ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(ENGLISH PAPER – 1)

SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

1. LETTER WRITING

2. NOTICE AND EMAIL WRITING

T25 011 – SPECIMEN 1 of 6

Question 1 Letter Writing

(i) Informal:
Your grandmother has taught you a special skill. Write a letter thanking
her. Explain how you will use that skill and why it is important to you.

12 C, Lakeview Apartments,
M.G. Road,
Bengaluru - 560 001

21st July 2025

Dear Grandmother,

I would like to thank you for teaching me how to cook last summer. This
special skill has brought so much joy and excitement into my life.

Helping out in preparing meals for the family when my parents are busy and
discovering new recipes to cook is fun. It is wonderful to watch the expression
of delight on my sister’s face when I place that steaming hot bowl of soup in
front of her. I now make our tiffin and even bake cakes for birthdays.

When I stay in a hostel later for my higher studies, I will be able to make a
home-cooked meal for myself and my friends whenever I like. I also hope
someday to start a small bakery of my own. Learning this skill has given me
the confidence I need to do this.

I look forward to sharing photographs with you of my experiments with

cooking. I hope you will enjoy them.

Yours affectionately,

Rita
(ii) Formal:
There is no bus stop in your locality. Write a letter to the Municipal
Commissioner of your town/city complaining about the problem. Offer
possible solutions.

12 C, Lakeview Apartments,
46 Salem Street,
Kolkata 700 014.

21st July 2025.

The Municipal Commissioner,

The Kolkata Municipal Corporation,
5W, Bertram Street
Kolkata - 700 087.

Madam,

We belong to Ward No. 45YY under the North-west sector of the Kolkata
Municipal Corporation. Unfortunately, there is no designated bus stop either
in the street we live in or even within a reasonable walking distance.

The children we have living in the area find it difficult to walk the long
distances to school because of this. They often carry heavy schoolbags.
Officegoers also find themselves running late and have to hire taxis which are
expensive.

If you could schedule an inspection of the area and arrange for a bus stop to
be constructed in our locality we would be very grateful. A shuttle service
would be another alternative.

We will be grateful if you look into the matter and take the necessary steps as
soon as possible.

Yours faithfully,

Rahul Sharma

(RAHUL SHARMA)
Question 3 Notice & Email Writing
(i) (a) Write the text for a notice based on given directions.

(b) Write an email on the same content as the notice.

• Your school is hosting an inter-school debate competition. Write

a notice for your school informing them of the event.

• Write an email to the principal of a neighbouring school

informing him/her of the event and requesting him/her to send a
team to participate.

(a) War of Words (2 – 3 words)

Bright High Inter-School Debate Competition

on 25 July 2025 (10 – 14 days from examination date)

from 9.00 a.m. to 12 noon

at Subhash Hall, Bright High School

Pupils from Classes IX and X who wish to participate are to give their
names to Mrs N. Sharma on or before 18 July 2025
(2-3 days from exam date)

(b) principaldps456@gmail.com

Team for Bright High Inter School Debate Competition

Madam,

We would like to invite you to send a team to participate in ‘War of

Words’, an inter-school debate competition being organized by our
school as part of its 50th anniversary celebration this year.

It will be held on 25 July 2025 from 9.00 a.m. till 12 noon in the
Subhash Hall of Bright High School. Two member teams from
Classes IX and X will participate in the event.

We request you to send us the registration form as confirmation. We

look forward to hosting the team from your school at the competition.

Thank you.

Yours faithfully,

Ashish Roy (Debating Secretary)

(a) Your school is hosting an Inter School Story Writing Competition. Write
a notice informing the students about the event.

Telling Tales

Annual Inter School Story Writing Competition

on 25 July 2025

from 10.00 a.m. — 3.00 p.m.

at Blossom Hall, Silver Pine School

All pupils of Classes 9 to 12 who wish to register should give their names to
their Class teachers on or before 18 July 2025.

Note: Creative title should not be longer than 3 words. It should not contain
any words from the topic like ‘story’ or ‘writing’.

Event: The competition should be specified by ensuring a word or two (like

‘Annual’) is added to the event as named in the question.

Date: Accept a single date 10-14 days from the date of the exam or, in other
words, the date the notice is being put up.

Time: Accept a range as shown.

Venue: smaller place (for example a hall) to larger (for example school name)

Participation: Should mention 3 things – which classes or specific target

audience, person with whom to register, date by which to
register (2-3 days from date of exam only)
(b) Write an email to a famous person inviting him/her to be the Judge on the
occasion.

ruskinbond123@gmail.com

Invitation to judge Annual Inter School Story Writing Competition

Dear Sir,

We would like to invite you to judge ‘Telling Tales’ our Annual Inter School
Story Writing Competition.

It will be held on 25 July 2025 from 10.00 a.m. to 3.00 p.m. in the Blossom
Hall of Silver Pine School.

We would be honoured if you accept the invitation.

Thank you.

Yours faithfully,

Ashish Roy (Head Boy)

Note: Receiver’s address should be specific and not merely have words like
‘famous author’ or ‘principal’.

Subject may have the 2nd or event line of the notice quoted verbatim
or add words like ‘Invitation to judge’ before the event

Salutation to follow formal letter rule (Sir, OR Madam, preferably)

Opening sentence of mail should carry the invitation with creative title
and event specified for good measure.

Second paragraph should carry date, time, venue details to match

notice.

Last paragraph may have a polite closing sentence, formal in tone,

perhaps asking for a line in confirmation etc.

Subscription should follow formal letter rule (preferably Yours

faithfully,)
 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

PHYSICS
(SCIENCE PAPER 1)

Maximum Marks: 80

Time allowed: Two hours

1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

2. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.

3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

5. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.

6. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the
Examination Hall.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 1 of 17

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 SECTION A (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

Question 1

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]

(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)

(i) A moment of couple has a tendency to rotate the body in an

anticlockwise direction. The moment of couple is taken as:

(a) positive

(b) negative

(c) maximum

(d) zero [Recall]

(ii) The kinetic energy of a given body depends on the:

(a) position

(b) centre of gravity

(c) momentum

(d) displacement [Understanding]

(iii) During power production in a coal-based thermoelectric power plant,

the correct sequence of energy conversions taking place is:

(a) heat  mechanical  chemical

(b) heat  mechanical  electrical

(c) chemical  heat  light

(d) heat  chemical  electrical [Recall]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 2 of 17

(iv) Anita used a single movable pulley to lift a bucket of water from a well.
She lubricates the pulley.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of
the pulley used?

(a) Mechanical Advantage decreases and efficiency increases.

(b) Velocity Ratio increases and efficiency decreases.

(c) Mechanical Advantage remains unchanged and efficiency

increases.

(d) Velocity Ratio remains unchanged and efficiency increases. [Application]

(v) Inside the prism, during the dispersion of white light, compared to blue,
red light:

(a) slows down less and refracts more.

(b) slows down more and refracts less.

(c) slows down more and refracts more. [Recall &

(d) slows down less and refracts less. Application]

(vi) When objects are viewed through the rising heat of a campfire they appear
to shimmer. The optical phenomenon responsible for this effect is:

(a) refraction

(b) reflection

(c) scattering

(d) total internal reflection [Recall]

(vii) A convex lens with a focal length of 12 cm has an object at a distance

of 20 cm in front of the lens. A blurred image is obtained on the screen
placed at a distance of 23 cm in front of the lens. In order to obtain a
clear image, the screen has to be moved:

(a) towards the lens.

(b) away from the lens.

(c) to a position very far from the lens.

(d) either towards or away from the lens. [Application]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 3 of 17

(viii) Assertion(A): Soldiers avoid firing at a target in foggy weather
conditions.

Reason(R): In foggy weather, light gets scattered by tiny water

droplets, reducing visibility.

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of [Understanding
(A). & Recall]

(ix) Two sound waves X and Y have the same amplitude and the same wave
pattern but their frequencies are 60 Hz and 120 Hz respectively, then:

(a) X will be shriller and Y will be grave.

(b) X will be grave and Y will be shriller.

(c) X will differ in quality than Y.

(d) X is louder than Y. [Understanding]

(x) In the circuit given below, identify the correct relation between the
currents flowing through the 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 5 Ω resistors:

(a) current through 2Ω > current through 3Ω

(b) current through 5Ω < current through 3Ω

(c) current through 2Ω = current through 5Ω [Understanding

(d) current through 5Ω > current through 3Ω & Recall]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 4 of 17

(xi) According to the old convention, the colour of the earth wire is:

(a) black

(b) green

(c) yellow

(d) red

[Recall]

(xii) For an ideal step up transformer:

𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
(a) >1
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
(b) <1
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

(c) =1
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
(d) =1
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

[Application]

(xiii) Heat capacity of a body is the:

(a) energy needed to melt a body without change in its temperature.

(b) energy needed to raise the temperature of a body by 1°C.

(c) increase in volume of the body when its temperature increases by 1°C.

(d) total amount of internal energy that is constant.

[Recall]

(xiv) The amount of heat energy required to melt a given mass of a substance
at its melting point, without any rise in its temperature is called the:

(a) specific heat capacity.

(b) specific latent heat of fusion.

(c) latent heat of fusion.

(d) specific latent heat of freezing. [Recall]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 5 of 17

(xv) A nucleus of an atom consists of 146 neutrons and 95 protons. It decays
after emitting an alpha particle. How many protons and neutrons are left
in the nucleus after an alpha emission?

(a) protons = 93, neutrons = 142

(b) protons = 95, neutrons = 144

(c) protons = 93, neutrons = 144

(d) protons = 95, neutrons = 142 [Understanding]

Question 2

(i) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the [6]
bracket:

(a) A ___________ [Class II/Class III] lever will always have

M.A. > 1.

(b) A boy uses a GPS device to locate his missing friend in a crowded
area; the system primarily uses __________ [ultraviolet waves /
microwaves] to track the location.

(c) Unit of specific heat capacity is _______. [kg2m2s-2K-1 / m2s-2K-1]

(d) The threshold of hearing is __________. [0dB, 20Hz]

(e) Two copper wires can have different resistivity if they have
different __________. [lengths / temperatures]

(f) The reaction responsible for the production of energy in the sun is [Recall &
__________. [Nuclear Fusion / Nuclear Fission] Understanding]

(ii) Match the movement of the body part in Column A to the class of lever [2]
in Column B.

Movement of the body part Class of lever

Column A Column B
(a) Nodding head • Class III
(b) Lifting body weight on your toes • Class II
[Understanding]
• Class I

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 6 of 17

(iii) (a) Name the wave used for echo depth sounding.
[2]
(b) Give one reason why the waves mentioned in (a) is used for the
above purpose. [Recall]

Question 3

(i) (a) Refer to the diagram given below. A lens is made of two materials
[2]
of different refractive indices (µ1, µ2) as shown. If the rays are
coming from a distant object, then how many images will be seen? [Understanding]

(b) A glass lens always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image
of an object kept in front of it. Identify the lens. [Recall]

(ii) The image given below displays kilowatt-hour meter readings recorded
[2]
at two distinct points in time.

Assuming a continuously running 2000W air conditioner as the sole

electrical device in use, calculate the time interval, in hours, between
these two meter readings. [Application]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 7 of 17

(iii) ABCDE is a regular pentagon with its centre of gravity at O. What will [2]
be the most probable position (W, X, Y, Z or O) of the new centre of
gravity:

(a) if a piece of clay is attached at point A?

(b) if the pentagon is cut along the line PQ? (Of the remaining part
DCBQPE)

[Understanding]

[Recall]

(iv) A solid of mass 60 g at 100°C is placed in 150 g of water at 20°C. The

[2]
final steady temperature is 25°C. Calculate the heat capacity of the
solid. [Understanding
& Evaluate]
[sp. heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g -1 K -1 ]
(v) The diagram given below shows a copper wire wound around a U-shape [2]
soft iron bar. An iron pin is brought near the arrangement. First Source [Recall]
P and then Source Q are connected across AB, each operating
independently.

(a) State True or False: Source P as well as Source Q, when

connected across AB, can attract the iron pin.

(b) Justify your answer to (a) with a suitable reason.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 8 of 17

(vi) (a) Name the radiation that is emitted during the decay of a nucleus [2]
that has the highest penetrating power. [Recall]

(b) Does the emission of the above-mentioned radiation result in a

change in the mass number? [Understanding]
(vii) Advanced optical sensors in air-to-air missiles use fiber optic cables to [3]
transmit light signals with minimal loss. This relies on a physical
phenomenon that confines light within the fibers, making the system
very dependable for guiding the missile precisely.

(a) Name the optical phenomenon that allows light signals to remain
confined within the fiber optic cables during transmission.

(b) Explain the two main conditions necessary for this phenomenon
to occur. [Application]

SECTION B (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)

Question 4

(i) The diagram below shows a fish in the tank and its image seen on the [3]
surface of water.

[Understanding
(a) Name the phenomenon responsible for the formation of this
& Recall]
image.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 9 of 17

 (b) A double convex lens with refractive index 𝜇𝜇1 is placed inside two
liquids of refractive indices 𝜇𝜇2 and 𝜇𝜇3 as shown in the diagrams
below. The refractive indices are such that µ2 > µ1 and µ1 > µ3.

How would a parallel incident beam of light refract when it

comes out of the lens in each of the cases shown above?

(1) in Figure a.
[Application]
(2) in Figure b.

(ii) A scientist lowers a metallic ruler vertically into a transparent oil tank. [3]
The ruler touches an object placed at the bottom of the tank and gets
wet up to the 25 cm mark. If the refractive index of the glycerin is 1.25:

(a) up to which mark will the ruler get wet, if the scientist lowers it
[Evaluate]
up to the image of the object?

(b) how will this length in (a) change if another liquid of μ>1.25 is
used? [Understanding]

(iii) (a) A mixture of red, blue, and green light rays is passed through a [4]
convex lens, as illustrated in the diagram below. State whether the [Understanding]
ray passes through a single point or through different points on the
principal axis after refraction.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 10 of 17

 (b) Name the invisible radiation which is studied using the quartz [Recall]
prism.

(c) State one use of the radiation mentioned by you in (b) above. [Recall]

(d) Name one type of radiation with a wavelength greater than that of [Recall]
the radiation mentioned by you in (b) above.

Question 5

(i) An object is placed at a distance of 24 cm in front of a convex lens of [3]

focal length 8 cm.

(a) What is the nature of the image so formed?

[Understanding
(b) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens. & Evaluate]

(ii) The diagram below shows a cooling curve for a substance X: [3]

(a) State the temperatures at which the substance condenses.

[Recall]
(b) Mention the temperature range in which the substance is in its
liquid state.
[Understanding]
(c) State True or False: The amount of heat released when a
substance is cooled by 10°C in its liquid state is greater than the
heat released when it is cooled by the same amount in its solid
state.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 11 of 17

(iii) In an experiment to measure the temperature of the flame of a Bunsen [4]
burner, a lump of copper of mass 0 .12 kg is heated on the flame for a
long time. The copper then is quickly transferred into a beaker of
negligible heat capacity containing 0.84 kg of water and the temperature
of the water rose from 15 °C to 35 °C. Calculate the temperature of the
flame.
[Given sp. Heat capacity of copper = 0.4 Jg-1 oC-1,
Sp. Heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1 oC-1.]
[Understanding
& Application]

Question 6

(i) [3]

A metal rod AB of length 80 cm is balanced at 45 cm from the end A

with 100 gf weights suspended from the two ends.

(a) If this rod is cut at the centre C, then compare the weight of AC to
[Understanding
the weight of BC. (Use >, < or =)
& Application]
(b) Give a reason for your answer in (a).

(ii) For each of the following scenarios, state whether the work done by [3]
gravity is positive, negative, or zero.

(a) A person walks on a levelled road.

(b) A person climbs a ladder. [Understanding

(c) A car in a neutral gear is coming down the slope. & Recall]

(iii) A, B, C and D are four points on a hemispherical cup placed inverted [4]
on the ground. Diameter BC = 360 cm and AE =R/3 (R is the radius of
the cup). A small spherical mass 500 g at rest at the point A, slides down
along the smooth surface of the cup. Assuming that there is no loss of
energy, calculate its:

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 12 of 17

 (a) Potential Energy at A relative to B.

(b) Speed at the point B (lowest point).

