Directives are developed for use throughout the European

Union. The stated objective of a number of directives,

including ATEX 95, is:

a) To establish more effective customs boundaries between

European nations.

b) To improve the trade between European Nations by removing

technical barriers to trade.

c) To enable different nations to have more freedom to develop their

own laws & regulations

d) To allow import of cheaper products

Restrictions apply to lamps for Ex e and Ex n light fixtures.
What are they?

a) Fluorescent lamps must be all bi-pin

b) Lamps with screw connections are prohibited.

c) Lamps using conducting end-caps or pins are prohibited.

d) Lamps using non-conducting end-caps or pins with a conductive

coating are prohibited unless they have been tested with the
equipment.
If a cable gland is marked with a suffix X, what does this
mean?

a) It can only be used with an enclosure that is also marked with the
X suffix

b) It can only be used with portable equipment if additional clamping

is provided for the cable

c) It can only be used with fixed equipment

d) It can only be used with fixed equipment. It may require additional

clamping for the cable.
Multi-stranded & fine-stranded conductors need to be
protected against separation of the strands. How might
this be achieved?

a) By twisting the strands

b) By soldering the strands

c) By fitting cable lugs or soldering

d) By fitting cable lugs or core-end sleeves

What is a visual inspection:

a) An inspection which identifies, without the use of tools or access

equipment, those defects apparent to the eye

b) An inspection, which includes aspects covered by a close

inspection and which identifies defects only by opening up or
testing

c) An inspection carried out before equipment is brought into service

d) An inspection carried out on a proportion of the equipment in

service.
Which one of the following is essential to undertake a
close inspection:

a) A circuit diagram

b) Isolation of the apparatus

c) Insulation resistance tester

d) Tools
Where VISUAL inspection of an Ex e item is being carried
out, which ONE of the following is a requirement:

a) Inspection of O-ring gaskets

b) Lamp rating, type, and position are correct

c) There have been no visible unauthorized alterations

d) Earth loop resistance is satisfactory

Where CLOSE inspection is carried out on intrinsically
safe apparatus, which ONE Of the following is an
inspection requirement at this time:

a) Installation is clearly labeled.

b) Electrical connections are tight

c) There are no unauthorized alterations

d) Cable screens are earthed in terminals

A zener barrier unit is suspected as being faulty and MAY
have blown its fuse. Which one of the following is an
appropriate workshop test:

a) Put in test rack and measure current

b) With outputs disconnected measure the supply voltage

c) Use appropriate safety measures and check the incoming supply

voltage to the unit

d) Disconnect the unit and measure the resistance between the

supply side and the output.
IEC 60079-14 specifies the knowledge and skill of various
groups of people. Which is required by technicians?

a) Detailed knowledge of the principles employed in the selection and

erection of equipment

b) Familiarity with the particular techniques to be employed in the

selection and erection of equipment

c) Detailed knowledge of the particular techniques to be employed in

the selection and erection of equipment

d) Basic knowledge of quality assurance.

Intrinsically safe zener barrier units rely on a good earth
connection to maintain system integrity. What should the
earth impedance be, between the barrier earth point and
the main power supply earth:
a) Greater than 1 M

b) Between 10 and 100 ohms

c) Less than 10 ohms

d) Less than 1 ohm

Where a single copper conductor is used to earth a zener
barrier, it shall have a minimum cross-sectional area of:
a) 1.5 sq mm

b) 2.5 sq mm

c) 4.0 sq mm

d) 6.0 sq mm
A new installation requires both intrinsically safe and non-
IS circuits. Which of the following is correct in accordance
with the installation standard:

a) All IS cables MUST be run on separate cable trays to non-IS cables

b) IS cables may be run with other cables

c) IS cables can be run with other cables provided that the IS or the
non-IS cables are armored, metal-sheathed, or screened

d) Non-IS cables must always be armored, metal-sheathed, or

screened
Wires, cables, and apparatus may be color-coded for
various reasons. Where color coding is used to identify
intrinsically-safe cables and apparatus, which of the
following is the preferred color:

a) Red

b) Orange

c) Yellow

d) Light Blue
Moveable apparatus (hand-held, portable and
transportable) is prone to damage. What is considered to
be the maximum interval between periodic inspections:

