Coding Clinic 1st QTR 2023
Coding Clinic 1st QTR 2023
There are 34 new ICD-10-PCS codes. There are not any revised code
titles or deleted codes.
Section 3 – Administration
Question:
A patient in critical care was administered
fluids and nonautologous whole blood through
bilateral tibial intraosseous lines. What is
the ICD-10-PCS code for blood products
administered through an intraosseous line?
Answer:
Assign the following ICD-10-PCS code:
First, the patient’s hematopoietic stem cells are harvested from the
blood. Exa-cel is then used to edit the stem cells to produce high
levels of HbF in the red blood cells. The edited cells are transfused
back into the patient via an autologous stem cell transplant through
a central venous catheter. Exa-cel reduces the β globin damage that
occurs in TDT and SCD. The need for red blood cell transfusions
Answer:
It would be appropriate to sequence either
the anemia or the GI bleeding as principal
diagnosis. When both anemia and GI
bleeding are present on admission and meet
the definition of principal diagnosis, either
condition may be sequenced first. The Official
Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section
II. B., states, “When there are two or more
interrelated conditions (such as diseases in the
same ICD-10-CM chapter or manifestations
characteristically associated with a certain
disease) potentially meeting the definition of
principal diagnosis, either condition may be
sequenced first, unless the circumstances
Question:
A patient with acute blood loss anemia was
admitted to rule-out gastrointestinal (GI) bleed.
Two units of packed red blood cells were
transfused. An upper endoscopy revealed
oozing from a duodenal angioectasia as well
as from an acute gastric ulcer. Cauterization
of both the ulcer and angioectasia was done
using argon plasma coagulation (APC). Since
both anemia and the bleeding conditions were
responsible for the admission, would they be
considered interrelated and either condition
selected as the principal diagnosis?
Answer:
In this case, the primary focus of the
admission was to diagnose and treat the
bleeding conditions (i.e., angioectasia and
gastric ulcer), which were responsible for the
anemia. Therefore, sequence either code
K25.0, Acute gastric ulcer with hemorrhage,
or code K31.811, Angiodysplasia of stomach
and duodenum with bleeding, as the principal
diagnosis. When there are two or more
interrelated conditions potentially meeting
the definition of principal diagnosis, either
condition may be sequenced first, unless the
circumstances of the admission, the therapy
provided, the Tabular List, or the Alphabetical
Index indicate otherwise.
Answer:
No. An obstetric code from Chapter 15 is not
appropriate because the patient is no longer
pregnant. Assign code O03.4, Incomplete
spontaneous abortion without complication,
for the incomplete spontaneous abortion.
Also, assign a specific code for the asthma. If
a specific type of asthma is not documented,
assign code J45.909, Unspecified asthma,
uncomplicated, as an additional diagnosis.
Question:
A patient presents due to chronic kidney
disease with acute kidney injury and bladder
mass. The nephrologist documented “CKD
G4A3” with an estimated glomerular filtration
rate of 25 (eGRF25). Is the provider’s
documentation of CKD G4A3 sufficient to
assign a code for stage 4 chronic kidney disease?
Question:
A patient with small lymphocytic lymphoma
(SLL)/chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in
relapse presents to his primary care physician
for follow-up. The provider documented, “No
lymph node involvement.” Would the physician
need to document CLL with SLL of “B-cell type”
in order to assign a code from subcategory
C91.1, Chronic lymphocytic leukemia of B-cell
type, or does the classification presume
“B-cell type” when SLL/CLL is documented
in the health record? Additionally, there
are mutually exclusive Excludes1 notes at
both subcategories C83.0, Small cell B-cell
lymphoma, and C91.1, Chronic lymphocytic
leukemia of B-cell type. What is the correct
ICD-10-CM code assignment for SLL/CLL?
Answer:
ICD-10-CM does not provide a default code
for SLL/CLL. Code assignment depends on
provider documentation whether the cancer
cells are predominantly in the blood and bone
marrow or predominantly in the lymph nodes.
In this case, assign code C91.12, Chronic
Question:
A patient with hypertension and end-stage renal
disease presents for emergent dialysis due to
fluid overload. The patient has been compliant
with dialysis. Which condition is sequenced as
the principal diagnosis, end-stage renal disease
or fluid overload?