[Application &
(c) Kinetic Energy at D (g = 10 ms-2).
Evaluate]

Question 7
(i) A block and tackle system of pulleys has velocity ratio 4. [3]

(a) Draw a labelled diagram of the system indicating clearly, the

direction of the load and effort. [Recall]

(b) Calculate the potential energy gained by load of 100 kgf, lifted by [Understanding

this pulley to a height of 5 m. (g = 10 ms-2) & Evaluate]

(ii) A person standing in front of a cliff fires a gun and hears its echo after [3]
3s. Speed of sound in air is 336 ms-1:

(a) Calculate the distance of the person from the cliff.

(b) After moving a certain distance from the cliff, he fires the gun
again and this time the echo is heard 1.5 s later than the first. [Understanding
Calculate the distance that the person has moved. & Evaluate]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 13 of 17

(iii) [4]

The above picture shows a mother pushing her daughter sitting on a

swing. The swing is going through the positions A, B, C where A and
C are extreme positions and B is the mean position.

(a) Which is the right position i.e. at A, B or C, for the mother to give
a constant periodic push to the swing, every time in the forward
direction, to increase the amplitude of the swing?

(b) Name the phenomenon involved in this.

(c) On the basis of this example, explain how this phenomenon helps
to increase the amplitude of the swing. [Application]

Question 8
(i) The circuit depicted in the figure is employed for studying Ohm's Law. [3]
Instead of using a standard resistor, a student opts for a glass tube filled
with mercury (tube 1), connected to the circuit through two electrodes
E1 & E2. He records the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter, thereby
calculates the resistance. The student repeats the experiment by
substituting tube 1 with tube 2, where the same amount of mercury fills
the tube 2.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 14 of 17

 Neglecting internal resistance of the cell, use (> or < or =) to compare
the following:

(a) Resistance in both cases. [Understanding

(b) Voltmeter readings in both cases. & Application]

(c) Specific resistance in both cases.

(ii) An appliance with a metal covering, rated at 2 kW, 220 V, is to be [3]

connected in a circuit. Given below are four diagrams (P, Q, R & S)
depicting different circuit configurations,

(a) Identify the safest circuit.

(b) Write two reasons, supported by mathematical calculations, where [Application &
applicable, to justify your choice. Evaluate]

(iii) A nichrome wire X with length (l) & cross-sectional area (A) is [4]
connected to a 10 V source and another nichrome wire Y with length
(2 l) & cross-sectional area (A/2), is connected to a 20 V source.

(a) Compare the resistances of wires X and Y. [Given that the

resistivity of nichrome is (ρ).]

(b) Compare the electrical power consumed by each wire.

(c) Compare the masses of these wires. (Given that the density of
nichrome is d.)

(d) State True or False: Wire X and wire Y both show the same rise [Analyse &
in temperature in the same time. Evaluate]

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 15 of 17

Question 9

(i) Three bulbs of powers P1, P2 and P3 (P1<P2<P3) are connected in a [3]
certain way that P3 glows brightest.

(a) What type of connection exists between these bulbs?

(b) Compare the voltage across these bulbs. (Use >, < or =)

(c) Will the circuit still function if one of the bulbs is fused? [Recall]

(ii) The given diagram shows the output of an AC generator. If the speed
[3]
of the generator coil is doubled, then:

(a) what is the effect on the physical quantity indicated by ‘a’?

(b) what is the effect on the physical quantity indicated as ‘b’?

(c) give reason for your answer in (b). [Understanding]

(iii) The graph (Fig. A) illustrates the correlation between the number of [4]
protons (x-axis) and the number of neutrons (y-axis) for elements A, B,
C, D, and E in the periodic table. These elements are denoted by the
letters rather than their conventional symbols.

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 16 of 17

 [Understanding]

(a) Identify the radioactive radiation emitted when element C decays

into element E. Represent this using a nuclear reaction.

(b) What is the special name given to elements D and E?

(c) If element C transforms into element B by emitting a radioactive

ray, how will this ray behave in an electric field?

T26 521 – SPECIMEN 17 of 17

 ICSE 2026 SPECIMEN
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME – PHYSICS (SCIENCE PAPER 1)
Question 1 [1x15]
(i) (a) positive

(ii) (c) momentum

(iii) (b) heat  mechanical  electrical

(iv) (d) Velocity Ratio remains unchanged and efficiency increases.

(v) (d) slows down less and refracts less

(vi) (a) refraction

(vii) (b) away from the lens

(viii) (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(ix) (b) X will be grave and Y will be shriller

(x) (c) current through 2 Ω = current through 5 Ω

(xi) (b) green

𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
(xii) (d) =1
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

(xiii) (b) energy needed to raise the temperature of a body by 1°C

(xiv) (c) latent heat of fusion

(xv) (c) protons = 93, neutrons = 144

Question 2
(i) (a) Class II [1]
(b) microwaves [1]
2 -2 -1
(c) ms K [1]
(d) 0dB [1]
(e) temperature [1+1]
(f) Nuclear fusion

(ii) (a) Nodding head  Class I [1]

(b) Lifting body weight on your toes  Class II [1]

(iii) (a) Ultrasonic waves [1]

(b) They travel long distance without deviation / not easily absorbed by the medium [1]
OR can be confined to a narrow beam.

T26 521 - SPECIMEN 1 of 5

Question 3
(i) (a) 2 images will be seen. [1]
(b) concave lens. [1]

(ii) Energy spent =1567-856 =711kWh [1]

Time in hours = 711/2 =355.5 hours [1]

(iii) (a) X [1]

(b) Z [1]

(iv) By principle of mixtures [1]

Heat lost = heat gained
(m x c x ∆T) metal = (m c ∆T) water [1]
c’ x 75 = 150 x 4.2 x 5
c’ = 42 J K -1

(v) (a) True [1]

(b) Both currents AC & DC produce magnetic field around it. [1]

(vi) (a) gamma /γ [1]

(b) No. [1]

(vii) (a) total internal reflection [1]

(b) 1. Light ray should travel from denser to rarer medium [1]
2. Angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle. [1]

Question 4
(i) (a) Total internal reflection. [1]
(b) 1. Converge [1]
2. Diverge [1]

(ii) (a) Real depth =25 cm [1+1]

Refractive index =1.25
Apparent depth =Real depth /refractive index
25/1.25 =20 cm.
(b) length will decrease [1]
(iii) (a) Different points. [1]
(b) Ultraviolet radiation [1]
(c) Sterilization purposes / Detecting purity of gems, eggs/ in producing vitamin D [1]
(d) Visible or infra-red or microwaves or radio waves. [1]

T26 521 - SPECIMEN 2 of 5

Question 5
(i) (a) Real, inverted [1]

(b)
1 1 1
− 𝑢𝑢 = 𝑓𝑓 ∴
1
−
1
=
1 [1]
𝑣𝑣 𝑣𝑣 −24 8
[1]
(identifying ‘U’ and ‘f’ with correct sign convention)
1 3−1
= ∴ 𝑣𝑣 = 12 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑣𝑣 24 [1]
(ii) (a) 150°C - [1+1]
(b) 150°C to 60°C
(c) True. [1]

(iii) Heat lost by Cu = 0.12 × 400 × (𝑡𝑡 − 35) [1x4]

Heat gained by water = 0.84 × 4200 × (35 − 15)
0.84×4200×20
𝑡𝑡 − 35 = 0.12×400
= 7 × 42 × 5 = 1470 0𝐶𝐶
𝑡𝑡 = 1470 + 35 = 1505 0𝐶𝐶

Question 6
(i) (a) Weight of AC < weight of BC [1]
(b) Even though the weights present are the same at both ends, the torque arm of B is [2]
less than the torque arm of A.
This means the moment of the weight of the rod acts from side B and the C.G. lies
beyond 40. Thus, more weight is concentrated between C to B.

(ii) (a) No work is done. [1]

(b) Negative work is done. [1]
(c) Positive work is done. [1]

(iii) (a) Potential energy at A relative to B [1]

PEA = mgh
= 0.5 x 10 x 1.8 = 9J
(b) Speed at point B (lowest point) [1]
Using energy conservation
PE at A = KE at B => mgh = ½ mv2
v = √ 2gh = √ 2 x 10 x 1.8
= 6m/s
(c) Kinetic and Potential energy at D [1+1]
Therefore, height above B = 2R/3
= 1.2m
P.E. at D = mgh
= 0.5 x 10 x 1.2 = 6J
K.E. at D = TE -PE at D = 9-6 =3J
T26 521 - SPECIMEN 3 of 5
Question 7
(i)

(a) Pulleys drawn correctly with support

Correct connection of tackle, Marking load, effort with correct direction and [1+1]
tension
(b) U = mgh = 100×10×5
[1]
U = 5000 J

(ii) (a) d = (s×t)/2 ∴d=(336×3)/2 [1+1]

d =168×3=504 m
(b) d=(s×t) / 2 [1]
∴ d = (336×1.5)/2 = 168×1.5 = 252 m
Distance moved = 504 – 252 = 252 m

(iii) (a) At A [1]

(b) Resonance [1]
(c) The natural frequency of the swing will match the frequency of the force applied [1+1]
by mother this will increase the amplitude.

Question 8
(i) (a) Resistance of the tube2 < resistance of the tube 1 [1]
(b) The voltmeter reading for tube 1 is the same as the voltmeter reading for tube 2. [1]
(c) The specific resistance in both the cases is the same. [1]

(ii) (a) S [1]

(b) metal body of appliance is earthed [1+1]
I = PV = 2000/220 =9.09 A 10A fuse is appropriate

T26 521 - SPECIMEN 4 of 5

(iii) 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝜌𝜌2𝑙𝑙 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 [1+1]
(𝑎𝑎) 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑋𝑋 = 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑌𝑌 = =4 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 ∶ 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 1: 4
𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐴
2
𝑉𝑉 2 𝑡𝑡 102 𝑉𝑉 2 𝑡𝑡 202 [1+1]
(𝑏𝑏) 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 == = ∴ 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃: 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 1: 1
𝑅𝑅 𝑅𝑅 𝑅𝑅 4𝑅𝑅
𝐴𝐴
(c) 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑋𝑋 = 𝐴𝐴 × 𝑙𝑙 × 𝑑𝑑 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑌𝑌 = 2 × 2𝑙𝑙 × 𝑑𝑑 ∴ 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚: 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 1: 1

(d) True
𝑉𝑉 2 𝑡𝑡
𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 × 𝑐𝑐 × 8 = 𝑅𝑅
= 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 × 𝑡𝑡 →eq 1
𝑉𝑉 2 𝑡𝑡
𝑄𝑄𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 × 𝑐𝑐 × 𝛥𝛥𝛥𝛥 = 𝑅𝑅
= 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 × 𝑡𝑡 →eq 2

Eq1/eq2 =1 (𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏ℎ 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 )

Question 9
(i) (a) parallel [2+1]
(b) V1 = V2 = V3
(c) Yes

(ii) (a) It will be doubled. [1]

(b) It will be halved. [1]
(c) If speed is doubled, it means time of a cycle will be halved. [1]

(iii) (a) 𝛽𝛽 : 238

92𝐶𝐶 →
238
93𝐸𝐸 + −10𝛽𝛽 [1]
(b) isotopes [1]
(c) It will shift towards the negative plate [1+1]

T26 521 - SPECIMEN 5 of 5

 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

CHEMISTRY
(SCIENCE PAPER – 2)

Maximum Marks: 80

Time allowed: Two hours

1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

2. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.

3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

5. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.

6. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the Examination
Hall.

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 1 of 14

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 SECTION A
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)
(i) Which of the following will dissociate in aqueous solution, to give a
positive ion other than hydronium ion, and a negative ion other than
hydroxyl ion?

(a) KOH

(b) dil. HCl

(c) NaCl [Understanding

(d) CH3COOH & Application]

(ii) A compound P is heated in a test tube with sodium hydroxide solution.

A red litmus paper held at the mouth of the test tube turns blue.

Which of the following could compound P be?

(a) Zinc sulphate

(b) Copper sulphate

(c) Ferrous sulphate

(d) Ammonium sulphate [Understanding]

(iii) Assertion (A): Aqueous solution of potassium chloride can conduct

electricity.
Reason (B): Conduction of electric current is due to the presence of
free ions.

(a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A). [Understanding]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 2 of 14

(iv) Identify the ion that contain one lone pair of electrons.

(a) OH-1

(b) H3O+

(c) NH4+

(d) H+ [Understanding
& Application]

(v) Four reactions are shown below in the diagram:

1. 2.

3. 4.

Which reactions produce water?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 [Understanding

(d) 2 and 3 & Application]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 3 of 14

(vi) When compound X reacts with dilute sulphuric acid, it releases a gas that
turns acidified potassium dichromate solution from orange to green.
Which of the following could be compound X?

(a) Lead nitrate

(b) Copper carbonate

(c) Sodium chloride [Recall &

(d) Potassium sulphite Understanding]

(vii) The volume occupied by 2 moles of a gas at STP is:

(a) 22.4L

(b) 2.24L

(c) 44.8L [Understanding]

(d) 4.48L

(viii) Identify from the following metal oxide which can react with an acid as
well as an alkali.

(a) Silver oxide

(b) Calcium oxide

(c) Copper(II) oxide

(d) Aluminium oxide [Understanding]

(ix) The structures of four hydrocarbons are shown below:

How many isomers of butene are shown in the above structures?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4 [Analysis]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 4 of 14

(x) Which element amongst the following has the largest atomic radius?

(a) Al

(b) S

(c) Mg [Understanding
(d) Na & Application]

(xi) For which pH change is there the maximum increase in acidity?

Initial pH Final pH

(a) 1 3

(b) 2 6

(c) 3 1
[Understanding
(d) 6 2
& Application]

(xii) The equation below shows the reaction between element ‘X’ and dilute
sulphuric acid.
X(s) + H2SO4 (aq.)  XSO4 (aq.) + H2 (g)
Which particles are responsible for conducting electricity in dilute
sulphuric acid and compound XSO4?

(a) Electrons

(b) Only positive ions

(c) Only negative ions

[Understanding]
(d) Both positive and negative ions
(xiii) Methanol and ethanol belong to the same homologous series.
What does this statement mean?

(a) Their molecules contain atoms only of carbon and hydrogen.

(b) Their molecules have the same number of carbon atoms.

(c) They have the same functional group.

(d) They have the same relative molecular mass. [Understanding]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 5 of 14

(xiv) The ratio between the volumes occupied by 22 grams of carbon dioxide
and 10 grams of hydrogen gas is:

(a) 2.2 :1

(b) 1: 2.2

(c) 1:10

(d) 10:1

[Application]

(xv) In the process of Electrorefining of Copper shown in the diagram below,

which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The anode is made of pure Copper.

(b) The cathode is made of impure Copper.

(c) Copper is deposited at the anode.

(d) Copper ions from the anode move to the cathode and get deposited [Understanding]
as pure Copper.

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 6 of 14

Question 2
(i) Electroplating steel objects with silver involves a three-step process. [5]

step 1 A coating of copper is applied to the object.

step 2 A coating of nickel is applied to the object.

step 3 The coating of silver is applied to the object.

(a) A diagram of the apparatus used for step 1 is shown.

1. The chemical process taking place on the surface of the object
is Cu2 + (aq) + 2e-  Cu(s)
What is the observation seen on the surface of the object?

2. Explain why the concentration of copper ions in the

electrolyte remains constant throughout step1.

(b) Give two changes which would be needed in order to coat nickel
onto the object in step 2.
[Understanding
(c) Write down the reaction taking place at the positive electrode
& Application]
during step 3.

(ii) Identify the following: [5]

(a) A bond formed between two atoms by sharing of a pair of electrons,

with both electrons being provided by the same atom.

(b) A salt formed by the complete neutralisation of an acid by a base.

(c) A reaction in which the hydrogen of an alkane is replaced by a

halogen.

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 7 of 14

 (d) The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral gaseous
atom.

(e) A homogenous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-

metal in a definite proportion in their molten state.
[Recall]

(iii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [5]

(a) When dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules, the gas
evolved is __________ (hydrogen / carbon dioxide), which can be
tested using a burning splint.

(b) A solution of copper(II) sulphate in sodium hydroxide solution

forms a __________ (pale blue / green) precipitate.

(c) In methane, each hydrogen atom share(s) __________ (one / two)

electron(s) with the central carbon atom to complete its valence
shell.

(d) The electron affinity of element X is greater than that of element Y.

The oxidising power of X is likely to be ________ (more / less) than
that of element Y.

