3.

With reference to the seventh

1. With reference to the tribunal system in
schedule of the Indian constitution,
India, consider the following
consider the following.
statements.
1. Protection of wild animals and
1. A law made by the parliament
birds
can exclude Supreme Court
2. Betting and gambling
jurisdiction over tribunals.
3. Trade unions
2. State legislatures has no power
to set up administrative Which of the above comes under
tribunals. concurrent list of the seventh
schedule?
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
a. 1 only
c. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 only
d. All the above
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2 4. Triple test survey which was seen
recently in news is talked about in the
2. A person has the fundamental right
context of
to raise the court's notice to any
complaint or grievance they may have a. E-governance
over any administrative action. Which b. Testing for COVID 19 variants.
one of the following articles of the c. Supreme court on determining
Indian constitution clearly reflects the constitutional validity of laws.
above said statement? d. Reservation

a. Article 12
b. Article 21
c. Article 32
d. Article 17
5. With reference to the election 6. Which one of the following
deposits in Indian elections, consider statements best describes the term
‘citizens’ in Indian context?
the following statements.
a. Citizens are people who were
1. There are no provisions in Indian
born in India on or after 26th
laws with respect to the
January 1950 but before 1st
election’s deposits. July 1987.
2. If a candidate withdraws their b. Citizens are full members of
nomination or passes away the Indian State and they
before the polls, the amount is enjoy all civil and political
rights.
allocated to the Contingency
c. Citizens are people who have
Fund of India.
documentary proof of
3. if at a general election, the belonging going back several
candidate is a contesting generations.
candidate in more than one d. Citizens are people who have
parliamentary constituency or in dual citizenship of India and

more than one assembly another country.

constituency, not more than one

of the deposits shall be returned, 7. Consider the following with
and the others shall be forfeited. reference to Indian constitution.
4. In the case of Presidential and 1. Agricultural income
Vice-Presidential elections, no 2. Taxation
need for election deposits. 3. High court
4. Scheduled tribes.
Which of the above statements are
Which of the above are defined in
correct?
Indian constitution under article 366?
a. 3 only
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. None of the above c. 1 and 4 only
d. 1,3 and 4 only. d. All the above
8. Which of the following has to be 10. Which one of the following parts of
amended to introduce Remote e-voting
the constitution mainly enshrined the
machines?
Gandhian principles?
1. Census act, 1948.
2. The Representation of the a. Directive principles of state
People Act, 1950.
policy
3. The Representation of the
People Act, 1951. b. Fundamental rights
4. Delimitation acts
c. Emergency provisions
5. The Conduct of Election Rules
6. The Registration of Electors d. Fundamental duties
Rules

Select the right answer.

11. Consider the following statements
a. 1, 2,3 and 5 only
b. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only with reference to National Register of
c. 2, 3 and 6 only
Citizens (NRC).
d. 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
1. As of now, all the states except

9. Consider the following statements Assam have National Register of

with respect to the state legislative Citizens.
assemblies.
2. NRC is updated as per the
1. Dissolution of the state
provisions of Census Act 1948.
legislatures cannot be resorted
to for good governance or
Which of the statements given above
cleansing of politics.
2. Immorality is not a ground are correct?
recognised by constitution for
a. 1 only
formation of satisfaction to
dissolve assembly. b. 2 only
Which of the statements give above c. Both 1 and 2
is/are correct?
d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements 13. With respect to the Reserve Bank of

with reference to the freedom of India, consider the following

speech in the Indian constitution. statements.

1. The freedom of speech and 1. The Reserve Bank's affairs are

expression in the article 19(1)(a) governed by a central board of

of Indian Constitution is directors.

confined to Indian territory. 2. The board is appointed by the

2. The State can impose reasonable Government of India in keeping

restrictions on the freedom of with the Reserve Bank of India

speech and expression if it Act.

hampers the friendly relations of 3. There are four local boards to

India with other State or States. represent the territorial and

3. Public order as a ground to economic interests of local

restrict the freedom of speech cooperative and indigenous

was inserted originally in the banks; to perform such other

constitution. functions as delegated by

Central Board from time to time.

Which of the following is/are the
4. The central board of RBI elects
correct statements?
one of its members as chief
a. All the above
executive of the board.
b. 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above
c. 2 only
is/are correct?
d. 1 and 2 only

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. All the above.

14. With reference to the external debt 16. With reference to the mutual funds,
scenario, consider the following consider the following statements.
statements. 1. Mutual Funds in India are
1. At present, the sovereign established in the form of a Trust
under Indian Trust Act, 1882.
external debt is higher than non-
2. The income / gains generated
sovereign external debt. from this collective investment
2. Foreign currency reserves as a scheme are distributed
ratio to external debt is always proportionately amongst the
higher than unity after the investors, after deducting
economic reforms of 1991. applicable expenses and levies,
by calculating a scheme’s public
Which of the statements given above offering Price (POP).
is/are correct? 3. According to SEBI (Mutual
Funds) Regulations, 1996, all
a. 1 only
mutual funds have to be
b. 2 only registered with SEBI.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above
is/correct?
a. 1 only
15. With reference to the Special b. 1 and 2 only
Drawing Rights, consider the following c. 1 and 3 only
statements. d. All the above
17. Which one of the following
1. The Special Drawing Right (SDR)
situations best reflects paying “top-up”
allocation is not a loan from the tax?
IMF.
2. An SDR allocation is ‘cost free, a. This is the tax individuals pay
when they get huge amounts
but the use of SDRs is not ‘cost
of money from the lottery.
free’. b. This is the tax companies pay
3. For more than three decades, more than the required
the SDR market has functioned norms to top-up the
purely on a voluntary basis. economy voluntarily.
c. This is the tax NGO’s pay
Which of the statements given above when they receive a huge
is/are correct? amount of donations from
a. 1 and 2 only unknown sources.
d. This is the tax company pays
b. 2 and 3 only
additionally on its profit
c. 1 and 3 only when it pays an insufficient
d. All the above. amount of income taxes at
jurisdictional level.
18. With reference to the Global- 20. Consider the following statements.
Systematically important banks (G-SIB),
consider the following statements. Statement 1: NITI Aayog and the Food

1. Financial Stability Board and Agriculture Organization launched

identifies the G-SIB. the ‘Mapping and Exchange of Good
2. At present, there are three
Practices’ initiative for mainstreaming
Indian banks in the list of G-SIB.
3. Resolvability is one of the millets all around the world.
requirements for becoming a G-
SIB. Statement 2: The initiative is to support

Which of the statements given above the documentation of good practices

is/are correct. and lessons learnt, and also present an
a. 1 and 3 only opportunity of experience sharing
b. 3 only
amongst Asian and African developing
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 2 only countries.

Which one of the following is correct

19. Which one of the following can be with respect to the above statements.
the likely step taken by the government
if it follows counter cyclical fiscal a. Both statement 1 and 2 are
policy?
correct, but statement 2 is not
a. During recession, the explanation of statement 1.
government will reduce
spending. b. Both statement 1 and 2 are
b. During the growth period, correct and statement 2 is the
government will increase the
right explanation of the
expenditure to boost the
economic growth of the statement 1.
country. c. Both statements 1 and 2 are
c. During the slowdown of
economy, the government wrong.
will reduce the taxes to bring d. Statement 1 is wrong, but
economic boom.
statement 2 is right.
d. During the high growth
period of economy, the
government will reduce the
taxes to bring more
economic growth.
21. With reference to the Primary 23. What can be done to prevent a bank
Agricultural Credit societies (PACS), failure in the Indian context?
consider the following statements.
1. Having bail-in clause
1. They are regulated by the 2. Insuring the depositor’s
Reserve Bank of India. money
2. They are the last link in a four- 3. Keeping ownership and
tier cooperative credit structure control of a bank to the same
headed by the State Cooperative authority
Banks (SCB) at the state level. 4. Corporate governance
3. PACSs provide short-term, and 5. Better supervision by the
medium-term agricultural loans
central government.
to the farmers.
4. PACS are outside the purview of Choose the right answer:
the Banking Regulation Act,
a. 2, 3 and 4 only
1949.
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
is/are correct? d. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only.
a. 3 and 4 only
b. 1 and 3 only
24. Consider the following statements
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
with reference to the Purchasing
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
Manager’s index (PMI).

1. It does not cover the services

22. Consider the following statements sector.
with reference to Embedded finance. 2. S & P global releases the PMI
1. Embedded finance integrates index on a monthly basis.
financial services or tools within 3. A print above 50 means
the products or services of a expansion, while a score below
non-financial organization. that denotes contraction.
2. Buy now pay later (BNPL) is an
Which of the statements gives above
example of embedded finance.
is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above
a. 1 and 2 only
is/are incorrect?
b. 2 and 3 only
a. 1 only c. 3 only
b. 2 only d. All the above.
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
25. WHO’s ‘Best buys’ is related to 28. Qi was recently in news. Which of
which one of the following? the following aptly describes the term
‘Qi’?
a. Antimicrobial resistance
a. Quantum computing
b. Non-communicable diseases standards
c. Mental health b. Quality control of intel
d. Pesticides processors
c. A new smartphone company.
d. Standard for wireless
26. Which of the following can be used charging.
as the green manure?
29. Consider the following statements
1. Coleoptera
with reference to NASA Innovative
2. Crotalaria juncea Advanced Concepts (NIAC) program for
3. Azadirachta indica 2023.
Choose the correct answer. 1. It is related to the nuclear
propulsion technology.
a. 1 and 2 only 2. Under this program, travel time
b. 2 and 3 only to Mars could reduce up to 45
c. 1 and 3 only days.
d. All the above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

27. With reference to Web 5.0, consider a. 1 only

b. 2 only
the following statements. c. Both 1 and 2
1. Web 5.0 has been designed as a d. Neither 1 nor 2
centralized web platform that
can allow the flexibility and 30. With reference to the antibiotic
resources for developing resistance, consider the following
statements.
centralized web applications.
2. It will offer true ownership of 1. It can occur naturally.
data. 2. Bacteria, not humans or animals,
become antibiotic-resistant.
3. It is an internet without threat of 3. A global action plan on
censorship from governments or antimicrobial resistance,
big tech, and without fear of including antibiotic resistance,
significant outages. was endorsed at the United
Nations General Assembly
Which of the statements given above (UNGA) in May 2015.
is/are correct? Choose the right statements.
a. 1 and 2 only a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only
d. All the above d. 1 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements 33. Consider the following statements
with reference to Avian Influenza. with reference to the Neon lamps.

1. They are not affected by

1. It is a viral disease.
vibration, mechanical shock, or
2. Waterfowls are the natural host frequent ON/OFF operation.
and reservoir of avian influenza 2. It can be operated over a wide
viruses. range of temperatures up to 150
3. It spreads to humans regularly. degrees Celsius.
3. It can be used as pilot lights.
Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only a. 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All the above
d. All the above.

34. Which of the following species are

32. Geetha is a curious student. She
cold-blooded?
observes a lot. She is six years old. One
1. Green sea turtle
day, she sat in the dining table and took
2. Blue whale
the silver spoon to eat her lunch in a 3. Komodo dragon
fine Sunday. She noticed grey tarnish in 4. African elephant
her spoon. She asked her mother the 5. American alligator
6. Peregrine falcon
reason behind the grey tarnish. What
7. Red fox
could be the scientific reason behind
Select the correct answer.
the change in colour of the silver
spoon? 1, 2 and 4

2, 6 and 7
a. Reduction
b. Frequent contact with the 1, 3 and 5

food 1, 3 and 6
c. Oxidation
d. It cannot be described.
35. Which of the following statements 37. With reference to the ‘Internet
describes ‘immune escape’? governance’, consider the following
statements.
a. The process of strengthening the
1. Public Technical Identifiers (PTI)
body's immune system to fight was incorporated in August 2016
off infections. as an affiliate of Internet
b. The process of avoiding the Corporation for Assigned Names
and Numbers (ICANN).
onset of an autoimmune
2. Recently, UNESCO released
disease. Guidelines for regulating digital
c. The process of avoiding contact platforms: a multistakeholder
with pathogens by wearing approach to safeguarding
freedom of expression and
protective clothing.
access to information.
d. The process by which a pathogen
Which of the statements given above
evolves to evade the immune
is/are correct?
response.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
36. Consider the following statements d. Neither 1 nor 2
with reference to Iron-air batteries.

