Vision Prelims GS PYQ Analysis 2011-2022 www.upscpdf.com.pdf

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ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE /STRATEGY : GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM 2011 PAPER
- TEAM VISION IAS
Difficulty Level ( DL ) : Easy (E), Medium (M), Difficult (D), (V) Very Difficult
Nature of Question (Nature ) : Fundamental, Conceptual, Conventional (F), Current Affairs ( CA) , Fundamental + Current Affairs ( FCA) , Unconventional ( U)
APP / UAPP : Approachable Questions (APP): Your limit / Unapproachable (UAPP) (beyond your limit)
Sub : Topics - Refer Vision IAS : GS Prelim Test Series
Q.No. Topics Sub-topics Questions
Answe
r
APP/
UAPP
Level Nature Source Broad Source
1. Geography
Geography-
Applied
The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety
hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide
zone in which people neither live not venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of
after any natural disaster.
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent
shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots
d APP M FCA
The Hindu;
May 2010;
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion
/lead/article435359.ece
The Hindu
2. History Ancient India
The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by
(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
Universal Soul
a APP M F NCERT Ancient India
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
3. Miscellaneous Miscellaneous
Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates,
leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the
irrigated land?
(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
b APP M FCA
Other;
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soil_s
alinity
Others
4. Environment Biodiversity
The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of
Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various
countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
b APP M FCA
The Hindu, Govt website;
http://planningcommission.nic.in/a
boutus/committee/wrkgrp11/tf11_I
slands.pdf
The Hindu
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5. Economy Banking
Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic
concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks
may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set
up manufacturing or export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a APP M FCA Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
6.
General
Science
Physics
An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because
the attraction of Earth.
(a) Does not exist at such distance
(b) Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) Provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) Provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
d APP E F
NCERT Physics
(Also the other options could have
simply been eliminated by
commonsense)
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
7. Economy General Economy
In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B APP M FCA Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
8. Economy Banking
In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit
to agriculture and allied activities?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
a APP M F Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive
growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M FCA Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
10. Economy Disinvestment
Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector
Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment
mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the
CPSEs.
d APP M FCA
Indian Economy (Misra and Puri);
Chapter on Disinvestment
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11.
General
Science
Solar System
Which is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases
held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets
are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP E F Manorama Year Book Year Books
Economic growth is usually coupled with
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
b APP M F NCERT - Macro Economics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to
(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
a APP M F NCERT - Macro Economics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
14. Geography
Physical
Geography
Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern
hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern
hemisphere
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a APP E F
Certificate Physical Geography- Goh
Cheng Leong
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
15. Geography
Political
Geography
Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly
reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and
Andaman Sea.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C APP E F World Atlas
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
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Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration
of Human Rishts”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M F
UN Website;
http://www.un.org/en/documents/
udhr/index.shtml
Also discussed briefly in NCERT
Others
17. Environment
Basic
Environment
There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of
India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M FCA
The Hindu;
Dec 2010;
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/article963739.ece?css=print
The Hindu
18.
General
Science
Biology
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
c APP E FCA Basic commonsense knowledge Common Sense
19. World Politics World Politics
Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export
control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”.
What is the difference between them?
1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aim to allow exporting
countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons
proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the
OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian. African and North
American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are
predominantly from the European Union and American continents.
(a)1 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a APP M FCA
Indian Express
http://www.indianexpress.com/ne
ws/us-moves-to-get-india-into-3-
exclusive-nclu/801751/
Also discussed in Dec 2010 Frontline
Indian Express
20.
General
Science
Physics
The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still
liquid. What is the reason?
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4ºC
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
a APP M F Basic Concepts Common Sense

5
A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The
animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the
destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
b UAPP VD F Others
22. Geography Climate
La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina
different from El Nino?
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian
Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in
the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no
effect on monsoon climate.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
d APP M F
NCERT - Indian Geography (chapter
on Climate)
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
23. History Modern India
The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land
settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced
to which of the following provisions?
(a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-à-vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars.
(c) Making judicial system more efficieant
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
b APP D F B.L.Grover
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement
of 1942?
(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
d APP M F
Bipin Chandra- India's Struggle or
Independence
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in
India in the 19th century?
(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as
middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
c APP D F
Independence
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia
across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of
Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation
/explanations?
(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in
ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests and
Buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
d APP D F NCERT - Ancient India
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

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27. Science & Tech IT
What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?
(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or
5 GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi
is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth
technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi
technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
d APP M F Manorama Year Book Year Books
28. Environment Agriculture
With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
a APP D F
The Hindu;
Jan 2011
tech/agriculture/article1103190.ece
The Hindu
With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an
important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds
constituted “Home Charges”?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP D F
Grover; interestingly this was also
an article in The Hindu of Oct 2010
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the
peasants of Kheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a
drought
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a APP M F
Independence
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
31.
General
Science
Biology
Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they
are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain
health and promote longevity?
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help
prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body
and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing
process
c APP D F
Times of India; The Hindu
http://www.thehindu.com/life-and-
style/metroplus/article1018601.ece
The Hindu

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Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though
present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
c APP D F NCERT Ancient India
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
33. Geography
Economic
Geography
The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature
throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable
for this region?
(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
c APP M F NCERT Indian Geography
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
34. Geography Climate
What could be the main reason/reasons of the formation of African and Eurasian
desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
a APP M F
Certificate Physical Geography- Goh
Cheng Leong
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
35. Geography
Atmosphere of
Earth
The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could
be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
d APP D F
Analytical understanding of
fundamental concepts
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher
latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
c APP D FCA
Other;
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biodiv
ersity
Other
37. Geography
Physical
Geography
The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through
narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers,
Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due
to
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-Tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
b APP M F
NCERT- Indian Geography (Physical
Geography)
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

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38. Geography
Physical
Geography
A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
b APP M F NCERT- Economic Geography
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
39.
Science and
Tech
IT
What is “Virtual Private Network”?
(a) It is a private compute network of an organization where he remote users can
transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization.
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to
their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information
transmitted.
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing
resources through a service provider
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of
Virtual Private Network.
b APP M F Manorama Year Book Year Books
The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India.
In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to
oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe
and all it contained.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
c APP M F Basic Common sense Common Sense
In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was
extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioashphalt). What is the importance of this
material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use biosphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b UAPP M FCA Others
42. Environment Climate Change
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal
power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M FCA Manorama Year Book Year Books

9
43.
Science and
Tech
Satellite
Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A
satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a APP D FCA
The Hindu;
May 2011;
tech/science/article923884.ece
The Hindu
India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What
could be the reasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area
under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by
about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people
have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP M FCA Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
45.
Science and
Tech
Biotech
At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes
of DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M FCA Science and Tech- Spectrum The Hindu
In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX common
Wealth Games in India amounted to
(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Production
(d) Consumption
a APP M F NCERT Macroeconomics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
47.
Science and
Tech
Miscellaneous
Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain
substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and
produce electricity.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP D FCA
Indian Express;
Jan 2011;
ws/nid-plays-host-to-makers-of-
carnivorous-robots/734091/
Indian Express

10
Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal
stimulus”?
(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure
the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity
in the country
(c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure
disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food
production and contain food inflation
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of
financial inclusion
b APP M FCA NCERT Macroeconomics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern.
What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons.
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and
chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
b APP M FCA
The Hindu;
May 2011
The Hindu
Consider the following actions which the government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
a APP M F NCERT Macroeconomics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
51. Polity Panchayati Raj
The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act. 1992, which aims at promoting
the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of state Finance Commissions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
c APP E F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
52. Geography
Physical
Geography
Two important rivers- one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different
name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha- merge at a place only a
short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an
important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the
following could be this?
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
a APP E F Atlas
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

11
A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”.
What is “base effect”?
(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation
rate
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
c APP E F Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to
(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) Its high population in the group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
(d) Its high total population
b APP E F
NCERT Sociology; frequently
mentioned in The Hindu articles also
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced
greenhouse gases below their emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide
emission
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time of the United Nation
Environment Programme
d APP E FCA
Govt website;
Ministry of Environment
Govt website
In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the
news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil
2. Its is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP D FCA
The Hindu;
Feb 2011
http://www.hindu.com/2011/02/21
/stories/2011022152761300.htm
The Hindu
57.
Science and
Tech
Energy
The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction
a APP D FCA
Other;
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heavy_water
Others
58. Polity Applied Polity
In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority,
what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the
community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
c APP M F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

12
59. Governance
Government
Scheme
India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available
to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M FCA
India Year Book (Publications
Division)
Year Books
With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega
Food Parks”?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to
entrepreneurs.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP M F
Division)
Year Books
61. Polity
Centre State
Relations
The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
b APP M F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
62. Polity
Centre State
Relations
All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts
for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
c APP M F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
63. Economy Banking
Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income goups.
This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services
rendered under micro-finance is/are:
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 ,3 and 4
d APP M F Economic Survey 2011
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

13
64. World Politics SE Asia
Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and
time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most
convincing explanation for this global perspective?
(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b) Its location between the Asian power of China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime
character
d APP M F
Other;
Basic Newspaper reading
Others
65.
Science and
Tech
Miscellaneous
A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-
fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the
consumers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
d APP D F
The Hindu;
Apr 2011;
www.thehindu.com/health/diet-
and-nutrition/article1594292.ece
The Hindu
66. Governance
Government
Scheme
Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult member of any household
d APP M FCA
Division)
Year Books
67. Foreign Policy
Indian and the
World
With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian
affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in
Southeast and East Asia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP M F NCERT Polity
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
68. Polity Budget
When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
d APP E F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
69. Polity
Fundamental
Duties
Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental
duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
a APP E F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

14
70. Polity
Constitutional
Bodies
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector
Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
D APP E F DD Basu
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 3 and 4
d APP M FCA
Govt website;
Govt website
Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids
and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie
sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily
oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it
becomes resistant to oxidation.
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted
into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter that table sugar, hence food items made
with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
d UAPP VD F Others
What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set
up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
a APP D F BL Grover
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
74.
Science and
Tech
Energy
What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp
uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
c APP M F Science and Tech- Spectrum
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

15
75.
Science and
Tech
Miscellaneous
Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil
wells.
a APP M FCA
Indian Express-
Feb 2011
ws/teri-says-bioremediation-off-
navy-nagar-coas/749969/
Indian Express
76.
General
Science
Biology
A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to
them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group
of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the
adopted son is
(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
a APP M F NCERT Biology
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book
titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message
from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
b UAPP VD F Others
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the second round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
a APP M F Spectrum- Modern India
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
79.
Science and
Tech
IT
A new optical disc format know as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In
What way is it different form the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports standard Definition video while BD supports High definition Video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP M FCA
The Hindu;
Oct 2010
http://www.hindu.com/mp/2010/1
0/22/stories/2010102251201200.ht
m
The Hindu
With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following
was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities
3. Provision of fundamental right for the people of India in the constitution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
b APP M F
Independence
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

16
81. Geography
Commercial
Geography
Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for
the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and
can develop an export oriented industry in this field?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
b APP M FCA
Govt website;
http://pib.nic.in/feature/feyr2001/f
sep2001/f070920011.html
Govt website
Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
b APP D FCA
Govt website;
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelea
se.aspx?relid=72215
Govt website
83. Polity Panchayati Raj
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in
the metropolitan area.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
a APP M F Indian Polity – Laxmikant
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
84. Polity Budget
What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an
“interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget,
while an “interims budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
c APP M F DD Basu/ PM Bakshi
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
85. Economy Banking
Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country
c APP E F PD Economics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?
(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-
distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be
borne by the consumer
(d) It is basically subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are
only a facilitator for its successful implementation
d APP E F Budget/ Yojana Others
A “closed economy” is an economy in which
(a) The money supply is fully controlled
(b) Deficit financing takes place
(c) Only exports take place
(d) Neither exports nor imports take place
d APP E F NCERT Macroeconomics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

17
88.
General
Science
Biology
When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it
gradually dries up and dies because
(a) Water form soil cannot rise to aerial parts
(b) Roots are starved of energy
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
b APP D F NCERT Biology
Basic Books/
Traditional Books
89. World Politics US-Russia
The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the
Russian Federation
(b) It is multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the
East Asia Summit
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the
energy security cooperation
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the
promotion of trade.
a APP M FCA
The Hindu;
http://www.thehindu.com/news/in
ternational/article892108.ece
The Hindu
Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western
Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
c APP M FCA
The Hindu;
June 2010; Oct 2010;
tech/energy-and-
environment/article448179.ece
The Hindu
Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
c APP D FCA
Indian Express; The Hndu;
ws/india-to-resist-attempt-to-bring-
black-carbon-within-unfccc-jairam-
ra.../722025/;
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.a
spx?relid=42690;
The Hindu
92. Environment Miscellaneous
In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as
they increase the marine productivity by bringing the
1. Decomposer microorganism to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
b APP D FCA
The Hindu;
Dec 2010;
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/article942677.ece
The Hindu

18
93. Environment Miscellaneous
If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a
tropical deciduous forest. This is because
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) The rain forest species are slow growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
a APP E F Basic Common sense Common Sense
The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the
following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference
b APP M FCA
Govt website;
mdoner.gov.in/writereaddata/subli
nk3images/40.pd
Govt. Website
With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation
in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts.
c APP D FCA
Govt website;
Govt website
Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the
following theories?
(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
d UAPP VD F Others
97.
Science and
Tech
Communications
A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio
communication. Why?
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
d APP M F Manorama Year Book Year Books
Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are
related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best
represents an important difference between the two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in
capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets
specific sectors
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
b APP M F PD Economics
Basic Books/
Traditional Books

19
99.
Science and
Tech
Biotech
A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been
developed. The objective of this is
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
a APP M FCA The Hindu The Hindu
100. Governance
Government
Scheme
With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an
earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who
are studying between classes 9 and 12.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
c APP M FCA
Division)
Year Books
Horizontal and Vertical Distribution
Topic
Number of
Questions
Economy 19
Environment 15
Foreign Policy 1
General Science 7
Governance 3
History 11
Miscellaneous 9
Polity 9
Science and Tech 12
World Politics 3
Geography 11
Grand Total 100
Row Labels Count of Question
Economy 19
Banking 4
Disinvestment 1
General Economy 14
Environment 15
Basic Environment 1
Agriculture 1
Biodiversity 7
Climate Change 4
Miscellaneous 2
Foreign Policy 1
India and the World 1
General Science 7
Biology 4
Chemistry 1
Physics 1
Solar System 1
Geography 11
Climate 2
Commercial Geography 1
Economic Geography 1
Geography- Applied 1
Physical Geography 5
Political Geography 1
Governance 3
Govt Schemes 3
Economy
19%
Environment
15%
Foreign Policy
1%
General
Science
7%
Governance
3%
History
11%
Miscellaneou
s
9%
Polity
9%
Science and
Tech
12%
World Politics
3%
Geography
11%
Topic Distribution
CSAT (CIVIL SERVICES APTITUDE TEST 2012)
• INTERACTIVE IAS PRELIM MOCK TESTS 2012: GENERAL STUDIES
+ Current Affairs Notes
• INTERACTIVE IAS APTITUDE TEST 2012
UNDER THE GUIDANCE OF EXPERTS (Expert Guidance, Feedback & Discussion)

20
History 11
Ancient India 3
Modern India 8
Miscellaneous 9
Miscellaneous 9
Polity 9
Appied Polity 1
Budget 2
Centre State Relations 3
Fundamental Duties 1
Panchayati Raj 2
Science and Tech 12
Biotech 2
Communications 1
Energy 2
IT 3
Miscellaneous 3
Satellites 1
World Politics 3
SE Asia 1
US- Russia 1
World Politics 1
Grand Total 100
Row Labels Number of Questions
Basic Books/ Traditional Books 50
Common Sense 5
Govt website 6
Indian Express 3
Others 11
The Hindu 16
Year Books 9
Grand Total 100
Level Number of Questions
Difficult 20
Easy 17
Medium 59
Very Difficult 4
Grand Total 100
LEARNING
Broad trends emerging from the analysis of Year 2011 GS Prelims Paper are:
1. Lot of Questions could be answered by reading the basic material with a
questioning mind
2.Newspaper reading wherever questioned required a very deep and
conceptual understanding of the topic
3. Questions from World Politics and India's Foreign relations were also seen
which were previously absent.
4. Unpredictability is the beauty of UPSC Exam. Therefore the best strategy
is to cover all sections of General Studies effectively.
Keep in Mind: There is no shortcut to success
All this points to the fact that a comprehensive preparation of
Prelims and Mains is needed before the Prelims paper. One cannot neglect
the traditional portion, but even the traditional portion has to be read with
a questioning mind.
~ ONLINE ~ ~ DISTANCE LEARNING ~ IAS MAINS / PRELIM TEST SERIES ~ CLASSROOM~
By Team Vision IAS
( General Studies , Sociology , Public Administration , Geography , Philosophy , Psychology & Hindi Lit. , GS PRELIM & APTITUTE TEST )
NATURE : Flexible, cyclic, Personalized Interactive Discussion TIMING: Every Saturday & Sunday , 10 AM
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1
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ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE /STRATEGY : GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM 2012 PAPER
- TEAM VISION IAS
Difficulty Level ( DL ) : Easy (E), Medium (M), Difficult (D), (V) Very Difficult
Nature of Question (Nature ) : Fundamental, Conceptual, Conventional (F), Current Affairs ( CA) , Fundamental + Current Affairs ( FCA) , Unconventional ( U)
APP / UAPP : Approachable Questions (APP): Your limit / Unapproachable (UAPP) (beyond your limit)
Sub : Topics - Refer Vision IAS : GS Prelim Test Series
Q.No. Topics Questions Answer Level Nature Source Explanation
1. Polity
In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension
to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the
role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation
of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest
produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for
granting prospecting lincence or mining lease for any
mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FCA
The Hindu
http://www.hindu.com/2010/07/26/stor
ies/2010072656760300.htm
http://www.thehindu.com/news/states/
other-states/article1095681.ece
http://www.ielrc.org/content/e9610.pdf
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?re
lid=68975
http://www.thehindu.com/news/states/ot
her-states/article1095681.ece
ARTICLE 4(K) from PESA act
the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate
level shall be made mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining
lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas;
PESA act http://www.ielrc.org/content/e9610.pdf
[Note: please pay attention to "minor minerals" and "or the Panchayats at the
appropriate level". These words are deliberately removed/changed to make the
statement false]
-----------------
PIB January, 2011
Implement PESA in an Speedy and Effective Manner - Dr. C.P.Joshi
Union Minister for Rural Development and Panchayati Raj Dr. C.P. Joshi has
advised the State Governments to implement the Panchayats (Extension to
Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 (PESA) in a speedy and effective manner. Notably PESA
promotes self-governance in Schedule V Areas, giving centrality to Gram Sabhas.
Under PESA, Gram Sabhas have mandatory executive functions to approve plans
of the Village Panchayats, identify beneficiaries for schemes, issue certificates of
utilization of funds, right to be consulted before land acquisition, rehabilitation &
resettlement, power to regulate and restrict sale/consumption of intoxicants,
prevent alienation of land and restore alienated land, manage village markets,
control money lending an ownership of minor forest produce.
Pasted from <http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=68975>
THE HINDU January 17, 2011
It is hard to overstate the importance of the PESA. Specific provisions in the law
are designed to prevent tribal alienation from their lands and the restoration of
illegally alienated land. Another provision makes it mandatory for the gram sabha
to be consulted prior to land acquisition in tribal areas.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/news/states/other-
states/article1095681.ece>
VISION IAS ™
www.visionias.in
Under the Guidance of Ajay Kumar Singh ( B.Tech. IIT Roorkee , Director & Founder : Vision IAS )

2
2. Polity
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an
adjournment motion is
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of
urgent public importance.
(b) to let opposition members collect information
from the ministers.
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in
demand for grant.
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the
inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of
some members.
A E F
Laxmikant
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national
/article112502.ece
lid=79283
Multiple time in news during Nov/Dec 2011 w.r.t. FDI/Price rise
Speaker rejects adjournment motion on price rise
Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on Wednesday rejected the Opposition
demand of adjourning all other business to discuss rising food prices and said it
would be taken up only after the Railway budget
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/article112502.ece>
In Lok Sabha, Adjournment Motion moved on 14.12.2011 by Shri L.K. Advani,
on “situation arising out of money deposited illegally in foreign banks and
action being taken against the guilty persons” was discussed for about 6 hours.
The motion was negatived by voice vote.
3. Environment
How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
help in protecting the Indian Agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the
scientific research on genetic modification of crop
plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related
to genetic/biological resources cannot be made
without the approval of NBA.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
C D FCA
The Hindu
http://www.thehindu.com/news/nation
al/article2340768.ece
http://nbaindia.org/content/25/19//act.ht
ml
/article2340768.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.a
spx?relid=67509
Any person who intends to apply for a patent or any other form of intellectual
property protection whether in India or outside India referred to in sub section
(1) of section 6, may make an application in such form and in such manner as
may be prescribed to the National Biodiversity Authority.
Pasted from <http://nbaindia.org/content/25/19//act.html>
NBA to take action against Bt Brinjal biopiracy
The NBA deals with all matters relating to requests for access by foreign
individuals, institutions or companies, and transfer of results of research to any
foreigner. While granting approvals, NBA imposes conditions which secure
equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and
associated knowledge. These benefits could include monetary gains; grant of
joint ownership of Intellectual property Rights (IPRs), transfer of technology,
association of Indian scientists in research and development, setting up of
venture capital funds etc. Further, NBA’s approval is also required before
seeking any IPR based on biological material and associated knowledge
obtained from India. The NBA also has power to oppose grant of IPRs in any
other country on biological resources or associated knowledge obtained or
derived from India.
Pasted from <http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.aspx?relid=67509>
4. Environment
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted
in consonance with which of the following
provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part
of Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of
administration in the Scheduled Areas for the
welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
A M FCA The Hindu/ PIB + Laxmikant Applied Knowledge tested

3
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as
mentioned under Article 243(A).
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
5.
Economic and
Social
Development
If National Water Mission is properly and completely
implement, how will it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met
through recycling of waste-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be met
by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for
the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to
the rivers of peninsular India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging
bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets
to draw ground-water will be completely
reimbursed by the Government.
below:
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B M FCA
Govt Website
http://moef.nic.in/downloads/others/Mi
ssion-SAPCC-NWM.pdf
India Year Book
http://india.gov.in/allimpfrms/alldocs/156
58.pdf
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/article449163.ece
http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.as
px?relid=71513
[from objective statement]
It will seek to ensure that a considerable share of the water needs of urban
areas are met through recycling of waste water, and ensuring that the water
requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water are
met through adoption of new and appropriate technologies such as low
temperature desalination technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
http://india.gov.in/allimpfrms/alldocs/15658.pdf
Climate council's water mission for India
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/article449163.ece>
The objective of National Water Mission is "conservation of water, minimizing
wastage and ensuring its equitable distribution both across and within States
through integrated water resources development and management".
Pasted from <http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/erelease.aspx?relid=71513>
6. Polity
Consider the following provisions under the
Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in
the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
2. Organizing village Panchayats.
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure
and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that
are reflected in the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B E F Laxmikant
7. Polity
Consider the following statements;
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya
Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election
Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha only.
D M F
Laxmikant
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.asp
x?relid=72662
/article2642678.ece
Adjudication of Election Disputes
Special election benches designated for election petitions only should be
formed in the High Court
Special Election Tribunals should be constituted at the regional level under
article 329B of the Constitution to ensure speedy disposal of election petitions
and disputes within a stipulated period of six months, comprising a High Court
judge and a senior civil servant with at least 5 years experience in the conduct
of elections (not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government

4
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
of India/Principal Secretary of a State Government)
Pasted from <http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=72662>
The other subjects which were likely to find place in the new Bill on election
laws might be de-communalisation of elections, conduct, regulation and better
management of elections, adjudication of election disputes and media and
elections.
8. Miscellaneous
With reference to consumers’ rights/privileges
under the provisions of law in India, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for
food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any
consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir
can file a complaint the consumer forum on his/her
behalf.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D FCA
India Year Book
http://www.consumerisking.in/consume
r-complaint-checklist.pdf,
Poin1 discussed in AIR talk
http://www.consumerisking.in/consumer-complaint-checklist.pdf,
ONE HAS TO PAY COURT FEE
9. Polity
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker,
consider the following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the
President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the
time of his/her election but has to become a
member of the House within six months from the
date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her
resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy
Speaker.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None
B M F Laxmikant

5
10. Polity
Which of the following are included in the original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and
one or more States.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of
the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a
Union Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more States.
below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
C E F Laxmikant
11. Science
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of
organisms are employed biopesticides?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M FCA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biopesticid
e
paper/tp-national/tp-
andhrapradesh/article2838771.ece
A fungal biopesticide formulation has been developed by a faculty member of
the Department of Biotechnology of Gitam University and the test results held
at different districts showed that it can control several pests affecting chilli,
paddy and vegetable crops.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-
andhrapradesh/article2838771.ece>
12. Miscellaneous
Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In
this context, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can
be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated consist of
hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass
gasification can be used for direct heat generation
but not in internal combustion engines.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A D F
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syngas
http://biomassmagazine.com/articles/530
1/powering-an-engine-generator-with-a-
biomass-gasifier
tech/agriculture/article95927.ece
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx?r
elid=79651
Syngas is combustible and often used as a fuel of internal combustion
engines or as an intermediate for the production of other chemicals. For
more info
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syngas
The system designs originated during World War II, when the shortage of
petroleum fuel in Europe sparked a wave of innovation on ways to use locally
available biomass, primarily chunk wood, to fuel internal combustion engines
for transportation. Those designs are still being employed to power internal
combustion gensets.
Pasted from <http://biomassmagazine.com/articles/5301/powering-an-
engine-generator-with-a-biomass-gasifier>
Mr. Rai Singh Dahiya in Rajasthan never stepped into a school, but it did not
stop him from receiving an award from the local District Collector for building
a unique biomass gasifier for operating modified diesel engines.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
tech/agriculture/article95927.ece>
In gasification process organic material is converted into methane, carbon
monoxide, hydrogen, carbon dioxide . It is obtained by reacting the material at
high temperature (>7000C) without combustion with a controlled amount of
oxygen / steam and the resulting gas mixture is called Syngas or Producer Gas
which itself is a fuel.
Pasted from <http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx?relid=79651>

6
13. Science
What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the
water purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in
water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the
water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles,
removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A E F
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Portable_wat
er_purification
http://www.excelwater.com/eng/b2c/wat
er_tech_3.php
Water turbidity (i.e., the amount of suspended & colloidal solids contained in
the water to be treated) must be low, such that the water is clear, for UV
purification to work well.
Pasted from <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Portable_water_purification>
It does not create new chemical complexes, nor does it change the taste or
odor of the water, and does not remove any beneficial minerals in the water.
Pasted from <http://www.excelwater.com/eng/b2c/water_tech_3.php>
14. Science
Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its
importance?
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good
electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials
tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical
transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required
for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C M FCA
tech/article2299569.ece
Graphene has been in news for Noble Prize
Thanks to graphene, research institutes worldwide are already looking at ways
to build better touch-screens, ultrafast transistors and photo-detectors.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/article2299569.ece>
Nobel prize 2010
15. Miscellaneous
Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After
the addition of lead to petrol has been banned,
what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
below:
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D D F
http://www.health.ny.gov/environmental/
lead/sources.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lead_poisoni
ng
http://www.health.ny.gov/environmental/
lead/sources.htm
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.a
spx?relid=77084
Folk medicines, ayurvedics, and cosmetics
Other common sources of lead (car batteries, radiators, some inks, etc.)
Pasted from <http://www.health.ny.gov/environmental/lead/sources.htm>
Lead can be found in products such as kohl, a South Asian cosmetic, and from
some toys
Pasted from <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lead_poisoning>
http://www.health.ny.gov/environmental/lead/sources.htm
Toxicity Due to Lead
Pasted from <http://pib.nic.in/newsite/backgrounders.aspx?relid=77084>

7
16. Science
With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the
news, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M FCA
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/article3013306.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/health/medici
ne-and-
research/article2845451.ece?css=print
Stem Cells have been in news for New therapies and drug development
Once established, these cells can be used to elucidate disease mechanisms and
to screen drugs.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/health/medicine-and-
research/article2845451.ece?css=print>
17. Environment
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting
substances, are used
1. In the production of plastic foams.
2. In the production of tubeless tyres.
3. In cleaning certain electronic components.
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C D F
http://www.thehindu.com/business/comp
anies/article1994174.ece
Eco-friendly car radials from MRF
Pasted from
<http://www.thehindu.com/business/companies/article1994174.ece>
18. Current Affairs
A team of scientists at Brookhaven National
Laboratory including those from India crated the
heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What
is/are the implication/implications of the creation of
anti-matter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil
exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence
of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the
universe.
below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FCA
http://www.frontlineonnet.com/fl2707/st
ories/20100409270710700.htm
http://www.guardian.co.uk/science/2011/
apr/24/antihelium-antimatter-brookhaven
“The new results suggest that RHIC may have a unique opportunity to test in
the laboratory some crucial features of symmetry-altering bubbles speculated
to have played a role in the evolution of the infant universe,” said Steven
Vigdor.
Pasted from
<http://www.frontlineonnet.com/fl2707/stories/20100409270710700.htm>
The discovery of antihelium at the Relativistic Heavy Ion Collider at
Brookhaven national laboratory in New York will aid the search for exotic
phenomena in the distant universe, including antimatter versions of stars and
even galaxies.
Pasted from <http://www.guardian.co.uk/science/2011/apr/24/antihelium-
antimatter-brookhaven>

8
19. Science
Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists
as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion
of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space.
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space.
3. Movement of asteroids in space.
4. Occurrence of supernova explosion in space.
below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above can be cited
as evidence
A D F http://www.thehindu.com/sci-
For example, other scientists found evidence for it when they analyzed the
microwave radiation left over from the big bang that still bathes the universe,
he said.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/article2512038.ece>
Point 2 is well know fact which eliminates potion C and D.
20. Geography
Electrically charged particles from space travelling at
speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely
harm living beings if they reach the surface of the
Earth. What prevents them from reaching the
surface of the Earth?
(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards
its poles.
(b) Ozone later around the Earth reflects them back
to outer space.
(c) Moisture in the upper layers from reaching the
surface of the Earth.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
above is correct.
A D FCA
tech/science/article3377258.ece;
Very Huge Solar Storm in Mar 2012
http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home
/science/Strongest-solar-storm-since-
2005-hitting-
Earth/articleshow/11617160.cms
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/article3377258.ece;
Very Huge Solar Storm in Mar 2012
Most of the solar wind is diverted to poles due to Earth's magnetic field lines.
Although a big flare can interfere with communication systems and power
supplies doing a blackout at some places on the globe, the possibilities are
there but marginal.
Pasted from <http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/Strongest-
solar-storm-since-2005-hitting-Earth/articleshow/11617160.cms>
One of the strongest solar storms in recent history began buffeting the earth
on Thursday, raising the possibility of global disruptions to satellite and
electronics systems.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/article2974284.ece>
21. Ancient India
With reference to the scientific progress of ancient
India, which of the statements given below are
correct?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments
were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body
had beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th
century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in
7th century AD.
below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D D F
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Organ_tran
splantation
http://www.plastangel.com/p/ancient-
indian-plastic-surgery.html
The more likely accounts of early transplants deal with skin transplantation.
The first reasonable account is of the Indian surgeon Sushruta in the 2nd
century BC, who used autografted skin transplantation in nose
reconstruction rhinoplasty.

9
22. Ancient India
With reference to the history of ancient India, which
of the following was/were common to both
Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and
enjoyment.
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas.
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B E F
Ancient India - NCERT - Chapter- Jainism
and Buddhism
Also asked in 1996
23.
Economic and
Social
Development
Which of the following can be said to be essentially
the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies
to do banking.
2. Establishing effective District Planning
Committees in all the districts.
3. Increasing the government spending on public
health.
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.
below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C M FCA
24. Ancient India
The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the
(a) three main racial groups of the Indian
subcontinent.
(b) thee main linguistic divisions into which the
languages of India can be classified.
(c) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture.
(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India.
C E F Ancient India – NCERT
25. Modern India
The Congress ministries resigned in the seven
provinces in 1939, because:
(a) The Congress could not form ministries in the
other four provinces.
(b) Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made
the working of the ministries impossible.
(c) There were widespread communal disturbances
in their provinces.
above is correct
D E F Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum

10
26.
Economic and
Social
Development
With reference to National Rural Health Mission,
which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a
trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for
antenatal care checkup.
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of
pregnancy.
3. Providing information on nutrition and
immunization.
4. Conducting the delivery of baby.
Select eh correct answer using the codes given
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A M F India Year Book- Health
27. Modern India
Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s)
of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive
government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates
for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre
to the provinces.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C E F Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum
28. Modern India
During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social
Conference was formed. What was the reason for its
formation?
(a) Different social reform groups or organizations
of Bengal region united to form a single body to
discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare
appropriate petitions/representations to the
government.
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to
included social reforms in its deliberations and
decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
(c) Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to
bring together all the social reform groups of the
country under one organization.
above is correct in this context.
C M F
Spectrum- Modern India/ Learning India
series MCQs

11
29. Modern India
Which of the following parties were established by
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India.
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation.
3. The Independent Labour Party.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M F Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum
30. Polity
Which of the following special powers have been
conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to
change the name of a State.
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament
to make laws in the State List and to create one or
more All India Services.
(c) To amend the election procedure of the
President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement.
(d) To determine the functions of the Election
Commission and determine the number of Election
Commissioners.
B E F Laxmikant
31.
Economic and
Social
Development
How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission
seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new
manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in
rural areas.
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing
skill development.
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets
and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to
farmers.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M FCA Economic Survey- Ch 13
32.
Economic and
Social
Development
The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by
‘Oxford Poverty and Human Development initiative
with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and
services at household level.
2. Purchasing power parity at national level.
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at
national level.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A E FCA The Hindu

12
33. Polity
Which of the following is/are among the noticeable
features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth
Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a
compensation package linked to adherence to the
proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the
next ten years in consonance with India’s
demographic dividend.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to
local bodies as grants.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A M FCA
Govt website; www.fincomindia.nic.in;
The Hindu
http://fincomindia.nic.in/writereaddata%5
Chtml_en_files%5Ctfc/Chapter1.pdf
The word ‘ Devolution’ has a technical meaning and it is not used in the report
Not specific share is mentioned in the report.
It is specific amount of Rs 87519 cr.
http://fincomindia.nic.in/writereaddata%5Chtml_en_files%5Ctfc/Chapter1.pdf
34.
Economic and
Social
Development
What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of
Government of India to promote the growth
manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and
Manufacturing Zones.
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window
clearance’.
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and
Development Fund.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D D FCA
PIB/ The Hindu
www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion
/article2755139.ece
www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/article2755139.ece
35. Polity
Which of the following are the methods of
Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the
Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of
India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-
account.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of
programme macroeconomic forecasts and
expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A M F Laxmikant

13
36. Modern India
Mahatma Gandhi underlook fast unto death in 1932,
mainly because
(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian
political aspirations.
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of
opinion.
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal
Award.
above is correct in this context
37. Modern India
With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the
following statements:
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the
Government.
2. The government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assesses before
being taxed.
correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
C M F NCERT- Modern India
38. Demographics
Consider the following specific stages of
demographic transition associated with economic
development:
1. Low birthrate with low death rate.
2. High birthrate with high death rate.
3. High birthrate with low death rate.
Select the correct order of the above stages using
the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1
C E F Wizard – Geography
39.
Economic and
Social
Development
In India, in the overall index of Industrial Production,
the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined
weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among
those Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
below:
(a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C M FCA The Hindu- Mar 2012 The term " Eight core industries" is used in many articles and Analysis

14
40. Polity
Which of the following provisions of the
Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies.
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
below:
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C M F Laxmikant
7 th schedule determins whether Education is a Union, State or Concurrent
matter
See constitution
Sixth schedule
(v) education, that is to say, primary education, higher secondary including
vocational training,
adult education, college education (general);
There is no mention of education in fifth schedule .So the best option is C.
41. Environment
Government of India encourages the cultivation of
‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this
plant/
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in
preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live
in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C D FCA Note: question is "why Government of India encourages" not in general
42. Geography
Which of the following is the chief characteristic of
‘mixed farming’?
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same
field.
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops
together.
(d) None of the above.
C M FCA
PIB
http://pib.nic.in/archieve/others/2012/
mar/d2012031308.pdf
Mixed Farming is discussed in many Agriculture related articles in PIB and
The Hindu.
http://pib.nic.in/archieve/others/2012/mar/d2012031308.pdf
43. Geography
A particular State in India has the following
characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes
through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected
Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the
above characteristics?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand
A M FCA
Govt website;
www.fsi.nic.in
FSI Report was released recently.

