equilibrium
position and then released for the system shown in figure. Consider pulley and string to be
ideal.
[Given : M = 25 kg & k = 100 N/m]

a) 1 b) 1/2 c) 4 d) 2

10. A string vibrates with one loop between the fixed points A and B. The ratio of magnitudes of
maximum velocities of P and Q is [The shape of string when P and Q having zero speeds as
shown]
Q
P

A B
l/6
l/4
l
a) 2:3 B) 1: 2 c) 1: 3 d) None of these

11. The edge of an aluminium cube is 10 cm long. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a vertical
wall. A mass of 100 kg is then attached to the opposite face of the cube. The shear modulus
of aluminium is 25 GPa.Then the vertical deflection of this face is
a) 3  10 −7 m b) 4  10 −7 m c) 8  10−7 m d) 2  10 −7 m
12. The figure shows a system of two concentric sphere of radii r1 and r2 and kept at
temperatures T1 and T2 respectively. The radial rate of flowof heat in a substance between
the two concentric spheres isproportional to :

Page 44 of 82
 a)
r1r2
b) ( r2 − r1 )
(r − r )
c) 2 1
r 
d) log  2 
( r2 − r1 ) r1r2  r1 

13. A system goes from A to B by two different paths in the P-V diagram as shown in figure. Heat
given to the system in the path 1 is 1100 J, the work done by the system along path 1 is more
than path 2 by 150 J. The heat exchanged by the system in path 2 is

a) 800 J b)750 J c)1050 J d)950 J

14. Using equipartition of energy, the specific heat (in Jkg −1K −1 ) of aluminum at room
temperature can be estimated to be (atomic weight of aluminium = 27)
a) 25 b)410 c)925 d)1850
15. Four positive charges (2 2 − 1)Q are arranged at the four corner of a square. Another charge
q is placed at the centre of the square. Resulting force acting on each corner charge is zero if
q is
7Q 4Q
a) − b) − c) − Q d) − ( 2 + 1) Q
4 4
16. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a
point on the line joining them, where the gravitational field is zero, is;
a) -(4Gm/r) b) -(6Gm/r) c) -(9Gm/r) d) Zero
17. A particle executes SHM of amplitude 25 cm and time periods 3 s. What is the minimum
time required for the particle to move between two points located at 12.5 cm on either side
of the mean position?
a) 0.25 s b) 0.5 s c) 0.75 s d) 1.0 s
18. A cube of ice is floating in water contained in a vessel. When the ice melts, the level of
water in the vessel
a) rise b) falls
c) remain unchanged d) falls at first and then rises to the same height as before
19. A Block of Ice;
a) Can radiate as well as absorb heat b) Cannot radiate heat
c) Is an example for a black body d) Is an example for a white body
20. Emissive power and Absorptive power of a body depend upon;
a) Nature of the surface b) Temperature of the body
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of these

Page 45 of 82
 Section – Chemistry
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. During electrolysis of water the volume of O2 liberated is 2.24 dm3. The volume of hydrogen
liberated, under same conditions will be _____ dm3
a) 2.24 b) 1.12 c) 0.56 d) 4.48
2. Behaviour of temporary gases like CO2 approaches that of permanent gases like N2, O2, etc
as we go
a) below critical temperature b) above critical temperature
c) above absolute zero d) below absolute zero
2+
3. Ratio of ionization energies of Li and Be is3+

2 3 3 9
a) b) c) d)
3 2 4 16
4. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
a) the same, with 2,0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
b) the same with 1,1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
c) different with 0,1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
d) different with 1,0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
5. One mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly tohalf its initial pressure.
S for the process in JK −1mol −1 is [ In 2=0.693and R=8.314, J/(mol K)]
a) 6.76 b) 8.03 c)5.76 d)10.76
6. Aluminium phosphate is 100% ionized in 0.01 molal aqueous solution. Hence Tb / Kb is
a) 0.01 b) 0.015 c)0.0175 d) 0.02
7. What is the conc. of Cl- ion in saturated solution. If K sp of Hgcl2 at 298k is 4 x 10−15
a) 1 x 10−5 M b)2 x 10−5 M c)4 x 10−5 M d)4 x 10−5 M
8. The emf of the cell in which of the following reaction,
Zn( s ) + Ni 2+ ( 0.1M ) → Zn2+ (1.0M ) + Ni( s ) occurs is found to 0.5105V at 298K. The standard
emf of the cell is:
a) 0.4810 V b) 0.5696 V c) -0.5105 V d) 0.5400 V
9. Nitrogen monoxide NO, reacts with hydrogen H 2 , according to the following equation
2 NO( g ) + 2 H 2 ( g ) → N 2 ( g ) + 2 H 2O( g )
If the mechanism for this reaction were,
2 NO( g ) + H 2 ( g ) → N 2 ( g ) + H 2O2 ( g ) ; slow
H 2O2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) → 2 H 2O( g ) ; fast
Which of the following rate laws would we expect to obtain experimentally?
a) Rate = k[H 2O2 ][H 2 ] b) Rate = k[NO]2 [H 2 ]
c) Rate = k[NO]2 [H 2 ]2 d) Rate = k[NO][H 2 ]
10. Smoke precipitator works on the principle of
a) centrifugation b) neutralization of charge on colloids
c) absorption d) addition of electrolytes
11. If Aufbau rule is not followed, Calcium will be placed in the block
a) S b) P c) D d) f
12. The function of flux during the smelting of the ore is
a) to make the ore porous b) to facilitate reduction
c) to remove gangue d) to facilitate oxidation
13. H2O2 → 2H+ + O2 + 2e-; E° = –0.68 V
The above equation represents which of the following behaviour of H2O2?
a) oxidizing b) reducing c) acidic d) catalytic
Page 46 of 82
 14. The alkaline earth metals which do not impart any colour to Bunsenflame are:
a) Be and Mg b) Mg and Ca c) Be and Ca d) Be and Ba
15. Which of the following regarding fullerene (C60) is/are correct?
I) All carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized
II) In fullerene the five-membered rings and six-membered rings are in 1 : 2 ratio
III) A five-membered ring may be fused either with another five-membered or with a six-
membered ring
IV) It is aromatic
a) Only I is correct b) I & IV are correct
c) I, II, III are correct d) All are correct

16. For advertisement the coloured discharged tubes contain

a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
17. Impure metal forms volatile compound (X) with CO and then (X) gives pure metal on heating.
Metal is
a) Cu b)Fe c) Ni d)Pt
18. The correct name of linkage isomer of Co( NH3 )5 (SCN ) SO4
a) Pentaamminethiocyanato-S-Cobalt (III) sulphate
b) Pentaaminethiocyanato-N-Cobalt (II) sulphate
c) Pentaamminethiocyanato-N-Cobalt (III) sulphate
d) Pentaamminecyanato-N-Cobalt (III) sulphate
19. H2C = CH2 + O2 → CH3 CHO; catalyst used in this reaction is
a) Pd (II)/Cu (II) in water b) PCC c) Fe/H2O d) KMnO4/ H2SO4
20. In organic compounds, halogens are estimated by:
a) Carius method b) Liebig’s method c) Kjeldahl’s method d) Duma’s method

Section – Mathematics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A survey shows that 63% of the Americans like cheese whereas 76% like apples. If x% of the
Americans like both cheese and apples, then
a) x = 39 b) x = 63 c) 39  x  63 d) 30  x  80
2. Let N be the set of natural numbers and for a  N , aN denotes the set ax : x  N . If
bN  cN = dN , where b,c,d are natural numbers greater than 1 and the greatest common
divisor of b and c is 1 then d equals
a)Max b, c b)Min b, c c) bc d) b + c
 
  1  1  1 
3. The value of lim n 2  1 − cos  1 − cos  1 − cos  .......  is
n→
  n  n  n 
 
a) 1/2 b)1 c)0 d)2
4. If z = max | z − 1|, z + 1 then z + z =
a)0 b)1 c)2 d)1/2
5. For a  0 , the real roots of the equation x − 2a | x − a | −3a = 0 is
2 2

a) a  a 6 b) −a  a 2 c) a  a 2 , − a  a 6 d) a  a 6 , −a  a 2

Page 47 of 82
6. In a geometrical progression consisting of positive terms, each term equals the sum of the
next terms. Then the common ratio of this progression equal to:
5 −1 1− 5 5
a) 5 b) c) d)
2 2 2
1+ x
7. The f ( x ) = and A is a matrix such that A3 = 0 then f ( A) is equals to:
1− x
a)I + A + A2 b) I + 2A + 2A2 c)I – A- A2 d)I – 2A – 2A2
x 2 x
8. Let x 2 x 6 = Ax 4 + Bx3 + Cx 2 + Dx + E then the value of 5A+4B+3C+2D+E is equals to:
x x 6
a)-17 b)-14 c) -11 d)-8
9. If u , v , w be such that u = 1, v = 2, w = 2 , if the projection of v along u is equal to that of

w along u and v , w are perpendicular to each other then u − v + w =

a)2 b)14 c) 3 d)5
10. Negation of the statement p → ( q  r ) is
a) ∼ 𝑝 →∼ (𝑞 ∨ 𝑟) b)∼ 𝑝 →∼ (𝑞 ∧ 𝑟) c) ( q  r ) → p d) p  ( −q  −r )
11. The number of numbers between 2000 and 5000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2,
3, 4 (repetition of digits is not allowed) and are multiple of 3 is
a) 30 b)48 c)24 d)36
12. The number of positive integral solutions of xyz = 2 .3.5.7.11 is
4

a) 15  81 b) 4  81 c)81 d)16
n
13. For any integer n  1 , then sum  k ( k + 2) is equal to
k =1

n ( n + 1)( n + 2 ) n ( n + 1)( 2n + 1) n ( n + 1)( 2n + 7 ) n ( n + 1)( 2n + 9 )

a) b) c) d)
6 6 6 6
14. The coefficient of x in ( x + 25C1 )( x + 25C2 ).........( x + 25C12 ) is
11

a) 224 b)0 c) 224 −1 d) 225 − 1

2
 dy 
15. If x = sec  − cos , y = sec  − cos , then   =
n n

 dx 
y2 + 4 n 2 y2 + 4 ( )
a)
x2 + 4
x2 + 4
b) 2
y +4
c)
x +4
2
d) x 2 y 2 + 4 ( )
16. The set S= 1, 2,3,...,12 is to be partitioned into three sets A,B,C of equal size thus
A  B  C = S , A  B = B  C = A  C =  the number of ways to partition ‘’S’ is
12! 12! 12! 12!
a) b) c) d)
( 4!) ( 4!) 3!( 4!) 3!( 4!)
3 4 3 4