1. It is a non-rechargeable battery 38. With reference to the All-India

type. Khilafat Committee, consider the
2. The battery leverages the following statements.

concept of ‘reversible rusting’. 1. In early 1919, the All-India

3. They are small in size compared Khilafat Committee was formed
under the leadership of
to lithium-ion batteries.
Mahatma Gandhi.
Which of the statements given above 2. Non-co-operation campaign was
initiated in support of the
is/are correct?
Khilafat Movement.
a. 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above
b. 2 only is/are correct?
c. 2 and 3 only a. 1 only
d. 3 only. b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
39. With reference to the modern 41. With reference to the revolt of
history of India, consider the following 1857, consider the following pairs.
statements.
1. Nana Saheb – Lucknow
1. Akali movement was a part of 2. Begum Hazrat Mahal - Kanpur
the Civil disobedience
3. Khan Bahadur - Bareilly
movement.
2. The movement arose with the 4. Maulvi Ahmadullah - Faizabad
objective of freeing the Identify the number of right pairs.
Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) from
the control of ignorant and a. One pair only
corrupt mahants (priests). b. Two pairs only
3. Hindustan times newspaper was c. Three pairs only
associated with the Akali
d. All the four pairs.
movement.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 42. With reference to the presence of
a. 1 and 2 only Portuguese presence in India in the
b. 2 only past, consider the following
c. 2 and 3 only statements.
d. All the above.
1. Sultan Mahmud Begada was the
ruler of Gujarat when
40. Consider the following statements Portuguese landed in India.
with reference to the British rule in 2. First Portuguese fort was
India. established at Goa.
1. Frazer Commission was 3. Hooghly was one of the trading
established by the British centres of Portuguese.
government in India to reform
the Indian police system. Which of the statements given above
2. One of its recommendations was is/are correct.
the establishment of
a. 1 and 2 only
decentralized police intelligence
system to improve the b. 2 and 3 only
efficiency. c. 1 and 3 only
3. Lord Dufferin was the viceroy d. All the above.
when the commission was
established.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
43. Consider the following statements 45. With reference to the Indian naval
with reference to the charter act 1813. mutiny, consider the following
statements.
1. It is known as the Saint Helena
1. Discrimination against Indian
Act. troops was one of the causes of
2. Napoleon Bonaparte’s the Indian naval mutiny.
Continental System in Europe 2. Bhulabhai Desai and Kailash
Nath Katju organized the mutiny
influenced the formation of
as leaders.
charter act 1813.
Which of the statements given above
3. The act provided for a financial
is/are correct?
grant towards the revival of
Indian literature and the a. 1 only
b. 2 only
promotion of science.
c. Both 1 and 2
4. Company retained its monopoly d. Neither 1 nor 2
in the trade of all commodities.

Which of the statements given above 46. Consider the following statements
is/are correct? regarding seaweeds.

a. 1 and 3 only 1. Seaweeds are the primitive,

marine flowering algae without
b. 2 and 4 only
root, stem and leaves.
c. 1 and 2 only 2. They are found mostly in the
d. 2 and 3 only intertidal region, in shallow and
deep waters of the sea and also
in estuaries and backwaters,
absorb the excess nutrients and
44. With reference to 23 March 1940 in
balance out the ecosystem.
Indian history, which one of the 3. A seaweed variety namely
following statements is correct? Kappaphycus alvarezii is being
cultivated widely in Gulf of
a. Annual Congress Session was Mannar to improve the coral
conducted in Haripura. ecosystems.
b. Congress ministries resigned 4. The conservation status of
seaweeds is yet to be evaluated
from the legislatures.
by the IUCN.
c. Pakistan resolution was passed.
d. Initiation of Individual Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
satyagraha
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1,3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 3 only
47. Which of the following is not a 49. Consider the following statements
regarding Indian Muntjac (Barking
hermaphrodite? Deer).
1. It is the mammal with the lowest
a. Sea Horse chromosome number of 6 for
females and 7 for males.
b. Platypus 2. It is found only in the North-
c. Slug Eastern parts of the country.
3. IUCN has accorded ‘Endangered’
d. Oyster status upon considering its
limited regional concentration
and genetic importance.
Which of the statements given above
48. Consider the following statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
regarding Nuclear Energy. b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
1. Naturally occurring uranium is d. 1 and 3 only
not fissile because it contains
99.3% of U-235 and only 0.7% of 50. Consider the following statements
regarding Pumped Storage
U-238. Hydroelectric Projects (PSP).

2. The Basel Convention on the 1. The Central Electricity Authority

(CEA) estimates regarding on-
Control of Transboundary river pumped storage potential
is 103 GW in India.
Movements of Hazardous 2. The development of PSPs does
not lead to significant
Wastes and Their Disposal, displacement of people and
thus, requires minimum R&R
address the movement of (resettlement).
3. India is the second largest
radioactive nuclear waste. destination of PSPs after China.
4. To promote pumped storage
Which of the above statements is/are hydro-power projects in India,
the Ministry of Renewable
correct? Energy has proposed giving
incentives such as tax breaks,
a. 1 only easy environment clearance and
providing land at concessional
b. 2 only rates.
c. Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. 1,2 only
b. 3,4 only
c. 1,2,3 only
d. 2,3,4 only
51. Consider the following statements 52. Consider the following Ramsar sites.
and answer accordingly. 1. Chitrangudi Bird sanctuary –
Andhra Pradesh
1. First introduced in 1945 to treat 2. Anshupa Lake – Odisha
3. Kabartal Wetland – Bihar
seeds, it kills fungi that affect 4. Hygam Wetland – Mizoram
food crops. How many of the pairs given above
2. When people in eastern Turkey is/are correctly matched?

ate seed grain treated with this a. One pair only

b. Two Pairs are correct.
chemical between 1954 and c. Three Pairs are correct.
1959, they developed a variety d. All Pairs are correct.

of symptoms, including 53. Which among the following are

included under Minor Forest Produce?
photosensitive skin lesions, colic,
1. Tendu
and debilitation. 2. Karanjaaa Seed
3. It was widely used to control 3. Mryobalan
4. Chironjee
wheat bunt disease.
5. Neem Seed
4. In India, the estimated average
Select the right answer.
daily intake of this chemical is
a. 1,3,5 only
0.13 micrograms per kilogram of b. 2,3,4 only
body weight. c. 2,4,5 only
d. All the above.
5. It is listed under both Annex A
and Annex C of the Stockholm
Convention against Persistent 54. Recently, Phansad wildlife
sanctuary was often found in news.
Organic Pollutants. Which one of the below is correct
regarding this WLS?
Identify this Persistent Organic
a. India’s first wildlife underpass
Pollutant.
was constructed here.
a. Polychlorinated biphenyls b. India’s first Ecotourism project
has been initiated here.
b. Heptachlor c. It is situated in the Vidarbha
c. Chlordane region of Maharashtra.
d. India’s first Vulture Restaurant
d. Hexachlorobenzene
project initiated here.
55. Consider the following statements 57. ‘Renewables 2022 Global Status
regarding Sovereign Green Bonds. Report’ is released by which of the
following organizations?
1. A green bond is a fixed-income
a. International Renewable Energy
instrument designed to support
Agency (IRNEA)
specific climate-related or b. International Energy Agency
environmental projects. (IEA)
2. Its proceeds will be deposited c. REN 21
d. Organisation for Economic Co-
with Consolidated Fund of India.
operation and Development
3. It excludes, nuclear power
(OECD)
generation, landfill projects,
58. Consider the following pairs.
direct waste incineration,
1. Ganeshwar deposits – Gujarat
hydropower plants.
2. Ahar Chalcolithic culture –
Which of the above statements is/are Rajasthan
correct? 3. Kayatha culture – Madhya
Pradesh
a. 1 and 2
Identify the number of matching pairs.
b. 2 and 3
a. One pair only
c. 1 and 3
b. Two pairs only
d. All the above.
c. Three pairs only
d. None of the above

56. The tree species Ebony, Mahogany,

Rosewood, Chinchona are found in 59. What does the term Maktubat in
Sufism refer to?
which type of forests?
a. Spiritual music and dance
a. Tropical Deciduous forests
b. Traditional Islamic law and
b. Tropical Evergreen forests jurisprudence
c. Coniferous forests c. Letters of Sufi sheikhs and
d. Himalayan dry temperate scholars.
d. Sacred Islamic scripture
forests
60. With reference to Ellora caves, 62. With reference to Harshavardhana,
consider the following statements.
consider the following statements.
1. All the caves in Ellora are
dedicated to Jainism only. 1. Harsha Charita was written by
2. It is situated in the Charanandri Vishakhadatta
hills,
2. Sashanka of Gauda dynasty was
3. The rock-cut activity was carried
out in the period between 6th one of the contemporaries of
and 8th C.E. Harshavardhana.
4. There is a renowned Kailasa
3. Hieun Tsang visited India during
temple.
5. The management of the Ellora the Harsha’s rule.
Caves is carried out by the
Which of the statements given above
Archaeological Survey of India
(ASI). is/are correct.

Which of the statements given above a. 1 only

is/are correct?
b. 1 and 2 only
a. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c. 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 2, 4 and 5 only d. All the above
d. 2 and 4 only

63. Litchis from Tezpur is known for its

61. With respect to ports in the ancient
Indian history, consider the following excellent quality, pleasant flavor, juicy
statement. pulp with attractive red color. It was
a. Broach was situated in the accorded GI tag in 2015 by the
mouth of river Narmada.
Government of India. It belongs to
b. Muziri was situated in the
eastern coasts of India. which of the following state?
c. Tamralipti was situated in the
a. Assam
mouth of Rushikulya river.
d. Sopara port was situated in the b. Tripura
mouth of river Zuari. c. Bihar
d. Uttar Pradesh
64. Match the following pairs 66. Orsang, the Barna and the Kolar

Cities Countries are the tributaries of which of the

A- Bern 1-Germany followingriver?

B- Fortaleza 2- Japan a. Narmada

C- Cologne 3- b. Tapti
Switzerland c. Godavari
D- Kochi 4-Brazil d. Krishna

1. A-1 ,B-4, C-2 ,D-3

67. Identify the ore of iron based on the
2. A-3 ,B-1 ,C-4, D-2
3. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 statements.
4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-2
1. It has less than 40 per cent iron.

2. It is also called chalybite, iron

65. Consider the following statements
carbonate.
regarding Laurentian climate type.
3. It contains many impurities.
1. Laurentian type of climate is
4. It is self-fluxing due to presence
found only in two regions.
2. It is absent in the Southern of lime.
Hemisphere.
Select the right answer.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? a. Siderite

a. 1 only b. Limonite
b. 2 only c. Magnetite
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Haematite
d. Neither 1 nor 2
68. Arrange the following mountain 70. Which of the following is not a
passes from North to south. glacial landform?
1. Rohtang pass.
a. Drumlin
2. Zoji La
3. Mintaka pass b. Kettle holes
4. Niti pass. c. D-Fjord

Choose the correct order. d. Tombolos

a. 1-2-3-4
b. 3-2-1-4
c. 2-1-3-4 71. Consider the following effects
d. 3-4-1-2 regarding the weakening of Atlantic
Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC).
69. Identify the correct statement
regarding ‘Wadge Bank fisheries. 1. More storms in Northern Europe

a. Wadge Bank is a 3000 sq km area 2. Less Sahelian summer rainfall

which form rich fishing grounds. and South Asian summer rainfall
b. It is located at a distance of 50 3. A reduced number of tropical
nautical miles from
cyclones in the Atlantic
Vishakhapatnam.
c. It is the region of contention 4. An increase in regional sea level
between Bangladesh and West along the northeast coast of
Bengal fishermen. North America.
d. None of the above.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?

a. 1,2,3 only
b. 1,3,4 only
c. 2,3,4 only
d. 1,2,3,4
72. Identify the tribal group based on 74. Which of the following is incorrect
regarding stromatolites?
the given statements.
a. A stromatolite is a layered
1. Their primogenitors Tukbothing sedimentary rock created by
and Nazong Nyu, equivalent to microorganisms.
b. Stromatolites are sometimes
Adam and Eve, are said to have called ‘crocodile-skin rock’ due
been created by God from the to their unusual textures
c. They are irregularly shaped and
pristine snows of the world’s
often appear as lumpy or knobby
third highest mountain. masses.
d. The cyanobacteria
2. Their popular folk dances are Zo-
photosynthesize and produce
Mal-Lok, Chu-Faat, Tendong Lo oxygen, which helps to cement
Rum Faat and Kinchum-Chu- the sediment particles together.

