1.
Complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the
absence of disease and infirmity”. This was stated by:
Options:
a) United States Health Agency
b) National Institute of Health
c) National League for Nursing (NLN)
d) World Health Organization
2. The name of the nursing diagnosis is linked to the ethology with the
phrase:
Options:
a) as manifested by
b) related to
c) evidenced by
d) due to
3.and infirmity”. This was stated by:
1. . Priorities of Planning in Nursing Process is done by:
Options:
a) Information processing model
b) Interpersonal theory
c) Stages of illness model
d) Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs
4.. Nursing Diagnosis Categories include all, except:
Options:
a) Possible
b) Actual
c) Factual
d) Syndrome
5,. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most important for
determining fluid balance in a client with end-stage renal failure?
Options:
a) Monitor urine specific gravity
b) Measure fluid intake and output
c) Weigh daily
d) Record frequency of bowel movements
6. What is the term used for a high-pitched musical sound in clients during a
respiratory assessment?
Options:
a) Crowing
b) Wheezing
c) Stridor
d) Sigh
7.. What is the term used for normal respiratory rhythm and depth in a
client?
Options:
a) Eupnea
b) Apnea
c) Bradypnea
d) Tachypnea
8. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are concepts related to
Options:
a) Health Belief Model
b) Transtheoretical Model
c) Health Promotion Model
d) General Adaptation Syndrom
9.. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated in:
Options:
a) Hypovolemia
b) Burns
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Fluid lost as bile or diarrhea
10. What is the first step of the scientific method?
Options:
a) Knowledge
b) Observation
c) Hypothesis
d) Experiment
11. Which moves from general to specific?
Options:
a) Deductive method
b) Inductive method
c) A and B
d) None
12. which is the second step in scientific method?
Options:
a) Hypothesis
b) Experiment
c) Deduction
d) Theory
13.. How the hypothesis can be tested
Options:
a) By development of theory
b) By scientific laws
c) By performing experiments
d) Conduct seminars
14.. Why is scientific method important?
Options:
a) To minimize the influence of bias or prejudice in the experimenter
b) It result from personal beliefs and cultural beliefs
c) It provides an objective and standardized approach to conducting experiments in
order to improve their results.
d) All of the above
15.. Scientific inquiry begins with?
Options:
a) A problem to solve or a question to answer
b) Observation
c) Laboratory tests
d) A checklist of procedures
16. To test a hypothesis, scientists must...?
Options:
a) Not reason deductively
b) Accurately predict the outcome of tests
c) Ignore test implications of the hypothesis
d) Derive a test implication from the
17. Which method will be used for development of scientific skills?
Options:
a) Performing laboratory work
b) Giving opportunity to learn skills in some field visit
c) Conduction science olympiads
d) By science quiz competition
18. something is logically impossible if...?
Options:
a) It violates a law of science
b) It violates a principle of logic
c) It cannot be tested
d) It is difficult to understand
19. The standards used to judge the worth of scientific theories are known
as…?
Options:
a) The criteria of evaluation
b) The criteria of adequacy
c) The scientific method
d) The rules of consistency
20. The crucial aspect of scientific?
Options:
a) The problem
b) Hypothesis
c) The Method
d) The Result
21. In double-blind experiments...?
Options:
a) Test results are unacceptable
b) Neither the subjects nor experimenters know who receives the real treatment
c) Only the experimenters know who receives
d) Placebos are not used
22.. Science seeks to acquire knowledge and understanding of reality through
the formulation, testing, and evaluating of...
Options:
a) Deductive reasoning
b) Theories
c) Technology
d) Scientific method
23). The scientific method cannot be identified with any particular set of
experimental or observational...?
Options:
a) Parameters
b) Goals
c) Formulas
d) Procedures
24. the basis of Scientific Method is........
Options:
a) To test hypotheses in conditions that is conclusive to its success
b) To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis
c) To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled
conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
d) To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely
25. which of the following stages of the nursing process is similar to that of
the research process in determining the focus of the research and the
research aim?