a) 2 years

b) 1 year

c) 6 months

d) When faulty
To preserve the safety of an intrinsically-safe system,
where the supply is TN-S, a high integrity earth MAY be
required. Which one of the following types does NOT
require an intrinsically-safe dedicated earth:

a) A galvanically isolated barrier

b) A Zener diode barrier with output in Hazardous Area

c) A Zener diode 24 volt barrier

d) Barriers for use with sub-division IIC gasses

What is the minimum clearance between adjacent
terminals of different intrinsically-safe circuits:

a) 3 mm

b) 6 mm

c) 10 mm

d) 25 mm
Before installing equipment in a hazardous area, a basic
understanding of one of the following is essential:

a) Process instrumentation

b) The internal combustion engine

c) How to prepare area classification drawings

d) Protection types
With the exception of intrinsically-safe circuits, when
aluminum cables are to be used in any Zone, what should
their cross-sectional area be:

a) Not less than 6 mm

b) Not less than 10 mm

c) 16 mm or greater

d) 25 mm or greater
You are to carry out a power-on test on a flameproof item
(Ex d) in a Zone 1 area, after opening and changing some
wiring connections. Which of the following should you do,
as a minimum requirement:

a) Put at least one bolt back in the cover to keep it closed and hang a
Danger Live notice on the unit, while you energize it

b) Put one bolt back in one corner, hang a Danger Live notice on
the unit and then energize it

c) Put all bolts back, make spanner tight and check any gaps before
energizing the unit

d) Hang a Danger Live notice on the equipment, put no bolts back

in but ensure that accidental contact with live parts is not possible
An EEx de flameproof machine, installed in 2005, is fitted
with an EEx e terminal box. What is the minimum gland
requirement:

a) An EEx d gland

b) An uncertified gland which meets the impact and IP requirements

for EEx e

c) An EEx i gland

d) An E1WF gland
In which of the following locations is pressurized Ex p
equipment permitted:

a) Locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, Gc (Categories 1G, 2G, 3G)

b) Locations requiring EPL Gb or Gc (Categories 2G or 3G only)

c) Locations requiring EPL Gb (Category 2G) only

d) Locations requiring EPL Gc (Category 3G) only

What is the Te time of an Ex e motor?

a) The maximum run-up time

b) The time to disconnection for a stalled motor started from cold

c) The time to disconnection for a stalled motor re-started from hot

d) The minimum time between re-starts

What is the minimum IP rating considered to be suitable
for an Ex e junction box:

a) IP 45

b) IP 54

c) IP 64

d) IP 5x
What is the difference between Ex nL and Ex ic?

a) Ex nL can only be installed in Zone 1 but Ex ic can be installed in

Zones 0,1, or 2

b) They can both be installed in Zones 0,1, & 2

c) Ex nL can be installed in Zones 0, 1, & 2 but Ex ic can only be

installed in Zone 2

d) In practice, they are identical

Which one of the following types of equipment may be
connected to an intrinsically-safe Zener diode safety
barrier:

a) Any apparatus may be connected in the hazardous area

b) Simple apparatus and any type of IS certified apparatus

c) Only the apparatus specified in the documentation

d) The apparatus specified in the documentation and simple

apparatus
Um is defined as the maximum rms supply voltage which
may be applied to the non-intrinsically-safe terminals of an
intrinsically-safe unit (usually the supply side). What must
the value to Um be:

a) 28 volts

b) 110 volts

c) 250 volts

d) As recorded in the documentation

Components, such as a small flameproof switch, made for
inclusion into certified apparatus, can have their own
component certificate. An additional letter is added after
the certificate number. Is this letter:

a) A

b) C

c) U

d) X
Flameproof equipment is so named because::

a) It contains nothing combustible

b) If the equipment is on fire it will continue to operate

c) An internal explosion will not ignite an external gas

d) It is too heavy to be moved by an explosion

Various design criteria for Protection Types are referred to
in standards for apparatus suitable for use in potentially
explosive GAS atmospheres. Which one of the following is
relevant to type of protection d:

a) Spigot & flange gaps

b) Electric field strength

c) Ingress protection to IP 68

d) A gas detector connected to an alarm

Threaded joints for gland entry to an Ex d apparatus must
have a minimum number of threads engaged and a
minimum depth of engagement. The purpose of this is to:

a) Maintain the required ingress protection

b) Ensure non-transmission of an internal ignition to any surrounding

flammable mixture

c) Prevent any external flammable mixture entering the enclosure

d) Maintain the strength of the enclosure

What level of protection is permitted in locations requiring
EPL Gc (Category 3G) where the enclosure contains
ignition-capable equipment:

a) Ex px

b) Ex px or Ex pz

c) Ex py

d) No protection required
Equipment with type of protection Ex p may be used in
certain explosive atmospheres. Which one of the following
statements is correct for this type of protection:

a) Equipment is pressurized to contain any explosive gases

b) The internal pressure is always raised to above .5 Bar (7.5 psi)

c) Equipment has to be pressurized for at least 10 minutes before

switching it on

d) Pressurization air shall be drawn from a defined non-hazardous

area
The rating plate markings of Group II explosion protected
equipment MAY include IIA, IIB, or IIC to signify an
appropriate apparatus sub-group. If there is just II
without A, B, or C, with what gas / vapor could this
equipment be used.

a) The equipment is unsuitable for use in any area where explosive

gas / vapor may be present

b) The equipment can only be used with gases in sub-division IIA

c) The equipment can be used with all Group II gases

d) The equipment can only be used with gases in sub-divisions IIA

and IIB
Cable glands installed into Ex n boxes after 2007 are
required to be:

a) Certified Ex d

b) Certified Ex e

c) Certified Ex d barrier glands

d) Certified as meeting the requirements of IEC 60079-0

When cable glands are used with direct entry Ex d
equipment, the number of threads and axial thread length
are important. Which is the minimum requirement for a
parallel threaded entry into the enclosure with current
standards:

a) Three fully engaged threads

b) Five fully engaged threads

c) Eight fully engaged threads

d) Ten fully engaged threads

What is the minimum requirements for terminating an SWA
cable with an EEx e E1W cable gland into an EEx e steel
enclosure having a 10mm threaded metal gland plate:

a) Fit gland, earth tag, star washer, and internal lock nut

b) Fit gland, external IP washer and internal lock nut

c) Fit gland

d) Fit glands, external IP seal washer, and internal star washer

A flameproof enclosure contains apparatus that has an
intrinsically-safe output. Which type of gland should be
used for the IS cable?

a) A flameproof gland suitable for both cable and enclosure

b) An increased safety gland suitable for the cable

c) A gland certified as Ex i and suitable for the cable

d) A standard industrial IP 54 cable gland suitable for the cable

What does EPL stand for?

a) Electrical protection level

b) Equipment protection level

c) A gland certified as Ex i and suitable for the cable

d) A standard industrial IP 54 cable gland suitable for the cable

Where can Ex n equipment be newly installed?

a) Locations requiring EPL Ga (Category 1G)

b) Only locations requiring EPL Gb (Category 2G)

c) Locations requiring EPL Gb and Gc (Categories 2G and 3G)

d) Only locations requiring EPL Gc (Category 3G)

Which one of the following types of protection is suitable
for locations requiring EPL Ga (Category 1G)

a) EEx d

b) EEx e

c) EEx ia

d) EEx ib
In which locations can equipment marked EEx o and EEx q
be installed in accordance with IEC 60079-14?

a) Locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, and Gc (Categories 1G, 2G, & 3G)

b) Locations requiring EPL Gb and Gc only (Categories 2G & 3G)

c) EPL Gb only (Category 2G only)

d) Locations requiring EPL only (Category 3G only)

If an item is marked EEx ib IIC T6, in which of the following
situations may it be used:

a) In any location, in gas-sub divisions IIA & IIB only

b) In locations requiring EPL Gc (Category 3G) only in gas sub-

division IIB

c) In locations requiring EPL Gb and Gc (Categories 2G & 3G), in gas

sub-divisions IIA, IIB, or IIC

d) In any location and any group

In relation to intrinsically-safe apparatus which one of the
following statements is true:

a) EEx ib is only suitable for locations requiring EPL Gc (Category

3G)

b) EEx ia is suitable for locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, or Gc

(Categories 1G, 2G, & 3G) with specified gas sub-divisions

c) EEx ib is suitable for all locations and gas sub-divisions

d) EEx ia is not suitable for locations requiring EPL Ga (Category 1G)

with gas sub-division IIC
What is the abbreviation used internationally which
corresponds to the ATEX Categories?

a) API

b) APL

c) EPL

d) IEC
Unless the Area Classification drawing states otherwise,
what is the EPL (Category) requirement of a zone 0 area?

