50 Multiple-Choice Questions

Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and Implementation

1. What is the PRIMARY objective of a feasibility study during system acquisition?

A) To develop the project budget
B) To assess whether the proposed system meets organizational needs
C) To finalize the system design specifications
D) To select the development team
Answer: B
Explanation: A feasibility study evaluates whether a proposed system is viable,
considering technical, financial, and operational aspects to meet organizational needs.

2. Which methodology emphasizes iterative development and frequent stakeholder

feedback?
A) Waterfall
B) Agile
C) Spiral
D) V-Model
Answer: B
Explanation: Agile methodology focuses on iterative development, delivering small,
functional increments with regular stakeholder feedback.

3. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a Request for Proposal (RFP) in system acquisition?
A) To outline the project timeline
B) To solicit bids from vendors for system solutions
C) To define the system architecture
D) To train end-users
Answer: B
Explanation: An RFP is used to solicit proposals from vendors to provide solutions that
meet the organization’s system requirements.

4. Which testing phase ensures that the system meets business requirements?
A) Unit testing
B) Integration testing
C) User acceptance testing
D) System testing
Answer: C
Explanation: User acceptance testing (UAT) verifies that the system meets business
requirements and is ready for production.
5. What is a key benefit of using prototyping in system development?
A) Reduces hardware costs
B) Allows early user feedback to refine requirements
C) Eliminates the need for testing
D) Speeds up hardware procurement
Answer: B
Explanation: Prototyping enables early user feedback to refine and clarify requirements
before full development.

6. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern during system implementation?

A) Developing marketing strategies
B) Ensuring data migration accuracy
C) Finalizing vendor contracts
D) Selecting hardware vendors
Answer: B
Explanation: Accurate data migration is critical during implementation to ensure data
integrity and system functionality.

7. What is the MAIN purpose of a post-implementation review (PIR)?

A) To develop new system features
B) To assess whether project objectives were met
C) To select a new project team
D) To update the project budget
Answer: B
Explanation: A PIR evaluates whether the system meets its objectives, identifies lessons
learned, and assesses project success.

8. Which development approach is BEST suited for projects with well-defined

requirements?
A) Agile
B) Waterfall
C) Scrum
D) DevOps
Answer: B
Explanation: The Waterfall model is ideal for projects with stable, well-defined
requirements due to its sequential approach.

9. What is the PRIMARY role of a project steering committee?

A) To perform system coding
B) To oversee project governance and decision-making
 C) To conduct user training
D) To manage daily operations
Answer: B
Explanation: The steering committee provides oversight, ensures alignment with
objectives, and makes high-level decisions.

10. Which document defines the detailed requirements for a new system?
A) Which document defines the detailed requirements for a new system?
B) System requirements specification
C) Risk assessment report
D) Service level agreement
Answer: B
Explanation: The system requirements specification outlines detailed functional and
non-functional requirements for the system.

11. What is a key risk of outsourcing system development?

A) Reduced project costs
B) Loss of control over sensitive data
C) Faster development time
D) Improved system quality
Answer: B
Explanation: Outsourcing can lead to risks such as loss of control over sensitive data or
intellectual property.

12. Which testing method verifies that individual components work together correctly?
A) Unit testing
B) Integration testing
C) Regression testing
D) Stress testing
Answer: B
Explanation: Integration testing ensures that individual components function correctly
when combined.

13. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a change management process during system
development?
A) To reduce development costs
B) To control and document changes to the system
C) To speed up project delivery
D) To eliminate user feedback
Answer: B
 Explanation: Change management ensures that system changes are controlled,
documented, and approved to avoid scope creep.

14. Which of the following is a key component of a business case for system acquisition?
A) Detailed coding specifications
B) Cost-benefit analysis
C) User training manuals
D) Hardware maintenance plans
Answer: B
Explanation: A business case includes a cost-benefit analysis to justify the investment in
the new system.

15. What is the MAIN goal of system design in the SDLC?

A) To train end-users
B) To define the system’s architecture and components
C) To select the project team
D) To finalize the project budget
Answer: B
Explanation: System design defines the architecture, components, and technical
specifications to meet requirements.

16. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern during data conversion?

A) Selecting hardware vendors
B) Ensuring data integrity and completeness
C) Developing marketing plans
D) Finalizing user manuals
Answer: B
Explanation: Data conversion focuses on ensuring data is accurately transferred and
maintains integrity.

17. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a quality assurance (QA) process in system
development?
A) To reduce project costs
B) To ensure the system meets specified standards
C) To speed up development
D) To eliminate user involvement
Answer: B
Explanation: QA ensures the system meets quality standards and requirements through
testing and reviews.
18. Which methodology combines iterative development with risk management?
A) Waterfall
B) Agile
C) Spiral
D) Scrum
Answer: C
Explanation: The Spiral model integrates iterative development with risk assessment
and mitigation.

19. What is a key benefit of using commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) software?

A) Fully customized to organizational needs
B) Faster implementation and lower development costs
C) Requires extensive in-house coding
D) Eliminates the need for testing
Answer: B
Explanation: COTS software offers faster implementation and reduced development
costs compared to custom solutions.

20. Which of the following is a PRIMARY risk of inadequate user involvement in system
development?
A) Reduced project costs
B) Misalignment with business needs
C) Faster project delivery
D) Improved system performance
Answer: B
Explanation: Lack of user involvement can lead to a system that does not meet business
or user requirements.

21. What is the PRIMARY purpose of regression testing?

A) To test new system features
B) To ensure existing functionality is not impacted by changes
C) To validate hardware performance
D) To train end-users
Answer: B
Explanation: Regression testing verifies that new changes have not adversely affected
existing functionality.

22. Which of the following is a key deliverable of the system design phase?
A) User training manuals
B) System architecture diagram
 C) Project budget
D) Vendor contracts
Answer: B
Explanation: The system design phase produces deliverables like architecture diagrams
and technical specifications.

23. What is the MAIN purpose of a pilot implementation?

A) To finalize the project budget
B) To test the system in a controlled environment
C) To train all end-users
D) To select hardware vendors
Answer: B
Explanation: A pilot implementation tests the system in a limited, controlled
environment before full deployment.

24. Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of modular system design?

A) Increased development time
B) Easier maintenance and scalability
C) Higher hardware costs
D) Reduced user involvement
Answer: B
Explanation: Modular design allows for easier maintenance, updates, and scalability of
the system.

25. What is the PRIMARY role of a project manager in system development?

A) To perform system coding
B) To coordinate and oversee project activities
C) To conduct user acceptance testing
D) To manage hardware procurement
Answer: B
Explanation: The project manager oversees planning, coordination, and execution of
project activities.

Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience

26. What is the PRIMARY objective of IT operations management?

A) To develop new systems
B) To ensure efficient and reliable IT service delivery
C) To perform system coding
D) To select hardware vendors
Answer: B
 Explanation: IT operations management focuses on delivering reliable and efficient IT
services to support business operations.

27. Which of the following is a key component of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
A) System development methodology
B) Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
C) User training manuals
D) Project budget
Answer: B
Explanation: RTOs define the acceptable downtime for systems and are critical to a DRP.

28. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a service level agreement (SLA)?

A) To define system requirements
B) To establish performance expectations for IT services
C) To develop the project budget
D) To select hardware vendors
Answer: B
Explanation: SLAs define performance metrics and expectations for IT services between
providers and clients.

29. Which of the following is a PRIMARY goal of business continuity planning (BCP)?
A) To reduce hardware costs
B) To ensure critical business functions continue during disruptions
C) To develop new systems
D) To eliminate user training
Answer: B
Explanation: BCP ensures that critical business functions can continue during and after
disruptions.

30. What is a key benefit of regular system backups?

A) Faster system development
B) Protection against data loss
C) Reduced user involvement
D) Elimination of system testing
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular backups protect against data loss due to hardware failure,
cyberattacks, or other incidents.

31. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern in IT operations?

A) Developing marketing strategies
B) Ensuring system availability and performance
 C) Finalizing vendor contracts
D) Selecting development methodologies
Answer: B
Explanation: IT operations focus on maintaining system availability, performance, and
reliability.

32. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an incident response plan?

A) To develop new systems
B) To manage and mitigate security incidents
C) To train end-users
D) To finalize project budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: An incident response plan outlines procedures to detect, respond to, and
recover from security incidents.

33. Which of the following is a key metric for assessing IT operations performance?
A) Project budget adherence
B) System uptime percentage
C) Number of system developers
D) User training hours
Answer: B
Explanation: System uptime is a critical metric for evaluating IT operations performance
and reliability.