17. Let a relation R be defined by R = {(4,5), (1, 4), (4,6), (7,6), (3,7)} then R −1oR
a) {(1,1,), (4,4), (4,7), (7,4), (7,7)}
b) {(1,1,), (4, 4), (7,7), (3,3)}
c) {(1,1,), (4,4), (4,7), (7,4), (7,7), (3,3)}
d) {(1,1,), (4,4), (4,7), (7,4), (7,7), (3,6)}

Page 48 of 82
 18. Let N be the set of natural numbers and two functions f and g be defined as f , g : N → N
n +1
 if n is odd
such that f (n) =  2 and g (n) = n − (−1) .
n

 n if n is even
 2
Then fog is
a) onto but not one-one b) one-one but not onto
c) both one-one and onto d) neither one-one nor onto
 
19. Z is a complex number such that Z  2 and −  amp Z  . The area of the region formed
3 3
by locus of Z is
2  4 8
a) b) c) d)
3 3 3 3
 
20. Let f ( x) = min . x + 1, 1 − x then the area founded by f ( x) and x − axis is ..
11 5 7 1
a) b) c) d)
6 6 6 6

Section – Biology
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Binomials with identical genus name and specific epithet are called
a) Homonym b) Basionym c) Tautonym d) Synonym
2. Epithelial tissues arise from
a) Endoderm b) Ectoderm c) Mesoderm d) All of these
3. The importance of computers and of computer software to modern cladistics is most closely
linked to advances in
a) Light microscopy b) Radiometric dating
c)Fossil discovery techniques d) Molecular genetics
4. Which of the following organelles is smallest in size?
a) Lysosome b) Chloroplast c) Ribosome d) Mitochondria
5. Triglyceride is made up of
a) One glycerol molecule and two fatty acids
b) Two glycerol molecules and three fatty acids
c) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
d) One glycerol molecule and three fatty acids
6. Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because
they
a) Enter through pores b) Are water soluble
c) Contain carbon and hydrogen d) Are lipid soluble
7. Metal in Vitamin B12 is
a) Copper b) Cobalt c) Iron d) Zinc
8. Sugarcane shows high efficiency of CO2 fixation because it performs
a) Calvin cycle b) EMP pathway
c) Hatch and Slack pathway d) TCA cycle
9. Respiratory quotient of 1.0 indicates metabolism of which macronutrient?
a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Proteins d) Mixed diet
10. Which method out of the following renders the seed coat permeable to water so that
embryo expansion is not physically retarded?
a) Scarification b) Vernalisation c) Stratification d) Denudation
Page 49 of 82
 11. Which of the following is termed as the ‘grave yard’ of RBC?
a) Liver b)Kidney c)Spleen d) Bone marrow
12. Which among the following is the excretory organ?
a) Archaeocyte b) Pinacocyte c) Myocyte d) Solenocyte
13. Cartilage, tendons, joints, ligaments and connective tissues together made up of system
known as
a) nervous system b) system of glands c) system of cells d) locomotors system

14. The protein carrier in the membrane, called "sodium-potassium pump" pumps ______.
a) Both Na+ and K+ in b) Both Na+ and K+ out
c) Na+ in and K+ out d) Na+ out and K+ in
15. Fibrous thickenings of hygroscopic nature are found in this part of the anther wall
a) Middle layers b) Endothecium c) Epidermis d) Tapetum
16. Hormone that prevents ovulation is
a) prolacitn b) progesterone c) estrogens d) FSH
17. In Griffith's experiment a bacterial cell was changed from one form into another through a
process called _____.
a) Transduction b) Conjugation c) Transformation d) Twitching
18. Artificial methods of reproduction do not include
a) Rhizome b) Cutting c) Layering d) Budding
19. Which of these pests attack mustard?
a) Pod borer b) Aphids c) White grub d) Pyrilla
20. Which of the followings is a biopesticide?
a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Bacillus subtilis
c) Bacillus anthracis d) None of these

Section – Accountancy
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. The money spent for repairs of a motor -car used by the business is
a) Revenue Expenditure b) Capital Expenditure
c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure d) Asset
22. What is GAAP?
a) Generally Accepted Accounting Procedures
b) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
c) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
d) Generally Associated Accounting Principles
23. Collection of account receivable will
a) Increase assets and decrease assets b) Increase assets and decrease liabilities
c) Increase assets and increase capital d) Increase assets and increase cash
24. Suspense account is written on ________ side of trial balance.
a) Debit b) Credit c) Debit or Credit d) Not included
Page 50 of 82
25. Depreciation value of an asset is equal to
a) Cost + Scrap value b) Cost + Market Price
c) Cost - Scrap value d) Cost - Market Price
26. Find out who can draw the bill if Mr. A sold goods to B?
a) A will draw bill on B b) B will draw a bill on A
c) Third party will draw a bill on A d) C will draw the bill on A
27. Item "Salaries and wages" is the part of
a) Trading Account b) P&L Account c) Balance Sheet d) Revenue Account
28. Subscription received in advance is ________.
a) Expense b) Liability c) Equity d) Asset
29. Which of the following is not the feature of accounting?
a) Recording b) Classifying c) Differentiate d) Summarizing
30. Current accounts of the partners should be opened when the capitals are
a) Fluctuating b) Fixed c) Either fixed or fluctuating d) None of these
31. At the time of admission of a new partner, general reserve is
a) Debited to capital of old partners b) Credited to capital of old partners
c) Allowed to remain is balance sheet d) Debited to current account
32. When the realisation expenses are to be borne by a partner, it is credited to
a) Partner's capital A/c b) Cash A/c
c) Realisation A/c d) Profit & Loss A/c
33. Securities premium account is shown on the liabilities side of the balance sheet under the
head
a) Share capital b) Reserves and surplus c) Current liabilities d) Current Assets
34. Debenture premium cannot be used to _________.
a) Write off the discount on issue of shares or debentures
b) Write off the premium on redemption of shares or debentures
c) Pay dividends
d) Write off capital loss
35. Comparison of financial statements highlights the trend of the _________ of the business.
a) Financial position b) Performance c) Profitability d) All of these
36. Operating cycle belongs to which group of ratios?
a) Leverage ratios b) Liquidity ratios c) Profitability ratios d) Activity ratios
37. _________ reconciles the opening cash balance with the closing cash balance of a given
period on the basis of net decrease or increase in cash during that period.
a) Cash Flow Statement b) Fund Flow Statement
c) Both Cash and Fund Flow Statements d) None of these
38. Which of the following reasoning processes does a virtual auditor use to identify financial
system transactions that are very similar to each other but are not exactly alike?
a) Cross-source reasoning b) Temporal reasoning
c) Contextual reasoning d) Comparative reasoning
39. To reduce the risk of loss due to fire or power outages, a financial business should protect
its computer data by
a) Using encryption techniques b) Implementing an authorization process
Page 51 of 82
 c) Conducting backup procedures d) Monitoring data-transmission rates
40. Which are the elements of a Computer System?
a) Hardware b) Software c) Data d) All of these

Section – Business Studies

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which level of management includes department managers, deputy managers and assistant
managers?
a) Top Level b) Middle level c) Lower-level d) None of these
2. Co-ordination is
a) An objective of an organisation b) Goal of an organisation
c) The essence of management d) None of these
3. The word ________ denotes a function, a task, a discipline.
a) Management b) Leadership
c) Motivation d) None of these
4. Which is not a limitation of planning?
a) Lack of accurate planning b) Expensive
c) Inflexibility d) Provides sense of direction
5. Which is not a feature of formal organization?
a) Official b) Rules c) Rewards d) Norms
6. Which one of the following is an internal source of recruitment?
a) Media advertising b) Promotion
c) Campus interview d) Reference
7. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
a) Training b) Development c) Education d) All of these
8. Guiding and supervising the efforts of subordinates towards the attainment of the
organization 's goals describes the function of
a) planning b) organizing c) directing d) controlling
9. Control function of management cannot be performed without
a) Planning b) Organizing c) Staffing d) Motivation
10. Analyzing processes of change in the business environment involves conceptualizing it as
a) Complex b ) Static c) Dynamic d) Diverse
11. Which among them are Controllable factors?
a) External factors b) Internal factors
c) Both external and internal factors d) None of these
12. _______ is the key determinants of leadership effectiveness.
a) Motivation b) Supervision c) Controlling d) Planning
13. Ram, a worker in a MNC wants promotion in his job. Which need he wants to satisfy?
a) Physiological needs b) Self actualisation
c) Safety needs d) Ego needs
14. Responsibility always flows from
a) Superior to subordinate
Page 52 of 82
 b) Subordinate to superior
c) Both superior to subordinate and subordinate to superior
d) None of these
15. Which one is not an Psychological Barriers?
a) Attention to detail b) Poor attention
c) Premature evaluation d) Unclarified assumptions
16. The money raised by issuing such shares is known as
a) Equity share capital b) Loan
c) Both equity share capital and loan d) Debentures
17. The ________ concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not
buy enough of the organization’s products.
a) production b) selling c) marketing d) holistic marketing
18. The total number of rights given to consumers as per consumer protection act is
a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
19. In Marketing mix which scope of product supports the elements?
a) Guarantee b) Warrantee c) Quality d) All of these

20. It is popularly known as free form of promotion.

a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Personal Selling d) Marketing