a) Ga (1G)

b) Da (1D)

c) Gb (2G)

d) Db (2D)
If the area classification drawing indicates that EPL Ga
(Category 1G) equipment is required in a zone 1 area, why
is this?

a) The risk assessment has identified a higher than normal

consequence of an ignition

b) The risk assessment has identified a lower than normal

consequence of ignition

c) The risk assessment has identified a higher than normal risk of an

ignition

d) This is a mistake
What letters are used internationally which correspond to
the ATEX Categories 1, 2, & 3?

a) a, b, & c

b) A, B, C

c) D, G, & M

d) x, y, & z
The ATEX 95 Equipment Directive adopts categories of
equipment. The ATEX 137 User Directive classifies
Zones of use. There is a relationship. Where can Category
2 equipment be used, unless the risk assessment states
otherwise?

a) Zones 0, 20, and less onerous duties

b) Zones 1, 21, and less onerous duties

c) Zones 2 & 22 only

d) Zones 20, 21, and 22 only

Which of the following types of equipment may be installed
in locations requiring EPL Gb (Category 2G):

a) EEx n

b) EEx u

c) EEx p

d) EEx y
The temperature at which a gas/air mixture will ignite
spontaneously with any additional or extraneous ignition
source is known as:

a) The flash point

b) The fire point

c) The ignition temperature

d) The upper ignition temperature

Apparatus supplied as being suitable for operation in
ambient temperature greater than normal must be marked
to indicate this. Which of the following markings is
relevant:

a) Ex e II T4 T60

b) Ex e II T4 60degC

c) Ex e II T6 40degC amb

d) Ex e II T4 Ta +60degC
The temperature classification of an item of equipment is
given on the rating plate. This will be in the range of T1 to
T6. What does the T rating, as marked, mean?

a) The equipment is guaranteed (designed) to reach the temperature

appropriate to the T rating as marked

b) The equipment will not reach the flash point temperature of any
surrounding gas, during normal operation

c) The relevant ignition surfaces will not exceed the temperature

appropriate to the marked T rating, in normal or specified fault
conditions

d) The equipment will not reach the ignition temperature of any

surrounding gas or dust during normal operation
With reference to Area Classification, a Zone 0 area is a
place in which an explosive gas/air mixture is:

a) Not present during normal operation

b) Present continuously or for long periods or frequently

c) Likely to be present in normal operation occasionally

d) Unlikely to be present during normal operation

To identify zones on drawings, special markings are used.
Which of the following applies to ZONE 1:

a) Small circles

b) Symbols as shown on the drawing key

c) Cross hatching at 45 degrees

d) Slanting lines at 45 degrees

Intrinsically-safe equipment marked Ex ib can be used in:

a) Locations requiring EPL Ga (Category 1G)

b) Locations requiring EPL Ga, Gb, and Gc (Categories 1G, 2G, and
3G)

c) Locations requiring EPL Gb and Gc (Categories 2G & 3G)

d) Locations requiring EPL Gc (Category 3G) only

In accordance with the ATEX Directive, equipment is
divided into groups & categories. For equipment to be
used above ground, exposed to flammable gases and / or
combustible dusts, which of the following is appropriate:

a) Group I and Categories 1,2, & 3

b) Group II and Categories 1,2, & 3

c) Group I and Categories M1 & M2

d) Group II and Categories M1 & M2

The installation standards, IEC 60079-14, is published with
different prefixes. Which of the following statements is
correct?

a) There is no correlation between BS EN 60079-14 and IEC 60079-14

b) BS EN 60079-14 is identical to IEC 60079-14

c) BS EN 60079-14 is a more up-to-date version of IEC 60079-14

d) BS EN 60079-14 is identical to IEC 60079-14 apart from a couple of

annexes
Hydrogen is classed as a gas belonging to which one of
the following sub-divisions:

a) I

b) IIA

c) IIB

d) IIC
As noted in the current IEC standards, in which gas sub-
division does Acetylene fall:

a) IIA

b) IIB

c) IIC

d) IID
European Directives define criteria for various subjects.
The ATEX 95 Directive is concerned with:

a) The health and safety of workers exposed to potentially

explosive atmospheres.
b) The minimization of electromagnetic interference.
c) The design of equipment for use in potentially explosive
atmospheres.
d) The standardization of electricity supply voltages.
 New equipment to be used in 'potentially explosive gas
atmospheres' should be installed in accordance with
standards. Which one of the following is the appropriate
installation standard:

a) BS EN 60079-10
b) BS EN 60079-14
c) BS EN 60079-19
d) BS EN 60079-20
Into which of the gas Sub-divisions does Ethylene fall :-.

