ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

GNP Sir CLASSES

Question No 1

Statement A:
The degree of correspondence between phenotypic value and breeding value is measured by
heritability.

Statement B:
The ratio of phenotypic variance to additive genetic variance is heritability.

Which of the following is correct?

(A) Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect.

(B) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct.
(C) Statement B is correct, but Statement A is incorrect.
(D) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

Correct Answer: (A) Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect.

Explanation:

• Statement A is correct because heritability measures the degree of correspondence

between the phenotypic value (what is observed) and the breeding value (the genetic
potential for a trait).
• Statement B is incorrect because heritability is the ratio of additive genetic variance to
phenotypic variance, not the ratio of phenotypic variance to additive genetic variance as
stated.

2. Correlated traits can be selected by:

(A) Progeny testing

(B) Sib selection
(C) Indirect selection
(D) BLUP

Correct Answer (C) Indirect selection.

Explanation:

• Indirect selection refers to the process of selecting for one trait and simultaneously
achieving changes in a genetically correlated trait. This is commonly used when it is
difficult or expensive to directly measure the desired trait.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

3. Holding of carcasses or meat at refrigeration temperatures for extended periods

following initial chilling is called:

(A) Aging
(B) Conditioning
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B).

Explanation:

• Aging and conditioning both refer to the process of holding meat at low temperatures for
extended periods to improve tenderness and flavor. The terms are often used
interchangeably, so both apply in this context.

4. If meat is frozen prior to rigor onset and subsequently thawed, it will shorten
dramatically and become extremely tough. This phenomenon is known as:

(A) Thaw shortening

(B) Rigor mortis
(C) Blooming
(D) Double muscling

Correct Answer: (A) Thaw shortening.

Explanation:

• Thaw shortening occurs when meat is frozen before rigor mortis has fully set in and
then thawed. The muscle fibers contract rapidly, leading to a dramatic shortening of the
muscle and resulting in extremely tough meat. This happens because freezing interrupts
the normal biochemical processes that occur during rigor mortis.

5. Which of the following conditions restricts effective blood removal during

exsanguination of animals?

(A) Subjecting to preslaughter stress

(B) Extended time between stunning and exsanguination
(C) Improper suspension of the carcass during exsanguination
(D) All of the above
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above.

Explanation:

• All of the above factors can restrict effective blood removal during exsanguination:
o Preslaughter stress can cause changes in blood pressure and circulation, making
it harder to effectively bleed the animal.
o Extended time between stunning and exsanguination can lead to clotting and
reduced blood flow.
o Improper suspension affects the positioning of the body, which can limit the
gravity-assisted draining of blood from the carcass.

6. Which of the following refers to the degree Celsius (or Fahrenheit) by which the
temperature must be raised in order to obtain a 10-fold (one log) increase in the death rate
of bacterial cells in meat?

(A) D-value
(B) Z-value
(C) F-value
(D) 12-D concept

Correct Answer: (B) Z-value.

Explanation:

• The Z-value is the number of degrees by which the temperature must be raised to
increase the bacterial death rate by a factor of 10. It is used in thermal processing to
understand how resistant a microorganism is to changes in temperature.
• To clarify other terms:
o The D-value refers to the time it takes at a given temperature to kill 90% (or one
log reduction) of the bacterial population.
o The F-value is the total time needed to kill a specific number of microorganisms
at a particular temperature.
o The 12-D concept is used in food safety to ensure that processing kills 12 logs of
Clostridium botulinum spores.

7. 'Giblets' consists of:

(A) Lungs, trachea, and intestine

(B) Pineal gland, lungs, adrenal gland, and intestine
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(C) Neck, liver, heart, and gizzard

(D) Bile duct, trachea, intestine, and gallbladder

Correct Answer: (C) Neck, liver, heart, and gizzard.

Explanation:

• Giblets refer to the edible internal organs of poultry, typically including the neck, liver,
heart, and gizzard. These are commonly used in cooking, particularly for gravies or
stuffing. Other organs like the intestines, lungs, or glands are generally not included in
the term "giblets."

8. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion can be inhibited by the following

hormones, except:

(A) Testosterone
(B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen
(D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Correct Answer (D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

Explanation:

• GnRH is regulated by feedback from sex hormones such as testosterone, progesterone,

and estrogen, which inhibit its secretion.
• ACTH is involved in stimulating the adrenal glands to produce cortisol and does not
directly influence the inhibition of GnRH. Therefore, it is the exception.

9. The 'P wave' of an ECG represents which of the following electrical activities of the
heart?

(A) Atrial depolarization

(B) Atrial repolarization
(C) Ventricular depolarization
(D) Ventricular repolarization

Correct Answer (A) Atrial depolarization.

Explanation:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• The P wave on an ECG corresponds to atrial depolarization, which is the electrical

activation of the atria, leading to their contraction.
• Atrial repolarization is not typically visible on the ECG as it is masked by the QRS
complex.
• Ventricular depolarization is represented by the QRS complex, and ventricular
repolarization is represented by the T wave.

10. The circle of Willis supplies blood to which of the following organs?

(A) Heart
(B) Liver
(C) Lungs
(D) Brain

Correct Answer: (D) Brain.

Explanation:

• The circle of Willis is a circular network of arteries located at the base of the brain. It
ensures that blood flow to the brain is maintained even if one part of the arterial system is
blocked or narrowed. It plays a crucial role in cerebral circulation.

11. Which of the following hormones is primarily involved in the development of the
lobulo-alveolar system in the mammary gland?

(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Cortisol

Correct Answer: (B) Progesterone.

Explanation:

• Progesterone plays a key role in the development of the lobulo-alveolar system of the
mammary gland, which is essential for milk production during pregnancy. While
estrogen stimulates ductal growth in the mammary gland, progesterone specifically
promotes alveolar development where milk is produced.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

12. Which one of the following hormones promotes the tubular reabsorption of sodium ions
in the kidney?

(A) Antidiuretic hormone

(B) Secretin
(C) Aldosterone
(D) Oxytocin

Correct Answer: (C) Aldosterone.