(e) The naturally occurring compound of a metal from which the metal
can be extracted is called its _________ (ore / mineral). [Recall &
Understanding]

(iv) Match Column A with Column B. [5]

Column A Column B

(a) Aluminium 1. Covalent compound

(b) Sulphuric acid 2. Carbonate ore

(c) Calcination 3. Hall Heroult’s process

[Recall &
(d) Calcium Chloride 4. Contact Process Understanding]

(e) Carbon tetrachloride 5. Electrovalent compound

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 8 of 14

(v) (a) Give the IUPAC name of the following organic compounds: [5]

1.

2.

(b) Draw the structural diagram for the following compounds:

1. but-2-yne

2. 1, 1, 1, trichloro methane
[Understanding]
3. pentan -2-ol

SECTION B (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions.)

Question 3
(i) Give one significant observation when: [2]

(a) Excess of chlorine gas reacts with ammonia. [Recall &

(b) Zinc nitrate is strongly heated in a test tube. Understanding]

(ii) Give reasons: [2]

(a) When ammonia gas is passed over black copper oxide in a

combustion tube a reddish-brown substance is left behind.

(b) Quick lime is not used to dry hydrogen chloride gas. [Understanding]

(iii) The electron affinity of an element X is greater than that of element Y. [3]

(a) How is the oxidising power of X likely to compare with that of Y?

(b) How is the electronegativity of X likely to compare with that of Y?

(c) State whether X is likely to be placed to the left or to the right of Y

[Application]
in the periodic table?

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 9 of 14

(iv) Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: [3]

(a) Ammonium chloride reacts with calcium hydroxide.

(b) Nitric acid reacts with zinc carbonate.

(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added to hydrated copper sulphate. [Recall]

Question 4

(i) Name the main metal present in the following alloys: [2]

(a) Duralumin

(b) Brass [Recall]

(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for the following: [2]

(a) Laboratory preparation of hydrochloric acid from a less volatile

acid.
[Recall &
(b) Bromine gas is passed over ethene in the presence of carbon
Understanding]
tetrachloride.

(iii) Abhishek was given a salt ‘X’ for analysis which was white in colour. On [3]
strong heating it produced a yellow residue, a colourless gas, and also a
reddish-brown gas. The solution of the salt ‘X’ when tested with excess
of ammonium hydroxide produced a chalky white insoluble precipitate.

(a) Name the coloured gas evolved when Abhishek heated the salt
strongly.

(b) Which cation was present in the sample given to Abhishek?

(c) Identify the salt given to Abhishek for analysis. [Understanding]

(iv) In a round bottom flask, a mixture of ethanol, acetic acid and concentrated [3]
sulphuric acid was heated:

(a) Name the type of reaction occurring in the above set up.

(b) What is the role of sulphuric acid in this reaction?

(c) State one observation that takes place during the reaction. [Understanding]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 10 of 14

Question 5

(i) Identify the reactant and write the balanced equation for the following: [2]

Nitric acid reacts with compound Q to give a salt Calcium nitrate, water
and carbon dioxide. [Understanding]

(ii) What will be the mass of carbon dioxide that will contain the same [2]
number of molecules as present in 3.2g of oxygen gas? [Understanding
[At. Wt: O=16, C=12] & Application]

(iii) State the property exhibited by sulphuric acid in each of the following [3]
reactions:

(a) Sulphur with concentrated sulphuric acid.

(b) Conversion of ferrous sulphide to hydrogen sulphide gas using

sulphuric acid.
[Recall &
(c) Ethanol with concentrated sulphuric acid. Understanding]

(iv) Give balanced equations for the following: [3]

(a) Laboratory preparation of ethyne from calcium carbide.

(b) Conversion of acetic acid to ethyl acetate.

(c) Laboratory preparation of nitric acid. [Recall]

Question 6
(i) A student was asked to perform two experiments in the laboratory based [2]
on the instructions given:
Observe the picture given below and state one observation for each of the
Experiments 1 and 2 that you would notice on mixing the given solutions.
(a) Experiment 1

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 11 of 14

 (b) Experiment 2

[Understanding]

(ii) You are provided with the list of chemicals mentioned below in the box: [2]

Sodium hydroxide solution, copper carbonate, zinc,

hydrochloric acid, copper, dilute sulphuric acid

Using suitable chemicals from the list given, write balanced chemical
equation for the preparation of the salts mentioned below:

(a) copper sulphate [Understanding

(b) sodium zincate & Application]

(iii) Solid ammonium dichromate decomposes as under: [3]

(NH4)2Cr2O7  N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
If 126 g of ammonium dichromate decomposes, calculate:

(a) the number of moles of ammonium dichromate that undergoes

decomposition.

(b) the mass of chromic oxide formed at the same time.

(c) the volume of nitrogen gas evolved at STP. [Understanding

[At. Wt: N=14, Cr =52, O=16, H=1] & Application]

(iv) Identify the reactants P, Q and R in the following reactions: [3]

(a) Copper oxide + P  Copper + water

(b) Iron pyrite + Q  Iron oxide + Sulphur dioxide

(c) Sodium chloride + R  Sodium nitrate + Silver chloride [Application]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 12 of 14

Question 7
(i) Give reasons for the following: [2]

(a) Nitric acid does not normally liberate hydrogen gas when it reacts
with active metals.

(b) Silver-plated cutlery is not considered as pure silver. [Understanding]

(ii) The following questions relate to the extraction of Aluminium by [2]

electrolysis.

(a) Name the other compound which contains aluminium added to

alumina.

(b) Give a balanced equation for the reaction that takes place at the
[Recall]
cathode.

(iii) Give balanced equations for each of the following: [3]

(a) Action of warm water on aluminium nitride.

(b) Oxidation of carbon with conc. nitric acid.

(c) Laboratory preparation of ethanol by using chloroethane and [Recall &

aqueous sodium hydroxide. Understanding]

(iv) Rohit has solution X, Y and Z that has pH 2, 7 and 13 respectively. [3]
Which solution:

(a) will liberate sulphur dioxide gas when heated with sodium sulphite?

(b) will liberate ammonia gas when reacted with ammonium chloride?

(c) will not have any effect on litmus paper? [Application]

Question 8
(i) State giving reasons if: [2]
(a) zinc metal and aluminium metal can be distinguished by heating the
metal powders separately in two different test tubes with
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution.

(b) calcium nitrate and lead nitrate can be distinguished by adding

ammonium hydroxide solution to the salt solution. [Understanding]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 13 of 14

(ii) Draw the electron dot diagram of ammonium ion. [2]
[Recall &
[Atomic No.: N = 7, H = 1]
Understanding]

(iii) Write balanced chemical equation for the following conversions (A to C): [3]

ZnSO4 Zn ZnS

Zn(OH)2 [Understanding
& Application]

(iv) L, M and N are three elements with atomic numbers 13, 7 and 10 [3]
respectively. Answer the following questions using only the alphabets
given. Do not identify the elements.

Which element:

(a) can combine with hydrogen to form a gas which produces dense
white fumes with concentrated HCl?

(b) has zero electron affinity?

(c) can form an ionic compound with oxygen? [Understanding]

T26 522 – SPECIMEN 14 of 14

 ICSE 2026 SPECIMEN
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME – CHEMISTRY (SCIENCE PAPER 2)

Question 1 [15x1]
(i) (c) NaCl

(ii) (d) ammonium sulphate

(iii) (c) Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(iv) (b) H3O+

(v) (c) 3 and 4

(vi) (d) Potassium sulphite

(vii) (c) 44.8L

(viii) (d) Aluminium oxide

(ix) (b) 2

(x) (d) Na

(xi) (d) 6 2

(xii) (d) Both positive and negative ions

(xiii) (c) They have the same functional group.

(xiv) (c) 1:10

(xv) (d) Copper ions from the anode move to the cathode and get deposited as pure
Copper.

Question 2
(i) (a) (1) reddish brown deposit/ pink deposit/ mass increases [2+2+1]
(2) As anode released Copper ions the concentration of copper ions does
not decrease
(b) Anode should be made up of Nickel and the electrolyte should be aq. Nickel
sulphate or any salt solution of Nickel
(c) Ag  Ag+ + e-

(ii) (a) Coordinate bond [5x1]

(b) Normal salt
(c) Substitution

T26 522 - SPECIMEN 1 of 5

 (d) ionisation potential
(e) alloy

(iii) (a) Hydrogen [5x1]

(b) pale blue
(c) one
(d) more
(e) ore

(iv) (a) 3 [5x1]

(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
(e) 1

(v) (a) 1. propanol [3+2]

2. pentene
(b) 1. but-2-yne

2. 1,1,1,trichloro methane

3. pentan -2-ol

Question 3
(i) (a) Yellow oily explosive liquid [2]
(b) reddish-brown gas/ a gas which rekindles a glowing splinter/ a residue
which is yellow when hot and white when cold is formed

T26 522 - SPECIMEN 2 of 5

(ii) (a) Because copper oxide is reduced to copper [2]
(b) because quick lime reacts with hydrogen chloride gas

(iii) (a) X has more oxidising power than Y [3]

(b) X will be more electronegative than Y
(c) X will be placed to the right of Y

(iv) (a) 2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2  CaCl2 + 2H2O + 2NH3 [3]

(b) 2HNO3 + ZnCO3  Zn(NO3)2 + H2O + CO2
(c) H2SO4 + CuSO4. 5H2O  CuSO4 + 5H2O + H2SO4

Question 4
(i) (a) Aluminium [2]
(b) Copper

(ii) (a) NaCl + conc. H2SO4  NaHSO4 + HCl [2]

(b) C2H4 + Br2  C2H4Br2

(iii) (a) Nitrogen dioxide [3]

(b) lead ion
(c) Lead nitrate

(iv) (a) Esterification [3]

(b) dehydrating agent
(c) Fruity smell is obtained

Question 5
(i) Q is Calcium carbonate or Calcium bicarbonate [2]
CaCO3 + 2HNO3  Ca(NO3)2 + H2O +CO2
OR
Ca(HCO3)2 + 2HNO3  Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2CO2

(ii) 3.2 g of oxygen contains 6.023×10²² molecules [2]

so 4.4g of CO2 will contain 6.023×10²² molecules
Answer 4.4g of CO2

T26 522 - SPECIMEN 3 of 5

(iii) (a) Oxidizing property [3]
(b) Acidic property
(c) dehydrating property

(iv) (a) CaC2 + 2H2O  Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 [3]

(b) CH3COOH + C2H5OH  CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(c) NaNO3 + conc. H2SO4  NaHSO4 + 2HNO3

Question 6
(i) (a) White precipitate is formed. [2]
(b) blue precipitate dissolves to form an inky blue solution.

(ii) (a) CuCO3 + H2SO4  CuSO4 + H2O + CO2 [2]

(b) Zn + 2NaOH  Na2ZnO2 + H2

(iii) (a) 252 g of Ammonium dichromate = 1mole [3]

126 g of Ammonium dichromate = 0.5 moles
(b) 252 g of ammonium dichromate gives 152 g of chromic oxide
126 g of ammonium dichromate provides 152×126/ 252 = 76 g of chromic
oxide
(c) 252 g of ammonium dichromate produces 22.4 l of nitrogen
126 g of ammonium dichromate produces 22.4×126/ 252 = 11.2 l of nitrogen

(iv) (a) Hydrogen [3]

(b) Oxygen
(c) Silver Nitrate

Question 7
(i) (a) Nitric Acid is a very strong oxidising agent and hence oxidises hydrogen [2]
to water. So, it is not used for obtaining hydrogen from metals.
(b) because it is not made fully of silver only its top coating is of silver

(ii) (a) Cryolite [2]

+ –
(b) Al³ + 3e  Al

T26 522 - SPECIMEN 4 of 5

(iii) (a) AlN + 3H2O  Al(OH)3 + NH3 [3]
(b) C + 4HNO3  CO2 + 2H2O + 4NO2
(c) C2H5Cl + aq. NaOH  C2H5OH + NaCl

(iv) (a) X [3]

(b) Z
(c) Y

Question 8
(i) (a) No, both will liberate hydrogen gas which burns with a pop sound [2]
(b) Yes, white ppt. will be formed with lead nitrate but no ppt. is formed with
calcium nitrate/ or no visible reaction

(ii) [2]

(iii) A = Zn + H2SO4  ZnSO4 + H2 [3]

B = Zn + S  ZnS
C = ZnSO4 + 2NaOH  Zn(OH)2 + Na2SO4 or with NH4OH

(iv) (a) M [3]

(b) N
(c) L

T26 522 - SPECIMEN 5 of 5

 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

BIOLOGY
(SCIENCE PAPER – 3)

Maximum Marks: 80

Time allowed: Two hours

1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

2. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.

3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

5. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B.

6. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the
Examination Hall.

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 1 of 13

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 SECTION A (40 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)
(i) Allen’s blood report showed an abnormal decrease in the number of
R.B.C. He is suffering from:

(a) Polycythemia

(b) Erythropenia

(c) Glycosuria

(d) Haemophilia [Application]

(ii) A farmer notices that storing ripe mangoes with unripe ones speeds up
the ripening process. The phytohormone primarily responsible for this
phenomenon is:

(a) Auxins

(b) Cytokinins

(c) Gibberellins

(d) Ethylene [Analysis]

(iii) Assertion (A) : Oxygen is produced during light dependent reactions of

photosynthesis.

Reason (R) : Oxygen is released as a byproduct during photolysis.

(a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A). [Understanding]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 2 of 13

(iv) Reena gets emotionally stressed when the school examinations are
approaching. Which hormone is responsible for this condition?

(a) Adrenaline

(b) Thyroxine

(c) Insulin

(d) Growth hormone

[Application]

(v) The diagram given below is that of a Neutrophil.

The function is ___________:

(a) secreting hormone

(b) transporting food [Understanding

(c) phagocytosis & Recall]

(d) producing antibodies

(vi) Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is known as the master gland.

Reason (R): It regulates the activities of other exocrine glands.

(a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A). [Understanding]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 3 of 13

(vii) Aruna went to a theatre to watch a movie on a bright sunny morning. As
she came out of the theatre, she felt a dazzling effect and could not open
her eyes. After a few minutes her vision became normal. This is due to:

(a) Accommodation of eye

(b) Mutation

(c) Polarisation

(d) Adaptation of eyes [Analysis]

(viii) Reflex actions provide a survival advantage because they:

(a) are controlled by the cerebrum.

(b) are controlled by the medulla oblongata.

(c) require no conscious thought, allowing rapid responses.

(d) always involve the spinal cord. [Recall]

(ix) Industrial melanism is the phenomenon by which the peppered moth:

(a) die due to industrial growth.

(b) in polluted areas, became darker in colour for better camouflage.

(c) became lighter in colour due to natural selection. [Understanding

(d) became resistant to industrial pollution. & Recall]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 4 of 13

(x) The hormone that maintains the thickening of the endometrium during
pregnancy is:

(a) Oestrogen

(b) ACTH

(c) Progesterone

(d) Oxytocin [Recall]

(xi) The onset of menstruation in a human female is called:

(a) Menopause

(b) Menarche

(c) Ovulation
[Understanding
(d) Oogenesis & Recall]

(xii) The number of autosomes and allosomes present in a human cell:

(a) 22 allosomes, 1 autosome

(b) 22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair of allosome

(c) 22 autosomes, 1 allosome

(d) 22 pairs of allosomes, 1pair of autosome [Recall]

(xiii) Cultural revolution favours a steep rise in human population. Identify the
correct sequence of revolution:

(a) Tool making, Scientific and Industrial, Agricultural

(b) Agricultural, Tool making, Scientific and Industrial

(c) Scientific and Industrial, Agricultural, Tool making

(d) Tool making, Agricultural, Scientific and Industrial [Understanding]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 5 of 13

(xiv) Tanvi tried to match the phases of menstrual cycle with the number of
days as given in the table below:

PHASE DAYS

P – Follicular Phase Day 5 – 12

Q – Luteal Phase Day 15 – 28

R – Menstrual Phase Day 3 – 5

S – Ovulatory Phase Day 13 or 14

Identify the correct sequence:

(a) P, Q, R, S

(b) Q, S, R, P

(c) R, P, S, Q

(d) S, R, P, Q [Application]

(xv) Aditya who is fond of roller skating. Identify the correct terms which help
him to maintain his body balance:

(a) Cerebellum, Semicircular canals, Vestibule

(b) Vestibule, Sclera, Cerebrum

(c) Malleus, Semicircular canals, Utriculus

(d) Sacculus, Stapes, Cochlea [Analysis &

Application]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 6 of 13

Question 2
(i) Give the biological/technical terms for the following: [5]

(a) A mixture of smoke and fog.