Answer:
Assign code E87.70, Fluid overload,
unspecified, as the principal diagnosis. Fluid
overload is not inherent to end stage renal
disease (ESRD); it is a distinct problem and a
complication of the kidney disease. Typically,
patients in fluid overload who have ESRD are
treated with dialysis. Code E87.70 is assigned
Question:
A patient is diagnosed with hematemesis due
to Grade D erosive esophagitis. What is the
correct code assignment for erosive esophagitis
with bleeding?
Answer:
Assign code K22.11, Ulcer of esophagus with
bleeding, for erosive esophagitis with bleeding.
Code K22.11 may be located by referencing the
Index as follows:
Erosion
esophagus
with bleeding K22.11
Question:
An 83-year-old male with known cancer of
the right lung with metastasis to the liver
presented with worsening dyspnea on exertion
and fatigue. The patient’s lung carcinoma
was described as poorly differentiated
with neuroendocrine differentiation, non-
small cell carcinoma favoring large cell with
neuroendocrine differentiation as well as large
cell neuroendocrine cancer. The Alphabetic
Index under Carcinoma, large cell/small cell,
leads to category C34, Malignant neoplasm of
bronchus and lung. However, the Index under
Answer:
Assign code C7A.1, Malignant poorly
differentiated neuroendocrine tumors, for the
large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma of the
right lung. Malignant poorly differentiated
neuroendocrine carcinoma, of any site is an
inclusion term under code C7A.1. Additionally,
assign code C7B.8, Other secondary
neuroendocrine tumors, for the metastasis to
the liver.
Question:
The patient was admitted for evaluation of a left
lingual lung mass. At discharge, the provider’s
final diagnosis listed, “Small cell lung cancer
(SCLC) with neuroendocrine features (NEF).”
Currently, ICD-10-CM classifies primary
malignant neoplasms of the lung to category
C34, Malignant neoplasm of bronchus and
lung. However, research indicates that SCLC
is a neuroendocrine tumor (category C7A).
Are malignant neoplasms with neuroendocrine
features considered synonymous with
neuroendocrine tumors? What is the
appropriate diagnosis code for SCLC with
neuroendocrine features?
Answer:
Assign code C7A.1, Malignant poorly
differentiated neuroendocrine tumors,
for the SCLC with NEF of the left lingula.
Documentation of small cell lung cancer
or SCLC with neuroendocrine features is
considered a neuroendocrine tumor.
Question:
The patient was recently diagnosed with
aggressive, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
in multiple lymphatic sites involving lymph
nodes of the right hilum, right iliac and right
paracolic gutter areas as well metastasis to
the lung, brain and left adrenal gland. How
should we report metastatic sites in a patient
with lymphoma? Does the 5th character “9,”
“Extranodal and other solid organ sites” capture
metastatic sites outside of the lymphatic system
or should each non-hematopoietic metastatic
site be reported separately with codes
from categories C78, Secondary malignant
neoplasm of respiratory and digestive organs,
and/or C79, Secondary malignant neoplasm
of other and unspecified sites? What are the
appropriate codes for diffuse large B-cell
lymphoma involving lymph nodes of multiple
sites with metastases to the lung, brain and left
adrenal gland?
Answer:
Assign codes C83.38, Diffuse large B-cell
lymphoma, lymph nodes of multiple sites,
for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma in multiple
lymphatic sites. Assign code C83.39, Diffuse
large B-cell lymphoma, extranodal and solid
organ sites, for the metastases of B-cell
lymphoma to the lung, brain and left adrenal
gland. Code C83.39 captures metastasis to
sites outside of the lymph nodes and includes
solid organ sites.
Question:
A 56-year-old patient with refractory relapsed
acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presented to the
Emergency Department (ED) due to bleeding
gums. Labs were performed in the ED and
the patient was found to have pancytopenia
secondary to AML. The patient failed prior
therapies for AML and was not a candidate for
standard therapy due to comorbidities. She was
admitted for transfusion support only for her
pancytopenia. Does the Official Guidelines for
Coding and Reporting for anemia associated in
malignancy (I.C.2.c.1) apply for pancytopenia?
What is the appropriate principal diagnosis for
this patient?
Answer:
Assign code D61.818, Other pancytopenia, as
the principal diagnosis as that is the reason
for the admission. Assign code C92.02, Acute
myeloblastic leukemia, in relapse, as an
additional diagnosis. The Official Guideline for
Coding and Reporting for anemia associated
in malignancy (I.C.2.c.1) does not apply in this
scenario since pancytopenia encompasses
more than anemia.