15
44. Science
Consider the following crops of India:
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and
green manure?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D D FCA
The Hindu;
http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/
Visakhapatnam/article3271993.ece
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pigeon_pea
Green Manure is in news for land reclamation projects
Pigeon peas are in some areas an important crop for green manure, providing
up to 40 kg nitrogen per hectare. The woody stems of pigeon peas can also be
used as firewood, fencing and thatch.
Pasted from <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pigeon_pea>
45. Geography
Consider the following factors:
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean
currents?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
B D F NCERT- Physical Geography
46. Geography
With reference to the wetlands of India, consider
the following statements:
1. The country’s total geographical area under the
category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as
compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (B) Neither 1 nor 2
A D FCA
http://moef.nic.in/downloads/public-
information/NWIA_Gujarat_Atlas.pdf;
information/NWIA_National_brochure.pd
Gujarat is called "Land of wetlands"
47. Geography
Consider the following crops of India:
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed
crop/crops?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D D F
Wizard – Geography
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millet
http://www.orkut.co.in/Main#Home
Pearl millet is well adapted to growing areas characterized by drought, low
soil fertility, and high temperature
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Millet
millet is dryland predominantly
Pasted from <http://www.orkut.co.in/Main#Home>

16
48. Geography
When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the
following:
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding.
Which of the above can be said to be the evidence
for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D E F NCERT- Indian Geography
49. Geography
Normally, the temperature decreases with the
increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from
the Earth’s surface
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M F
NCERT- Physical Geography
http://voices.yahoo.com/why-air-
temperature-decreases-increasing-
altitude-623342.html)
altitude-623342.html
altitude-623342.html
Since the atmosphere is warmed from the ground up, and since the air is at
its most dense near the surface of the earth, the air near the surface is going
to be able to retain much more heat than the air at higher elevations due to
the increased amounts of air molecules; higher elevations have fewer air
molecules and consequently can't retain as much heat. (More interesting
info on http://voices.yahoo.com/why-air-temperature-decreases-increasing-
altitude-623342.html)
The first thing you have to understand is that the earth is NOT heated from
direct sunlight.
Pasted from <http://voices.yahoo.com/why-air-temperature-decreases-
increasing-altitude-623342.html>
Now, here's where it all comes together. Since the atmosphere is warmed
from the ground up, and since the air is at its most dense near the surface of
the earth, the air near the surface is going to be able to retain much more heat
than the air at higher elevations due to the increased amounts of air
molecules; higher elevations have fewer air molecules and consequently can't
retain as much heat.
Pasted from <http://voices.yahoo.com/why-air-temperature-decreases-
increasing-altitude-623342.html>
50. Geography
The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this
phenomenon a cause of concern:
1. The growth and survival of calcareous
phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be
adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have
phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be
adversely affected.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D D F ICSE Environment- Class 10

17
51. Polity
In India, other than ensuring that public funds are
used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is
the importance of the office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the
Parliament when the President of India declares
national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or
programmes by the ministries are discussed by the
Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by
investigating agencies to press charges against those
who have violated the law while managing public
finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of
government companies, CAG has certain judicial
powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C M F Laxmikant + The Hindu
52.
Economic and
Social
Development
The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’
Programme is
1. To promote institutional deliveries.
2. To provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery.
3. To provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and
confinement.
correct?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A M F India Year Book- Health
53. Polity
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her
appointment:
(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the
Houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the
Houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament
(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
A E F Laxmikant

18
54. Polity
Which reference to the Delimitation Commission,
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot
be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission
are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative
Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in
the orders.
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C M F Laxmikant
55.
Economic and
Social
Development
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the
‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State
Insurance Scheme?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D D FCA
Govt website;
www.esic.in
http://india.gov.in/citizen/health/health.
php?id=42
http://india.gov.in/citizen/health/health.php?id=42
56. Polity
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty
of the President of India to cause to be laid before
the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendation of the Union Finance
Commission.
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
General.
4. The Report of the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes.
below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C E F Laxmikant
57. Polity
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament
during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A E F Laxmikant

19
58.
Economic and
Social
Development
How do District Rural Development Agencies
(DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in
India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain
specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of
the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare
detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-
departmental coordination and cooperation for
effective implementation of anti-poverty
programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization
of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
correct?
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B D FCA
The Hindu
paper/tp-national/tp-
otherstates/article3431438.ece;
http://www.thehindu.com/news/states/
tamil-nadu/article3429859.ece
Applied question from Current Faairs of Mar;
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-
otherstates/article3431438.ece;
http://www.thehindu.com/news/states/tamil-nadu/article3429859.ece
59. Polity
Which of the following is/are among the
Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the
Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture.
2. To protect the weaker sections from social
injustice.
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of
inquiry.
4. To strive towards excellence n all spheres of
individual and collective activity.
below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C E F Laxmikant
60. Polity
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of
the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointment the Supreme Court Judges,
the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice
of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the
Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature
does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the
Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice
A E F Laxmikant

20
of India.
correct?
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
61. Science
To meet its rapidly growing, energy demand, some
opine that India should pursue research and
development on thorium as the future fuel of
nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does
thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than
uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral,
thorium can generate more energy compared to
natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared
to uranium.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
D E F
Spectrum- Science and Tech
http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/
search?q=cache:xSdksV2ojooJ:www.thehi
ndu.com/opinion/op-
ed/article2601471.ece+&cd=1&hl=en&ct=
clnk&gl=in
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thorium_fuel
_cycle
lid=80587
Thorium is far more abundant, by about four timesxxvi, than the traditional
nuclear fuel, Uranium, and occurs in a far purer form, too.
It is estimated that Thorium may be able to generate (through Uranium-233
that could be produced from it) eight times the amount of energy per unit
mass compared to (natural) Uraniumxxvii.
Pasted from
<http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:xSdksV2ojooJ:ww
w.thehindu.com/opinion/op-
ed/article2601471.ece+&cd=1&hl=en&ct=clnk&gl=in>
the waste from a thorium reactor can be less toxic than the uranium ore that
would have been used to produce low enriched uranium fuel for a light water
reactor of the same power.
Pasted from <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thorium_fuel_cycle>
It is also estimated that Thorium can generate (through uranium-233
producible from it) 8 times the amount of energy per unit mass compared to
(natural) Uranium.
62. Environment
The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is
slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere,
because it absorbs
(a) The water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
(c) All the solar radiations.
(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation.
D M F NCERT- Class 12 Bio- Page 281- Diagram
63. Science
Which one of the following sets of elements was
primarily responsible for the origin of life on the
Earth?
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium (b) Carbon,
Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus (d) Carbon,
Hydrogen, Potassium
B E F Basic Science Books (NCERT/ ICSE)

21
64. Science
What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to
the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene
from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and
therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before
every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of
Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt
brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
below:
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C M FCA
The Hindu;
tech/energy-and-
http://www.mainstreamweekly.net/article
3427.html
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-
page/article317940.ece
Pasted from <http://www.mainstreamweekly.net/article3427.html>
GM crops have terminator gene: This is not true. It is still in a concept stage.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-
page/article317940.ece>
65. Science
Other than resistance to pests, what are the
prospects for which genetically engineered plants
have been created?
1. To enable them to withstand drought.
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce.
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in
spaceships and space stations.
4. To increase their shelf life.
below:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D D FCA
http://journals.cambridge.org/download.p
hp?file=%2FIJA%2FIJA10_04%2FS1473550
411000218a.pdf&code=6464b90c64e0cf7
6f111c69b82140018
microbes are easier and faster to genetically
engineer, facilitating not only design and terrestrial manufacture of organisms
optimized for growth and
nutrient production in the artificial conditions of space, but superior ability in
space to develop organisms
suited to newly discovered environments
http://journals.cambridge.org/download.php?file=%2FIJA%2FIJA10_04%2FS14
73550411000218a.pdf&code=6464b90c64e0cf76f111c69b82140018
66. Modern India
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai
Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement
was that he
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the
British.
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored
the self-confidence of Indians.
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social
evils before anything else.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A E F Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum
67. Culture
With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major
traditions of India that has been kept alive for
centuries, which of the following statements are
correct?
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput
kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual
music.
B D F
<http://www.dhrupad.info/>
http://www.shantishivani.com/Dhrupad.
htm>
Spectrum- Indian Culture
Dhrupad is the oldest surviving form of Indian Classical music and
traces its origin to the chanting of vedic hymns and mantras. Though a
highly developed classical art with a complex and elaborate grammar
and aesthetics, it is also primarily a form of worship, in which offerings
are made to the divine through sound or nāda.
Pasted from <http://www.dhrupad.info/>
Dhrupad emphasizes a slow, meditative rendition of the alap using

22
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from
Mantras.
below:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above is correct
sacred Sanskrit syllables derived from Sanskrit mantras.
Pasted from <http://www.shantishivani.com/Dhrupad.htm>
68. Culture
How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and
Bharatnatyam dances?
1. Dancers occasionally peaking dialogues is found in
Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on
its edges is a feature of Bharatnatyam but Kuchipudi
dance does not have such a form of movements.
correct?
A D F
Spectrum- Indian Culture
http://www.gii.in/India/kuchipudi-dance-
traditional-dance-in-andhra-pradesh/
http://www.indiasite.com/andhrapradesh
/kuchipudi.html
in Kuchipudi, you will enjoy more realistic acting and also another thing that
keeps it apart from others is the occasional use of dialogues. Dialogues are
something that no other classical dance form of India is based on
Pasted from <http://www.gii.in/India/kuchipudi-dance-traditional-dance-in-
andhra-pradesh/>
The "Tarangam", is another unique feature of Kuchipudi. In this, a dancer
dances on the edge of a brass plate, matching to the rhythm of music.
Sometimes, dancers also balance a pot of water on the head.
Pasted from <http://www.indiasite.com/andhrapradesh/kuchipudi.html>
69. Medieval India
With reference to the religious history of medieval
India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which
of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath.
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place.
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of
ecstasy in their audience.
below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M F NCERT- Medieval India(new)
Medival India
S. K. Pandey
Chapter no 8
70. Modern India
The Rowlatt Act aimed at
(a) Compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) Imprisonment without trial and summary
procedures for trial
(c) Suppression of the Khilafat Movement.
(d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the
press.
B E F
Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rowlatt_Ac
t
The Rowlatt act passed by the British in colonial India in March 1919,
indefinitely extending "emergency measures" (of the Defence of India
Regulations Act) enacted during the First World War in order to control
public unrest and root out conspiracy. Passed on the recommendations of
the Rowlatt Committee, named for its president, British judge Sir Sidney
Rowlatt, this act effectively authorized the government to imprison for a
maximum period of two years, without trial, any person suspected of
terrorism living in the Raj.
Pasted from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rowlatt_Act
71. Modern India
The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress
(1929) is very important in history, because
1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding
complete independence.
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates
was resolved in that Session.
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation
theory in that Session
correct?
A E F Bipin Chandra/ Spectrum

23
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above
72. Medieval India
Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the
hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It
symbolizes.
(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara
and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation.
(b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his
purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
(c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all
arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the
Earth, and thus this life is transitory.
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in
this context.
B D F
http://buddhism.about.com/od/eightaus
picioussymbols/a/earthwitness.htm
Just before the historical Buddha, Siddhartha Gautama, realized
enlightenment, it is said the demon Mara attacked him with armies of
monsters to frighten Siddhartha from his seat under the bodhi tree. But the
about-to-be Buddha did not move. Then Mara claimed the seat of
enlightenment for himself, saying his spiritual accomplishments were greater
than Siddhartha's. Mara's monstrous soldiers cried out together, "I am his
witness!" Mara challenged Siddhartha--who will speak for you?
Then Siddhartha reached out his right hand to touch the earth, and the earth
itself roared, "I bear you witness!" Mara disappeared. And as the morning
star rose in the sky, Siddhartha Gautama realized enlightenment and became
a Buddha.
Pasted from
http://buddhism.about.com/od/eightauspicioussymbols/a/earthwitness.ht
m
73. Ancient India
The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of
(a) Bhakti (b) Image worship and Yajnas
(c) Worship of nature and Yajnas (d) Worship of
nature and Bhakti
C E F Ancient India- NCERT
74. Modern India
Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatory.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for
interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are
infallible.
below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M F
Spectrum- Modern India
S. K. Pandey
S. K. Pandey
Chapter 8
75.
Economic and
Social
Development
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’
bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in
times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on
monetary matters.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B E F Pratiyogita Darpan

24
76.
Economic and
Social
Development
Under which of the following circumstances may
‘capital gains’ arise?
1. Under which of the following circumstances may
‘capital gains’ arise?
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of
the property owned.
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a
growth in its value due to increase in its popularity.
below:
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M F
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/ca
pitalgain.asp#ixzz1vXiO4Mrh
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/ca
pitalgain.asp
Capital Gains - This term is used in Newspapers and also in Constitution
An increase in the value of a capital asset (investment or real estate) that gives
it a higher worth than the purchase price. The gain is not realized until the
asset is sold. A capital gain may be short term (one year or less) or long term
(more than one year) and must be claimed on income taxes.
Read more:
http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capitalgain.asp#ixzz1vXiO4Mrh
Pasted from <http://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capitalgain.asp>
77.
Economic and
Social
Development
Which of the following measures would result in an
increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government securities from the public
by the Central Bank.
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the
public.
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central
Bank.
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the
Central Bank.
below:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
C M F Economic Survey
78.
Economic and
Social
Development
Which of the following would include Foreign Direct
Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India.
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian
companies.
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign
companies.
4. Portfolio investment.
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
D E F
Pratiyogita Darpan
http://articles.economictimes.indiatimes.c
om/2009-02-
12/news/27660428_1_foreign-
investment-foreign-equity-investment-
ceiling
79.
Economic and
Social
Development
The price of any currency in international market is
decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for good/services provided by the
country concerned
3. Stability of the government of the concerned
country
4. Economic potential of the country in question.
B M F Pratiyogita Darpan

25
(a) 1, 2 3, and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
80.
Economic and
Social
Development
The basic aid of Lead Bank Scheme is that
(a) Big banks should try to open offices in each
district.
(b) There should be stiff competition among the
various nationalized banks.
(c) Individual banks should adopt particular district
for intensive development.
(d) All the banks should make intensive efforts to
mobilize deposits.
C M F
The Hindu;
Pratiyogita Darpan
www.thehindu.com/todays-
paper/tp.../article1575716.ece;
www.hindu.com/2011/04/03/stories/20
11040357740400.htm
www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp.../article1575716.ece;
www.hindu.com/2011/04/03/stories/2011040357740400.htm
81. Modern India
1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature
of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies.
Which of the above was/were introduced into India
by the English?
D D F
for statement 1,2 see S. K. Pandey
chapter 10
http://www.whoindia.org/LinkFiles/Toba
cco_Free_Initiative_03Chapter-02.0.pdf
http://www.whoindia.org/LinkFiles/Tobacco_Free_Initiative_03Chapter-
02.0.pdf
When the Portuguese eventually did land on
India’s shores, they brought in tobacco.
82. Ancient India
With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India
that played a very important role in the country’s
economy, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central
authority of the State and the king was the chief
administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices
were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own
members.
below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D F
Economic History of India
By N. Jayapalan
(Page 67)
Economic History of India
By N. Jayapalan
(Page 67)
The craft guild (Sreni) was headed by a chief called the Elder Uyeshtaka
Sansknt, Jethaka Pall), who was assisted by a council of senior craftsmen and
merchants. The Jethaka was often the richest craftsman in the trade and his
office was hereditary. He was influential and his advice was sometimes sought
by the king. Each guild was a corporate body and enjoyed considerable
autonomy. h had its own court with full jurisdiction over all members and
distinguishing insignia like banners and chamaras, which were carried in festive
processions. Major guilds had their own militias, which fought along with the
king’s army if required. The guild council framed rules of work and fixed
standards, wages and prices. if any member violated a ruic he was tried by the
guild court, whose judgement.
83. Modern India
The distribution of powers between the Centre and
the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the
scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 (b) Montagu-
Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian
Independence Act, 1947

26
84.
Economic and
Social
Development
Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India
import millions of tones of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal
reserves for future, and import it from other
countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based
and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of
coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking
coal which has to be imported.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FCA
85. Geography
A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and
wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km
east of the point where he was standing. He had no
instruments to find the direction but he located the
polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his
village is to walk in the
(a) direction facing the polestar (b) direction
opposite to the polestar
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left (d)
direction keeping the polestar to his right
C E F
86. Current Affairs
Recently, there has been a concern over the short
supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth
metals’. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these
elements, has imposed some restrictions on their
export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile,
these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the
manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and
there is a growing demand for these elements.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D FCA
87. Geography
Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B M FCA
Govt website;
information/NTCA-booklet.pdf

27
88. Geography
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from
southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern
plains of India decreases from east to west.
correct?
C E F NCERT- Physical Geography
89. Geography
Which one of the following is the characteristic
climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
(a) Rainfall throughout the year (b) Rainfall in
winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season (d) A definite dry
and wet season
D M F NCERT- Physical Geography
90. Geography
In which one among the following categories of
protected areas in India are local people not allowed
to collect and use the biomass?
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
B M F Wizard – Geography
91. Environment
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M F
92. Environment
Which one of the following groups of animals
belongs to the category of endangered species?
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and
Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great
Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey
and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur
and Cheetal
A M F NCERT- Physical Geography- Ch 16
Elimination could have been used; Great Indian Bustard is a Critically
Endangered Species; also Snow Leopard is an endangered specie
93. Science
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp.
2. One would not be able to use a straw to consumer
a soft drink.
3. The blotting paper would fail to function.
4. The big trees that we see around would not have
grown on the Earth.
B M F Basic Science Books (NCERT/ ICSE)

28
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Environment
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes
the following major categories of ecosystem
services—provisioning, supporting, regulating,
preserving and cultural. Which one of the following
is supporting service?
(a) Production of food and water (b) Control of
climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination (d)
Maintenance of diversity
C D FCA
Other Specialised Sources-FAO website-
http://www.fao.org/es/esa/pesal/about
PES1.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_
services
Nutrient dispersal and cycling is one of the 3 supporting services. (For more
knowledge on the subject: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ecosystem_services)
95. Environment
What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx
and Chiru?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas
whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and
semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is
poached for its musk.
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru
exists in north-east India only.
above is correct.
A D F
96. Environment
Which of the following can be threats to the
biodiversity of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
below:
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D M F
NCERT- Class 12 Bio- Ch 15
http://westinstenv.org/wildpeop/2010/05
/23/vegetarians-the-scourge-of-the-earth/
http://www.dikseo.teimes.gr/spoudastirio
/E-NOTES/B/Biodiversity_Viewpoints.pdf
http://www.frontlineonnet.com/fl1810/1
8100670.htm
A changing global climate threatens species and ecosystems. The distribution
of species (biogeography) is largely determined by climate, as is the
distribution of ecosystems and plant vegetation zones (biomes).
Virtually all the world’s environmental problems, from the loss of biodiversity
to carbon dioxide emissions, can be traced to vegetarians, not hunters.
Pasted from <http://westinstenv.org/wildpeop/2010/05/23/vegetarians-the-
scourge-of-the-earth/>
Chapter 3: Are Commercial Farming Practices
Harming Agricultural Biodiversity?
Yes: Commercial Farming Practices Are Detrimental to
Biodiversity
Farmers have developed many different varieties of useful crop plants.
However, this genetic diversity is being lost as traditional forms of agriculture
are being replaced by modern commercial farming operations that
strive for crop uniformity.
http://www.dikseo.teimes.gr/spoudastirio/E-
NOTES/B/Biodiversity_Viewpoints.pdf

29
While there is no figure for the overall loss of crop varieties in the country,
only a handful of high-yielding varieties grow over 70 per cent of the paddy
land and over 90 per cent of the wheat land, the new varieties having
displaced possibly several thousand local varieties.
Pasted from <http://www.frontlineonnet.com/fl1810/18100670.htm>
97. Environment
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B M FCA The Hindu- 12 Aug 2011
This has been a pet project of M/o Envt and Forests to reintroduce Cheetahs
in India which have been extinct in India for many years now
98. Environment
Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of
the above helps/help in carbon
sequestration/storage in the soil?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them
C D FCA
The Hindu- May 2012; March 2011; Also
can be found in Kurukshetra
99. Environment
What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely
affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely
affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically
decrease.
below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A M F
ICSE Environment- Class 10
tech/energy-and-
tech/article2331148.ece
A decline of phytoplankton affects everything up the food chain
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-
environment/article540251.ece>
This means that the ocean off the coast of Southern California is acting as a
carbon ‘sink’ - taking carbon out of the atmosphere via phytoplankton and
locking it up in sediment.
Pasted from <http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/article2331148.ece>

30
100. Current Affairs
Vultures which used to be very common in Indian
countryside some years ago are rarely seen
nowadays. This is attributed to
(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new
invasive species.
(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their
diseased cattle.
(c) Scarcity of food available to them.
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease
among them.
B E FCA The Hindu- 11 Sept 2011
Special Note: If you want any clarification / doubts / questions related to the solution of General Studies Prelim Paper 2012, Please share your view with authentic source ( logic & explanation) . We will update our solution within 24hrs .
Topic 2012 2011
Ancient India 5 2
Culture 2 0
Current Affairs 3 3
Demographics 1 0
Economic and Social Development 17 19
Environment 13 15
Geography 14 10
Medieval India 2 1
Miscellaneous 3 10
Modern India 12 8
Polity 17 13
Science 11 19
Grand Total 100 100
Ancient India
5% Culture
2%
Current Affairs
3%
Demographics
1%
Economic and
Social
Development
17%
Environment
13%
Geography
14%
Medieval India
2%
Miscellaneous
3%
Modern India
12%
Polity
17%
Science
11%
2012 - Distribution of Questions

© VISION IAS
Nature of Question
Traditional
Applied Current Affairs
Grand Total
5
2
3
1
2
0
3
0
2012 (in Blue) v/s 2011(in Red) Distribution
Traditiona
l
68%
Applied
Current
Affairs
32%
Nature Distribution
www.visionias.in www.visionias.wordpres
Number of
Questions
68
32
100
17
13
14
2
3
12
17
19
15
10
1
10
8
13
Traditiona
68%
Nature Distribution
Level of Question
Difficult
Easy
Medium
Grand Total
11
19
follow visionias at facebook
Level of Question Number of Questions
Difficult 30
Easy 30
Medium 40
Grand Total 100
Difficult
30%
Easy
30%
Medium
40%
Level Distribution
http://twitter.com/#!/visionias
31

32
S No Observation Learning(s)
1
2011 was an year in which UPSC asked very little from Current portion in Prelims, but 2012 has brought back
Current into limelight Never neglect Current portion and Newspapers
2 Increasing number of Questions from varied fields- For eg Culture questions also asked
Increasing Homogenisation of Prelims and Mains GS Syllabus. Expect some World Politics Questions/
International Org/ India and the World Questions in future
3 Polity, History, Geography and Economy still rule the roost Make these four portions as solid as possible for better scores
Expected Cutoff 185 (+/– 5) Why?
1. Comparatively harder Questions in GS as well as CSAT in 2012
2. More seats in this year
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“The significant problems we face can not be solved at the same level of thinking we were at when we created them." - Albert Einstein
ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE / STRATEGY: GENERAL STUDIES PRE 2013 PAPER
- TEAM VISION IAS
Q.
No.
Questions
Section Ans. Level Nature
Source Source
Type
Explanation
Motivation/
Observation
1
Consider the following statements-
The Parliamentary Committee on Public
Accounts.
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of
the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance
accounts of the Government.
3. Examines the report of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India.
correct?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Polity B E F
Laxmikanth page 22.34
EM
Statement 1 is wrong as it consists
of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha
and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
PAC has been in a lot
of news for various
CAG reports incuding
2G, coal report etc.
2
Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching
when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took
over?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Art/ Culture B D F
NCERT ancient and Medival India
EM
Guru Nanak ( 1469 – 1539)
Dadu Dayal (1544–1603)
Kakarla Tyagabrahmam (1767 – 1847)
Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over: 1526
3
With reference to the food chains in
ecosystems, which of the following kinds of
organism is/are known as decomposer
organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Environment B D F
12th NCERT: UNIT-NINE:
ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT
Page 312
EM
Most viruses need a living host organism-they are more like a
parasite.
Viruses reproduce by sticking their DNA into living cells and their
DNA
"takes over" the living cell and uses the living cells' tools to
replicate the virus' DNA and make more viruses. Bacteria that are
used in decomposition
need the dead animals' flesh for food.
4
The most important fishing grounds of the
world are found in the regions where
(a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents
meet
Geography C E F
Old NCERT Class VII Part II page
36
EM
Planktons are abundant where warm and cold currents meet. That
make these areas important fishing grounds of the wolrd.
VISION IAS ™ ... Inspiring Innovation
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2
(b) Rivers drain out large amounts of
freshwater into the sea
(c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d) Continental shelf is undulating
5
Which of the following is/are unique
characteristic/characteristics of equatorial
forests?
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with
crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of
epiphytes
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography D M F
NCERT: 12th Geography
Page 273
EM
6
Which of the following constitute Capital
Account?
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Economy B M F
NCERT Macro Economics Page
77
Economic Survey
EM
Private Remittances forms a part of current account and not
capital account
7
Consider the following historical places:
1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known
for mural paintings?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Art/ Culture B D F
NIOS art and Culture Page 155
RM
The Lepakshi temple has the finest specimens of mural paintings
of the Vijayanagar kings.
In News:
http://www.thehind
u.com/features/metr
oplus/travel/the-
hanging-pillar-and-
other-wonders-of-
lepakshi/article2836
929.ece
8
With reference to the history of
philosophical thought in India, consider the
following statements regarding Sankhya
school:
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of
rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge
that leads to liberation and not any exterior
influence or agent.
correct?
Art/ culture B D F
NIOS art and Culture 114
http://comethinkwithme.wordpr
ess.com/2012/02/29/consciousn
ess-samkhya-theory-or-
buddhism-part-2-2/
RM
Samkhya is an Orthodox Indian philosophical system. Orthodox
Indian philosophical system believes in soul and karma theory. For
Karma theory to hold, soul has to undergo rebirth or
transmigration. Therefore, without liberation no soul can be free
from the cycle of rebirth or transmigration.
Samkhya school philosophy- after you have ‘died’ in this life you
will go through a process of rebirth where depending on your
actions in your former life your status will be decided.
9
In the context of India, which of the
following principles is/are, implied
institutionally in the parliamentary
Polity A M F
Laxmikanth page 3.3
EM
statement 3 is wrong as Cabinet is
headed by Head of Government (i.e.
PrimeMinister) and not by Head of

3
government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of
the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the
State.
Select
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
State (i.e. President)
10
The annual range of temperature in the
interior of the continents is high as
compared to coastal areas. What is/are the
reason/reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land and
water
2. Variation in altitude between continents
and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to
coasts
given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Geography A D F
INDIA : PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT
page 34
EM
Land heats up and cool down very fast as compared to the water.
Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating
influence of the sea. Such areas have extremes of climate.
Statement 2 is wrong as there may or may not be much difference
between the altitudes of land and ocean. Statment 3 is wrong as
winds do not contribute enough to the variations in temperature.
Statement 4 is wrong as coastal region recieve more rainfall.
11
Which of the following is/are the
characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography A D FCA
http://www.hindu.com/fline/fl2
522/stories/2008110725220500
0.htm
RM
THE most significant characteristic of Indian coal is its high ash
content, which varies from 35 to 45 per cent, compared with that
of coal in other parts of the world, which is around 15 per cent.
Besides high ash content, another reason for entrained gasifiers
(that operate at higher temperatures than fluidised bed gasifiers),
commonly used in IGCC plants abroad, being not suitable for
Indian coal is its high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500
However, Indian coal’s sulphur content is low, about 0.5 per cent.
Coal in news: Coal
Scam
Also, one of the
major factors for
widening CAD as
large quantities of
coal are being
imported
12
Which of the following statements regarding
laterite soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and
UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on
these soils.
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
Geography C E F
page 71
EM
Statement 2 is wrong as these soils are poor in nitrogen and
phosphate. Statement 3 is wrong as laterite is not found in UP or
in Rajasthan. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra
Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like
cashewnut.
13
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Geography B M F
India : People and Economy page
80
EM
Natural gas is obtained alongwith oil in all the oil fields but
exclusive reserves have been located along the eastern coast as
well as (Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh), Tripura,
Rajasthan and off-shore wells in Gujarat and Maharashtra.

4
correct?
Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary
period.
14
Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Geography C E F
India : People and Economy page
44
EM
15
“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the
people used to be nomadic herders.”
The above statement best describes which
of the following regions?
(a) African Savannah
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Siberian Tundra
Geography B D F
GC Leong page 148-49
RM
Steppe's climate is continantal with extremes of temp. Nomadic
tribes like Kirghiz are found. Rainfall is expected to be light. African
Savannah gets moderate raifall.
16
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
correct?
Economy A M FCA
Economic Survey
EM
For debtors, "real" interest rate goes down with inflation. Thus it
benefits them
On the other hand, with inflation the yield of bonds goes down,
thus a negative effect for bond-holders
Persistent high rate
of inflation in the
economy.
Inflation indexed
bonds announced
recently
17
Disguised unemployment generally means
(a) Large number of people remain
unemployed
(b) Alternative employment is not available
(c) Marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d) Productivity of workers is low
Economy C M F
NCERT class 11th Economy
EM
Disguised unemployment, means that more people are engaged in
a job which can be done with less people, normally seen in
agriculture where whole family is involved. It means extra people
can be removed without affecting the productivity, i.e. their
marginal productivity is zero.
18
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall
be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office
during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to
the President about the proposals for
legislation.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Polity B M F
EM
statement 2 is from article 75
statement 3 is from article 78
statement 1 is from article 75 - where it is collectively responsible
to the "House of People" (Lok Sabha). Parliament means both
Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
So answer should be (b)
19
1. National Development Council is an organ
of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept
in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of
Polity B M F
Statement 1 -
Statement 2 -
Laxmikanth page AII.4
Statement 3 -
EM
NDC is listed as an advisory body to
Planning commission. Moreover the
plans made by Planning commission
are placed before NDC for its
acceptance. So statement 1 is wrong.
XII five year plan was
approved in
December meeting
of NDC

5
India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that
Panchayats should be assigned the task of
preparation of plans for economic
development and social justice.
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
20
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
House.
2. While the nominated members of the two
Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the presidential election, they have
the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
correct?
Polity B D F
Statement 1 -
Statement 2 -
EM
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is
elected by Rajya Sabha from among
its members. So Deputy Chairman
is member of that house.
Deputy Chairman P J
Kurien in controversy
due to Suryanelli
Rape case.
Also, Hamid Ansari is
the 2nd person ever
after Dr
Radhakrishnan to be
elected for Vice
President for two
consecutive terms
21
With reference to National Legal Services
Authority consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and
competent legal services to the weaker
section of the society on the basis of equal
opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
Services Authorities to implement the legal
programmes and schemes throughout the
country.
correct?
Polity C D FCA
http://nalsa.gov.in/#intro
RM
Current CJI Altamas
Kabir was NALSA
chairman before
being nominated as
CJI and now Patron-
in-chief as CJI.
There was the 11th
annual meeting of
State Legal Services
authority in April
22
During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the
skies is produced by the
1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the
sky.
2. Lightning that separates the nimbus
clouds.
3. Violent upward movement of air and
water particles.
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder
Geography D D F
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thu
nder
EM
Thunder is the sound caused by lightning. The sudden increase in
pressure and temperature from lightning produces rapid
expansion of the air surrounding and within a bolt of lightning. In
turn, this expansion of air creates a sonic shock wave, similar to a
sonic boom, which produces the sound of thunder The cause of
thunder has been the subject of centuries of speculation and
scientific inquiry. The first recorded theory is attributed to the
Greek philosopher Aristotle in the third century BC, and an early
speculation was that it was caused by the collision of clouds.
Subsequently, numerous other theories were proposed. By the
mid-19th century, the accepted theory was that lightning
produced a vacuum. In the 20th century a consensus evolved that
thunder must begin with a shock wave in the air due to the sudden
thermal expansion of the plasma in the lightning channel.