Options:
a) Assessment
b) Planning
c) Implementing
d) Evaluating
26.. Clinical effectiveness is about which of the following?
Options:
a) Undertaking research in order to determine effective outcomes
b) Introducing new clinical procedures into practice.
c) Getting evidence of what works into everyday clinical practice and evaluating its
effect on patient care.
d) Evaluating the best evidence.
27. Which of the following statements is not applicable to using an evidence-
base in nursing practice?
Options:
a) To ensure the best quality of care given is to patients
b) To ensure that nursing decisions are based on the best quality of evidence.
c) Evidence used in nursing practice must be appraised for its validity and applicability.
d) The use of research evidence in nursing practice does not need to be evaluated
after it is used or implemented.
28) Which of the following is not a quantitative approach to research?
Options:
a) Statistics
b) Quasi-experiment
c) Survey
d) Randomised Control Trial
29. Which one of the following is not a qualitative approach to research?
Options:
a) Grounded theory
b) Philanthropy
c) Ethnography
d) Phenomenology
30.. The research process can be compared to which of the following?
Options:
a) A train timetable.
b) The spine of a skeleton
c) The problem-solving process
d) Nursing theorie
31.). Why does a researcher write a research proposal at the start of a study?
Options:
a) So they will not forget what they are doing during the study.
b) So they can advertise for people to take part in the study.
c) To make sure they have not left any part of the study out when they are planning it.
d) To apply for ethical approval and to gain permission to access participants or
sources of data.
32.). How would you define 'the research process'?
Options:
a) The researcher's plan of action to be followed when carrying out research
b) A method of collecting research data
c) The stages or steps the researcher follows in carrying out a research project
d) The account of a study the researcher will write at the end of the study ready for
publication
33). Integrity and transparency are fundamental:
Options:
a) Issues in business
b) Requirements in research
c) Ethical principles in research
d) Methodologies in research
34). Essential in ethics and ethical standards is:
Options:
a) A good grasp of research methods
b) The capacity to produce good research
c) A good understanding of business
d) The capacity to distinguish between right and wrong
35. Ethics can be defined as:
Options:
a) A process of reasoning in terms of the right thing to do
b) Rules governing society
c) The basis of the criminal code
d) A list of rights and wrongs
36). Which of the following ethical principles refers to the duty not to harm ?
Options:
a) Beneficence
b) Nonmaleficence
c) Fidelity
d) Veracity
37). The ethically reflective practitioner:
Options:
a) Engages in research on ethics
b) Thinks critically about the standard of their research and their code of conduct and
behaviour as a researcher.
c) Is particularly bound by rules and standards
d) Wastes a lot of time just thinking
38). Reflexivity is:
Options:
a) The fast response the researcher makes to every development in the research
project
b) The relationship that develops between the researcher and the research project
c) The researcher’s active, thoughtful engagement with every aspect and
development of their research
d) A reflection on the relationship between the researcher and the research project
39). A guarantee of confidentiality is:
Options:
a) A guarantee that some information will remain confidential and will not be
disclosed.
b) Always required by proper ethical standards in research
c) Essential for every participant in a research project
d) Only given under duress
40). The principle of informed consent is:
Options:
a) Of little use in business research
b) Essential to the relationship between the researcher and the research project
c) A key ethical concern
d) A key data gathering method
41). Power is in research:
Options:
a) Essential in business
b) Essential for the business researcher
c) A good force for any researcher
d) A fundamental ethical issue in research
42). Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the
researcher. This is called
Options:
a) Anonymity
b) Confidentiality
c) Deception
d) Desensitizing
43). What is it called when the participants are not revealed to anyone but
researcher and staff?