Explanation:

• Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that promotes the reabsorption
of sodium ions in the kidney tubules, helping to regulate blood pressure and fluid
balance. It increases sodium reabsorption in exchange for potassium excretion.

13. In which of the following conditions does a cow sit on its sternum, and the head rests on
the flank?

(A) Bilateral hip dysplasia

(B) Milk fever
(C) Traumatic pericarditis
(D) Peritonitis

Correct Answer: (B) Milk fever.

Explanation:

• Milk fever (hypocalcemia) occurs in cows, especially after calving, due to low calcium
levels. The characteristic posture includes the cow sitting on its sternum with its head
resting on its flank, often seen in severe cases of milk fever.

14. All of the following are constituents of Ringer's solution, except:

(A) Water
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Sodium lactate
(D) Potassium chloride

Correct Answer: (C) Sodium lactate.

Explanation:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• Ringer's solution is a mixture of water, sodium chloride, potassium chloride, and

calcium chloride, used for restoring fluids and electrolytes. Sodium lactate is a
constituent of Lactated Ringer's solution, a different formulation, so it's not part of the
standard Ringer's solution.

15. Van den Bergh test is used for the diagnosis of dysfunction of:

(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Heart
(D) Spleen

Correct Answer: (B) Liver.

Explanation:

• The Van den Bergh test is used to diagnose liver dysfunction by measuring the levels
of bilirubin in the blood. It helps differentiate between direct (conjugated) and indirect
(unconjugated) bilirubin, indicating whether liver disease, such as jaundice or bile duct
obstruction, is present.

16. Pathognomonic post-mortem lesion 'button ulcer' is found in:

(A) Bovine viral diarrhea

(B) Foot-and-mouth disease
(C) Porcine circovirus infection
(D) Classical swine fever

Correct Answer: (D) Classical swine fever.

Explanation:

• Button ulcers are characteristic post-mortem lesions found in the intestines of pigs
affected by classical swine fever. These are small, circular ulcers typically seen in the
large intestine and are pathognomonic (a specific sign of a particular disease).

17. The characteristic temperature reaction known as 'diphasic reaction' in cattle is

observed in:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Rabies in dogs

(B) Canine distemper
(C) Canine parvoviral infection
(D) Infectious canine hepatitis

Correct Answer: (B) Canine Distemper.

Explanation:

• The diphasic (biphasic) temperature reaction refers to a fever that occurs in two
distinct phases. This reaction is observed in cases of canine distemper, where the body
temperature spikes twice during the infection due to viral replication in different stages of
the disease.

18. The fundamental obstetrical maneuver for all intrauterine measures required to rectify
defects of presentation, position, and posture is:

(A) Extension
(B) Traction
(C) Retropulsion
(D) Rotation

Correct Answer: (C) Retropulsion.

Explanation:

• Retropulsion is the process of pushing the fetus back into the uterus to create more space
for manipulating its presentation, position, or posture during obstetric interventions. It is
a fundamental technique in resolving difficult deliveries.

19. The sigmoid flexure is pre-scrotal in:

(A) Bull and ram

(B) Ram and boar
(C) Boar and camel
(D) Camel and buck

Correct Answer: (C) Boar and camel.

Explanation:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• The sigmoid flexure is a natural S-shaped curve in the penis that allows for elongation
during erection. In boars and camels, the sigmoid flexure is located pre-scrotally
(before the scrotum), while in other species, it is post-scrotal.

20. The most common tumor in old dogs is:

(A) Sertoli cell tumor

(B) Leydig cell tumor
(C) Seminoma
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Leydig cell tumor.

Explanation:

• Leydig cell tumors are most common testicular tumors found in older male dogs. These
tumors can affect the testicular tissue and lead to hormonal imbalances, and any of these
tumors are frequently observed in aged dogs.

21. Pyometra is defined as a progressive accumulation of purulent material within the

uterus in the presence of:

(A) Small follicles

(B) Large follicles
(C) Active corpus luteum
(D) Inactive corpus luteum

Correct Answer: (C) Active corpus luteum.

Explanation:

• Pyometra is the accumulation of pus in the uterus, typically occurring during diestrus
when the corpus luteum is active and secreting progesterone. The presence of an active
corpus luteum maintains a closed cervix, preventing the pus from draining, and supports
the progression of the infection.

22. The protective value of the egg yolk is largely due to:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Lecithin and lipoprotein

(B) Arachidonic acid and lipoprotein
(C) Lecithin and arachidonic acid
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Lecithin and lipoprotein.

Explanation:

• The egg yolk provides protection to the developing embryo, mainly due to the presence
of lecithin (a phospholipid) and lipoproteins, which form emulsions and contribute to
the structural integrity of the yolk. These compounds are vital for maintaining the
stability and protection of the egg's contents.

23. Diffuse, epitheliochorial-type placenta is found in:

(A) Cattle, mare, and sheep

(B) Mare, goat, and sow
(C) Sow, camel, and mare
(D) Camel, cattle, and sheep

Correct Answer: (C) Sow, camel, and mare.

Explanation:

• The diffuse, epitheliochorial placenta is a type of placenta where the chorion (outer
fetal membrane) contacts the entire surface of the uterus. It is characteristic of species
like sows, camels, and mares. In this placental type, there is minimal invasion of
maternal tissues by fetal tissues.

24. Pre-implantation stage of immunological pregnancy diagnosis in cattle, sheep, and pigs
can be done using which hormone during a pregnancy test?

(A) Estrone sulfate

(B) Early pregnancy factor
(C) Equine chorionic gonadotropin
(D) Progesterone

Correct Answer: (B) Early pregnancy factor.

 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Explanation:

• Early pregnancy factor (EPF) is a protein detected soon after fertilization, even before
implantation occurs, in species like cattle, sheep, and pigs. It can be used as an early
marker for pregnancy. Other hormones like estrone sulfate and progesterone are
typically used at later stages of pregnancy.

25. Viborg's triangle is the anatomical site for access to:

(A) Cornual nerve block

(B) Guttural pouches
(C) Rumenotomy
(D) Mandibular nerve block

Correct Answer: (B) Guttural pouches.