34. What is the PRIMARY role of a recovery point objective (RPO)?

A) To define the project timeline
B) To specify acceptable data loss during recovery
C) To select hardware vendors
D) To develop user manuals
Answer: B
Explanation: RPO defines the amount of data loss an organization can tolerate during a
disruption.

35. Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of IT service management (ITSM)?

A) Reduced system development time
B) Improved alignment of IT services with business needs
C) Elimination of system testing
D) Lower hardware costs
Answer: B
 Explanation: ITSM aligns IT services with business needs to improve efficiency and
effectiveness.

36. What is the MAIN purpose of a change control board (CCB)?

A) To develop system code
B) To review and approve system changes
C) To train end-users
D) To select hardware vendors
Answer: B
Explanation: The CCB reviews and approves changes to ensure they are necessary and
do not disrupt operations.

37. Which of the following is a key component of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
A) System coding standards
B) Identification of critical business processes
C) User training plans
D) Hardware procurement plans
Answer: B
Explanation: BIA identifies critical business processes and their dependencies to
prioritize recovery efforts.

38. What is the PRIMARY purpose of patch management in IT operations?

A) To develop new systems
B) To address vulnerabilities and improve system security
C) To train end-users
D) To finalize project budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: Patch management applies updates to fix vulnerabilities and enhance
system security.

39. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern in capacity planning?

A) Developing marketing strategies
B) Ensuring sufficient resources to meet demand
C) Finalizing vendor contracts
D) Selecting development methodologies
Answer: B
Explanation: Capacity planning ensures IT resources can handle current and future
demand.

40. What is the PRIMARY goal of a hot site in disaster recovery?

A) To reduce hardware costs
 B) To provide immediate system availability
C) To develop new systems
D) To train end-users
Answer: B
Explanation: A hot site is fully operational and allows immediate recovery with minimal
downtime.

41. Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of ITIL framework adoption?

A) Faster system development
B) Standardized IT service management processes
C) Reduced user involvement
D) Elimination of system testing
Answer: B
Explanation: ITIL provides standardized processes to improve IT service management
and delivery.

42. What is the PRIMARY purpose of monitoring system logs in IT operations?

A) To develop new systems
B) To detect and investigate security incidents
C) To train end-users
D) To finalize project budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: System log monitoring helps detect anomalies and investigate potential
security incidents.

43. Which of the following is a key component of a business continuity plan (BCP)?
A) System development methodology
B) Communication plan during disruptions
C) User training manuals
D) Project budget
Answer: B
Explanation: A BCP includes a communication plan to ensure effective coordination
during disruptions.

44. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a cold site in disaster recovery?

A) To provide immediate system availability
B) To serve as a low-cost recovery option
C) To develop new systems
D) To train end-users
Answer: B
 Explanation: A cold site is a cost-effective recovery option but requires setup time
before operations can resume.

45. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern in IT asset management?

A) Developing marketing strategies
B) Tracking and controlling IT resources
C) Finalizing vendor contracts
D) Selecting development methodologies
Answer: B
Explanation: IT asset management tracks and controls hardware, software, and other IT
resources.

46. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a failover test in disaster recovery?

A) To develop new systems
B) To verify the effectiveness of recovery procedures
C) To train end-users
D) To finalize project budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: Failover testing ensures that recovery procedures work as expected during
a disruption.

47. Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of automation in IT operations?

A) Increased manual errors
B) Improved efficiency and reduced human intervention
C) Higher hardware costs
D) Reduced user involvement
Answer: B
Explanation: Automation streamlines processes, reduces errors, and minimizes manual
intervention.

48. What is the PRIMARY purpose of a configuration management database (CMDB)?

A) To develop system code
B) To track IT assets and their relationships
C) To train end-users
D) To finalize project budgets
Answer: B
Explanation: A CMDB tracks IT assets, configurations, and their interdependencies.

49. Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern in vendor management for IT

operations?
A) Developing marketing strategies
 B) Ensuring vendor compliance with SLAs
C) Finalizing system requirements
D) Selecting development methodologies
Answer: B
Explanation: Vendor management ensures vendors meet SLA requirements and deliver
quality services.

50. What is the PRIMARY goal of a warm site in disaster recovery?

A) To provide immediate system availability
B) To balance cost and recovery speed
C) To develop new systems
D) To train end-users
Answer: B
Explanation: A warm site offers a balance between cost and recovery speed, with partial
setup for faster recovery than a cold site.