(b) The inner lining of uterus.

(c) The pressure that is responsible for the movement of water

molecules across the cortical cells of the root.

(d) The ground substance present in a chloroplast.

(e) The fluid present between the layers of meninges. [Recall]

(ii) Given below is the diagram of a human heart. Read the information below [5]
the diagram and fill in the blanks:

The human heart pumps blood throughout the body. It is the size of a
large fist. The heart is located between the lungs in the thoracic cavity. It
has four chambers. The heart functions all through the lifespan of a
person and is responsible for the survival of the person.

The heart is enclosed by a membrane called (a) ____________

(Pericardium / Pleura). The ventricles give rise to two large blood vessels [Recall &
called (b) ____________ (Pulmonary vein / Pulmonary artery) and Application]
(c) ____________ (Aorta / Venacava). The flaps of the cuspid valves are
kept in position by (d) ____________ (Chordae tendinae /
Endometrium). (e) ____________ (Hepatic / Coronary) arteries supply
oxygenated blood to the walls of the heart.

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 7 of 13

(iii) Choose the odd term out from each of the following set of terms. Mention [5]
the category to which the remaining three belong:

(a) Sulphur dioxide, Oxygen, Carbon monoxide, Nitrogen dioxide.

(b) Pons, Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem.

(c) Tympanum, Pinna, Auditory canal, Malleus.

(d) Ureter, Urethra, Uterus, Renal Pelvis. [Understanding

(e) Stomata, Lenticles, Cuticle, Root hair. & Application]

(iv) Rajeev, a 10 year old boy, went to an Ophthalmologist to get his eyes [5]
tested. He noticed a poster in the clinic with questions related to the parts
of human eye. Help Rajeev answer the questions:

(a) Which is the fluid that lubricates the eye?

(b) Which cells help in colour vision?

(c) Which nerve sends impulses from the eyeball to the brain?

(d) Name the structure that gives colour to the eyes.

[Application &
(e) Name the part that allows entry of light rays into the eye. Recall]

(v) Study the diagram given below and match the structure with its function: [5]

Example: Scrotum - (f)

Structure Functions
(a) Secrete Testosterone
(b) Transports sperms to
Epididymis
(c) Stores sperms till
maturation
(d) Transport sperms to
urethra
(e) Produce sperms
(f) Regulates temperature
of Testis. [Understanding
& Recall]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 8 of 13

 SECTION B (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)

Question 3
(i) Explain the term Menarche. [1]
[Recall]

(ii) In what form is water lost during transpiration and guttation from plants? [2]
[Recall]

(iii) Ayush was in the final round of a carrom match. He was focussing [2]
intently on the strokes of the opponent player.

(a) Which part of the brain helps Ayush to focus on the game?

(b) Name the part of the brain that co-ordinates his muscles while [Analysis &
using the striker. Application]

(iv) State the permeability of cell membrane and cell wall. [2]
[Recall]

(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a cross section of an Artery and a Vein. [3]

[Understanding
& Skill]

Question 4

(i) What is Excretion? [1]

[Recall]

(ii) Differentiate between Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus with [2]
reference to the hormone involved. [Understanding]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 9 of 13

(iii) Give the common name and the scientific name of the plant on which [2]
Gregor Mendel conducted his breeding experiments. [Recall]

(iv) Name the tonicity of the solutions for a living cell to show Endosmosis [2]
and Exosmosis. [Understanding
& Recall]

(v) Plant hormones are produced in extremely low concentrations in plants to [3]
regulate the physiological processes and tropic movements –

(a) Name one plant hormone responsible for the changes shown in the
above picture.

(b) Identify a hormone that has an opposite effect to the one depicted in
the picture.
[Analysis &
(c) Give an example of a plant that shows Thigmotropism. Application]

Question 5

(i) What are non-biodegradable wastes? [1]

[Understanding
& Recall]
(ii) Mention any two objectives of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. [2]
[Recall]

(iii) Arrange the following food chain in a proper sequence: [2]

(a) Small fish, Penguin, Algae, Seal, Mosquito larvae

(b) Woodpecker, Caterpillar, Mountain lion, Fox, Cabbage [Understanding]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 10 of 13

(iv) Mention the number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in a human being. [2]
[Recall]

(v) Surya used a plant with variegated leaves for an experiment on [3]
photosynthesis. He tested a leaf with iodine after keeping the plant in
sunlight for a few hours.

(a) Which parts of the leaf will turn blue black after the iodine test?

(b) What does this tell us about the role of chlorophyll in

photosynthesis? [Application &
Recall]
(c) Write the overall chemical equation for photosynthesis.

Question 6
(i) State Mendel’s Law of Dominance. [1]
[Recall]
(ii) State the rate of transpiration when the air surrounding a plant has: [2]

(a) more atmospheric humidity. [Understanding

(b) hot and dry air. & Application]

(iii) Expand the following abbreviations: [2]

(a) ACTH

(b) ADH [Recall]

(iv) Which part of the ear equalizes air pressure on either side of the ear drum? [2]
Where is this structure located? [Understanding
& Recall]

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 11 of 13

(v) Santosh loved his garden, especially his pea plants. One year, he noticed [3]
that all the pea plants he grew from one batch of seeds had round seeds.
Curious, he took the seeds from one of those plants and grew a new
generation. To his surprise, 75% of the new plants had round seeds, but
25% had wrinkled seeds.

(a) What were the genotypes of the parent plants that Santosh originally
planted?

(b) Which trait is dominant – round or wrinkled seeds?

(c) What is the genotypic ratio of the second generation (F2) plants?

[Analysis]

Question 7
(i) Explain the term Natality. [1]
[Recall]

(ii) Distinguish between Sympathetic system and Parasympathetic system on [2]

the basis of heartbeat. [Understanding
& Recall]

(iii) Meena covered a potted plant as shown below with a transparent plastic [2]
bag. She observed water droplets inside the bag after a few hours when
kept in sunlight.

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 12 of 13

 (a) Name the process that resulted in the formation of water droplets
inside the bag. [Analysis &
(b) Define the process mentioned above. Application]

(iv) Mention the regions of the kidney where we can find glomerulus and [2]
Henle’s loop. [Understanding
& Recall]
(v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram to show the internal structure of a root hair. [3]
[Analysis &
Application]
Question 8
(i) How does the ozone layer depletion affect life on earth? [1]
[Application]
(ii) Mention two body features of Australopithecus. [2]
[Recall]

(iii) Identical twins are always of the same gender. Explain why. [2]
[Understanding]
(iv) We should not insert sharp objects into the ear to removes ear wax. [2]
Give a suitable reason. [Application]

(v) In a school experiment, a few students grow plants in pots placed [3]
horizontally as shown below. After a few days, the students observed that
the roots bent downward, and the shoots curved upward.

(a) Name the tropic movement seen in shoots.

(b) Why do roots always grow downwards? [Analysis &

Application]
(c) Which phytohormone regulates the above tropic movements?

T26 523 – SPECIMEN 13 of 13

 ICSE 2026 SPECIMEN
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME – BIOLOGY (SCIENCE PAPER 3)

Question 1 [15x1]
(i) (b) Erythropenia

(ii) (d) Ethylene

(iii) (c) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(iv) (a) Adrenaline

(v) (c) Phagocytosis

(vi) (a) (A) is True but (R) is False

(vii) (d) Adaptation of eyes

(viii) (c) Require no conscious thought, allowing rapid responses.

(ix) (b) In polluted areas became darker in colour for better camouflage.

(x) (c) Progesterone

(xi) (a) Vasectomy in males, Tubectomy in females

(xii) (b) 22 pairs of autosomes, 1 pair of allosome

(xiii) (d) Tool making, Agricultural, Scientific and Industrial

(xiv) (c) R, P S, Q

(xv) (a) Cerebellum, Semicircular canals, Vestibule

Question 2
(i) (a) Smog [5x1]
(b) Endometrium
(c) Root pressure
(d) Stroma
(e) Cerebrospinal fluid

(ii) (a) Pericardium [5x1]

(b) Pulmonary artery
(c) Aorta
(d) Chordae tendinae
(e) Coronary

T26 523 - SPECIMEN 1 of 5

(iii) Odd term Category [5x1]
(a) Oxygen Air pollutants
(b) Pons Plant tissues
(c) Malleus Parts of outer Ear
(d) Uterus Parts of Urinary system
(e) Root hair Parts through which
transpiration takes place.

(iv) (a) Tears [5x1]

(b) Cones
(c) Optic nerve
(d) Iris
(e) Pupil

(v) (a) Interstitial cells [5x1]

(b) Efferent Ducts
(c) Epididymis
(d) Vas deferens
(e) Seminiferous tubules

Question 3
(i) It is the onset of menstruation in a young female around the age of 13 years. [1]

(ii) Transpiration – As water vapour [2]

Guttation – As water droplets

(iii) (a) Cerebrum [2]

(b) Cerebellum

(iv) (a) Cell membrane - Semipermeable [2]

(b) Cell wall – Freely permeable

T26 523 - SPECIMEN 2 of 5

(v) [3]

Question 4
(i) It is the removal of harmful nitrogenous waste products from the body. [1]

(ii) Diabetes mellitus – Hyposecretion of Insulin. [2]

Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of ADH.

(iii) Common name – Garden pea [2]

Scientific name – Pisum sativum

(iv) Endosmosis – Hypotonic solution [2]

Exosmosis – Hypertonic solution

(v) (a) Abscisic acid, Ethylene [3]

(b) Auxin
(c) Peas, Grapes, Ivy

Question 5
(i) Materials that can not be broken down by the microorganism. They persist in the [1]
environment causing pollution.

(ii) - To eliminate open defecation [2]

- To clean streets, infrastructure of cities and towns

(iii) (a) Algae, Mosquito larvae, Small fish, Seal, Penguin. [2]
(b) Cabbage, Caterpillar, Wood pecker, Fox, Mountain lion.

(iv) Cranial nerves – 12 pairs [2]

Spinal nerves – 31 pairs
(v) (a) Green parts [3]

T26 523 - SPECIMEN 3 of 5

 (b) Green parts contain chlorophyll which traps sunlight for photosynthesis.
(c) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(Carbon dioxide) (Water) (Glucose) (Oxygen) (Water)

Question 6
(i) Out of a pair of contrasting characters present together, only one is able to express [1]
itself while the other remains suppressed.

(ii) (a) Less transpiration [2]

(b) More transpiration

(iii) ACTH – Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone [2]

ADH – Antidiuretic Hormone

(iv) Eustachian tube. Located in the middle ear. [2]

(v) (a) Heterozygous dominant – Rr [3]

(b) Round
(c) 1:2:1

Question 7
(i) It is the number of live births per 1000 people of population per year. [1]

(ii) Sympathetic System – Heartbeat increases. [2]

Parasympathetic System – Heartbeat decreases and becomes normal.

(iii) (a) Transpiration [2]

(b) It is the loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of a plant.

(iv) Glomerulus – Renal cortex [2]

Henle’s loop – Renal medulla

T26 523 - SPECIMEN 4 of 5

(v) [3]

Question 8
(i) Causes skin cancer, cataract, reduced crop yields, harms marine life. [1]

(ii) - Chin absent [2]

- Prognathus face
- Projecting eyebrow ridges

(iii) Because they develop from a single fertilised egg. [2]

(iv) It may rupture the ear drum leading to deafness. [2]

(v) (a) Phototropism [3]

(b) Because the roots are positively Geotropic and Hydrotropic.
(c) Auxins

T26 523 - SPECIMEN 5 of 5

 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

HISTORY & CIVICS

(H.C.G. Paper – 1)

Maximum Marks: 80

Time allowed: Two hours

1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately.

2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.

3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

5. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory).

6. A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions
from Section A and three out of five questions from Section B.

7. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets[ ].

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the
Examination Hall.

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 1 of 12

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 PART I (30 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [16]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)
(i) Identify the exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha.

P: Can introduce a new All India Service

Q: Can impeach the President

R: Can never be dissolved as a whole

S: Can introduce a Money Bill

(a) P and Q

(b) R and S

(c) P and R

(d) Q and S [Recall]

(ii) Who made the amendment which resulted in the headline given below?

(a) The Supreme Court

(b) The President

(c) The Parliament

(d) The Prime Minister [Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 2 of 12

(iii) Given below are details of few Indian citizens:

Person Age [In Description

years]
W 34 Is a Professor in a Government College
X 35 Has taken up citizenship of the United
States of America
Y 27 Is a reputed sportsperson
Z 36 Is a scientist

Select the person who fulfils the eligibility criteria to become the President of
India.

(a) W

(b) X

(c) Y

(d) Z [Understanding]

(iv) Observe the given picture. In case of a similar unruly situation in the Lok
Sabha, choose the action that may be taken by the Speaker.

(a) Adjourn the house for lack of quorum.

(b) Dissolve the Lok Sabha.

(c) Adjourn the house for lack of discipline.

[Application]
(d) Disqualify the members under Anti-defection law.
T26 501 - SPECIMEN 3 of 12
(v) Choose the correct option to replace the underlined word:

The Union ministers are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister.

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) President

(d) Speaker [Application]

(vi) Residents of Jodhpur, X and Y got married in the year 2014 and after 4 months
of wedlock, petty family issues and arguments resulted in their separation for
6 years. The matter was placed before the Bench of Lok Adalat Family Court,
Jodhpur wherein all efforts were made to reunite the family again. With
constant efforts of counselling, parties agreed to live together and withdraw
their Divorce Petition.

Case Study, Lok Adalat, District – Jodhpur

Which advantage of the Lok Adalat is highlighted in the above case?

(a) Saves money

(b) Speedy justice

(c) Works on the spirit of compromise

(d) Reduces the burden on High Courts [Application]

(vii) Assertion (A): The Indian National Congress was formed in 1885.

Reason (R): The main aim of the Indian National Congress at its inception
was to demand complete independence for India.

(a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). [Analysis]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 4 of 12

(viii) Identify the option which shows the correct chronology of the following
events:

1. The Dandi March

2. The Second Round Table Conference

3. The Simon Commission

(a) 3-1-2

(b) 1-3-2

(c) 3-2-1

(d) 2-1-3

[Understanding]

(ix) The area in which Anand stays has had no water supply for three days in spite
of repeated complaints. The residents have a meeting and discuss a few
methods to resolve this problem. Being a follower of the beliefs and methods
of the Early Nationalists, which of the following methods is Anand NOT
LIKELY to approve?

(a) Peaceful procession by the residents

(b) Follow the method of boycott

(c) Write a petition to the government

(d) Write an article in the newspaper highlighting the problem

[Application]

(x) Identify the cities most affected by American action in World War II.

(a) Rome, Berlin

(b) Tokyo, Berlin

(c) Hiroshima, Nagasaki

(d) Tokyo, Rome [Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 5 of 12

(xi) Which repressive policy of Lord Lytton is depicted in the picture given?

(a) Organising the Grand Delhi

(b) The Arms Act

(c) Reduction of the maximum age of Civil Service Examination

(d) The Vernacular Press Act

(xii) Identify the odd one out of the following Assertive Nationalists Leaders.

(a) Bipin Chandra Pal

(b) Dadabhai Naoroji

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak [Analysis]

(xiii) Read the description and choose the correct option-

This was a significant event in Indian history. Many underlying causes of the
revolt included economic exploitation, social reforms, and political
annexations by the British. Even in its failure it ignited nationalism in the
people of India. Its immediate cause was___________.

(a) introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse

(b) annexation of Indian states by the British

(c) use of greased cartridges in Enfield rifles

(d) establishment of English as the medium of instruction [Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 6 of 12

(xiv) Which of the following countries will NOT be part of this cartoon?

(a) China

(b) Japan

(c) Russia

(d) Britain [Application]

(xv) Identify the correct pair from the given options.

(a) Surendranath Banerjee – Assertive Nationalist

(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy – Delhi Durbar

(c) Dadabhai Naoroji – First President of Congress

(d) Jyotiba Phule – Women’s Education [Understanding]

(xvi) Which of the following scenarios describes the Non-Alignment Policy

(NAM)?