Explanation:

• Viborg's triangle is a landmark on the side of a horse’s neck, commonly used as a

surgical approach to access the guttural pouches, which are air-filled sacs connected to
the auditory tubes. It is bounded by the mandible, the tendon of the sternocephalicus
muscle, and the linguofacial vein.

26. Which of the following structures passes through the foramen orbitorotundum?

(A) Maxillary nerve

(B) Optic nerve
(C) Hypoglossal nerve
(D) Internal carotid artery

Correct Answer: (A) Maxillary nerve.

Explanation:

• The foramen orbitorotundum is a combined opening in the skull of ruminants and pigs.
It allows the passage of the maxillary nerve, which is part of the trigeminal nerve
(cranial nerve V) and provides sensory innervation to the face.

27. The larvae of trichostrongyloid and strongyloid nematodes can survive severe
desiccation by entering into a state of:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Metabiosis
(B) Hypobiosis
(C) Anhydrobiosis
(D) Dehydrobiosis

Correct Answer: (C) Anhydrobiosis.

Explanation:

• Anhydrobiosis is a state in which organisms, including the larvae of trichostrongyloids

and strongyloids, survive extreme desiccation by losing almost all of their body water and
going dormant. This allows them to withstand unfavorable environmental conditions until
they become favorable again.

28. The most common causative agent of 'winter coccidiosis' in calves is:

(A) Eimeria zuernii

(B) Eimeria alabamensis
(C) Eimeria ellipsoidalis
(D) Eimeria bovis

Correct Answer: (A) Eimeria zuernii.

Explanation:

• Winter coccidiosis is often caused by Eimeria zuernii, a parasitic protozoan that infects
the intestinal tract of calves. It is most common during the cold winter months, and it
leads to diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms in young cattle.

29. Belfast, Brisbane, and Manley strains are different strains associated with which of the
following parasitic protozoa?

(A) Trypanosoma evansi

(B) Tritrichomonas foetus
(C) Sarcocystis bovihominis
(D) Neospora caninum

Correct Answer: (B) Tritrichomonas foetus.

Explanation:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• Tritrichomonas foetus is a protozoan parasite known to cause bovine genital

trichomoniasis, which leads to reproductive issues in cattle. The Belfast, Brisbane, and
Manley strains are different isolates of this protozoa, used in studies for strain variation
and pathogenicity.

30. Ringworm lesion in the abomasum of calves is due to infection with:

(A) Trichostrongylus axei

(B) Ostertagia ostertagi
(C) Haemonchus placei
(D) Nematodirus battus

Correct Answer: (A) Trichostrongylus axei.

Explanation:

• Trichostrongylus axei is a nematode parasite that infects the abomasum (true stomach)
of ruminants, including calves. It can cause ringworm-like lesions in the abomasum due
to the irritation and damage caused by the parasite during feeding.

31. 'Wet feather' condition among ducks is caused by:

(A) Menopon phaeostomum

(B) Trinoton anserinum
(C) Holomenopon leucoxanthum
(D) Heterodoxus longitarsus

Correct Answer: (C) Holomenopon leucoxanthum.

Explanation:

• Wet feather is a condition in ducks where their feathers lose their waterproofing ability,
often due to parasitic lice like Holomenopon leucoxanthum. These lice damage the
feathers, preventing proper waterproofing, which leads to waterlogging and potential
health issues in ducks.

32. Transformed muscle cells parasitized by Trichinella spiralis are known as:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Mother cells

(B) Feeder cells
(C) Parent cells
(D) Nurse cells

Correct Answer: (D) Nurse cells.

Explanation:

• In Trichinella spiralis infections, the larvae invade muscle cells and transform them into
nurse cells, which provide nutrients to the parasite and allow it to survive within the host
tissue. These modified muscle cells are crucial for the parasite's lifecycle.

33. Adenoma is:

(A) Benign tumor of squamous epithelium

(B) Benign tumor of glandular epithelium
(C) Malignant tumor of squamous epithelium
(D) Malignant tumor of glandular epithelium

Correct Answer: (B) Benign tumor of glandular epithelium.

Explanation:

• Adenoma is a benign tumor that arises from glandular epithelium. It can form in
various glandular tissues, such as the salivary glands or the thyroid. Adenomas are
characterized by their non-invasive growth and well-differentiated cells.

34. The macrophage in the nervous system is:

(A) Microglia
(B) Schwann cells
(C) Oligodendroglia
(D) Astrocytes

Correct Answer: (A) Microglia.

Explanation:

• Microglia are the resident macrophages of the central nervous system (CNS). They are
responsible for the immune defense and maintenance of homeostasis in the CNS.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Schwann cells and oligodendroglia are involved in myelination, while astrocytes

provide support and maintain the blood-brain barrier.

35. Icterus, anemia, hemoglobinuria, abortion, petechiae on mucous membranes, and

demonstration of organism by Levaditi stain are diagnostic points for:

(A) Anaplasmosis
(B) IBR (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis)
(C) Listeriosis
(D) Leptospirosis

Correct Answer: (D) Leptospirosis.

Explanation:

• Leptospirosis is diagnosed through clinical signs such as icterus (jaundice), anemia,

hemoglobinuria, and abortion. The Levaditi stain helps in visualizing the leptospires,
which are the causative agents of this disease.

36. Tuberculosis is the best example for:

(A) Coagulative necrosis

(B) Caseation necrosis
(C) Liquefactive necrosis
(D) Fat necrosis

Correct Answer: (B) Caseation necrosis.

Explanation:

• Tuberculosis is associated with caseation necrosis, where the affected tissue becomes
cheese-like (caseous) in appearance. This type of necrosis is typical in tuberculosis
lesions, particularly in the lungs and lymph nodes.

37. Heart failure cells are found in:

(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Spleen
(D) Pulmonary artery

Correct Answer: (B) Lungs.