Section – Economics
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The law of equi-marginal utility is otherwise called as

a) Law of substitution b) Law of diminishing Marginal Utility
c) Law of Negative returns d) None of these
2. If an increase in consumer income leads to decrease in demand for good X, then good X is
a) A substitute good b) A complementary good
c) A normal good d) An inferior good
3. Supply curve will shift when
a) Price rises b) Price falls
c) Technology changes d) Demand shifts
4. A floor price placed on a good is a __________ that will normally result in _________.
a) Maximum price ; shortage b) Minimum price ; surplus
c) Minimum price; shortage d) Maximum price ; surplus
5. Cost in the short-run can be classified into __________ and variable cost.
a) Asset b) Fixed cost c) Both asset and fixed cost d) None of these
6. When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that
a) Price is below the minimum of average variable cost
b) Fixed costs exceed variable costs
c) Average fixed costs are rising
d) Marginal cost is above average variable cost
7. Monopolists
a) Face downward sloping demand curves b) Are price takers
c) Have no short-run fixed costs d) Maximize revenue, not profits
8. Selling cost is the feature of
 a) Perfect Competition b) Monopoly
c) Monopolistic competition d) Bilateral monopoly
9. Three methods of computing national income are
a) Production, outlay and income methods
b) Saving, investment and income methods
c) Production, depreciation and income methods
d) None of these
10. The fundamental psychological law of consumption is associated with
a) Hansen b) Keynes c) Evans d) Robert Solow
11. According to Keynes, the basic cause of depression is
a) Inelastic Supply
b) Too little productive capacity
c) General Malfunctioning of the economy
d) Too little aggregate demand relative to productive capacity
12. An unemployed person is considered structurally unemployed, if he/she
a) Lack job skills
b) Has resigned to look for another job
c) Has been retrenched during a recession
d) Has lost his/her job due to seasonal factors
13. Monetary policy may be defined as
a) Control of activities of commercial banks
b) Management of central banking activity
c) Management of public enterprises
d) None of these
14. What are the objective(s) of fiscal policy?
a) Neutrality of money b) Attaining and maintaining full employment
c) Price stabilization d) All of these
15. During recession phase, the basic problems are that of
a) Unemployment b) Excessive inventory
c) Below capacity operations d) All of these
16. Which of the following determines the amount a bank can lend to its customers?
a) Non-performing loans b) Required reserve
c) Excess reserve d) None of these
17. According to Reserve Bank of India (RBI)'s annual data, which country has topped the India's
FDI chart in FY18?
a) Netherland b) Mauritius c) Germany d) Singapore
18. Direct selling of government securities by Central bank to general public is known as
a) Open Market Operations b) Selective credit control
c) Indexation d) Statutory Reserve Ratio
19. External sources of public borrowing are
a) Loans from central bank b) Loans from commercial banks
c) Borrowings from financial institution d) Loans from the international money market
20. An increase in the overall price index is known as a(n)
a) Inflation b) Recession c) Disinflation d) Depression
 Section – Computer Science
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The First network that planted the seeds of internet was

a) ARPANET b) NSFnet c) Vnet d) All of theseUnguided medium is
a) Twisted Pair cable b) Coaxial cable
c) Fiber optic cable d) Free space
2. In this topology there is a central controller or hub
a) Star b) Mesh
c) Ring d) Bus
3. Full form of ICMP is
a) Internet Common Message protocol b) Internet Control Message port
c) Internet CAN Message protocol d) Internet Control Message protocol
4. A hash function guarantees integrity of a message. It guarantees that message has not be
_____________.
a) Replaced b) Over view c) Violated d) Changed

5. __________ is used to read a HTML page.

a) Web Server b) Web Matrix c) Web Browser d) None of these
6. What is the term used to indicate the variable and constants of a class?
a) Data members b) Variables of class c) Data characters d) Constants
7. Which among the following is not a necessary condition for constructors?
a) Its name must be same as that of class
b) It must not have any return type
c) It must contain a definition body
d) It can contains arguments
8. Which design patterns benefit from the multiple inheritances?
a) Adapter and observer pattern b) Code pattern
c) Glue pattern d) None of these
9. Which among the following is/are type(s) of this pointer?
a) const b) volatile c) const or volatile d) int
10. New Nodes are added to the ___________ of the queue.
a) Front b) Rear c) Middle d) Both Front and Rear
11. A relational database consists of a collection of
a) Tables b) Fields c) Records d) Keys
12. What will be complexity of pop operation in stack?
a) O(1) b) O(n) c) O(log n) d) O(n log n)
13. The operating system is the most common type of _____________ Software.
a) Application b) Communication
c) System d) Word processing software
14. Entity is a _________.
a) Object of relation b) Present working model
c) Thing in real world d) Model of relation
15. Which declaration represents that “character data will consume the same number of bytes
as declared and is right padded”?
a) Char b) Varchar
 c) Both Char and Varchar d) None of these
16. Which of the join operations do not preserve non matched tuples?
a) Left outer join b) Right outer join c) Inner join d) Natural join
17. Express the decimal number 57 in binary.
a) 110011 b) 111001 c) 111010 d) 111101
18. The logical expression Y = A + A’B is equivalent to
a) Y = AB b) Y = A’B c) Y = A’ + B d) Y = A + B
19. What type of software is anti-virus software?
a) system software b) utility software
c) application software d) operating system

Section – History
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. Polished Stone tools were used in the

a) Palaeolithic age b) Mesolithic age c) Neolithic age d) Chalcolithic Age

22. One similarity between the ancient civilizations in Egypt and in China is that they developed
c) nomadic lifestyles b) nomadic lifestyles
c) democratic governments d) written forms of communication
23. When was Roman Republic founded?
c) 512 BC b) 509 BC c) 508 BC d) 500 BC
24. The primitive man learnt first to
c) make pottery b) grow plants c) hunt animals d) make fire
25. Which of the following site is located in Montgomery district of Punjab in Pakistan?
c) Harappa b) Mohenjo-Daro c) Rangapur d) Alamgirpur
26. What was the period of settlement of Aryans in India?
a) 3000-2750 B.C b) 2800-1750 B.C c) 2000-1500 B.C d) 3000-1000 B.C
27. What was the first and earliest among Vedas?
a) Rig Veda b) Sama Veda c) Yajur Veda d) Atharva Veda
28. During the later vedic age Aryans settled in
a) Deccan b) Narmada Tapati Do-ab
c) Brahmaputra Yamuna Do-ab d) Ganga Yamuna Do-ab
29. Among the following who is contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
a) Ajatsatru b) Bindusara c) Alauddin Khilji d) Babur
30. Where the Indus Valley Civilization was first noticed?
a) Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro b) Ropar
c) Kalibanga d) Lothal
31. Which language Mirabai’s compositions were written?
a) Hindi b) Bengali c) Malayalam d) Telugu
32. Vijayanagara empire was established in
a) 1307 b) 1318 c) 1336 d) 1348
33. The empire of Sher shah was divided into
a) Sarkars b) Pariganas c) Vishayas d) Nadus
34. Who was the head of revenue and financial departments in the Govt. of Sher Shah?
a) Diwan-i-Ariz b) Diwan-i-Kohi c) Diwan-i-Rasalat d) Diwan-i-Wazir
35. During the initial stages of the renaissance, the centre of all changes in Europe was in
a) England b) France c) Italy d) Portugal
36. Which event best represented the shift away from monarchial rule?
a) The Thirty Years’ War b) The Glorious Revolution
c) The Scientific Revolution d) The Second Defenestration of Prague
37. The term “English Civil War" is a misnomer because
a) There was no actual fighting b) The French and Dutch were involved
c) The Scots and Irish were involved d) Most of the conflict took part at sea
38. The winged woman personified
a) National colours of France
b) Act of becoming free
c) Personification of Law
d) Rays of the Sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance
39. Which cultures fought with the Zulus in the 19th century over the control of land in South
Africa?
a) German and French b) Indian and Belgian
c) British and Boer d) Ethiopian and Italian

40. First country to undergo industrial revolution is

a) Japan b) Britain c) Germany d) France
41. Who called 1857 Revolt as the First War of Indian Independence?
a) Dadabhai Naoroji b) V.D. Savarkar
c) B.K.Dutt d) Gopala Krishna Gokale
42. All of these were major battles of WWI except:
a) Battle of the Somme b) Battle of the Marne
c) Battle of Antietam d) Battle of Gallipoli
43. Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
a) Karl Marx b) Friedrich Engels c) Vladimir Lenin d) Trotsky
44. The British Government police arrested Gandhiji for the first time at
a) Ahmadabad b) Dandi c) Sabarmati d) Delhi
45. Who voted against the partition of India in the A.I.C.C. meeting held on 14 June 1947?
a) Sardar Patel b) Abul Kalam Azad
c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan d) Govind Vallabh Pant
46. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee?
a) N Gopalaswamy b) K.M Munshi c) N Madhava Rao d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
47. In which nation were the Nuremberg Laws passed?
a) Italy b) Germany c) The USA d) The USSR
48. Which of the following was least likely to provoke a direct military confrontation between
the U.S. and the U.S.S.R.?
a) The Berlin Airlift of 1948 b) The Cuban missile crisis of 1962
c) The construction of the Berlin Wall in 1961 d) The Korean War of 1950-1953
49. What did perestroika mean?
a) Restructuring b) Industrialization c) Information d) Democracy
50. The first Secretary General of the United Nations was:
a) Mrs. Vijai Lakshmi Pandit b) Trygve Lie
c) Dag hammarskjoeld d) U. Thant
51. Which part of India witnessed the revolt in 1857?
 a) North India b) South India c) Eastern India d) North east
52. Who had given slogan of “Do or Die” during Quit India Movement?
a) Jawarharlal Nehru b) Sardar Patel
c) B.R. Ambedkar d) Gandhi
53. Who was the first Englishman to become the president of INC was
a) George Yule b) William Wedderburn
c) Alfred Webb d) Henry Cotton
54. Who was known as the uncrowned prince of Maharashtra?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak b) Lala Lajpat Rai
c) Anad Mohan Bose d) All of these
55. __________ are the remains or impressions of a very old plant, animal or human which have
turned into stone.
a) Species b) Fossils c) Primates d) Evolution
56. The discovery of wheel was a special feature of which of the following ages
a) Neolithic age b) Paleolithic age c) Mesolithic age d) None of these
57. Microliths was a special feature of
a) Paleolithic b) Mesolithic c) Neolithic d) Chalcolithic