Bomsa.
3. The region which is inhabited by 75. ‘Fujiwhara Effect’, which was
recently found in news is related to
this tribal group remained an
a. Cyclonic activity
independent country, until it
b. Tectonic activity
merged with India in 1975 after c. Oceanic currents
d. Volcanic activity
a decisive referendum.

Select the right answer.

76. Consider the following lakes given
a. Bhutias below.

b. Bodos 1. Lake Malawi

2. Lake Victoria
c. Apatani 3. Lake Albert
d. Lepchas 4. Lake Nakuru
5. Lake Abaya
6. Lake Cheko
73. Which of the following is tagged as Which of the above falls under the
the world’s largest active volcano? category of African Rift Valley Lakes?
a. Mauna Loa a. 2,3,5 only
b. Mt. Merapi b. 1,3,4,5 only
c. Mt. Fuji c. 3,4,6 only
d. Mt. Saint Helens d. 1,2,4,5,6 only
77. With reference to the UN 79. With reference to the trapping of
Champions of the award, consider the insects in Agriculture, consider the
following statements. following statements.
1. It has been in existence since 1. Pheromone traps use synthetic
2005. chemicals that mimic insect sex
2. It is awarded only to individuals. pheromones to attract and trap
3. Recently, Indian wildlife biologist
male insects, while light traps
Dr Purnima Devi Barman won
use a bright light source to lure
the award in the Entrepreneurial
insects and trap them.
Vision category.
4. Champions of the Earth are 2. Light traps are more selective
celebrated in eight categories. than Pheromone traps, as they
only target specific insect
Which of the statement given above species, while Pheromone traps
is/are correct?
can catch a wide range of
a. 1 and 2 only insects.
b. 2 and 3 only 3. Pheromone traps are less
c. 1 and 3 only effective in large areas, while
d. 2 and 4 only light traps can be used to cover a
wider area and catch a greater
number of insects.
78. With reference to Trichoderma,
consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. It is a worm that can be found in
agricultural soils. a. 1 and 2 only
2. This can be used as a bio-control b. 2 and 3 only
agent. c. 1 and 3 only
3. This has the potential to cure or d. All the above
reduce some of the plant e.
diseases.
80. MCU 5 VT, Surabhi and Savitha are
Which of the statements given above
the varieties of which one of the
is/are correct?
following?
a. 1 only
a. Cotton
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only b. Sugarcane
d. All the above c. Rice
d. Wheat
81. With reference to the Indian 83. In which battle did the kingdoms of
philosophical system, consider the Mughal Empire and Rajput Confederacy
following systems. face each other?
1. The Charvaka vision rejected all a. Battle of Mysore
supernatural claims, all religious b. Battle of Plassey
authority and scripture. c. Battle of Panipat
2. According to this philosophy, d. Battle of Khanwa
pursuing pleasure and avoiding
pain is the sole purpose of
human existence.
84. With reference to the
Which of the statements given above administrative structure of Satvahana
is/are correct? kingdoms, consider the following
a. 1 only statements.
b. 2 only 1. They followed some of the
c. Both 1 and 2 administrative structures of
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Asokan times.
2. They granted tax-free villages to
Brahmanas only.
82. Consider the following statements
3. The term ‘ahara’ refers to the
with reference to the Medieval history
district administration in the
of India.
Satvahana kingdoms.
1. It is the second largest dome
ever built, next in size only to St Which of the statements given above
Peter’s Basilica in Rome. is/are correct?
2. A particular attraction in this a. 1 only
monument is the central b. 1 and 3 only
chamber, where every sound is c. 3 only
echoed seven times.
d. 2 and 3 only
3. Another attraction at this place
is the Whispering Gallery, where
even minute sounds can be hear
85. Which of the following statements
clearly 37 metres away.
4. It is the tomb of Mohammed Adil is true about the Sulvasutras?
Shah (ruled 1627–1657). a. It contains instructions on
Which one of the following monuments how to construct altars for
matches with the description aptly? Vedic sacrifices.
b. It was written in Tamil.
a. Bijapur fort
c. It is one of the oldest
b. Jod Gumbaz
surviving texts on astronomy.
c. Gol Gumbaz
d. All of the above.
d. Mehtar Mahal
86. Consider the following statement 87. Consider the following statement
with reference to India-Africa Defence
with reference to UN CEO water
Dialogue (IADD)?
mandate.
1. The Gandhinagar Declaration
1. The CEO Water Mandate is a was adopted as an outcome
document of IADD 2022.
partnership between the UN
2. India started the annual India-
Global Compact and UNESCO.
Africa Defence Dialogue in 1998
2. the Water Resilience Coalition to engage with African
countries.
and WASH4Work are some of
Which of the statements given above
the initiatives of it. is/are correct?

3. World Toilet Day was started by a. 1 only

b. 2 only
UN CEO water mandate to
c. Both 1 and 2
conserve water. d. Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? 88. Consider the following
countries/regional organisations with
a. 1 and 2 only reference to Resilient Democracies
Statement.
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only 1. India

d. 2 and 3 only. 2. European Union

3. South Korea
4. Indonesia
Who started the toilet day?
Which of the countries given above are
the signatories?
In a bid to help break taboos around
toilets and make sanitation for all a a. 1,2 and 4 only
b. 1,2 and 3 only
global development priority, the United c. 1 & 2 only
Nations designated 19 November as d. 2, 3 and 4 only
World Toilet Day. So, statement 3 is
incorrect,
89. Consider the following statements 91. Consider the following statements
with reference to Black Sea Grain with reference to New Development
Initiative? Bank (NDB).
1. At present, exports of 1. NDB enjoys observer status in
commercial food and fertilizer the United Nations General
are allowed from Ukrainian Assembly.
ports.
2. It is headquartered at Beijing,
2. The Joint Coordination Centre China.
(JCC) was established to monitor
the implementation of the 3. The share of the BRICS nations
Initiative. can never be less than 55% of
voting power in NDB.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
a. 1 only is/are correct?
b. 2 only a. 1 only
c. Both 1 and 2 b. 1 and 2 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2 c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only.
90. Consider the following statements
with reference to Genocide convention
92. Consider the following statements
1. Killing members of the group. with reference to The Global
Partnership on Artificial Intelligence
2. Suicides by the armed force
(GPAI)
3. Causing serious bodily or mental
harm to members of the group. 1. GPAI is the fruition of an idea
developed within the G7.
4. Accidents in the area of
particular members of the 2. At present, It has more than 40
group. member countries.
5. Imposing measures intended to 3. It is built around a shared
prevent births within the group. commitment to the OECD
Recommendation on Artificial
6. Forcibly transferring children of
Intelligence.
the group to another group.
4. India has never been a council
Which of the statements given above
constitutes genocide according to the chair of GPAI till now.
UN Genocide convention? Select the right statements.
a. 1,2, 3 and 4 a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2, 3, 4 and 6 b. 2 and 3 only.
c. 1, 3 and 6 c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 3, 5 and 6 d. 2 and 4 only.
93. Consider the following statements 95. With reference to the health
schemes of India, consider the
with reference to the Tobacco
following statements.
production in India.
1. Anganwadi Worker, a lady
1. Tobacco board is a statutory selected from the local
community, is a community
body.
based frontline honorary worker
of the National Rural Health
2. Tobacco board is headquartered
Mission.
at Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.
2. An Accredited Social Health
3. India produces flue-cured Activist is a community health
worker as a part of Integrated
Virginia (FCV) tobacco more than
Child development scheme.
non-FCV tobacco.
3. An Accredited Social Health
Which of the statements given above Activist is employed by Ministry
of women and Child
is/are correct? development.

a. 1 only Which of the statements gives above

is/are correct?
b. 1 and 2 only
a. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 only
d. All the above c. 3 only
d. None of the above

94. Global security initiative is proposed

96. Serious Fraud Investigation Office
by which one of the following
(SFIO) was recently in news. It comes
countries? under which one of the following?

a. USA a. Ministry of Home affairs

b. Ministry of Corporate affairs.
b. Brazil c. Ministry of Finance
c. China d. Ministry of Agriculture
d. Russia
97. Which one of the following 99. Which of the following funds invest
statements aptly describes short selling exclusively in government securities?
that was recently in news?
a. Index funds
a. Short selling is the practice of b. Open ended funds
buying a security with the c. Gilt funds
expectation of profiting from a d. Mutual funds
price increase.
b. Short selling is the practice of
selling a security with the 100. Consider the following statements
expectation of profiting from a with reference to HS 200 boosters.
price decrease.
1. The HS200 is a 2000-metre-long
c. Short selling is the practice of
booster.
holding onto a security for an
extended period of time in order 2. It will be used for Gaganyaan
to maximize profits. programme.
d. Short selling is the practice of Which of the statements given above
buying and selling securities is/are correct?
rapidly in order to profit from
small price fluctuations. a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
98. Consider the following statements, d. Neither 1 nor 2
with reference to the Sample
Registration System (SRS).
1. Sample Registration System
(SRS) Statistical Report is
released by Registrar General of
India (RGI),
2. The Registrar General of India
office comes under Ministry of
Health.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 Answers
1.

Answer: B

The Supreme Court has also a very wide appellate jurisdiction over all Courts and Tribunals in India in as
much as it may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal under Article 136 of the Constitution from
any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any
Court or Tribunal in the territory of India. The law made by parliament may exclude the jurisdiction of all
courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme court under article 136. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following three aspects:

 While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public service matters only,
Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for certain other matters (mentioned
above).
 While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under
Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to
matters falling within their legislative competence. Statement 2 is correct.
 Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more
states may be established. There is no question of the hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under
Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.

2.

Answer: C

 Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court
to seek justice when they feel that their right has been 'unduly deprived'.
 Writ of Mandamus means “We Command” in Latin. This writ is issued for the correct
performance of mandatory and purely ministerial duties and is issued by a superior court to a
lower court or government officer. However, this writ cannot be issued against the President
and the Governor. Its main purpose is to ensure that the powers or duties are not misused by
the administration or the executive and are fulfilled duly. Also, it safeguards the public from the
misuse of authority by administrative bodies. The mandamus is “neither a writ of course nor a
writ of right but that it will be granted if the duty is in nature of public duty and it especially
affects the right of an individual, provided there is no more appropriate remedy”. So, the article
32 is the right answer.
3.

Answer: C

Concurrent List Subjects: Some of the important subjects are:

• Education

• Forest

• Trade unions.

• Marriage

• Adoption

• Succession

42nd amendment Act 1976 shifted below mentioned five subjects from State list to Concurrent List:

• Education

• Forests

• Protection of wild animals and birds

• Weights and measures and

• Administration of justice, constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court
and the High Courts

State list subjects: Some of the important subjects are:

• Public order

• Police

• Public health and sanitation

• Hospitals and dispensaries

• Betting and gambling. So, option C is correct.

4.
Answer: D
The triple test requires the government to complete three tasks for finalisation of reservation to OBCs in
the local bodies. These include:
 To set up a dedicated commission to conduct a rigorous empirical inquiry into the nature and
implications of the backwardness in local bodies.
 To specify the proportion of reservation required in local bodies in light of recommendations of
the commission, so as not to fall foul of overbreadth.
 To ensure reservation for SCs/STs/OBCs taken together does not exceed an aggregate of 50 per
cent of the total seats.
These triple test/conditions were outlined by the Supreme Court in the case of Vikas Kishanrao Gawali
vs. State of Maharashtra and others, decided on March 4, 2021.