6
23
Consider the following pairs:
Tribe State
1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim
2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh Odisha
4. Bonda Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Geography A D FCA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kar
bi_people
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lim
bu_people
http://intercontinentalcry.org/p
eoples/dongria-kondh/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bon
da_people
RM
Dongariya Kondh
was quite in news in
2010-12.
2.
Bonda in news
Bonda youths
migrating in search
of jobs, says study |
The Hindu
Despite the fact that
Odisha government
has been spending
huge
funds for
development of
‘Bonda’ – a primitive
tribe – in Malkangiri
district for the past
three decades,
Bonda youths are
now leaving hills in
search of jobs in
States like Andhra
Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu.
24
Consider the following liquid assets:
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the
decreasing order of liquidity is
(a) 1–4–3–2 (b) 4–3–2–1
(c) 2–3–1–4 (d) 4–1–3–2
Economy D M F
NCERT class 12th Economy
EM
Liquidity of currency is highest. Next will come demand liabilities,
as they have to be cleared when demanded. Next savings and least
liquidity will be of time deposits
25
In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open
Market Operations’ refers to
(a) Borrowing by scheduled banks from the
RBI
(b) Lending by commercial banks to industry
and trade
(c) Purchase and sale of government
securities by the RBI
(d) None of the above
Economy C E F
NCERT XII Macro Economics
Page 44
EM
The repo and reverse repo rates are used when RBI purchase or
sale the government securities. This route is known as Open
Market Operations
26
Priority Sector Lending by banks in Indian
constitutes the lending to
(a) Agriculture
(b) Micro and small enterprises
(c) Weaker sections
(d) All of the above
Economy D M FCA
Economic Survey
RM
Banks have to lend minimum of 40% to priority sector which
includes all of the given sectors
Recently issued
guidelines by RBI
that foreign banks
will also have to
follow the priority
sector lending
targets

7
27
Which one among the following industries is
the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a) Engineers
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
(d) Thermal power
Geography D D FCA
http://articles.economictimes.in
diatimes.com/2012-07-
12/news/32648537_1_water-
conservation-water-audits-
water-usage
RM
Of the total water use by the industry, thermal power plants are
the biggest users of water and account for 88% of the total
industrial water use. They are followed by engineering (5.05%)
pulp & paper (2.26%) and textiles (2.07%) industries.
National Water
Policy in draft form.
Water efficiency as a
main concern in it,
including industry
use
28
To obtain full benefits of demographic
dividend, what should India do?
(a) Promoting skill development
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) Privatization of higher education
Economy A E FCA
Economic Survey
EM
b option will not provide any benefit of demographic dividend.
Social security schemes can be used for providing security to non-
working population like old-age pension etc.
c option is one of the Millenium Development Goal, but it does not
provide any benefit of demographic dividend
d option can infact have negative effect as it will make education
costlier thus making it out of reach of a large section of eligible
population
New chapter on
demographic
dividend added in
Economic Survey
29
In the context of cultural history of India, a
pose in dance and dramatics called
‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian
artists from ancient times till today. Which
one of the following statements best
describes this pose?
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly
but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and
make-up are combined to symbolize certain
epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are
used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and
certain hand gestures are emphasized to
express the feelings of love or eroticism
Art/ Culture A M U
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trib
hanga
RR
Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three
bends in the body; at the neck, waist and knee, hence the body is
oppositely curved at waist and neck which gives it a gentle "S"
shape
u.com/features/metr
oplus/travel/rock-of-
eternity/article43401
61.ece
30
Annie Besant was
1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule
Movement
2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
3. Once the President of the Indian National
Congress
Select the correct statement/statements
using the codes given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Modern
History
C M F
NCERT-Modern India
spectrum modern India p-103,
382
EM
Annie Besant was the 1st women President of INC in 1917 Calcutta
Session. Madam Blavatsky and Henry Steel Olcott founded
Theosophical Society.
31
The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a) Imposition of certain restrictions to carry
arms by the Indians
(b) Imposition of restrictions on newspapers
and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) Removal of disqualifications imposed on
the Indian magistrates with regard to the
trial of the Europeans
(d) Removal of a duty on imported cotton
cloth
Modern
History
C E F
NCERT-Modern India
EM
In AD 1883, Lord Ripon’s law member, Sir Ilbert, introduced a bill
which came to be called the Ilbert Bill. It allowed Indian judges to
try the cases involving the Europeans.

8
32
A rise in general level of prices may be
caused by
1. An increase in the money supply
2. A decrease in the aggregate level of
output
3. An increase in the effective demand
given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Economy D E F
NCERT XII-Macro Economics
Page 45
EM
It a direct application based question. 1st statement is correct as
increase in money supply will cause inflation. 2nd and 3rd
statement are obviously correct as they represent supply and
demand side of products
High rate of inflation
in the economy for
quite some time
33
Which one of the following groups of items is
included in India’s foreign-exchange
reserves?
(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing
Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign
countries
(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
the RBI and SDRs
(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the
World Bank and SDRs
(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of
the RBI, and loans from the World Bank
Economy B E F
Economic Survey Para 6.24
EM
India's foreign exchange reserves comprise
foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, special drawing rights (SDRs)
and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the International Monetary
Fund (IMF).
Concerns for India's
balance of payment
and forex reserves as
current account
deficit has risen to
very high levels
34
Which one of the following is likely to be the
most inflationary in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a
budget deficit
(c) Borrowings from banks to finance a
budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget
deficit
Economy D M F
Page 46(I)
EM
b and c option will lead to a decrease in the money supply in
market. Between a and d, d will have more inflationary effect than
a, as it will lead to an increase in total money supply in the market.
Once again, high
Inflation rate in the
economy
35
Supply of money remaining the same when
there is an increase in demand for money,
there will be
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and
employment
Economy B E F
Page 46(I)
EM
Direct application based question. If the demand increase when
the supply is same, it will lead to an increase in prices or in this
case rate of interest to be charged.
36
Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer
storage life because
(a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b) concentration of carbon diodixe in the
environment in increased
(c) rate of respiration in decreased
(d) there is an increase in humidity
Science and
Technology
C M FA
http://www.vtrstorage.com/serv
ices.html
RM Respiration can be controlled by refrigerated storage.
37
Consider the following fauna and India:
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Environment C M FCA
http://indiasendangered.com/th
e-dying-gharials/
http://indiasendangered.com/tu
rtle-nesting-sites-facing-the-
RM
All three are endangered in india and as there is no specific
list(IUCN etc.) is given so option C is correct.

9
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
heat/
http://indiasendangered.com/sw
amp-deer-numbers-increase/
NCERT: Ecology
38
Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc.,
because
(a) the actual area of contact between the
wheel and axle is increased
(b) the effective area of contact between
the wheel and axle is increased
(c) the effective area of contact between the
wheel and axle is reduced
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Science and
Technology
C M U
http://www.ehow.com/how-
does_5032819_ball-bearings-
reduce-friction.html
RR
The roundness of the bearings creates less contact between the
bearing that is trying to move objects and the object being moved.
A reduction in contact area means less friction.
39
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 5
Science and
Technology
C M FA
NCERT Class X: Science chapter
10
EM
Option-1( Size of the sun at dusk) is an optical illusion.
When the sun (or moon) is high in the sky there are no objects of
known size to compare the sun (or moon) to. But when the sun is
low in the sky we can see far off objects near the horizon that we
know are big and we imagine that the sun is even bigger.The
apparent change in size is an optical illusion.
Option-2( Colour of the sun at dawn) is an optical illusion.
Light is made up of lots of colors. And out of all those colors, red is
the one that travels the farthest.That means is that red is the last
color seen, when the sun sets. When the sun is setting, all of those
colors are slower-moving, and it is no longer bright outside,
because the colors are all moving at a separate pace. The other
colors start disappearing, and red (being the fastest), is what is last
seen.
Option-3( Moon being visible at dawn) is NOT an optical illusion.
The moon is visible somewhere in the sky at dawn during the
entire half of the cycle of phases from Full Moon to just before
New Moon.It is not an optical illusion.
Option-4( Twinkle of stars in the sky) is an optical illusion.
Stars continuously emit light. These light travels through various
layers of earth atmosphere before they reach our eyes. Now
refractive index decreases as we move from down through
atmosphere. So light keeps on getting bent towards normal at
each point of incidence. Practically there are infinite points of
incidence as refractive index keeps changing as we move down.
This happens in accordance and finally light reaches our eye. So we
see the star at B but actual position of star is at A. Further
atmospheric conditions keeps on changing. Hence light flux
reaching our eyes keeps varying and so star appears bright at
some time and it appears fade at other. So starts apparently
twinkles but practically they don't.
Option-5( Polestar being visible in the sky) is NOT an optical
illusion.
The sky appears to rotate around points called the celestial poles
(one north pole and one south pole). These points represent the
directions where the Earth's rotation axis points.Thus, for a fixed
observer on Earth, a celestial pole would always be in the same

10
direction (due north or due south, depending where we are), and
its altitude over the horizon would be equal to our latitude.Polaris
is not exactly at the celestial pole; it is less than one degree from it
(so that it is hard to tell the difference without measuring) making
it a good indicator for the pole -- that is why it is called the Pole
Star.
40
Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on
drops of rain. Which of the following physical
phenomena are responsible for this?
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Science and
Technology
D M F
NCERT Class X: Science Page 194
EM
Option:-1
Each individual droplet of water acts as a tiny prism that both
disperses the light and reflects it back to our eye.
Option:-2
Since water is more dense than air, light is refracted as it enters
the drop.
Option:-3
Some of the light will reflect off the back of the drop if the angle is
larger than the critical angle (48° for water).
41
Many transplanted seedlings do not grow
because
(a) the new soil does not contain favourable
minerals
(b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil
too hard
(c) most of the root hairs are lost during
transplantation
(d) leaves get damaged during
transplantation
Science and
Technology
C M U
http://www.northscaping.com/I
ZArticles/TS-0011
RR
Newly transplanted trees or shrubs experience some degree of
transplant shock. This is simply the plant reacting to having been
moved. It is generally caused by damage to the roots of the plant
during the transplant. While the thickest roots are nearest to the
root ball, the most important roots, those that actually "do the
work", are located the farthest away from the plant. These tiny
roots are covered by even tinier hairs which absorb most of the
water that is eventually carried to the top-growth of the plant.
During a transplant, these fine roots are usually destroyed either
by being cut to keep the root ball size down, by drying out (some
accounts say it only takes 3-4 minutes of exposure to air for these
to die), or simply by being jarred and jostled around in the move.
As a result of the loss of these feeder roots, the plant is not able to
draw the amount of moisture it requires to thrive and grow. The
resulting imbalance between the moisture demands of the top-
growth and the reduced ability of the roots to meet those
demands manifests as transplant shock.
42
Economic growth in country X will
necessarily have to occur it
(a) there is technical progress in the world
economy
(b) there is population growth in X
(c) there is capital formation in X
(d) the volume of trade grows in the world
economy
Economy C M FA
Economic Survey
EM
a and d statement does not say anything about the country X, only
the general world economy. In b, if there is population growth
without any avenues for the economy to absorb them, it will have
a deteoriarating effect. c is the most appropriate option, as
whenever there is capital formation in country it will lead to
growth
43
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the
generation of energy
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic
medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one
organism to another by biological vectors
only
Science and
Technology
A M F
NCERT X SCIENCE 93
http://www.news-
medical.net/health/What-is-a-
Virus.aspx
EM
Option 1 is right because viruses do not have the chemical
machinery needed to survive on their own.
Option 2 is wrong because they seek out host cells in which they
can multiply. Viruses can't be grown on synthetic media (e.g. agar
[a type of geletin]) but they can be grown on cultures of bacteria.
Bacteria reproduce and live like any other living organism would, it
takes in nutrients and reproduces using binary fission (like
mitosis).Viruses on the other hand are like little aliens. They really
aren't "living" since they don't absorb nutrients or produce waste.

11
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Rather they hook onto another cell (e.g. a bacterium) and inject
the cell with its own viral genetic code. This code then causes the
cell to produce the multiple copies of the virus, essentially doing
the reproduction for the virus at the cost of its own resources.The
virus can't reproduce itself without another cell to "build" its
copies. Therefore we can't grow a virus on a synthetic media .
Option 3 is also wrong because viruses enter the body from the
environment or other individuals from soil to water to air via nose,
mouth, or any breaks in the skin and seek a cell to infect.
44
Which of the following leaf modifications
occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water
loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography D M F
GC Leong page 136
EM
Plants have few or no leave and foilage is either vaxy hairy or
needle shaped to prevent water loss.
45
The known forces of nature can be divided
into four classes, viz., gravity,
electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and
strong nuclear force. With reference to
them, which one of the following statements
is not correct?
(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles
with an electric charge
(c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
(d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and
neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Science and
Technology
A E FCA
http://library.thinkquest.org/279
30/forces.htm
RM
Gravity, the weakest of the four forces, is about 10^-36 times the
strength of the strong force. This weakness is easily demonstrable
- on a dry day, when we rub a comb across shirt to give it static
electricity and when we hold it over a piece of paper on a desk the
piece of paper lifts off the desk. It takes an entire planet to keep
the paper on the desk, but this force is easily overcome with
everyday materials employing the electromagnetic force.
String Theory was in
news due to Higgs
Boson etc.
46
The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs
boson particle have become frequent news
in the recent past. What is/are the
importance/importances of discovering this
particle?
1. It will enable us to understand as to why
elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to
develop the technology of transferring
matter from one point to another without
traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to crease better fuels for
nuclear mission.
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Science and
Technology
A D CA
http://www.foxnews.com/scienc
e/2013/03/14/6-implications-
finding-higgs-boson-particle/
http://howmanyarethere.net/ho
w-many-new-discoveries-will-
higgs-boson-help-to-make-for-
the-world/
EN
Option 1:-
The Higgs boson has long been thought the key to resolving the
mystery of the origin of mass. The Higgs boson is associated with a
field, called the Higgs field, theorized to pervade the universe. As
other particles travel though this field, they acquire mass much as
swimmers moving through a pool get wet, the thinking goes.
Option 2 and 3 :-(Scientist are not sure about these discoveries yet
so should be considered as Wrong/Doubtful)
How many new discoveries will Higgs Boson help to make for the
world? Higgs Boson is not a main item that will open the way for
teleportation but it will help to understand about mass, item and
travel in time and space. In the close or far future, Higgs Boson
may help us to create an unbelievable energy source.
47
Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in
rehabilitating degraded sites because
Science and
Technology
D D F
http://theearthproject.org/id62.
html
RR
All three options are correct.
Option-1:-

12
mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1. Resist drought and increase absorptive
area
2. Tolerate extremes of pH
3. Resist disease infestation
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
http://www.plosone.org/article/i
nfo%3Adoi%2F10.1371%2Fjourn
al.pone.0048946
http://link.springer.com/article/
10.1007%2FBF01238788
Re-introduction of Arbuscular Mycorrhizal Fungi into agricultural
soils has been shown to increase crop yields in nutrient poor soils,
increase yields for agricultural plants that have large requirement
for nutrients and water, and restore structure and fertility to
degraded soils. The resulting soil structure allows air and water
movement into the soil, encouraging root growth and distribution,
allows intra-aggregate organic matter to be slowly decomposed by
microbes and converted into plant-available nutrients, and makes
the soil less susceptible to wind and water erosion.
Option-2:-
Anthropogenic deposition increases the possibility of phosphorus
(P) limiting productivity in forest ecosystems. Moreover, inorganic
P availability is largely controlled by soil pH and biogeochemical
theory suggests that forests with acidic soils (i.e., <pH 5) are
particularly vulnerable to P limitation. Results from previous
studies in these systems are mixed with evidence both for and
against P limitation. Shifts in mycorrhizal colonization and
community structure help temperate forest ecosystems overcome
an underlying P limitation by accessing mineral and organic P
sources that are otherwise unavailable for direct plant uptake.
Option-3:-
Vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhizae (VAM) enhance plant growth
through increased nutrient uptake, stress tolerance and disease
resistance. As an integral part of the root system, they interact
with other microorganisms in soil and result in increased root
exudation approaching about 25% of the plant dry matter
production. Roots support a multitude of microorganisms that, in
concert, can have profound influence on growth and survival of
the plant. VAM fungi can alter the root exudation pattern,
enhance chitinolytic activity and alter photosynthetic/respiratory
deficiencies. VAM-positive plants are known to exhibit varied
resistance towards soil-borne and foliar pathogens. The known
interactions include a number of mechanisms, such as exclusion of
the pathogen, lignification of plant cell walls, changed phosphate
nutrition resulting in altered exudation by roots, and formation of
inhibitory low molecular weight compounds.
48
Who among the following constitute the
National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
given below.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Polity B E F
EM
In Dec 2012 NDC
meet, Jayalalitha
walked out of the
meeting citing
humiliation
49
The national income of a country for a given
period is equal to the
(a) total value of goods and services
produced by the nationals
Economy A M F
Page 24
EM
NNP at factor cost ≡ National Income (NI )
so A is the best option.
No other option mentions Nationals.

13
(b) sum of total consumption and
investment expenditure
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals
(d) money value of final goods and service
produced
50
Which of the following grants/grant direct
credit assistance to rural households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development
3. Land Development Banks
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Economy C M FCA
Economic Survey
RM
NABARD do not provide direct assistance. It "refinance" the
assistance by other institutions
Capital infusion in
NABARD for financial
year 12-13 to
increase its Net
Owned Fund (NOF)
so that its lending
capacity can increase
51
What will follow if a Money Bill is
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the
Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill
further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for
passing the Bill
Polity A E F
EM
Although Rajya Sabha can't amend or reject the money bill, but it
can make recommendations, which lok sabha may or may not
accept. So statement 1 is correct.
52
Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be
appointed as Governor for two or more
States at the same time.
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the
States in India are appointed by the
Governor of the State just as the Judges of
the Supreme Court are appointed by the
President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the
Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of
majority support
Polity C E F
Statement 1 -
Statement 2 -
Statement 3 -
Statement 4 -
EM
Statement 1 - Same person can be appointed as Governor of two
or more states at the same time.
Statement 2 - Judges of HC are also appointed by President
Statement 4 - In case of UTs, CM is appointed by President.
53
Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
Geographical Feature Region
(a) Abyssinian Plateau Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains North-Western Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands South-Western Africa
(d) Okavango Basin Patagonia
Geography B D F
Refer any standard atlas.
RR

14
54
With reference to the history of Indian rock-
cut architecture, consider the following
statements:
1. The cases at Badami are the oldest
surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut cases were originally
made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta
Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different
faiths.
correct?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Art/ Culture C D F
NIOS Art and Culture(statement
3)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bar
abar_caves
RR
The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India
These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya
period, of Ashoka (r. 273 BC to 232 BC.) and his son, Dasaratha.
hese caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded by
Makkhali Gosala.
Ellora is a World Heritage Site The 12 Buddhist (caves 1–12), 17
Hindu (caves 13–29) and 5 Jain (caves 30–34) caves, built in
proximity, demonstrate the religious harmony prevalent during
this period of Indian history
55
Recombination DNA technology (Genetic
Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Science and
Technology
D E F
Option:-
1(http://www.rpi.edu/dept/che
m-eng/Biotech-
Environ/Projects00/rdna/link3.ht
ml)
Option:-
m-eng/Biotech-
ml)
Option:-
m-eng/Biotech-
ml)
EM
Recombinant DNA is the general name for taking a piece of one
DNA, and
and combining it with another strand of DNA.
All three options in the question are correct.Examples of these
methods are:-
1) The gene 'Chitinase' has source organism 'Rice' and
characteristic conferred on transformed plants is Fungal
resistance.
2)The gene '2'-5' oligoadenylate synthetase' has source organism
'Rat' and characteristic conferred on transformed plants is Virus
resistance .
3)Human Proteins 'Somatostatin' have been synthesized from
genes in bacteria and used in the treatment of Growth disorders.
GM crops in news
and recent report on
them by
Parliamentary
committee
56
The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen
Tsang) who visited India recorded the
general conditions and culture of India at
that time. In this context, which of the
1. The roads and river-routes were
completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences,
ordeals by fire, water and poison were the
instruments for determining the innocence
or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries
and barrier stations.
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ancient India B M F
Ancient Indian History And
Civilization By S. N. Sen Page 258
RR
Violent crime was rare, but the roads and river routes were
exposed to brigands as Hiuen - tsang fell victim to them more than
once. Criminal law was
exceptionally severe. Imprisonment for life was the ordinary
penalty for
violation of the statute law and conspiracy against the sovereign;
prisoners were not treated as human beings. but on festive and
joyous
occasions they were, however, released. The punishment were of
cruel
nature as mutilation of the nose, ears, hands or feet being inflicted
as
the penalty of serious offences. Sometimes the offenders were
deported
to another country. Ordeals by fire, water or poison were
sometimes
taken recourse to establish the innocence or guilt of a person. The
severity of the criminal law acted as a deterrent to violation of law.
57
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
Environment A D FCA
http://www.thehindu.com/news
/cities/Vijayawada/monitor-
lizards-find-their-way-to-
RM
Spider Monkeys live in tropical climates, specifically the evergreen
forests of Central and South America. They can also be found as
far north as Mexico but not in India.

15
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in
India?
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
market/article3745863.ece
58
Which of the following can be found as
pollutants in the drinking water in some
parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
given below.
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Environment C D FCA
http://www.thehindu.com/toda
ys-paper/tp-in-school/punjab-
water-tests-positive-for-
uranium/article3637381.ece
http://www.indianexpress.com/
news/jairam-uranium-in-rural-
punjab-s-drinking-
water/971365/
RM
Punjab is the first state to report presence of uranium in drinking
water in rural areas with almost 70 per cent samples sent to
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) testing positive for
presence of the radioactive material
59
With reference to Indian History, the
Members of the Constituent Assembly from
the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those
Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative
Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their
expertise in constitutional matters
Modern
History
C E F
Page 18, Introduction of the
Constitution of India - DD Basu
EM
The Assembly members were elected to it indirectly by the
members of the individual provincial legislative assemblies.
60
Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are
mammal/mammals?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Environment B D FCA
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/ereleas
e.aspx?relid=93882
http://www.thehindu.com/toda
ys-paper/tp-national/tp-
tamilnadu/call-to-conserve-
dugong/article4186729.ece
http://www.britannica.com/EBc
hecked/topic/530513/sea-cow
http://www.evi.com/q/is_a_sea
horse_a_mammal
http://www.sandiegozoo.org/ani
malbytes/t-sea_lion.html
RM
Mammals are the class of vertebrate animals characterized by the
presence of sweat glands, including sweat glands modified for milk
production, hair, three middle ear bones used in hearing, and a
neocortex region in the brain.
Sea Cow:-
Sea Cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), also called Steller’s sea cow, very
large aquatic mammal.
Sea Horse:-
Sea horse is a vertabrate fish .
Sea Lion:-
It is warm blooded, gives birth to live young, has hair, and the
female produces milk. All these are characteristics of mammals.
Sea Cow(Dugong)
was quite in news
61
1. An amendment to the Constitution of
India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make
changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the amendment also requires
to be ratified by the legislature of all the
States of India.
Polity D E F
Laxmikanth
page 10.1,10.2
EM
Statement 1 - it can be initiated in any house.
Statement 2 - The amendment is required to be ratified by only
not less than half states of India.

16
correct?
62
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok
Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
Polity C E FCA
Laxmikanth
page 42.1
EM He doesn't have right to vote.
Attorney General in
controversy in recent
affidavit by CBI in
Supreme Court
regarding Coal scam
report and
subsequent
resignation letter by
Additional Solicitor
General
63
With reference to the usefulness of the by-
products of sugar industry, which of the
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for
the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the
feedstocks for the production of synthetic
chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production
of ethanol.
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Environment C M CA
http://biomassmagazine.com/art
icles/5247/bagasse-power
http://www.smilinggardener.co
m/organic-fertilizers/molasses-
as-fertilizer
http://sugarcane.org/sugarcane-
products/ethanol
EN
Option 1:-
When burned by a sugar mill, bagasse, the fibrous material
leftover after juice is extracted from sugarcane, usually produces
enough electricity to power all of the mill’s operations and then
some.
Option 2:-
Molasses fertilizer is an organic fertilizer.
Option 3:-
Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel produced by the
fermentation of sugarcane juice and molasses. Sugarcane ethanol
has emerged as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation
sector.
Rangarajan Panel
Report
64
Variations in the length of daytime and
nighttime from season to season are due to
(a) the earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) the earth’s revolution round the sun in
an elliptical manner
(c) latitudinal position of the place
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Geography D E F
Old NCERT Class VI page 25
EM
On its path around the sun, the earth's axis always remains
inclined to one side. Because of this constant inclination in one
direction, the Northern Hemisphere remains inclined towards the
sun or faces the sun during one half of the year. Therefore, a larger
part of this hemisphere receives sunlight. Every point in this
hemisphere takes a longer time to go out of the sunlight, with the
result that the days are longer. In contrast, the Southern
Hemisphere is away from the sun. It, therefore, has shorter days
and longer nights. During the other half of the year, the Southern
Hemisphere is inclined towards the sun. Hence, it has longer days
and shorter nights.
65
The Narmada river flows to the west, while
most other large peninsular rivers flow to the
east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central
India.
Geography A D F
page 27
EM
The Narmada and the Tapi flow through the rift valley. Statement
3 is wrong as land slopes to the east in the region. Statement 2 is
factually correct however, is not the reason for the rivers to flow
to the west.

17
given below.
66
On the planet earth, most of the freshwater
exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the
remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and
clouds
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) exists as groundwater
(d) exists as soil moisture
Environment C E F
NCERT Ecology and Environment
page 281
EM
67
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Garo Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake Barail Range
3. Namdapha National Park Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Geography A M F
Page 18,35 Orient Black Swan
School Atlas
RM
68
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for
bringing dynamic changes on the surface of
the earth?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Geography D M FA
NCERT FUNDAMENTALS OF
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY Chapter 6
- Geomorphic Processes
RR
Electro-magnetic radiation causes temperature change which
induces metamorphism of rocks. Gravity besides being a
directional force activating all downslope movements of matter
also causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Plate movement
results into continent building. The energy emanating from within
the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic
processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity,
rotational and tidal friction and primordial heat from the origin of
the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow
from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the
lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat
flowfrom within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of
endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically
controlled original crustal surface is uneven.
69
Which of the following bodies does not/do
not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Polity D E F
Laxmikanth
http://www.mha.nic.in/uniquep
age.asp?ID_PK=470
EM
NDC and Planning Commission are non-constitutional and non-
statutory bodies while Zonal councils were set up vide Part-III of
'States Re-organisation Act, 1956'
70
The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant
Movement in Bengal was for
(a) the reduction of the share of the
landlords from one-half of the crop to one-
third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to
peasants as they were the actual cultivators
of the land.
Modern
History
A D F
Spectrum Modern India P-387
EM
The Tebhaga movement was a militant campaign initiated in
Bengal by the Kisan Sabha (peasants front of Communist Party of
India) in 1946. At that time share-cropping peasants (essentially,
tenants) had to give half of their harvest to the owners of the land.
The demand of the Tebhaga (sharing by thirds) movement was to
reduce the share given to landlords to one third.

18
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and
the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts
71
The Parliament can make any law for whole
or any part of India for implementing
International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of
States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Polity D E F
Laxmikanth Page 13.4
EM Article 253
72
In the grasslands, trees do not replace the
grasses as a part of an ecological succession
because of
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
Environment C E F
http://www.sparknotes.com/tes
tprep/books/sat2/biology/chapt
er10section4.rhtml
http://gerrymarten.com/human-
ecology/chapter06.html
EM
Ecological succession typically begins when the existing biological
community has been cleared away by human activity or natural
disturbance such as a fire or severe storm.
The population of trees that once lived in this area can’t grow back
because the fire has changed the ground composition. Without
tree roots to act as anchors, rain washes away the soil and the
ground becomes rocky and barren. This rocky ground, however,
proves ideal to lichens, the pioneer population. Mosses and herbs
are well suited to living in the shallow soil environment created by
the lichen, and they replace the lichen as the dominant
population.
Grasses intercept most of the rainwater before it reaches the roots
of the shrubs. Because the grasses limit the supply of water to the
shrub seedlings, they maintain the integrity of the ecosystem as a
grass ecosystem.
73
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of ecosystems in the order of
decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Environment C M F
http://universalium.academic.ru
/295220/Average_net_primary_
production_of_the_Earth%27s_
major_habitats RM
Mangroves-2500
Grassland-500
Lakes-500
Open Ocean-125
74
Contour bunding is a method of soil
conservation used in
(a) desert margins, liable to strong wind
action
(b) low flat plains, close to stream courses,
liable to flooding
(c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed
growth
Geography D E F
Environmental Studies for
Undergraduate Courses by Erach
Barucha page 29
EM
Contour bunding (or contour bundling), involves the placement of
lines of stones along the natural rises of a landscape. It helps to
capture and hold rainfall before it can become runoff, which
reduces soil erosion and retards overall water loss
75
The Government enacted, the Panchayat
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in
1996. Which one of the following is not
identified as its objective?
(a) To provided self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal
areas
Polity C E F
http://socialissuesindia.files.wor
dpress.com/2011/08/pesa_act_1
996.pdf
page 8-9
EM
Since the laws do not automatically cover the scheduled
areas, the PESA Act was enacted to enable the law in these areas.
The Act extended the provisions of Panchayats to the tribal areas
of nine states that have Fifth Schedule Areas. Most of the North
eastern states under Sixth Schedule Areas (where autonomous
councils exist) are not covered by PESA, as these states have their
own Autonomous councils for governance.

19
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
76
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the
authority to initiate the process for
determining the nature and extent of
individual or community forest rights or
both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development
Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Polity D E FCA
http://www.fra.org.in/laws/fra0
6.pdf
Chapter IV clause 6(I)
RM
SC judgement in April
regarding role of
Gram Sabha in
Vedanta Mining case
in Odisha under
Forest Rights Act and
PESA Act.
77
Improper handling and storage of cereal
grains and oilseeds result in the production
of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not
generally destroyed by normal cooking
process. Aflatoxins are produced by
(a) bacteria (b) protozoa
(c) moulds (d) viruses
Environment C D CA
In News
Business Standard: EU may ban
Indian groundnut imports due to
aflatoxin
The Hindu: Maize should not be
included in PDS
RR
Aflatoxins are naturally occurring mycotoxins that are produced by
many species of Aspergillus, a fungus.
The term "mould" is a common name having no
taxonomic significance. It is applied to a variety of fungi which
grow as semi-microscopic organisms, and whose mycelium tends
to
form a loose meshwork rather than a dense tissue.
78
‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of
the Indian Constitutional has been provided
in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental
Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles
of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Rights and the Directive Principles of State
Policy
Polity B E F
Laxmikant page 4.3
Laxmikant Page 8.5
EM
Directive Principles strive for the 'economic democracy/justice'
while Fundamental rights strive for 'Political democracy/justice'
79
Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of
hold and used computers or their parts,
which of the following are released into the
environment as e-waste?
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium
given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Environment B M F
http://www.mvonederland.nl/sit
es/default/files/makeitfair-
metalsusedinapc-2010.pdf
http://www.mnn.com/earth-
matters/translating-uncle-
sam/stories/which-household-
items-contain-mercury
EM
Beryllium is used in circuit board, Hard disk drive, Motherboard,
Wiring board and Connectors.So Option C is wrong.
Mercury is a key part of some modern technologies, including LCD
screens ,Laptop and computers so Option A is also wrong.
Heptachlor is an organochlorine compound that was used as an
insecticide. So Option D is also wrong.
If initially we are sure about Heptachlor then we can easily
eliminate A,C and D.
So correct answer is B.
80
Acid rain is caused by the pollution of
environment by
Environment D E F
http://www.air-
quality.org.uk/15.php
EM
Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides both combine with water in
the atmosphere to create acid rain.