(a) A country forms a military alliance only with the United States.

(b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and
does not take sides.

(c) A country is part of a religious movement advocating non-violence

(d) A country aligns with the Soviet Union and receives military aid. [Understanding]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 7 of 12

Question 2
(i) Read the extract given below and answer the question which follow: [2]

Congress member’s adjournment motion disallowed. The notice, along with

another moved demanding a discussion on China, was disallowed in the Lok
Sabha.
The Times of India, Feb 10, 2023

Who can allow or disallow the above motion? What does this motion mean? [Understanding]

(ii) Which category of power is being exercised by the President in the following: [2]

(a) Approval of Bills

(b) Appointment of the Supreme Court judges [Recall]

(iii) The whole plan may not be perfect but like all plans, its success will depend [2]
on the spirit of goodwill with which it is carried out.
-Lord Mountbatten
Give two reasons for the acceptance of the above plan by the Congress. [Understanding]

(iv) Imagine you were an artisan in the year 1856. Mention any two ways in which [2]
the economic policies of the British would have affected you. [Understanding]

(v) Look at the picture given and answer. [2]

Identify the leader seen in the picture above. Mention any one of his
[Recall]
contributions.

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 8 of 12

(vi) Mention any two objectives of the League of Nations. [2]
[Recall]
(vii) Mention any two ideologies of the dictators. [2]
[Recall]
PART II

SECTION A (20 Marks)

Attempt any two questions from this Section.

Question 3

The Union Legislature of India is the law-making body of the country. With reference
to the Parliament, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three key differences in power between the Lok Sabha and the [3]
Rajya Sabha that make the Lok Sabha more influential. [Analysis]

(ii) Rajya Sabha adjourned sine die, overall productivity at 79 percent. [3]
- Deccan Herald, 21 December 2023.
Who can adjourn the above session? Explain the composition of this house. [Recall]

(iii) Mention any four legislative powers of the Parliament. [4]

[Recall]
Question 4

The President is the nominal head of the executive and the first citizen of the country.
With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) The President is the nominal head of the country and cannot act independently. [3]
Mention any three legislative powers of the President which justify the
nominal position. [Understanding]

(ii) Mention any three points to enumerate the financial powers vested in the [3]
President of India. [Recall]

(iii) Describe the constitutional procedure to remove the President. [4]

[Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 9 of 12

Question 5

The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the Republic of India. With
reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:
(i) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? [3]
What is the composition of the Supreme Court? [Recall]

(ii) Under Article 129, the Supreme Court of India is called a Court of Record. [3]
Justify this statement with any three points. [Analysis]

(iii) Explain the following terms: [4]

(a) Revisory Jurisdiction

(b) Original Jurisdiction [Recall]

SECTION B (30 Marks)

Attempt any three questions from this Section.

Question 6

The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a major uprising against the rule of the British East
India Company. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) The British used many policies of expansion. Mention any three such policies. [3]
[Recall]

(ii) Analyse the impact of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 on the Mughals and the [3]
Peshwas. [Recall]

(iii) The Indian army was reorganised after 1858, to prevent the reoccurrence of [4]
another uprising. Justify this statement by stating any four changes made in the
army after the Revolt. [Analysis]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 10 of 12

Question 7
Nationalism refers to the feeling of oneness that emerges when people consider
themselves as one nation. With reference to the growth of nationalism, answer the
following:
(i) Name the first President of the Congress. Mention any two objectives of the [3]
Congress. [Recall]

(ii) Whether it is fiction, non-fiction, or periodical, all kinds of literature [3]

contributed at large in the national consciousness of India in pre-independence
times. Mention any three points to analyse the role of the press in the growth [Analysis]
of nationalism.

(iii) Explain any two policies of Lord Lytton that showcased his attitude of racial [4]
superiority, eventually leading to the growth of nationalism. [Recall]

Question 8
Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow-
The March, which took place in India, was led by Mohandas Gandhi to protest British
rule in India. During the march, thousands of Indians followed Gandhi from his
religious retreat near Ahmedabad to the Arabian Sea coast, a distance of some 240
miles. The march resulted in the arrest of nearly 60,000 people, including Gandhi
himself. ”
— The Marion (Ohio) Star [Edited]
(i) Name the March being discussed above. Which movement did this March lead [3]
to? In which year was that movement launched? [Recall]

(ii) The movement which began with this March made a considerable impact on [3]
the social and political surroundings of the country. Analyse this statement by
mentioning any three impacts. [Analysis]

(iii) Mention any four clauses of the treaty which led to the suspension of this [4]
movement. [Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 11 of 12

Question 9
Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

(i) How did the assassination mentioned above become a cause for the First World [3]
War? [Recall]

(ii) Mention any three points to analyse how Europe was reorganised because of [3]
the war triggered by this incident. [Recall]

(iii) The Germans described the Treaty of Versailles as harsh and humiliating. Give [4]
any four reasons that justify this statement. [Analysis]

Question 10
The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference
to its organs and agencies, answer the following:
(i) What is the composition of the International Court of Justice? [3]
[Recall]
(ii) Mention any three exclusive functions of the General Assembly. [3]
[Recall]
(iii) Kolkata’s famous Durga Puja received the intangible heritage tag. Which [4]
agency of the United Nations is authorised to give this tag? Mention any three [Application &
other contributions of that agency in the preservation of culture. Recall]

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 12 of 12

 ICSE 2026 SPECIMEN
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME - HISTORY AND CIVICS (H.C.G. PAPER 1)
PART I
(Attempt all questions from this Part.)
Question 1 [16x1]
(i) (c) P and R

(ii) (c) The Parliament

(iii) (d) Z

(iv) (c) adjourn the house for lack of discipline.

(v) (a) Lok Sabha

(vi) (c) Works on the spirit of compromise

(vii) (a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(viii) (a) 3-1-2

(ix) (b) Follow the method of boycott

(x) (c) Hiroshima, Nagasaki

(xi) (d) The Vernacular Press Act

(xii) (b) Dadabhai Naoroji

(xiii) (c) Use of greased cartridges in Enfield rifles

(xiv) (b) Japan

(xv) (d) Jyotiba Phule – Women’s Education

(xvi) (b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and
does not take sides.

Question 2
(i) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha. [1+1]
To give up on the business of the house and take up a matter of urgent importance.

(ii) (a) Approval of Bills - Legislative [2]

(b) Appointment of the Supreme Court judges – Executive

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 1 of 6

(iii) It was the only solution to the communal problem of India / The experience of [2]
working with the League in the Interim Government had convinced the Congress
that it is impossible to have a joint administration / The League had joined the
Government to obstruct and not to cooperate / The only alternative to partition was
a weak Centre / A smaller India with a strong authority was better than a bigger
State with a weak Centre / Any further continuation of British rule would mean a
greater calamity for India / Any further delay in transfer of power could lead to a
Civil War / Partition would rid the Constitution of separate electorates and other
undemocratic procedures.
(Any two)

(iv) Loss of livelihood / spinning and weaving stopped / heavy taxation/competition [2]
from machine made goods/loss of patronage / unavailability of raw materials / Any
other relevant point. (Any two)

(v) Bal Gangadhar Tilak [2]

He advocated Swadeshi, Swaraj and Boycott / He started two newspapers Mahratta
and Kesri / Revived the Ganapathi and Shivaji festival / Organised the Akharas
and Lathi Clubs for the youth / He led a no rent campaign / Opposed the Partition
of Bengal / Launched the Home Rule Movement / Gave the slogan ‘Swaraj is my
birthright and I shall have it.’ / Advocated National Education / He is regarded as
the ‘Forerunner of Gandhi’ / He wrote three great works – Gitarahasya / The Orion
/ The Arctic Home in the Vedas.
(Any one)

(vi) States were prohibited from entering into secret treaties and alliances / could not [2]
maintain huge armies / had to respect each other’s independence/had to refer their
mutual disputes if any to the League / had to take necessary action as directed by
the League / had to promote cultural, social and economic cooperation.
(Any two)

(vii) Belief in totalitarian rule/despise democratic political systems/state is supreme / [2]

suppress rights of citizens / one party-one leader / believe in aggressive
nationalism / imperialism / regard war as an instrument / anti-democratic / anti-
communist.
[Any two]

PART II
SECTION A
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 3
(i) Motions of No-Confidence against the government can only be introduced and [3]
passed in the Lok Sabha/the Council of Ministers is answerable to the Lok Sabha
only/ enjoy power only until they enjoy the trust of the house Money bills can be
T26 501 - SPECIMEN 2 of 6
 introduced only in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend
it/Budget is passed/controls the national purse/has complete control over finance/
In case of a deadlock between the two houses, the will of the Lok Sabha prevails
due to its higher numerical strength/Can pass an Adjournment Motion
(Any three)
(ii) The Chairman or the Vice President of India [1+2]
There is a total of 250 members, 238 from the states and 12 members are
nominated by the President.

(iii) To make laws in the union list / Matters in the concurrent list / Residuary powers [4]
or matters not mentioned in 3 lists / Matters in the state list - during an emergency
or approved by 2/3 majority by the Rajya Sabha or when two or more states ask /
Ordinances must be approved / Powers during emergency.
(Any four)

Question 4
(i) The President performs the following functions on the advice of the Prime Minister [3]
and his cabinet-Addresses the first session of the Parliament / sends messages to
the Parliament / can summon and prorogue the Parliament / can dissolve the Lok
Sabha/nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha / gives assent to a bill to make it
a law / can promulgate ordinances / can give his/her assent to some state bills /
Previous sanction to the Money bills / Introduction of Bills / Give approval for
introduction of Bills regarding alteration of State / formation of state / Can call for
a joint session of parliament.
(Three points)

(ii) Approve introduction of Money Bills / Annual budget is presented on behalf of [3]
the President / Annual Financial statement is laid on his behalf / can authorized
withdrawal of advances from the Consolidated Fund of India / Appoints the
Finance Commission.
(Any three points)

(iii) Can be introduced in any house / passed by 2/3 majority and sent to the second [4]
house / in the second house it is investigated and the President can also be present/
If both houses pass it by 2/3 majority the President will be impeached.

Question 5
(i) The President [1+2]
33 judges and 1 Chief justice.
(Any two points)

(ii) Its judgement and orders are preserved as a record / This can be produced in any [3]
court as precedents / future references / If a person commits a contempt of court,
T26 501 - SPECIMEN 3 of 6
 the court has the authority to punish him for contempt / The Supreme Court acts
as the Guardian of the constitution.
(Any three points)

(iii) (a) Revisory Jurisdiction – The Supreme Court revises its own cases to remove [2+2]
any error that might have crept in because the judgements of the Supreme
Court are like laws.
(b) Original Jurisdiction - The cases that come to the Supreme Court in the first
instance.

Section B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 6
(i) Doctrine of Lapse/Subsidiary Alliance / Pretext of misgovernance/outright wars [1+1+1]
[Any three]

(ii) The rule of the Mughals came to an end / as Bahadur Shah was deported / The rule [3]
of the Peshwas ended as Nana Saheb fled from the country.

(iii) The strength of the European troops in India was increased/ European troops were [4]
kept in key geographical and military positions / All Indian artillery units except
the mountain units were disbanded/Sophisticated weapons were not given to the
Indians / discrimination on the basis of caste was practised/introduction of caste
and community in regiments/newspaper and journals were kept away from
soldiers.
(Any four points)

Question 7
(i) W.C. Bonnerjee [1+2]
To promote friendly relations between nationalist political workers from different
parts of the country/To develop and consolidate feelings of national unity
irrespective of caste, religion or province/to formulate popular demands and
present them before the government /to train and organize public opinion.
(Any two points)

(ii) The press helped spread the ideals of patriotism, modern liberal ideas of liberty / [3]
freedom / equality / home rule / and independence / criticized the British policies
/ helped Indians exchange views / made them aware of the happenings in the world
/ Any other relevant point.
(Any three points)

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 4 of 6

(iii) The Vernacular Press / Act Gagging Act / Press Regulation / The Indian Arms Act [4]
/ Organising the Grand Delhi Durbar / reduced the maximum age for the Indian
Civil Service Examination from 21 to 19 years / removed the import duties on
British textiles which destroyed Indian Industries
(Any three points)

Question 8
(i) Dandi March [1+1+1]
Civil Disobedience Movement
1930

(ii) Created patriotic feelings / widened the base of freedom struggle / made people [3]
understand the significance of non-violence / there was improvement in the status
of the depressed classes / women became part of the movement/new methods of
propaganda like Prabhat Pheris were used / Congress took part in Legislative
elections.
(Any three points)

(iii) The British agreed to- [4]

Withdraw all ordinances and end prosecutions/release all political prisoners,
except those guilty of violence / permit peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign
cloth shops / restore the confiscated properties of satyagrahis / permit the free
collection of salt by persons near seacoast.
The Congress agreed to:
Suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement/participate in the Second Round Table
Conference / not to press for investigation into police atrocities.
(Any four points)

Question 9
(i) Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria was assassinated at [1+1+1]
Sarajevo, the capital of Bosnia on June 28, 1914. This assassination was carried
out by a secret society called ‘Union of Death’ formed by extremist Serbian
nationalists whose aim was to unite all Serbians into a single state. Austria served
an ultimatum to Serbia making 11 demands. Serbia accepted most of them except
those that would have led to the loss of sovereignty. On July 28 1914, Austria
declared war on Serbia. This was the beginning of the First World War.
(Any three points of explanation)

(ii) Three ruling dynasties {Russia, Germany and Austria} were destroyed / The rule [3]
of Ottomans came to an end / Austria and Hungary became separate independent
states / Monarchy collapsed and there was a rise of democracy / It was an end of
European Supremacy / USA emerged as the world Superpower / Led to the rise of
dictatorship / Any other relevant point.
(Any three points)

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 5 of 6

(iii) It was declared guilty of aggression / had to pay war reparation of 33 billion dollars [4]
/ The area of the Rhine valley was demilitarized and the German territory, west of
Rhine was to be occupied by the Allied troops for 15 years / Danzig became a free
port in Polish territory / Lost Alsace Lorraine to France / The Saar coal mines were
given to France / Lost all her colonies to the allies / The German force was
restricted to 1 lakh / the Navy to 15,000 men / and 24 ships / The Air force and
submarines were banned / German merchant ships were distributed among the
allies / Germany had to supply huge quantities of coal to France / Germany ceded
the Ruhr industrial areas to the allies/German colonies in the Pacific and the areas
under her control in China were given to Japan/ Italy got only two small islands
and the coastal region of Dalmatia / Belgium- Got Eupen-et –Malmedy / Germany
ceded Schleswig to Denmark / Complete Independence was granted to Belgium,
Poland, Czechoslovakia and Yugoslavia / The League of Nations was set up to
maintain peace and prevent another war.
(Any four points)

Question 10
(i) Consists of 15 judges / Elected for a period of 9 years / Elected by General [3]
Assembly and Security Council / Each judge is from different country / Elects its
President and Vice President for a period of 3 years / Appoints a registrar / Retired
judge may be re-elected.
(Any three points)

(ii) To make recommendations in maintenance of international peace and security / [3]

discuss any question relating to peace and security / to make recommendations on
any question within the scope of the charter / initiate studies/to make
recommendations to promote international political, social and economic
cooperation / make recommendations for peaceful settlement of disputes / receive
and consider reports from Security Council and other organs / to consider and
approve the budget of the United Nations/to elect the non-permanent members of
the Security Council / The ECOSOC / Trusteeship Council and judges of the
International Court of Justice / Uniting for peace / to appoint Secretary-General on
the recommendation of the Security Council / Admission of new members /
Amend the charter / Distribute the Contributions among member states / friendly
relations between nations.
(Any three points)

(iii) UNESCO [1+3]

Provides technical advice and assistance/provides funds to preserve monuments
and works of art/prepared a World Heritage list / identifies monuments to be
protected / protects rare manuscripts / encourages artistic creations in literature and
fine arts / cultural development through films / Any other relevant point.
(Any three points)

T26 501 - SPECIMEN 6 of 6

 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

GEOGRAPHY
(H.C.G. PAPER – 2)
Maximum Marks: 80
Time allowed: Two hours
1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately.
2. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
5. Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
6. A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
7. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
To be supplied with this Paper: Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S10 and 20 cm of twine.
Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S10 must not be taken out of the
examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the
paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking, must be
fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to
answer the rest of the paper.