58. People of Indus valley civilizations had regular trade contact with –
a) Mesopotamia b) Egypt c) Greece d) Arab
59. Which is the principle element of Rigvedic religion?
a) Sacrifices b) Worship of fire c) Life after death d) Female goddesses
60. What was main crop of Northern Plains in ancient India
a) Rice b) Millet c) Pulses d) None of these

Section – Sociology
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
.
1. In Sociology, society refers to the
a) Members of a specific group b) Congregation of people
c) People with customs and laws d) Pattern of the norms of interaction
2. Who gave the concept of social static and social dynamics?
a) Karl Marx b) August Comte c) Herbert Spencer d) R. Dahrendorf
3. Which of the following is the correct statement?
a) Society is permanent
b) Society is neither seen nor touched
c) Society is mutual interaction and interrelation of individuals and groups
d) All of these
4. Groups are formed because of certain basic human
a) Desires b) Needs c) Interests d) Aims
5. Which of the following is a community?
a) A business organization b) A church c) A city d) A temple
6. Which of the following is an institution uniquely associated with the Indian sub-continent?
a) Marriage b) Caste c) Class d) Ethnicity
7. The pattern in which the bride leaves her home to live with the groom is called
a) Patrilocal Matrilocal c) Avunculocal d) Neolocal
8. The leading form of marriage is
a) Polygyny b) Polyandrous c) Monogamy d) Sororal Polygyny
9. The migration of men from the villages of the Himalayan region can lead to an unusual
proportion of ______________ families in the village.
a) Women-headed b) Men-headed
c) Both women-headed and men-headed d) Neither women-headed nor men-headed
10. Neither women-headed nor men-headed
a) Sharing b) Profit motive c) Solidarity d) Sense of obligation
11. Culture is understood in Sociology pertains to
a) Social heritage b) Fashion c) Religion d) Religion
12. Touching the feet of elders in India- is an instance of
a) Habit b) Culture complex c) Culture trait d) Culture element
13. Culture change refers to change in
a) Material aspects of culture only b) Non-material aspects of culture only
c) Any aspect of culture d) Important aspects of culture only
14. Training to get to adapt society is
a) Socialization b) Sanskritization c) Modernization d) Westernization

15. When does socialization process stop?

a) There is no certain age to stop b) There is no certain stage to stop
c) It never stops d) All of these
16. Which one of the following was created by Colonialism to play significant roles in
subsequent history in India?
a) New classes b) New communities
c) Both new classes and new communities d) Both new classes and new communities
17. Who attacked the practice of sati on the basis of both appeals to humanitarian and natural
rights doctrines as well as Hindu shastras?
a) Kandukiri Viresalingam b) Ram Mohan Roy
c) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan d) Ranade
18. Demographic data are important for the __________ of state policies, especially those for
economic development and general public welfare.
a) Planning b) Implementation
c) Both planning and implementation d) Neither planning nor implementation
19. The fertility rate refers to the number of live births per ________ women in the child-
bearing age group, usually taken to be 15 to 49 years.
a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10000 d) 100000
20. In India, several factors may be held responsible for the decline in the child sex ratio
including
a) Severe neglect of girl babies in infancy, leading to higher death rates
b) Sex specific abortions that prevent girl babies from being born
c) Female infanticide
d) All of these
21. Sociologists use the term social stratification to refer to
a) A system by which categories of people in a society are ranked in a hierarchy
b) Unequal distribution of resources
c) Both a system by which categories of people in a society are ranked in a hierarchy and
unequal distribution of resources
 d) Neither a system by which categories of people in a society are ranked in a hierarchy nor
unequal distribution of resources
22. Discrimination and exclusion experiences were common to the various socially discriminated
groups such as
a) Women b) Dalits c) Other oppressed castes and tribes d) All of these
23. Which of the following statement is true?
a) The untouchable castes are outside the caste hierarchy
b) The untouchables are considered to be so ‘impure’
c) In Indian languages, the term Dalit literally means ‘downtrodden’ and conveys the sense
of an oppressed people.
d) All of these
24. Which of the following Article contains provisions pertaining to the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
a) 338 b) 330 c) 46 d) 342
25. Which of the following Amendment is for introducing reservation for the Other Backward
Classes in institutions of higher education?
a) 91 b) 92 c) 93 d) 94
26. Which of the following implies not just changes in production systems, technological
innovations, density of settlements but also ‘a way of life’?
a) Industrialization b) Urbanisation
c) Both industrialization and urbanisation d) Westernization
27. Contemporary India has seen formation of caste associations and caste political parties.
What does it imply?
a) The Caste associations and caste political parties seek to press upon the state their
demands.
b) Such a changed role of caste has been described as secularisation of caste.
c) Both the Caste associations and caste political parties seek to press upon the state their
demands & such a changed role of caste has been described as secularisation of caste.
d) Neither the Caste associations and caste political parties seek to press upon the state
their demands nor such a changed role of caste has been described as secularisation of
caste.
28. In most regions of India, women are usually excluded from ownership of land, because of
the prevailing
a) Patrilineal kinship system and mode of inheritance.
b) Matrilineal kinship system and mode of inheritance.
c) Both patrilineal kinship system and mode of inheritance & matrilineal kinship system and
mode of inheritance.
d) Bilateral kinship system and mode of inheritance.
29. Important advances in technology and the world’s telecommunications infrastructure has
led to revolutionary changes in
a) Global trade
b) Global communication
c) Both global trade and global communication.
d) Neither global trade nor global communication
30. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is related to
a) Sexual harassment b) Domestic violence
c) LGBT (lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender) d) Rape
 31. In society pattern of relations is known as:
a) Social Structure b) Social System c) Social Function d) Social Action
32. Resocialization in total institutions occurs through:
a) Anticipatory socialization b) Degradation ceremonies
c) Manifest functions d) Social development
33. Earlier nomination for Sociology was:
a) Social Physics b) Anthropology c) Social Type d) Social morphology
34. August Comte has given which perspective for society development?
a) Cyclical b) Functional c) Structural d) Evolutionary
35. A sociologist defines society as a group of people who reside in a defined area, share a culture,
and who:
a) Interact b) Work in the same Industry
c) Speak different languages d) Practice a recognized religion
36. Forgiving factor in community life is:
a) Common sentiments b) Common ideology
c) Common Culture d) Common habits of members
37. Culture is understood in Sociology pertains to
a) Fashion b) Social heritage c) Religion d) Etiquette
38. Which of the following is indirect process?
a) Cooperation b) Conflict c) Competition d) Assimilation
39. _________ are socially shared conceptions of what a group or society considers good, right,
and desirable
a) Values b) Norms c) Mores d) Folkways
40. Mead suggests that the self is an ongoing process that combines the "I" and the "me." The
"Me" refers to:
a) The spontaneous force that fosters unpredictable behavior.
b) The image we have of how other people react to us.
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

Section – Psychology
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In psychology 1879 is famous for

a) Structuralism school of thought
b) Establishment of first psychological laboratory in Leipzig
c) First psychological Journal
d) First Psychological department
2. Statement that Psychology should investigate the function or purpose of consciousness is
concerned to
a) Behaviourism b) Structuralism c) Functionalism d) Associationism
3. After identification of problem researcher proceeds by developing tentative answer to
problem, which is known as
A) Goal b) Objective c) Design d) Hypothesis
4. The main body of the nerve cell is
a) Soma b) Nucleus c) Dendrites d) Axon
5. At the time of conception, the organism inherits how many chromosomes?
a) 24 b) 23 c) 46 d) 48
6. Night vision is possible through
a) Rods b) Cones
c) Optic nerve d) Both rods and cones
7. The bottom-up approach of perception lays emphasis on the feature of
a) Stimulus b) Individual c) Environment d) Medium
8. Ivan Pavlov is important in psychology because he
a) Discovered the principles of classical conditioning
b) Discovered the principles of operant conditioning
c) Was the first to understand the implications of classical conditioning for drug tolerance.
d) Won a Nobel prize for his work in animal digestion.
9. Procedural memory is a sub-type of
a) Short term memory b) Working memory
c) Sensory memory d) Long term memory