Answer:
Assign code K59.02, Outlet dysfunction
constipation, for pelvic floor dyssynergia. PFD
is a type of anorectal dysfunction that can
cause constipation. This condition is sometimes
referred to as outlet type constipation or
anismus, and is captured with code K59.02.
In PFD, the muscles of the pelvic floor, which
underlay the surface of the bony pelvis, fail
to relax as needed to allow for defecation.
This can lead to some forms of constipation,
incomplete evacuation and straining with bowel
movements.
Question:
A patient is admitted with a liver mass and the
provider’s final diagnostic statement lists, “Liver
mass possibly hepatic cholangiocarcinoma,
pending pathology.” How is this diagnostic
statement coded in the inpatient setting?
Would it be appropriate to apply the Uncertain
Diagnosis Guideline and report the malignancy
for this admission?
Answer:
Assign code C22.1, Intrahepatic bile
duct carcinoma, for the possible hepatic
cholangiocarcinoma. In this case, the Official
Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section
II.H, would apply. If the diagnosis documented
at the time of discharge is qualified as
“probable,” “suspected,” “likely,” “questionable,”
“possible,” “still to be ruled out,” “compatible
Question:
During an outpatient encounter, a 66-year-old
male underwent an invasive cardiopulmonary
exercise test (iCPET). The test summary states,
“Evidence of cardiovascular limitation due to
preload insufficiency, which is most likely due
to occluded inferior vena cava (IVC).” A right
cardiac catheterization was performed, and
the provider diagnosed “preload insufficiency.”
What is the correct code assignment for
preload insufficiency?
Answer:
Assign code R94.39, Abnormal result of other
cardiovascular function study, for preload
insufficiency. Reference the Index to Diseases
as follows:
Question:
A patient developed hypoxia due to acute
pulmonary edema following a near drowning in
the pool at his home. The patient was treated
with supplemental oxygen and noninvasive
ventilation (NIV). How is acute pulmonary
Answer:
Assign code J81.0, Acute pulmonary edema,
for a diagnosis of acute pulmonary edema due
to near drowning. Codes W67.XXXA, Accidental
drowning and submersion while in swimming-
pool, initial encounter, and Y92.016, Swimming-
pool in single-family (private) house or garden
as the place of occurrence of the external
cause, should also be assigned to indicate the
circumstances.
Question:
A patient with a dichorionic diamniotic twin
pregnancy was admitted for a scheduled
primary cesarean section. She was also
diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of
pregnancy. Code O26.62, Liver and biliary
tract disorders in childbirth, was assigned,
to capture the obstetrical complication. ICD-
Answer:
Assign codes O26.62, Liver and biliary tract
disorders in childbirth, E78.79, Other disorders
of bile acid and cholesterol metabolism, and
K76.89, Other specified diseases of liver, for
intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Codes
E78.79 and K76.89 are assigned because the
condition is both intrahepatic, involving the
liver, and also involving bile acid (cholestasis).
Although ICD-10-CM classifies cholestasis
to code K83.1, Obstruction of bile duct, bile
duct obstruction was not present in this case.
A basic rule of coding is that further research/
review may be required if the code indexed
does not identify the documented condition
correctly.
Question:
A patient with bilateral traumatic above
knee amputations underwent placement
of a Stage 1 Osseointegrated Prostheses
for the Rehabilitation of Amputees (OPRA)
device. Following incision, an osteotomy was
performed. After reaming into the femur and
tapping, the implant was advanced into place,
followed by the central healing screw, the
healing cylinder, and bone graft. The same
procedure was done on the contralateral
side. Would the principal diagnosis be the
traumatic amputation with seventh character
“D” subsequent encounter or is an aftercare
code assigned? Additionally, is Insertion the
appropriate root operation for the procedure?
Question:
The same patient presented for Stage 2
OPRA device placement surgery. During
the procedure, the previous incision was
opened and the healing components were
removed from the bone. The abutment screw
intramedullary device was then placed, and the
wound was closed. Is the diagnosis coded as
subsequent encounter for traumatic amputation
or aftercare? Is Insertion or Revision the
appropriate root operation for the second stage
of the procedure?