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the Examination Hall.

T26 502 - SPECIMEN 1 of 13

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 PART I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Part.)

Question 1

Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S10 and answer the
following questions:

(i) (a) Identify the conventional symbol found at the six figure reference [2]
of 666364. [Application &
(b) Identify the drainage pattern in the Grid Square 6334. Understanding]

(ii) (a) Calculate the shortest distance in km. from Malgaon to [2]
Mohabbatgarh.

(b) In which direction will Sneha be driving if she is going from [Application]
Mohabbatgarh to Sanwara along the metalled road?

(iii) (a) Write whether the conventional symbol marked as a blue dot in the [2]
Pamera settlement is man-made or natural.

(b) A resident of Malgaon settlement (Grid Square 6131) has to report [Analysis]
a crime at the nearest police station. Which settlement will he be
visiting?

(iv) (a) How do the local people benefit from the causeways seen in this [2]
region? [Application &
(b) Explain why Fire lines are significant from the point of view of Recall]
environment.

(v) (a) Rajiv is travelling from Gulabganj for a visit to the Reserved Forest [2]
near Tarepara Nadi (Grid square 6728). Which two means of
transport he would come across during his journey?

(b) Differentiate between the types of huts in Grid Square 6935 and the
ones found in Grid Square7033.
[Understanding]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 2 of 13

Question 2
[Recall]
On the outline map of India provided:
(i) Shade and label an area of black soil in Gujarat. [1]

(ii) Mark using a dot and name a major river port of India. [1]

(iii) Shade and label the Deccan plateau of India. [1]

(iv) Mark and label the Palk Strait. [1]

(v) Mark with arrows and name the wind which brings rainfall to the Konkan [1]
coast.

(vi) Shade and label a sparsely populated area in western India. [1]

(vii) Mark and label the hills that are popularly called Blue Mountain. [1]

(viii) Mark and name the river known as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’. [1]

(ix) Mark and label the Indian Standard Meridian. [1]

(x) Mark and label the Coromandel coast. [1]

Question 3
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [10]
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)

(i) The Himalayas have a significant impact on the climate of India as they:

(a) block the N.E. monsoon winds.

(b) cause rainfall in the Gangetic plains.

(c) create a rain shadow area in the Deccan plateau.

(d) cause cyclonic disturbance in the Bay of Bengal. [Application]

(ii) Ex-situ soil found in India is __________.

(a) Alluvial soil

(b) Black soil

(c) Laterite soil

(d) Red soil [Recall]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 3 of 13

(iii) Find the option most similar to:
Teak: Tropical Deciduous Forest

(a) Mahogany: Furniture

(b) Stilted roots: Mangrove Vegetation

(c) Ebony: Tropical Rainforest

(d) Spines: Tropical Desert Vegetation. [Recall]

(iv) Which of the following may be used for the recharging of underground
water?

(a) Planting of shelter belt

(b) Plugging of gullies and ravines

(c) Percolation pit

[Understanding]
(d) Tube-well irrigation

(v) Arrange the following in descending order according to their carbon

content:

(a) Anthracite, Bituminous, Peat, Lignite

(b) Bituminous, Lignite, Anthracite, Peat

(c) Anthracite, Bituminous, Lignite, Peat

[Understanding]
(d) Anthracite, Lignite, Peat, Bituminous

(vi) Assertion (A): Agriculture in India is heavily dependent on monsoon

rains.

Reason (R): Most Indian farmers practice rainfed agriculture and lack
access to irrigation facilities.

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
[Analysis]
(A).

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 4 of 13

(vii) Which crop is associated with Retting?

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Jute

(c) Rice

(d) Cotton [Recall]

(viii) Which steel plant amongst the following does NOT belong to public
sector?

(a) Bhilai

(b) Tata Steel

(c) Vishakhapatnam

(d) Rourkela [Recall]

(ix) If you need to transport perishable goods over a short distance, which
mode of transport will you use and why?

(a) Air transport because it is the fastest.

(b) Road transport as it is economical.

(c) Rail transport as it is ecofriendly.

(d) Water transport as it can handle large amount of goods. [Application]

(x) Which of the following methods of disposal is best applicable for the
waste depicted in the picture below:

(a) Burning waste in an open area

(b) Recycling waste

(c) Dumping

(d) Composting [Application]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 5 of 13

 PART II (50 Marks)

(Attempt any five questions from this Part.)

Question 4

(i) “The climate in different parts of India is largely impacted by the relief [2]
features”. [Analysis &
Explain the above statement with the help of two suitable examples. Application]

(ii) What is the source of winter rainfall in each of the following areas? [2]

(a) Punjab

(b) Tamil Nadu [Recall]

(iii) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]

(a) Kerala gets rainfall from the summer monsoons much before Uttar
Pradesh.

(b) Vishakhapatnam records a low annual range of temperature.

(c) Winds are mostly offshore during the cold season. [Analysis]

(iv) Study the climatic data of station X and answer the following questions: [3]

Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun July Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Temp (oC) 25.0 25.5 26.3 27.1 30.0 36.2 36.0 35.9 30.3 28.4 27.0 24.6
Rainfall
24.5 23.1 15.0 2.4 0.1 11.0 9.3 7.2 4.0 9.4 14.5 20.4
(cm)

(a) Calculate the average temperature of station X for the summer season
[Application]
only.
[Understanding]
(b) Which is the driest month?
[Analysis]
(c) Name the wind that brings maximum rainfall to this station.

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 6 of 13

Question 5

(i) Nathu, a farmer in Bihar, does not get good yields as the soil he tills is [2]
coarse and has fair proportion of kankars. Motilal on the other hand has
his field closer to the river and gets better yields.

(a) Identify the two types of soil being discussed in the above passage.
[Recall &
(b) Give a possible reason why Motilal benefits from having his field Application]
along the river banks.

(ii) With reference to soil erosion in India, answer the following questions. [2]

(a) How does population pressure affect soil erosion?

(b) Mention any two innovative agricultural techniques that can help to
prevent soil erosion. [Application]

(iii) With reference to Red Soil, answer the following: [3]

(a) How is it formed? [Understanding]

(b) Why is it good for Dry Farming? [Application]

(c) Name any two areas where it is found. [Recall]

(iv) Give a reason for the following statements: [3]

(a) Black Soil has self-ploughing property.

(b) Laterite Soil is not suitable for cultivation.

(c) Alluvial soil has varying texture. [Analysis]

Question 6
(i) Mahesh went for an excursion with his friend and came across a marshy [2]
area with trees that had stilt like roots.

(a) Which natural vegetation belt did he come across? [Application]

(b) Name an area in India where this kind of vegetation is found. [Recall]

(ii) (a) How does Social Forestry help to conserve forests? [2]
[Evaluate]
(b) Why are long and deep roots a typical characteristic of desert [Evaluate]
vegetation?

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 7 of 13

(iii) Give three reasons why forest conservation is the need of the hour. [3]
[Analysis]

(iv) (a) Name a forest conservation method that involves the local [3]
community. [Recall]

(b) Which primitive system of agriculture had led to large scale [Recall]
destruction of forest in the past?

(c) Name the process which involves planting two saplings for each tree
[Recall]
that is felled.

Question 7
(i) The need for irrigation in India is to a large extent, influenced by the [2]
rainfall pattern of the country. Explain. [Analysis]

(ii) Why is canal irrigation a more suitable method of irrigation in the [2]
northern plains of India? [Analysis]

(iii) (a) Name a state in India where tube wells are commonly used. [3]
[Analysis]
(b) Give two geographical conditions that favour tube well irrigation in
this state.

(iv) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [3]

[Understanding
& Recall]

(a) Name the water conservation method shown in the picture.

(b) Mention any two similar water harvesting practices followed in

India.

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 8 of 13

Question 8

(i) There is ample potential of setting up biogas plants in India. The National [2]
Bioenergy Programme has been recommended by the concerned
Ministry, for implementation in two phases. The spread of biogas
technology is a boon for Indian farmers with its direct and guaranteed
benefits. (https://biogas.mnre.gov.in)

(a) Why do you think generation of biogas can be achieved in every

household of rural India?

(b) Mention two ways in which generation of this form of energy proves [Analysis and
to be a boon for Indian farmers. Evaluate]

(ii) With reference to the picture given below, answer the following: [2]

[Recall &
(a) On which river is it based?
Application]
(b) Name an Indian state benefitted by the project.

(iii) (a) Why is copper an important household mineral? [3]

(b) Name two Indian states where copper is found.

(c) How is distribution of mineral deposits responsible for the [Application &
concentration of industries in the Chhota Nagpur Plateau? Recall]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 9 of 13

(iv) [3]

(a) Identify the type of energy being harnessed in the above picture.
[Understanding,
(b) Mention why this form of energy is preferred over fossil fuels.
Evaluate &
(c) Why does India stand at an advantage in the production of this type
Application]
of energy.

Question 9
(i) Mention any two agricultural reforms done by the government for the [2]
betterment of the agricultural sector. [Understanding]

(ii) (a) State one point of difference between Rabi and Kharif cropping [2]
seasons. [Analysis &
(b) Name the state that is the leading producer of groundnut in India. Recall]

(iii) With reference to cultivation of coffee, answer the following: [3]

(a) Name a state that leads in the production of coffee in India. [Understanding]

(b) Give two geographical conditions present in this state that make it [Recall]
the leading producer.

(c) Other than coffee, name a crop that can also be raised in plantations. [Evaluate]

(iv) Rohan, a farmer, hired some labourers to help him with ‘GINNING’. [3]

(a) Name the crop grown by Rohan. [Application]

(b) Mention any two climatic conditions suitable for this crop. [Recall]

Question 10
(i) Mention any two points of difference between Small scale and Large [2]
scale industry. [Analysis]

(ii) Explain any two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for the [2]
Indian economy. [Understanding]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 10 of 13

(iii) With reference to the petrochemical industry, answer the following: [3]

(a) State a reason for the growing popularity of this industry in recent
times. [Application]
(b) Why is it located close to oil refineries? [Evaluate]
(c) Name any two petrochemical products. [Recall]

(iv) Give one reason to explain each of the following: [3]

(a) Sugar production is gradually gaining importance in peninsular

India.

(b) Indian silk products are becoming less popular in the international
market.

(c) The importance of the iron and steel industry will never decline.
[Analysis]

Question 11

(i) Mention any two disadvantages of using waterways. [2]

[Understanding]

(ii) Explain why the Golden Quadrilateral has contributed towards [2]
improvement of the Indian economy? [Understanding]

(iii) (a) “Roadways have an edge over railways in India.” Give reasons to [3]
support your answer.

(b) Air transport is fast but not suitable for all regions and purposes in
India. Give arguments in favour of the statement. [Understanding
(c) Which is the Inland Waterway that connects Prayagraj to Haldia? & Recall]

(iv) Give a reason for each of the following: [3]

(a) At present times, airports are being established even in smaller

towns of India.

(b) Railways are well developed in the northern states of India.

(c) Helicopter services are crucial during emergencies. [Analysis]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 11 of 13

Question 12

(i) What is the impact of waste generation on the following? [2]

(a) Surface water

(b) Landscape [Understanding]

(ii) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow: [2]
[Analysis]

(a) Name the method of waste disposal seen in the picture.

(b) Why is this method considered a harmful method of waste disposal?

(iii) Fire broke out at the Kochi city waste treatment plant. Thick clouds of [3]
toxic smoke engulfed the city. The waste at the plant also contained
plastic and biomedical wastes, both of which on combustion are
extremely harmful for the general health of people.
— Economic Times, 10.03.2023

(a) Which method of waste management would have helped in

reducing health hazards in the above case? [Analysis]
(b) Mention any one measure you can adopt in schools to reduce waste. [Application]
(c) State one way in which domestic waste can be made useful. [Understanding]

(iv) (a) What is composting? [3]

(b) Enumerate two advantages of composting as a method of waste [Recall &

disposal. Application]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 12 of 13

Question No. 2
Index No.……………………………………………. UID……………………………..
(This map, if used, must be fastened with all other answers)
Map of India for Question 2.

ONLY FOR THE EXAMINER

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) Total

T26 502 - SPECIMEN 13 of 13

 ICSE 2026 – SPECIMEN PAPER
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME – GEOGRAPHY (H.C.G. PAPER 2)
Question 1 [10]
(i) (a) Post office
(b) Dendritic
(ii) (a) 3 km - 3.5 km (any answer within this range)
(b) North-east
(iii) (a) Man-made
(b) Pamera
(iv) (a) Causeways are raised roads that help people to cross minor seasonal streams
when they have water during monsoons.
(b) Fire lines prevent forest fires from spreading and help in protection of forest
reserves.
(v) (a) Metalled road and unmetalled road
(b) ● Grid Square 7033: Temporary
● Grid Square 6935: Permanent
Question 2
[10]

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 1 of 7

Question 3 [10]
(i) (b) Causes rainfall in the Gangetic plains
(ii) (a) Alluvial soil
(iii) (c) Ebony: Tropical Rainforest
(iv) (c) Percolation pit
(v) (c) Anthracite, Bituminous, Lignite, Peat
(vi) (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(vii) (b) Jute
(viii) (b) Tata steel
(ix) (b) Road transport as it is economical.
(x) (b) Recycling waste.

Question 4 [10]
(i) The Arabian Sea branch of the S.W. Monsoons strikes the western side of the
Western Ghats which receives very heavy rainfall being on the windward side
whereas the Deccan Plateau being on the leeward side receives lesser amount of
rainfall. / The Arabian sea branch of the S.W. Monsoon because of the North -
South alignment of the Aravallis runs parallel to it. As a result it doesn’t intercept
and Thar on the western side is a desert./ The moisture laden Bay of Bengal branch
of the S.W. Monsoon winds is trapped in the funnel shaped depression of the Garo
Khasi Jaintia hills. As a result Mawsymnram on the windward side receives the
heaviest rainfall in the world of about 1200 cm while Shillong on the leeward side
receives only around 400cm of rainfall.
(Any two)

(ii) (a) Western disturbances originating in the Mediterranean region/Temperate

cyclones
(b) North-east winter monsoon wind/retreating monsoon.

(iii) (a) Kerala lies in the southwest of the country where the southwest monsoon
wind strikes first. The wind then advances to the north and reaches Uttar
Pradesh.
(b) Visakhapatnam has a coastal location and experiences the moderating
influence of the sea.
(c) Land loses heat fast and high pressure develops over it during the cold season.
The surrounding seas remain warm and have low pressure during this time.
Thus winds blow from land to sea and are offshore.

(iv) (a) 27.8 degrees Celsius

(b) May
(c) N E Monsoon

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 2 of 7

Question 5 [10]
(i) (a) Bhangar and Khadar respectively.
(b) The khadar soil gets replenished every year and is hence more fertile.
(ii) (a) Deforestation / mining / urbanization / industrialization / over grazing.
(b) Crop rotation / contour ploughing / strip cropping / shelter belts
(iii) (a) Erosion and weathering of crystalline metamorphic and igneous rocks.
(b) Porous / cannot hold moisture
(c) Parts of Odisha / Madhya Pradesh / Chhattisgarh / Jharkhand / Tamil Nadu /
Karnataka/ Meghalaya/ Manipur/ Nagaland/ Mizoram
(iv) (a) Black soil hardens and cracks when dry which helps in aeration of the soil
naturally.
(b) Due to leaching, the essential minerals percolate down the soil profile making
the top soil infertile.
(c) The numerous rivers here bring large amounts of sediments and deposit them
to form fertile alluvial plains. In the upper course, the sediments deposited
are coarse and porous. They become progressively finer and compact in the
lower course and in river deltas.

Question 6 [10]
(i) (a) Tidal / Littoral
(b) Delta of R. Ganga in Sundarbans / deltas of R. Godavari / Krishna / Kaveri

(ii) (a) Involves local communities to manage and protect forests / By providing
fuelwood, fodder, timber and other minor forest products to the rural
population it reduces pressure on natural forests. / Educates and raises
awareness amongst local communities about forest conservation / Promotes
forest based local cottage industries with forest based raw materials, thus
increasing employment opportunities and lessen dependence on forests.
(b) To draw water from deep underground as rainfall is scanty here.