10. Trace decay theory of forgetting is also known as

a) Interference theory b) Disuse theory
c) Retrieval failure d) Encoding failure
11. Thinking that is required to solve problem which have only one solution is known as
a) Divergent thinking b) Convergent thinking
c) Creative thinking d) Lateral thinking
12. Tendency to solve any problem by already tried steps is known as
a) Lack of motivation b) Mental set
c) Problem set d) Functional fixedness
13. Involvement of prolonged repetition of a variety of consonants and vowel sounds by six
months old children is identified as
a) Babbling b) Crying c) Cooing d) Echolalia
14. Communicating with yourself is referred as
a) Dynamic communication b) Interpersonal communication
c) Intrapersonal communication d) Non-verbal communication
15. The term instinct denotes which of the following?
a) Motive behaviour b) Learned pattern of behaviour
c) Inborn patterns of behaviour d) None of these
16. Frustration-aggression hypothesis was proposed by
a) David McClelland b) Abraham Maslow
c) R. B. Cattell d) Dollard and Miller
17. The technique which give you opportunity to calm your nerves and reframe your thoughts is
identified as
a) Exercise b) Rehearsal c) Relaxation d) Expressing
18. Charles Spearman purposed which of the following intelligence theory?
a) Tri-dimensional theory b) Uni-factor theory
c) Two-factor theory d) Multiple factor theory
19. The term refers to the attributes which make a person different from others is described as
a) Social identity b) Personal identity
c) Self-esteem d) Personal self
20. The conditions in which there are physical symptoms in absence of physical disease are
explained as
a) Dissociative disorder b) Compulsive disorder
C) Somatoform disorder D) Mania
21. The repeated process of using confrontation, clarification, and interpretation is known as
a) Working through b) Therapy c) Reinforcement d) Treatment
22. The reaction to external stressor is known as
a) Stress b) Response c) Strain d) Strictus
23. Which groups indicate to an individual the norms regarding acceptable behaviour?
a) Reference b) Family c) Media d) School
24. The belief that I can do it – is described as
a) Self-efficacy b) Self-esteem c) Ego d) Predictability
25. The view of the environment as something to be respected and valued rather than exploited
is known as
a) Minimalist perspective b) Instrumental perspective
c) Spiritual perspective d) Environmental design
26. When individual’s behavioural expressions are consistent with what he values and the way
he feels and relates to his inner self-image is explained as
a) Paraphrasing b) Authenticity c) Empathy d) Observation
27. Cohesiveness in a group refers to
a) Differences b) Togetherness c) Similarities d) Positivity
28. Structuralism school of thought in psychology was primarily propounded by
a) Wilhelm Wundt b) Darwin c) Titchener d) Fachner
29. When performance on specific task is influenced by mere presence of others – is described
as
a) Arousal b) Social facilitation
c) Co-action d) Social loafing
30. Personality prone to cancer is categorized as
a) Type-A b) Type-B
c) Type-C d) Type-D
31. Informed consent is typically obtained:
a) during an experiment b) before an experiment
c) after an experiment d) it is not typical to obtain informed consent
32. Another name for a Likert Scale is?
a) Interview protocol b) Event sampling
c) Summated rating scale d) Ranking
33. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to anyone but researcher and staff?
a) Confidentiality b) Anonymity c) Ethics d) Discretion
34. In which parts of brain the feeling of hunger and full are felt?
a) Hypothalamus ; Cerebral Cortex
b) Lateral Hypothalamus ; ventromedial hypothalamus
c) Lateral Hypothalamus ; Cerebral Cortex
d) Cerebral cortex ; ventromedial hypothalamus
35. This gland are triangular shaped and located on top of each kidney. Which gland is this?
a) Pineal body b) Pancreas c) Adrenal gland d) Thyroid gland
36. Which system allows the body to function in a’ rest and digest’ state ?
a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Peripheral nervous system
 c) Automatic nervous system d) Parasympathetic Nervous system
37. Studies of conformity indicate that people are more apt to be influenced by others, if they
a) Are concerned about the approval of others
b) Have low needs for certainty and structure
c) Are in temporary rather than established groups
d) Are in very large groups
38. Theory of casual attribution has been propounded by
a) Harold Kelly b) Keith E Davis c) Edward E Jones d) Kurf Lewin
39. According to a majority of developmental psychologists, basic elements in development
would comprise
a) Equilibration, maturation and experience
b) Maturation, experience and social transmission
c) Experience, social transmission and equilibration
d) Reciprocation, maturation and utilization
40. Which form of processing is used for Deutsch (1963) model?
a) Serial processing b) Parallel processing
c) Top-down processing d) Cascading processing

Section – Geography
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Movement of the earth on its axis is called as

a) Rotation b) Revolution c) Resolution d) Cycle
2. Piece of land all sides surrounded by water
a) Island b) Lake c) Peninsula d) Isthmus
3. In winter the western cyclonic disturbances originate from which sea?
a) Mediterranean Sea b) Indian Ocean
c) Caspian Sea d) Arabian Sea
4. The position if the sun, the earth and the moon are in straight line is called
a) Cliff b) Seiche c) Conjunction d) Syzygy
5. Consider the following statements and identify the right ones.
i. Warm currents bring warm water from Polar Regions to equator region.
ii. Cold currents bring cold water from equatorial regions to Polar Regions.
a) i only b) ii only c) Both i and ii d) None of these
6. Choose the false statement among the following statements
a) World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 was subsequently called the
Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World.
b) The issue of Natural Disaster was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 and was
finally formalised at the world conference on Disaster management in 1994.
c) The Tropical cyclone of 1971 in India is the deadliest one till date.
d) Unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters
that are the results of indirect human actions.
7. Who believed that population would overpass food production?
a) Immanuel Wallerstein b) Thomas Malthus
c) WW Rostow d) Homer Hoyt
8. Abundant food for fishes are available near ___________.
 a) Continental shelves b) Continental slopes
c) Trenches d) None of these
9. What is the world ranking of Indian Railway network?
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
10. Theory of comparative advantage was presented by
a) Adam Smith b) Ricardo c) Hicks d) Arshad
11. Which of the following is the highest peak of Satpura Range?
a) Gurushikhar b) Dhupgarh c) Pachmarhi d) Mahendragiri
12. On the south side, India is bounded by the Indian Ocean, by the Arabian Sea on the
southwest and the __________ on the southeast.
a) Brahmaputra b) Arabian sea
c) Bay of Bengal d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
13. Which one of the following warm ocean currents replaces the Peruvian cold currents?
a) Kuroshio b) El Nino c) South Pacific Currents d) Gulf Stream
14. Forests made of trees that shed leaves as temperature decreases are classified as
a) Hot desert vegetation b) Tropical monsoon forests
c) Coniferous forests d) Temperate deciduous forests
15. Which of the following statements regarding lacerate soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 3 only
16. Which is the state with highest number of Scheduled Castes in India?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Bihar c) Tamil Nadu d) Uttar Pradesh
17. River Chao Phraya is located in
a) Cologne b) London c) Bangkok d) Cairo
18. An underdeveloped economy is characterized by
a) High per capita real income
b) Large proportion of labour force in the tertiary sector
c) State of deprivation of large proportion of population
d) All of these
19. When was Micro Irrigation launched?
a) March 2002 b) March 2002 c) January 2004 d) January 2006
20. Assertion (A): Nearly 30 % of the country’s production of bauxite comes from Madhya
Pradesh.
Reason (R): Bauxite deposits are found in Amarkantak Plateau in Shahdol district, Maikala
hills, the plateau region of Sarguja-Bilaspur-Raigarh-Katni, Durg and Balaghat region etc.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) Both A & R is not true
21. When did India globally become the 7th largest vehicle manufacturer?
a) 2007 b) 2008 c) 2009 d) 2010
22. The very first five year plan of India was based on the model of
a) Mahalanobis model b) Harrod Domar Model
 c) Harrod Domar Model d) None of these
23. When was International Airport Authority of India (IAAI) set up?
a) 1960 b) 1972 c) 1985 d) 1985
24. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is ________.
a) Railways b) Iron and Steel plants c) Airways d) none of these
25. What is source of chlorofluorocarbons?
a) Aerosol sprays foams
b) Exhaust fumes of motor vehicles
c) Incomplete burning of wood
d) Both aerosol sprays foams and exhaust fumes of motor vehicles
26. Which of the following statements is true about the capabilities of GIS?
a) Data capture and preparation
b) Data management, including storage and maintenance
c) Data manipulation and analysis
d) All of these
27. Considering grid lines of maps, horizontal lines are classified as
a) Northings b) southings c) eastings d) westings
28. Kinds of photographs that are used by geographers includes
a) Satellite images b) landscape photographs
c) Aerial photographs d) all of these
29. What is the unit of compactness of a region?
a) Meter b) Meter-2 c) No units d) Meter-1
30. Physical properties of length, area and volume is known as
a) Vertical direction b) positions
c) Dimensions d) directions
31. Who developed systematic geography?
a) Alexander Von Humboldt b) Karl Ritter
c) Kamari Sample d) Alfred Hettner
32. Which theory is most widely accepted regarding origin of the universe at present?
a) Collision hypothesis b) Big Bang Theory
c) Nebular hypothesis d) Binary Theory
33. Which plate is being subducted beneath western South America?
a) The Pacific plate b) The South American plate
c) The Nazca plate d) The South Atlantic plate
34. Which of the following landform is made by deposition by ground water?
a) Lapies b) Pools c) Sinkholes d) Stalagmites
35. What is normal lapse rate at 1000 metre?
a) 5.4 degree Celsius b) 2.5 degree Celsius
c) 7.5 degree Celsius d) 6.5 degree Celsius
36. Which type of climate exist in Plateau Station, Antarctica ,79oS according to Koeppen?
a) Tundra climate b) Ice cap climate
c) Taiga climate d) Cold climate with roots
37. What would be the influence on the weather conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high
pressure develops over the North-Western part of India?
1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this high-pressure area.
2. The Northern plain would become cold.
3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow during the day time.
 4. There would be torrential rains brought by thunderstorms.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 1 & 2 c) 1, 3 & 4 d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
38. Which term is used for virgin vegetation, which have come from outside India are termed as
exotic plants?
a) Indigenous plants b) Endemic species
c) Exotic Plants d) None of these
39. Why are the southern slopes in Himalayan region covered with thick vegetation?
a) On account of more exposure to sunlight
b) On account of more precipitation
c) On account of less exposure to colder winds
d) All of these
40. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in which of the following places?
a) Jhelum Valley b) Sapt Kosi Valley
c) Alakananda Valley d) Teesta Valley