5.
Answer: A
What does losing security deposit mean in Indian elections? (indianexpress.com)

 An election security deposit is an amount that is to be deposited with the Returning Officer
when a candidate files their nomination.
 This is to be submitted either in cash, or a receipt must be enclosed with the nomination paper,
showing that the said sum has been deposited on the candidate’s behalf in the Reserve Bank of
India or in a Government Treasury.
Is the amount same for all elections?
o No, it depends on the particular election being conducted, and the Representation of the People
Act of 1951 mentions different amounts depending on the level of election: So, the first statement is
incorrect.
 In the case of an election from a Parliamentary constituency, meaning a Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha seat, the amount is Rs 25,000 and Rs 12,500 for a Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled
Tribe (ST) candidate.
 In the case of an election from an Assembly or Council constituency, meaning at the level of
legislative bodies in the states, it is Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000 for an SC/ST candidate.
 Even in the case of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections, a deposit of Rs 15,000 is to be
made. So, statement 4 is incorrect.
 As per the same Act, the deposit has to be forfeited at an election if the number of valid votes
polled by the candidate is less than 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled.
 Or, in the case of the election of more than one member, it would be 1/6th of the total number
of valid votes so polled divided by the number of members to be elected. This refers to elections
by proportional representation method, as is the case in Rajya Sabha. If the candidate does
meet the threshold, “the deposit shall be returned as soon as practicable after the result of the
election is declared.”
 If a candidate withdraws their nomination or passes away before the polls, the amount is
returned. So, the statement 3 is incorrect.
 The Act adds that “if at a general election, the candidate is a contesting candidate in more than
one parliamentary constituency or in more than one assembly constituency, not more than one
of the deposits shall be returned, and the others shall be forfeited.” So, the statement 3 is right.
6.

Answer: B

The Concept of Citizenship under Indian Constitution | Law column

Citizenship means membership in a nation. Every country in the world gives citizenship to the people
who lived within the nation’s territory. The citizens of India can enjoy single citizenship. They are full
members of India and owe allegiance to it. Indian citizens can enjoy all political and social rights noted in
the Constitution of India. The fundamental rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution deal with citizen’s
right. The citizens also have certain duties to perform for the nation mentioned in Article 51(A) of the
Constitution of India.

So, the statement 2 is correct.

Other statements are incomplete and incorrect. Indian constitution does not allow dual citizenship.
Documentary proof that goes back to several generations does not indicate the citizenship of a person.

7.

Answer: D

Article 366

In this Constitution, unless the context otherwise requires, the following expressions have the meanings
hereby respectively assigned to them, that is to say

(1) “agricultural income” means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments
relating to Indian income-tax;

“High Court” means any Court which is deemed for the purposes of this Constitution to be a High Court
for any State and includes —

(a) any Court in the territory of India constituted or reconstituted under this Constitution as a High
Court, and

(b) any other Court in the territory of India which may be declared by Parliament by law to be a High
Court for all or any of the purposes of this Constitution.

“Scheduled Tribes” means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or
tribal communities as are deemed under article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this
Constitution.

“taxation” includes the imposition of any tax or impost, whether general or local or special, and “tax”
shall be construed accordingly;
8.
Answer: D
The Representation of the People Act, The Conduct of Election Rules and The Registration of Electors
Rules will need to be amended to introduce remote voting,
Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)
What is Remote Electronic Voting Machine and how will it help? - India Today

9.
Answer: C
Rameshwar Prasad & Ors vs Union Of India & Anr on 24 January, 2006
The extra-ordinary emergency power of recommending dissolution of a Legislative Assembly by the
governor is not a matter of course to be resorted to for good governance or cleansing of the politics for
the stated reasons without any authentic material. These are the matters better left to the wisdom of
others including opposition and electorate. So, statement 1 is correct.
With all these imponderables, the constitution does not contemplate the dissolution of Assemblies
based on the assumption of such immoralities for formation of the satisfaction that situation has arisen
in which the Government cannot be of the Constitution of India. So statement 2 is correct.

Rameshwar Prasad & Ors vs Union Of India & Anr on 24 January, 2006 (indiankanoon.org)

10.
Answer: A
The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution
constitute the Directive Principles which may be said to contain the philosophy of the constitution. The
idea of directives was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. As the very term “Directives” indicate,
the Directive principles are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the legislative
and executive powers of the state are to be exercised.
As Nehru observed, the governments will ignore the directives “Only at their own peril.” As India seeks
to secure an egalitarian society, the founding fathers were not satisfied with only political justice. They
sought to combine political justice with economic and social justice.
The Directive Principles may be classified into 3 broad categories—
1.Socialistic
2. Gandhian and
3. Liberal-intellectual.
Gandhian Directives
Such directives are spread over several Arts. Principal among such directives are
1. To organize village panchayats (Art. 40),
2. To secure living wage, decent standard of life, and to promote cottage industries (Art.43),
3. To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional
management of co-operative societies (Art 43 B).
4. To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the
society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).
5. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).
6. To prohibit the slaughter of cows, claves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their
breeds (Article 48).
11.
Answer: D
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At
present, only Assam has such a register. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well. Nagaland is already creating a similar database
known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants. The Centre is planning to create a National Population
Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register of all Indian citizens whose creation was mandated
by the 2003 amendment of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Its purpose is to document all the legal citizens of
India so that the illegal immigrants can be identified and deported. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
What is NRC, NRC in Assam, NRC Documents, NRC Assam News, | Business Standard (business-
standard.com)

12.
Answer: C
Is freedom of speech and expression limited to the boundary of India?
 In a landmark judgment of the case Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held
that the freedom of speech and expression has no geographical limitation and it carries with it
the right of a citizen to gather information and to exchange thought with others not only in India
but abroad also. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, if it hampers the
friendly relations of India with other State or States. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Grounds on Which This Freedom Could Be Restricted: Clause (2) of Article 19 of the Indian
constitution imposes certain restrictions on free speech under following heads:
• Security Of the State,
• Friendly Relations with Foreign States
• Public Order,
• Decency And Morality,
• Contempt Of Court,
• Defamation,
• Incitement To An Offence, And
• Sovereignty And Integrity Of India.
Public order:
• This ground was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 in order to meet the
situation arising from the Supreme Court's decision in Romesh Thapar's, case (AIR 1950 SC 124). As per
hon'ble Supreme court, public order is different from law and order and security of state [Kishori Mohan
v. State of West Bengal]. The expression 'public order' connotes the sense of public peace, safety and
tranquillity. So, the statement 3 is incorrect.
13.

Answer: B

The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the
Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.

• Appointed/nominated for a period of four years.

Constitution:

• Official Directors

o Full-time: Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors

• Non-Official Directors

o Nominated by Government: ten Directors from various fields and two government Official.

• Others: four Directors - one each from four local boards

Local Boards

• Constituted for Western Area, Eastern Area, Northern Area and Southern Area. So, statement 3
is correct.

• Consist of five members each.

• Members appointed by the Central Government.

• Member shall hold office for a term of four years.

Functions: To advise the Central Board on local matters and to represent territorial and economic
interests of local cooperative and indigenous banks; to perform such other functions as delegated by
Central Board from time to time.

At present, RBI governor Shaktikanta Das, also the chief executive of the board, and deputy governors
Mahesh Kumar Jain, MD Patra, M Rajeshwar Rao and T Rabi Sankar are the official directors. There is no
election for chief executive among the members of RBI central board of directors.
14.
Answer: D
India’s external debt, at US$ 620.7 billion as at end-March 2022, grew by 8.2 per cent over US$ 573.7
billon as at end-March 2021. While 53.2 per cent of it was denominated in US dollar, Indian rupee
denominated debt, estimated at 31.2 per cent, was the second largest.
External debt as a ratio to GDP fell marginally to 19.9 per cent as at end-March 2022 from 21.2 per cent
a year ago. Foreign currency reserves as a ratio to external debt stood slightly lower at 97.8 per cent as
at end-March 2022 than 100.6 per cent a year ago. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
As at end-March 2022, sovereign external debt (SED) amounted to US$ 130.7 billion, increasing by 17.1
per cent over the level a year ago, reflecting the additional allocation of SDRs by the IMF during 2021-
22. SDRs rose to US$ 22.9 billion from US$ 5.5 billion as at end-March 2021. FPI holding of G-Sec, on the
other hand, slid to US$ 19.5 billion from US$ 20.4 billion a year ago.
Non-sovereign external debt, estimated at US$ 490.0 billion as at end-March 2022, posted a growth of
6.1 per cent over the level a year ago. CBs, NRI deposits, and short-term trade credit accounted for
about 95 per cent of non-sovereign debt., The short-term trade credit rose substantially by 20.7 per cent
to US$ 117.4 billion as at end-March 2022 on the back of a surge in imports during 2021-22.
So, statement 1 is incorrect.

15.
Answer: D
Is the SDR allocation a loan from the IMF?
 The Special Drawing Right (SDR) allocation is not a loan from the IMF. When the IMF allocates
SDRs, participants in the SDR Department receive unconditional liquidity represented by an
interest-bearing reserve asset (SDR holding) and a corresponding long-term liability to the SDR
Department (SDR allocation). So, statement 1 is correct.
Are there any costs involved in a general SDR allocation? Is there any other cost associated with holding
SDRs?
 An SDR allocation is ‘cost free’. An SDR allocation involves two elements: an increase in the SDR
Department participants’ (currently all Fund members) allocation of SDRs (liabilities) and a
matching increase in its holdings of SDRs (assets). The SDR Department pays interest on SDR
holdings to each member and levies charges on SDR allocations of each member at the same
rate (the SDR interest rate). Thus, an SDR allocation is ‘cost-free’ for all members because
charges and interest net out to zero if the countries do not use their SDR allocations.
Participants incur a very small annual levy to cover the operational costs of the SDR Department
(recently, around one-thousandth of one percent levied on the cumulative allocation of each
participant).
 The use of SDRs is not ‘cost free’. The use of SDRs occurs when a country reduces its SDR
holdings vis-à-vis its cumulative SDR allocation. Countries that exchange their SDRs for currency
will incur net charges on the difference between their cumulative SDR allocations and their SDR
holdings. The SDR interest rate (as of August 20) is 0.05 percent. Members that receive SDRs,
either under a voluntary transaction or by designation, have to provide foreign exchange in
exchange, effectively replacing one reserve asset by another. So, statement 2 is correct.
How does the SDR market work?
 For more than three decades, the SDR market has functioned purely on a voluntary basis.
 Various Fund members and one prescribed SDR holder have agreed to stand ready to buy and
sell SDRs on a voluntary basis. So, statement 3 is correct.
16.

Answer: C

 In short, mutual fund is a collective pool of money contributed by several investors and

managed by a professional Fund Manager.

 Mutual Funds in India are established in the form of a Trust under Indian Trust Act, 1882, in

accordance with SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996. Statement 1 is correct.

 The money collected in mutual fund scheme is invested by professional fund managers in stocks

and bonds etc. in line with a scheme’s investment objective. The income / gains generated from

this collective investment scheme are distributed proportionately amongst the investors, after

deducting applicable expenses and levies, by calculating a scheme’s “Net Asset Value” or NAV.

In return, mutual fund charges a small fee. So, the statement 2 is incorrect.

 According to SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, all mutual funds has to be registered with

SEBI. Statement 3 is correct.

17.

Answer: D

Top-up tax differs from income taxes that arise under ‘traditional’ tax regimes. Traditional income taxes

are generally based on a company’s taxable profit; top-up tax will arise only if a group pays an

insufficient amount of income taxes at a jurisdictional level. So, statement 4 is correct.

The tax imposed under the GloBE Rules is a “top-up tax” calculated and applied at a jurisdictional level.

The GloBE rules use a standardized base and definition of covered taxes to identify those jurisdictions

where an MNE is subject to an effective tax rate below 15%. It then imposes a coordinated tax charge

that brings the MNE’s effective tax rate on that income up to the minimum rate (after taking into

account a substance-based carve-out). The design of the GloBE Rules as a top-up tax facilitates the

coordinated application of the GloBE Rules.

18.

Answer: A

The Financial Stability Board (FSB) published the 2022 list of global systemically important banks (G-SIBs)
using end-2021 data and applying for the first time the revised assessment methodology published in
2018 by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS). Statement 1 is correct.

The 30 banks on the list remain the same as the 2021 list. But there are no Indian banks in the list.
Statement 2 is incorrect.