a) I
b) IIA
c) IIB
d) IIC
In order for combustion of a petroleum product to occur,
three of the following items are necessary. Which item is
NOT necessary:-

a) A source of ignition
b) A supply of fuel
c) An enclosure
d) A supply of oxygen
Unless specifically marked on the label, it may be assumed
that the design ambient temperature range of equipment
for use in the UK will be:-

a) -10 to +50 deg C.

b) -20 to + 40 deg C
c) 45deg C max
d) 35deg C max
If an explosive gas/air mixture is LIKELY to occur in normal
operation occasionally, what will the Area classification
be:-

a) Zone 0
b) Zone 1
c) Zone 2
d) Zone 21
Unless the Area Classification drawing states
otherwise, what is the EPL (Category) requirement of a
zone 1 area?

a) Ga (1G)

b) Da (1D)

c) Gb (2G)

d) Db (2D)
If the equipment is marked 'Gb' ('2G') then where can the
equipment be used?

a) Zone 0 only,
b) Zone 1 only
c) Zone 1 & 2 only
d) Zone 1 & 2 only unless the Area Classification drawing
states otherwise
Where can EEx "d' equipment be used?

a) Locations requiring EPL 'Ga', 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Categories '1

G', '2G' or '3G')
b) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Categories '2G' or
'3G')
c) Locations requiring EPL 'Ga' only (Category '1 G' only)
d) Locations requiring EPL 'Gc' (Category '3G')
Flameproof equipment certified for use in sub-division lIB
gases may also be installed in other locations. In which of
the following location groups may it be installed:

a) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Category '2G' or

'3G'), gas subdivisions IIB or IIC

b) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Category '2G' or

'3G') , gas sub-divisions IIA or lIB

c) Locations requiring EPL 'Gb' or 'Gc' (Category '2G' or

'3G'), gas group lIB only

d) Any hazardous location

What do you understand by the 'T' classification of
explosion-protected equipment. Is it:

a) The average running temperature, measured at the

hottest point on the surface of the equipment.

b) The maximum temperature reached by relevant

surfaces, in normal or under specified fault
conditions, which are in contact with a surrounding
flammable gas

c) The surface temperature of the equipment, which will

never be exceeded, even under fault conditions

d) The maximum temperature reached by internal

surfaces in contact with a surrounding flammable gas
Armored E1W EEx e cable glands are to be fitted in
to an EEx e plastic terminal box that has clearance
holes, but no internal earth plate. Which of the
following arrangements is acceptable?

a) Fit gland, earth tag, internal lock nut and external

shroud,
b) Fit gland, earth tag, external IP seal washer and
lock nut.
c) Fit gland, external IP seal washer and internal
lock nut.
d) Fit gland and external IP seal washer.
Fixed cables, for non-intrinsically safe circuits installed in a
hazardous area, which are sheathed in thermoplastic,
thermosetting or elastomeric material, are permitted
providing:

a) They are flat, compact, have extruded bedding and fillers

b) They are circular, compact, have extruded bedding and
fillers
c) They are circular, compact, have extruded bedding and
fillers, if any, are non-hygroscopic.
d) They are circular, compact, have extruded bedding and
fillers, if any, are non-conductive.
In the following example, an item is marked [Ex ib] IIC. What
does this mean?

a) That it is intrinsically safe and can be used with

hydrogen and other lIC gases
b) That the equipment is associated with circuits which are
intrinsically safe.
c) That it is intrinsically safe apparatus suitable for
installing anywhere.
d) That it cannot be installed in a hazardous area
The marking plate on an Item of equipment includes
'Ex d [ia]'. Does this mean that:

a) All the equipment within the enclosure is intrinsically

safe.
b) The flameproof enclosure can be regarded as 'simple
apparatus in an ia circuit.
c) Electrical items other than intrinsically safe may be
inside.
d) The enclosure is flameproof and contains associated
'intrinsically safe' equipment.
The following information appears on an Item of certified
apparatus: BASEEFA EX 822234/X. What does the final
suffix 'X' mean:-

a) The apparatus must be installed in a safe area.