(iii) Provides us with oxygen & purifies air / Absorbs carbon dioxide and reduces rate
of global warming / Allows percolation of water and recharges ground water /
Flood control / Habitat for numerous species of plants & animals / roots hold the
soil particles & checks soil erosion / transpiration induces rainfall
(Any three points)

(iv) (a) Social forestry

(b) Jhum cultivation / shifting agriculture / slash & burn method of farming
(c) Reforestation / Afforestation

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 3 of 7

Question 7 [10]
(i) Rainfall is erratic / rainfall is unevenly distributed / rainfall is seasonal / some crops
like rice and sugarcane need more water.
(Any two reasons)

(ii) Because the northern plains have a level topography making it easier to build
canals. There is a presence of many perennial rivers in northern part of India which
make canal irrigation possible and useful.

(iii) (a) Punjab / Haryana / Uttar Pradesh / Bihar / West Bengal

(b) High groundwater table / steady supply of electricity / soft soil / fertile,
productive land that can make this expensive method viable
(Any two)

(iv) (a) Rainwater harvesting

(b) Rooftop rain water harvesting / percolation pit / bore well / dug well /
johad / tankas / percolation tank / recharge pit / Zing
(Any two)

Question 8 [10]
(i) (a) Every rural household generates organic kitchen waste and animal waste
which can be converted into useful biogas.
(b) Generation of biogas produces bio-fertilizer as by-product
It reduces the volume of waste.
It brings about improved hygiene in rural areas.
It is cheap as no raw materials need to be purchased.
(Any two)

(ii) (a) R. Mahanadi

(b) Odisha

(iii) (a) Being malleable, ductile and rust proof it is used to make utensils./ being a
good conductor of electricity, copper wires are commonly used.
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan
(c) Coal and iron ore, both of which are bulky and also useful for making steel,
are found in close vicinity
(Any two)

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 4 of 7

(iv) (a) Solar energy
(b) Clean source of energy
Inexhaustible
Reduces pressure on fossil fuel
Cheaper in the long run (Any one)
(c) India has a tropical location and receives more or less strong rays of the sun
for a large part of the year.

Question 9 [10]
(i) Green Revolution / Use of HYV seeds / development of irrigation facilities / Rural
banks and cooperatives have been set up so that easier for farmers to get loans /
Credit facilities / Mass communication to raise awareness / distribution of
fertilizers & pesticides at subsidized rates
(Any two)

(ii) (a) Rabi: Winter crop / sown in October or November / Harvested in

February or March
Kharif : Summer crop / Sown in May or June / Harvested in September or
October
(b) Gujarat

(iii) (a) Karnataka

(b) Temperature-15-28 degrees Celsius, rainfall-150-250 cm, shade is needed as
it is sensitive to direct sunlight, loamy soil and a sloping land
(c) Tea

(iv) (a) Cotton

(b) Temperature: 20º to 32º C
Rainfall : 50 to 120 cm
At least 200 frost free days
(Any two)

Question 10 [10]
(i) Small scale industries: Less capital investment/ employs less labour / goods
produced are lesser in quantity
Large scale industries: Huge capital investment/ large number of workers/ needs
large area/ production on a large scale.
(Any two)

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 5 of 7

(ii) Gives us valuable foreign exchange / generates employment / helps in the
decentralization of industries / meets high domestic demand of a tropical country
(Any two)

(iii) (a) Cheaper / Durable / Can be manufactured in a short span of time / Attractive
(Any One)
(b) Facilitates easy availability of raw materials / reduces transportation costs
(c) Plastics / Synthetic fibre / Synthetic rubber / PVC pipes. / detergents
(Any two)

(iv) (a) Sugar plantations are well planned and scientifically managed/modern
machineries/use of irrigation facilities/ fertilizers/ managed in the
cooperative sector/ large farm size/longer crushing season/ mills located near
the sugarcane plantations.
(Any One)
(b) High price of Indian silk
(c) Basic industry whose products including machineries are necessary for all
other industries such as railways, roadways, construction purposes,
automobiles, ships, infrastructure etc.

Question 11 [10]
(i) It is a slow means of transport / Can be affected by weather disturbances /
Waterways may not be operational throughout the year / they are operational only
where there are seas, oceans and rivers.
(Any Two)

(ii) It has reduced the time and distance between the cities and ports thereby facilitating
fast movement of people and goods/ Better movement of goods to facilitate truck
movement/ Better job opportunities/ Export of goods via the ports / small towns on
the way have developed into urban centers.
(Any two)

(iii) (a) Roads are cheaper and easier to build.

Suitable for short and medium distances.
Connect rural areas with urban centers.
Flexible and provide door-to-door service.
Complement other modes of transport.
(b) Expensive; limited to urban centers. Not suitable for transporting bulk goods.
(c) National Waterway No. 1

(iv) (a) To encourage air travel for Indians as it saves time / For the growth of smaller
towns and cities / increase job opportunities. (Any one)

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 6 of 7

 (b) Flat plain land / agriculturally productive / high density of population.
(Any one)
(c) Can easily reach remote areas fast/Provides swift medical aid / Helps in the
search and rescue operations / Can airdrop potable water and food packets in
emergencies. (Any one)

Question 12 [10]
(i) (a) Pollution / Death of aquatic animals / eutrophication (Any one)
(b) Spoilage of landscape/ Pollution. (Any one)

(ii) (a) Dumping

(b) Leads to soil pollution/ underground water pollution / spread of diseases /
gives off bad odour / attracts pests and rodents.
(Any two)

(iii) (a) Segregation of plastic and bio-medical wastes.

(b) Reusing/composting/sending waste for recycling/creating awareness
amongst students of all ages/ banning the use of plastics / using biodegradable
products/ promote carpool/ pass down textbooks to junior classes / use old
copies as rough book / any other pertinent point.
(Any one)
(c) Converting old clothes into useful items like doormats, covers, decorative
items etc. / Kitchen waste can be made into compost / Reusing glass bottles,
unused pages of books / any other pertinent point
(Any one)

(iv) (a) Composting is a biological process in which microorganisms convert organic

waste into humus which is a good fertiliser for plants.
(b) The waste is converted into valuable fertilizers / Waste is considerably
reduced / Improves soil texture and fertility / Aids plant growth / Enhances
the water holding capacity of the soil.
(Any two)

T26 502 – SPECIMEN 7 of 7

 ICSE 2026 EXAMINATION

SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER

MATHEMATICS

Maximum Marks: 80

Time allowed: Three hours

1. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.

2. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes.

3. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.

4. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.

5. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.

6. All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown, and must be done on the same
sheet as the rest of the answer.

7. Omission of essential working will result in loss of marks.

8. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

9. Mathematical tables are provided.

Instruction for the Supervising Examiner

Kindly read aloud the Instructions given above to all the candidates present in the Examination
Hall.

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 1 of 13

 NOTE:

The Specimen Question Paper in the subject provides a realistic

format of the Board Examination Question Paper and should be used
as a practice tool. The questions for the Board Examination can be set
from any part of the syllabus. However, the format of the Board
Examination Question Paper will remain the same as that of the
Specimen Question Paper.
 SECTION A (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Section.)

Question 1

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [15]

(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)

(i) (𝑥𝑥 − 2) and (𝑥𝑥 + 2) are the factors of 𝑥𝑥 3 + 𝑥𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑥 − 4. The third
factor of the given polynomial is:

(𝑎𝑎) (𝑥𝑥 − 1)

(𝑏𝑏) (𝑥𝑥 − 4)

(𝑐𝑐) (𝑥𝑥 + 1)

(𝑑𝑑) (𝑥𝑥 + 4) [Analyze]

(iii) In the figure given below, AC is a diameter of the circle.

AP = 3 cm and PB = 4 cm and QP ⊥ AB.

If the area of ∆APQ is18 cm2, then the area of shaded portion QPBC is:

(a) 32 cm2

(b) 49 cm2

(c) 80 cm2 [Understanding

(d) 98 cm2 & Analysis]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 2 of 13

(ii) Radha deposited ₹400 per month in a recurring deposit account for 18
months.

The qualifying sum of money for the calculation of interest is∶

(a) ₹ 3,600

(b) ₹ 7,200

(c) ₹ 68,400

(d) ₹ 1,36,800 [Application]

(iv) In the given diagram, the radius of the circle with centre O is 3 cm. PA
and PB are the tangents to the circle which are at right angle to each other.
The length of OP is:

3
(a) 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
√2

(b) 3 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

(c) 3√2 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

[Analysis &
(d) 6√2 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
Evaluation]

(v) Assertion (A): If 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝑏𝑏 then ab =1

Reason (R): 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 2 𝜃𝜃 − 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡2 𝜃𝜃 = 1

(a) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
[Analysis &
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 3 of 13

(vi) A solid sphere is cut into two identical hemispheres.

Assertion (A): The total volume of two hemispheres is equal to the volume
of the original sphere.

Reason (R): The total surface area of two hemispheres together is equal
to the surface area of the original sphere.

(a) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(b) (A) is false, (R) is true. [Analysis]

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(vii) Given that the sum of the squares of the first seven natural numbers is
140, then their mean is:

(a) 20

(b) 70

(c) 280 [Understanding

(d) 980 & Evaluation]

(viii) A bag contains 3 red and 2 blue marbles. A marble is drawn at random.
The probability of drawing a black marble is∶

(a) 0
1
(b)
5
2
(c)
5
3
(d) [Application]
5
(ix) 3
If matrix A=[−1 2] and matrix B=� �, then matrix AB is equal to:
4
(a) [−3]

(b) [8]

(c) [5]

−1 2
(d) � � [Analysis]
3 4

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 4 of 13

(x) A mixture of paint is prepared by mixing 2 parts of red pigments with 5
parts of the base. Using the given information in the following table, find
the values of a, b & c to get the required mixture of paint.

Parts of red pigment 2 4 b 6

Parts of base 5 a 12.5 c

(a) a = 10, b = 10, c = 10

(b) a = 5, b = 2, c = 5

(c) a = 10, b = 5, c = 10 [Application &

(d) a = 10, b = 5, c = 15 Evaluation]

(xi) An article which is marked at ₹ 1,200 is available at a discount of 20%

and the rate of GST is 18%. The amount of SGST is:

(a) ₹ 216.00

(b) ₹ 172.80

(c) ₹ 108.00 [Analysis &

(d) ₹ 86.40 Evaluation]

(xii) The sum of money required to buy 50, ₹ 40 shares at ₹ 38.50 is:

(a) ₹ 1,920

(b) ₹ 1,924

(c) ₹ 1,925

(d) ₹ 1,952 [Application]

(xiii) The roots of quadratic equation x2 – 1 = 0 are:

(a) 0, 0

(b) 1, 1

(c) -1, -1 [Analysis &

(d) +1, -1 Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 5 of 13

(xiv) Which of the following equations represents a line equally inclined to the
axes?

(a) 2x – 3y +7 = 0

(b) x–y=7

(c) x=7 [Analysis &

(d) y = –7 Evaluation]
𝑥𝑥
(xv) Given, 𝑥𝑥 + 2 ≤ 3 + 3 and x is a prime number. The solution set for x is:

(a) ∅

(b) {0}

(c) {1}

(d) {0, 1} [Understanding

& Analysis]

Question 2

(i) While factorizing a given polynomial, using remainder & factor theorem, [4]

a student finds that (2x + 1) is a factor of 2x3 + 7x2 + 2x – 3.

(a) Is the student’s solution correct stating that (2x + 1) is a factor of the
given polynomial?

(b) Give a valid reason for your answer. [Analysis &

Also, factorize the given polynomial completely. Application]

(ii) P is a point on the x- axis which divides the line joining A (- 6, 2) and [4]
B (9, - 4). Find:

(a) the ratio in which P divides the line segment AB.

(b) the coordinates of the point P. [Analysis &

(c) equation of a line parallel to AB and passing through (-3, -2). Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 6 of 13

(iii) In the given figure, AC is the diameter of the circle with centre O. [4]

CD is parallel to BE.

∠AOB = 80⁰ and ∠ACE = 20⁰.

[Analysis &
Evaluation]

Calculate:

(a) ∠ BEC

(b) ∠ BCD

(c) ∠CED

Question 3

(i) -11, -7, -3, ………….,49, 53 are the terms of a progression. [4]

Answer the following:

(a) What is the type of progression?

(b) How many terms are there in all? [Analysis &

(c) Calculate the value of middle most term. Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 7 of 13

(ii) In the diagram given below, a tilted right circular cylindrical vessel with [4]
base diameter 7 cm contains a liquid. When placed vertically, the height of
the liquid in the vessel is the mean of two heights shown in the diagram.
Find the area of wet surface, when the cylinder is placed vertically on a
horizontal surface.
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
(Use π= 𝟕𝟕
).

6 cm [Application &
7 cm
Evaluation]
(iii) Use a ruler and compass to answer this question. [5]

(a) Construct a circle of radius 4.5cm and draw a chord AB of length

6.5 cm.

(b) At A, construct ∠CAB=75°, where C lies on the circumference of

the circle.

(c) Construct the locus of all points equidistant from A and B.

(d) Construct the locus of all points equidistant from CA and BA.

(e) Mark the point of intersection of the two loci as P. Measure and [Analysis &

write down the length of CP. Understanding]

SECTION B (40 Marks)

(Attempt any four questions from this Section.)

Question 4
(i) Ms. Kaur invested ₹ 8,000 in buying ₹100 shares of a company paying 6% [3]
dividend at ₹ 80. After a year, she sold these shares at ₹75 each and invested
the proceeds including the dividend received during the first year in buying
₹ 20 shares, paying 15% dividend at ₹ 27 each. Find the:

(a) dividend received by her during the first year. Application &
(b) number of shares purchased by her using the total proceeds. Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 8 of 13

(ii) Solve the following inequation, write the solution set, and represent it on [3]
the real number line.
5𝑥𝑥 3
5x – 21 < – 6 ≤ –37 + x, x ∈ R.
7 [Evaluation]

(iii) Prove the following trigonometry identity: [4]

(sinθ + cosθ) (cosecθ – secθ) = cosecθ.secθ – 2 tanθ [Application &

Analysis]

Question 5

(i) In the given figure (not drawn to scale) chords AD and BC intersect at P, [3]
where AB = 9 cm, PB = 3 cm and PD = 2 cm.

P C

B D

(a) Prove that ∆APB ~ ∆CPD.

(b) Find the length of CD. [Application &

(c) Find area ∆APB : area ∆CPD. Evaluation]

(ii) Mr. Sam has a recurring deposit account and deposits ₹ 600 per month for [3]
2 years. If he gets ₹ 15,600 at the time of maturity, find the rate of interest [Application &
earned by him. Evaluation]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 9 of 13

(iii) Using step-deviation method, find mean for the following frequency [4]
distribution:

Class 0 – 15 15 – 30 30 – 45 45 – 60 60 – 75 75 – 90

Frequency 3 4 7 6 8 2 [Application &

Evaluation]

Question 6

(i) Find the coordinates of the centroid P of the ∆ABC, whose vertices are [3]
A(–1, 3), B(3, –1) and C(0, 0). Hence, find the equation of a line passing [Analysis &
through P and parallel to AB. Evaluation]

(ii) In the given figure, the parallelogram ABCD circumscribe a circle, touching [3]
circle at P, Q, R and S.

[Analysis &
(a) Prove that: AB = BC Application]

(b) What special name can be given to the parallelogram ABCD?

(iii) The following bill shows the GST rate and the marked price of articles: [4]

Rajdhani Departmental Store

S. No. Item Marked Discount Rate of

Price GST

(a) Dry fruits (1 kg) ₹ 1200 ₹100 12%

(b) Packed Wheat flour (5kg) ₹ 286 Nil 5%

(c) Bakery products ₹ 500 10% 12% [Application &

Evaluation]
Find the total amount to be paid (including GST) for the above bill.