 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Explanation:

• Heart failure cells are hemosiderin-laden macrophages found in the lungs. They result
from the chronic congestion of blood in the pulmonary circulation, which leads to the
leakage of red blood cells into the alveoli. These cells are indicative of left-sided heart
failure.

38. Drugs mentioned below are adrenergic drugs, except:

(A) Epinephrine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Carbachol
(D) Norepinephrine

Correct Answer: (C) Carbachol.

Explanation:

• Epinephrine, dopamine, and norepinephrine are adrenergic drugs that act on

adrenergic receptors in the body. Carbachol is a cholinergic drug that acts on
acetylcholine receptors, not adrenergic receptors.

39. The reduction in response to the drug after repeated administration is called:

(A) Drug resistance

(B) Tachyphylaxis
(C) Desensitization
(D) Tolerance

Correct Answer: (D) Tolerance.

Explanation:

• Tolerance refers to the phenomenon where the effectiveness of a drug decreases with
repeated use, requiring higher doses to achieve the same effect. Tachyphylaxis is a rapid
decrease in response after a single dose, while desensitization and drug resistance refer
to different mechanisms of reduced response.

40. Abnormal immunological reaction initiated by previous exposure to the drug against
the drug-generated antigen is known as:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Down-regulation
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Cumulative action
(D) Cross-tolerance

Correct Answer: (B) Anaphylaxis.

Explanation:

• Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that occurs after

previous exposure to an allergen (in this case, a drug). It involves an exaggerated immune
response against a drug-generated antigen. Down-regulation, cumulative action, and
cross-tolerance do not specifically refer to this type of reaction

41. Basophilic stippling of RBCs is observed in:

(A) Nitrate poisoning

(B) Mercury poisoning
(C) Lead poisoning
(D) Cyanide poisoning

Correct Answer: (C) Lead poisoning.

Explanation:

• Basophilic stippling refers to the presence of small, granule-like structures within red
blood cells and is commonly associated with lead poisoning. Lead disrupts hemoglobin
synthesis, leading to these stippled cells.

42. Alkali disease is caused by toxicity of:

(A) Arsenic
(B) Zinc
(C) Copper
(D) Selenium

Correct Answer: (D) Selenium.

Explanation:
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• Alkali disease is caused by selenium toxicity, particularly from high levels of selenium
in the soil or feed. It leads to hair and hoof abnormalities and is known for causing a
condition with alkali-like symptoms.

43. Point-of-care test used for rapid diagnosis of African swine fever is:

(A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

(B) Immunochromatographic lateral flow assay
(C) Real-time polymerase chain reaction
(D) Haemagglutination assay

Correct Answer: (B) Immunochromatographic lateral flow assay.

Explanation:

• The immunochromatographic lateral flow assay is a rapid diagnostic test used at the
point-of-care for the detection of African swine fever. It is designed for quick and
efficient testing with results available within a short time frame.

44. Lumpy skin disease in cattle is caused by lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV) of which
family?

(A) Coronaviridae
(B) Asfarviridae
(C) Poxviridae
(D) Paramyxoviridae

Correct Answer: (C) Poxviridae.

Explanation:

• Lumpy skin disease is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs
to the Poxviridae family. This virus is known for causing skin lesions and nodules in
cattle.

45. Which of the following are true about Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)?
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

1. KFD is a viral disease.

2. KFD has also been reported from Northern India.
3. Haemaphysalis spinigera (ticks) are responsible for transmission of this virus to humans.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct

(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(D) All of the above are correct

Correct Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:

• Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is a viral disease caused by the Kyasanur Forest
virus, transmitted by Haemaphysalis spinigera ticks. It is primarily reported in
Southern India, not Northern India. Therefore, while 1 and 3 are correct, statement 2 is
not.

46. Which of the following are true for pasteurization of milk?

1. The term 'pasteurization' means the process of heating every particle of milk to at least
63 °C for 30 minutes.
2. The term 'high-temperature short-time pasteurization' means the process of heating
every particle of milk to at least 72 °C for 15 seconds.
3. Any other temperature-time combination, sufficient to give a microbicidal effect
equivalent to the above-defined temperature-time combination.

(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct

(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(D) All of the above are correct

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above are correct.

Explanation:

• Pasteurization is a process used to kill harmful microorganisms in milk. Option 1

describes Low-Temperature Long-Time (LTLT) pasteurization, which heats milk to
at least 63 °C for 30 minutes. Option 2 describes High-Temperature Short-Time
(HTST) pasteurization, which heats milk to at least 72 °C for 15 seconds. Option 3
refers to other temperature-time combinations that can also effectively pasteurize
milk. All these statements are accurate descriptions of pasteurization methods.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

47. In which type of sampling method is the choice of the sample left to the investigator?

(A) Probability sampling

(B) Simple random sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling
(D) Non-probability sampling

Correct Answer: (D) Non-probability sampling.

Explanation:

• Non-probability sampling methods involve the investigator choosing the sample based
on subjective judgment rather than random selection. In these methods, not all individuals
in the population have a known chance of being selected, which can introduce bias.

48. An N95 respirator is a respiratory device designed to achieve a very close facial fit and
very efficient filtration of airborne particles. What does 'N' denote in N95 masks?

(A) The 'N' stands for 'normal' and indicates that the mask is suitable for everyday use.
(B) The 'N' stands for 'nasal' and indicates that the mask is specifically designed for nasal
protection.
(C) The 'N' stands for 'neutral' and implies that the mask offers balanced protection against all
types of particulates.
(D) The 'N' stands for 'non-oil' or 'not resistant to oil' and indicates that the mask is not resistant
to oil-based particles.

Correct Answer: (D) The 'N' stands for 'non-oil' or 'not resistant to oil' and indicates that
the mask is not resistant to oil-based particles.

Explanation:

• The 'N' in N95 masks stands for 'non-oil' or 'not resistant to oil', indicating that the
mask is designed to filter out airborne particles but is not suitable for environments where
oil-based particulates are present. The '95' indicates that the mask can filter out at least
95% of airborne particles.