Options:
a) Confidentiality
b) Anonymity
c) Ethics
d) Discretion
44). There are potential risks and harms in:
Options:
a) Every stage of the research process
b) Some research projects
c) Research projects that engage with human populations
d) Some research projects that engage with human populations
45). ) In carrying out the research, the researcher should engage properly
and thoroughly with:
OPTIONS:
a) The media
b) The literature on the topic
c) Their peers
d) Art and science
46). A gatekeeper is:
OPTIONS:
a) Any person or structure that controls access to people, places, structures and/or
organisations.
b) A person in charge of a gate
c) A security officer or guard
d) A person who controls entrances and exits
47). Every research project should make a contribution:
OPTIONS:
a) To the researcher’s development
b) Financially
c) To knowledge
d) In term of methodology
48). Research ethics committees are
OPTIONS:
a) Committees of researchers
b) Convened by organisations to monitor and police the ethical standards of research
projects carried out under their auspices, under their name
c) Committees of researchers concerned with ethics
d) Concerned only with research conducted in the medical sciences
49). A hypothesis that States the nature (positive or negative) of the
interaction between two or more variables is called:
OPTIONS:
a) Associated hypothesis
b) Casual hypothesis
c) Null hypothesis
d) Directional hypothesis
50). What does the term 'reliability' indicate?
OPTIONS:
a) We can trust that the research has being carried out to a high standard.
b) That the results are accurate.
c) That the researcher can be trusted.
d) That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring accurately and
consistently.
51). Misinforming the subjects for the research purposes is called as follow?
OPTIONS:
a) Anonymity
b) Confidentiality
c) Scientific misconduct
d) Deception
52). Which of the following is not an element of the ethical research?
OPTIONS:
a) Protecting subjects rights
b) Obtaining informed consent
c) Obtaining institutional approval
d) Unbalancing the benefits and the risk in the study
53). In terms of reasoning, which of the following research is dialectic &
inductive?
OPTIONS:
a) Outcome research
b) Quantitative research
c) Qualitative research
d) All of above
54). Following are the elements of qualitative research except one?
OPTIONS:
a) Reductionist
b) Subjective
c) Holistic
d) Develop theory
55). The major reason for conducting research is to:
OPTIONS:
a) Provide nursing care to the clients
b) Promote the growth of nursing profession
c) Document the cost-effectiveness of care
d) Ensure accountability for nursing practice
56).Research Does Not means to:
OPTIONS:
a) Search again
b) Create problem
c) Examine carefully
d) Method of problem solving
57) A statement of the expected relationship between two or more variables
is known as the:
OPTIONS:
a) Research question
b) Hypothesis
c) Problem statement
d) Concept definition
58) Condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories
is called a:
OPTIONS:
a) Descriptive relationship
b) Cause-and-effect relationship
c) Variable
d) Constant
59). A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?
OPTIONS:
a) T-test statistic
b) Level of significance
c) Hypothesis
d) Statistic
60). Which of the following cannot be considered as component of the
research problem?
OPTIONS:
a) Variable
b) Research study tool
c) Research setting
d) Study population
61). If the assumed the hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be
true is called?
OPTIONS:
a) Statistical hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis
d) Simple hypothesis
62). The statement to compare the severity of morning sickness symptoms
among primigravida and multigravida is best described as a research?
OPTIONS:
a) Question
b) Objective
c) Hypothesis
d) Aim
63). Which of the following statements represents the complex hypothesis?
OPTIONS:
a) There is significant positive correlation between years of experience and level of
nurses’ job satisfaction
b) Music therapy reduces pain perception during surgery
c) Male patients have higher satisfaction with nursing care as compared to their female
counterparts
d) Social support, balanced diet, and regular exercise decrease the incidence of
postpartum depression.
64). Which of the following is not a component of hypothesis?
OPTIONS:
a) Dependent variable
b) Independent variable
c) Extraneous variable
d) Study population
65). The proposal's literature review is important because-——
OPTIONS:
a) It is expected by university
b) The tutor insist upon it
c) It look authoritative
d) It shows that you are knowledgeable about the literature that relates to your
research topic
66). The purpose of a literature review is to-...........