20
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
81
With reference to food chains in ecosystems,
1. A food chains illustrates the order in which
a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the
populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of
each organism which are eaten by others.
correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Environment A E F
http://www.enchantedlearning.c
om/subjects/foodchain/
EM
A food chain is the sequence of who eats whom in a biological
community (an ecosystem) to obtain nutrition.
82
National Park River flowing through the
Park
1. Corbett National Park Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park Kaveri
mached?
Geography D M FCA
http://enchantingkerala.org/ker
ala-wildlife-sanctuaries/silent-
valley-national-
park.phphttp://www.jimcorbett
nationalpark.com/rivers-corbett-
national-park-india.htm
RM
Ramganga, a tributary of Ganga passes through Corbett NP but
Ganga does. Kaveri and Manas also do not pass through Silent
valley and Kaziranga NP respectively.
Recently there were
floods in Kaziranga
83
Consider the following organisms:
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as
biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only Environment B D F
http://www.hindu.com/thehind
u/seta/2002/04/04/stories/2002
040400120400.htm
http://www.preservearticles.co
m/2012042731295/get-
complete-information-on-
biofertilizers.html
RR
Agaricus:-
Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms containing both edible and
poisonous species, with possibly over 300 members worldwide.
Nostoc:-
Bioinoculants are the microbial preparations that enhance the
uptake of nutrients by plants from the soil, increase the avaliability
of the nutrients and stimulate plant growth.
There are two types of organisms which are used as inoculants:
symbiotic organisms (such as Rhizobium, Synorhizobium,
Bradyrhizobium, Nostoc, Anabaena, etc.) and non-symbiotic
organisms (such as Azotobacter, Azospirilum, Beijerinckia, etc.)
Spirogyra:-
Spirogyra is a genus of filamentous green algae of the order
Zygnematales, named for the helical or spiral arrangement of the
chloroplasts that is diagnostic of the genus.
84
Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to
the soil?
1. Excretion of urea by animals
2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography C M F
Page 60 Environmental Studies
for Undergraduate Courses by E.
Barucha
EM
Carnivorous animals feed on herbivorous animals that live on
plants. When animals defecate, this waste material is broken down
by worms and insects mostly beetles and ants. These small ‘soil
animals’ break the waste material into smaller bits on which
microscopic bacteria and fungi can act. This material is thus broken
down
further into nutrients that plants can absorb and use for their
growth. Thus nutrie nts are recycled back from animals to plants.
Similarly the bodies of dead animals are also broken down into

21
nutrients that are used by the plants for their growth. Thus the
nitrogen cycle on which life is dependent is completed. Statement
2 is wrong as burning of coal does not produce Nitrogen of its
compounds.
85
In which of the following States is lion-tailed
macaque found in its natural habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
given below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Environment A M CA
tech/energy-and-
environment/liontailed-
macaque-taken-off-top-25-
endangered-
list/article3999612.ece
http://silentvalley.gov.in/lion_tai
led_macaque.html
EN
The liontailed macaque is one of the most endangered primates
of India , confined in distribution to the rainforests of southern
Western Ghats. Habitat specialists , they have adapted
themselves to the evergreen environments available in the south
Indian states of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Lion-tailed macaque
taken off ‘top 25’
endangered list
86
Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called
Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas.
What is the difference between the two?
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while
Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while
Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the
cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between
the two
Art/ Culture B E F
11 th Ancient NCERT by R S
Sharma P-159
RM
87
Which one of the following describes best
the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) A state of bliss and rest
(d) A mental stage beyond all
comprehension
Art/ Culture A M F
NIOS art and Culture Page 122
RM
Buddha did not define Nirvana, as a state possessing few
characteristics. Buddhism defines Nirvana as being free from
desire, pain, pleasure etc. It is like an extinction of flame
88
According to the Constitution of India, which
of the following are fundamental for the
governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
Duties
Polity C E F
Laxmikant Page 8.1
EM
Article 37 says that Directive Principles are fundamental for the
governance of country
89
The people of India agitated against the
arrival of Simon Commission because
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the
working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended the
abolition of Dyarchyh (Diarchy) in the
Provinces
(c) There was no Indian member in the
Simon Commission
(d) The Simon Commission suggested the
Modern
History
C E F
Spectrum Modern India p- 157
EM

22
partition of the country
90
Quit India Movement was launched in
response to
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan
Modern
History
B E F
Spectrum Modern India p- 205
EM
The Cripps Mission Proposal , which included terms like
establishment of Dominion, establishment of a Constituent
Assembly and right of the Provinces to make separate
constitutions, These would be, however, granted after the
cessation of the Second World War,So fail to satisfy Indian
Nationalists. According to the Congress this Declaration only
offered India a promise that was to be fulfilled in the future.
Commenting on this Gandhi said; "It is a post dated cheque on a
crashing bank and in CWC meeting at wardha july 1942 accepted
the idea of Struggle
91
The balance of payments of a country is a
systematic record of
(a) all import and export transactions of a
country during a given period of time,
normally a year
(b) goods exported from a country during a
year
(c) economic transaction between the
government of one country to another
(d) capital movements from one country to
another
Economy A E F
NCERT Class XII:
Macroeconomics Page 77
EM
The balance of payments (BoP) record the transactions in goods,
services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of
the world for a specified time period typically a year.
so best option is A.
92
The Reserve Bank of India regulates the
commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks
given below:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Economy D M FCA
NCERT Class XII:
Instruments of Monetary Policy
and the Reserve Bank of India
+
RBI, CCI to vet all banking
mergers | Business Standard
RM
All statemets are implied from the fact that RBI is regulator of
Banks. One could think that merger might come under CCI only but
its comes both under CCI and RBI.
1. CRR, SLR etc.
2.
Press Information Bureau English ReleasesAs per Reserve Bank of
India’s (RBI) Branch Authorisation Policy, general permission has
been granted to domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks (other
than RRBs) to open branches / mobile branches / Administrative
Offices / CPCs (Service Branches), (i) in Tier 3 to Tier 6 centres
(with population up to 49,999) and (ii) in rural, semi-urban and
urban centres of the North-Eastern States and Sikkim subject to
reporting. Opening of branches by these banks in Tier 1 and Tier 2
centres (centres with population of 50,000 and above) requires
prior approval of RBI except in North Eastern States and Sikkim.
Banks apply for authorisations for opening of branches in Tier 1
and Tier 2 centres in their Annual Branch Expansion Plan.
3. Mergers and acquisitions (M&As) in the banking space may
require clearance from fair market watchdog, Competition
Commission of India (CCI), as well as the sector regulator, Reserve
Bank of India (RBI). Earlier, the indications were that only
involuntary mergers and acquisitions, the ones directed by the RBI,
would go to the central bank along with the CCI. However, all
mergers and acquisitions may now come under both. While the
CCI will look at the competition part of such deals, the RBI will see
prudential aspects.
4. RBI issued order to windup few banks in recent past. ( Sahara
India Financial Corp (SIFCL), the parabanking arm of Sahara India
Banking Laws
Amendment Act
which incresed the
regulating powers of
RBI

23
Pariwar, Siddharth Cooperative Bank, some Banks from Gujarat).
Implied from deposit insurance and credit guarantee corporation
(DICGC) scheme.
93
An increase in the Bank Rate generally
indicates that the
(a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to
commercial banks
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money
policy
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money
policy
Economy D E F
NCERT Class XII:
EM
a is wrong, as increase in bank rate generally implies an increase in
RoI. b is obviously wrong. c is wrong as in easy money policy,
central bank provides money at a cheaper rate so that market
supply can increase
94
In India, deficit financing is used for raising
resources for
(a) economic development
(b) redemption of public debt
(c) adjusting the balance of payments
(d) reducing the foreign debt
Economy A E F
Page
Economic Survey
RM
Stimulus packages
were quite in news
since economic
slowdown.
95
Which of the following
characterizes/characterize the people of
Indus Civilization?
1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female
deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in
warfare.
Select the correct statement/statements
using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above is
correct
Ancient India B M F
11th Ancient NCERT BY R S
SHARMA P - 61, 62
EM
96
Which of the following diseases can be
transmitted from one person to another
through tattooing?
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Science and
Technology
B M FCA
https://www.msu.edu/~krcmari
1/individual/get_health.html
EN
Currently there are some 200+ communicable diseases that can be
transmitted through tattooing.
Hepatitis B:- Hepatitis B and C can lead to serious, permanent liver
damage and are known to be transmittable through tattooing.
Hepatitis can survive outside its host for up to two weeks and can
resists most normal forms of disinfection. Also, studies show that
the ratio of hepatitis transmission through accidental needle stick
is much greater than that of HIV. About one in five as opposed to
one in 200 for HIV.
HIV/AIDS:- The term needle in tattooing is a misnomer since
tattoos are not applied by needles but rather with pins. A needle is
typically a hollow core implement that is used primarily for
intravenous injections such as a syringe or IV needle. Tattoo
'needles' are solid core and push the ink into the skin rather than
inject it. This requires that the ink, and any contaminated blood
mixed with it, must adhere to the outside surface of the pins
causing the virus to come into contact with the open air.
New vaccine
candidate for
Chikungunya virus
found
(http://www.indiane
xpress.com/news/ne
w-vaccine-candidate-
for-chikungunya-
virus-
found/1078190/)
Indian
Immunologicals
developing vaccine
for
chikungunya(http://
www.thehindubusin
essline.com/compani

24
es/indian-
immunologicals-
developing-vaccine-
for-
chikungunya/article2
875901.ece)
97
applicable to Jain doctrine?
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to
practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle
has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be
ended.
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Art/ Culture D E F
NIOS art and Culture
http://www.jainworld.com/pdf/J
AINA_DOCTRINE_OF_KARMA.pd
f p- 1 to 7
RM
98
Which one of the following terms describes
not only the physical space occupied by an
organism, but also its functional role in the
community of organisms?
(a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat (d) Home range
Environment B E F
http://www.biology-
online.org/dictionary/Ecological_
Niche
EM
The ecological niche is the ecological role and space that an
organism fills in an ecosystem.The ecological niche involves both
the place where an organism lives and the roles that an organism
does in its habitat. For example, the ecological niche of a
sunflower growing in the backyard includes absorbing light, water
and nutrients (for photosynthesis), providing shelter and food for
other organisms (e.g. bees, ants, etc.), and giving off oxygen into
the atmosphere.
99
Photochemical smog is a resultant of the
reaction among
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in
the evening
Environment A M F
Page 312
EM
Major Chemical Pollutants in Photochemical Smog: -
1)Nitrogen Oxides(NO and NO2)
2)Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
3)Ozone (O3)
4)Peroxyacetyl Nitrates (PAN)
100
Consider the following minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are
required by human body for the contraction
of muscles?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Science and
Technology
D D F
http://healthyeating.sfgate.com/
minerals-contract-muscle-
6293.html
http://www.livestrong.com/artic
le/484418-what-minerals-
contract-a-muscle/
RR
Calcium:-
Calcium is essential for activating enzymes which cause muscle
contraction.
Iron:-
Iron helps support continued muscle function by supporting
energy production in your muscle cells, so that muscle fibers
always have the energy they need to contract properly. Iron also
helps muscles store oxygen to fuel muscle contractions, and
promotes healthy circulation so that muscles can get additional
oxygen from bloodstream.
Sodium:-
One need sodium for muscle contraction because it balances
potassium to maintain membrane potential.

25
Observations
• Paper is almost on the same lines as previous year. Importance of Ecology,
Economy and Culture is increasing every year. Geography is almost constant but
modern India has incurred losses.
• Question in Economy, Polity and History are basic and easy-medium difficulty
questions. Science, Culture & Geography questions are medium to difficult level. In
addition, less ambiguous questions this time compared to last year. So average score
should be more in this paper compared to last year but not too much.
• Direct current affairs is losing significance but even then half of the fundamental
questions looks inspired by current happenings. Moreover, backgrounder of current
affairs are becoming important. (Coal scam is of no use but properties of Indian coal
are important. Recommendation of Rangarajan Panel on Sugar decontrol are not
important but use of sugar by product is important. )
Recommendations
• Read basic books properly. (more than 60% from basic books)
• Think, compare and contrast concepts.(Virus vs Bacteria as decomposer;
Transmission of chikungunya vs Hepatitis B; )
• Familiarize yourself with keywords you encounter while reading basic books as well
as current affairs(contour bunding, Demographic Dividend, disguised unemployment )
• Relate current affairs with basic topic keeping question in mind. Understand the
significance of news.
• Do not take anything for granted. UPSC can change anytime. So prioritize studies but
do not neglect any section/topic.

© VISION IAS
Nature Count
CA 4
F 71
FA 4
FCA 18
U 3
Grand Total 100
4%
18%
© VISION IAS www.visionias.in www.visionias.wordpress.com
4%
71%
3%
Nature
Difficulty
D
E
M
Grand
Total
CA
F
FA
FCA
U
Difficulty Count
24
38
38
Grand
100
38%
Difficulty
24%
38%
Difficulty
26
D
E
M

© VISION IAS
Topic Count
ancient
India 2
Art/culture 8
Economy 18
Environment 17
Geography 20
Modern
History 6
Polity 17
Science and
Technology 12
Grand Total 100
F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly recommended
books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it indicate that you had one more reason to prepare this
topic.
FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which require information + application of mind.
Answer to these question are from commonly recommended books but not so obvious to find.
CA: Current affair question which can be answered almost completely using
CAA(Current affair Applied): Current affair question which needs information from more than one source to
answer AND/OR application of mind(common sense and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is why source
for these question may not be answering question completely.
FCA(Fundamental + Current affair):
affairs question that needs background information for complete answer. Source to these question might not
answer question in entirety.
U(unconventional question): unconventional question means the question that is distantly related to syllabus
provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even reference sources(in addition to recommended books) nor
prominently in news.
Geography
Modern History
6%
Polity
17%
Science and
Technology
12%
© VISION IAS www.visionias.in www.visionias.wordpress.com
Nature of Question
, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly recommended
pplied question is an analytical question which require information + application of mind.
Current affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source alone.
Current affair question which needs information from more than one source to
not be answering question completely.
FCA(Fundamental + Current affair): This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs or a current
unconventional question means the question that is distantly related to syllabus
ancient
India
2%
Art/culture
8%
Economy
18%
Environment
17%
Geography
20%
Science and
Technology
12%
Sections
EM = Essential material like basic books etc.
RM = Reference material
EN = Essential News/Current Affairs
RR = Random Read like random website etc.
E : Easy , M : Medium , D : Difficult
, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly recommended
pplied question is an analytical question which require information + application of mind.
given source alone.
Current affair question which needs information from more than one source to
This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs or a current
unconventional question means the question that is distantly related to syllabus
Source
Type
EM
EN
RM
RR
Grand Total
ancient India
Art/culture
Economy
Environment
Geography
Modern History
Polity
Essential material like basic books etc.
Random Read like random website etc.
Source
Count
61
4
24
11
Grand Total 100
EN
4%
RM
24%
RR
11%
SOURCE TYPE
EM
61%
SOURCE TYPE
EM
EN
RM
RR
27
EM
EN
RM
RR

28
Row Labels
Count
of
Answer
ancient India 2
EM 1
RR 1
Art/culture 8
EM 1
RM 5
RR 2
Economy 18
EM 14
RM 4
Environment 17
EM 8
EN 2
RM 5
RR 2
Geography 20
EM 12
RM 6
RR 2
Modern
History 6
EM 6
Polity 17
EM 15
RM 2
Science and
Technology 12
EM 4
EN 2
RM 2
RR 4
Grand Total 100
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
EM RR EM RM RR EM RM EM EN RM RR EM RM RR EM EM RM EM EN RM RR
ancient India Art/culture Economy Environment Geography Modern HistoryPolity Science and Technology
Section by Source Type
Total
Copyright©2012 , by Vision IAS
All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical,
photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS .
By Team Vision IAS
NATURE : Flexible, cyclic, Personalized Interactive Discussion TIMING: 10 AM , Every day of the week
Contact No. : 09650617807 , 09968029039 Email : ajay.visionias@gmail.com & ajay_uor@yahoo.com
Special Note: For more details & in-depth analysis of any section of General Studies Prelim paper or any other clarification regarding
this strategic analysis paper please mail us.

1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
“The significant problems we face can not be solved at the same level of thinking we were at when we created them." - Albert
Einstein
- TEAM VISION IAS
• The analysis is based on premise that UPSC wants to identify aspirants with certain skills and aptitude required to function as a
good administrator. UPSC does not explicitly describe these skills so we infer them from Syllabus, Question Paper and feedback
of experts and students.
• This analysis is an attempt to quantify the subjective understanding and make explicit the implicit.
• We have inferred some conclusions from these stats but you are free to infer differently. Moreover independent/impartial
thinking is one of the qualities expected in administrators.
Q.N. Section Question
A
n
s
w
e
r
L
e
v
e
l
Nat
ure
Source
Sourc
e
Type
Explanation Motivation / observation
1 Culture
In Medival India, the designations
'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for
(a) military officers (b)
village officers
(c) specialists in Vedic rituals
(d) chiefs of craft guilds
B D U
Administrative
System in India:
Vedic Age to 1947
By U. B. Singh
Page 47
RR
2
Science
and
Technology
Lichens, which are capable of initiating
ecolological succession even on a bare
rock, are actually a symbiotic association
B E F
12th NCERT,
Biology, Unit 10,
Chapter 13
EM
Lichens represent an intimate
mutualistic relationship between a
fungus and photosynthesising algae
www.visionias.in

of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses
or cyanobacteria.
3 Geography
If you travel through the Himalayas, you
are likely to see which of the following
plants naturally growing there ?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D D F
NCERTClass XI:
INDIA : PHYSICAL
ENVIRONMENT
page 59, 60
EM
Sandalwood trees are found in
foothills of Himalayas. (NCERT)The
Moist deciduous forests are more
pronounced in the regions which
record rainfall between 100-200
cm. These forests are found in the
northeastern states along the
foothills of Himalayas, eastern
slopes of the Western Ghats and
Orissa. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra,
mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and
sandalwood etc. are the main
species of these forests.
All three we can observe
altitude wise so answer D is
also True
4
Environme
nt
Which of the following are some
important pollutants released by steel
industry in India ?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxide of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
given below.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D M F
http://www.ilo.or
g/oshenc/part-
xi/iron-and-
steel/item/593-
environmental-
and-public-health-
issues
EM
Coal Kills
An Assessment of Death and
Disease caused by India’s
Dirtiest Energy Source by
Greenpeache (Reported in
The Hindu March 11 2013)
5 Culture
Which of the following Kingdoms were
associated with the life of the Buddha ?
1. Avanti 2. Gandhara
3. Kosala 4. Magadha
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
D D F
The wonder that
was India-A L
Basham, chapter-
1, ancient and
medieval emipres-
the age of the
Buddha
http://www.palika
non.com/english/
pali_names/ay/av
anti.htm
RM
It is said that when Pajjota heard of
the Buddha's advent to the world,
he sent his chaplain's son, Kaccāna,
with seven others, to invite him to
Avanti. According to a late tradition
recorded in the Buddhavamsa
(Bu.xxviii.10), the Buddha's mat
(nisīdana) and rug were deposited,
after his death, in Avanti.
It was during Ashoka's time that
Buddism spread to Gandhara.
6 Culture
Every year, a month long ecologically
important campaign/festival is held
B D CA
http://www.thehi
ndu.com/todays-
EN

during which certain communities/tribes
plant samplings of fruit-bearing trees.
Which of the following are such
communities/tribes ?
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha
(b) Gond and Korku
(c) Irula and Toda
(d) Sahariya and Agariya
paper/tp-
miscellaneous/tp-
others/their-own-
green-
revolution/article3
823031.ece
7 Polity
The sales tax you pay while purchasing a
toothpaste is a
(a) Tax imposed by the Central
Government
(b) Tax imposed by the central
Government but collected by the State
Government.
(c) Tax imposed by the State
Government but collected by the
Central Government.
(d) Tax imposed and collected by the
State Government.
D E F
Laxmikanth, D.D
Basu- Page 352
EM
The power to impose taxes on 'sale
of purchase of goods other than
newspaper' belongs to State (Entry
list 54, State II)
8 Economy
What does venture capital mean ?
(a) A short-term capital provided to
industries
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided
to new entrepreneurs
(c) Funds provided to industries at times
of incurring losses.
(d) Funds provided for replacement and
renovation of industries.
B M F
Internet
http://www.invest
opedia.com/terms
/v/venturecapital.
asp EM
9 Economy
The main objective of the 12th Five-Year
Plan is
(a) inclusive growth and poverty
reduction.
(b) inclusive and sustainable growth
(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to
reduce unemployment
(d) faster, sustainable and more
inclusive growth.
D E CA
12th FYP, Current
Affairs
EM
Self Explanatory
10 Economy
With reference to Balance of Payments,
which of the following constitutes/
constitute the Current Account ?
1. Balance of trade 2.
C M F
NCERT Economics,
Uma Kapila
EM
Current account includes balance of
trade (exports-imports), net
remittances, Trade in services. SDRs
count as foreign assets

Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
11 Economy
The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility
Rate' and 'Net Demand and Time
Liabilities', sometimes appearing in
news, are used in relation to
(a) banking operations
(b) communications networking
(c) military strategies
(d) supply and demand of agricultural
products
A E CA
The Hindu,
Current Affairs,
Uma Kapila
EN
MSF came into effect from 9th May
2011. MSF scheme is provided by
RBI by which the banks can borrow
overnight upto 1 per cent of their
net demand and time liabilities
(NDTL) i.e. 1 per cent of the
aggregate deposits and other
liabilities of the banks.
Marginal Standing Facility
(MSF) is a new scheme
announced by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) in its
Monetary Policy (2011-12),
Hence it was important.
12 Economy
What is/are the facility/facilities the
beneficiaries can get from the services
of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi)
in branchless areas ?
1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw
their subsidies and social security
benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the
rural areas to make deposits and
withdrawals.
given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 4
C M CA
Current Affairs,
Government
Schemes, India
Year Book
EN
BCs are being used under the
Swabhimaan scheme for both the
purposes
13 Economy
In the context of Indian economy which
of the following is/are the
purpose/purposes of 'Statutory Reserve
Requirements'?
1. To enable the Central Bank to control
the amount of advances the banks can
create.
2. To make the people's deposits with
banks safe and liquid.
3. To prevent the commercial banks
from making excessive profits.
B M F
NCERT Economics
EM
A statutory reserve is an amount of
cash a financial institution, such as
a bank, credit union, or insurance
company, must keep on hand to
meet the obligations incurred by
virtue of accepting deposits and
premium payments. The statutory
reserves required of banks and
credit unions are generally set by
the nation's central bank, and those
required of insurance companies
RBI notified Liquidity Coverage
Ratio(LCR) rules w.r.t. Basel III

4. To force the banks to have sufficient
vault cash to meet their day-to-day
requirements.
given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
are set by statute or regulation by
the national, state or provincial
government or regulatory
authority. Calculated in various
ways, statutory reserves are
required to ensure that financial
institutions are capable of paying
claims even in a calamitous
situation.
14
Current
Affairs
Recently, a series of uprisings of people
referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally
started from
(a) Egypt (b) Lebanon
(c) Syria (d) Tunisia
D M CA
Current Affairs,
THE HINDU
EN
Arab Spring began with the
overthrow of ruler Tunisia, Ben Ali
who fled to Saudi Arabia
Arab Spring was in news since
last 3 years
15
Current
Affairs
Consider the following countries :
1. Denmark 2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of
the 'Arctic Council' ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
D M CA
Current Affairs,
THE HINDU
EN
Arctic council and surrounding
controversy had a lot of
coverage in national dalies
16
Current
Affairs
Consider the following pairs :
Region often in news Country
1. Chechnya : Russian Federation
2. Darfur : Mali
3. Swat Valley : Iraq
matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A M CA
Current Affairs,
THE HINDU, Indian
Express
EN
All regions are affected by some
conflict, DARFUR is in Sudan, Swat
Valley is in Pakistan
17
Science
and
Technology
With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which
of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. It is surface-to surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear
warheads about 7500km away.
given below.
A E CA
Current Affairs,
THE Hindu, India
Year Book
EN
AGNI IV has a range of about 4000
km with 1 tonne nuclear head. Has
two stages of Solid Propulsion

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
18
Current
Affairs
With reference to two non-conventional
energy sources called 'coalbed methane'
and 'shale gas', consider the following
statements :
1. Coalbed methane is the pure
methane gas extracted from coal seams,
while shale gas is a mnixture of propane
and butane only that can be extracted
from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India, abundant coalbed methane
sources exist, but so far no shale gas
sources have been found.
Which of the statements given
D M CA
http://archive.indi
anexpress.com/ne
ws/cambay-
project-puts-
gujarat-on-global-
shale-gas-
map/1200028/
EN
Shale gas deposits in India have
been in news. Shale gas is a
mixture of Methane, Propane and
many other gases
19 Geography
With reference to 'Changpa' community
of India, consider the following
statements :
1. They live mainly in the State of
Uttarakhand
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that
yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of
Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B D CA
http://pib.nic.in/n
ewsite/PrintReleas
e.aspx?relid=1026
81
EN
Changpa Tribe belong to Ladakh
region of Jammu and Kashmir
J&K’s tableau during republic
day parade showcased the
nomadic culture of the state,
depicting Gujjar-Bakkarwal of
Kashmir, Gaddi of Jammu
region and the Changpa tribe
from Ladakh. Changpas have
the unique distinction of being
allowed to move freely
amongst the borders of India
and China and are keepers of
the Pashmina goat from
where the famed Pashmina
wool is sourced. “Shawls are
so fine that they can be pulled
through a tiny ring hole,”
20
Current
Affairs
In India, cluster bean (Guar) is
traditionally used as a vegetable or
animal feed, but recently the cultivation
of this has assumed significance. Which
one of the following statements is
correct in this context ?
(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used
in the manufacture of biodegradable
plastics.
B M CA
Current Affairs,
THE HINDU, Indian
Express, Science
Reporter
EN
Shale gas has been in news a
lot recently

(b) The gum made from its seeds is used
in the extraction of shale gas
(c) The leaf extract of this plant has the
properties of anti-histamines.
(d) It is a source of high quality
biodiesel.
21
Modern
Indian
History
The Partition of Bengal made by Lord
Curzon in 1905 lasted until
(a) The First World War when Indian
troops were needed by the British and
the partition was ended.
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon's
Act as the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil
Disobedience Movement.
(d) The Partition of India in 1947 when
East Bengal became East Pakistan.
B E F
Modern India (Old
NCERT - 12th class
by Bipin Chandra)
EM
22
Modern
Indian
History
The 1929 Session of Indian National
Congress is on significance in the history
of the Freedom Movement because the
(a) attainment of Self-Government was
declared as the objective of the
Congress.
(b) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was
adopted as the goal of the Congress.
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was
launched.
(d) Decision to participate in the Round
Table Conference in London was taken.
B E F
Modern India (Old
NCERT - 12th class
by Bipin Chandra)
EM
23 Culture
With reference to the famous Sattriya
dance, consider the following
statements :
1. Sattriya is a combination of music,
dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of
Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas
of devotional songs composed by
Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.
is/are correct ?
B D F
http://ccrtindia.go
v.in/sattriya.php
RM
The Sattriya form uses a variety of
hand gestures and foot positions. It
also has its own style of music,
based on classical ragas and the
talas (rhythm) of borgeets
(devotional songs composed by
Sankardeva and Madhavdeva) and
the songs of the one-act-plays.
http://www.frontline.in/static
/html/fl2719/stories/2010092
4271906400.htm

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24 Culture
Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based
on the Saka Era corresponds to which
one of the following dates of the
Gregorian calendar in a normal year of
365 days ?
(a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
(c) 21st March (or 30th March)
(d) 21st April (or 20th April)
A D F
India Year Book
EM
25 Culture
With reference to the Indian history of
art and culture, consider the following
pairs :
Famous work of sculpture : Site
1. A grand image of Buddha's
Mahaparinirvana with numerous
celestial musicians above and the
sorrowful figures of his followers below
: Ajanta
2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar
incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues
Goddess Earth from the deep and
chaotic waters, sculpted on rock.
: Mount Abu
3."Arjuna's Penance"/ "Descent of
Ganga" sculpted on the surface of huge
boulders : Mamallapuram
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D U
The wonder that
was India-A L
Basham, chapter-
8, The Arts, page
373 and 374 for
parts 2 and 3. For
1, refer to cave 26
in
http://asi.nic.in/as
i_monu_whs_ajan
ta_caves.asp RM
varah avtaar sculpture is at
udayagiri caves near Bhilsa.
26
Modern
Indian
History
The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
(a) revolutionary association of Indians
with headquarters at San Francisco.
(b) nationalist organization operating
from Singapore.
(c) militant organisation with
headquarters at Berlin
(d) Communist movement for India's
freedom with head-quarters at
Tashkent.
A E F
Modern India (Old
NCERT - 12th class
by Bipin Chandra)
EM

27 Culture
With reference to India's culture and
tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu'?
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of
Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of
South India.
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and
brasswork still found in southern part of
Coromandel area.
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama
and a living tradition in the northern
part of Malabar.
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a
living tradition in some parts of South
India.
D D F
v.in/performingart
.php
RR
Kalaripayattu was in news in
relation to Bollywood and
actor Vidyut Jammwal
28 Culture
1. Garba : Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka
correctly matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M F
v.in/performingart
.php
EM
29 Culture
With reference to Buddhist history,
tradition and culture in India, consider
the following pairs:
Famous Shrine Location
1. Tabo monastery and temple complex
: Spiti Valley
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang :
Zanskar Valley
3. Alchi Temple Complex :
Ladakh
Which of the above pairs given is/are
correctly matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D U
http://www.budd
histchannel.tv/ind
ex.php?id=5,6304,
0,0,1,0#.VASCFvm
SySo
RR
The village of Nako, at about 13,000
feet (3,900 m), in Kinnaur in
Himachal Pradesh has an early
temple complex. The main temple
is called the Lhotsava Lakhang, or
the temple of the great translator
Rinchen Zangpo. Enclosed between
the Greater Himalaya and the
Zaskar, Nako is located at the east
end of Kinnaur Valley.
30 Culture
Consider the following statements :
1. 'Bijak' is a composition of the
teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was
propounded by Madhvacharya.
D D F
NIOS material –
RELIGION &
PHILOSOPHY IN
MEDIEVAL INDIA,
page 136
NCERT class-7th,
EM
Vallabhacharya’s philosophy came
to be known as Pushtimarga (the
path of grace). Kabir’s ideas were
later collected and preserved in
Bijak.

is/are correct ?
OUR PASTS-II,
page116
31 Culture
A community of people called
Manganiyars is well-known for their
(a) martial arts in North-East India
(b) musical tradition in North-West
India.
(c) Classical vocal music in South India.
(d) Pictra dura tradition in Central India.
B D U
http://indianexpre
ss.com/article/citi
es/mumbai/from-
seduction-to-
education/
RM
32
Modern
Indian
History
What was/were the object/objects of
Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)?
1. To disclaim any intention to annex
Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration
under the British Crown.
3. To regulate East India Company's
trade with India
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A M F
Modern India (Old
NCERT - 12th class
by Bipin Chandra)
EM
33 Culture
Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
(a) the mosque for the use of Royal
Family
(b) Akbar's private prayer chamber.
(c) the hall in which Akbar held
discussions with scholars of various
religions.
(d) the room in which the nobles
belonging in different religions gathered
to discuss religious affairs.
C M F
NCERT class-7th,
OUR PASTS-II,
page 54
EM
34 Geography
In the context of food and nutritional
security of India, enhancing the 'Seed
Replacement Rates' of various crops
helps in achieving the food production
targets of the future. But what is/are the
constraint/constraints in its
wider/greater implementation ?
1. There is no National Seeds Policy in
place.
2. There is no participation of private
B D FCA
http://articles.eco
nomictimes.indiati
mes.com/2009-
06-
29/news/2765073
7_1_fertiliser-
companies-
chambal-
fertilisers-
coromandel-
RM
India has a national seeds policy
2002, also many private companies
are operating in supplying seeds

sector seed companies in the supply of
quality seeds of vegetables and planting
materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap
regarding quality seeds in case of low
value and high volume crops.
given below.
fertilisers
35
Environme
nt
With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones',
which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that
are declared under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-
Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
human activities in those zones except
agriculture.
given below.
D M CA
http://www.pib.ni
c.in/newsite/erele
ase.aspx?relid=36
370
EN
Declared under Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986. Activities
prohibited are generally specific to
each zone and notified separately.
Continuously in news due to
madhav gadgil committee
report and developments in
NCR region also. The hindu
mentioned the line" an eco-
sensitive zone under the
Environment Protection Act,
1986." many times
36
Environme
nt
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is
established under the Environment
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority
is chaired by the Prime Minister.
is/are correct ?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B M CA
http://www.awbi.
org/?q=node/1
http://projecttiger
.nic.in/content/11
1_1_Introduction.
aspx
http://pib.nic.in/n
ewsite/erelease.as
px?relid=58626
RM
Animal Welfare Board has been
established under Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960
All the three have been in
news recently
37
Science
and
Technology
Vitamin Deficiency disease
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy
2. Vitamin D : Rickets
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness
A E F
NCERT Science
Class IX
EM
Vitamin A causes Night Blindness

correctly matched ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
38
Environme
nt
There is some concern regarding the
nanoparticles of some chemical
elements that are used by the industry
in the manufacture of various products.
Why ?
1. They can accumulate in the
environment and contaminate water
and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of
free radicals.
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D D FA
http://rsif.royalsoc
ietypublishing.org/
content/early/200
9/08/31/rsif.2009.
0252.focus.full
RM
Many of the nano particles are very
stable and hence have a tendency
for accumuation. They can easily
enter food chains because of their
very small size and stay in it
because of their stable nature. They
have the ability to generate free
radicals and cause oxidative stress
in cells
39 Economy
Which of the following organizations
brings out the publication known as
'World Economic Outlook ?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development
Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
A E CA
ndu.com/business
/Economy/indias-
growth-likely-to-
recover-to-54-in-
2014-
imf/article588770
8.ece
EN
40 Economy
With reference to Union Budget, which
of the following is/are covered under
Non-Plan Expenditure ?
1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies
given below.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None
C M F
NCERT economy,
Uma Kapila
EM
All of them form the part of Non-
plan expenditure
41 Economy
If the interest rate is decreased in an
economy, it will
(a) decrease the consumption
expenditure in the economy
C M FA
Uma Kapila,
Ramesh Singh
EM
Decreased interest rates would
ensure availabilty of capital for
investment expenditure

(b) increase the tax collection of the
Government.
(c) Increase the investment expenditure
in the economy
(d) increase the total savings in the
economy.
42 Polity
1. The President shall make rules for the
more convenient transaction of the
business of the Government of India,
and for the allocation among Ministers
of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the
Government of India shall be expressed
to be taken in the name of the Prime
Minister.
is/are correct ?
A E F
Laxmikanth
EM
Article 77(c) - Verbatim, second
statement being wrong, since all
decision are taken in the name of
President
43 Polity
Consider the following statements
regarding a No-Confidence Motion in
India :
1. There is no mention of a No-
Confidence Motion in the Constitution
of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be
introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
is/are correct ?
C M F
Laxmikanth
EM
44
Environme
nt
With reference to Neem tree, consider
the following statements :
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to
control the proliferation of some species
of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the
manufacture of biofuels and hospital
detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in
pharmaceutical industry.
D M FA
http://www.organ
eem.com/neem_tr
ee.html
http://www.scienc
edirect.com/scien
ce/article/pii/S187
7705813005237
RM

is/are correct ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
45
Science
and
Technology
Which one of the following is the
process involved in photosynthesis?
(a) Potential energy is released to form
free energy.
(b) Free energy is converted into
potential energy and stored.
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon
dioxide and water.
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide
and water vapour are given out.
B E FA
http://www.ncbi.n
lm.nih.gov/books/
NBK9861/
EM
46
Science
and
Technology
In addition to fingerprint scanning,
which of the following can be used in
the biometric identification of a person
?
1. Iris scanning 2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M FCA
Types of
Biometrics
http://www.biom
etricsinstitute.org/
pages/types-of-
biometrics.html
EN
.Both Iris and Retina scanning in
Biometric id uses near infrared(NIR)
light using digital camera.
Increasing focus on biometrics
with aadhar and other related
measures
47
Science
and
Technology
correct regarding vegetative
propagation of plants ?
1. Vegetative propagation produces
clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in
eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be
practiced most of the year.
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D FA
elearn.org.nz/Inno
vation/Innovation-
Stories/Zealong-
Tea/Articles/Veget
ative-plant-
propagation RR
Second option is wrong because if
the parent plant has a virus, then it
will not be eliminated but further
propagated.
48
Current
Affairs
Which of the following pairs is/are
correctly matched ?
Spacecraft Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus
and transmitting data to the Earth
B D CA
http://timesofindi
a.indiatimes.com/
home/science/The
-Cosmic-Photo-
Op-Cassini-
EN
Cassini Huygens was sent to planet
Saturn, all the other options can
then be worked out easily
Cassini reveals 101 geysers on
Enceladus(31 July 2014).
Voyager 1 went out of the
Solar System in Sep 2013.