Section – Agriculture
This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Total production of rice in 2016-2017

a) 110.15 million tonne b) 98.38 million tonne
c) 22.95 million tonne d) 137.16 million tonne
2. The soil moisture content at which plants can no longer obtain enough moisture to meet
transpiration requirements; and remain wilted unless water is added to the soil, is known as
a) Field capacity b) Permanent wilting point
c) Ultimate wilting point d) Saturation capacity
3. Long term persistent herbicide
a) Pendimethalin b) 2, 4-D c( Atrazine d) Almix
4. The proportion of different sized particles in soil called
a) Soil texture b) Soil structure c( Soil lattice d) Soil porosity
5. The core metal in chlorophyll is
a) Fe b) Mg c) Mn d) Zn
6. Which one of the following organic manures has the narrowest C/N ratio
a) Biogas slurry b) Farm Yard Manure
c) Compost d) Groundnut cake
7. The nitrogenous fertilizer manufactured in India which occupies first place in productivity
today is
a) Ammonium sulphate b) Ammonium phosphate
c) Urea d) Calcium ammonium sulphate
8. Terracing is an effective method of soil conservation
a) Plain area b) Desert area c) Hilly area d) Riverine area
9. Which one of the following micro-organisms is responsible for maximum nutrient cycling in
soil?
a) Bacteria b) Actinomycetes c( Fungi d) Algae
10. When the soil is known as highly strong acidic
a) 6.1-6.5 b( 5.6-6.0 c) 5.1-5.5 d) Less than 4.5
11. Which one of the following soil is best for vegetation cultivation?
a) Sandy b) Sandy loam c) Clay loam d) Clay
12. Roots of plants can breathe easily in loose soil since:
a) Plants growing in loose soil have better exchange through aerial parts
b) Lot of air remains trapped in loose soil.
c) Loose soil traps fresh air produced by plants growing in it
d) Microorganisms help to trap air in loose soil only
13. Azolla is in symbiotic association with
a) Fern and blue green algae b) Broyophyta and blue green algae
c) Fungi and blue green algae d) Nostoc and blue green algae
14. Primary tillage operation aim to:
a) Improved soil moisture b) good seed bed for sowing
c) Both a and b d) None of these
15. White colour of soil is due to the presence of
a) Silica b) Iron c) Manganese oxide d) All of these
16. Organic carbon in soil measured by:
a) Kzeldahl method b) Olsen’s method
c) Flame photometer d) Walkle and black method
17. Photorespiration is inhibited by
a) 2, 4-Dinitrophenol b) α-hydroxy sulphonates
c) CMU and DCMU d) None of these
18. Central Soil Salinity Research Institute is located at
a) Karnal b) Bihar c) Dehradun d) Jodhpur
19. How much NPK% presents in groundnut cake?
a) 3%N,1%P,2%k b) 7.3%N, 1.5%P and 1.3 %K
c) 0.70%N, 0.25%P,0.55%K d) 3.9%N,1.8%P,.1%K
20. The Green Revolution has mainly been successful for
a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Gram
21. The chemicals which contain less than 25% of one of the primary nutrients are known as:
a) Complex fertilizer b) Mixed fertilizer
c) Low analysis fertilizer d) High analysis fertilizer
22. Fenugreek is inoculated with which rhizobium strain
a) Rhizobium melilotii b) Rhizobium trifoli
c) Rhizobium leguminosorum d) Rhizobium phaseoli
23. How many agro-climatic (Livestock farming) zones in India
a) 20 b) 15 c) 18 d) 16
24. Father of White Revolution is known
a) Dr. Verghese Kurien b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
c) Dr. norman E barlaug d) Dr. Ravi Prakesh
25. Which cattle breed has highest fat in milk?
a) Holstein Friesian b) Jersey
c) Brown swiss d) Tharpakar
26. Mehsana breed is evolved out of crossbreeding between the
a) Surti X Murrah b) Surti X Jafrabadi
c) Mehsana X Murrah d) Nagpuri X Nili-ravi
27. Full form of FMD is______
a) Foot and Mouth Disease b) Fever and Mucus Disease
 c) Both a & b d) None of these
28. Intervenous chlorosis in vegetables is caused due to the deficiency of
a) Fe b) Mg c) S d) N
29. Continuous salivation is a symptom of
a) Paralysis b) FMD c) HS d) Mouth Lesions
30. High Security Animal Disease Laboratory, is situated at
a) Bhopal b) Bangalore c) Karnal d) Delhi
31. Which of the following soil ecosystem processes tends to raise the soil pH (make the soil
more alkaline and less acid)?
a) Oxidation of nitrogen compounds
b) Uptake of cations by plants
c) Microbial decomposition of organic matter
d) Acid weathering of minerals to release cations such as Ca2+ and Mg2+ that are then
adsorbed by the soil colloids
32. The soil physical property that describes the density of the soil's solids only is called
a) Bulk Density b) Texture c) Porosity d) Particle Density
33. Based on durability of aggregates, soil structure is of _____ principal grades
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
34. Nitrogen fixation by the microorganisms can be detected by adopting the approach of
a) demonstrating growth in a nitrogen free medium
b) cultivating the microorganisms in the presence of nitrogen labeled with isotropic nitrogen
c) measuring 15N2 by mass spectrometer
d) all of the above
35. Primary aims of tillage
a) Seedbed preparation b) Weed control
c) Reduction of mechanical impedence d) All of the above
36. The term functional nutrient was introduced by
a) Nicholas b) Justus von leibig c) Mitscherlich d) Arnon and Stout
37. Which of the following minerals helps in improving both the quantity and quality of dry
matter in leafy vegetables and protein in grain crops?
a) Iron b) Copper c) Nitrogen d) Molybdenum
38. National Milk day is celebrated on which of the following day?
a) 23rd November b) 26th December c) 26th November d) 23rd March
39. Chicken is also called ____meat?
a) Red Meat b) Black Meat c) White Meat d) None of the above
40. The time between conception and parturition is called ______
a) reproduction period b) gestation period c) feed period d) pregnancy

Section – Physical Education

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
.
1. Special Olympics Bharat is for
a) Athletes b) Sportsmen c) Intellectual Disabled Children d) None of these
2. First college of Physical Education in India
a) LNUPE b) YMCA c) LPU d) None of these
3. The method to incorporate positivity in life is through
 a) Jumping b) Meditation c) Rolling d) None of these
4. What has the new dimensions to physical education in recent times?
a) Peak performance b) Thirst of power
c) Thirst for Olympic Gold d) None of these
5. When was first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award awarded?
a) 1991-92 b) 1997-98 c) 2001-02 d) None of these
6. ‘Veda’ is derived from ‘vid’ which means
a) To understand b) To know c) To see d) To hear
7. Holding of breath is also known as
a) Rachak b) Kumbhak c) Purak d) None of these
8. The world’s most popular stimulant drug found in tea and coffee
a) Alcohol b) Calcium c) Caffeine d) Minerals
9. Full form of NADA
a) National Anti-Doping Agency b) National Academy of Dance and Athletics
c) National Association of Dance Academy d) National Anti-Defence Agency
10. Need of Positive Sports Environment is for
a) Optimum Sports Performance b) Sleep c) Riots d) None of these
11. Which are the signs of bad health?
a) Poor posture b) Immune system disorder c) Obesity d) All of these
12. BMI is
a) Body Muscle Index b) Body Membrane Index
c) Bio Mass Index d) Body Mass Index
13. Shoulder joint is a type of
a) Ball Socket joint b) Hinge joint c) Saddle joint d) None of these
14. See-Saw is an example of
a) 1st class lever b) 2nd class lever c) 3rd class lever d) 4th class lever
15. The science of mind and behaviour is
a) Physiology b) Anatomy c) Psychology d) All of these
16. Law of Satisfaction is also known as
a) Law of exercise b) Law of use c) Law of effect d) None of these
17. Fartlek which means speed play is a variation of
a) Repetition b) Interval c) Fast Continuous d) Fartlek
18. The process of the body getting accustomed to a particular exercise or training program
through repeated exposure is called
a) Adaptation b) Load c) Overload d) Recovery
19. In a knock-out tournament, how many matches will be played if teams are 15
a) 12 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16
20. India’s major mineral resources include
a) Coal b) Zinc c) Mica d) Bauxite
21. Building Blocks of muscles are
a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Fats d) None of these
22. Inward curve of the lower back is called
a) Kyphosis b) Lordosis c) Scoliosis d) None of these
23. Motor development is affected by
a) Heredity b) Environment
c) Both heredity and environment d) None of these
24. Psychological aspects of women athlete includes
 a) More goal oriented b) Less aggressive c) Fast adaptation d) All of these
25. Full form of AAHPER
a) American Association for Heat, Physics Education and Recreation
b) Asian Association for Health, Physical Education and Rest
c) American Association for Health, Physical Education and Recreation
d) None of these
26. Speed can be measured through
a) 50 yard dash b) Shuttle run c) 800m run d) Reach test
27. Icing can help
a) Reduce inflammation b) Reduce pain c) Blood clotting d) All of these
28. Bruise is a secondary name for
a) Strain b) Sprain c) Contusion d) Laceration
29. When a bone breaks into more than two fragments/parts
a) Hairline b) Simple c) Comminuted d) Oblique
30. Work done in a unit of time is known as
a) Power b) Volume c) Force d) Velocity
31. Muscular endurance is defined as
a) Peak ability of a muscle to generate force
b) An ability you are born with and cannot train
c) The ability of a muscle or muscle group to generate force repeatedly
d) The ability of the heart to provide oxygen rich blood to the muscles
32. Changing one's lifestyle requires
a) Awareness of factors that affect your health
b) Behavior modification
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
33. Wellness includes all of the following EXCEPT
a) Occupational health b) Physical health
c) Environmental health d) Spiritual health
34. Which of the following is FALSE with respect to “content standards”?
a) They are taught in many other areas in the school’s curriculum
b) They convey what knowledge students are expected to possess
c) They are the framework of a physical education program
d) They determine the focus and direction of the program
35. Increasing muscle size and strength is dependent on
a) Caloric intake b) Protein intake c) training d) All of these
36. A sprain can occur by
a) observing a warmup b) watching a kickboxing class
c) twisting a joint while running d) sitting for too long
37. Joint dysfunction is characterized by
a) Mechanical loss of normal joint play
b) Prolonged contraction due to painful stimulus
c) Increased pressure in myofascial compartment
d) Adherence of collagen fibers surrounding structure
38. School of psychology most closely related to learning theory is
a) Cognitive school b) Gestalt School
c) Behaviorist School d) Psycho analytical school
 39. Who amongst the following introduced the is-kinetic method of training for the development
of strength?
a) Plato b) J. J. Parrine c) B. P. Coubertin d) Jacobson
40. She holds the most Grand Slam titles in singles, doubles and mixed doubles, who is this
amazing tennis player?
a) Serena Williams b) Venus Williams c) Chloe Kim d) Maria Sharapova