OPTIONS:
a) Help you find out what is already known about this area
b) Identify any inconsistencies or gaps in the literature.
c) Demonstrate an awareness of the theoretical context in which the current study can
be located
d) Find what is already known, identify gaps,and demonstrate awareness
67). A literature review requires….
OPTIONS:
a) Planning
b) Good & clear writing
c) Lot of rewriting
d) All of above
68). Which of the following scale of measurement is appropriate to measure
the weight of the patient?
OPTIONS:
a) Ordinal Scale
b) Nominal scale
c) Ratio scale
d) Interval scale
69). Who coined the term ‘triangulation’ in research?
OPTIONS:
a) Hungler
b) Polit
c) Nightingale
d) Denzin
70). Which of the following is not a measure of variability?
OPTIONS:
a) Median
b) Variance
c) Standard deviation
d) Range
71). The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called?
OPTIONS:
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Range
d) mode
72), which of the following stands true for the full form of SPSS?
OPTIONS:
a) Statistical Package for Social System
b) Statistical Package for Social Science
c) Statistical Package for Statistical Science
d) Statistical Package for Statistical System
73). The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is
the…….
OPTIONS:
a) Experimental group
b) Control group
c) Treatment group
d) Independent group
74). Which of the following is not a function of clearly identified research
questions?
OPTIONS:
a) They guide your literature search
b) They keep you focused throughout the data collection period
c) They make the scope of your research as wide as possible
d) They are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
75). Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating......
OPTIONS
a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Qualitative data
d) Collective
Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than..
dataSecondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower
cost than.. data
76). Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a
lower cost than.. data
OPTIONS:
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Collective
d) Territory
77). Systematic error is associated with:
OPTIONS:
a) Reliability
b) Validity
78). The validity and reliability of a research will be at stake when ------
OPTIONS:
a) The author who is the source of information is biased, incompetent or dishonest
b) The incident was reported after a long period of time from that of its occurrence
c) The researcher himself is not competent enough to draw logical conclusions d) All of
the above
d) All of above
79). The fundamental characteristic of the scientific method is……..
OPTIONS
a) Theories
b) Empiricism
c) Replication
d) Evaluating data
80). Research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent
variable:
a) causal-comparative research
b) experimental research
c) anthography
d) correlational research
81). The research method which focuses on estabilishing casual relationship
with controls among variables, independent, moderator and dependent is
called:
OPTIONS:
a) post factor method
b) survey method
c) case study method
d) experimental method
82). The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following
research methods?
OPTIONS:
a) Experimental
b) Correlational
c) Causal,-comparative
d) Ethnography
83). Experimental researches are aimed to……….
OPTIONS:
a) Establish association between variables
b) Describe variables
c) Study application of theory
d) Study trend analysis
84). The research participants are described in detail in which section of the
research plan?
OPTIONS:
a) Introduction
b) Data analysis
c) Method
d) Discussion
85). Computer, database searches can be done:
OPTIONS:
a) With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b) Online
c) At the library
d) All of the above
86). Criteria of a good research problem
OPTIONS:
a) Significance to nursing profession
b) Original
c) Feasible
d) All of above
87). The variables that are not the part of study but may have effect on the
measurement of the study variables:
OPTIONS:
a) Independent variable
b) Extraneous variable
c) Dependent variable
d) Complex variable
88). Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a nursing research?
OPTIONS:
a) Development of theories, principles, and generalizations
b) Uses chaotic method of problem-solving
c) Requires full skill of writing report
d) Involves precise observation and accurate description
89). Which of the following type of research also called as a feasibility study
or pilot Study?
OPTIONS:
a) Descriptive
b) Correlational
c) Exploratory
d) Explanatory
90). which of the following is not a part of research?