2. Messenger : Mapping and
investigating
3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the
outer solar system
given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
spacecraft-to-
snap-Earth-from-
1-5-billion-kms-
away/articleshow/
21052266.cms
49 Geography
Region Well-known for the
production of
1. Kinnaur : Areca nut
2. Mewat : Mango
3. Coromandel Soya bean
matched ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
D M FCA
Khullar,India
Comprehensive
Geography
EM
Arecanut is grown mainly in
southern region, mango in central
and south india and soyabean
predominantly in central india
50
Science
and
Technology
example/examples of chemical change ?
1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk
given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
B M F
7th NCERT,
Science, Chapter 6
EM
Crystallisation of sodium chloride
and ice melting are physical
changes as they involve a change of
state
51 Polity
The power of the Supreme Court of
India to decide disputes between the
Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
C E F
Laxmikant - Indian
Polity
EM
52
Science
and
Technology
Consider the following
techniques/phenomena :
1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create
transgenic crops ?
B D U
http://aob.oxfordj
ournals.org/conte
nt/79/1/3.full.pdf
http://www.ncbi.n
lm.nih.gov/books/
NBK22015/
RR
All three methods are related to
transgenic crops directly or
indirectly. As Cytoplasmic male
sterility and Gene silencing are new
technologies specifically developed
for this purpose so option B looks
more apropriate.
directly related to GM crops
issue

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
53
Science
and
Technology
1. Maize can be used for the production
of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a
feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced
by using maize.
is/are correct ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M FCA
http://www.fao.or
g/docrep/t0395e/
T0395E02.htm
http://en.wikipedi
a.org/wiki/Maize#
Bio-fuel EM
due to increased focus on
biofuels
54
Science
and
Technology
Among the following organisms, which
one does not belong to the class of
other three ?
(a) Crab (b) Mite
(c) Scorpion (d) Spider
A M U
http://www.merri
am-
webster.com/med
ical/arachnida
RM
crab does not belong to arachnida
family
55 Polity
The power to increase the number of
judges in the Supreme Court of India is
vested in
(b) the Parliament
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
B M F
Laxmikant - Indian
Polity
EM
Might be related to the
current news of increase in
number of judges in the High
Court
56 Geography
Consider the following towns of India :
1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the
production of traditional sarees/fabric ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
B D U RM
Geographical Indication
57 Geography
National Highway Cities connected
1. NH4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH6 : Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH15: Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
matched ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
D M F
NCERT Class XII
Geography- Part II
EM
NH4 connects Bengaluru-Chennai,
NH6 Connects Surat-Kolkata
58 Environme Consider the following international D M FCA http://pib.nic.in/n RM As per United Nations Convention IPCC Fifth Assessment Report

nt agreements :
1. The international Treaty on Plant
Genetic Resources for Food and
Agriculture.
2. The United Nations Convention to
Combat Desertification.
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing
on the biodiversity ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
ewsite/efeatures.a
spx?relid=105134
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
website - "dynamics of land,
climate and biodiversity are
intimately connected, the UNCCD
collaborates closely with the other
two Rio Conventions; the
Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD) and the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC), to meet these
complex challenges with an
integrated approach and the best
possible use of natural resources."
Rest of the two are also associated
with biodiveresity.
2014
59
Environme
nt
regarding 'Earth Hour'
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO
2. It is a movement in which the
participants switch off the lights for one
hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the
awareness about the climate change
and the need to save the planet.
is/are correct ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M CA
http://www.earth
hour.org/crowdso
urcing-faqs
EN
It is an initiative of WWF (World
Wildlife Fund for Nature)
Directly related to current
affairs
60
Science
and
Technology
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of a food chain ?
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
A D FA
eisart.com/B_Foo
dChain/FoodChain
.html
RR
61
Environme
nt
What are the significances of a practical
approach to sugarcane production
known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane
Initiative' ?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared
to the conventional method of
cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very
B D FCA
http://www.agrite
ch.tnau.ac.in/expe
rt_system/sugar/s
si.html
RM
The SSI method encourages
application of organic manure as it
enhances the macro and micro
nutrient content in the soil in an
eco friendly way and helps in
optimum utilization of some of the
chemical fertilizers
Due to similiarity with System
of Rice Intensification and
sustainable agriculture also
being in continuous focus

effectively in this.
3. There is no application of
chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in
this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in
this compared to the conventional
method of cultivation.
given below.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62
environme
nt
If a wetland of international importance
is brought under the 'Montreux Record',
what does it imply ?
(a) Changes in ecological character have
occurred, are occurring or are likely to
occur in the wetland as a result of
human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is
located should enact a low to prohibit
any human activity within five
kilometres from the edge of the
wetland.
(c) The survival of the wetland depends
on the cultural practices and traditions
of certain communities living in its
vicinity and therefore the cultural
diversity therein should not be
destroyed.
(d) It is given the status of 'World
Heritage Site'.
A M FCA
http://www.ramsa
r.org/cda/en/rams
ar-documents-
montreux/main/ra
msar/1-31-
118_4000_0__
EM
Montreux Record was asked
in Mains 2010
63 Geography
Which one of the following pairs of
islands is separated from each other by
the 'Ten Degree Channel'?
(a) Andman and Nicobar (b)
Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
A E F
NCERT Class XI
Geography Page
19
EM
(NCERT) The entire group of island
is divided into two broad categories
– the Andaman in the north and the
Nicobar in the south. They are
separated by a water body
which is called the Ten degree
channel.
64 Geography
Programme/Project Ministry
1 Drought-Prone Area Programme :
Ministry of Agriculture
D M F
India Year Book
http://agricoop.ni
c.in/guide.htm
EM
National Watershed Development
Project for Rainfed Areas falls
under Ministry of Agriculture
National watershed
Development Programme is
being implemented by Min.of
Rural Developement but for

2. Desert Development Programme :
Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development
Project for Rainfed Areas :
Ministry of Rural Development
matched ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Rainfed Areas by Min.Of
Agriculture.
65
environme
nt
With reference to Bombay Natural
History Society (BNHS), consider the
following statements :
1. It is an autonomous organization
under the Ministry of Environment and
Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through
action-based research, education and
public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails
and camps for the general public.
is/are correct ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M U
http://envfor.nic.i
n/about-
ministry/autonom
ous-organisations
http://www.bnhs.
org/about-
bnhs.html
RR
BNHS does not come under MoEF. http://www.thehindu.com/to
days-paper/tp-
national/bombay-natural-
history-society-conducts-
nature-
camps/article4701556.ece
66
environme
nt
With reference to 'Global Environment
Facility', which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for
'Convention on Biological Diversity' and
'United Nations Framework Convention
on Climate Change'.
(b) It undertakes scientific research on
environmental issues at global level.
(c) It is an agency under OECD to
facilitate the transfer of technology and
funds to underdeveloped countries with
specific aim to protect their
environment.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
A D FCA
http://www.thege
f.org/gef/whatisge
f
RM
GEF is an independently operating
financial organization, the GEF
provides grants for projects related
to biodiversity, climate change,
international waters, land
degradation, the ozone layer, and
persistent organic pollutants.
Increasing issues with climate
change funding and recent
climate change negotiations
mainly focussing on climate
change funding.
67
Science
and
Technology
With reference to technology for solar
power production, consider the
A D FCA
http://cleantechni
ca.com/2012/03/0
1/what-is-solar-
EN
Photovoltaic technique produces
Direct Current (DC) and India has a
manufacturing base for
US drags India to WTO on
solar mission programme.
(The Hindu Feb 2014)

1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that
generates electricity by direct
conversion of light into electricity, while
'Solar Thermal' is a technology that
utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat
which is further used in electricity
generation process.
2. Photovoltaics-generates Alternating
Current (AC), while Solar Thermal
generates Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for
Solar Thermal technology, but not for
photovoltaics.
is/are correct ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
energy-types-
solar-energy-
technology/
photovoltaics recent start of next phase of
JNNSM and excise duty
related issues with domestic
SPV producers and also
custom duties on SPV imports
68 Culture
Consider the following languages :
1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been
declared as 'Classical
Language/Languages' by the
Government ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M CA
ndu.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/tp-
newdelhi/classical-
language-status-
to-
odia/article57119
57.ece
EN
69 Geography
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland
matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D FCA
any standard atlas
EM
Gumti wildlife sanctuary is in
Tripura.
70
Environme
nt
With reference to a conservation
organization called 'Wetlands
International', which of the following
statements is/are correct ?
1. It is an intergovernmental
organizatioin formed by the countries
which are signatories to Ramsar
B D CA
http://www.wetla
nds.org/Aboutus/t
abid/54/Default.as
px RM
Wetlands International is the only
global non-governmental
organisation (NGO) dedicated to
wetlands.

Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop
and mobilize knowledge, and use the
practical experience to advocate for
better policies.
given below.
71
Current
Affairs
With reference to a grouping of
countries known as BRICS, consider the
1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in
Rio de Jeneiro in 2009
2. South Africa was the last to join the
BRICS grouping.
is/are correct ?
B M CA
Current Affairs,
Internet
EN
First BRICS summit was held in
2009 in Russia, second statement is
correct.
BRICS Bank, Fortaleza
Declaration
72
Science
and
Technology
Consider the following diseases :
1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/have
been eradicated in India ?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
B M CA
ndu.com/opinion/
blogs/blogs-the-
copernican/article
5976018.ece
RM
Small pox was eradicated in 1979
73 Geography
Which of the following phenomena
might have influenced the evolution of
organisms ?
1. Continental drift 2. Glacial cycles
given below.
C M F
11th NCERT,
Geography,
Fundamentals of
world physical
geography
EM
74
Environme
nt
Other than poaching, what are the
possible reasons for the decline in the
population of Gangas River Dolphins ?
1. Construction of dams and barrages on
rivers
2. Increase in the population of
crocodiles in rivers.
C E FCA
http://www.wwfn
epal.org/about_w
wf/conservation_n
epal/shl/thematic
_solutions_nepal2
/species_nepal/ga
ngetic_dolphin_ne
EN
Crocodile population has nothing to
do with the decline in population of
dolphins. It is human activities that
are mainly responsible.

3. Getting trapped in fishing nets
accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other
agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in
the vicinity of rivers
given below.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
pal/
http://wwf.panda.
org/what_we_do/
endangered_speci
es/cetaceans/abo
ut/river_dolphins/
ganges_river_dolp
hin/
75
Modern
Indian
History
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed
to
(a) solve the problem of minorities in
India
(b) given effect to the Independence Bill
(c) delimit the boundaries between India
and Pakistan
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal.
C E F
Spectrum Modern
India
EM
76
Environme
nt
Brominated flame retardants are used in
many household products like
mattresses and upholstery. Why is there
some concern about their use ?
1. They are highly resistant to
degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in
humans and animals.
given below.
C D U
http://www.efsa.e
uropa.eu/en/topic
s/topic/bfr.htm
RM
http://www.thehindu.com/ne
ws/cities/Delhi/top-
companies-flout-ewaste-rules-
says-study/article6150844.ece
77
Science
and
Technology
Consider the following :
1. Bats 2. Bears 3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be
observed in which of the above kinds of
animals ?
(a) 1and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in
any of the above
C D FCA
http://animals.pa
wnation.com/list-
animals-hibernate-
3236.html
RM
http://www.thehindu.com/sci
-tech/science/new-light-on-
hibernation/article5265332.ec
e
78 Polity
Which one of the following is the largest
Committee of the Parliament ?
(a) The committee on Public Accounts
(b) The committee on Estimates
B E F
LAXMIKANTH -
POLITY
Em

(c) The Committee on Public
Undertakings
(d) The committee on Petitions
79
Science
and
Technology
Which of the following adds/ads carbon
dioxide to the carbon cycle on the
planet Earth ?
1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic
matter
given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C E F
11th NCERT,
Geography,
Chapter 15
EM
80
Environme
nt
If you walk through countryside, you are
likely to see some birds stalking
alongside the cattle to seize the insects
disturbed by their movement through
grasses. Which one of the following
is/are such bird/birds ?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
given below.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
B D U
http://www1.mnr
e.gov.ws/docume
nts/projects/envir
onment/terrestrial
/Myna/Myna%20B
ird_fact%20sheets
.pdf RR
http://timesofindia.indiatimes
.com/home/environment/flor
a-fauna/Myna-bird-in-
Australia-threatening-its-
native-species-
Study/articleshow/15482046.
cms
81
Geography
Which of the following have coral reefs ?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar 4. Sunderbans
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2
and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
A M F
India Year Book
ndu.com/sci-
tech/energy-and-
environment/inva
sion-by-soft-coral-
threatens-reef-
ecosystem/article
5385047.ece
EM
Corals have been in news
because of their increased
dgradation and their ability to
withstand coastal hazards like
tsunamis
82 Geography
In India, the problem of soil erosion is
associated with which of the following ?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate
B M F
11th NCERT,
Geography,
Fundamentals of
world physical
geography
EM
Terrace cultivation is for preventing
soil erosion on hill slopes while
tropical climate has nothing to do
with soil erosion

given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
83 Geography
The seasonal reversal of winds is the
typical characteristic of
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates
C E F
11th NCERT,
Geography,
Fundamentals of
world physical
geography
EM
84 Culture
With reference to the cultural history of
India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to
(a) an assembly of village elders
(b) a religious sect
(c) a style of temple construction
(d) an administrative functionary
C M F
NCERT +
v.in/templearchite
cture.php
EM
85 Geography
Consider the following rivers :
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
which of the above flows/flow through
Arunachal Pradesh ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B M F
any standard atlas
EN
http://www.thehindu.com/news/n
ational/new-delhi-invites-dhakas-
stake-in-dams-on-common-
rivers/article4358241.ece
Barak has always been in
focus due to Tipaimukh dam
issue and The National
Waterway (Lakhipur-Bhanga
Stretch of the Barak River) Bill,
2013 to develop the Barak
river stretch as country’s sixth
National Waterway. The
question can be solved by just
the knowledge of barak river
being in Manipur.
86
Environme
nt
Wetlands Conference of rivers
1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence
of Beas and Satluj/ Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park :
Confluence of Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of
Musi and Krishna
matched ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A D CA
http://www.hindu
stantimes.com/pu
njab/bathinda/no
d-to-rs-12-7-cr-
plan-for-harike-
wetland/article1-
1074857.aspx
RM
The wetland ecosystem of Harike
lies on the confluence of the Beas
and Sutlej and the main water body
(reservoir) came into existence
when a barrage was constructed
across the confluence of the two
rivers in 1952..
87 Culture
Which one of the following pairs does
not form part of the six systems of
Indian Philosophy ?
(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
C M F
Ancient India (Old
NCERT for XI by
Ram Sharam
Sharma)
EM

(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga
88 Geography
Hills Region
1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
3. Maadeo Hills : Central India
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
C M F
NCERT XI
EM
89 POLITY
Which one of the following Schedules of
the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding anti-defection ?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
D E F
LAXMIKATH -
POLITY
EM
90
Environme
nt
The most important strategy for the
conservation of biodiversity together
with traditional human life is the
establishment of
(a) biosphere
(b) reserves
(c) national parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
A M F
12th NCERT,
Biology, Unit 10,
Chapter 15
EM
91 Geography
Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Se
B M F
any standard atlas
EN
In news due to political
turmoil
92 Geography
What is the correct sequence of
occurrence of the following cities in
South-East Asia as one proceeds from
south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
given below:
(a) 4-2-1-3 (b) 3-2-4-1
C M FCA
any standard atlas
EM
Focus of our foreign policy on
South-East Asia

(c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 4-3-2-1
93
Environme
nt
The scientific view is that the increase in
global temperature should not exceed
20C above pre-industrial level. If the
global temperature increases beyond
30C above the pre-industrial level, what
can be its possible impact/impacts on
the world?
1 Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a
net carbon source.
2.Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3.All the global wetlands will
permanently disappear.
4.Cultivation of cereals will not be
possible anywhere in the world.
given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B M FA
http://en.wikipedi
a.org/wiki/Effects
_of_global_warmi
ng
EN
3 and 4 are too extreme. There will
be effects on wetlands and cereal
cultivation. But not total
disappearance or no cultivation at
all.
Global warming negotiations
and the process of finalisation
of post 2015 commitments
being underway
94 Culture
The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva
Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of
India is taken from
(a) Katha Upanishad
(b) Chandogra Upanishad
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
(d) Mundaka Upanishad
D E F
India Year Book
EM
95 Polity
In the Constitution of India, promotion
of international peace and security is
included in the
(a) Preamble to the constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
B E F
LAXMIKANTH -
POLITY
EM
ARTICLE 51 - DPSP
96 Geography
What are the benefits of implementing
the ‘Integrated Watershed Development
Programme?
1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers
with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of
groundwater table
C M FA
http://dolr.nic.in/i
wmp_main.htm
EM
Integrated watershed development
programme no where mentions
interlinking of rivers
Also in news due to BJP's
inclination toward river linking
plan

4. Regeneration of natural vegetation
given below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
97 Polity
Which of the following are associated
with ‘Planning’ in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural
Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban
Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C M F
LAXMIKANT -
POLITY
EM
The Parliament and NDC are two
bodies which are directly related to
the formulation of plan in India
98 Polity
function/functions of the Cabinet
Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
Meetings
2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet
Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to
the Ministries
given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c)
1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C M F
LAXMIKANT -
POLITY
EM
statement 3 is incorrect - allocation
of financial resources is done by the
finance ministry in consonance with
the priorities presented in the
budget
99 Polity
Consider the following statements : A
Constitutional Government is one which
1.Places effective restrictions on
individual liberty in the interest of State
Authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the
Authority of the State in the interest of
individual liberty.
is/are correct?
B D FA
Arora and Goyal –
chapter
Constitutionalism
RM

100 Polity
Which of the following are the
discretionary powers given to the
Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of
India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the
State Legislature for consideration of
the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the
business of the State Government
given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B M F
Laxmikanth- polity
EM
Article 166(3) - The Governor shall
make rules for the more convenient
transaction of the business of the
Government of the State, and for
the allocation among Ministers of
the said business in so far as it is
not business with respect to which
the Governor is by or under this
Constitution required to act in his
discretion - statement 4 does not
comes under the discretionary
powers of the Governor . Ministers
are appointed by the Governor on
the advice of the CM and hence not
a discretionary power.

Observations
• The Paper portrayed a departure from the trend of last 3 years. While traditional questions were very easy, over emphasis on questions from art and culture
and environment made the paper tough.
• Paper was factual and traditional compared to last three years. Questions from India year book also appeared this year.
• Topicwise composition is moving along expected lines as weightage of art & culture and ecology/environment is increasing.
• Proportion of unapproachable questions increased this year, which were mostly in art & culture and ecology & environment.
• Polity is moving towards governance and public administration type questions (Cabinet Secretary, Constitutionalism etc.) which was on expected lines.
• Except few easy ones, questions this year required complete knowledge of the topic.
• Deceptive presentation is a common method to segregate deep knowledge with superficial knowledge or hunch. This technique was used in many questions.
(Bombay Natural History Society is autonomous organization but does not come under MoEF, Sattriya dance uses devotional songs but not by Kabeer, Tulsidas
and Meerabai. Doubtful “all correct” or “none” was not correct).
• Some questions were too easy (E.g. Marginal Standing Facility). This does not mean that we should not have proper knowledge of topic (Eg. Solar power
required complete knowledge).
• Pointers for most of the questions could be traced to The Hindu but as recommended earlier, in the age of internet, complete knowledge of topic is expected
(Bromine flame was covered as part of e-waste in The Hindu).
• Some basic GK topics (like Hibernation) also appeared in The Hindu.
Recommendations:
• Read Basic/standard books, one Good News Paper (like The Hindu) as almost 80% questions could be attempted with this combination.
• Have keen perception about things going around you and assume less and less. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet or books or
teachers.
• Read one good book on art & culture and Environment this will help in prelims, mains and interview i.e. all stages of examination. This will also help in making
some unapproachable question approachable. However, do not try to research, as it is impossible to cover all the questions.
• The trend of last three years was analytical but trend changed this year with the inclusion of factual questions and state civil service/SSC type one liners. So it is
advisable to be ready for analytical and factual questions at the same time. It is expected that UPSC will not ask irrelevant facts (Date on which someone died
type asked in state civil service) but important facts should not be ignored.
• Do not ignore your strong areas to do research in weak areas. You should be able to answer most of the questions from your strong areas.
• Nearly 60% of the questions were very basic which could have been answered by reading elementary books. Strategy should be to avoid negative marking in
tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
• Read questions carefully and use elimination technique wherever possible.

Culture
16%
Current Affairs
7%
Economy
9%
Environment
18%
Geography
18%
Modern
Indian
History
5%
Polity
12%
Science and Technology
15%
Section
Culture
Current Affairs
Economy
Environment
Geography
Modern Indian History
Polity
Section Count
Culture 16
Current Affairs 7
Economy 9
Environment 18
Geography 18
Modern Indian History 5
Polity 12
Science and Technology 15
Grand Total 100

Difficulty Count
D 29
E 22
M 49
Grand Total 100
Nature Count
CA 21
F 47
FA 9
FCA 13
U 10
Grand Total 100
D
29%
E
22%
M
49%
Difficulty
D
E
M
CA
21%
F
47%
FA
9%
FCA
13%
U
10%
Nature
CA
F
FA
FCA
U

Source Count
EM 51
EN 22
RM 19
RR 8
Grand Total 100 EM
51%
EN
22%
RM
19%
RR
8%
Source Type
EM
EN
RM
RR

0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
Culture Current Affairs Economy Environment Geography Modern Indian
History
Polity Science and
Technology
D
M
E
Sectionwise Difficulty Difficulty
Section E M
Culture 1 5
Current Affairs 6
Economy 3 6
Environment 1 10
Geography 2 11
Modern Indian History 4 1
Polity 6 5
Science and Technology 5 5
Grand Total 22 49

Sectionwise Source Type Column Labels
Section EM EN RM RR Grand Total
Culture 7 2 4 3 16
Current Affairs 7 7
Economy 6 3 9
Environment 3 4 9 2 18
Geography 13 3 2 18
Polity 11 1 12
Science and Technology 6 3 3 3 15
Grand Total 51 22 19 8 100
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
Culture Current Affairs Economy Environment Geography Modern Indian
History
Polity Science and
Technology
RR
RM
EN
EM

Sectionwise Nature Column Labels
Nature CA F FA FCA U Grand Total
Culture 2 10 4 16
Current Affairs 7 7
Economy 4 4 1 9
Environment 5 2 3 5 3 18
Geography 1 11 1 4 1 18
Polity 11 1 12
Science and Technology 2 4 3 4 2 15
Grand Total 21 47 9 13 10 100
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
Culture Current
Affairs
Economy Environment Geography Modern
Indian
History
Polity Science and
Technology
U
FCA
FA
F
CA

Nature of Question
F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it
indicate that you had one more reason to prepare this
CA: Current affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source alone.
CAA(Current affair Applied): Current affair question which needs information from more than one source to answer AND/OR application of mind(common sense
and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is why source for these question may not be answering question completely.
FCA (Fundamental + Current affair): This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs or a current affairs question that needs background information for
complete answer. Source to these question might not answer question in entirety.
U (unconventional question): unconventional question means the question that is distantly related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even
reference sources(in addition to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

Einstein
- TEAM VISION IAS
• The analysis is based on premise that UPSC wants to identify aspirants with certain skills and aptitude required to function as a good
administrator. UPSC does not explicitly describe these skills so we infer them from Syllabus, Question Paper and feedback of experts and
students.
• This analysis is an attempt to quantify the subjective understanding and make explicit the implicit.
• We have inferred some conclusions from these stats but you are free to infer differently. Moreover independent/impartial thinking is one
of the qualities expected in administrators.
A
n
s
w
e
r
L
e
v
e
l
Nature Source
Source
Type
Explanation Motivation
1 Economy
'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan
Yojana' has been launched for
(a) providing housing loan to
poor people at cheaper
interest rates.
(b) promoting women's Self-
Help Groups in backward areas
(c) promoting financial
C E CAA
http://www.thehin
du.com/news/reso
urces/president-
pranab-mukherjee-
speech-to-the-
joint-session-of-
parliament-full-
text/article692549
EN
PMJDY main objective is financial inclusion Constantly in
news. Major
initiative of the
New Govt.
www.visionias.in

inclusion in the country
(d) providing financial help to
the marginalized communities.
8.ece
2 Economy
With reference to the
Fourteenth Finance
Commission, which of the
following statements is/are
correct?
1. It has increased the share of
States in the central divisible
pool from 32 percent to 42
percent.
2. It has made
recommendations concerning
sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using
the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A M CA
ECONOMIC
SURVEY VOLUME 1
CHAPTER 10 PAGE
131
RM
The FFC has radically enhanced the share of the
states in the central divisible pool from the current
32 percent to 42 per cent which is the biggest ever
increase in vertical tax devolution. The FFC has not
made any recommendation concerning sector
specific-grants unlike the Thirteenth Finance
Commission.
The Finance
Commission is a
Constitutional
body and its
recommendatio
ns are very
important
3
Current
Affairs
The 'Fortaleza Declaration',
recently in the news, is related
to the affairs of
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) OECD
(d) WTO
B E CA
du.com/business/E
conomy/banking-
on-
brics/article622915
5.ece
EN
Fortaleza Declaration issued at the 6th BRICS Summit Fortaleza
Declaration
issued at the 6th
BRICS Summit
was constantly in
news
4 Economy
A decrease in tax to GDP ratio
of a country indicates which of
the following?
1. Slowing economic growth
rate
2. Less equitable distribution of
national income
the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D D FA
only for those with
deep interest in
economics refer
page 192 especially
-
http://www.oecd.o
rg/eco/growth/494
21421.pdf
EM
For the tax/GDP ratio to decrease either the tax
collection should decrease or GDP should increase.
Now considering the first statement if the GDP
collection might or might not necessarily increase
with a slow growth rate. Hence this option is ruled
out. Increase in indirect tax collection may lead to
less equality in income distribution but the same
cannot be said for increase in direct tax collection.
Hence, even this option can be ruled out.
in news
constantly -
http://www.the
hindubusinesslin
e.com/economy
/need-to-
increase-taxgdp-
ratio-to-over-20-
jayant-
sinha/article707
4267.ece

5 Geography
In the South Atlantic and
South-Eastern Pacific regions in
tropical latitudes, cyclone does
not originate. What is the
reason ?
(a) Sea surface temperatures
are low
(b) Inter-tropical Convergence
Zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those
regions
A D FA
NCERT
FUNDAMENTAL
GEOGRAPHY CH 10
PAGE 94
EM
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm
tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the
formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
(i) Large sea surface with temperature higher than
27° C; (ii) Presence of the Coriolis force; (iii) Small
variations in the vertical wind speed; (iv) A pre-
existing weak- low-pressure area or low-level-
cyclonic circulation; (v) Upper divergence above the
sea level system.
The most proximate reasons for the lack of activity in
the South Atlantic are sea surface temperatures that
tend to run a shade cooler than ideal for tropical
cyclone formation even in the southern summer,
climatologically high values of vertical wind shear
across that basin throughout the year, and a lack of
pre-existing centers of rotation (vorticity) in that
area.
Fundamental
6 Geography
Which one of the following
pairs of States of India
indicates the easternmost and
westernmost State ?
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and
Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and
Gujarat
D
Ncert Class 11th
India Physical
Environment
Page 2
FM
The mainland of India, extends from
Kashmir in the north to Kanniyakumari in the
south and Arunachal Pradesh in the east to
Gujarat in the west.
Fundamental
question from
NCERT
7 Polity
statements regarding the
Directive Principles of State
Policy :
1. The Principles spell out of
the socio economic democracy
in the country.
2. The provisions contained in
these Principles are not
enforceable by any court.
Which of statements given
above is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1and 2(d)Neither1nor2
C M F
Polity by
Laxmikant, pg 48
RR
The directive principles are meant for promoting the
ideal of social and economic democracy. However,
unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are
non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not
enforceable by the courts for their violation.
Fundamental
question about
Directive
Principle of State
Policy

8 Economy
In the 'Index of Eight Core
Industries', which one of the
following is given the highest
weight?
(a) Coal production
(b) Electricity generation
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production
B D FA
A-42, Appendix
Economic Survey
EM
Core industries account for 38 % in IIP. Electricity
with 10.3% has the highest weight among core
industries viz. coal, fertilizer, electricity, crude oil,
natural gas, refinery product, steel, and cement.
The IIP provides
quick estimates
on the
performance of
key industrial
sectors.
9 Environment
National Parks is unique in
being a swamp with floating
vegetation that supports a rich
biodiversity?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National
Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park
B M F
http://www.necee
r.org.in/2011/05/k
eibul-lamjao-
national-park-for-
world_28.html
EN
Keibul Lamjao National is world's only floating
national park and last natural habitat of Manipur
Brow antlered deer - Sangai (Cervus eldi eldi). The
national park is characterized by many floating
decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.
was in the news
- (June month)
hindu.com/sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/ma
nipur-to-
translocate-
critically-
endangered-
sangai-
deer/article7321
501.ece
10
Current
Affairs
statements is/are correct
regarding National Innovation
Foundation-India (NIF) ?
1. NIF is an autonomous body
of the Department of Science
and Technology under the
Central Government.
2. NIF is an initiative to
strengthen the highly advanced
scientific research in India's
premier scientific institutions in
collaboration with highly
advanced foreign scientific
institutions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
A M CAA
http://www.nif.org
.in/
EN
National Innovation Foundation-India is an
autonomous body of the Department of Science and
Technology, Government of India, based on the
Honey Bee Network philosophy,
which provides institutional support to grassroots
innovators and outstanding traditional knowledge
holders from the unorganized sector of the society.
So statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
incorrect.
In news
hindu.com/sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/nat
ional-innovation-
foundation-and-
icar-join-
hands/article720
2164.ece
http://www.busi
ness-
standard.com/ar
ticle/companies/
how-india-plans-
to-turn-jugaad-
into-large-scale-
innovation-

(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
115082500447_
1.html
closely
associated with
APJ Abdul Kalam
Azad
11 Environment
What can be the impact of
excessive/inappropriate use of
nitrogenous fertilizers in
agriculture ?
1. Proliferation of nitrogen-
fixing microorganisms in soil
can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil
can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the
ground water can occur.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C M F
http://www.unep.
org/yearbook/201
4/PDF/chapt1.pdf
EN
Nitrogen fixing bacteria converts N2 to Ammonium
ion NH4+. with fertilizers already containing NH4
ions, there is no demand or need from plants for the
symbiotic association. further, we can certainly
assume that there is no positive correlation between
fertilizers and bacterium
12 Environment
International Union for
Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resource (IUCN) and
the Convention of International
Trade in Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES),
which of the following
1. IUCN is an organ of the
United Nations and CITES is an
international agreement
between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field
projects around the world to
better manage natural
environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on
B M CAA
http://www.iucn.o
rg/about/
EN
Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global
environmental organisation. IUCN supports scientific
research, manages field projects all over the world,
and brings governments, NGOs, the UN and
companies together to develop policy, laws and best
practice. IUCN is not an organ of UN. This eliminates
other 3 options.

the States that have joined it,
but this Conventional does not
take the place of national laws.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
13 Economy
The Fair and Remunerative
Price (FRP) of surgarcane is
approved by the
(a) Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs.
(b) Commission for Agricultural
Costs and Prices.
(c) Directorate of Marketing
and Inspection, Ministry of
Agriculture
(d) Agricultural Produce Market
Committee
A M CAA
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/agri-
business/centre-
hikes-cane-fair-
price-by-
10quintal/article67
94388.ece
EN
FRP is approved by CCEA and recommended by CACP
14 Geography
What explains the eastward
flow of the equatorial counter-
current ?
(a) The Earth's rotation on its
axis
(b) Convergence of the two
equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of
water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of
calm near the equator
D D FA
http://www.britan
nica.com/science/e
quatorial-
countercurrent
EM
The easterly Equatorial Counter-Current between
about 4
0
and 10
0
N may be explained as follows, The
overall effect of the Trade Winds is to drive water
towards the west, hut the flow is blocked by the land
masses along the western boundaries. As a result, in
equatorial regions the sea-surface slopes up towards
the west, causing an eastward horizontal pressure
gradient force. Because winds are light in the
Doldrums, water is able to flow down the horizontal
pressure gradient in a current that is contrary (i.e.
‘counter’) to the prevailing wind direction. The zone
of calm is the necessary and dominant factor here,
though other factors play their role as well.
15 Geography
Place of Pilgrimage - Location
1. Srisailam - Nallamala Hills
2. Omakareshwar-Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar - Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched ?
A M FA EM
Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord
Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills
(Andhra Pradesh). Omkareshwar is situated on the
Mandhata hills in Vindhya Mountains of Madhya
pradesh. The Pushkar valley is formed between the
Aravalli hills.
Fundamental
question from
NCERT

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16
Modern
History
With reference to Rowlatt
Satyagraha, which of the
correct ?
1. The Rowlatt Act was based
on the recommendations of
the 'Sedition Committee'.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha,
Gandhiji tried to utilize the
Home Rule League.
3. Demonstrations against the
arrival of Simon Commission
coincided with Rowlatt
Satyagraha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FA
Can be deduced
from basic facts of
NCERT. Explicitly it
is mentioned in
https://cultural.ma
harashtra.gov.in/e
nglish/gazetteer/V
OL-
II/SATYAGRAHA_M
OVT_I.pdf
EM
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. The events between
May 1916 to January 1919 give us the background of
the establishment of the Satyagraha Sabha in
Bombay under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
The newly started Home League was the leading
force in all these events, which prepared the ground
for the April Satyagraha. The Satyagraha Sabha was
organised with Mr. Gandhi as President, Mr.
Horniman as Vice-President, and the leading Home
Rulers on the Committee.
Simon Commission was dispatched to India in 1928
way after Rowlett Satyagraha.
17
Current
Affairs
Among the following, which
were frequently mentioned in
the news for the outbreak of
Ebola virus recently ?
(a) Syria and Jordan
(b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and
Liberia
(c) Philippines and Papua New
Guinea
(d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam
B E CAA
du.com/sci-
tech/health/ebola-
virus-disease-sets-
off-international-
concern/article628
8191.ece
EM
Other three options a, c and d contain countries of
middle east, SE Asia/Indian ocean region and Latin
America respectively. Hence, could be eliminated
easily.
18
Science and
Technology
With reference to 'fly ash'
produced by the power plants
using coal as fuel, which of the
correct ?
1. Fly ash can be used in the
production of bricks for
A M CAA
http://pmgsy.nic.in
/nrr74.asp
http://www.ntpc.c
o.in/ash-
download/1674/0/
fly-ash-cement-
concrete-
EN
Fly ash is used in the manufacture of building
materials and in construction activity, like
replacement of cement in concrete. It contains trace
levels of toxic elements (like e.g. arsenic, barium,
beryllium, boron, cadmium, chromium, thallium,
selenium, molybdenum and mercury)

building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a
replacement for some of the
Portland cement contents of
concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon
dioxide and calcium oxide only,
and does not contain any toxic
elements.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
%E2%80%93-
resource-high-
strength-and-
durability-
structure-lower-
cost
19 Environment
With reference to 'dugong', a
mammal found in India, which
of the following statements
is/are correct ?
1. It is a herbivorous marine
animal.
2. It is found along the entire
coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection
under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
C M FCA
NCERT" India
Physical
Environment" std
XI pg 66
http://timesofindia
.indiatimes.com/h
ome/environment/
flora-
fauna/Dugongs-on-
brink-of-extinction-
poaching-
continues-in-
India/articleshow/
48037397.cms
EN
Feeding on sea grass, dugongs are found in sea grass
beds, sheltered waters, lagoons and bays. Fourteen
sea grass species are found in the marine waters in
the country of which 13 are found in the Gulf of
Mannar and Palk Bay areas. Dugongs had been
brought under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act, the punishment for its poaching is imprisonment.
Was covered in
The Times of
India July month
2015
20
Modern
History
Who of the following was/were
economic critic/critics of
colonialism in India ?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G.Subramania Iyer
3. R.C. Dutt
(a) 1 only
D E F
Spectrum by Rajiv
Ahir pg 68
http://archive.indi
anexpress.com/ne
ws/why-this--
freedom--is-
false/780101/
EM
Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G.
Subramania Iyer, were among those who grounded
Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-
imperialism by highlighting economic critique of
colonialism.