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 10 of 13

Question 7

(i) Draw the necessary diagram for this question. [5]

A man on the top of a lighthouse observes the angle of depression of two

ships on the opposite sides of the lighthouse as 30° and 50° respectively. If
the height of the lighthouse is 80m, find the distance between the two ships.
[Understanding,
Give your answer correct to the nearest meter.
Application &
(Use Mathematical Tables for this Question) Evaluation]

(ii) The marks of 200 students in a test were recorded as follows: [5]

Marks % 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60 60 - 70 70 - 80 80 - 90 90 - 100

No. of
5 7 11 20 40 52 36 15 9 5
students
Using a graph sheet draw ogive for the given data and use it to find the:

(a) median.
[Application,
(b) number of students who obtained more than 65% marks. Analysis &
(c) number of students who did not pass, if the pass percentage was 35. Evaluation]

Question 8

(i) A box containing cards numbered between 0 and 100 are shuffled and a card [3]
is picked at random. Find the probability of getting a card which is:

(a) divisible by 6. [Application &

(b) not divisible by 6. Evaluation]

(ii) If x, y and z are in continued proportion, prove that: [3]

𝑥𝑥 𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑧 1 1 1 [Application &
+ + = + 3 + 3
𝑦𝑦 2 . 𝑧𝑧 2 𝑧𝑧 2 . 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑥𝑥 2 . 𝑦𝑦 2 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑧 Analysis]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 11 of 13

(iii) A manufacturing company prepares spherical ball bearings, each of radius [4]
7 mm and mass 4 gm. These ball bearings are packed into boxes. Each box
can have a maximum of 2156 cm³ of ball bearings. Find the:

(a) maximum number of ball bearings that each box can have.
[Analysis,
(b) mass of each box of ball bearings in kg. Application &
(Use π =
22
) Evaluation]
7

Question 9

(i) Study the graph given below and answer the following: [3]

(a) Number of batsmen who scored 500 to 700 runs

[Analysis &
(b) Modal class interval Evaluation]
(c) The value of mode

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 12 of 13

(ii) An Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) has 3 as its first term. The sum of the first [3]
8 terms is twice the sum of the first 5 terms. Find the common difference of [Analysis,
the A.P. Application &
Evaluation]

(iii) The roots of equation (q – r) x2 + (r – p) x + (p - q) = 0 are equal. [4]

[Application &
Prove that: 2q = p + r, that is, p, q & r are in A.P.
Analysis]

Question 10

(i) The sum of the squares of three consecutive even numbers is 596. Find the [3]
numbers. [Analysis,
Application &
Evaluation]

(ii) 1 1 1 0 [3]
Given matrix, X = � � 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐼𝐼 = � �, prove that 𝑋𝑋 2 = 4𝑋𝑋 + 5𝐼𝐼.
8 3 0 1
[Application &
Evaluation]

(iii) Use a graph sheet for this question. Take 1 cm = 1 unit along both the x and [4]
y axis. Plot ABCDE, where A (4, 0), B (4, 2), C (2, 2), D (2,4) and E (0,4).

(a) Reflect the points A, B, C and D on the y-axis and name them as F, G,
H and I respectively.

(b) Join the points A, B, C, D, E, I, H, G and F in order. Reflect the figure

ABCDEIHGF on the x-axis and name it as AMNPQRSTF.

(c) Give the geometrical name of the closed figure AEFQ. [Understanding]

T26 511 – SPECIMEN 13 of 13

 ICSE 2026 SPECIMEN
DRAFT MARKING SCHEME – MATHEMATICS

Question 1
(i) (c) (x+1) .[15]

(ii) (c) ₹ 68,400

(iii) (c) 80 cm2

(iv) (c) 3√2

(v) (c) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).

(vi) (a) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(vii) (a) 20

(viii) (a) 0

(ix) (c) [5]

(x) (d) a = 10, b = 5, c = 15

(xi) (d) ₹ 86.40

(xii) (c) ₹1925

(xiii) (d) +1, -1

(xiv) (b) x – y = 7

(xv) (a) ∅

Question 2
(i) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 𝟐𝟐𝒙𝒙𝟑𝟑 + 𝟕𝟕𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟑𝟑 [4]
1 1 3 1 2 1
𝑓𝑓 �− � = 2 �− � + 7 �− � + 2 �− � − 3 ≠ 0
2 2 2 2
∴ (2𝑥𝑥 + 1) 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥).
1 1 3 1 2 1
𝑓𝑓 � � = 2 � � + 7 � � + 2 � � − 3 = 0
2 2 2 2
∴ (2𝑥𝑥 − 1) 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥)

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 1 of 9

 𝑥𝑥 2 + 4𝑥𝑥 + 3
2𝑥𝑥 − 1 𝟐𝟐𝒙𝒙𝟑𝟑 + 𝟕𝟕𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟑𝟑
2𝑥𝑥 3 − 𝑥𝑥 2
8𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑥
8𝑥𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑥
6𝑥𝑥 − 3
6𝑥𝑥 − 3
××
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = (𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟏𝟏)(𝑥𝑥 2 + 4𝑥𝑥 + 3)
𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = (𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 − 𝟏𝟏)(𝒙𝒙 + 𝟑𝟑)(𝒙𝒙 + 𝟏𝟏)

(ii) (a) 𝑦𝑦 = 0 [4]

−4𝑚𝑚+2𝑛𝑛
= 0, 4𝑚𝑚 = 2𝑛𝑛 → 𝑚𝑚: 𝑛𝑛 = 1: 2
𝑚𝑚+𝑛𝑛
9 × 1 + 2 × (−6)
(b) x= = −1
3
𝑃𝑃(−1, 0)
−4−2 −6 2
(c) 𝑚𝑚𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 9+6
= 15
= −5
2
𝑦𝑦 + 2 = − 5 (𝑥𝑥 + 3) → 2𝑥𝑥 + 5𝑦𝑦 = −16

(iii) 1 [4]
(a) ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 180° − 80° = 100° → ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = × 100° = 50°
2
(∠ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 ∠ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠)
(b) ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 + ∠𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + ∠𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = 40° + 20° + 50° = 110°
(c) ∠𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 180° − 110° − 50° = 20°

Question 3
(i) (𝑎𝑎) 𝐴𝐴. 𝑃𝑃. [4]
(𝑏𝑏) 𝑙𝑙 = 53, 𝑎𝑎 + (𝑛𝑛 − 1)𝑑𝑑 = 53
−11 + (𝑛𝑛 − 1)4 = 53 → 𝑛𝑛 = 17
17+1 𝑡𝑡ℎ
(c) Middle term = � 2
� 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 9𝑡𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡

𝑇𝑇9 = 𝑎𝑎 + 8𝑑𝑑 = −11 + 8 × 4 = 21

(ii) 1 7 [4]
ℎ= (1 + 6), 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 → ℎ =
2 2
2
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 + 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋ℎ → 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋(𝑟𝑟 + 2ℎ)
22 7 7 7
= × � + 2 × � = 115.5 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2
7 2 2 2

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 2 of 9

 (iii) [5]

(a) 𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿ℎ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 4.9 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐.

SECTION − B
Question 4
(i) (a) 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁. 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 =
8000
= 100 [3]
80
6 × 100 × 100
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = = ₹600
100
(b) 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = ₹75 × 100 = ₹7500
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = ₹8100
8100
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁. 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = = 300
27

(ii) 5𝑥𝑥 3 [3]

5𝑥𝑥 − 21 < − 6 ≤ −3 + 𝑥𝑥, 𝑥𝑥 ∈ 𝑅𝑅
7 7
5𝑥𝑥 5𝑥𝑥 3
5𝑥𝑥 − 21 < −6 − 6 ≤ −3 + 𝑥𝑥
7 7 7
5𝑥𝑥 5𝑥𝑥 24
5𝑥𝑥 − < −6 + 21 − 𝑥𝑥 ≤ − + 6
7 7 7
35𝑥𝑥 − 5𝑥𝑥 5𝑥𝑥 − 7𝑥𝑥 −24 + 42
< 15 ≤
7 7 7
30𝑥𝑥 < 105 −2𝑥𝑥 ≤ 18
𝑥𝑥 < 3.5 𝑥𝑥 ≥ −9
7
�𝑥𝑥: − 9 ≤ 𝑥𝑥 < , 𝑥𝑥 ∈ 𝑅𝑅�
2

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 3 of 9

 (iii) 𝐿𝐿 𝐻𝐻 𝑆𝑆 = (𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)(𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠) [4]
1 1 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
= (𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐) � − � = (𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐) � �
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠. 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 2 𝜃𝜃 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 𝜃𝜃 1 − 2 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 𝜃𝜃 1 2 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 𝜃𝜃
= = = −
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠. 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠. 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠. 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠. 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
= 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐. 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 2𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅
Question 5
(i) (a) 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∆𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶, ∠𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = ∠𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 (∠𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠) [3]
∠𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = ∠𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 (∠𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠)
∴ ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ~ ∆𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 (𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎)
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 3
(b) 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
= 2 ∴ 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 6𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴) 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 2 9
(c) = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷2 = 4 → 9 ∶ 4
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∆𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶

(ii) 600 × 24 × 25 𝑟𝑟 1 [3]

𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 = × × = 150 𝑟𝑟
2 100 12
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = ₹15600
600 × 24 + 150𝑟𝑟 = ₹15600
1200
150𝑟𝑟 = ₹15600 − ₹14400 → 𝑟𝑟 = = 8%
150

(iii) 𝐶𝐶lass 𝑥𝑥 𝑢𝑢 = 𝑑𝑑/𝑖𝑖 𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 [4]

0 – 15 7.5 -3 3 -9
15 – 30 22.5 -2 4 -8
30 – 45 37.5 -1 7 -7
45 – 60 52.5 0 6 0
60 – 75 67.5 1 8 8
75 – 90 82.5 2 2 4
30 -12
∑ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 −12
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 𝐴𝐴 + × 𝑖𝑖 = 52.5 + × 15 = 52.5 − 6 = 46.50
∑ 𝑓𝑓 30

Question 6
(i) (a) P �
−1+3+0 3+(−1)+0
,
2 2
� = 𝑃𝑃 �3 , 3� [3]
3 3
−1−(3) −4
(b) 𝑚𝑚𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = = = −1 𝑚𝑚𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = −1
3−(−1) 4

2 2
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒, 𝑦𝑦 − = −1 �𝑥𝑥 − � → 3𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑦𝑦 = 4
3 3

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 4 of 9

 (ii) (𝑎𝑎) 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵, 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 [3]
(𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝. 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒)
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, (𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵) + (𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶) = (𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷) + (𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶)
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 → 2 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 2 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 ∴ 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
(b) Rhombus

(iii) 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 [4]

S. No. 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
1. 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 ₹ 1200 ₹ 1100 12% 12 × 1100
= 132
(1𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘) 100
2. 𝑊𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ₹ 286 ₹ 286 5% 5 × 286
= 14.30
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 100
3. 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 ₹ 500 ₹ 450 12% 12 × 450
= 54
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 100
Total ₹1836 ₹ 200.30

Grand total ₹ 2036.30

Question 7
(i) [5]
A
30° 50°

80 𝑚𝑚

30° 50°
C B D
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, = tan 30°
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
80 1
= → 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 80√3 = 80 × 1.7321 𝑚𝑚
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 √3
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴, = tan 50° 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡40°
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
= 0.8391 → 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 80 × 0.8391 𝑚𝑚
80
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 80 × 1.732 𝑚𝑚 + 80 × 0.839 𝑚𝑚 = 80(1.7321 + 0.8391) 𝑚𝑚
80(2.5712) = 205.696 𝑚𝑚 = 206 𝑚𝑚

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 5 of 9

 (ii) Marks (%) 𝑓𝑓 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 [5]
0 – 10 5 5 (a) 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 = 53 ± 1
10 – 20 7 12 (b) 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 65% = 46 ± 2
(c) 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷’𝑡𝑡 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 31 ± 2
20 – 30 11 23
30 – 40 20 43
40 – 50 40 83
50 – 60 52 135
60 – 70 36 171
70 – 80 15 186
80 – 90 09 195
90 – 100 05 200

Scale: x-axis, 2cm = 10% marks

y-axis, 2cm= 20 students

Question 8
(i) (a) {6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, 84, 90, 96} [3]
16
𝑃𝑃(𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 6) =
99
16 83
(b) 𝑃𝑃(𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 6) = 1 − 99
= 99

(ii) 𝑥𝑥 𝑦𝑦 [3]
= → 𝑦𝑦 2 = 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑧

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 6 of 9

 𝑥𝑥 𝑦𝑦 𝑧𝑧 𝑥𝑥 3 + 𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝑧𝑧 3
𝐿𝐿 𝐻𝐻 𝑆𝑆 = + + =
𝑦𝑦 2 . 𝑧𝑧 2 𝑧𝑧 2 . 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑥𝑥 2 . 𝑦𝑦 2 𝑥𝑥 2 . 𝑦𝑦 2 𝑧𝑧 2
𝑥𝑥 3 + 𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝑧𝑧 3 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑦𝑦 3 𝑧𝑧 3
= 3 3+ 3 3+ 3 3
𝑥𝑥 3 𝑧𝑧 3 𝑥𝑥 𝑧𝑧 𝑥𝑥 𝑧𝑧 𝑥𝑥 𝑧𝑧
3
1 𝑦𝑦 1 1 1 1
= 3 + 6 + 3 = 3 + 3 + 3 = 𝑅𝑅 𝐻𝐻 𝑆𝑆
𝑧𝑧 𝑦𝑦 𝑥𝑥 𝑧𝑧 𝑦𝑦 𝑥𝑥

(iii) 2156 2156 [4]

(𝑎𝑎) 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁. 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 = =
4 3 4 22 7 3
3 × 𝜋𝜋 × 𝑟𝑟 3 × 7 × �10�
2156 × 3 × 7 × 10 × 10 × 10
= = 1500
4 × 22 × 7 × 7 × 7
(b) 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒ℎ 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 = 4 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 × 1500 = 6 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

Question 9
(i) (𝑎𝑎) 5 [3]
(b) 400 – 500
(c) Mode = 430 runs
y

(ii) 8 5 [3]
𝑎𝑎 = 3, 𝑆𝑆8 = 2 𝑆𝑆5 → [2 × 3 + (8 − 1)𝑑𝑑] = 2 � [2 × 3 + (5 − 1)𝑑𝑑]�
2 2
3
4[6 + 7𝑑𝑑] = 5[6 + 4𝑑𝑑] → 24 + 28𝑑𝑑 = 30 + 20𝑑𝑑 → 𝑑𝑑 =
4

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 7 of 9

 (iii) 𝑎𝑎 = 𝑞𝑞 − 𝑟𝑟, 𝑏𝑏 = 𝑟𝑟 − 𝑝𝑝 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐 = 𝑝𝑝 − 𝑞𝑞 [4]
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟, 𝑏𝑏 2 = 4𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 → (𝑟𝑟 − 𝑝𝑝)2 = 4 (𝑞𝑞 − 𝑟𝑟)(𝑝𝑝 − 𝑞𝑞)
𝑟𝑟 2 + 𝑝𝑝2 − 2𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 4[𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 − 𝑞𝑞 2 − 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 + 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞)
𝑟𝑟 2 + 𝑝𝑝2 − 2𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 + 4𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 4[𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 − 𝑞𝑞 2 + 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞]
(𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟)2 = 4[𝑞𝑞(𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟) − 𝑞𝑞 2 ]
(𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟)2 − 4𝑞𝑞(𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟) + 4𝑞𝑞 2 = 0
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 (𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟) = 𝑦𝑦
𝑦𝑦 2 − 4𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 + 4𝑞𝑞 2 = 0
(𝑦𝑦 − 2𝑞𝑞)2 = 0
𝑦𝑦 − 2𝑞𝑞 = 0
𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑝𝑝 + 𝑟𝑟 = 2𝑞𝑞 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

Question 10
(i) 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 (𝑥𝑥 − 2), 𝑥𝑥 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (𝑥𝑥 + 2) [3]
(𝑥𝑥 − 2)2 + 𝑥𝑥 2 + (𝑥𝑥 + 2)2 = 596 → 3𝑥𝑥 2 = 588 → 𝑥𝑥 2 = 196 ∴ 𝑥𝑥 = 14
The required numbers are 12, 14 & 16

(ii) 1 1 1 1 [3]
𝑋𝑋 2 = � �� �
8 3 8 3
1 × 1 + (1) × (8) 1 × (1) + (1) × 3
=� �
(8) × 1 + 3 × (8) (8) × (1) + 3 × 3

1+8 1+3
=� �
8 + 24 8 + 9
9 4
∴ 𝑋𝑋 2 = � �
32 17
1 1 4 4
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 4𝑋𝑋 = 4 � �=� �
8 3 32 12
4 4 5 0 9 4
4𝑋𝑋 + 5𝐼𝐼 = � �+� �=� �
32 12 0 5 32 17
∴ 𝑋𝑋 2 = 4𝑋𝑋 + 5𝐼𝐼, 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 8 of 9

 (iii) (a) Square [4]

T26 511 - SPECIMEN Page 9 of 9