49. Causality (causation) deals with the relationship between cause and effect and is
addressed in both science and philosophy. Alfred Evans (1976) produced a set of 10 rules
that are consistent with the modern concepts of disease causality. Below are four such
rules. Identify the incorrect one.

(A) The proportion of individuals with the disease should be significantly higher in those
exposed to the supposed cause than in those who are not.
(B) Exposure to the supposed cause should be present more commonly in those with than those
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

without the disease, when all other risk factors are held constant.
(C) The number of new cases of disease should be significantly higher in those exposed to the
supposed cause than in those not so exposed, as shown in prospective studies.
(D) Temporally, the exposure to the supposed cause should follow the disease with distribution
of incubation periods on a bell-shaped curve.

Correct Answer: (D) Temporally, the exposure to the supposed cause should follow the
disease with distribution of incubation periods on a bell-shaped curve.

Explanation:

• In causality assessments, the exposure to the supposed cause should precede the onset of
the disease (not follow it). The correct rule should state that exposure should occur before
the disease develops, and the incubation period's distribution is not necessarily expected
to follow a bell-shaped curve. The other options correctly describe aspects of causality,
such as higher disease proportion in the exposed group and higher new cases in exposed
individuals.

50. A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate
animals to humans. Infection with which of the following viruses is considered non-
zoonotic?

(A) Monkeypox
(B) Buffalopox
(C) Chickenpox
(D) Orf virus

Correct Answer: (C) Chickenpox.

Explanation:

• Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which is not a zoonotic virus; it is

transmitted human-to-human. In contrast, Monkeypox, Buffalopox, and Orf virus are
zoonotic diseases transmitted from animals to humans.

51. Which of the following bones forms the foramen magnum in the cranium?

(A) Temporal
(B) Occipital
(C) Zygomatic
(D) Pterygoid
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Correct Answer (B) Occipital.

Explanation:

• The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull through which the
spinal cord passes. It is formed by the occipital bone.

52. During embryogenesis, the Rathke's pouch gives rise to which of the following
structures?

(A) Pituitary
(B) Tongue
(C) Tooth
(D) Pharynx

Correct Answer: (A) Pituitary.

Explanation:

• Rathke's pouch is an embryonic structure that develops into the pituitary gland
(specifically the anterior lobe of the pituitary). It does not give rise to the tongue, tooth,
or pharynx.

53. Laminae are characteristics of the interior surface of which of the following chambers
of the stomach?

(A) Rumen
(B) Reticulum
(C) Omasum
(D) Abomasum

Correct Answer: (C) Omasum.

Explanation:

• Laminae are the folds or leaves found on the interior surface of the omasum, which is
one of the compartments of the ruminant stomach. These laminae help in the absorption
of water and nutrients.

54. Which of the following is an unpaired skeletal muscle present in the animal body?
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(A) Diaphragm
(B) Biceps brachii
(C) Popliteus
(D) Quadriceps femoris

Correct Answer: (A) Diaphragm.

Explanation:

• The diaphragm is an unpaired skeletal muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the
abdominal cavity and plays a crucial role in respiration. The other muscles listed (biceps
brachii, popliteus, quadriceps femoris) are paired muscles.

55. In which part of the cloaca in birds does the bursa of Fabricius open?

• (A) Urodeum
• (B) Proctodeum
• (C) Coprodeum
• (D) Vent

Correct Answer: (B) Proctodeum

Explanation: The bursa of Fabricius, which is crucial for immune system development in birds,
opens into the proctodeum. The cloaca is divided into three sections: the coprodeum (anterior
part for the digestive tract), the urodeum (middle part where the bursa of Fabricius opens), and
the proctodeum (posterior part).

56. Which of the following is the space between the right and left pleural cavities?

• (A) Omentum
• (B) Mediastinum
• (C) Serous sac
• (D) Pleural sac

Correct Answer: (B) Mediastinum

Explanation: The mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity located between
the right and left pleural cavities. It houses the heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus, and other
structures. The omentum is related to the abdominal cavity, while serous and pleural sacs are not
specific to this space.

57. Which one of the following veins is called the milk vein in a cow?
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• (A) External jugular vein

• (B) Subcutaneous abdominal vein
• (C) Umbilical vein
• (D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Subcutaneous abdominal vein

Explanation: The subcutaneous abdominal vein, often referred to as the milk vein, is prominent
on the cow's abdomen. It plays a role in transporting blood to the mammary glands and is also
used for intravenous injections in veterinary medicine.

58. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the

• (A) Right atrium

• (B) Left atrium
• (C) Interventricular septum
• (D) Interatrial septum

Correct Answer: (D) Interatrial septum

Explanation: The foramen ovale is an opening in the interatrial septum of the fetal heart. It
allows blood to bypass the non-functioning fetal lungs by flowing directly from the right atrium
to the left atrium. After birth, this opening typically closes and forms the fossa ovalis.

59. Which of the following is the ventricle of the hindbrain?

(A) Third ventricle
(B) Fourth ventricle
(C) Lateral ventricle
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer (B) Fourth ventricle

Explanation: The fourth ventricle is located in the hindbrain, between the pons and medulla
oblongata. It is part of the ventricular system that contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The third
ventricle is in the diencephalon, and the lateral ventricles are in the cerebral hemispheres.

60. Visceral skeleton present in pigs is

(A) Os penis
(B) Os phrenic
(C) Os cordis
(D) Os rostri

Correct Answer: (D) Os rostri

Explanation: The os rostri is a bone found in the snout of pigs. It is a unique part of their
visceral skeleton that helps them root and dig. Other species-specific bones include the os penis
(found in carnivores like dogs) and the os cordis (present in some ruminants like cattle).
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

61. Which of the following species presents a single occipital condyle in the skull?
(A) Cattle
(B) Horse
(C) Dog
(D) Poultry

Correct Answer: (D) Poultry

Explanation: Poultry (birds) have a single occipital condyle, which allows them to have a
greater range of head movement. Mammals, including cattle, horses, and dogs, have two
occipital condyles.