b) The apparatus cannot be used outdoors.
c) The apparatus does not have impact protection.
d) Special conditions apply; refer to documentation
Which of the following briefly describe 'pressure piling':

a) Where heavy equipment is mounted on top of supporting

piles
b) Where ignition in one part of an enclosure causes a
higher explosion pressure in another interconnected
part
c) When there is a build-up of stress due to material
fatigue.
d) Where gas pressure causes a vent to open
A number of different 'Types of Protection' are used in
hazardous areas. Which one of the following is designed to
prevent gas entering into equipment:

a) Ex d
b) Ex e
c) Ex n
d) Ex p
A pressurized control room, not containing any gas
releases, in a location requiring EPL 'Gc' (Category '3G'), is
'safe' provided that the pressurization is maintained. If the
pressurization fails, what action should be taken if the
equipment does not meet EPL 'Gc' (Category '3G')
requirements without pressurization?

a) No action
b) Alarm operates, isolate all flameproof equipment
c) Alarm operates, take immediate action to restore the
system
d) Alarm operates; all equipment is automatically switched
off
How can Ex nL equipment be installed?

a) Ex nL equipment may be used in an intrinsically safe ic

circuit.
b) Ex nL equipment cannot be used in an intrinsically safe
ic circuit.
c) Ex nL equipment must be replaced with Ex ic equipment
d) Ex nL equipment can be used in any intrinsically safe
circuits
Some types of apparatus, which may be installed in
Hazardous atmospheres, are classed as SIMPLE. Which
one of the following is a simple item of equipment?

a) An electronic protection relay

b) A 1kW motor
c) An L.E.D
d) A 12V battery
The following details appear on the label of an item of
intrinsically-safe apparatus: Um 250v. Does this mean that:-

a) The maximum output voltage is 250v

b) The barrier must be tested at 250v prior to use.
c) The barrier has been designed for a 250v ac supply.
d) The cables used to interconnect the barrier must be
rated for at least 250v
On intrinsically safe equipment, what is the minimum
clearance between bare conducting parts of external
conductors connected to a terminal AND earthed metal.

a) 1.5mm
b) 3mm
c) 6mm
d) 50mm
Under which one of the following conditions are you
permitted to undertake work involving test or fault finding in
a hazardous area:-

a) When the equipment is to type of protection 'd'

b) When the equipment is to type of protection 'p'
c) When you have a 'gas free certificate'
d) When the work site has a gas and dust monitor
When terminating non-intrinsically safe multi-core cables,
which ONE of the following procedures is an acceptable
practice when dealing with unused cores.

a) Cut back and tape over.

b) Insulate the ends with tape, leaving sufficient length to
reach the furthest terminal.
c) Terminate in unearthed terminals.
d) Connect them to the Neutral conductor.
A minimum clearance distance is required between any
flanged joints or openings in Ex d apparatus and solid
obstructions such as walls, steelwork etc. For a group lIC
enclosure what should this be:-

a) Not less than 1 meter.

b) Not less than 400mm.
c) Not less than 100mm.
d) Not less than 40mm
When cables are terminated within an Ex 'e' terminal box,
how many cores of different cross sections may be
connected to anyone terminal:

a) One
b) Two, provided that they are shaped around the terminal
screw in the form of a 'U'
c) One, unless permitted by the certification documents
d) Limited by physical capability
When screened cables are used to interconnect intrinsically
safe items, to where MUST the screen be connected:-

a) To earth at one end only

b) To earth at both ends.
c) To points as shown on the ' hook up' (loop) diagram.
d) To main earth conductor
A multi-core cable has several pairs of individually screened
cores. If an instrument requires 3 cores. Two will be taken
from one pair, but where will you take the 3rd from:-

a) Any spare core but it must be on the opposite side of the

cable.
b) Use an unused core from a pair where the core already
used is the 3rd core from another instrument circuit.
c) Two core pairs are not acceptable - a 3 core cable must
be run.
d) Use one core from another pair and treat the remaining
core as an 'unused' core.
A direct entry EEx d Group IIC enclosure in a location
requiring EPL 'Gb' (Category '2G') and gas group lIB, has a
volume of 1 liter. What is the minimum type of cable gland
permitted if round, compact cables with extruded bedding
and SWA are used: -