Section – Political Science

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The UN general assembly president serves the office for

a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 1.5 years d) 2 years
2. Perquisites for the development of international organization was universally accepted in
a) 19th century b) 16th century c) 17th century d) 20th century
3. Which conference terminated the thirty year war?
a) League of the nation’s b) Conference of Westphalia
c) European conferences d) International conferences
4. The Hague conferences also aimed at
a) Procedures b) Conducting conferences
c) International relations d) International disputes
5. International agencies were created by
a) Bilateral treaties b) Multilateral treaties
c) Voluntary organizations d) None of these
6. Which organ passes the budget of the United Nation?
a) The Economic and Social Council b) The Trusteeship Council
c) The Security Council d) The General Assembly
7. Which of the following is not main organ of United Nations?
a) International Court of Justice b) Economic and Social Council
c) Secretariat d) International Monetary fund
8. The Security Council has primary responsibility under the UN Charter for
a) Maintenance of international peace and security
b) Decisions on important questions
c) Admission of new members
d) Budgetary matters
9. The Economic and Social Council is the principal body for
a) Coordination b) Policy review c) Policy dialogue d) All of these
10. The Secretary-General is chief administrative officer of the Organization, appointed by
a) Security Council b) Economic and Social Council
c) The General Assembly d) Trusteeship Council
11. First specialized agency of the UN in 1946
a) ILO b) WTO c) UNDP d) UNESCO
12. What was the need to create UNICEF in 1946?
a) To help children to educate b) To help the emergency needs of children
c) To help them survive war in Europe d) To provide food to malnutrition
13. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly?
a) Lord Atlee b) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Wavell d) Lord Minto
14. What was the exact constitutional status of the Indian Republic on 26th January, 1950?
a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
15. The Indian Constitution borrowed by idea of Directive Principles of State Policy from the
Constitution of
a) USSR b) France c) Switzerland d) Ireland
16. The Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens can be suspended by the
a) Parliament b) President
c) Supreme Court d) President in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
17. NIEO relates to
a) A regional grouping b) An international sports organization
c) An economic concept d) None of these
18. Which of the following is one way in which the Cold War affected American life?
a) Americans were united on the best way to conduct foreign policy
b) Fear of communism created a climate of suspicion in the nation
c) Reduced spending on defence freed up money for social programs
d) Only a few American soldiers lost their lives in wars
19. Which one of the following rights was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights after the
inauguration of the Constitution?
a) Right against exploitation b) Right to freedom of religion
c) Right to property d) Right to constitutional remedies
20. Which one of the following writs is important in protecting personal freedom?
a) Habeas Corpus b) Mandamus c) Certiorari d) Quo-Warranto
21. When was the first five year plan of India started?
a) 1949 b) 1950 c) 1952 d) 1951
22. When was plan holiday declared?
a) After the third plan b) After the fourth plan
c) After the fifth plan d) After the sixth plan
23. Who was appointed as congress president on maximum occasions?
a) Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari b) Motilal Nehru
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Vallabhbhai Patel
24. Which Article grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir under the Constitution of India?
a) Article 352 b) Article 323 c) Article 370 d) Article 368
25. Which Political Party was founded by Ram Vilas Paswan?
a) Samajwadi Party b) Indian National Lok Dal
c) All India Forward Bloc d) Lok Janshakti Party
26. What does JD(U) stand for?
a) Janata Dal(union) b) Janata Dal(united) c) Janata Dal(unity) d) Janata Dal(unified)
27. Who is regarded as the head of the Indian state?
a) Prime Minister b) President c) Chief Justice of India d) None of these
28. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Governor?
a) Chief Minister b) President
c) Chief Justice of India d) Chief Justice of concerned State High Court
29. Headquarter of 'North Atlantic Treaty Organization' is located in
a) California b) Brussels, Belgium c) Panama d) Washington
 30. Which of the following is an example of containment?
a) The Soviet Union set up a satellite state in Poland.
b) The Allies divided Germany into four zones.
c) The United States helped Greece prevent a communist revolution.
d) North Korea invaded South Korea.
31. What is the meaning of "social equality" in the Indian Constitution?
a) Lack of opportunities
b) Lack of equality
c) Equal opportunities for all sections of the societies
d) None of these
32. The Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens did not form a part of the original Constitution and
were added to the Constitution by the
a)24th amendment b) 39th amendment
c) 42nd amendment d) 44th amendment
33. Which one of the following is an original and extensive jurisdiction given to the Supreme Court
by the constitution of India?
a) Hearing criminal cases of appeal b) Advising the Union Cabinet
c) Hearing revenue cases of appeal d) Enforcing Fundamental Rights
34. Which is the highest court of appeal in India?
a) Supreme Court b) President c) High Court d) Privy Council
35. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336?
a) Sikh Community b) Muslim Community
c) Hindu Community d) Anglo-Indian Community
36. Who was appointed as congress president on maximum occasions?
a) Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari b) Motilal Nehru
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) Vallabhbhai Patel
37. Goa and Daman Diu was ruled by _______ before 1961.
a) British b) Denmark c) Portuguese d) France
38. The Constitution of India was adopted on
a) 26 January 1950 b) 26 January 1947 c) 15 August 1947 d) 13 December 1949
39. When was the word "armed rebellion" added to the Constitution to declare a National
Emergency?
a) After 44th Constitution Amendment Act
b) After 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
c) After 40th Constitution Amendment Act
d) After 38th Constitution Amendment Act
40. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions:
a) of all the people b) of people in the developed countries
c) of workers in the developing countries d) none of these

Section – Public Administration

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

a) Dr. B R Ambedkar b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Mahatma Gandhi d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
2. The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the?
a) Politics only
b) Amendment of the Constitution only
c) Introduction or preface to the Constitution
d) Directive Principles of State Policy only
3. The fundamental rights are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
a) Part I b) Part II c) Part IV d) Part III
4. The fundamental duties were added in the Indian Constitution in:
a) 1976 b) 1978 c) 1980 d) 1990
5. The framers of the Indian Constitution have borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of
State Policy from:
a) England b) Ireland c) USA d) Japan
6. Who is the first citizen of India?
a) Prime Minister b) Governor c) President d) Vice-President
7. Prime Minister shall be appointed by the:
a) Chief Justice of India b) Vice-President c) Governor d) President
8. The Prime Minister’s Office is headed politically by the Prime Minister and administratively
by the:
a) Principal Secretary b) Chief Secretary
c) Joint Secretary d) Deputy Secretary
9. When the Lok Sabha passes a no confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.........?
a) All the ministers elected from the Lok Sabha have to resign
b) All the ministers elected from the Rajya Sabha have to resign
c) both a and b
d) Only the Prime Minister has to resign
10. Which of the following is not a wing of Cabinet Secretariat?
a) Civil Wing b) Military Wing
c) Administrative Wing d) Intelligence Wing
11. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
a) President b) Parliament
c) Council of Minister d) Supreme Court
12. In a case, if the same person is appointed as the governor of two or more states, the
emoluments and allowances payable to him will bear by:
a) One of the two states decided by the President
b) The first state in which he was appointed
c) Both the states shared by in such proportion as determined by the President of India
d) The second state in which he has been appointed
13. Which of the following post is hold by the Chief Minister?
a) Chairman of the State Planning Board
b) Member of National Development Council
c) Chief Spokesperson of the State Government
d) All of the above
14. Who provides oath to other ministers of the state other than the Chief Minister?
a) Prime Minister b) Speaker of the assembly
c) Chief Justice of the High Court d) Governor
15. The most important department in the State Secretariat is-
a) Home b) Finance c) General Administration d) Personal
16. Which one of the following is not the function of the state secretariat?
a) To assist the minister in the formulation of policy
b) To act as a channel of communication between one government and another
c) To prepare drafts of legislation to be introduced in the assembly
d) To assist the legislature in its secretariat work
17. The Chief Secretary in the state secretariat is appointed by-
a) The Governor b) The President c) Chief Minister d) None of these
18. Which one of the following was the first committee to demand constitutional recognition
for Panchayats?
a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee b) Ashok Mehta Committee
c) Santhanam Committee d) G.V.K.Rao Committee
19. SC/ST seats are reserved in Panchayats on the basis of
a) Population b) Governments’ Interest
c) Funds allocated d) NGO’s intervention
20. Which of the following is not a Civil Right?
a) Right to Life b) Right to Education
c) Right to Divorce d) Right to Marriage
21. An applicant making a request under RTI Act should
a) intimate the reasons for seeking information
b) be personally present to collect information
c) intimate the location of the information
d) None of the above
22. At present, institutions for the redressal of citizen's grievances in India include:
a) Supreme Court and the Lokpal
b) Administrative Tribunals and the Lokpal
c) Lokayukta and the Supreme Court
d) Lokpal and the Lokayuktas
23. Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of:
a) well-off consumers b) poor consumers
c) small producers d) big producers
24. The basic outcome of democracy is
a) Political, social and economic outcome
b) Military outcome
c) Restricted and limited welfare policies.
d) Elimination of poverty
25. In India, district administration is a legacy of the:
a) Mughal Period b) British Period c) Vedic Period d) None of the Above
26. The office of the District Collector was introduced by:
a) Robert Clive b) Lord Cornwallis
c) Lord Wellesley d) Warren Hastings
27. Duties of the Deputy Commissioner as a District Collector includes:
a) Land assessment and Land acquisition
b) Collection of land revenue
c) Collection of income tax dues, excise duties, irrigation dues etc.
d) All of the above
28. Which factors are responsible for the decline of the District Collector’s prestige and
authority after independence?
 a) Growth in the number of Departments
b) The emergence of Panchayati Raj System
c) Change in the form of the government
d) All of the above
29. District Rural Development Agency scheme was launched as a:
1. Poverty alleviation program
2. Agriculture development program
3. Rural Development program
a) 1 only b) 1 & 2 c) 2 & 3 d) 1,2 & 3
30. Which among the following Article/s of Directive Principles of State Policy mentions about
the village panchayats?
a) Article 38 b) Article 39 c) Article 40 d) Article 41
31. Which statement regarding the tenure of judges of the Supreme Court is not correct?
a) Judge of the Supreme Court can remain in office till the age of 65 years
b) On the recommendation of Parliament, he can be removed by the President
c) Judge of the Supreme Court gives his resignation letter to the Chief Justice
d) Supreme Court judge can be removed only in the condition of misconduct
32. The oath of office to the governor is administered by:
a) The President of India
b) The Chief Justice of the concerned state high court
c) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d) None of the above
33. Who determines the salary and allowances of the Chief Minister?
a) Governor b) State Legislature c) President d) Parliament
34. In which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India is the principle of collective
responsibility of the State Council of Ministers enshrined?
a) Art. 164 b) Art. 166 c) Art. 168 d) Art. 169
35. The directorate in the state administration is-
a) Policy Making Agency b) Executive Agencies
c) A statutory Agency d) All the above
36. Who was the first Chief Secretary in India?
a) George Clinton b) G.H. Barlow
c) Lord Wellesley d) Lord Mayo
37. Which of the following described as a Residual Legatee in the state-
a) Director b) Home Secretary
c) Under Secretary d) Chief Secretary
38. In order to ensure free and fair elections and to conduct all elections to the Panchayats, the
power is vested with
a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
b) Chief Minister of the State
c) State Election Commission
d) Chief Secretary of the State
39. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
a) Larger Urban Area
b) Urban Area
c) Smaller Urban Area
d) None of the above
 40. National Human Rights Commission is a......
a) Statutory body b) Constitutional body
c) Multilateral institution d) Both a and b