62. Which of the following features is not part of the humerus bone of a dog?
(A) Deltoid tuberosity
(B) Olecranon fossa
(C) Musculospiral groove
(D) Trochlear notch

Correct Answer: (D) Trochlear notch

Explanation: The trochlear notch is not part of the humerus; it is located on the ulna, where it
forms part of the elbow joint. The other options—deltoid tuberosity, olecranon fossa, and
musculospiral groove—are all features of the humerus in the dog.

63. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?

(A) Glucose
(B) Lactose
(C) Cellulose
(D) Galactose

Correct Answer: (C) Cellulose

Explanation:
Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate (polysaccharide) composed of long chains of glucose
molecules. It forms the structural component of plant cell walls. Glucose, lactose, and galactose
are simpler carbohydrates (monosaccharides and disaccharides).

64. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not present in DNA?

(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Uracil
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Correct Answer: (D) Uracil

Explanation:
Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. In DNA, thymine takes the place of uracil. The other bases—
adenine, guanine, and cytosine—are present in both DNA and RNA.

65. Which of the following fatty acids is the precursor in the biosynthesis of
prostaglandins?
(A) Arachidonic acid
(B) Palmitic acid
(C) Oleic acid
(D) Stearic acid

Correct Answer: (A) Arachidonic acid

Explanation:
Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid that serves as the primary precursor for the
biosynthesis of prostaglandins and other eicosanoids, which are important for inflammation and
other cellular processes.

66. Net gain of ATPs from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 18
(D) 36

Correct Answer: (A) 2

Explanation:
Glycolysis yields a net gain of 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. Although 4 ATP are
produced in the process, 2 ATP are consumed, resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP.

67. Which of the following is a sulfur-containing amino acid?

(A) Serine
(B) Lysine
(C) Methionine
(D) Histidine

Correct Answer (C) Methionine

Explanation:
Methionine is a sulfur-containing amino acid, as it has a sulfur atom in its side chain. Other
sulfur-containing amino acids include cysteine. Serine, lysine, and histidine do not contain
sulfur.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

68. The non-translated DNA segments in genes are called

(A) Exons
(B) Introns
(C) Transposons
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Introns

Explanation:
Introns are the non-coding regions of a gene that are not translated into proteins. They are spliced
out of the mRNA during processing. Exons are the coding sequences, while transposons are
DNA elements that can move around in the genome.

69. The location of the urea cycle in the body is

(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Lungs
(D) Intestine

Correct Answer: (B) Liver

Explanation:
The urea cycle, also known as the ornithine cycle, takes place in the liver. Its function is to
convert toxic ammonia into urea, which is then excreted by the kidneys.

70. Which of the following enzymes is the first enzyme to appear in the blood after
myocardial infarction and is of diagnostic value?
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Aldolase
(C) Creatine kinase
(D) Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase

Correct Answer (C) Creatine kinase

Explanation:
Creatine kinase (CK), especially the CK-MB isoenzyme, is one of the first enzymes to rise in the
blood following myocardial infarction (heart attack). It is used in diagnostics because its levels
increase rapidly after heart muscle injury.

71. Land-grant colleges came into existence as a part of the

(A) Smith-Lever Act
(B) Morrill Acts
(C) Hatch Act
(D) Extension Act
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Correct Answer: (B) Morrill Acts

Explanation:
The Morrill Acts of 1862 and 1890 provided for the establishment of land-grant colleges in the
U.S. These institutions were created to promote higher education in agriculture, mechanical arts,
and other practical fields. The Smith-Lever Act and Hatch Act relate to agricultural extension
services and research, respectively.

72. The degree to which individuals involved in communication differ in certain

characteristics is
(A) Homophily
(B) Credibility
(C) Empathy
(D) Heterophily

Correct Answer: (D) Heterophily

Explanation:
Heterophily refers to the degree of difference between individuals in terms of characteristics
such as social background, beliefs, or education. In contrast, homophily describes individuals
who are similar in these respects.

73. The decision to make full use of an innovation is known as

(A) Interest
(B) Desire
(C) Adoption
(D) Satisfaction

Correct Answer: (C) Adoption

Explanation:
Adoption is the process by which an individual decides to fully integrate and make use of a new
innovation. It follows stages like awareness, interest, evaluation, and trial.

74. The SMCR model of communication is given by

(A) Berlo
(B) Lasswell
(C) Roger
(D) Leagan

Correct Answer (A) Berlo

Explanation:
The SMCR model of communication (Source, Message, Channel, Receiver) was proposed by
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

David Berlo in 1960. It emphasizes the basic components involved in any communication
process.

75. The process by which the effectiveness of extension is assessed is

(A) Plan of work
(B) Evaluation
(C) Programme execution
(D) Written programme statement

Correct Answer: (B) Evaluation

Explanation:
Evaluation is the process used to assess the effectiveness of extension activities, measuring
whether objectives were achieved and what impact the programs had. It helps in understanding
the outcomes and improving future efforts.

76. The principles of cooperation imply that a cooperative society must maintain non-
alignment to any political body and observe neutrality. This is a fundamental aspect under
the principle of
(A) Economic independence
(B) Political neutrality
(C) Cultural neutrality
(D) Cultural dependence

Correct Answer: (B) Political neutrality

Explanation:
Political neutrality is one of the key principles of cooperative societies. It ensures that
cooperatives remain independent of political influence and operate solely for the benefit of their
members, based on shared goals and mutual aid.

77. The mathematical model of communication was given by

(A) The Osgood-Schramm model
(B) The Shannon and Weaver model
(C) The Lasswell's model of communication
(D) The Westley and MacLean model

Correct Answer (B) The Shannon and Weaver model

Explanation:
The Shannon and Weaver model of communication, developed in 1949, is a mathematical theory
that focuses on the transmission of information. It introduced key concepts such as the sender,
message, channel, noise, and receiver, which are still fundamental to communication studies.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

78. The Krishi Vigyan Kendra concept was given by the

(A) Abhijit Sen Committee
(B) Shanta Kumar Committee
(C) Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
(D) National Advisory Committee on Agriculture

Correct Answer: (C) Mohan Singh Mehta Committee

Explanation:
The concept of Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) was developed by the Mohan Singh Mehta
Committee in 1974. KVKs are agricultural extension centers in India aimed at providing farmers
with training and knowledge on best farming practices.