a) Uncertified E1W brass gland

b) Certified brass E1WF Ex d IIC gland
c) Certified brass E1W Ex e gland
d) Certified brass E1WF Ex d IIC barrier gland
There are 3 GRADES of inspection. Which one of the
following is a recognized grade:-

a) Close
b) Periodic
c) Frequent
d) Sample
Which of the following is an essential requirement prior to
undertaking a VISUAL inspection of an Ex 'e' lighting unit.
To have:-

a) Details of all lamp fittings, their ratings and types on the

site
b) An area classification drawing
c) Tools and equipment
d) Access equipment, such as ladders
Where VISUAL inspection is carried out on Ex ' d', ' e' or ' n'
equipment, which one of the following is a requirement:

a) Lamp ratings, type and position are correct.

b) Apparatus circuit identification is available.
c) Flange faces are clean and undamaged.
d) Type of cable is appropriate.
At which grade of inspection would you dismantle an Ex d
cable gland:

a) Visual
b) Close
c) Detailed
d) Periodic
What kind of glands were NOT permitted for terminating
SWA cable into an Ex e junction box installed in 2005?

a) An uncertified plastic gland

b) An uncertified E1W brass gland
c) A certified Ex d E1WF gland
d) A certified Ex e E1W gland
New cable trays are to be installed in a location requiring
EPL Gc. What are the limitations?

a) Does not contain more than 7.5% Aluminum

b) Does not contain more than 7.5% Magnesium and
Titanium
c) Does not contain more than 7.5% Magnesium, Titanium
and Zirconium
d) No limitations
What is the maximum surface temperature allowed for
Temperature classification T6

a) 85 Deg C
b) 100 Deg C
c) 300 Deg C
d) 450 Deg C
There are a number of recognized temperature classes for
equipment used in a flammable atmosphere. How many are
there.

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
With reference to 'Area Classification' a Zone 2 area is a
place in which an explosive atmosphere, consisting of a
mixture with air of flammable substances in the form of gas,
vapor or mist, is:-

a) Not present during normal operation

b) Present continuously or for long periods or frequently
c) Likely to be present during normal operation
occasionally
d) Unlikely to occur in normal operation, but if it does occur,
will persist for a short period only
Which one of the following is the minimum requirement for
terminating an SWA cable with an E1W EEx ' e' cable gland
in to an EEx 'e' steel enclosure, where the entry is a
clearance hole:

a) Fit gland, earth tag, star washer and internal lock nut
b) Fit gland, external IP washer and internal locknut
c) Fit gland, internal IP washer, star washer, internal lock
nut and shroud
d) Fit gland, external IP seal washer, internal star washer
and locknut
Notified Bodies may use additional symbols (letters) to
denote specific aspects relevant to certification. Which of
the following are the two symbols they are authorized to
use on ATEX certificates:

a) ' U' and 'X'

b) 'U' and ' 8'
c) 'Q' and 'S'
d) 'X' and ' 8'
Ex 'n' equipment is subdivided into 4 sub-types. What are
they?

a) 'nA', 'nB', 'nC' & 'nD'.

b) 'Na', 'Nc', 'NL' & 'Nr'
c) 'nA', 'nC', 'nL' & 'nR'
d) 'px', 'py' & 'pz'
A number of different 'Protection Types' are used in
hazardous areas. Which one of the following protection
types allows flammable gas to enter without compromising
safety:

a) Ex 'd'
b) Ex 'm'
c) Ex 'o'
d) Ex 'p'
Standards for flameproof Ex 'd' apparatus specify maximum
joint gaps and minimum face widths. What is the objective
of these dimensions:

a) To prevent the products of an internal explosion being

transmitted to an external explosive atmosphere
b) To maintain an equilibrium between the pressure inside
and outside the enclosure by allowing gases to escape
c) To provide space for a sealing gasket
d) To maintain the mechanical strength of the enclosure
It is intended to install Ex 'nL' equipment in an intrinsically
safe circuit. What conditions apply?

a) It cannot be installed in an intrinsically safe circuit.