Answer:
Assign codes S88.011D, Complete traumatic
amputation at knee level, right lower leg,
subsequent encounter, and S88.012D,
Complete traumatic amputation at knee level,
left lower leg, subsequent encounter for the
diagnoses. The seventh character ‘A’ initial
encounter is not assigned because the current
admission is for placement of the prosthesis
rather than for treatment of the original injury.
Additionally, the aftercare Z codes should not
be used for aftercare of injuries.
Question:
A 75-year-old patient had previously
undergone creation of a tracheostomy that
was subsequently taken down. Since that
time, the tracheostomy site has remained open
with greenish discharge without significant
improvement. The patient is now admitted
for surgical closure of the tracheocutaneous
fistula. What is the appropriate ICD-10-CM
code assignment for a tracheocutaneous fistula
following tracheostomy reversal? Would the
fistula be coded as a persistent postoperative
fistula or a complication of the tracheostomy?
Answer:
Assign code J39.8, Other specified diseases
of upper respiratory tract, as this is the best
available option to specify the site of the fistula.
The intent of the procedure (tracheostomy)
is to create a fistula/stoma and failure of the
stoma to close spontaneously is not classified
as a “persistent postoperative fistula” nor as
a complication of the stoma. Therefore, code
T81.83XA, Persistent postprocedural fistula,
initial encounter, is not appropriate.
Question:
A patient with a history of acute subdural
hematoma secondary to a motor
vehicle accident previously underwent
hemicraniectomy followed by cranioplasty
Answer:
Assign code T86.838, Other complications
of bone graft, followed by code M95.2, Other
acquired deformity of head, for the bone flap
resorption. Although bone flap resorption is
not specifically indexed in ICD-10-CM, code
T86.838 is the appropriate code assignment
for bone graft complications that are specified
but not specifically classified in ICD-10-CM.
Code M95.2 is assigned to further specify the
complication.
Question:
This same patient presented for removal of
their autologous bone flap to allow the site to
heal for placement of a synthetic cranioplasty
implant at a later time. At surgery, an incision
was made and the scalp flap was elevated.
The previous plating system plates and the
bone flap were both removed. The dura and
dural graft substitute were both found to be
intact. The bone was sent to pathology to
rule out infection versus avascular resorption.
The wound was irrigated, a drain was placed
in the subgaleal space and the surgical site
was closed. We are not sure if the bone flap
removal should be reported as excision of
skull since the flap was previously placed as a
replacement of the skull, or if the root operation
“Removal” should be reported to capture the
removal of the autologous bone flap? What is
the appropriate ICD-10-PCS code for removal
of autologous bone flap?
Question:
A patient with Zenker’s diverticulum and
dysphagia presented for diverticulectomy.
Prior to the procedure, a laryngoscopy and
hypopharyngoscopy revealed a large deep
Zenker’s diverticulum, along with a thick
hypertrophic cricopharyngeal bar. Endoscopic
endocautery was used to create a horizontal
mucosal incision over the cricopharyngeal bar
and the mucosa was elevated away from the
bar. The central portion of the cricopharyngeus
muscle was then resected, followed by
excision of the Zenker’s sac. The mucosa
was then stitched closed. In the Second
Quarter 2020 issue of Coding Clinic, the root
operation “Division” was advised for Zenker’s
diverticulectomy, however, this procedure
appears to be performed using a different
surgical technique. What are the appropriate
root operations for this procedure?
Answer:
Assign the following procedure codes:
Question:
A patient with a history of prior L1-L5 fusion
with XLIF cages and an extension of fusion
down to S2 with alar-iliac (S2AI) screws
presents for surgical intervention due to pain
from prominent hardware and the S2AI screws.
During surgery, a dissection was made from
T10 to the sacrum including the S2AI screws,
taking down all the posterior elements and all
the old hardware, including set screws and
rods, secondary to looseness. The S2AI screws
were removed and an attempt was made to
place a new S2AI screw on the left as well as
the right, however due to prior complaints of
significant pain from the old S2AI screws, a
decision was made not to place S2AI screws
at this juncture. What is the correct code
assignment to capture the removal of the S2AI
screws?