79. A research study aims to explore the outcomes of various factors influencing the
organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method would be the
most appropriate?
(A) Experimental method
(B) Historical method
(C) Descriptive survey method
(D) Ex-post facto method

Correct Answer: (D) Ex-post facto method

Explanation:
Mainly in the ex-post facto method, the existing groups with qualities are compared on some
dependent variables. It is also known as quasi-experimental for the fact that instead of randomly
assigning the subjects, they are grouped on the basis of a particular characteristic or trait.

80. The fractions of proximate analysis of feed include

(A) Dry matter, crude protein, ash, ether extract, and crude fiber
(B) Moisture, ash, crude protein, ether extract, crude fiber, and nitrogen-free extracts
(C) Dry matter, crude protein, crude fiber, ash, and moisture
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Moisture, ash, crude protein, ether extract, crude fiber, and nitrogen-
free extracts
Explanation:
The proximate analysis of feed is a method to determine the nutritional composition of feed. It
includes the following fractions: moisture, ash (minerals), crude protein, ether extract (fat), crude
fiber, and nitrogen-free extracts (carbohydrates). This analysis helps in understanding the
nutritional value of feed.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

81. Which one among the following is not a desirable property of good quality silage?
(A) pH range of 3.5–4.2
(B) Higher Flieg index
(C) >75% lactic acid in silage
(D) >40% butyric acid in silage

Correct Answer: (D) >40% butyric acid in silage

Explanation:
Good quality silage should have a low concentration of butyric acid (ideally less than 0.5%).
Butyric acid indicates poor fermentation and spoilage. Desirable properties include a pH range of
3.5–4.2, a high Flieg index (indicating better preservation), and a high percentage of lactic acid
(which helps in preserving the silage).

82. On a roughage-based diet, the concentrations of volatile fatty acids produced in the
cow's rumen follow in which of the following orders?
(A) Propionic acid > Acetic acid > Butyric acid
(B) Acetic acid > Butyric acid > Propionic acid
(C) Propionic acid > Butyric acid > Acetic acid
(D) Acetic acid > Propionic acid > Butyric acid

Correct Answer: (D) Acetic acid > Propionic acid > Butyric acid
Explanation:
In the rumen of cows on a roughage-based diet, acetic acid is the most abundant volatile fatty
acid (VFA), followed by propionic acid and butyric acid. Acetic acid is crucial for fat synthesis,
while propionic acid is used for glucose production, and butyric acid provides energy for the
rumen epithelium.

83. How much concentrate feed is typically needed for producing 1 kg of milk in cows
above their maintenance requirement?
(A) 1 kg
(B) 0.5 kg
(C) 1.5 kg
(D) 2 kg

Correct Answer: (B) 0.5 kg

Explanation:
Typically, for cows, around 0.5 kg of concentrate feed is needed to produce 1 kg of milk above
their maintenance requirement. The exact amount may vary depending on the quality of the feed
and the cow's lactation stage, but 0.5 kg is the general recommendation.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

84. Methylene blue is most commonly used in the treatment of poisoning in animals from
(A) Oxalic acid
(B) Nitrate
(C) Mimosine
(D) Gossypol

Correct Answer: (B) Nitrate

Explanation:
Methylene blue is an antidote commonly used to treat nitrate poisoning in ruminants. Nitrate
poisoning occurs when animals consume plants or feed with high nitrate levels, leading to
methemoglobinemia. Methylene blue helps reverse this condition by converting methemoglobin
back to hemoglobin.

85. Which is the essential amino acid required for wool production in sheep?
(A) Threonine
(B) Methionine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Sulfur

Correct Answer: (B) Methionine

Explanation:
Methionine is a sulfur-containing essential amino acid that plays a crucial role in wool
production in sheep. It is important for the formation of keratin, the main protein found in wool.
Sulfur is also necessary, but methionine is the specific amino acid involved.

86. 'African Tall' is a variety of

(A) Maize
(B) Sorghum
(C) Hybrid Napier
(D) Napier

Correct Answer: (A) Maize

Explanation:
'African Tall' is a variety of maize (corn) commonly used as a fodder crop. It is known for its tall
growth, high yield, and suitability as green fodder for livestock.

87. According to BIS (2007), what is the maximum permissible level of aflatoxin B1 in
poultry feed?
(A) 10 ppb
(B) 10 ppm
(C) 20 ppb
(D) 20 ppm
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

Correct Answer (C) 20 ppb

Explanation:
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) in 2007, the maximum permissible level of
aflatoxin B1 in poultry feed is 20 ppb (parts per billion). Aflatoxins are toxic compounds
produced by certain molds and can have harmful effects on poultry health.

88. The good characteristics of probiotics include which of the following?

(A) It should be Gram-positive
(B) It should be acid- and bile-resistant
(C) It should be non-pathogenic
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation:
Good probiotics should possess several characteristics:

• They should be Gram-positive, as most beneficial gut bacteria belong to this group.
• They should be acid- and bile-resistant to survive the harsh conditions in the stomach
and intestine.
• They should be non-pathogenic and safe for consumption. These traits ensure the
effectiveness and safety of probiotics.

89. The minimum recommended level of calcium in layer feed is

(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 0.4%

Correct Answer: (C) 3%

Explanation:
Laying hens require a higher level of calcium in their feed for eggshell formation. The minimum
recommended level of calcium in layer feed is around 3% to ensure strong eggshells and
maintain bone health in hens.

90. Assume that you are the implementing officer of a government scheme to distribute 10-
layer hens and cage each to selected rural beneficiaries. The minimum cage floor space
allowance for 10-layer hens is calculated as
(A) 450 cm² x 10
(B) 900 cm² x 10
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(C) 1800 cm² x 10

(D) 3600 cm² x 10

Correct Answer: (A) 450 cm² x 10

Explanation:
The recommended minimum cage floor space for a layer hen is typically around 450 cm². For
10-layer hens, the minimum space would be calculated as 450 cm² x 10 = 4500 cm².