FSB member authorities apply the following requirements to G-SIBs:

 Higher capital buffer: The G-SIBs are allocated to buckets corresponding to higher capital buffers
that they are required to hold by national authorities in accordance with international
standards. Compared with the 2021 list, one bank moved to a higher bucket (Bank of America
has moved from bucket 2 to bucket 3) and two banks have moved to a lower bucket (China
Construction Bank moves from bucket 2 to bucket 1 and BNP Paribas moves from bucket 3 to
bucket 2).
 Total Loss-Absorbing Capacity (TLAC): G-SIBs are required to meet the TLAC standard, alongside
the regulatory capital requirements set out in the Basel III framework. The TLAC standard began
being phased in from 1 January 2019.
 Resolvability: These include group-wide resolution planning and regular resolvability
assessments. The resolvability of each G-SIB is also reviewed in a high-level FSB Resolvability
Assessment Process (RAP) by senior regulators within the firms’ Crisis Management Groups. So,
statement 3 is correct.
 Higher supervisory expectations: These include supervisory expectations for risk management
functions, risk data aggregation capabilities, risk governance and internal controls.

19.

Answer: C

Counter-cyclical fiscal policy refers to the steps taken by the government that go against the direction of
the economic or business cycle.

Thus, in a recession or slowdown, the government increases expenditure and reduces taxes to create a
demand that can drive an economic boom. The survey gives a colourful example of ancient Indian kings
building palaces during droughts to drive home this point. On the other hand, during a boom in the
economy, counter-cyclical fiscal policy aims at raising taxes and cutting public expenditure to control
inflation and debt. So, statement 3 is correct.
20.

Answer: D

Concept-Note.pdf (niti.gov.in)

NITI Aayog and the World Food Programme (WFP), India, launched the 'Mapping and Exchange of Good

Practices' initiative for mainstreaming millets in Asia and Africa on 19 July 2022. Both will prepare a

compendium of good practices for scaling up the production and consumption of millets in India and

abroad. So, statement 1 is wrong, but statement 2 is correct.

21.

Answer: A

The rural co-operative credit system in India is primarily mandated to ensure flow of credit to the

agriculture sector. It comprises short-term and long-term co-operative credit structures. The short-term

co-operative credit structure operates with a three-tier system - Primary Agricultural Credit Societies

(PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the district level and State Cooperative

Banks (StCBs) at the State level. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

PACS are outside the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and hence not regulated by the

Reserve Bank of India. So, statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 4 is correct.

StCBs/DCCBs are registered under the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act of the State

concerned and are regulated by the Reserve Bank. Powers have been delegated to National Bank for

Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) under Sec 35 (6) of the Banking Regulation Act (As

Applicable to Cooperative Societies) to conduct inspection of State and Central Cooperative Banks.

PACSs provide short-term, and medium-term agricultural loans to the farmers. So, statement 3 is

correct.
22.
Answer: D
Embedded finance integrates financial services or tools within the products or services of a non-financial
organization.
Take for instance an e-commerce store offering digital wallets to enable contactless payments that are
instant. Online ridesharing companies and their financial services are also an example of embedded
finance, where customers are able to make payments even before reaching their destinations, through
instant payment methods. So, statement 1 is not incorrect.
Embedded finance has created new avenues for companies, where they can bridge the gap between
enterprises and end users with the help of below mentioned use cases:
 Embedded Payments: Online payment options at the point of sale, where customers are given
the flexibility of payment options like digital wallets, netbanking, credit card, debit card, UPI, etc.
are examples of embedded payments.
 Embedded Insurance: When a customer purchases a product at the point of sale in real-time
bundling and sale of insurance, it is an example of embedded insurance. Travel insurance while
booking flight tickets or mobile insurance while buying a phone can be considered as examples
of embedded insurance.
 Embedded Investments: It allows platforms to integrate stock market investment into their
vertical offerings. This is particularly popular among API-based brokerage firms.
 Embedded Lending: Buy now pay later (BNPL) is an example of embedded lending, where
customers can convert purchases into monthly instalments that are free of interest. So,
statement 2 is not incorrect.

23.
Answer: B

Yes Bank crisis: Ten lessons to prevent bank failures in future, BFSI News, ET BFSI (indiatimes.com)
A bail-In clause is used in times of bankruptcy or financial distress and forces the borrower's creditors to
write-off some of their debt in order to ease the financial burden on the borrowing institution. This can
prevent bank failure in some instances. So, statement 1 is right.
A bail-In clause is used in times of bankruptcy or financial distress and forces the borrower's creditors to
write-off some of their debt in order to ease the financial burden on the borrowing institution. This
brings trusts of the customers which ensures the prevention of bank failures. So, statement 2 is correct.
There must be a clear separation of ownership and control of a bank. This will prevent corporate
misgovernance. So, statement 3 is incorrect. Also, corporate governance can enhance the prevention of
bank failures. So statement 4 is correct.
In the Indian context, RBI is vested with the supervisory powers. So, statement 5 is incorrect.
24.

Answer: B

Originally compiled for manufacturing, S&P Global pioneered the extension of coverage to other sectors
in the 1990s, including services, construction and retail. The services PMI™ was introduced in 1996 by
S&P Global’s economists (known as NTC Research at the time) to accompany the existing manufacturing
PMI. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

PMI is compiled by IHS Markit for more than 40 economies worldwide. IHS Markit is a global leader in
information, analytics and solutions for the major industries and markets that drive economies
worldwide. IHS Markit is part of S&P Global. Purchasing Managers’ Index™ (PMI™) data – FAQ | S&P
Global (spglobal.com) So, statement 2 is correct.

The PMI is a number from 0 to 100. A print above 50 means expansion, while a score below that denotes
contraction. A reading at 50 indicates no change. So, statement 3 is correct.

25.

Answer: B

World Health Organization report (2017): Tackling NCDs: 'best buys' and other recommended
interventions for the prevention and control of noncommunicable diseases.

So, option B is the right answer.

Tackling NCDs: 'best buys' and other recommended interventions for the prevention and control of
noncommunicable diseases (who.int)

26.

Answer: B

Beetles are insects that form the order Coleoptera, in the superorder Endopterygota. Their front pair of
wings are hardened into wing-cases, elytra, distinguishing them from most other insects. So, first
statement is incorrect.

Other two can be used as a green manure.

27.

Answer: B

Web 5.0 has been designed as a decentralized web platform that can allow the flexibility and resources
for developing decentralized web applications.

The primary objective of web 5.0 would focus on empowering users to reclaim control and ownership of
their data. As of now, the web 5.0 version is still under development. However, some experts have
pointed out that web 5.0 would be more of a combination between web 2.0 and web 3.0. So, statement
1 is not correct.

One of the significant highlights of web 5.0 explained clearly also draws attention to data ownership.
Decentralized web implied the promise of offering true ownership of user data. However, centralization
is still a concern with the supposedly “decentralized” web. On the contrary, web 5.0 aims to empower
users so that they have ownership over their data. So, statement 2 is correct.

Being developed by Dorsey’s Bitcoin business unit, The Block Head (TBH). Simply put, Web 5.0 is Web
2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to ‘own their identity’ on the Internet and ‘control their data’.
Both Web 3.0 and Web 5.0 envision an Internet without threat of censorship – from governments or big
tech, and without fear of significant outages. So, statement 3 is right.

28.

Answer: D

Qi (pronounced “chee”) is the world's de facto wireless charging standard for providing 5-15 watts of
power to small personal electronics. Though it is primarily used to charge smartphones, the standard
can also apply and easily be used to provide power for a growing number of consumer devices.

Qi Wireless Charging | Wireless Power Consortium

29.

Answer: C

As part of the NASA Innovative Advanced Concepts (NIAC) program for 2023, NASA selected a nuclear
concept for Phase I development. This new class of bimodal nuclear propulsion system uses a "wave
rotor topping cycle" and could reduce transit times to Mars to just 45 days. So, both statements 1 and 2
are correct.

New NASA Nuclear Rocket Plan Aims to Get to Mars in Just 45 Days : ScienceAlert
30.

Answer: B
A global action plan on antimicrobial resistance, including antibiotic resistance, was endorsed at the
World Health Assembly in May 2015. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Antibiotic resistance is one of the biggest threats to global health, food security, and development
today.

Antibiotic resistance can affect anyone, of any age, in any country.

Antibiotic resistance occurs naturally, but misuse of antibiotics in humans and animals is accelerating
the process. So, statement 1 is correct.

A growing number of infections – such as pneumonia, tuberculosis, gonorrhoea, and salmonellosis – are
becoming harder to treat as the antibiotics used to treat them become less effective.

Antibiotic resistance leads to longer hospital stays, higher medical costs and increased mortality.

Antibiotics are medicines used to prevent and treat bacterial infections. Antibiotic resistance occurs
when bacteria change in response to the use of these medicines.

Bacteria, not humans or animals, become antibiotic-resistant. These bacteria may infect humans and
animals, and the infections they cause are harder to treat than those caused by non-resistant bacteria.
So, statement 2 is correct.

Antibiotic resistance (who.int)

31.

Answer: A

Avian influenza (AI) is a highly contagious viral disease that affects both domestic and wild birds. AI
viruses have also been isolated, although less frequently, from mammalian species, including humans.
This complex disease is caused by viruses divided into multiple subtypes (i.e., H5N1, H5N3, H5N8 etc.)
whose genetic characteristics rapidly evolve. The disease occurs worldwide but different subtypes are
more prevalent in certain regions than others. So, statement 1 is correct.

The main wild species involved in the viral cycle of avian influenza are waterfowls, gulls, and shorebirds;
however, the virus seems to pass easily between different bird species. Direct exposure of farmed birds
to wild birds is a likely transmission route of the virus. Therefore, it is critical to limit their exposure to
wild birds to lessen the risk of introduction of avian influenza into flocks. So, statement 2 is correct.

The transmission of avian influenza from birds to humans is usually sporadic and happens in a specific
context. People who are in close and repeated contact with infected birds or heavily contaminated
environments are at risk for acquiring avian influenza.

However, due to ongoing circulation of various subtypes , outbreaks of avian influenza continue to be a
global public health concern. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
32.

Answer: C

Oxidation in air: Silver oxidizes when exposed to air, so silver plated items eventually lose their shine as
a grey tarnish form on the surface. Polishing removes the tarnish but the plating might be damaged.

33.

Answer: D

Neon lamps are very rugged and not affected by vibration, mechanical shock, or frequent ON/OFF
operation. Neon lamps may be operated over a wide temperature range from -40 to +150˚C and are not
damaged by voltage transients of high voltage static discharges. So, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Indicator lamps, also called pilot lights, are used on just about every kind of electrical or electronic
equipment imaginable. Most new applications use Light-Emitting Diodes (LEDs), with the exception of
AC mains indicators or pilot lights where neon lamps are still popular. Statement 3 is correct.

Neon Lamps, Neon Indicator Lamps | ILT (internationallight.com)

34.

Answer: C

The three cold-blooded species are:

• Green sea turtle

• Komodo dragon

• American alligator

The four warm-blooded species are:

• Blue whale

• African elephant

• Peregrine falcon

• Red fox

Birds and mammals are warm blooded.

35.

Answer: D

Antigenic escape, immune escape, immune evasion or escape mutation occurs when the immune

system of a host, especially of a human being, is unable to respond to an infectious agent: the host's

immune system is no longer able to recognize and eliminate a pathogen, such as a virus. This process

can occur in a number of different ways of both a genetic and an environmental nature.

36.

Answer: B

Iron–air rechargeable batteries are an attractive technology, having the potential of grid-scale energy

storage. Main raw material of this technology is iron oxide (rust), which is non-toxic, abundant,

inexpensive and environmentally friendly. Most of the iron- batteries are currently being developed

using iron oxide for generating or storing hydrogen through a redox reaction. So, statement 1 is

incorrect.

Each iron-air battery is about the size of a washer/dryer set and holds 50 iron-air cells, which are then

surrounded by an electrolyte (similar to the Duracell in your TV remote). Using a principle called

“reverse rusting,” the cells “breathe” in air, which transforms the iron into iron oxide (aka rust) and

produces energy. To charge it back up, a current reverses the oxidation and turns the cells back into

iron. So, statement 2 is correct.

The downsides to iron-air batteries? They’re big and also slow to recharge, which is likely why lithium-

ion will remain the battery of choice for electric cars and smartphones. Form Energy also says these

iron-air batteries will form “power blocks” where iron-air batteries handle long load times, while

lithium-ion batteries take care of spikes in demand. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Iron Air Battery: How It Works and Why It Could Change Energy (popularmechanics.com)
37.