OPTIONS:
a) Diligent study
b) Unsystematic inquiry
c) Refine existing knowledge
d) Validate the knowledge
91). History of nursing research began with Florence Nightingale in:
OPTIONS:
a) 1858
b) 1850
c) 1854
d) 1855
92). In 1859, Florence initial research activities which looked at the
importance of leading environment in:
OPTIONS:
a) Promoting physical well being
b) Promoting social well being
c) Promoting physical and mental well being
d) All of above
93). The main purpose of considering delimitation in research study is
OPTIONS:
a) To define the scope of research study
b) To define the variable in measurable terms
c) To predict the relationship between variables
d) To express the beliefs and ideas about the phenomenon under study
94). How can you tell if your research questions are really good?
OPTIONS:
a) If they guide your literature search
b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
c) If they force you to narrow the scope of your research
d) All of above
95). Sources of research problems can include
OPTIONS:
a) Researchers' own experiences as educators
b) Practical issues that require solutions
c) Theory and past research
d) All of these
96). Incidence studies are also termed as?
OPTIONS:
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Grounded theory
d) RCT
97). Which of the following is a qualitative research design where lived
experiences of individuals are examined in their "life-world"?
OPTIONS:
a) Ethnography
b) Ethology
c) Ethical principles in research
d) Grounded theory
98). Phenomenological study involves all the following features, EXCEPT:
a) Bracket out
b) Manipulation
c) Analysis
d) Description
99). Which of the following qualitative methods focuses on description and
interpretation of cultural behavior?
OPTIONS:
a) Phenomenology
b) Grounded theory
c) Ethnography
d) Symbolic interactionism
100.) The nursing community’s interest in qualitative research began in;
OPTIONS:
a) 1910’s
b) 1970’s
c) 1930’s
d) 1950’s
101. Which of the following refers to use of more than one theoretical
position in interpreting data?
OPTIONS:
a) Data Triangulation
b) Time Triangulation
c) Method Triangulation
d) Theory Triangulation
102. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:
options
a) Philosophy
b) Anthropology
c) Sociology
d) Many disciplines
103). ------------------ is a study of human consciousness and individuals’
experience of some phenomenon.
a) Ethnography
b) Phenomenology
c) Grounded theory
d) Case study research
a) Nonexperimental
103). _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural
characteristics of a group of people.
a) Phenomenology
b) Ethnography
c) Grounded theory
d) Instrumental case study
103). Which of the following focuses on individuals’ interpretation of their
experience & the ways in which they express them?
a) Historical research
b) Grounded theory
c) Ethnography Research
d) Phenomenological Research
104). What term refers to the insider’s perspective?
a) Ethnocentrism
b) Emic perspective
c) Etic perspective
d) Holism
106). A research is undertaken to answer questions about causes, effects, or
trends relating to past events that may shed light on present behaviors or
practices is called as;
a) Historical research
b) Phenomenological Research
c) Grounded theory
d) Ethnography Research
107). Which of the following is not phase of qualitative research?
a) Orientation and overview
b) Focused exploration
c) Conformation and Closure
d) Orientation and closure
108). ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based
on data systematically gathered and analysed.
a) Theory confirmation
b) Theory deduction
c) Grounded theory
d) Phenomenology
109). Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative
research?
a) Design flexibility
b) Deductive design
c) Naturalistic inquiry
d) Dynamic systems
110). Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research ?
a) Design flexibility
b) Inductive analysis
c) Context sensitivity
d) All of the above
111). In study design threats, If Subjects’ behaviour may be affected by
characteristics of the researchers is known as:
a) Measurement effect
b) Novelty effect
c) Experimenter effect
d) Expectancy effect
112). The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is
one strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of
the following terms describes this strategy?
a) Data matching
b) Pattern matching
c) Data triangulation
d) Data feedback
113). The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of
people is called
a) Phenomenology
b) Grounded theory
c) Ethnography
d) Case study
114). Which of the following is NOT a method of quantitative research?
a) Grounded theory research
b) Correlational Research
c) Quasi experimental Research
d) Experimental research
115). Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses
multiple research methods to study a phenomenon?