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21
Current
Affairs
issues the 'Global Economic
Prospects's report periodically
?
(a) The Asian Development
Bank
(b) The European Bank for
Reconstruction and
Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve
Bank
(d) The World Bank
D E CAA
du.com/business/E
conomy/india-will-
catch-up-with-
chinas-growth-
rate-in-201617-
world-
bank/article67882
47.ece
EN
World Bank publish the 'Global Economic Prospect's
Report periodically
Important
publication of
World Bank and
has been in news
22 Economy
When the Reserve Bank of
India reduces the Statutory
Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis
points, which of the following
is likely to happen ?
(a) India's GDP growth rate
increases drastically
(b) Foreign Institutional
Investors may bring more
capital into our country
(c) Scheduled Commercial
Banks may cut their lending
rates.
(d) It may drastically reduce
the liquidity to the banking
system
C M CAA
du.com/business/E
conomy/rbi-cuts-
slr-to-provide-
liquidity/article685
3210.ece
EM /
EN
The SLR cut by the RBI is likely to give more elbow
room for banks to cut rates.
hindu.com/busin
ess/Economy/rbi
-cuts-slr-to-
provide-
liquidity/article6
853210.ece
23
Science and
Technology
With reference to the use of
nano technology in health
sector, which of the following
1. Targeted drug delivery is
made possible by
nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely
contribute to gene therapy.
C M FA
dubusinessline.co
m/news/science/c
hemical-
technology-school-
develops-nano-
particles-for-drug-
delivery/article379
2262.ece?ref=relat
edNews
EN
Both are correct.

(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
24 Economy
In India, markets in agricultural
products are regulated under
the
(a) Essential Commodities Act,
1955
(b) Agricultural Produce Market
Committee Act enacted by
States
(c) Agricultural Produce
(Grading and Marking) Act,
1937
(d) Food Products Order, 1956
and Meat and Food Products
Order, 1973
B M CAA
economic survey
2014-15 ch 8
EN
In India, markets in agricultural products are
regulated under the Agricultural Produce Market
Committee Act enacted by States.
Fundamental
question
25 Environment
Which one of the following is
the national aquatic animal of
India ?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
C E F
ss.com/article/indi
a/india-
others/counting-
dolphins-in-the-
ganga/ +also in
India Year book
EN
In news, also
fundamental
26
Modern
History
With reference to Congress
Socialist Party, consider the
1. It advocated the boycott of
British goods and evasion of
taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the
dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate
electorate for minorities and
oppressed classes.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
D D FA
Bipan Chandra Ch
24 Rise of the left
Wing
(Can be inferred by
reading whole
chapter)
EM
Important features were consistent and militant anti-
imperialism, anti-landlordism, the organization of
workers and peasants in trade unions and kisan
sabhas, the acceptance of a socialist vision of
independent India and of the socialist programme of
the economic and social transformation of society.
They were to give the Congress and the national
movement a socialist direction; and that to achieve
this objective they must organize the workers and
peasants in their class organizations, wage struggles
for their economic demands and make them the
social base of the national struggle. They preferred
methods adopted by Congress.
1st and 2nd statements can be related to radical
communism in India during 1920 to 40. 3rd
statement is also not related to CSP.

27 Polity
statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha has no
power either to reject or to
amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote
on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot
discuss the Annual Financial
Statement.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B E FA
Laxmikanth pg
283-286 CHAPTER
22 PARLIAMENT
EM
Statement 1 and 2 are right. 3rd statement is
incorrect as Budget can be discussed by Rajyasabha.
28
Modern
History
The Government of India Act of
1919 clearly defined
(a) The separation of power
between the judiciary and the
legislature.
(b) The jurisdiction of the
central and provincial
governments.
(c) The powers of the Secretary
of State for India and the
Viceroy
B M F
Laxmikanth pg
1.7(3rd edition)
EM
GOI Act,1919, relaxed the central control over the
provinces by demarcating and separating the central
and provincial subjects. The central and provincial
legislatures were authorised to make laws on their
respective list of subjects.
29
Current
Affairs
Which of the following brings
out the "Consumer Price Index
Number for Industrial Workers
?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Department of
Economic Affairs.
(c) The Labour Bureau
(d) The Department of
Personnel and Training
C M CAA
ss.com/article/busi
ness/business-
others/minimum-
wages-act-with-
eye-on-basic-
wage-rate-centre-
plans-
amendments/
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/policy
/govt-working-on-
EN
CPI(IW) is released by Labour Bureau. In news

proposal-to-raise-
minimum-
wages/article7526
740.ece
30
Science and
Technology
In the context of modern
scientific research, consider the
following statements about
'IceCube', a particle detector
located at South Pole, which
was recently in the news :
1. It is the world's largest
neutrino detector,
encompassing a cubic
kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to
search for dark matter.
3. It is buried deep in the ice.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D D CAA
du.com/sci-
tech/science/highe
nergy-neutrinos-
from-alien-
sources-
found/article53979
65.ece
https://icecube.wis
c.edu/ EN
IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that
records the interactions of a nearly massless
subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube
searches for neutrinos from the most violent
astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars,
gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena
involving black holes and neutron stars. The IceCube
telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter
and could reveal the physical processes associated
with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy
particles in nature. In addition, exploring the
background of neutrinos produced in the
atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos
themselves; their energies far exceed those produced
by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest
neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of
ice. It is burried upto 2.5 Km of depth.
In news
31
Current
Affairs
The terms 'Agreement on
Agriculture', Agreement on the
Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measure' and
'Peace Clause' appear in the
news frequently in the context
of the affairs of the
(a) Food and Agriculture
Organization
(b) United Nations Framework
Conference on Climate Change
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations
Environment Programme
C E CAA
du.com/business/I
ndustry/india-
appeals-to-
dispute-
settlement-board-
over-import-of-us-
farm-
products/article68
27360.ece
du.com/news/nati
onal/european-
union-lifts-ban-on-
indian-
mangoes/article68
05864.ece
EN
1. In news
because of Trade
Facilitation
Agreement.
2. Recently, EU
lifted ban on
Indian Mangoes,
which were
earlier banned
due to
phytosanitary
measures

32
Science and
Technology
With reference to 'Near Field
Communication (NFC)
Technology', which of the
correct?
1. It is a contactless
communication technology
that uses electromagnetic
radio fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by
devices which can be at a
distance of even a metre from
each other.
3. NFC can use encryption
when sending sensitive
information.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C M CAA
du.com/business/I
ndustry/icici-
launches-
nfcenabled-
payment-service-
tapnpay/article712
2328.ece
dubusinessline.co
m/money-and-
banking/rbi-
relaxes-2factor-
authentication-for-
payments-up-to-rs-
2000/article72059
74.ece
EN
Near field communication (NFC) is the set of
protocols that enables electronic devices to establish
radio communication with each other by touching
the devices together or bringing them into proximity
to a distance of typically 10cm or less. So only
statement 1 and 3 are correct.
In news
33
Current
Affairs
The area known as 'Golan
Heights' sometimes appears in
the news in the context of the
events related to
(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Central Africa
B M CA
du.com/news/inter
national/world/roc
kets-from-syria-
strike-golan-
heights-says-
israel/article68263
85.ece
EN
Golan Heights, is a hilly area overlooking the upper
Jordan River valley on the west. The area was part of
extreme southwestern Syria until 1967, when it came
under Israeli military occupation, and in December
1981 Israel unilaterally annexed the part of the Golan
it held.
Constantly in
news.
34 Economy
Convertibility of rupee implies
(a) being able to convert rupee
notes into gold
(b) allowing the value of rupee
to be fixed by market forces
(c) freely permitting the
conversion of rupee to other
currencies and vice versa.
(d) developing an international
market for currencies in India.
C M F
opedia.com/terms
/c/convertibility.as
p
EM
The ease with which a country's currency can be
converted into another currency.
Fundamental

35
Medieval
History
Medieval Indian State
Present Region
1. Champaka
Central India
2. Durgara
Jammu
3. Kuluta
Malabar
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
B D F
https://books.goog
le.co.in/books?id=
3btDw4S2FmYC&p
g=PA60&lpg=PA60
&dq=champa+durg
ara+kuluta&source
=bl&ots=RVMDD0
DSw-
&sig=PlQ49_AMpT
yS-
nssYUkeJwe0eFY&
hl=en&sa=X&ved=
0CCQQ6AEwAWoV
ChMI-
oD0voXGxwIVAlm
OCh2xNwwh#v=on
epage&q=champa
%20durgara%20kul
uta&f=false
EM
Champaka is modern day Chamba, Kuluta is Kullu and
Durgara is Jammu
36 Geography
Consider the following rivers :
1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar
Which of the above are
tributaries of Godavari ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
D D FM
Ncert Class 11th
India Physical
Environment
Page 27
EM
The Penganga, the Indravati, the
Pranhita, and the Manjra are principal tributaries of
the Godavari .
37 Polity
When a bill is referred to a
joint sitting of both the Houses
of the Parliament, it has to be
passed by
(a) a simple majority of
members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of
(c) two-thirds majority of the
Houses
(d) absolute majority of the
A M F
Laxmikanth Pg
22.3-22.4
EM
The Joint Sitting is an extraordinary mechanism
provided in the Constitution to resolve a deadlock
between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
(Art.108) is passed by a majority of the total number
of members of both the Houses present and voting in
the joint sitting.
hindu.com/news
/national/centre
-hints-at-joint-
session-route-
for-
bills/article6926
442.ece
http://timesofin
dia.indiatimes.co
m/india/Not-

Houses ruling-out-joint-
sitting-if-all-
options-on-land-
bill-fail-
Venkaiah/article
show/46696136.
cms
38 Environment
regions of India has a
combination of mangrove
forest, evergreen forest and
deciduous forest ?
(a) North Coastal Andhra
Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicobar
Islands
D FA
http://www.and.ni
c.in/andaman/flora
.php
EM
All three occur together in Andaman and Nicobar
islands only.
39 Culture
kingdoms were associated with
the life of the Buddha?
1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
D M FA RM
Buddha traveled to Rajagaha, capital of Magadha, to
visit King Bimbisara. During this visit, Sariputta and
Maudgalyayana were converted by Assaji, one of the
first five disciples.
Buddha belonged to Shakya clan whose capital was
Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the
growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha's
lifetime
40 Environment
associated with the issue of
control and phasing out of the
use of ozone-depleting
substances?
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol
B E CA
NCERT
http://www.ncert.
nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo
116.pdf
EN
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the
Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for
the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international
treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing
out the production of numerous substances that are
responsible for ozone depletion.
Fundamental

41
Medieval
History
The arrival of Babur into India
led to the
1. introduction of gunpowder
in the subcontinent
2. introduction of the arch and
dome in the region's
architecture
3. establishment of Timurid
dynasty in the region
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FA
NCERT Medieval
India XI( Satish
Chandra) Pg 174
RM
Gunpowder was known in India earlier than Babur's
rule. Babur was a descendant of Timurid dynasty or
clan of Turco-Mongol lineage, descended from the
warlord Timur and led to the establishment of
Timurid dynasty in the region.
42
Current
Affairs
The Government of India has
established NITI Aayog to
replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
D E CA
du.com/todays-
paper/niti-aayog-
is-new-policy-
body/article67467
99.ece
EN
NITI Ayog replaced Planning Commission. In news
frequently
43 Environment
What is the Rio+20 Conference,
often mentioned in the news?
(a) It is the United Nations
Conference on Sustainable
Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of
the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the
Inter Government Panel on
Climate Change.
(d) It is a Conference of the
Member Countries of the
Convention on Biological
Diversity.
A E CA
https://sustainable
development.un.or
g/rio20
EN
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development - or Rio+20 - took place in Rio de
Janeiro, Brazil on 20-22 June 2012. It resulted in a
focused political outcome document which contains
clear and practical measures for implementing
sustainable development.
Important due to
intense
negotiations on
climate change
and frequent
news item about
Paris Summit in
coming
December
44 Polity
statements :
1. The Executive Power of the
Union of India is vested in the
D M F
Polity M Laxmikant
4th edition Pg 220
http://www.newin
dianexpress.com/ci
EM
1st Statement is incorrect as All executive actions of
the Government of India are formally taken in the
name of President. Second statement is also
incorrect as the Cabinet secretary is the ex officio
Fundamental
and 2nd
statement in
news

Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex
Officio Chairman of the Civil
Services Board.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
ties/bengaluru/Civi
l-Services-Boards-
Constituted/2014/
03/04/article20895
85.ece
chairman of the civil service board.
45
Science and
Technology
The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is
often seen in the news in the
context of
(a) the limits of habitable zone
above the surface of the Earth
(b) regions inside the Earth
where shale gas is available
(c) search for the Earth-like
planets in outer space
(d) search for meteorites
containing precious metals
C M CA
du.com/sci-
tech/science/8-
new-planets-
found-in-
goldilocks-
zone/article676292
5.ece
EN
3rd option is correct. To be considered habitable,
exoplanets must orbit within a distance of their stars
in which liquid water can exist on the planet’s
surface, receiving about as much sunlight as Earth.
In News
46
Modern
History
Who of the following organized
a march on the Tanjore coast
to break the Salt Law in April
1930?
(a) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) Annie Besant
B M F
Spectrum page 168
RM
C. Rajagopalachari led Salt Disobedience march from
Tiruchirapally to Vedaranniyam ( off Tanjore coast)
47
Medieval
History
Who of the following founded
a new city on the south bank of
a tributary to river Krishna and
undertook to rule his new
kingdom as the agent of a deity
to whom all the land south of
the river Krishna was supposed
to belong ?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Ballala II
(c) Harihara I
(d) Prataparudra II
C D F
NCERT "Themes in
Indian History Part
II" pg 170
RM
Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of
both a city and an empire. The empire was founded
in the fourteenth century. In its heyday it stretched
from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme
south of the peninsula, in the Krishna-Tungabhadra
doab. It was founded by Harihara and Bukka, in 1336.
In the memories of people living in the Krishna-
Tungabhadra doab, they remembered it as Hampi, a
name derived from that of the local mother goddess,
Pampadevi.

48
Modern
History
statements :
1. The first woman President of
the Indian National Congress
was Sarojini Naidu.
2. The first Muslim President of
the Indian National Congress
was Badruddin Tyabji.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M F
Spectrum pg 384
RM
Sarojini Naidu was first Indian woman president
while Annie Besant was first woman president
49 Environment
statements regarding 'Green
Climate Fund' is/are correct ?
1. It is intended to assist the
developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation
practices to counter climate
change.
2. It is founded under the aegis
of UNEP, OECD, Asian
Development Bank and World
Bank.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A M CAA
Economic Survey
EM
The Fund is governed by the GCF Board. GCF is
currently structured into two themes—
mitigation and adaptation.
GCF is a fund within the framework of UNFCCC.
GCF is an
important
Financial
mechanism for
combating
Climate Change
50
Current
Affairs
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament and
Development for 2014 was
given to which one of the
following ?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research
Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research
Organization (d) Tata Institute
of Fundamental Research.
C M CA
du.com/news/nati
onal/isro-chosen-
for-indira-gandhi-
prize-for-peace-
disarmament/articl
e6614424.ece
EN
A jury chaired by Vice-President Hamid Ansari chose
ISRO for the award, given to individuals or
organisations who promote international
development, a new international economic order or
make scientific discoveries for public good.
In news

51
Modern
History
With reference to the Cabinet
Mission, which of the following
1. It recommended a federal
government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the
Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians
in the ICS.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
A D FA
NCERT " Themes in
Indian History Part
III" pg 389
RM
The Cabinet Mission recommended a loose three-tier
confederation. India was to remain united. It was to
have a weak central government controlling only
foreign affairs, defence and communications with the
existing provincial assemblies being grouped into
three sections while electing the constituent
assembly: Section A for the Hindu majority provinces,
and Sections B and C for the existing provincial of the
north-west and the north-east (including Assam)
respectively. The sections or groups of provinces
would comprise
various regional units. They would have the power to
set up intermediate-level executives and legislatures
of their own.
Fundamental
52 Environment
National Parks has a climate
that varies from tropical to
subtropical, temperate and
arctic?
(a) Khangchendzonga National
Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park
D D F
le.co.in/books?id=J
YFmoOWfmX8C&q
=namdapha#v=sni
ppet&q=namdhap
a&f=false
EM
53
Current
Affairs
Amnesty International is
(a) an agency of the United
Nations to help refugees of civil
wars
(b) a global Human Rights
Movement
(c) a non-governmental
voluntary organization to help
very poor people
(d) an inter-governmental
agency to cater to medical
emergencies in war-ravaged
regions
B E CAA
https://www.amne
sty.org.in/
EN
Amnesty International is a non-governmental
organisation focused on human rights.
In News
54 Culture
With reference to the art and
archaeological history of India,
which one among the following
B D F
NCERT
"Introduction to
Fine Arts Part I" pg
RM
Rock cut elephant at Dhauli dates back to 3rd century
BC.

was made earliest?
(a) Lingaraja Temple at
Bhubaneswar
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
(c) Rock-cut Monuments
Mahabalipuram
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri
20 ,
55
Medieval
History
With reference to Indian
history, which of the following
is/are the essential element/
elements of the feudal system?
1. A very strong centralized
political authority a very weak
provincial or local political
authority
2. Emergence of administrative
structure based on control and
possession of land
3. Creation of lord-vassal
relationship between the
feudal lord and his overlord
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B D FA
le.co.in/books?id=
2C7AOnBvu64C&p
g=PA246&dq=india
n+feudal+system&
hl=en&sa=X&ved=
0CCIQ6AEwAWoVC
hMI0pu2porGxwIV
wpCOCh2Rhw0t#v
=onepage&q=centr
al&f=false
RR
Authority of the centre diminished as local/feudal
powers emerged
56
Current
Affairs
'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for
Sustainable Forest Landscapes'
is managed by the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary
Fund
(c) United Nations Environment
Programme
(d) World Bank
D M CA
http://www.world
bank.org/en/news/
feature/2013/11/2
0/biocarbon-fund-
initiative-promote-
sustainable-forest-
landscapes
EN
It is an initiative by the World Bank. In news
57
Current
Affairs
India is member of which
among the following?
1. Asia-Pacific Economic
Cooperation
2. Association of South-East
B M CAA
http://dfat.gov.au/
international-
relations/regional-
architecture/eas/p
ages/east-asia-
EM
Membership of the EAS comprises the ten ASEAN
countries (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos,
Malaysia, Burma, the Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand, Vietnam), Australia, China, India, Japan,
New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, the United
Important due to
India Act East
Policy

Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) India is a member of none
of them
summit-eas.aspx States and Russia. The 18 EAS member countries
represent collectively 55 per cent of the world’s
population and account for around 55 per cent of
global GDP
58 Geography
In India, the steel production
industry requires the import of
(a) saltpetre
(b) rock phosphate
(c) coking coal
(d) All of the above
C M CAA EN
Saltpetre and rockphosphate are not utilized by
majority Steel companies in India. Further, India is a
producer of saltpetre and usually does not import
this product in large quantity
59 Polity
The provisions in Fifth Schedule
and Sixth Schedule in the
Constitution of India are made
in order to
(a) protect the interests of
Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries
between States
(c) determine the powers,
authority and responsibilities
of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all
the border States
A E F
LAXMIKANTH PG
33.1( Third Edition)
RM
Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes(areas and
tribes needing special protection due to
disadvantageous conditions). Sixth Schedule:
Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
60 Economy
With reference to the Union
Government, consider the
1. The Department of Revenue
is responsible for the
preparation of Union Budget
that is presented to the
Parliament.
2. No amount can be
withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India
without the authorization from
the Parliament of India.
C M F
LAXMIKANTH PG
289 ( Fourth
Edition)
EM
Department of Economic Affairs prepares the Budget.
Public Accounts includes provident fund deposits,
judicial deposits, savings bank
deposits, departmental deposits, remittances and so
on. This account is operated by executive action, that
is, the payments from this account can by made
without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments
are mostly in the nature of banking transactions. So
only second statement is correct.
Fundamental

3. All the disbursements made
from Public Account also need
the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
61 Polity
Who/Which of the following is
the custodian of the
Constitution of India?
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
D M F
CBSE LEGAL
STUDIES PAGE 165
Unit 4 CHAPTER 1
RF
Parliamentary democracy as envisaged in the
Constitution of India works, at Union and State level.
Especially in the making of law, there is direct
participation of the legislature and the executive. It is
the judiciary that safeguards the interest of citizens
by not allowing the other organs to go beyond their
role assigned in the Constitution. In brief, the
Supreme Court of India is the logical and primary
custodian of the Indian Constitution, while also being
its interpreter and guardian. Parliament enjoys
the authority to amend the Constitution; the
Supreme Court has the authority to examine the
validity of constitutional amendments. The Supreme
Court ensures that the other branches of government
perform their responsibilities in accordance with the
Constitution
Fundamental
Question
62 Economy
statements:
1. The Accelerated Irrigation
Benefits Programme was
launched during 1996-97 to
provide loan assistance to poor
farmers.
2. The Command Area
Development Programme was
launched in 1974-75 for the
development of water-use
efficiency.
(a) 1 only
B D FA
http://wrmin.nic.in
/forms/list.aspx?lid
=399
http://wrmin.nic.in
/forms/list.aspx?lid
=411
RM
Central Govt., during 1996-97, launched an
Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) to
provide Central Loan Assistance (CLA) to
major/medium irrigation projects in the country, with
the objective to accelerate the implementation of
those projects which were beyond resource
capability of the states or were in advanced stage of
completion.
Government of India initiated a Centrally Sponsored
Command Area Development Programme (CADP) in
December 1974 to improve irrigation potential
utilisation and optimise agricultural production from
irrigated land through integrated and coordinated
approach of efficient water management.

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63 Environment
The Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee is
constituted under the
(a) Food Safety and Standards
Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of
Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972
C E CAA
http://envfor.nic.in
/major-
initiatives/geac-
clearances
EN
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of
Environment and Forests under 'Rules for
Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of
Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered
Organisms or Cells 1989', under the Environment
Protection Act, 1986.
GEAC has been
frequently in
news since last
few years
hindubusinesslin
e.com/news/nati
onal/maharashtr
a-approves-field-
trials-for-four-
gm-
crops/article683
9527.ece
64
Current
Affairs
In the Mekong-Ganga
Cooperation, an initiative of six
countries, which of the
following is/are not
a participant/ participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 5
C M CAA
dubusinessline.co
m/opinion/story-
of-four-lost-
regional-
groupings/article6
975236.ece
EN
The Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) forum
encompasses the six riparian countries of the
Mekong and Ganga (Cambodia, India, Laos,
Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam). The original
promoter was Thailand. In 2000, the countries met in
Vientiane and agreed to cooperate in the fields of
tourism, education, human resource development,
culture, communication, and transport.
hindubusinesslin
e.com/opinion/s
tory-of-four-lost-
regional-
groupings/article
6975236.ece
65 Economy
'Basel III Accord' or simply
'Basel III' often seen in the
new, seeks to
(a) develop national strategies
for the conservation and
sustainable use of biological
diversity
(b) improve banking sector's
ability economic stress and
B M CA
dubusinessline.co
m/money-and-
banking/rbi-issues-
norms-for-bank-
leverage-ratio-
under/article67684
14.ece
EN
Basel III is a global, voluntary regulatory framework
on bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market
liquidity risk.
In news

improve risk management
(c) reduce the greenhouse gas
emissions but places a heavier
burden on developed countries
(d) transfer technology from
developed countries to poor
countries to enable them to
replace the use of
chlorofluorocarbons in
refrigeration with harmless
chemicals
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
business/basel-iii-
capital-norms-
revised/article6370
951.ece
66 Geography
statements:
1. The winds which blow
between 30 N and 60 S
latitudes throughout the year
are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that
cause winter rains in North-
Western region of India are
part of westerlies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M FA
Ncert Class 11th
India Physical
Environment
Page 35-36
EN
Westerlies are prevailing winds from the west toward
the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60
degrees latitude. Western Disturbance occurs in
India, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Nepal to describe an
extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean,
that brings sudden winter rain and snow to the
northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent. This is
a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the
Westerlies.
67
Current
Affairs
With reference to the 'Indian
Ocean Rim Association for
Regional Cooperation (IOR-
ARC)', consider the following
statements:
1. It was established very
recently in response to
incidents of piracy and
accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for
maritime security only.
(a) 1 only
D M CAA
http://mea.gov.in/i
n-focus-
article.htm?20707/
Indian+Ocean+Rim
+Association+for+R
egional+Cooperati
on+IORARC
EN
IOR-ARC, a regional cooperation initiative of the
Indian Ocean Rim countries, was established in
Mauritius in March 1997 with the aim of promoting
economic and technical cooperation. IOR-ARC is the
only pan-Indian ocean grouping. It brings together
countries from three continents having different
sizes, economic strengths, and a wide diversity of
languages, cultures. It aims to create a platform for
trade, socio-economic and cultural cooperation in the
Indian Ocean rim area, which constitutes a
population of about two billion people.
Important due to
maritime
security of India

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68
Modern
History
movements has contributed to
a split in the Indian National
Congress resulting in the
emergence of 'moderates' and
'extremists'?
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation
Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience
Movement
A E F
Spectrum pg 89
RM
Surat split of 1907 was the result of differences from
bengal partition protest strategy
Fundamental
69 Geography
In a particular region in India,
the local people train the roots
of living trees into robust
bridges across the streams. As
the time passes, these bridges
become stronger. These
unique 'living root bridges' are
found in
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu
A M CA
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
features/tp-
youngworld/living-
root-bridges-of-
meghalaya/article4
162886.ece
EN
Roots of the rubber tree — Ficus Elastica are the
pavements for these natural bridges in the thick
forests of Khasi Hills district. It is interesting to note
that the districts in Meghalaya are named after the
tribes in that area, like East Garo Hills district, West
Jaitia Hills district and so on. Strong secondary roots
of this rubber tree are manipulated to grow
horizontally through the tunnels of hollowed betel
nut trunks across the fast flowing rivers
70 Geography
Tides occur in the oceans and
seas due to which among the
following?
1. Gravitational force of the
Sun
2. Gravitational force of the
Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D E F
Ncert Class 11th
Fundamental of
Physical
Geography
Page 121
EM
The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or
twice a day ,mainly due to attraction of Sun and
Moon. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is
the force that acts to counter balance the gravity.
Fundamental

71 Geography
In which of the following
activities are Indian Remote
Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
1. Assessment of crop
productivity
2. Locating groundwater
resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A M CAA
http://www.isro.go
v.in/applications
Basic reference
material on
Science tech
EM
The Indian Space programme has two major
operational systems – the Indian National Satellite
(INSAT) which is a geostationary satellite is used for
telecommunication, television broadcasting, and
meteorological services and the Indian Remote
Sensing Satellite (IRS) for monitoring and
management of natural resources (e.g. locating
ground water resources, mineral exploration etc.)
and Disaster Management Support.
72 Geography
Consider the following States:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do
'Tropical Wet Evergreen
Forests' occur?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C M FA
Ncert Class 11th
India Physical
Environment
Page 58
EM
In India, evergreen forests are found on the eastern
and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such
states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
Maharashtra. And also found in Assam, Arunachal
Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal
and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
73
Current
Affairs
The term 'IndARC', sometimes
in the news, is the name of
(a) an indigenously developed
radar system inducted into
Indian Defence
(b) India's satellite to provide
services to the countries of
Indian Ocean Rim
(c) a scientific establishment
set up by India in Antarctic
region
(d) India's underwater
observatory to scientifically
study the Arctic region
D M CA
du.com/sci-
tech/energy-and-
environment/india
s-arctic-
observatory-to-aid-
climate-change-
studies/article6405
727.ece
EN
The deployment of IndARC, the country’s first
underwater moored observatory in the Kongsfjorden
fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole,
represents a major milestone in India’s scientific
endeavours in the Arctic region. The observatory is
anchored at a depth of 192 m and has an array of 10
state-of-the-art oceanographic sensors strategically
positioned at various depths in the water.

74
Current
Affairs
With reference to 'Forest
Carbon Partnership Facility',
1. It is a global partnership of
governments, businesses, civil
society and indigenous
peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to
universities, individual
scientists and institutions
involved in scientific forestry
research to develop eco-
friendly and climate adaptation
technologies for sustainable
forest management.
3. It assists the countries in
their 'REDD+ (Reducing
Emissions from Deforestation
+)' efforts by providing them
which financial and technical
assistance.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C D CAA
https://www.fores
tcarbonpartnership
.org/
EN
he Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global
partnership of governments, businesses, civil society,
and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing
emissions from deforestation and forest degradation,
forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable
management of forests, and the enhancement of
forest carbon stocks in developing countries
The four strategic objectives of the FCPF:
To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing
them with financial and technical assistance in
building their capacity to benefit from possible future
systems of positive incentives for REDD+.
To pilot a performance-based payment system for
REDD+ activities, with a view to ensuring equitable
benefit sharing and promoting future large-scale
positive incentives for REDD+.
Within the approach to REDD+, to test ways to
sustain or enhance livelihoods of local communities
and to conserve biodiversity.
To disseminate broadly the knowledge gained in the
development of the Facility and the implementation
of Readiness Preparation Proposals (RPPs) and
Emission Reductions Programs (ERPs).
FCPF grants fund to developing countries but not to
to universities, individual scientists and institutions.
75
Current
Affairs
Which one of the following was
given classical language status
recently?
(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
A E CA
du.com/news/nati
onal/odia-gets-
classical-language-
status/article57090
28.ece
EN
Odia is billed as the first language from the Indo-
Aryan linguistic group and the case for making it a
classical language was also premised on the fact that
it has no resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali and
Telugu.
Classical
Language is an
important topic
for UPSC
examination
76 Environment
With reference to an
organization known as 'BirdLife
International', which of the
correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of
Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of 'biodiversity
C M CAA
http://www.birdlif
e.org/
EN
The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term
"biodiversity hotspot" in 1988
in news,
hindu.com/news
/cities/kolkata/o
penbilled-storks-
flock-to-
raiganj/article67
47797.ece

hotspots' originated from this
organization.
3. It identifies the sites
known/referred to as
'Important Bird and
Biodiversity Areas'.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
hindu.com/sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/an
gry-birds-in-a-
real-
battle/article715
9361.ece
77 Geography
countries of South-West Asia
does not open out to the
Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel
B M F
Any Standard Atlas
RM
hindu.com/opini
on/editorial/a-
looming-
refugee-
crisis/article7326
417.ece
78 Geography
In India, in which one of the
following types of forests is
teak a dominant tree species?
(a) Tropical moist deciduous
forest
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with
grasslands
A E F
Ncert Class 11th
India Physical
Environment
Page 59
EN
The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in
the regions which record rainfall between 100-200
cm. These forests are found in the northeastern
states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes
of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham,
hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood
etc. are the main species of these forests.
Basic question
from NCERT
79
Current
Affairs
'Beijing Declaration and
Platform for Action', often seen
in the news, is
(a) a strategy to tackle the
regional terrorism, an outcome
of a meeting of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization
(b) a plan of action for
sustainable economic growth
in the Asia-Pacific Region, an
outcome of the deliberations
of the Asia-Pacific Economic
C M CA
http://www.un.org
/womenwatch/da
w/followup/sessio
n/presskit/hist.htm
EN
The Fourth World Conference on Women held in
Beijing in 1995. The legacy of the Beijing Conference
was to be that it sparked a renewed global
commitment to the empowerment of women
everywhere and drew unprecedented international
attention. The Conference unanimously adopted the
Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action, that was
in essence an agenda for women's empowerment
and stands as a milestone for the advancement of
women in the twenty-first century.
hindu.com/news
/india-admits-to-
gender-
inequalities-in-
beijing-plus-20-
review/article66
03307.ece

Forum
(c) an agenda for women's
empowerment, an outcome of
a World Conference convened
by the United Nations
(d) a strategy to combat
wildlife trafficking, a
declaration of the East Asia
Summit
80 Geography
"Each day is more or less the
same, the morning is clear and
bright with a sea breeze; as the
Sun climbs high in the sky, heat
mounts up, dark clouds form,
then rain comes with thunder
and lightning. But rain is soon
over."
Which of the following regions
is described in the above
passage?
(a) Savannah
(b) Equatorial
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterranean
B M F EM
Wet equatorial climate, is characterized by
consistently high temperatures (around 30 °C [86
°F]), with plentiful precipitation (150–1,000 cm [59–
394 inches]) on most afternoons., heavy cloud cover,
and high humidity, with very little annual
temperature variation. Wet equatorial regions lie
within about 12° latitude of the Equator.
81
Economy
economy, consider the
1. The rate of growth of Real
Gross Domestic Product has
steadily increased in the last
decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product
at market prices (in rupees) has
decade.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B D CAA
http://planningco
mmission.nic.in/da
ta/datatable/0814/
comp_databook.p
df
EM
Rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has
fluctuated a lot during the last decade and decreased
significantly in 2008-09 due to global financial crisis.
Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees)
has increased and did not show a declining treand
even once during the last decade as clearly seen from
the planning commission data

82 Polity
statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a
State in India can be larger in
size than half of the Legislative
Assembly of that particular
State.
2. The Governor of a State
nominates the Chairman of
Legislative Council of that
particular State.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D D FA
Article 171(1) and
article 172
RM
http://www.tele
graphindia.com/
1150120/jsp/odi
sha/story_9248.j
sp#.Vdxe0fmqqk
o
83 Polity
"To uphold and protect the
Sovereignty, Unity and
Integrity of India" is a provision
made in the
(a) Preamble of the
Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
D E F
Laxmikant Polity
Fourth Edition Pg
135
EM
Article 51A (c) Fundamental
84 Environment
the best description of the
term 'ecosystem'?
(a) A community of organisms
interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which
is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms
together with the environment
in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a
geographical area
C E F
NCERT Class 12th
Biology Page 241
EM
An ecosystem includes all of the living things (plants,
animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting
with each other, and also with their non-living
environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate,
atmosphere).
Option (a) and
(d) looks very
close but option
(d) give more
appropriate
Explanation

85 Polity
The fundamental object of
Panchayati Raj system is to
ensure which among the
following?
1. People's participation in
development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C D FA
http://arc.gov.in/6-
1.pdf
http://www.panch
ayat.gov.in/
RR
To attain decentralised & participatory local self-
government is the fundamental objective of
Panchayatiraj. Although all can the statements can be
associated with Panchayatiraj but the most
appropriate answer should be 1 and 3
Fundamental
86 Economy
following:
1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public Revenue
component/components of
Monetary Policy?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4
C M CAA
https://rbi.org.in/S
cripts/AnnualRepo
rtPublications.aspx
?Id=1121
EM
Over the last two decades, central banks have veered
round to conducting monetary policy through a single
short-term interest rate as a policy rate that it
controls through open market operations (OMOs).
These OMOs are conducted under an operating
framework that typically includes liquidity
infusion/absorption through repurchase agreements
(repos) or outright transactions in eligible securities
between the central bank and the market
participants. Public Revenue and debt are not part of
monetary policy. These are related to fiscal policy.
87 Economy
With reference to inflation in
India, which of the following
(a) Controlling the inflation in
India is the responsibility of the
Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India
has no role in controlling the
inflation
(c) Decreased money
circulation helps in controlling
the inflation
C M CAA
du.com/opinion/le
ad/understanding-
inflation-
targeting/article66
70330.ece
EN
RBI and government both play a role in controlling
the inflation, often termed as "inflation targeting" by
the RBI. Hence, a and b are incorrect. Increased
money circulation leads to increased inflation as
demand increases. RBI increases bank rates and SLR
etc. to reduce money supply in the market which
tames demand and hence, inflation.