Section – Quantitative Aptitude and Logical Reasoning

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 2 marks and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. How many number from 1 to 100 are divisible by 2 and 3, but not by 6?
a) 83 b) 67 c) 51 d) None of these
2. A clothes company produces ‘abc’ metres of cloth everyday. In how many weeks will it be
able to produce ‘abcabc’ metres of cloth. A week consists of 7 working days.
a) 571 b) 771 c) 143 d) 717
3. The profit obtained by selling a book for Rs 56 is the same as the loss obtained by selling this
book for Rs 42. What is the cost price of the book?
a) Rs 40 b) Rs 49 c) Rs 50 d) None of these
4. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at
the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple
interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
a) Rs. 6400 b) Rs. 6500 c) Rs. 7200 d) Rs. 7500
5. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs.
1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he
would have gained by way of interest is:
a) Rs. 120 b) Rs. 121 c) Rs. 123 d) Rs. 122
6. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The
average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is:
a) 35.55 km/hr b) 36 km/hr c) 71.11 km/hr d) 71 km/hr
7. A work can be completed by P & Q together in 4 days. If P alone can complete the same
work in 12 days, in how many days can Q alone complete that work?
a) 3days b) 6days c) 8days d) 9days
8. A prism and a pyramid have the same base and the same height. Find the ratio of the
volumes of the prism and the pyramid.
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 3 c) 3 : 1 d) Cannot be determined
9. Find the value of question mark to complete the following series:
41, 83, 119, 143, 149, ?
a) 115 b) 113 c) 313 d) 131
10. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
a) CHRONRD b) DSOESPI c) ESJTPTF d) ESOPSID
11. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction
of Y, is P?
a) South b) West c) North d) None of These
12. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the
father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the
maternal uncle of Q?
a) Q - N + M x P b) P + S x N – Q c) P - M + N x Q d) Q - S % P
13. A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A?
 To answer this question which of the statements (i) and (ii) is necessary?
i. C is the brother of A and the son of E.
ii. F is the mother B.
a) Only i b) Only ii c) Both are required d) Either i or ii
14. If the sixth day of a month is Tuesday, what is the day on the 5th day prior to the 28th of
that month?
a) Thursday b) Friday c) Wednesday d) Saturday
15. Two bus tickets from city Amb to Sunhet and three tickets from city Amb to Dehra cost Rs.
77 but three tickets from city Amb to Sunhet and two tickets from city Amb to Dehra cost
Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities Sunhet and Dehra from Amb?
a) Rs. 4, Rs. 23 b) Rs. 13, Rs. 17 c) Rs. 15, Rs. 14 d) Rs. 17, Rs. 13
16. A car travelling with 5/7 of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find the
actual speed of the car.
a) 45 km/hr b) 25 km/hr c) 35 km/hr d) 30 km/hr
17. John and David take 15days and 10 days to complete a job working separately. In how many
days will they do the same work working together?
a) 3days b) 12days c) 6days d) 9days
18. A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 3 cm and height 5 cm is melted to form cones, each
of height 1 cm and base radius 1 mm. The number of cones is
a) 7500 b) 13500 c) 3500 d) 4500
19. Find the value of question mark to complete the following series:
1, 6, 13, 24, 41?
a) 77 b) 62 c) 66 d) 64
20. If in a code language. COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as LZQFHM, how
will MOULDING be written in that code?
a) CHMFINTK b) LNKTCHMF c) LNTKCHMF d) NITKHCMF

Section – General Awareness

This section contains 40 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question carries 1 mark and has four
choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Who has been named as the PETA India's Person of the Year 2019?
a) Shilpa Shetty b) Virat Kohli c) Akshay Kumar d) Anushka Sharma
2. The popular TV serial 'Neem ka Ped' was written by
a) Rahi Masoom Raza
b) Sharad Joshi
c) Ashapurna Devi
d) None of these
3. Which of the following won International Press Institute India award for excellence in
journalism?
a) NDTV b) Aaj tak c) ABP News d) Zee News
4. Which scientist discovered the radioactive element radium?
a) Isaac Newton b) Albert Einstein c) Benjamin Franklin d) Marie Curie
5. What is the full form of "BIOS"?
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Bureau of Information Science
c) Business Investment on Shares
 d) Broadcasting and Information Organisation
6. United Nations Environment Programme was established in
a) 1952 b) 1962 c) 1972 d) 1982
7. The 8th session of the Governing Body of International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for
Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) is being organized in which country?
a) Italy b) UAE c) Iran d) USA
8. Which of the following NID has not been declared as institution of national importance?
a) NID Gandhinagar
b) NID Amaravati
c) NID Bhopal
d) NID Kurukshetra
9. The 13th Asia Pacific Screen Awards were awarded in which country?
a) India b) Australia c) Japan d) Brazil
10. Full form of ICSID (member of World Bank Group) is
a) International Centre for Safety of Investor Documents
b) International Centre for Safety of Intergovernmental Disputes
c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
d) International Centre for Safety of Intergovernmental Development
11. "Thalaivi", is a biopic based on the life of which politician?
a) Arun Jaitley b) Indira Gandhi c) Jayalalithaa d) Sonia Gandhi
12. The Gathering Storm' is written by
a) Winston Churchill
b) George Washington
c) Voltaire
d) Romain Rolland
13. Which of the following bagged the Golden Leaf Award 2019?
a) Wan Ling Tea House Australia
b) Tobacco Board of India
c) Bash Tea Vietnam
d) Greendale Marketing
14. The 'Big Bang Theory' was given by which English physicist?
a) Albert Einstein b) Michael Skube c) George Gamow d) Roger Penrose
15. What is the full form of "CID"?
a) Common Investigation Department
b) Central Investigation Department
c) Crime Investigation Data
d) Crime Investigation Department
16. World Zoonoses Day is celebrated on:
a) 4 July b) 5 July c) 6 July d) 8 July
17. Major functions of 'IMF' are
a) Oversea's arrangements of fixed exchange rate
b) providing capital
c) providing leadership on health matters
d) both A and B
18. Who is the author of 'Hemant Karkare: A Daughters Memoir'?
a) Shanti Karkare
b) Jui Karkare Navare
 c) Bilavari Karkare
d) Shashwat-karkare
19. Which country has been given permission by India to use Chandipur test range?
a) Japan b) Singapore c) South Korea d) Indonesia
20. What is the full form of "SLV"?
a) Space Lattice Vector
b) Satellite Lesions Vulva
c) System Level Verification
d) Satellite Launch Vehicle
21. Who has been newly appointed as the country manager of Google India?
a) Mithlesh Kumar b) Ashish Deb Roy c) Manjeet Sandhu d) Sanjay Gupta
22. The television serial 'Charitraheen' is based on the famous novel of which of the following
authors?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhaya
c) Tara Sankar Bandhopadhya
d) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
23. NASSCOM Foundation's Social Innovation Forum (NSIF) award-2019 has been fetched by
which startup?
a) LetGo b) iXaamBee c) NotOnMap d) Pepsico
24. Who had an explosive idea and first patented DYNAMITE?
a) J. R. Gluber b) A. Nobel c) G. Fawks d) W. Bickford
25. What is the full form of "CSIR"?
a) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
b) Centre for Science and Industrial Research
c) Centre for Share and Investment Ratio
d) Council for Scientific and Informational Research
26. World Ozone Day is observed on
a) 16th August b) 16th September c) 16th October d) 16th December
27. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was founded in
a) 1946 b) 1949 c) 1944 d) 1945
28. Which city hosted annual Modi-Abe summit-2019?
a) Guwahati b) Vadodara c) Thiruvananthapuram d) Chandigarh
29. Kranji War Memorial is located in which country?
a) Ethiopia b) Singapore c) Mali d) Thailand
30. What is the full form of "BRIC"?
a) Bangladesh, Romania, Indonesia and Cambodia
b) Botswana, Rwanda, Ivory Coast and Croatia
c) Bangladesh, Romania, India and Cambodia
d) Brazil, Russia, India and China
31. Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which among the following Sports?
a) Badmintonb) Hockey c) Table Tennis d) Golf
32. The word “Agricultural shot” is known to be used sometimes in which among the following
sports?
a) Cricket b) Hockey c) Golf d) Polo
33. What is the full form of "BIOS"?
a) Basic Input Output System
 b) Bureau of Information Science
c) Business Investment on Shares
d) Broadcasting and Information Organisation
34. What is the full form of "BPR"?
a) Business Process Re-engineering
b) Bureau of Physics and Research
c) Business Plan and Research
d) Building on Problem Relation
35. Who developed the first automatic automobile?
a) Karl Benz b) Rudolf Diesel c) Henry Ford d) Gottleib Daimler
36. Who invented helicopter?
a) Otis b) Breguet c) Cockrell d) Frank Whittle
37. Who is the author of "The Exile"?
a) Duleep Singh b) Eli Amir c) Navtej Sarna d) Prajwal Parajuly
38. Who is the author of "Playing It My Way"?
a) Kapil Dev b) Ravi Shastri c) Sachin Tendulkar d) Yuvraj Singh
39. World Health Day is observed on?
a) 3rd April b) 4th April c) 5th April d) 7th April
40. In banking, ‘ATM’ stands for
a) Asynchronous transfer mode
b) Any time money
c) Automated teller machine
d) Automatic transaction machine