Answer: C

Guidelines for regulating digital platforms: a multistakeholder approach to safeguarding freedom of

expression and access to information – UNESCO Digital Library So, statement 2 is correct.

Public Technical Identifiers (PTI) is responsible for the operational aspects of coordinating the Internet’s
unique identifiers and maintaining the trust of the community to provide these services in an unbiased,
responsible and effective manner. Mainly, PTI is responsible for the operation of the IANA functions:

• Domain Names

• Number Resources

• Protocol Parameter Assignments

Public Technical Identifiers (PTI) was incorporated in August 2016 as an affiliate of ICANN, and, through
contracts and subcontracts with ICANN, began performing the IANA functions on behalf of ICANN in
October 2016. So, statement 1 is correct.

Public Technical Identifiers (PTI) (icann.org)

38.

Answer: B

In early 1919, the All-India Khilafat Committee was formed under the leadership of the Ali brothers,
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani, to force the British Government to change its
attitude to Turkey. Thus, the grounds for a country-wide agitation were prepared. An All-India Khilafat
Conference was held in Delhi in November 1919 and the call was made to boycott the British goods.
Statement 1 is incorrect.

Beginning of Non-Cooperation: By the repressive measures of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the
denial of justice, Gandhi observed that “the only effective means to vindicate national honour and to
prevent a repetition of the wrongs in future is the establishment of Swaraj”. Consequently, the non-co-
operation campaign was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi on 1st August 1919. The Movement was
initiated in support of the Khilafat Movement. Statement 2 is correct.
39.

Answer: C

 Hindustan Times was founded in 1924 in Delhi by Sunder Singh Lyallpuri, founder-father of the
Akali movement and the Shiromani Akali Dal. S Mangal Singh Gill (Tesildar) and S. Chanchal
Singh (Jandiala, Jalandhar) were made in charge of the newspaper. So statement 3 is correct.
 The Akali Movement developed on a purely religious issue but ended up as a powerful episode
of India’s freedom struggle. From 1920 to 1925 more than 30,000 men and women underwent
imprisonment, nearly 400 died and over 2,000 were wounded. The movement arose with the
objective of freeing the Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) from the control of ignorant and corrupt
mahants (priests). So, statement 2 is correct.
 In Punjab, the Akali Movement for ‘Test1ng control of the gurudwaras from the corrupt
mahants (priests) was a part of the general movement of Non-cooperation, and the Akalis
observed strict non-violence in the face of tremendous repression. So statement 1 is incorrect.

40.

Answer: A

Lord Curzon (1899-1905): He formed a Police commission in 1902 under the leadership of Sir Andrew
Fraser. It recommended a separate Training center for officers and constables. So, statement 3 is
incorrect.

The Indian Police Commission of 1902-03, also known as the Frazer Commission, was established by the
British government in India to reform the Indian police system. So, statement 1 is correct. It was headed
by Sir Andrew Frazer and Lord Curzon, and its main goal was to improve the efficiency and effectiveness
of the police force in India. One of its key recommendations was the establishment of a centralized
police intelligence system, which was considered to be a major success in improving police intelligence
gathering and analysis. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Commission also recommended the separation of
the executive and judicial functions of the police, and the creation of a police training school. Overall,
the Frazer Commission's recommendations had a significant impact on the Indian police system and
many of its recommendations were implemented.
41.

Answer: B

List of Leaders and the Centres of Revolt

• General Bakht Khan – Delhi

• Nana Saheb – Kanpur

• Begum Hazrat Mahal – Lucknow

• Khan Bahadur – Bareilly

• Kunwar Singh – Bihar

• Maulvi Ahmadullah – Faizabad

• Rani Laxmibai – Jhansi

42.

Answer: C

Sultan Mahmud Begada or Mahmud Shah I (r. 25 May 1458 – 23 November 1511) was the most

prominent Sultan of the Gujarat Sultanate. So, statement 1 is correct.

In 1503, First Portuguese fort was established at Cochin (now known as Kochi). So, statement 2 is

incorrect.

The Portuguese founded the town of Hooghly-Chuchura in 1579, but the district has thousands of years

of heritage in the form of the great kingdom of Bhurshut. The city flourished as a trading port and some

religious structures were built. Statement 3 is correct.

43.

Answer: D

The Charter Act of 1833 was passed in the British Parliament which renewed the East India Company’s
charter for another 20 years. This was also called the Government of India Act 1833 or the Saint Helena
Act 1833. The company’s commercial activities were closed down. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Background of Charter Act 1813

• Due to Napoleon Bonaparte’s Continental System in Europe (which prohibited the import of
British goods into French allies in Europe), British traders and merchants suffered. So, statement
2 is correct.
• So they demanded they be given a share in the British trade in Asia and dissolve the monopoly
of the East India Company.
• The company objected to this.
• Finally, British merchants were allowed to trade in India under a strict licensing system under
the Charter Act of 1813.
• But in trade with China and the tea trade, the company still retained its monopoly.

Provisions of the act:

• This Act asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British possessions in India.
• The company’s rule was extended to another 20 years. Their trade monopoly was ended except
for the trade in tea, opium, and with China. So, statement 4 is incorrect.
• It empowered the local governments to tax people subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court.
• The company’s dividend was fixed at 10.5%.
• The Act gave more powers for the courts in India over European British subjects.
• Another important feature of this act was to grant permission to the missionaries to come to
India and engage in religious proselytization. The missionaries were successful in getting the
appointment of a Bishop for British India with his headquarters at Calcutta in the provisions of
the Act.
• The act provided for a financial grant towards the revival of Indian literature and the promotion
of science. So, statement 3 is correct.
• The company was also to take up a greater role in the education of the Indians under them. It
was to set aside Rs.1 Lakh for this purpose.
44.

Answer: C

Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to Mahatma
Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahi. The movement started on 17th October 1940. So, statement 4 is
incorrect.

Muhammad Ali Jinnah was determined to create a separate state for Muslims, to protect the interests
of the Muslim population. On 23 March 1940, the Muslim League passed a resolution and demanded
autonomy in Muslim majority areas. Statement 3 is correct.

The Indian National Congress met at Haripura during 19 to 22 February 1938, under the presidency of
Subhas Chandra Bose; he was elected President of the Haripura Congress Session in 1938. Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel had selected Haripura for the convention. Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord
Linlithgow’s action of dragging India into the Second World War without the consent of her people. So,
statement 2 is incorrect.

45.

Answer: A

There were many causes of the Indian Naval Mutiny. First, the British military discriminated against
HMIS Talwar’s rating based on race. HMIS (His Majesty’s Indian Ship) Talwar was a British Royal Indian
Navy shore complex located in Colaba, Bombay, during World War II. Even for the same position, the
salaries of the Indian and British troops were different. Compared to Indian soldiers, British soldiers
were paid more and had better access to facilities and food, which greatly angered the Indian soldiers.
So statement 1 is correct.

The lawyers of Congress defence team in the INA trials were Bhulabhai Desai, Asaf Ali, Jawaharlal Nehru,
Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
46.
Answer D
• Seaweeds, the primitive, marine non-flowering marine algae without root, stem and leaves. So,
statement 1 is incorrect.
• The exotic, invasive Kappaphycus alvarezii seaweed being cultivated this region by PepsiCo (an
American multinational food, snack and beverage corporation) is posing a serious threat to the
coral reefs. They have started smothering the coral reefs and slowly killing them. So, statement
2 is incorrect.
• The conservation status of seaweeds is yet to be evaluated by the IUCN. Considering the
ecological values of seaweeds, it is essential for the central and state governments to initiate
speedy and scientific action for sustainable management of seaweeds to conserve them for
posterity.
• They are found mostly in the intertidal region, in shallow and deep waters of the sea and also in
estuaries and backwaters, absorb the excess nutrients and balance out the ecosystem.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/environment/why-seaweeds-need-to-be-conserved-urgently-
75070

47.
Answer B
In reproductive biology, a hermaphrodite is an organism that has both kinds of reproductive organs and
can produce both gametes associated with male and female sexes.
Platypus is a non-hermaphrodite mammal which lays egg and feeds milk to its offspring. The great
majority of tunicates, pulmonate molluscs, opisthobranch, earthworms, and slugs are hermaphrodites.
Animal species having different sexes, male and female, are called gonochoric, which is the opposite of
hermaphrodite.

48.
Answer: D
Naturally occurring uranium is not fissile because it contains 99.3% of U-238 and only 0.7% of U-235. U-
235 is the main fissile isotope of uranium. Natural uranium contains 0.7% of the U-235 isotope. The
remaining 99.3% is mostly the U-238 isotope which does not contribute directly to the fission process
(though it does so indirectly by the formation of fissile isotopes of plutonium). So, statement 1 is
incorrect.
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their
Disposal does not address the movement of radioactive nuclear waste. Joint Convention on the Safety of
Spent Fuel Management and on the Safety of Radioactive Waste Management under IAEA is the first
legal instrument to address the issue of spent fuel and radioactive waste management safety on a global
scale. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
https://www.iaea.org/topics/nuclear-safety-conventions/joint-convention-safety-spent-fuel-
management-and-safety-radioactive-waste
49.

Answer: C

The present-day Indian muntjac karyotype (Muntiacus muntjak vaginalis, Mmv) comprises six
chromosomes in the female and seven in the male, which is the lowest known chromosome number
among mammals. Indian Muntjac is commonly spotted across the country and South-East Asia. IUCN has
accorded ‘Least Concern’ status to the animal.

https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/5444269/

https://thewire.in/environment/the-barking-deer-enigma

50.

Answer: A

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) estimates regarding on-river pumped storage potential is 103 GW
in India.

India ranks fifth as the destination of PSPs. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://www.statista.com/statistics/689667/pumped-storage-hydropower-capacity-worldwide-by-
country/

The Ministry of Power has proposed giving incentives such as tax breaks, easy environment clearance
and providing land at concessional rates. Statement 4 is incorrect.

https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/power-ministry-plans-tax-breaks-for-
pumped-storage-hydro-projects-123021900172_1.html

51.

Answer: D

Hexachlorobenzene, or perchlorobenzene, is an organochloride with the molecular formula C6Cl6. It is a

fungicide formerly used as a seed treatment, especially on wheat to control the fungal disease bunt. It
has been banned globally under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.

All the statements in the question are self-explanatory.

http://chm.pops.int/TheConvention/ThePOPs/The12InitialPOPs/tabid/296/Default.aspx
52.
Answer: B

• Chitrangudi Bird sanctuary – Tamilnadu

• Anshupa Lake – Odisha
• Kabartal Wetland – Bihar
• Hygam Wetland – Jammu & Kashmir

53.
Answer D

MFPs provide essential nutrition to people living in forested areas, and are used for household purposes,
thus forming an important part of their non-cash income. For many tribal communities who practice
agriculture, MFPs are also a source of cash income, especially during slack seasons.
https://trifed.tribal.gov.in/non/timber/msp-mfp

54.

Answer: D

https://www.firstpost.com/living/india-gets-first-restaurant-for-vultures-to-save-the-birds-from-
extinction-2425900.html
India’s first dedicated corridor for wild animals, this cave-like underpass connects two famous wildlife
parks — Kanha and Pench in Madhya Pradesh.

Thenmala ecotourism project is the first planned ecotourism project/destination in the country. In many
other cases it was just renaming of an already existing “nature tourism”.
Phansad wildlife sanctuary is located at the Konkan region of Maharashtra, not Vidarbha. The first
“vulture restaurant” opened in 2015 at the Phansad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Raigad district. The success
of these restaurants depends on the availability of carcasses.

55.

Answer: A
It excludes, nuclear power generation, landfill projects, direct waste incineration, hydropower plants.
(Incorrect)
The framework for Sovereign Green Bonds, clearly says that it excludes only the hydropower projects
above 25 MW.

Other two statements are correct.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1874788
56.

Answer: B

Some of the commercially important trees of tropical evergreen forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood,
rubber and cinchona. Teak is the most dominant species of tropical deciduous forests. Bamboos, sal,
shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.

57.