(d) Increased money circulation
helps in controlling the
inflation
88
Current
Affairs
countries:
1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan
Which among the above are
Nuclear Weapons States as
recognized by the Treaty on
the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons, commonly
known as Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A M CAA
/disarmament/W
MD/Nuclear/NPT.s
html
EN
At present, 189 states plus Taiwan are parties to the
NPT. These include all five declared Nuclear Weapons
States (NWS) which had manufactured and exploded
a nuclear weapon before 1967: China, France, the
Russian Federation, the UK and the USA. The main
countries remaining outside the NPT are Israel, India
and Pakistan, though North Korea has moved to join
them.
89 Polity
The ideal of 'Welfare State' in
the Indian Constitution is
enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
B E F
Laxmikanth pg
7.29(3rd Edition)
RM
90 Economy
The substitution of steel for
wooden ploughs in agricultural
production is an example of
(a) labour-augmenting
technological progress
(b) capital-augmenting
(c) capital-reducing
B M FA
http://faculty.max
well.syr.edu/jomcp
eak/ppa%20757/T
heories%20of%20
Development.htm
RR
Labor augmenting is technology that increases skills
and productivity of existing labor force (example -
teaching people how to use the computer). Capital
augmenting technology increases productivity of
existing capital goods. In this case, replacement of
wooden by steel, increases the productivity of plough

91 Polity
There is a Parliamentary
System of Government in India
because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly
by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the
Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be
dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is
responsible to the Lok Sabha
D M F
Laxmikant Polity
Fourth Edition Pg
149
EM
This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary
government. The
ministers are collectively responsible to the
Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in
particular
(Article 75)
92
Current
Affairs
H1N1 virus is sometimes
mentioned in the news with
reference to which one of the
following diseases?
(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu
D E CA
du.com/opinion/e
ditorial/india-
flounders-as-h1n1-
spreads/article702
8788.ece
EN
H1N1 is cause of Swine flu In news
93
Current
Affairs
With reference to bio-toilets
used by the Indian Railways,
consider the following
statements:
1. The decomposition of
human waste in the bio-toilets
in initiated by a fungal
inoculum.
2. Ammonia and water vapour
are the only end products in
this decomposition which are
released into the atmosphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D M CAA
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/biotoilets-
for-all-trains-in-5-
years/article70386
28.ece
EN
Statement 1 is incorrect as it is Anaerobic microbial
inoculum. Statement 2 is incorrect as Bio Digester
disposes human waste in 100% eco-friendly manner
and generates color less, odorless water and
inflammable Methane- Gas for cooking, water
heating & room heating etc. as a by product.
In news
94 Economy
The problem of international
liquidity is related to the non-
availability of
(a) goods and services
C M CA
orwords.com/1764
6/international_liq
uidity.html
RM
Refers to the adequacy of a country's, or the world's,
international reserves. Under the Bretton Woods
System, liquidity was a problem, since it depended on
US dollars and thus a US deficit.

(b) gold and silver
(c) dollars and other hard
currencies
(d) exportable surplus
95
Science and
Technology
With reference to 'fuel cells' in
which hydrogen-rich fuel and
oxygen are used to generate
electricity, consider the
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a
fuel, the fuel cell emits heat
and water as by-products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for
powering buildings and not for
small devices like laptop
computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity
in the form of Alternating
Current (AC).
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A D CAA EN
Fuel cells produce direct current and smaller versions
are being patented regularly. Apple has obtained
such patents too.
hindu.com/toda
ys-paper/tp-
national/csir-
experts-study-
how-cars-can-
run-on-
air/article71824
56.ece
http://venturebe
at.com/2015/03/
17/apple-
patents-fuel-cell-
power-source-
for-phones-
laptops/
96 Culture
Kalamkari painting refers to
(a) a hand-painted cotton
textile in South India
(b) a handmade drawing on
bamboo handicrafts in North-
East India
(c) a block-painted woollen
cloth in Western Himalayan
region of Inndia
(d) a hand-painted decorative
silk cloth in North-Western
India
A M F
http://www.nios.a
c.in/media/docum
ents/secichcour/en
glish/ch.11.pdf
EM
Kalamkari painting is a painting done by Kalam (Pen)
in Andhra Pradesh it is done on cotton garments, bad
covers etc.
In news
97 Economy
best describes the main
objective of 'Seed Village
Concept'?
(a) Encouraging the farmers to
use their own farm seeds and
B M CA
http://www.archiv
e.india.gov.in/citiz
en/agriculture/vie
wscheme.php?sch
emeid=1801
EM
Foundation class of seed from authentic sources will
be supplied to the identified farmers and they will be
empowered to take up multiplication of seed under
seed Village Programme. The seed so produced will
meet the requirement of farmers of the mandal
/district. This Programme ensures supply of quality
hindu.com/sci-
tech/science/onl
y-a-ready-seed-
market-can-
help-conserve-

discouraging them to buy the
seeds from others
(b) Involving the farmers for
training in quality seed
production and thereby to
make available quality seeds to
others at appropriate time and
affordable cost
(c) Earmarking some villages
exclusively for the production
of certified seeds
(d) Identifying the
entrepreneurs in villages and
providing them technology and
finance to set up seed
companies
certified seed of high yielding varieties to the farmers
in time at their places at affordable prices besides
ensuring quick multiplication of new seed varieties in
a shorter time in that mandal/district based on the
crop situation.
traditional-
crops/article621
8015.ece
98 Economy
There has been a persistent
deficit budget year after year.
Which of the following actions
can be taken by the
government to reduce the
deficit?
1. Reducing revenue
expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare
schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A M FA EM
Budget deficit is used to define a status of financial
health in which expenditures exceed revenue.
Reducing the revenue expenditure will certainly help
in bridging the gap. Subsidies are a part of
expenditure and rationalizing them would reduce the
deficit.
Introducing new welfare schemes will most likely
result in increasing expenditure and so will expanding
industries which would require capital infusion.
hindu.com/busin
ess/Economy/su
bsidies-to-be-
rationalised-
joint-session-on-
insurance-arun-
jaitley/article681
1966.ece
99
Current
Affairs
has/have been accorded
'Geographical Indication'
status?
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
C M CA
dubusinessline.co
m/news/variety/tir
upati-laddu-gets-
stern-with-
imitators/article57
43644.ece
EN
Statement 1 and 3 are correct. GI tag of Banaras
sarees in news
because of PM
visit and related
news. Tirupati
Laddus were in
news due to

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
http://timesofindia
.indiatimes.com/cit
y/varanasi/Varanas
i-stole-presented-
to-
PM/articleshow/48
399682.cms
series of
litigations over
last few years
100
Current
Affairs
With reference to the Indian
Renewable Energy
Development Agency Limited
(IREDA), which of the following
1. It is a Public Limited
Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial
Company.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C D CAA
http://www.ireda.
gov.in
du.com/business/
what-are-green-
bonds/article7070
840.ece/
EN
IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company
established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in
1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to
promote, develop and extend financial assistance for
renewable energy and energy efficiency
/conservation projects. Both the statements are
correct.
IREDA was in
news because
of-Green Bonds
and Miniratna
status awarded
to it.

Observations
• The Paper portrayed a departure from the trend of last 4 years. While many traditional questions were from non-traditional sources and inferential, many
current affairs questions were very simple and straight forward eg NITI Ayog, Jandhan Yojna etc
• Paper was more factual compared to papers of CSAT era.
• More focus on current affairs as many questions were inspired from news. Instead of linking the current affairs to concepts it was more on factual side.
• Proportion of unapproachable questions remained on similar trends as previous year.
• Polity has moved towards traditional concepts compared to last year trend of is moving towards governance and public administration type questions.
• Some economy questions were on the lines of 2013 paper i.e. conceptual and analytical.
• Deceptive presentation is a common method to segregate deep knowledge with superficial knowledge or hunch. This technique was used in many questions.
• Some questions were too easy (E.g. Fortaleza declaration, H1N1 etc). This does not mean that we should not have proper knowledge of topic (Eg. NFC required
complete knowledge of the topic).
• Pointers for most of the questions could be traced to The Hindu but as recommended earlier, in the age of internet, complete knowledge of topic is expected
(CSB issue was in news consistently, TFA issue led to the question about AoA of WTO).
Recommendations:
• Read Basic/standard books, one Good News Paper (like The Hindu) and use internet extensively as almost 80% questions could be attempted with this
combination.
• Have keen perception about things going around you and assume less and less. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet or books or
teachers.
• Read one good book on each traditional subjects this will help in prelims, mains and interview i.e. all stages of examination. This will also help in making some
unapproachable question approachable.
• This year with the inclusion of factual questions and state civil service/State Services type one liners, it is advisable to be ready for analytical and factual
questions at the same time. It is expected that UPSC will not ask irrelevant facts (Date on which someone died type asked in state civil service) but important
facts should not be ignored.
• Nearly 60% of the questions were very basic which could have been answered by reading elementary books and newspapers. Strategy should be to avoid
negative marking in tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.

CA CAA F FA Grand
Total
Culture 2 1 3
Current Affairs 10 13 23
Economy 4 7 2 5 18
Environment 2 5 5 1 13
Geography 1 2 6 5 14
Medieval History 2 2 4
Modern History 5 3 8
Polity 8 3 11
science and
technology
1 4 1 6
Grand Total 18 31 30 21 100 0
5
10
15
20
25
Column 1
Section wise Nature
FA
F
CAA
CA

EM EN RM RR
Grand
Total
Culture 1 2 3
Economy 9 5 3 1 18
Environment 4 9 13
Geography 9 4 1 14
Medieval
History 1 2 1 4
Modern
History 4 4 8
Polity 5 4 2 11
science and technology 6 6
Grand Total 35 45 16 4 100
0
5
10
15
20
25
Column 1
Section wise Difficulty
M
E
D

EM 35
EN 45
RM 16
RR 4
Grand Total 100
35%
45%
16%
4%
Source Type
EM
EN
RM
RR

D 22
E 23
M 55
Grand Total 100
22%
23%
55%
Difficulty
D
E
M

CA 18
CAA 31
F 30
FA 21
Grand Total 100
18%
31%
30%
21%
Nature
CA
CAA
F
FA

Nature of Question

Einstein
- TEAM VISION IAS
 The analysis is based on premise that UPSC wants to identify aspirants with certain skills and aptitude required to function as a good
administrator. UPSC does not explicitly describe these skills so we infer them from Syllabus, Question Paper and feedback of experts and
students.
 This analysis is an attempt to quantify the subjective understanding and make explicit the implicit.
 We have inferred some conclusions from these stats but you are free to infer differently. Moreover independent/impartial thinking is one
of the qualities expected in administrators.
Observations on CSP 2016
 The Paper portrayed a departure from the trend of last 4 years. Although, in 2015 the number of current affairs questions increased but in 2016
UPSC has drastically shifted their focus on Current Affairs.
 There were traditional questions from non-traditional sources eg. Question on Keshab Chandra Sen and Agrahattas.
 Paper was more factual compared to papers of CSAT era.
 In the current affairs section, instead of linking the current affairs questions to concepts it was more on factual side.
 Proportion of unapproachable questions has increased than previous year.
 Polity has moved towards traditional concepts compared to last year trend and is moving towards governance and public administration type
questions eg- Chief Secretary, Gram Nyayalayas.
www.visionias.in

 Economy questions were largely drawn from Current Affairs eg- . Ease of Doing Business, Amber Box, Blue Box Subsidies, MCLR, etc.
 Deceptive presentation is a common method to segregate deep knowledge with superficial knowledge or hunch. This technique was used in many
questions. i.e. some questions could be solved through eliminating one statement e.g. GIAHS, National Ganga River Basin Authority etc.
 Some questions were too easy (e.g. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, UDAY, etc). This does not mean that we should not have proper knowledge of
topic because some questions like Atal Pension Yojana required complete knowledge of the topic).
 Pointers for most of the questions could be traced to The Hindu but as recommended earlier, in the age of internet, complete knowledge of topic
is expected (Gram Nyayalayas, The Economics of Ecosystem and Biodiversity).
Recommendations:
 Read Basic/standard books, one Good News Paper (like The Hindu) and use internet extensively as almost 80% questions could be attempted with
this combination.
 Have keen perception about things going around you and assume less and less. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet or
books or teachers.
 Read one good book on each traditional subjects this will help in prelims, mains and interview i.e. all stages of examination. This will also help in
making some unapproachable question approachable.
 This year with the inclusion of factual questions and state civil service/State Services type one liners, it is advisable to be ready for analytical and
factual questions at the same time. It is expected that UPSC will not ask irrelevant facts (Date on which someone died type asked in state civil
service) but important facts should not be ignored.
 Do not ignore your strong areas to do research in weak areas. You should be able to answer most of the questions from your strong areas.
 Nearly 60% of the questions were can be answered by reading elementary books and newspapers. Strategy should be to avoid negative marking in
tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
 Read questions carefully and use elimination technique wherever possible.

Nature of Question

A
n
s
w
e
r
L
e
v
e
l
Natu
re
Source
Sou
rce
Typ
e
Explanation Motivation Vision IAS
1 Current
Affairs
Regarding 'Atal Pension
Yojana', which of the
correct?
1. It is a minimum
guaranteed pension scheme
mainly targeted at
unorganized sector workers.
2. Only one member of a
family can join the scheme.
3. Same amount of pension
is guaranteed for the spouse
for life after subscriber's
death.
Select the correct answer
using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C M CAA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=138244
http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=116208
EN Statements 1 and 3 are
correct: To address the
longevity risks among the
workers in unorganised sector
and to encourage the workers
in unorganised sector to
voluntarily save for their
retirement, APY was
launched.
Statement 2 is not correct:
Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is
open to all bank account
holders who are not members
of any statutory social security
scheme. It doesn't bar the
number of family members
from a family.
Financial
inclusion
schemes like
APY,
Suraksha
Yojana,Jeev
an Jyoti
yojana, Jan
Dhan, etc.
have
remained in
news
regularly.
Covered in PT 365 material -
Social schemes.
Asked in PT365 Test - Test 2102
with respect to Atal Pension
Yojana
1. Any Indian citizen having a
savings bank account between the
age of 18 to 45 years can subscribe
to this pension scheme.
2. There is a provision of voluntary
exit before the age of 60 years.
3. This scheme will replace existing
Swavalamban scheme.
Which of statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2 Current
Affairs
The term 'Regional
Comprehensive Economic
Partnership' often appears in
the news in the' context of
the affairs of a group of
countries known as
(a) G2O
(b) ASEAN
(c) SCO
(d) SAARC
B E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/india-warned-
against-pitfalls-in-
asean-trade-
agreement/article8
729070.ece
EN Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP)
Agreement among ASEAN +
Six FTA Partners (Australia,
China, India, Japan, South
Korea and New Zealand):
Based on the Declaration of
the Leaders during the ASEAN
Summit in November 2012,
negotiations for a
comprehensive economic
partnership between the 10
ASEAN member states and its
six FTA partners commenced
in May 2013. Ten rounds of
Trade
negotiations
like TTP,
TTIP, RCEP
have
remained
regularly in
news.
Covered in both All India Test
serie s twice and PT 365 material
Tests - 1722, 1770, 1895
The 'Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership', recently in
the news, is related to the affairs
of:
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) OECD
(d) SAARC
Test - 1723, 1774, 1891
Regional Comprehensive Economic
Partnership (RCEP) Agreement is
proposed among ASEAN + six FTA

negotiations have so far been
held. The 10th round was held
from 8 to16 October 2015 in
Busan, Korea.
The negotiations cover a
number of areas like trade in
goods, services, investment,
intellectual property,
economic and technical
cooperation, competition, e-
commerce and legal and
institutional issues.
Papua New Guinea is not a
member of ASEAN.
partners. Which among the
following are members of RCEP?
1. New Zealand
2. China
3. Japan
4. Papua New Guinea
5. Russia
6. India
code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
3 Current
Affairs
On which of the following
can you find the Bureau of
Energy Efficiency Star Label?
1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D D CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/features/h
omes-and-
gardens/conservin
g-power-holds-key-
to-
future/article8625
361.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=137917
https://beeindia.go
v.in/content/star-
labelled-appliances
RR The Bureau initiated the
Standards & Labeling
programme for equipment
and appliances in 2006 to
provide the consumer an
informed choice about the
energy saving and thereby the
cost saving potential of the
relevant marketed product.
The scheme is invoked for 21
equipment/appliances, i.e.
Room Air Conditioners,
Tubular Fluorescent Tube
Lights, Frost Free
Refrigerators, Distribution
Transformers, Induction
Motors, Direct Cool
Refrigerator, electric storage
type geyser, Ceiling fans,
Color TVs, Agricultural pump
sets, LPG stoves, Washing
machine, Laptops, ballast,
floor standing ACs, office
automation products, Diesel
Generating sets & Diesel
pumpsets.
Energy
efficiency
has
remained
continuously
in news.

4 Science and
Technology
India is an important
member of the 'International
Thermonuclear Experimental
Reactor'. If this experiment
succeeds, what is the
immediate advantage for
India?
(a) It can use thorium in
place of uranium for power
generation
(b) It attain a global role in
satellite-navigation
(c) It can drastically improve
the efficiency of its fission
reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion
reactors for power
generation
D E CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/opinion/bl
ogs/blogs-the-
copernican/article
5685659.ece
EN ITER (International
Thermonuclear Experimental
Reactor) is an international
nuclear fusion research and
engineering megaproject,
which will be the world's
largest magnetic confinement
plasma physics experiment.
In News Covered in PT 365 material
5 Ancient
History
In the context of the history
of India, consider the
following pairs:
Term Description
1. Eripatti : Land, revenue
from which was set apart for
the maintenance of the
village tank
2. Taniyurs : Villages donated
to a single Brahmin or a
group of Brahmins
3. Ghatikas : Colleges
generally attached to the
temples
Which of the pairs given
above correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
D D FA The Penguin
History of Early
India: From the
Origins to AD 1300
- Romila Thapar
RR Taniyur, is a large village
under Chola administrative
division.
Eripatti was a special category
of land known in South india.
This land was donated by
individuals, revenue from
which was set apart for the
maintenance of the village
tank.
Land grants and generous
donations were given to
educational institutions like
Ghatikas and Mathas. Mathas
were residential schools for
early education in Pallava
kingdoms.
to test the
knowledge
of ancient
history in
Depth

6 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. The International Solar
Alliance was launched at the
United Nations Climate
Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all
the member countries of the
United Nations.
Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/sci-
tech/energy-and-
environment/modi
-launches-
international-solar-
alliance/article793
4560.ece
EN India and France have
launched an International
Solar Alliance to boost solar
energy in developing
countries.
The initiative was launched at
the UN Climate Change
Conference in Paris. It will be
a common platform for
cooperation among solar
resource rich countries lying
fully or practically between
the Tropics of Cancer and
Capricorn.
It will not duplicate or
replicate the efforts that
others (like International
Renewable Energy Agency
(IRENA), Renewable Energy
and Energy Efficiency
Partnership (REEEP),
International Energy Agency
(IEA), Renewable Energy
Policy Network for the 21st
Century (REN21), United
Nations bodies, bilateral
organizations etc.) are
currently engaged in, but will
establish networks and
develop synergies with them.
was
constantly in
news.
Tests- 1722, 1770, 1895, 2060
With reference to International
Solar Alliance (ISA), consider the
1. It was launched by India and
France.
2. It invites countries which are
located between Tropic of Cancer
and Tropic of Capricorn.
3. It will work under International
Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA).
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7 Current
Affairs
'European Stability
Mechanism', sometimes
seen in the' news, is an
(a) agency created by EU to
deal with the impact of
millions of refugees arriving
from Middle East
(b) agency of EU that
provides financial assistance
to eurozone countries
(c) agency of EU to deal with
du.com/news/inter
national/eu-
begins-disbursal-
of-greece-bailout-
money/article8756
190.ece
EN The European Stability
Mechanism is a European
Union agency that provides
financial assistance, in the
form of loans, to eurozone
countries or as new capital to
banks in difficulty.
was in news
constantly
due to
Greece
bailout.

all the bilateral and
multilateral agreements on
trade
(d) agency of EU to deal with
the conflicts arising among
the member countries
8 Economy Which of the following is/are
the advantage/advantages of
practicing drip irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Reduction' in-soil erosion
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above is an
advantage of practising drip
irrigation
C M FA http://www.agriinf
o.in/default.aspx?p
age=topic&superid
=8&topicid=2243
RR Advantages of Drip Irrigation:
1. Maximum use of available
water.
2. No water being available to
weeds.
3. Maximum crop yield.
4. High efficiency in the use of
fertilizers.
5. Less weed growth and
restricts population of
potential hosts.
6. Low labour and relatively
low operation cost.
7. No soil erosion.
8. Improved infiltration in soil
of low intake.
9. Ready adjustment to
sophisticated automatic
control.
10. No runoff of fertilizers into
ground water.
11. Less evaporation losses of
water as compared to surface
irrigation.
12. Improves seed
germination.
13. Decreased to tillage
operations.
Disadvantages of Drip
Irrigation:
In spite of the fact that drip
irrigation has so many
potential benefits , they’re a
certain limitation also, there
are as follow:
Due to “Per
Drop More
Crop”
component
under
Pradhan
Mantri
Krishi
Sinchyee
Yojana
(PMKSY),
Drip
irrigation
remained
regularly in
news. Also
mentioned
in Eco
Survey

1. Sensitivity to clogging
2. Moisture distribution
problem 3. Salinity hazards
4. High cost compared to
furrow.
5. High skill is required for
design, install and operation.
9 Current
Affairs
Regarding 'DigiLocker',
sometimes seen in the news,
1. It is a digital locker system
offered by the Government
under Digital India
Programme.
2. It allows you to access
your e-documents
irrespective of your physical
location.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C E CA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=142414
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/sc-
dismisses-pil-on-
digital-
locker/article7700
119.ece
EN Digital Locker is one of the key
initiatives under the Digital
India Programme.
Digital Locker is aimed at
minimising the usage of
physical documents and
enable sharing of e-
documents across agencies.
Have
remained in
news
regularly.
Test – 2084 (PT365) Which of the
following statements regarding
digital locker under Digital India
program is/are correct?
1. It serves as a Uniform Resource
Identifier of e-documents issued
by Government agencies.
2. Users can upload their e-
documents only with digital
signatures.
3. It is mandatory to link
individual's digital locker with
Aadhar number to upload
documents.
code given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
10 Current
Affairs
Recently, linking of which of
the following rivers was
undertaken?
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Son
(d) Narmada and Tapti
du.com/news/nati
onal/andhra-
pradesh/interlinkin
g-godavari-krishna-
my-most-
satisfying-
exercise/article805
1320.ece
ss.com/article/expl
ained/godavari-
and-krishna-rivers-
interlink-when-
two-rivers-meet/
EN The plan is to eventually
divert water from the
Polavaram dam, since the
dam is still under construction
and will take at least 4 to 5
years to be ready, the
Chandrababu Naidu
government decided to divert
Godavari water from the
Pattiseema Lift Irrigation
Scheme. This plan kicked off
on September 16, 2015.
Remained
continuously
in news.
Asked in All India Test series
1718, 1769, 2066
The Polavaram Reservoir being
built to interlink Godavari and
Krishna extends to which of the
following states?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Odisha
4. Chhattisgarh
code given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11 Environment In the cities of our country,
which among the following
atmospheric gases are
normally considered in
calculating the value of Air
Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B M FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/opinion/e
ditorial/air-
pollution-in-india-
clean-air-agenda-
for-the-
cities/article82725
73.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=110654
EN National Air Quality Index:
There are six AQI categories,
namely Good, Satisfactory,
Moderately polluted, Poor,
Very Poor, and Severe.
The AQI considers eight
pollutants (PM10, PM2.5,
NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and
Pb) for which short-term (up
to 24-hourly averaging period)
National Ambient Air Quality
Standards are prescribed.
Important
initiative of
Minister for
Environmen
t, Forests &
Climate
Change.
Also
remained in
news due to
high
Particulate
matters in
many cities.
Tests - 1725, 1776
Which of the following air
pollutants is/are included in the
National Air Quality Index?
1. Sulphur dioxide
2. Ozone
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Lead
5. Ammonia
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
12 Science and
Technology
With reference to 'Astrosat','
the astronomical
observatory launched by
India, which of the following
1. Other than USA and
Russia, India is the only
country to have launched a
similar observatory into
space.
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg
satellite placed in an orbit at
1650 km above the surface
of the Earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D D CA http://www.thehin
du.com/sci-
tech/science/isro-
launches-astrosat-
first-space-
observatory/article
7697707.ece
http://www.isro.go
v.in/Spacecraft/ast
rosat
EN ASTROSAT is India’s first
dedicated multi wavelength
space observatory. ASTROSAT
will observe universe in the
optical, Ultraviolet, low and
high energy X-ray regions of
the electromagnetic
spectrum. India’s observatory
will be the fourth in space,
after the Hubble(USA),
Russia’s Spektr R and Suzaku
of Japan.
ASTROSAT with a lift-off mass
of about 1513 kg was
launched into a 650 km orbit
inclined at an angle of 6 deg
to the equator by PSLV-C30.
ASTROSAT will observe
universe in the optical,
Ultraviolet, low and high
energy X-ray regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum,
whereas most other scientific
satellites are capable of
was
constantly in
news
Asked twice in All India Test series
Test -
1719,1767,2058,2061,2064,2067
With reference to ASTROSAT
mission, consider the following
statements:
1. It is India’s first dedicated space
observatory.
2. It will enable simultaneous
multi-wavelength observations
with a single satellite.
3. It is placed in geosynchronous
orbit to make communication
effective on earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Tests - 1778. 1896
Which of the following is/are space
observatory?
1. Astrosat

observing a narrow range of
wavelength band.
2. Hubble
3. Spektr
4. Suzaku
Select the correct answer from
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13 Medieval
History
economic history of
medieval India, the term
'Araghatta' refers to
(a) bonded labour
(b) land grant made to
military officers
(c) waterwheel used in the
irrigation of land
(d) wasteland converted to
cultivated land
C D F Early Medieval
Indian Society -
R.S. Sharma
A History of
Ancient and Early
Medieval India -
Upinder Singh
RR The 'ara-ghatta' originates
from the blend of the words
"ara" which means talked and
"ghatta" which means pot.
There is confirmation to
contend that this
arrangement of lifting water
from open wells was
presumably designed in the
India of the past.
Knowledge
of History in
Depth
14 Ancient
History
cultural history of India, the
memorizing of chronicles,
dynastic histories and epic
tales was the profession of
who of the following?
(a) Shramana
(b) Parivraajaka
(c) Agrahaarika
(d) Maagadha
D D F Ancient Indian
Social History:
Some
Interpretations -
Romila Thapar
RR During Gupta period, the
memorizing of chronicles,
dynastic histories or epic tales
was the work of a different
group of people, the sutas
and magadhas.
Knowledge
of History in
Depth
15 Current
Affairs
Recently, for the first time in
our country, which of the
following States has declared
a particular butterfly as
‘State Butterfly’?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh,
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
D M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/other-
states/maharashtr
a-gets-state-
butterfly/article73
42955.ece
EN The Blue Mormon is a large,
swallowtail butterfly found
primarily in Sri Lanka and
India, mainly restricted to the
Western Ghats of
Maharashtra, South India and
coastal belts. It may
occasionally be spotted in the
Maharashtrian mainland
between Vidarbha and
Western Maharashtra.
was in news Asked in All India Test series -
1716
about Blue Mormon, a species of
Butterfly, which was recently in
news:
1. It is endemic to India.
2. It is listed as an endangered
species by International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
3. It has been declared as 'State

It is reportedly the second
largest butterfly found in
India, just smaller than the
southern birdwing.
Not uncommon. Not thought
to be threatened. Occurs
throughout the year but more
common in the monsoon and
immediately after it.
Maharashtra has become the
first State in the country to
have a ‘State butterfly.’ Thus
all statements are wrong.
butterfly' of Karnataka.
above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16 Science and
Technology
statements: The Mangalyaan
launched by ISRO
1. is also called the Mars
Orbiter Mission
2. made India the second
country to have a spacecraft
orbit the Mars after USA
3. made India the only
country to be successful in
making its spacecraft orbit
the Mars in its very first
attempt
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C M CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/sci-
tech/science/articl
e6434096.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=117336
http://isro.gov.in/p
slv-c25-mars-
orbiter-
mission/mars-
orbiter-mission-
profile
EN Statements 1 and 3 are
correct.
The Mars Orbiter Mission
(MOM) has various
achievements to its credit
after it was inserted into Mars
orbit on September 24, 2014.
The details of significant
achievements of MOM
include
i. First interplanetary mission
realized by India and first
Indian spacecraft to
incorporate full scale on-
board autonomy to overcome
the long distances and the
communication gaps due to
non-visibility periods.
ii. First Indian spacecraft to
successfully survive Van Allen
belt crossing 39 times.
iii. First Indian spacecraft to
escape the Sphere Of
Influence of Earth and orbit
Sun.
iv. First Mars mission in the
world to succeed Mars Orbit
Insertion in first attempt.
It has
remained
regularly in
news
Covered in PT 365

v. Most economical
interplanetary mission in the
world and paved way for cost-
effective access to deep
space. The launch vehicle,
Spacecraft and Ground
Segment have been realised
with a budget of Rs 450 Cr.
Statement 2 is not correct.
Since the first successful flyby
in 1965, four entities have
successfully made it to Mars:
NASA, the Soviet Union, the
European Space Agency and
the Indian Space Research
Organization, while others,
including Japan and China,
have tried.
17 Modern
History
What was the main reason
for the split in the Indian
National Congress at Surat in
1907?
(a) Introduction of
communalism into Indian
politics b Lord Minto
(b) Extremists’ lack of faith in
the capacity of the
moderates to negotiate with
the British Government
(c) Foundation of Muslim
League
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh’s
inability to the elected as the
President of the Indian
National Congress
B E F NCERT, Bipin
Chandra, Spectrum
EM Surat Split refers to the
splitting of the Congress party
into 'Moderates' and
'Extremists' after a clash at
the session. The extremists
were led by Lokmanya Tilak,
Lajpat Rai and Sri Aurobindo
and the moderates were led
by Gopal Krishna Gokhale,
Pherozeshah Mehta and
Surendranath Banerjee. The
divided Congress re-united in
the crucial Lucknow session of
congress in 1916.
Basic
question of
modern
indian
history
18 Modern
History
The plan of Sir Stafford
Cripps envisaged that after
the Second World War
(a) India should be granted
complete independence
(b) India should be
D E F NCERT, Bipin
Chandra, Spectrum
EM Cripps Mission was sent to
India under the president ship
of Stafford Cripps in march
1942. The intention was to get
Indian support for Britishers in
the ongoing World War II. It
basic
question of
modern
indian
history
Tests-
1721,1772,1894,2062
With reference to dominion status,
1. Nehru Report demanded

partitioned into two before
granting independence
(c) India should be made a
republic with the condition
that she will join the
Commonwealth
(d) India should be given
Dominion status
proposed:
An Indian Dominion that will
be free to decide its relations
with the commonwealth and
United Nations
A constituent assembly to be
convened to frame a new
constitution.
Any province not willing to
join the Union could have a
separate constitution and
form a separate.
Other points in the proposal
were- Acceptance of Indian
constitution by British
government would be subject
to condition that any province
would have the right to have
separate union and a treaty to
be negotiated to effect the
power transfer to safeguard
racial and religious minorities
Defense of India to remain in
British hands.
dominion status.
2. Cripps Mission proposed
dominion status.
3. India became a dominion before
gaining independence.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
19 Geography Consider the following pairs:
Famous Place Region
1. Bodhgaya : Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho : Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi : Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) : Malwa
5. Tirupati : Rayalaseema
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
C D FA ATLAS, NCERT
Geography books
EM Bagelkhand or Baghelkhand is
a region and also a mountain
range in central India that
covers the northeastern
regions of Madhya Pradesh
and a small area of western
Uttar Pradesh. Bodhgaya is in
Bihar.
The Khajuraho group of
monuments was built during
the rule of the Rajput
Chandela dynasty. The
building activity started
almost immediately after the
rise of their power,
throughout their kingdom to
be later known as
Bundelkhand.
All the
places are
famous for
pilgrimages
and to
promote
tourism
government
has recently
focused on
developing
religious
circuits.