a) Data triangulation
b) Methods triangulation
c) Theory triangulation
d) Member checking
116). Deductive Reasoning is applied in:
a) Qualitative research
b) Quantitative research
c) Action research
d) Applied research
117). Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
a) Deductive process
b) Control over the context
c) Fixed research design
d) Inductive process
118). If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null hypothesis
b) Alternate hypothesis
c) Positive hypothesis
d) Negative hypothesis
119). If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be
true is called?
a) Null hypothesis
b) Simple hypothesis
c) Alternate hypothesis
d) Composite hypothesis
120). Research participants must give what before they can participate in a
study?
a) Guidelines
b) A commitment
c) Informed consent
d) Private information
121). The interview in which questions are already prepared is called The
actual population of study participants selected from a larger population is
known as:
a) Target population
b) Population
c) Accessible population
d) Cluster
122). A qualitative research question:
a) Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b) Is generally an open-ended question
c) both a and b are correct
d) None of the above
123). Which of the following is known as a clear statement of the specific aim
or goal of the study:
a) Research Question
b) Research objective
c) Research Purpose
d) Research Problem
124). Which one of the following research tests hypotheses and theories in
order to explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does?
a) Descriptive
b) Predictive
c) Explanatory
d) Exploratory
125). A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called?
a) Composite hypothesis
b) Statistical hypothesis
c) Simple hypothesis
d) Null hypothesis
126). A variable that changes due to the action of another variable is known
as:
a) Extraneous variable
b) Independent variable
c) Dependent variable
d) Complex variable
127). Research hypotheses are
a) Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
b) Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c) Belief about any natural phenomenon
d) Formulated prior to a review of the literature
128). Reasoning from the general to specific is called?
a) Deduction
b) Induction
c) Observation
d) Participation
129). The conceptual frame work in research studies Sample value is called
as?
a) Parameter
b) Statistic
c) Variable
d) Propositions
130). Which of the following research design uses odds ratio as test of
significance?
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Grounded theory
d) RCT
131). Qualitative research design involves
a) Emergent design
b) Correlative design
c) Experimental design
d) Cohort design
132). In qualitative research, a guiding principle in deciding sample size is:
a)
b) Effect size
c) Number of variables
d) Data saturation
e) Sub-group data
133). Which of the following has contributed to the development of many
middle range theories of phenomena relevant to nurses?
a) Historical research
b) Phenomenological Research
c) Grounded theory
d) Ethnography Research
134). Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to
qualitative research?
b) Ethnography
c) Phenomenology
d) Case study
e) Experimental
135). Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually:
a) Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b) Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analysed
c) Are always stated after the research study has been completed
d) Are never used
136). Conclusions from qualitative research are--------
a) Less certain than from quantitative research
b) Of little practical use
c) Seldom defensible
d) Of descriptive value only
chapter # 7
Critiquing qualitative research
137). Which of the following is a method that is commonly used in qualitative
research?
a) Self-completion questionnaires
b) Surveys
c) Ethnography
d) Structured observations
138). What is meant by the term "grounded theory"?
a)
b) Theories should be tested by rigorous scientific experiments
c) As a social researcher, it is important to keep your feet on the ground
d) Theories should be grounded in political values and biases
e) Theoretical ideas and concepts should emerge from the data
139). A sensitizing concept is one that:
a) Provides general guidance for more flexible research
b) Imposes a predetermined theoretical model on the social world
c) Helps the researcher to investigate sensitive issues
d) Allows the researcher to measure very small changes in a variable
140). Which of the following is not a component of Guba & Lincoln's
criterion, "trustworthiness"?
a) Transferability
b) Measurability
c) Dependability
d) Credibility
141). Which of the following is not a criticism of qualitative research?
a) The studies are difficult to replicate
b) There is a lack of transparency
c) he approach is too rigid and inflexible
d) he accounts are too subjective and impressionistic
142). In a qualitative research proposal you would not expect to see a............
a) Research question
b) Research aim
c) Hypothesis
d) Operational definition
143). Qualitative and Quantitative Research are the classification of research on the basis
of......
a) Use of research
b) Time dimensions
c) Techniques used
d) Purpose of the research
144). Qualitative researchers view changes in procedures during a study
as........