Answer: C

• REN21 is the only global community of actors from science, governments, NGOs and industry
working collectively to drive the rapid uptake of renewables.It was created in 2004 as an
outcome of the Bonn 2004 International Conference on Renewable Energy
• India added around 15.4 GW of renewable power capacity in 2021, third highest after China
(136 GW) and the US (43 GW).
• India is now the third-largest market in the world for new solar PV capacity ranked fourth in the
world for total solar energy installations (60.4 GW) following China (305.9 GW).

58.

Answer: B

The Kayatha culture represents the earliest known agriculture settlement in the present-day Malwa
region. It also featured advanced copper metallurgy and stone blade industry. Using calibrated
radiocarbon, Dhavalikar dated this culture to a period spanning from 2400 BCE to 2000 BCE. It was
situated in present day Madhya Pradesh. So, third pair is correct.

The Ahar culture, also known as the Banas culture is a Chalcolithic archaeological culture on the banks of
Ahar River of southeastern Rajasthan state in India, lasting from c. 3000 to 1500 BCE, contemporary and
adjacent to the Indus Valley civilization. So, second pair is correct.

Ganeshwar is located near the copper mines of the Sikar-Jhunjhunu area of the Khetri copper belt in
Rajasthan. The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture has over 80 other sites currently identified. The period was
estimated to be 2500–2000 BC. Historian Ratna Chandra Agrawala wrote that Ganeshwar was excavated
in 1977. So, pair 1 is wrong.
59.
Answer: C
• Maktubat is the common term referred to the letters of Sufi sheikhs and scholars. The Maktubat
of Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi are indeed the most popular among the letters of sufi sheikhs.
60.
Answer: C
The invaluable ensemble of 34 caves at Ellora in the Charanandri hills of western India’s Maharashtra
State showcases a spirit of co-existence and religious tolerance through the outstanding architectural
activities carried out by the followers of three prominent religions: Buddhism, Brahmanism, and Jainism.
The rock-cut activity was carried out in three phases from the 6th century to the 12th century. So,
statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. But statement 2 is correct. The earliest caves (caves 1–12), excavated
between the 5th and 8th centuries, reflect the Mahayana philosophy of Buddhism then prevalent in this
region. The Brahmanical group of caves (caves 13–29), including the renowned Kailasa temple (cave 16),
was excavated between the 7th and 10th centuries. The last phase, between the 9th and 12th centuries,
saw the excavation of a group of caves (caves 30–34) reflecting Jaina philosophy.
The management of the Ellora Caves is carried out by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), while the
buffer zones are jointly managed by the ASI, the Forest Department, and the Government of
Maharashtra. Various legislation, including the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and
Remains Act (1958) and its Rules (1959), Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains
(Amendment and Validation) Act (2010), Forest Act (1927), Forest Conservation Act (1980), Municipal
Councils, Nagar Panchayats and Industrial Townships Act, Maharashtra (1965), and Regional and Town
Planning Act, Maharashtra (1966), governs the overall administration of the property and its buffer
zones. Statement 5 is correct.
Cave 16 (Kailasa, the largest monolithic temple) – So, statement 4 is correct.

61.
Answer: A
Bharuch, formerly known as Broach, is a city at the mouth of the river Narmada in Gujarat in western
India. So, statement 1 is correct.
The exact location of Muziris is still not known to historians and archaeologists, but it is generally
thought to be at Pattanam, an archaeological site north of Cochin in Kerala, on the banks of River
Periyar. It was not situated in Eastern India. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Tamralipta or Tamralipti (Pali: Tāmaliti) was a port city and capital of Suhma Kingdom in ancient India,
located on the coast of the Bay of Bengal. The Tamluk town in present-day Purba Medinipur, West
Bengal, is generally identified as the site of Tamralipti. It was located near the Rupnarayan river. So,
statement 3 is incorrect.
Sopara was an ancient port town and the capital of the ancient Aparanta (Western Border) in western
Maharashtra. In ancient times, it was the largest township on India’s west coast, trading with
Mesopotamia, Egypt, Cochin, Arabia and Eastern Africa.
62.

Answer: C

Bana, also called Banabhatta, (flourished 7th century), one of the greatest masters of Sanskrit prose,
famed principally for his chronicle, Harshacharita (c. 640; “The Life of Harsha”), depicting the court and
times of the Buddhist emperor Harsha (reigned c. 606–647) of northern India. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Sashanka of Gauda dynasty was one of the contemporaries of Harshavardhana. He is the contemporary
of Harsha and of Bhaskaravarman of Kamarupa. His capital was at Karnasubarna, in present-day
Murshidabad in West Bengal. So, statement 2 is correct.

Hiuen Tsang or Xuanzang was a chinese buddhist monk who travelled over land from China to India
during the reign of King Harsha Vardhan to obtain Buddhist scriptures. Statement 2 is correct.

63.

Answer: A

Tezpur Litchi of Assam has got the geographical indication (GI) tags, making this item an incontrovertible
proof of their origins in the state, and protecting them from production elsewhere. Litchi’s from Tezpur
is known for its excellent quality, pleasant flavour, juicy pulp with attractive red colour.

https://ipindia.gov.in/registered-gls.htm

64.

Answer: C

Cities Countries

A- Bern 3- Switzerland
B- Fortaleza 4-Brazil
C- Cologne 1-Germany
D- Kochi 2- Japan
65.

Answer: C

Reasons for absence of Laurentian type of climate

In the southern hemisphere only a small section of continents extends south of 40°S latitude.

Some of these small sections come under the rain-shadow region of Andes (Patagonia) and
hence Westerlies hardly ever reach these regions.

So these regions are subjected to aridity rather than continentality.

In other regions, the oceanic influence is so profound that neither the continental nor the
eastern margin type of climate exists.

It has the characteristics of marine and continental climates. The Laurentian-type climate is found in
only two areas: Northeastern North America, which includes eastern Canada, the northeastern United
States (i.e., Maritime Provinces and the state of New England), and Newfoundland. So, both statements
are correct.

66.

Answer: A
Narmada tributaries: Its principal tributaries are the Burhner, the Halon, the Heran, the Banjar, the
Dudhi, the Shakkar, the Tawa, the Barna ,the Kolar, the Ganjal, the Beda, the Goi, and the Orsang.

67.

Answer: A

Siderite | mineral | Britannica

68.

Answer: B.

69.

Answer: A

Wadge Bank is a 3000 sq km area which form rich fishing grounds

• It is located at a distance of 50 nautical miles south from Kanyakumari

• It is the region of contention between Sri Lankan and Indian fishermen.
70.

Answer: D

Source: Refer NCERT Geography Basics

Tombolos are the marine erosional landforms.

71.

Answer: D

All the above are the effects of weakening of AMOC.

https://www.earth.com/news/global-warming-could-collapse-the-atlantic-circulation-system/

https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.2116655119

72.

Answer: D

• Their primogenitors Tukbothing and Nazong Nyu, equivalent to Adam and Eve, are said to have
been created by God from the pristine snows of the world’s third highest mountain ie. Mt.
Kangchenjunga.
• It was on May 16, 1975 that Sikkim became 22nd state of the Union of India.

The Lepchas are the indigenous people of the Indian state of Sikkim and Nepal, and number around
80,000 in population. Most Lepchas are Buddhists, a religion brought by the Bhutias from the north,
although a large number of Lepchas have today adopted Christianity.

73.

Answer: A

Hawaii’s Mauna Loa, the world’s largest active volcano, erupts for first time in nearly 40 years.

https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Hawaii%26%2339%3bs-Mauna-Loa%2c-the-world%26%2339%3bs-
largest-active-volcano%2c-erupts-for-first-time-in-nearly-40-years&id=451517
74.

Answer: C

Stromatolites and thrombolites are two distinct types of microbialites, rock-like underwater microbial
structures that look like reefs but, are entirely millions of microbes. The main difference between
stromatolites and thrombolites is their structure and formation. Stromatolites are finely laminated
whereas thrombolites are not laminated and possess a clotted internal structure with fenestrae.

A stromatolite Is a layered sedimentary rock created by microorganisms. As such, stromatolite fossils

preserve records of cyanobacteria, commonly known as blue-green algae – the earliest life on the
planet. These organisms developed the ability to photosynthesise and make their own food. By doing so,
they pumped large quantities of oxygen into the atmosphere of primaeval earth, allowing most other
life to evolve and flourish.

Stromatolites are sometimes called ‘crocodile-skin rock’ due to their unusual textures. In this case, the
texture was the result of the carbonate matrix eroding away more easily than the phosphate-rich
minerals.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-geoheritage-sites-jhamarkotra-and-zawar-
protection/article66630686.ece

75.

Answer: A

The Fujiwhara effect, sometimes referred to as the Fujiwara effect, Fujiw(h)ara interaction or binary
interaction, is a phenomenon that occurs when two nearby cyclonic vortices move around each other
and close the distance between the circulations of their corresponding low-pressure areas. The effect is
named after Sakuhei Fujiwhara, the Japanese meteorologist who initially described the effect.

The tropical storm Gardo moved towards typhoon Hinnamnor and became super-typhoon exhibiting
Fujiwhara effect.

https://www.foxweather.com/learn/what-is-the-fujiwhara-effect-super-typhoon-hinnamnor-provided-
a-textbook-example-this-week
76.

Answer: B

Lake Victoria, with an area of 68,800 square kilometres (26,600 sq mi), is the largest lake in Africa. It is
not in the rift valley, instead occupying a depression between the eastern and western rifts formed by
the uplift of the rifts to either side. Lakes Victoria, Tanganyika, and Malawi are sometimes collectively
known as the African Great Lakes.

Lake Cheko traces its location to Siberia.

77.

Answer: C

About the award | Champions of the Earth (unep.org)

The Champions of the Earth award is the UN’s highest environmental honour. Since 2005, we have
recognized heroes who inspire, encourage others to join them, and defend a better, more sustainable
future. Statement 1 is correct.

The Champions of the Earth has recognized 106 laureates, ranging from world leaders to technology
inventors. They include 26 world leaders, 64 individuals and 16 groups or organizations. Statement 2 is
incorrect.
Indian wildlife biologist Dr Purnima Devi Barman is among the honourees of this year’s Champions of the
Earth award, the U.N.’s highest environmental honour, accorded for their transformative action to
prevent, halt and reverse ecosystem degradation.

Dr. Barman has been honoured with the UN Environment Programme’s (UNEP) 2022 Champions of the
Earth award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category. Statement 3 is correct.

Champions of the Earth are celebrated in four categories: So, statement 4 is incorrect.

• Policy leadership – individuals or organizations in the public sector leading global or national
action for the environment. They shape dialogue, lead commitments and act for the good of the
planet.
• Inspiration and action – individuals or organizations taking bold steps to inspire positive change
to protect our world. They lead by example, challenge behavior and inspire millions.
• Entrepreneurial vision – individuals or organizations challenging the status quo to build a cleaner
future. They build systems, create new technology and spearhead a groundbreaking vision.
• Science and innovation– individuals or organizations who push the boundaries of technology for
profound environmental benefit. They invent possibilities for a more sustainable world.
78.

Answer: B

Trichoderma is a genus of fungi in the family Hypocreaceae that is present in all soils, where they are the

most prevalent culturable fungi. Many species in this genus can be characterized as opportunistic

avirulent plant symbionts. Statement 1 is wrong.

Trichoderma spp. Significantly suppress the growth of plant pathogenic microorganisms and regulate

the rate of plant growth. Recent works have shown that common plant disease such as root rot disease,

damping off, wilt, fruit rot and other plant diseases can be controlled by Trichoderma spp. So, statement

3 is correct.

Fungi belonging to the genus Trichoderma are used as successful plant growth enhancers, biostimulants,

biofertilizers, and as effective biocontrol agents against various pathogens. So, statement 2 is correct.

79.

Answer: C

Pheromone traps are more selective than light traps, as they only target specific insect species, while

light traps can catch a wide range of insects. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

80.

Answer: A

Season and Varieties :: Cotton (tnau.ac.in)

They are the hybrid cotton varieties.