Answer:
Assign the following ICD-10-PCS code:
Question:
A patient is admitted for surgical excision and
myocutaneous flap reconstruction of stage
IV pressure ulcers of the right ischium and
sacrum. Both ulcers were completely excised
from surrounding healthy tissue by the use
of electrocautery down to the sacrum and
coccyx. Myocutaneous flaps were developed;
the wounds were irrigated, and prior to flap
advancement closure, the surgeon placed
AmnioFill® into both the sacral and ischial
wounds over the sacrum. In this case, it
appears the AmnioFill® was not a skin
replacement. What is the correct ICD-10-PCS
code for the placement of AmnioFill® into the
ischial and sacral wounds?
Answer:
Do not assign a code for the placement of the
AmnioFill®. The application of AmnioFill® is not
separately coded since the use of AmnioFill®
would be considered integral to the total
procedure.
Question:
A patient with a pseudoaneurysm of the
right internal carotid artery (ICA) presented
for endovascular embolization. Following
percutaneous access, intracranial views
confirmed pseudoaneurysm of the cervical
right internal carotid artery extending into the
petrous (intracranial) segment of the artery.
A duo microcatheter was placed into the
pseudoaneurysm for coil delivery. Through a
second catheter, a Surpass® Flow Diverter
was deployed covering the entry into the
Answer:
Assign the following ICD-10-PCS codes:
Question:
A patient with left carotid artery occlusion
underwent left internal and common carotid
artery endarterectomy with internal carotid
artery imbrication due to carotid loop. At
surgery, an arteriotomy of the common carotid
artery was made and extended across the
bulb through the level of the internal carotid
artery where critical stenotic plaque was noted.
Answer:
The carotid artery imbrication was performed at
the site of the patch angioplasty and a separate
code would not be assigned for the imbrication.
Assign only the root operation Supplement for
the patch angioplasty.
Question:
A patient presented to the hospital with a
plantar heel ulcer of the left foot with exposed
fat. The patient was evaluated and deemed
to be a poor surgical candidate. Medical
maggots were applied to treat the ulcer. Would
maggot therapy be coded as a non-excisional
debridement? What is the appropriate ICD-10-
PCS code assignment for maggot therapy?
Answer:
Yes, maggot therapy is coded as non-excisional
debridement. Assign the following procedure
code:
Answer:
Assign code M47.022, Vertebral artery
compression syndromes, cervical region, for
rotational vertebral artery syndrome, C1-C4
(mechanical rotational arteriopathy). Assigning
a code for compression of the vertebral artery
is more specific than a code for compression of
an anterior spinal artery. Additionally, assign the
appropriate Z code for history of stroke without
residual deficits (Z86.73) or history of stroke
with sequelae (category I69), depending on
the documentation in the record. In this case,
a code from category G45- Transient cerebral
ischemic attacks and related syndromes, is not
assigned since the patent did not experience a
transient ischemic attack.
Question:
A 16-year-old with fibrolamellar hepatocellular
carcinoma presented for resection of liver
tumor. The main tumor was on the left side
with extensive tumor thrombus in the portal
vein. The patient also had a small lesion in the
middle of the right lobe. In order to effectively
remove the extensive left tumor thrombus and
right lobe lesion, it was decided to perform the
resection with ex vivo approach followed by
autotransplantation. Prior to explantation, the
major vessels including the major hepatic veins
were clamped and the liver was subsequently
removed and taken to the back table for the
resection procedures. The liver was flushed and
then submerged with cold histidine tryptophan
ketoglutarate (HTK) solution. The tumors were
resected and the liver was then flushed again
and reimplanted into the patient. How is the
explantation and subsequent reimplantation
of the liver coded? Would it be appropriate to
assign the root operation Transplantation to
capture the complexity of the procedure?
Answer:
Assign codes for the procedures performed
(i.e., tumor excision). The fact that the
procedures were performed ex vivo does not
impact code assignment.
Correction Notices
Chronic Kidney Disease, Stage 3
Coding Clinic, Fourth Quarter 2022, page 6,
contained a misprint. Code N18.30, Chronic
kidney disease, stage 3 unspecified, should
have been assigned instead of N18.3 for stage
3 CKD.
Underdosing of Amlodipine
The answer published in Coding Clinic, First
Quarter 2022, page 36, about underdosing
of Amlodipine was incorrect. Assign code
T46.1X6A, Underdosing of calcium-channel
blockers, initial encounter, rather than
code T46.5X6A, Underdosing of other
antihypertensive drugs, initial encounter,
for underdosing of Amlodipine. Although
Amlodipine may be prescribed to treat
hypertension, the drug class is calcium channel
blocker.