a) A weakness
b) Frustrating
c) A good thing
d) To be avoided
145). Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one
phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase in known as………
a) basic research
b) quantitative research
c) mixed method research
d) action research
146). The weakness of quantitative research is-------
a) Provides precise, numerical data
b) The researcher's categories that are used might not reflect local constituencies
understandings
c) Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
d) Can study a large number of people
147). Which of the following research utilizes statistics to make
generalization?
a) Outcome research
b) Quantitative research
c) Qualitative research
d) A and b both
148). Which of the following is not a step of the quantitative research
process?
a) Formulation of research problem
b) Review of literature
c) Formulation of hypothesis
d) Meta-analysis of research study
149). Quantitative research only works if:
a) You talk to the right number of people
b) You talk to the right type of people
c) You ask right questions and analyse the data you get in the right way
d) All of above
150). A study in which quantitative and qualitative data are collected at the
same time is a.........
a) Concurrent mixed method design
b) Mixed method design
c) Sequential mixed method design
d) Cross-sectional mixed method design
151). What does quantitative research measures?
a) Feelings and opinions
b) Number of figures
c) Numbers of feelings
d) All of above
152). Integrating the findings of the multiple quantitative research studies on
a particular topic is?
a) Meta-synthesis
b) Meta-analysis
c) Secondary analysis
d) Systematic analysis
153). Which of the following are the three pain scales used in evidence-based
nursing practice?
a) NPD, SRS, DRG
b) RFP, NRS, VDS
c) FPS, NRS, VRS
d) RFP, NRS, VDS
154). Relaxation therapy is more effective than standard patient education
alone in decreasing preoperative anxiety’ is an example of a
a) No directional hypothesis
b) Null hypothesis
c) Directional hypothesis
d) Complex hypothesis
155). How is nursing practice changed with evidence?
a) The professional development specialist makes the change.
b) The nurse who read the literature makes the change.
c) The healthcare leadership mandates change.
d) The nurses make the change, discuss it at meetings, and spread the word through
classes and in-services
156). Which is NOT included in evidence-based practice?
a) Research Utilization
b) Nursing Research
c) Cost Improvement
d) Quality Improvement Processes
157). Anesthesiologist who want to improve patient recovery times. What
does evidence-based practice suggest he do?
a) familiarize himself with the latest research
b) Check if he has the skills to implement ideas from research, and if his facility is in
agreement with them
c) check if he patient is able and willing to participate in the researched methods
d) all of above
158). What is evidence-based practice?
a) A medical specialty
b) Is used in criminal investigations
c) Methods handed down through generations
d) Scientifically proven methods
159). The starting point for a literature search is--------
a) Tertiary data
b) Primary data
c) Secondary data
d) Some other data
160). One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with
generalization, which is an indicator of:
a) External validity
b) Internal reliability
c) External reliability
d) Internal validity and reliability
161). The main advantage of producing a written research proposal is------ -
a) Inform all interested parties
b) Helps with credibility
c) Help the institution
d) Helps to keep employed people
162). The one which will always appear in a research proposal is.......
a) Business objective
b) Research objective
c) Marketing objective
d) Creative objective
163). The purpose of the research proposal is..........
a) To generate monetary sources for the organization
b) To present management question to be researched and its importance
c) To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related management
question.
d) Both b & c
164). A proposal is also known as a......
a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) All of above
165). Good research proposals will always……………
a) Consider all possible research that had previously been done on the topic
b) Provide respondent names and addresses
c) Focus on the harvard style
d) Focus on addressing the research objectives
166). The proposal section which intended to describe the purpose with a full
statement of the research question is ……………..
a) Literature review
b) References
c) Introduction
d) Proposed method
167). Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic
sections. They are……….
a) Research question and research methodology
b) Research proposal and bibliography
c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography
168). Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a
proposal?
a) Understanding the purpose behind the request for proposal
b) Understanding the problem situation
c) The appearance/form of the proposal
d) Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client