81.
Answer: C

Charvaka – World History Encyclopedia

Charvaka (also given as Carvaka) was a philosophical school of thought, developed in India c. 600 BCE,
stressing materialism as the means by which one understands and lives in the world. Materialism holds
that perceivable matter is all that exists; concepts such as the soul and any other supernatural entities
or planes of existence are simply inventions of imaginative people.
The Charvaka vision rejected all supernatural claims, all religious authority and scripture, the acceptance
of inference and testimony in establishing truth, and any religious ritual or tradition. So, statement 1 is
correct. The essential tenets of the philosophy were:
• Direct perception as the only means of establishing and accepting any truth
• What cannot be perceived and understood by the senses does not exist
• All that exists are the observable elements of air, earth, fire, and water
• The ultimate good in life is pleasure; the only evil is pain
• Pursuing pleasure and avoiding pain is the sole purpose of human existence. So statement 2 is
correct.
• Religion is an invention of the strong and clever who prey on the weak
It should be noted, however, that, while the above are accepted as the tenets of Charvaka, no original
Charvakan texts have yet been found; all that is known of the belief system comes from later Hindu,
Jain, and Buddhist works which were hostile toward the philosophy and recorded its beliefs in refuting
them. Charvaka is thought to have been developed by Brhaspati (not to be confused with the great sage
of light Brhaspati of Dharma Shastra fame) in response to what he perceived as the superstitious
nonsense people were fooled into accepting as irrefutable truth.

82.
Answer: C
Gol Gumbaz | Vijayapura District, Government Of Karnataka | India
Gol Gumbaz is the most famous monument in Vijayapura. It is the tomb of Mohammed Adil Shah (ruled
1627–1657). It is the second largest dome ever built, next in size only to St Peter’s Basilica in Rome. A
particular attraction in this monument is the central chamber, where every sound is echoed seven
times. Another attraction at the Gol Gumbaz is the Whispering Gallery, where even minute sounds can
be hear clearly 37 metres away. Gol Gumbaz complex includes a mosque, a Naqqar Khana (a hall for the
trumpeters) (now it is used as museum) and the ruins of guest houses. Its vast dome is said to be the
Second Largest Dome, unsupported by pillars, in the world, after St. Peter’s in the Vatican City of
Rome.It is constructed in such a way that even a pin drop can be heard distinctly from across a space of
38 m, in the Whispering Gallery. The acoustics here are such that any sound made is said to be repeated
10 times over. In the surrounding ornamental gardens is an archeological museum.
83.

Answer: D

Battle of Mysore: The Anglo-Mysore Wars were a series of four wars fought during the last three

decades of the 18th century between the Sultanate of Mysore on the one hand, and the British East India

Company, Maratha Empire, Kingdom of Travancore, and the Kingdom of Hyderabad on the other So,

option 1 is incorrect.

Battle of Plassey – This battle was fought between the British East India Company and the Nawab of

Bengal, Siraj ud-Daulah, in 1757.

Battle of Panipat – This battle was fought between the Mughal Empire and the Maratha Empire in 1761.

The Battle of Khanwa was fought at Khanwa on March 16, 1527. It was fought between the invading

Timurid forces of Babur and the Rajput confederacy. So, option 4 is incorrect.

84.

Answer: B

The Satavahanas retained some of the administrative units of Ashokan times. The kingdom was divided

into districts called ahara. Their officials were known as amatyas and mahamatras (same as in Mauryan

times). But unlike Mauryan times, certain military and feudal elements are found in the administration

of the Satavahanas. For instance, the senapati was appointed provincial governor. It was probably done

to keep the tribal people in the Deccan who were not completely brahmanised under strong military

control. Statement 1 is correct.

The Satavahanas started the practice of granting tax-free villages to brahmanas and buddhist monks. So,

statement 2 is incorrect.

In the kingdom of Satavahanas of ancient India, a district was called Ahara. So statement 3 is correct.
85.

Answer: A

• Statements are self-explanatory.

Geometry in Vedic Age- Sulvasutras or Sulbasutras

• Some scholars have shown on the basis of evidence in Shatapatha Brahmana that Indian
geometry predates Greek geometry by centuries. It has been argued that Geometry and
Mathematics had a ritualistic beginning in India centuries before Greeks or Babylon. In these
rituals, Earth was represented by Circular altar and heavens were represented in Squar altar.
There were eagle shaped altars also.
• The Ritual consisted of coverting the Circle into a square of identical area. As per a paper by
Seidenberg: Babylonia [1700 BC] got the theorem of Pythagoras from India or that both Old-
Babylonia and India got it from a third source. The source quoted was Sulvasutras.
• Sulvasutras deal with complex fire altars of various shapes constructed with bricks of specific
shapes and area: the total area of the altar must always be carefully respected. This proves that
despite of no existance of algebra, there was an awareness of precise purely geometrical
calculations.
• It was written in Vedic Sanskrit.

86.

Answer: B

https://www.unwater.org/about-un-water/members-and-partners/un-global-compacts-ceo-water-
mandate-un-global-
compact#:~:text=The%20CEO%20Water%20Mandate%2C%20a,%2C%20civil%20society%2C%20and%20
others.

The CEO Water Mandate, a partnership between the UN Global Compact and the Pacific Institute,
formed in 2007 to mobilize business leaders to advance water stewardship, sanitation, and the
Sustainable Development Goals in partnership with the United Nations, governments, peers, civil
society, and others. Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Mandate develops tools and resources, convenes stakeholders, and facilitates meaningful
partnerships and on-the-ground collective actions that improve conditions in at-risk river basins around
the world. The work of the Mandate and its initiatives including the Water Resilience Coalition and
WASH4Work focuses on identifying actions, tools, and resources to help companies implement good
water stewardship towards as a direct contribution to Sustainable Development Goal 6. Statement 2 is
correct.
87.
Answer: A
The 2nd India-Africa Defence Dialogue (IADD) was held on the sidelines of DefExpo 2022 in Gandhinagar,
Gujarat.
What is India-Africa Defence Dialogue?
• Theme: Adopting Strategy for Synergizing and Strengthening Defence and Security Cooperation.
Outcome Document:
• The Gandhinagar Declaration was adopted as an outcome document of IADD 2022. So
statement 1 is correct.
The IADD was institutionalised to be held biennially during successive DefExpos.
The first India–Africa Defence Dialogue was held in February 2020 on the sidelines of DefExpo 2020.
India has now institutionalised the dialogue to be held every two years along with the DefExpo.
Statement 2 is correct.

88.
Answer: A
The “2022 Resilient Democracies Statement” was signed after Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended a
summit of the G7 countries. Apart from India, the signatories to the statement were Germany,
Argentina, Canada, France, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Senegal, South Africa, the United Kingdom, the
United States of America and the European Union. So, option A is the right answer.

89.
Answer: C
The UN plan, which is linked to efforts to ensure Russian food and fertilizer reach global markets,
supports the stabilization of spiralling food prices worldwide and stave off famine, affecting millions.

The Initiative specifically allows for commercial food and fertilizer (including ammonia) exports from
three key Ukrainian ports in the Black Sea – Odesa, Chornomorsk, Yuzhny/Pivdennyi.
The Joint Coordination Centre (JCC) was established to monitor the implementation of the Initiative. The
Joint Coordination Centre is hosted in Istanbul and includes representatives from Russia, Türkiye,
Ukraine and the United Nations. The UN acts also as the Secretariat for the Centre.
Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
90.

Answer: D

https://iccforum.com/genocide-convention

Article II

In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy,
in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religions group, as such:

(a) Killing members of the group;

(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;

©Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction
in whole or in part;

(d)Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;

€Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.

91.

Answer: D

• It is a multilateral development bank jointly founded by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India,
China and South Africa) at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014.
• It was formed to support infrastructure and sustainable development efforts in BRICS and other
underserved, emerging economies for faster development through innovation and cutting-edge
technology.
• It is headquartered at Shanghai, China. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• In 2018, the NDB received observer status in the United Nations General Assembly, establishing
a firm basis for active and fruitful cooperation with the UN. Statement 1 is correct.
• The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members
of the bank, however the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting
power. So, statement 3 is correct.
92.

Answer: A

The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is a multi-stakeholder initiative which aims to

bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied

activities on AI-related priorities.

Built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on Artificial Intelligence, GPAI brings

together engaged minds and expertise from science, industry, civil society, governments, international

organisations and academia to foster international cooperation. Statement 3 is correct.

India today assumed the Chair of the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI), an international

initiative to support responsible and human-centric development and use of Artificial Intelligence (AI).

This comes close on the heels of India taking over the presidency of G20, a league of world’s largest

economies at Bali, Indonesia. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Launched in June 2020 with 15 members, GPAI is the fruition of an idea developed within the G7.

Statement 1 is correct.

Today, GPAI’s 29 members are Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, Czech Republic, Denmark,

France, Germany, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Mexico, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Poland, the

Republic of Korea, Senegal, Serbia, Singapore, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Türkiye, the United Kingdom,

the United States and the European Union. Statement 2 is incorrect.

93.

Answer: B

The Tobacco Board was constituted as a statutory body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the

Tobacco Board Act, 1975. The Board is headed by a Chairman with its headquarters at Guntur, Andhra

Pradesh and is responsible for the development of the tobacco industry. While the primary function of

the Board is export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products, its functions extend to

production, distribution (for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation of Flue Cured Virginia

(FCV) tobacco. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Tobacco is one of the most economically significant agricultural crops in the world. It is a drought

tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be

cultivated profitably. In India, Tobacco crop is grown in an area of 0.45 M ha (0.27% of the net cultivated

area) producing ~ 750 M kg of tobacco leaf. India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China

and Brazil respectively. The production of flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is about 300 million kg from

an area of 0.20 M ha while 450 million kg non-FCV tobacco is produced from an area of 0.25 M ha. In the

global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production. Statement

3 is incorrect.

Unique feature of tobacco production in India is that varied styles of Flue-cured Virginia (FCV) and

different types of non-FCV tobacco are produced under diverse agro-ecological situations spread all over

the country. About 15 states in the country grow tobacco, significantly influencing the economy and

prosperity of the farming community. FCV, Bidi, Hookah, Chewing, Cigar-wrapper, Cheroot, Burley,

Oriental, HDBRG, Lanka, Pikka, Natu, Motihari, Jati etc. are the different types of tobacco grown in the

country. FCV, Burley and Oriental tobacco are the major exportable types.
94.

Answer: C

Recently, a new Global Security Initiative (GSI) was put forward by Chinese President. The GSI looks to
counter the US Indo-Pacific strategy and the Quad (India, US, Australia, Japan grouping).

95.

Answer: D

An Accredited Social Health Activist is a community health worker employed by the Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare as a part of India’s National Rural Health Mission. So, statement 2 and 3 is incorrect.

The ICDS team comprises the Anganwadi Workers, Anganwadi Helpers, Supervisors, Child Development
Project Officers (CDPOs) and District Programme Officers (DPOs). Anganwadi Worker, a lady selected
from the local community, is a community based frontline honorary worker of the ICDS Programme. So,
statement 1 is incorrect.

96.

Answer: B

As per the Companies Act, 2013, Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has been set up by
Government of India vide Notification No. SO2005€ dated 21.07.2015. It is a multi-disciplinary
organization under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, comprising experts in the fields of accountancy,
forensic auditing, banking, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital markets and
taxation etc. for detection and prosecution. Recommending prosecution of white-collar crimes/frauds.

97.

Answer: B

Short selling is the practice of selling a security with the expectation of profiting from a price decrease.
Short selling is a strategy used by traders to profit from a decline in the price of a security. It involves
borrowing shares of a security from a broker and selling them on the market, with the expectation that
the price of the security will decline. The trader then buys back the shares at a lower price, returns them
to the broker, and pockets the difference as profit.
98.
Answer: A

The Registrar General of India was founded in 1961 to conduct and assess results obtained from
demographic survey in the country, including the Census of India and the Linguistic Survey of India. This
office comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report is released by Registrar General of India (RGI),
Statement 1 is correct.

99.

Answer: C

Gilt Funds are debt funds which only invest in bonds and fixed interest-bearing securities issued by the
state and central governments. So, option 3 is correct.

100.

Answer: B
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has completed the static test of the human-
rated solid rocket booster (HS200) for Gaganyaan programme. Statement 2 is correct.

The HS200 Is a 20-metre-long booster with a diameter of 3.2 metres and is the world’s second largest
operational booster using solid propellants. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The HS200 is the human-rated version of the S200 rocket booster of satellite launch vehicle GSLV Mk III,
popularly known as LVM3.