91. A farmer purchased ducks from a supplier who identified them as emperor ducks: This
meat-type duck has creamy white plumage, orange bills and legs, yellow flesh, and a long
broad body. Identify the breed of duck.
(A) Khaki Campbell
(B) Indian Runner
(C) Pekin
(D) Muscovy

Correct Answer: (C) Pekin

Explanation:
The Pekin duck is a well-known meat-type breed characterized by its creamy white plumage,
orange bills and legs, yellowish flesh, and a long broad body. These ducks are popular for their
high-quality meat production. The description provided matches the features of the Pekin breed.

92. Assume that you are the farm manager of a semen station. A breeding bull was found
positive for brucellosis. Some points of action are provided below:

1. Proper therapeutic management before the next semen collection

2. Castrate immediately
3. Cull/remove the bull within 48 hours
4. Discard the frozen semen doses since the last negative test

Which of the above actions suit(s) the best for a semen station?
(A) Point 1 only
(B) Point 2 only
(C) Points 1 and 4
(D) Points 2, 3, and 4

Correct Answer: (D) Points 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:
Brucellosis is a serious infectious disease that can be transmitted through semen. The best action
in this situation would be to:

• Castrate the bull immediately (Point 2) to prevent breeding.

• Cull or remove the bull within 48 hours (Point 3) to prevent the spread of the disease.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

• Discard the frozen semen doses collected since the last negative test (Point 4) to ensure
that no contaminated semen is used.
Therapeutic management (Point 1) is not recommended in such a case, as brucellosis is
difficult to treat and control in breeding animals.

93. Which of the following is not a National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR)
registered breed belonging to Assam?
(A) Miri
(B) Siri
(C) Daothigir
(D) Doom

• Correct Answer: (B) Siri

Explanation:
The registered breeds from Assam according to the NBAGR include the Miri, Daothigir,
and Doom. Siri is not listed as a registered breed by the NBAGR in Assam.

94. Assume that you are the certifying veterinary authority to issue a transit certificate
under Rule 96 of the Transportation of Animals Rules, 2001. Which of the following
conditions does not comply with the requirements for on-road cattle transportation by
vehicle?
(A) All animals are apparently healthy and free from infectious diseases
(B) Animals that have given birth within the preceding 24 hours or are likely to deliver during
the transit are kept in the vehicle for transportation
(C) None of the animals is injured, blind, emaciated, lame, or fatigued
(D) A clearly visible 'Animal Carrier' board is installed on the front and back sides of the vehicle

• Correct Answer: (B) Animals that have given birth within the preceding 24 hours or
are likely to deliver during the transit are kept in the vehicle for transportation
Explanation:
According to the Transportation of Animals Rules, animals that have given birth within
the preceding 24 hours or are likely to deliver during the transit should not be transported
by road, as this could cause additional stress and complications. The other conditions
listed are compliant with the requirements for the transportation of cattle.

95. Swine farmers reported heavy neonatal mortality due to crushing by large white
Yorkshire dams. They require your advice regarding the installation of guard rails along
the walls of the farrowing pen. Suggest the recommended height of guard rails.
(A) 10 cm above floor level
(B) 25 cm above floor level
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

(C) 50 cm above floor level

(D) 100 cm above floor level

Correct Answer: (B) 25 cm above floor level

Explanation:
To prevent neonatal piglets from being crushed by sows, guard rails in the farrowing pen should
be installed at a height that keeps the piglets safe from being crushed while allowing them to
access the sow for nursing. A height of 25 cm above floor level is generally recommended to
provide adequate protection.

96. A goat farmer recently had triplets born on his farm. However, the mother goat
developed mastitis, significantly reducing her milk production during the first week after
giving birth. The farmer approached you for a suitable substitute for milk. Which of the
following feeding management strategies would you recommend to ensure the optimal
growth of the kids?
(A) Milk replacer
(B) Creep feeding
(C) Steaming up
(D) Flushing

Correct Answer: (A) Milk replacer

Explanation:
When the mother goat cannot produce enough milk due to mastitis, a milk replacer is a suitable
substitute to ensure that the kids receive adequate nutrition for optimal growth. Creep feeding is
used to provide supplementary feed to young animals but does not replace milk, while steaming
up and flushing are pre-breeding strategies to improve reproductive performance, not immediate
solutions for feeding kids.

97. The dental formula (permanent teeth) of a livestock species is given below: 3/3, 1/1, 4/4,
3/3. Identify the livestock species.
(A) Bos taurus
(B) Capra hircus
(C) Ovis aries
(D) Sus scrofa

Correct Answer (D) Sus scrofa

Explanation:
The dental formula 3/3, 1/1, 4/4, 3/3 corresponds to the permanent teeth of pig (Sus scrofa). This
formula indicates 3 incisors on each side of the upper jaw, 1 on each side of the lower jaw, 4
premolars and 3 molars on each side of both jaws.
 ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION

98. If all the individuals are regarded homozygous for one allele, then the particular locus
is said to be
(A) Polymorphic
(B) Dimorphic
(C) Monomorphic
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer (C) Monomorphic

Explanation:
A locus is said to be monomorphic if all individuals in a population are homozygous for the
same allele at that locus. This means there is no genetic variation at that particular locus within
the population.

99. The transfer of a small segment of DNA from donor to recipient via bacteriophage is
known as
(A) Transfection
(B) Transformation
(C) Transduction
(D) Conjugation

Correct Answer (C) Transduction

Explanation:
Transduction is the process by which a small segment of DNA is transferred from a donor to a
recipient cell via a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria). This is a key method for genetic
exchange in bacteria.

100. To check whether a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the

following statistical tests is used?
(A) Student t-test
(B) F-test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) ANOVA

Correct Answer: (C) Chi-square test

Explanation:
The Chi-square test is used to determine if there is a significant difference between the observed
and expected frequencies of genotypes in a population, which helps to check if the population is
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
ASSAM VO/BVO EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEYS WITH EXPLANATION