b) It can be installed in any intrinsically safe circuit
providing its parameters are appropriate.
c) It can be installed in an 'ic' intrinsically safe circuit
providing its parameters are appropriate.
d) It can be installed in an 'ib' intrinsically safe circuit
providing its parameters are appropriate.
Where Ex ' ia' and Ex 'ib' equipment are in the same circuit,
what SHOULD the ' control loop' be considered as:

a) A non-certified loop
b) An approved loop
c) An Ex ' ia' loop
d) An Ex 'ib' loop
The function of safety units, such as Zener Barriers is to :-

a) Limit the maximum energy which may be transferred

from the power supply to equipment in the hazardous
area.
b) Allow any type of certified apparatus to be used without
any other considerations being necessary.
c) Allow certified and simple apparatus to be used without
any other considerations being necessary.
d) Limit the capacitance and inductance in the hazardous
area to safe levels.
Intrinsically safe (is) and non ' is' terminals may be fitted in
the same box. The permitted distance, through air, between
live parts of ' is' and non ' is' terminals, should be no less
than:-
a) 3mm
b) 6mm
c) 40mm
d) 50mm
Which one of the following is it essential to understand,
prior to working in a potentially explosive atmosphere:

a) The basic requirements for working in hazardous area

Zones
b) The manufacturer's literature
c) The way in which the equipment works
d) Panel wiring diagrams
What precautions are required for the neutral conductor in
relation to hazardous areas:

a) On no account should it be broken when equipment is

opened
b) An easily removable plug-in link should be provided
c) An appropriately fused link should be installed
d) It must be isolated before the equipment is opened
Where Ex 'd' flameproof equipment has removable bolted
down covers, which ONE of the following is the minimum
requirement to maintain flameproof integrity:

a) All cover fixing bolts are spanner tight.

b) All bolts are to be tightened, using a torque wrench, to a
torque exceeding 50kgfm.
c) All bolts are in place, with alternate ones spanner tight.
d) Up to 25% may be missing, but the rest are to be spanner
tight
The screen on intrinsically safe circuit cables should be
insulated throughout their length. Why is it then normally
connected to earth at one point only.

a) To avoid using a soldering iron to make a connection to

the screening when working in a hazardous area
b) To ensure that the hazardous area end of the screen is at
the same potential as the barrier
c) To avoid the possibility of the invasion of stray currents
having incendive capability
d) To minimize the time taken to complete the installation
A multi-core cable, used for unearthed intrinsically safe
circuits, has some spare cores. All the spare cores should:

a) Be connected to earth at both ends

b) Be adequately insulated from earth
c) Be connected to earth in the safe area only
d) Be connected to earth at the hazardous end only
When selecting cables for use in intrinsically safe circuits a
number of points are relevant. Only one of the following
statements is correct. Which one?

a) Light blue cable must always be used.

b) All insulation must be capable of withstanding 500 V a.c.
or 750V d.c.
c) Mineral insulated cables cannot be used.
d) Multi-core screened cable must always be used.
When equipment is handed over from the installer, what
TYPE of inspection is required:

a) Visual
b) Detailed
c) Initial
d) Sample
What is CLOSE inspection. Is it:

a) An inspection which identifies, without the use of tools

or access equipment, those defects apparent to the eye
b) An inspection, including aspects covered by visual
inspection, which identifies defects only apparent using
access equipment and tools
c) An inspection of all apparatus carried out on a regular
basis.
d) An inspection carried out on a proportion of installed
apparatus
Where DETAILED inspections of flameproof equipment are
carried out, which ONE of the following checks is a
requirement:

a) Cable screens are earthed.

b) Enclosed break and/or hermetically sealed devices are
undamaged.
c) Apparatus circuit identification is correct.
d) Internal battery meets plant requirements.
An intrinsically safe barrier must remain safe even if some
internal faults occur. How many faults are acceptable in the
site INSTALLATION on handover:

a) No faults
b) One fault only
c) Two faults
d) Three faults
Older apparatus made to earlier Standards e.g. BS 229, may
have screw threads which are not Metric. How should you
proceed when fitting new glands.

a) Drill out the holes and fit thread inserts.

b) Tap out the existing holes with size to suit gland.
c) Fit appropriate EEx 'd' thread adaptors.
d) Screw the metric gland into the hole as far as it will go or
for at least 5 full threads.
The 2007 edition of lEC 60079-14 requires that new plastic
covered cable trays are to be protected against the effects
of static electricity. Which of the following is an acceptable
technique?

a) By using SWA cables

b) By limiting the surface area of the tray
c) By limiting the length of the tray
d) By restricting the tray to intrinsically safe circuits