Vidarbha is the eastern region
of the Indian state of
Maharashtra, comprising
Nagpur Division and Amravati
Division. Shirdi is a town and
falls under Ahmednagar District
in Maharashtra. It is not in
Vidarbha region.
Tirupati lies in the Rayalaseema
region of Andhra Pradesh.
20 Polity and
Governance
The Parliament of India
acquires the power to
legislate on any item in the
State List in the national
interest if a resolution to
that effect is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple
majority of its total
membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority
of not less than two-thirds of
its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple
majority of its total
membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority
of not less than two-thirds of
its members present and
voting
D E F Laxmikanth EM If Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of
saying that it is “necessary or
expedient in the national
interest” that Parliament
should make a law on a
matter enumerated in the
State List, Parliament
becomes empowered to make
a law on the subject specified
in the resolution, for the
whole or any part of the
territory of India. Such a
resolution remains in force for
a maximum period of one
year but this period can be
extended by one year at a
time by passing a similar
resolution further.
Basic
question of
Polity
21 Current
Affairs
Recently, which of the
following States has explored
the possibility of
constructing an artificial
inland port to be connected
to sea by a long navigational
channel?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
D D CA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=125015
EN Government of Rajasthan is
planning to develop Inland
Shipping Port at Jalore which
would be connected to the
Arabian Sea by developing a
channel along the Kutch
Creek.

22 Environment With reference to the
Agreement at the UNFCCC
Meeting in Paris in 2015,
1. The Agreement was signed
by all the member countries
of the UN and it will go into
effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to
limit the greenhouse gas
emissions so that the rise in
average global temperature
by the end of this century
does not exceed 2
o
C or even
1.5
0
C above pre-industrial
levels.
3. Developed countries
acknowledged their
historical responsibility in
global warming and
committed to donate $ 1000
billion a year from 2020 to
help developing countries to
cope with climate change.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B M CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/inter
national/cop-21-
historic-paris-
climate-pact-
adopted/article798
1450.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=138511
EN 21st Conference of Parties
(COP21) also known as Paris
Agreement successfully
concluded in Paris under the
United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC). The
agreement is scheduled to go
into effect from 2020.
(Statement 1 is not correct).
One of the main focus of the
agreement is to hold the
increase in the global average
temperature to well below
2°C above pre- industrial level
and on driving efforts to limit
it even further to 1.5°C. It
covers all the crucial areas
identified as essential for a
comprehensive and balanced
agreement, including
mitigation, adaptation, loss
and damage, finance,
technology development and
transfer, capacity building and
transparency of action and
support. A marked departure
from the past is the
Agreement’s bottom-up
approach, allowing each
nation to submit its own
national plan for reducing
greenhouse gas emissions,
rather than trying to repeat a
top-down approach
advocated by the Kyoto
Protocol, giving each country
an emission reduction target.
was
constantly in
news
Tests - 1779, 1784, 2070, 2087
(PT365)
With reference to the Paris
Agreement, consider the following
statements:
1. It was convened under the Inter
Governmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC).
2. This Universal Agreement will
succeed the Nagoya Protocol.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statements
regarding Green Climate Funds
is/are correct?
1. It was formally established by a
UNFCCC decision in Paris at the
COP 21.
2. It is meant to limit or reduce
greenhouse gas emissions in both
developed and developing
countries.
3. It aims to jointly mobilize USD
100 billion per year by 2020
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

23 Environment Consider the following
statements:
1. The Sustainable
Development Goals were
first proposed in 1972 by a
global think tank called the
‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable
Development Goals have to
be achieved by 2030.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/inter
national/un-
officially-adopts-
ambitious-new-
set-of-global-
goals/article76897
26.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=136880
EN Statement 1 is not correct:
The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global
think tank is a global think
tank which in its 1972 book
“Limits to Growth” talked
about sustainability; however
they didn't propose
Sustainable Development
Goals. As per the resolution of
UN General Assembly in
September, 2015 the
Goals (SDGs) have been
adopted by 193 member
nations.
Statement 2 is correct: These
developmental schemes are
mostly addressing the
Goals (SDGs) which are
targeted to be achieved by
2030.
was
constantly in
news
Asked twice in Test series:
Test: 1713,2060
Which of the followings are the
differences between Millennium
Development Goals (MDG) and
Sustainable Development Goals
(SDG)?
1. MDG were in effect from 2000
to 2015 while SDG will remain in
effect from 2015 to 2030.
2. MDG consisted of 18 targets,
while SDG consists of 169 targets.
3. There are specific targets in
SDGs called “Urban Goals” which
were not included under the
MDGs.
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Test: 1719,1767,2058,2061,2067
is/are correct about New
Sustainable Development Agenda
(SDG) adopted by United Nations?
1. There are 169 Sustainable
Development Goal as part of the
Agenda.
2. The goals are non-binding to the
participatory nations.
3. It covers climate related targets
which are covered under UNFCC.
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

24 Current
Affairs
A recent movie titled The
Man Who Knew Infinity is
based on the biography of
(a) S. Ramanujan
(b) S. Chandhrashekhar
(c) S. N. Bose
(d) C. V. Raman
du.com/features/ci
nema/cinema-
reviews/the-man-
who-knew-infinity-
review-a-
misunderstood-
mind/article85345
74.ece
http://www.pib.nic
.in/newsite/mbErel
.aspx?relid=131773
EN ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’,
movie is based on a book by
the same name written by
Robert Kanigel on the life and
times of Ramanujan. The 46th
IFFI opened with the film
In news
25 Polity and
Governance
statements:
1. The minimum age
prescribed for any person to
be a member of Panchayat is
25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted
after premature dessolution
continues only for the
remainder period.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M FA LAXMIKANTH EM The minimum age for
contesting elections to
panchayats is 21 years.
In case of dissolution of
Panchayats before expiry of
its term, it is mandatory to
hold elections within 6
months of its dissolution.
Every Panchayat shall
continue for full term of 5
years. However, a Panchayat
reconstituted after premature
dissolution shall continue for
only the reminder of the
period. If the period is less
than 6 months then it is not
mandatory to held the
elections.
Basic
question of
Polity
Asked in All India Test series Tests
- 1714, 1763 , 1765
With reference to elections to
Panchayats, consider the following
statements:
1. The minimum age for contesting
elections to panchayats is 25 years.
2. Elections to panchayats are
conducted as per the electoral
rolls prepared for the most recent
state election.
3. The chairpersons of panchayats
at all three levels must be elected
indirectly by and from amongst the
elected members.
above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs), consider the
1. In case of dissolution of
panchayats before expiry of its
term, it is mandatory to hold
elections within 6 months of its

dissolution.
2. A panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution shall
continue for full 5 years.
3. All persons who have attained
minimum 25 years are eligible for
elections in panchayats.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
26 Polity and
Governance
1. A Bill pending in the Lok
Sabha lapses on its
prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya
Sabha, which was not been
passed by the Lok Sabha,
shall not lapse on dosslution
of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M FA LAXMIKANTH EM When the Lok Sabha is
dissolved, all business
including bills, motions,
resolutions, notices, petitions
and so on pending before it or
its committees lapse. They (to
be pursued further) must be
reintroduced in the newly-
constituted Lok Sabha.
However, some pending bills
and all pending assurances
that are to be examined by
the Committee on
Government Assurances do
not lapse on the dissolution of
the Lok Sabha.
The position with respect to
lapsing of bills is as follows:
A bill pending in the Lok
Sabha lapses (whether
originating in the Lok Sabha or
transmitted to it by the Rajya
Sabha).
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha
but pending in the Rajya
Sabha lapses.
A bill not passed by the two
Houses due to disagreement
basic
concept of
polity
Asked in Test- 1785
Which of the following bills lapse
after dissolution of Lok Sabha?
1. A bill introduced in the Lok
Sabha and pending in Lok Sabha.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha
but pending in the Rajya Sabha.
3. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha
but not passed by the Lok Sabha.
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

and if the president has
notified the holding of a joint
sitting before the dissolution
of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
A bill pending in the Rajya
Sabha but not passed by the
Lok Sabha does not lapse.
A bill passed by both Houses
but pending assent of the
president does not lapse.
A bill passed by both Houses
but returned by the president
for reconsideration of Houses
does not lapse.
27 Current
Affairs
Which of the following is/are
the indicator/ indicators
used by IFPRI to compute the
Global Hunger Index Report?
1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
du.com/news/nati
onal/india-is-
home-to-194-
million-hungry-
people-
un/article7255937.
ece
https://www.ifpri.
org/topic/global-
hunger-index
EN The Global Hunger Index (GHI)
is designed to
comprehensively measure
and track hunger globally and
by country and region.
Calculated each year by the
International Food Policy
Research Institute (IFPRI), the
GHI highlights successes and
failures in hunger reduction
and provides insights into the
drivers of hunger. By raising
awareness and understanding
of regional and country
differences in hunger, the GHI
aims to trigger actions to
reduce hunger.
To reflect the
multidimensional nature of
hunger, the GHI combines the
following four component
indicators into one index:
Undernourishment: the
proportion of undernourished
people as a percentage of the
population (reflecting the
share of the population
India ranks
improved in
Global
hunger
index 2015
to 55 from
63
Test – 2086 (PT365)
regarding the Global Hunger Index
is/are correct?
1. It is prepared annually by the
Food and Agricultural
Organization.
2. It gives equal weightage to child
undernourishment, undernutrition
and mortality.
3. As per the latest GHI report
India has moved up to 55th
position from 63 which shows
increasing hunger population.
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

whose caloric intake is
insufficient;
Child wasting: the proportion
of children under the age of
five who suffer from wasting
(that is, low weight for their
height, reflecting acute
undernutrition);
Child stunting: the proportion
of children under the age of
five who suffer from stunting
(that is, low height for their
age, reflecting chronic
undernutrition); and
Child mortality: the mortality
rate of children under the age
of five (partially reflecting the
fatal synergy of inadequate
nutrition and unhealthy
environments).
28 Economy There has been a persistent
deficit budget year after
year. Which action/actions of
the following can be taken by
the Government to reduce
the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue
expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare
schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C M FA UPSC 2015
previous question
du.com/business/E
conomy/subsidies-
to-be-rationalised-
joint-session-on-
insurance-arun-
jaitley/article6811
966.ece
EM Budget deficit is used to
define a status of financial
health in which expenditures
exceed revenue. Reducing the
revenue expenditure will
certainly help in bridging the
gap. Subsidies are a part of
expenditure and rationalizing
them would reduce the
deficit.
Introducing new welfare
schemes will most likely result
in increasing expenditure and
so will expanding industries
which would require capital
infusion.
Current
economic
situation
and problem
of growing
fiscal deficit.
It is also a
repeated
question
from last
year.
29 Economy The establishment of
‘Payment Banks’ is being
allowed in India to promote
financial inclusion. Which of
du.com/business/a
ll-you-need-to-
know-about-
EN In August 2015, Reserve Bank
of India granted 'in-principle'
approval to 11 applicants to
start payments banks. These
Last year RBI
granted ‘in
principle’
approval for
Covered in Vision Ias PT
365(Economy)
Tests -1718, 1766, 1890, 2060
With reference to payment banks,

the following statements
is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone
companies and supermarket
chains that are owned and
controlled by residents are
eligible to be promoters of
Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue
both credit cards and debit
cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot
undertake lending activities.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
payment-
banks/article75613
53.ece
https://rbi.org.in/s
cripts/BS_PressRel
easeDisplay.aspx?p
rid=32615
include Reliance Industries,
Airtel M Commerce Services,
Tech Mahindra, Vodafone m-
pesa, Aditya Birla Nuvo,
Department of Posts,
Cholamandalam Distribution
Services, Fino PayTech,
PayTm, National Securities
Depository Ltd (NSDL) and
Sun Pharma. They can issue
debit cards but not credit
cards.FDI of 74% is allowed in
these banks.
payment
banks to 11
entities,
including big
names like
Reliance
Industries,
Aditya Birla
Nuvo and
Tech
Mahindra,
as also Airtel
and
Vodafone.
1. Payment banks may take
deposits and remittances, internet
banking and other specified
services but they cannot
undertake lending services.
2. They can issue credit cards but
not debit cards.
3. An FDI of 100% is allowed in
these banks.
4. The Department of Posts has
been granted 'in-principle'
approval by the RBI to start such
banks.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30 Science and
Technology
With reference to ‘LiFi’,
recently in the news, which
is/are correct?
1. It uses light as the medium
for high-speed data
transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology
and is several times faster
than ‘WiFi’.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
international/lifi-
data-transmission-
through-
light/article621889
2.ece
EN Using light to deliver wireless
internet will also allow
connectivity in environments
that do not currently readily
support Wi-Fi, such as aircraft
cabins, hospitals and
hazardous environments.
Light is already used for data
transmission in fibre-optic
cables and for point to point
links, but Li-Fi is a special and
novel combination of
technologies that allow it to
be universally adopted for
mobile ultra high speed
internet communications.
Using the visible light
spectrum, Li-Fi technology can
transmit data and unlock
capacity which is 10,000 times
greater than that available
within the radio spectrum.
Path-
breaking
technology
of Li-Fi uses
light to carry
data and it
draws lot of
attention all
over the
world.
Covered in PT365 Asked in All
India Test series -
1721,1769,1895,2059,2067
What is the difference between Li-
Fi and Wi-Fi technology?
1. Li-Fi uses visible light while Wi-Fi
runs on radio waves.
2. Li-Fi is easier to hack compared
with Wi-Fi
3. Li-Fi transmits data at a higher
speed as compared to Wi-Fi.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31 Environment The term ‘Intended
Nationally Determined
Contributions’ is sometimes
seen in the news in the
context of
(a) pledges made by the
European countries to
rehabilitate refugees from
the war-affected Middle East
(b) plan of action outlined by
the countries of the world to
combat climate change
(c) capital contributed by the
member countries in the
establishment of Asian
Infrastructure Investment
Bank
(d) plan of action outlined by
the countries of the world
regarding Sustainable
Development Goals
B E CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/india-sets-
ambitious-goals-to-
tackle-climate-
change/article7715
679.ece
Economic survey
http://unfccc.int/f
ocus/indc_portal/it
ems/8766.php
ss.com/article/indi
a/india-news-
india/here-are-
indias-indc-
objectives-and-
how-much-it-will-
cost/
EN Intended Nationally
Determined Contributions
(INDCs) is a term used under
the United Nations
Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) for
reductions in greenhouse gas
emissions that all countries
that signed the UNFCCC were
asked to publish in the lead up
to the 2015 United Nations
Climate Change Conference
held in Paris, France in
December 2015.
The INDCs, which lay out the
blueprint for tackling climate
change, emphasised eight key
goals — sustainable lifestyles,
cleaner economic
development, reducing
emission intensity of GDP,
increasing the share of non-
fossil fuel based electricity,
enhancing carbon sink,
adaptation and mobilising
finance, technology transfer
and capacity building.
Recently
India along
with other
countries
submitted
its its
Intended
Nationally
Determined
Contribution
s (INDCs) to
the UN
Framework
Convention
on Climate
Change
(UNFCCC).
Covered in PT365(Environment)
Asked in All India Test series Test
1725, 1776
Which of the following are
objectives of India's Intended
Nationally Determined
Contributions (INDCs)?
1. Increase the forest cover to
33%.
2. Install 175 GW of solar, wind
and biomass electricity by 2022.
3. Reducing emission intensity by
1/3rd by 2030.
4. create additional carbon sink of
around 3 billion by 2030.
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
32 Economy Which one of the following is
a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a
scheme of the Government?
(a) Providing technical and
financial assistance to start-
up entrepreneurs in the field
of renewable sources of
energy
(b) Providing electricity to
every household in the
countries by 2018
(c) Replacing the coal-based
power plants with natural
gas, nuclear, solar, wind and
D E FCA Economic survey
du.com/business/I
ndustry/governme
nts-uday-scheme-
may-light-up-
power-
distribution-
companies-
crisil/article809881
8.ece
EN The Union Cabinet had given
its approval to a new scheme
moved by the Ministry of
Power - Ujwal DISCOM
Assurance Yojna or UDAY.
UDAY provides for the
financial turnaround and
revival of Power Distribution
companies (DISCOMs), and
importantly also ensures a
sustainable permanent
solution to the problem.
Under UDAY, state
governments will take over 75
Recently
Union
cabinet had
given its
approval.
It is one of
the
important
scheme of
Union
government
to
accelerates
the process
Asked in Open Test conducted by
Vision IAS - Test 1789
is/are correct about recently
launched Ujwal DISCOM Assurance
Yojna (UDAY) by Union
government?
1. It has been launched by Union
Ministry of Power for financial
restructuring of debt of power
distribution companies.
2. It seeks to make DISCOMs
financially healthy with an
ambition of meeting target of

tidal power plants over a
period of time
(d) Providing for financial
turnaround and revival of
power distribution
companies
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=130261
per cent of the debt held by
their discoms as of September
30, 2015. Half the debt will be
taken over in 2015-16 and 25
per cent in 2016-17. The
balance 25 per cent of the
debt is to be serviced through
state government-guaranteed
bonds issued by the discoms.
of reform
across the
entire
power
sector.
100% Village electrification.
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
33 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘IFC
Masala Bonds’, sometimes
seen in the news, which of
the statements given below
is/are correct?
1. The International Finance
Corporation, which offers
these bonds, is an arm of the
World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-
denominated bonds and are
a source of debt financing for
the public and private sector,
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=139028
du.com/business/I
ndustry/masala-
bonds-the-flavour-
of-the-
moment/article79
30287.ece
EN Bonds are instruments of debt
- typically used by corporates
to raise money from
investors. Masala bonds have
to be explained in the context
of Indian corporates raising
money from overseas
investors.
The International Finance
Corporation (IFC), the
investment arm of the World
Bank, issued a Rs. 1,000 crore
bond in November last year.
The purpose of the issue was
to fund infrastructure
projects in India.
Companies including NTPC,
Neyveli Lignite Corporation,
Power Finance Corporation,
Power Trading Corporation
and Rural Electrification
Corporation are likely to
launch these Masala Bonds
totalling $1 billion in the next
three or four months in the
UK to gauge the investor
appetite. The tenor of these
bonds is likely to be limited
to a band of five to seven
years and these are going to
be in smaller denominations
ranging from $150-250
In 2015, IFC
issued the
first Masala
bond listed
on the
London
Stock
Exchange.
A number of
Indian firms
are gearing
up to raise
funds from
issuing what
are known
as ‘masala
bonds.’
Coinciding
with Prime
Minister
Narendra
Modi’s
recent visit
to the UK
Asked twice in all India test series
Tests - 1720,1768, 2059, 2067
Masala Bonds recently been in
news, refers to:
(a) Group of international spice
industries whose members can
issue bonds to each other.
(b) Offshore rupee denominated
bonds issued by Indian corporates
to overseas buyers.
(c) Illegal bonds purchased by
Foreign Institutional Investors
(FIIs).
(d) Inflation indexed bonds.
Test 1785
Which of the following correctly
defines 'Masala bonds'?
(a) They are rupee-denominated
instruments sold only to offshore
investors by Indian corporates to
raise money from overseas.
(b) They are dollar-denominated
instruments sold only to offshore
investors by Indian corporates to
raise money from overseas.
(c) They are rupee-denominated
instruments sold only to Indian
investors by offshore corporates to
raise money from India.
(d) They are dollar-denominated
instruments sold only to Indian
investors by offshore corporates to

million. These will be subject
to decisions made by the
Boards of the PSU energy
companies.
raise money from India.
34 Medieval
History
Regarding the taxation
system of Krishna Deva, the
ruler of Vijayanagar, consider
1. The tax rate on land was
fixed depending on the
quality of the land.
2. Private owners of
workshops paid an industries
tax.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C D F http://shodhganga
.inflibnet.ac.in/bits
tream/10603/2560
0/7/07_chapter%2
02.pdf
RR Vijayanagara rulers followed
an oppressive taxation policy.
The prosperity of the empire
can be explained through
their taxation principles in the
following lines. They collected
variety of taxes ranging on
the nature of lands.
The villages were classified
into eight types for tax
purpose.
They were:
1)The brahmadeya villages
2) The devadana villages
3) The mathapura villages
4) The sarvamanya villages
5) The kodagi lands
6) Rakta-kodagal lands
7) Guttagi lands
8) The rest of the villages or
lands.
The first four types prevailed
prior to the Vijayanagar times.
Private owners also paid
industries taxes. Merchant
guilds were empowered to
levy taxes on goods
manufactured, sold or
transported
Depth
Knowledge
about
history
35 Culture Which one of the following
books of ancient India has
the love story of the son of
the founder of Sunga
dynasty?
(a) Swapnavasavadatta
(b) Malavikagnimitra
(c) Meghadoota
B D F http://ccrtindia.go
v.in/literaryarts.ph
p
EM Kalidasa is the most
distinguished dramatist and
his treatment of the rasa of
love in all its possible
manifestations in the three
plays Malavikagnimitra
(Malavika and Agnimitra),
Vikramorvasiya (Vikram and
Knowledge
about
literary
history

(d) Ratnavali Urvasi) and Abhigyana
Shakuntala (the recognition of
Shakuntala) is unparalleled.
He is the poet of love and
beauty, and believes in the
affirmation of life, the joy of
which lies in pure, sacred and
ever-widening love
36 Economy In the context of which of
the following do you
sometimes find the terms
‘amber box, blue box and
green box’ in the news?
(a) WTO affairs
(b) SAARC affairs
(c) UNFCCC affairs
(d) India-EU negotiations on
FTA
A E CAA Economic Survey
ss.com/article/indi
a/india-
others/govt-works-
to-finetune-farm-
subsidy-as-per-
wto/
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/eu-
canada-redflag-
indias-crop-cover-
scheme-at-
wto/article838187
9.ece
EM In WTO terminology,
subsidies in general are
identified by “Boxes” which
are given the colours of traffic
lights: green (permitted),
amber (slow down — i.e. be
reduced), red (forbidden). In
agriculture, things are, as
usual, more complicated. The
Agriculture Agreement has no
Red Box, although domestic
support exceeding the
reduction commitment levels
in the Amber Box is
prohibited; and there is a Blue
Box for subsidies that are tied
to programmes that limit
production.
The 'amber box': For
agriculture, all domestic
support measures considered
to distort production and
trade (with some exceptions)
fall into the amber box.
The 'green box': In order to
qualify for the "green box", a
subsidy must not distort
trade, or at most cause
minimal distortion. These
subsidies have to be
government-funded (not by
charging consumers higher
prices) and must not involve
The WTO
members
are
thrashing
out a work
programme
for the 10th
Ministerial
to be held in
Nairobi in
December
2015
Cover in PT 365
All India Test series
1723, 1774, 1891, 2063, 2064
Also covered in Open Test 1763
With reference to WTO
terminology subsidies are
identified by "Boxes" of different
colors. Match the Colour Boxes in
List I with their relevance in List II.
List I List II
1. Blue Box : A. Minimum
disruption of trade balance
2. Amber Box : B. Subsidies that
limit production
3. Green Box : C. Distort trade
balance because they encourage
excessive production.
code given below.
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
(d) None

price support.
The 'blue box': The blue box
is an exemption from the
general rule that all subsidies
linked to production must be
reduced or kept within
defined minimal ("de
minimis") levels. It covers
payments directly linked to
acreage or animal numbers,
but under schemes which
also limit production by
imposing production quotas
or requiring farmers to set
aside part of their land.
Countries using these
subsidies - and there are only
a handful - say they distort
trade less than alternative
amber box subsidies.
Currently, the only members
notifying the WTO that they
are using or have used the
blue box are: the EU, Iceland,
Norway, Japan, the Slovak
Republic, Slovenia, and the
US (now no longer using the
box).
37 Economy Which of the following is/are
included in the capital
budget of the Government of
India?
1. Expenditure on acquisition
of assets like roads,
buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from
foreign governments
3. Loans and advances
granted to the States and
Union Territories
D M FA NCERT Book For
Class XII :
Economics -
Macroeconomics
Chapter 5 Page 63
EM The Capital Budget is an
account of the assets as well
as liabilities of the central
government, which takes into
consideration changes in
capital. It consists of capital
receipts and capital
expenditure of the
government. This shows the
capital requirements of the
government and the pattern
of their financing The main
items of capital receipts are
Basic
economic
and
government
budgeting
concept
Vision Ias All India tesr series:
1787
recognized as Capital expenditures
in the Union Budget?
1. Loans to state governments
2. Expenditure on the acquisition
of land or a building
3. Investment in shares
4. Interest payments on debts
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
loans raised by the
government from the public
which are called market
borrowings, borrowing by the
government from the Reserve
Bank and commercial banks
and other financial
institutions through the sale
of treasury bills, loans
received from foreign
governments and
international organisations,
and recoveries of loans
granted by the central
government. Capital
Expenditure: There are
expenditures of the
government which result in
creation of physical or
financial assets or reduction in
financial liabilities. This
includes expenditure on the
acquisition of land, building,
machinery, equipment,
investment in shares, and
loans and advances by the
central government to state
and union territory
governments, PSUs and other
parties
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
38 Environment What is/are the importance/
importances of the ‘United
Convention to Combat
Desertification’?
1. It aims to promote
effective action through
innovative national
programmes and supportive
international partnerships
2. It has a special/particular
focus on South Asia and
C D FA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/erelcontent.
aspx?relid=39572
http://www.unccd.
int/en/about-the-
convention/Pages/
About-the-
Convention.aspx
http://www.unesc
EN Desertification, along with
climate change and the loss of
biodiversity, were identified
as the greatest challenges to
sustainable development
during the 1992 Rio Earth
Summit. Established in 1994,
UNCCD is the sole legally
binding international
agreement linking
environment and
Recently
ISRO-led
study
analysed
satellite
imageries of
the country
over an
eight-year
period
shows that
Asked twice in All India Test
series.
Test – 1785
Which of the following statement
is not correct about United Nations
Desertification?
(a) It is a not legally binding to its
signatories.
(b) It encourages the participation
of local people in combating

North Africa regions, and its
Secretariat facilitates the
allocation of major portion of
financial resources to these
regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-
up approach, encouraging
the participation of local
people in combating the
desertification.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
o.org/mab/doc/ek
ocd/chapter14.ht
ml
development to sustainable
land management.
The Convention addresses
specifically the arid, semi-arid
and dry sub-humid areas,
known as the drylands,
where some of the most
vulnerable ecosystems and
peoples can be found.
The Convention's 195 parties
work together to improve the
living conditions for people in
drylands, to maintain and
restore land and soil
productivity, and to mitigate
the effects of drought.
The UNCCD is particularly
committed to a bottom-up
approach, encouraging the
participation of local people
in combating desertification
and land degradation.
The UNCCD secretariat
facilitates cooperation
between developed and
developing countries,
particularly around
knowledge and technology
transfer for sustainable land
management.
nearly 30
per cent per
cent of the
country’s
total
geographical
area is
undergoing
degradation.
desertification.
(c) It was established in
accordance to the
recommendations of 1992 Rio
Earth Summit.
(d) India is a signatory to the
convention. Test -
1725,1776,1895,2070 With
reference to the United Nations
Desertification (UNCCD), consider
1. It addresses the issue of drought
in arid and semi-arid areas.
2. It is a legally binding
international agreement.
3. India is not a signatory to the
convention.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
39 Current
Affairs
Recently, which one of the
following currencies has
been proposed to be added
to the basket of IMF’s SDR?
(a) Rouble
(b) Rand
(c) Indian Rupee
(d) Renminbi
D E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/E
conomy/imf-
names-chinese-
renminbi-yuan-
global-reserve-
currency/article79
33846.ece
EN The Executive Board of the
International Monetary Fund
decided to include the
Chinese currency, the
renminbi (yuan), into its
basket of currencies that
make up the IMF’s Special
Drawing Right (SDR). The
decision was taken during the
IMF’s five-yearly review of the
basket of currencies.
Recently
chineese
currency
Renminbi
included
into
Tests - 1721,1769, 2067 , 2093
(PT365)
Which of the following currencies
form the part of special drawing
right (SDR) of IMF?
1. Chinese Renminbi
2. Japanese Yen
3. British Pound
4. Russian Rouble
code given below.

SDRs are artificial currency
created to augment
international liquidity. It is
neither a currency nor a claim
on IMF rather it supplements
the existing reserves of
member countries of IMF. To
be included as SDR a currency
must be freely usable, widely
used and widely traded. U.S.
dollar, the euro, British pound
and the Japanese yen form
the SDR basket. IMF has
decided to include Yuan in the
SDR basket with effect from
October 1, 2016. The
respective weights of the U.S.
dollar, euro, Chinese
renminbi, Japanese yen, and
pound sterling are 41.73
percent, 30.93 percent, 10.92
percent, 8.33 percent.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following is not
correct regarding SDRs?
(a) IMF decided to include Chinese
renminbi (RMB) in the basket of
currencies that make up Special
Drawing Right (SDR) with effect
from October 1, 2016.
(b) It is an international currency
created by the IMF in 1969.
(c) SDRs can be exchanged for
freely usable currencies.
(d) It was created in response to
concerns about the limitations of
gold and dollars as the sole means
of settling international accounts.
40 Economy With reference to the
International Monetary and
Financial Committee (IMFC),
statements:
1. IMFC discusses matters of
concern affecting the global
economy, and advises the
International Monetary Fund
(IMF) on the direction of its
work.
2. The World Bank
participates as observer in
IMFC’s meetings.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C M FCA http://www.thehin
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/indian
-economy-clearly-
on-recovery-path-
jaitley/article7118
986.ece
http://www.imf.or
g/external/np/exr/
facts/groups.htm
RR The IMFC advises and reports
to the IMF Board of
Governors on the supervision
and management of the
international monetary and
financial system, including on
responses to unfolding events
that may disrupt the system
although the IMFC has no
formal decision-making
powers, in practice, it has
become a key instrument for
providing strategic direction
to the work and policies of the
IMF. A number of
international institutions,
including the World Bank,
participate as observers in the
IMFC’s meetings.

41 Polity and
Governance
‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’
is a national campaign to
(a) rehabilitate the homeless
and destitute persons and
provide them with suitable
sources of livelihood
(b) release the sex workers
from their practice and
provide them with
alternative sources of
livelihood
(c) eradicate the practice of
manual scavenging and
rehabilitate the manual
scavengers
(d) release the bonded
labourers from their
bondage and rehabilitate
them
wsite/mbErel.aspx
?relid=126057
dubusinessline.co
m/news/variety/fig
hting-for-
dignity/article7342
754.ece
EN Campaign has started in 2001
known as ‘Rashtriya Garima
Abhiyan’, (National Campaign
for Dignity and Elimination of
Manual Scavenging) has
proven to be a very innovative
and effective program to
eliminate manual scavenging
practice. Campaign has
liberated 11,000 women
manual scavengers in various
parts of India and urged them
to give up this caste-based,
unconstitutional practice. In
its efforts campaign attain to
social, economic, political and
cultural rehabilitation of
Manual Scavenger.
Socio-
Economic
Caste
Census data
released on
July 3
reveals that
1, 80, 657
households
are engaged
in practice
of manual
scavenging.
42 Medieval
History
cultural history of medieval
India, consider the following
statements:
1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil
region were monotheistic
and condemned idolatry.
2. Lingayats of Kannada
region questioned the theory
of rebirth and rejected the
caste hierarchy.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C D F NCERT Themes in
Indian history part
-2(page no.-147)
NCERT our past 2-
Bhakti movements
EM The twelfth century witnessed
the emergence of a new
movement in Karnataka, led
by a Brahmana named
Basavanna (1106-68) who was
initially a Jaina and a minister
in the court of a Chalukya
king. His followers were
known as Virashaivas (heroes
of Shiva) or Lingayats
(wearers of the linga).The
Lingayats challenged the idea
of caste and the “pollution”
attributed to certain groups
by Brahmanas. They also
questioned the theory of
rebirth. These won them
followers amongst those who
were marginalised within the
Brahmanical social order.
Siddhas (Sittars) Saiva school
in Tamil Nadu which held the
to check in -
depth
knowledge
of history

monotheistic puritan creed
and roundly condemned
idolatry, there history are not
known they seem to be
known as most active during
16th and 17th century.
43 Economy Which of the following best
describes the term ‘import
cover’, sometimes seen in
the news?
(a) It is the ratio of value of
imports to the Gross
Domestic Product of a
country
(b) It is the total value of
imports of a country in a
year
(c) It is the ratio between the
value of exports and that of
imports between two
countries
(d) It is the number of
months of imports that could
be paid for by a country’s
international reserves
D M FA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/E
conomy/import-
cover-increases-to-
98-months-says-
rbi/article8093212.
ece
EN Import cover is an important
indicator of the stability of the
currency. It measures the
number of months of money
available in the national bank
to cover the cost of imports or
the stock of foreign exchange
reserves in terms of months
of retained imports of goods
as at end of year. During the
currency crisis of 2013, when
foreign exchange reserves fell
to around $275 billion, import
cover dipped to around seven
months.
Recently
government
official data
shows that
India
imports
cover
increae to
10.9 months
which
signifies that
Indian
foreign
currency
reserves had
increased in
recent past.
44 Current
Affairs
Community sometimes
mentioned in the news In the
affairs of
1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal
3. Rohingya : Myanmar
above is/are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
du.com/news/inter
national/india-
courts-radical-
madhesis-from-
nepal/article81639
11.ece
du.com/opinion/o
p-ed/turkeys-war-
on-the-
kurds/article80653
03.ece
EN The Madhesi also referred to
as Teraibasi Nepali are an
indigenous ethnic group of
Nepalese people who are
natives of the Madhesh plains
of Southern Nepal in Terai
belt of South Asia.
Between 25 and 35 million
Kurds inhabit a mountainous
region straddling the borders
of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and
Armenia. They make up the
fourth-largest ethnic group in
the Middle East, but they
have never obtained a
permanent nation state.
All the three
community
are in news
for recent
past,
Like kurds in
Iraq and
Syria are in
news for
their
massacre by
ISIS
terrorists.
Madhesi
peoples are
in news
.

du.com/news/nati
onal/report-puts-
spotlight-on-
status-of-
rohingyas/article82
19725.ece
The Rohingya are an ethnic
Muslim minority in the
majority Buddhist Myanmar.
Many of their enemies refuse
to acknowledge that the
Rohingya are an ethnically
distinct group. They claim
instead that the Rohingya are
Bengali and that their
presence in Myanmar is the
result of illegal immigration
(more on that later). The
Rohingya, for their part, claim
to be pre-colonial residents of
Myanmar’s Rakhine state, the
Middle East Institute explains,
with the earliest known
appearance of the term
Rohingya in 1799
because of
consitutiona
l deadlock
and conflict
between
them and
Nepali
government
Rohingya
muslims in
myanmar
are in news
for their
conflict with
Myanmar
majority
buddhist
population
and
thousands
of ethnic
Rohingya
are fleeing
persecution.
45 Current
Affairs
With reference to
‘Organiation for the
Prohibition of Chemical
Weapons (OPCW)’, consider
1. It is an organization of
European Union in working
relation with NATO and
WHO.
2. It monitors chemical
industry to prevent new
weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and
protection to States (Parties)
against chemical weapons
threats.
du.com/news/inter
national/world/op
cw-is-upholding-
nobels-
vision/article52249
90.ece
EN OPCW is the Hague-based
autonomous body, which
works within the framework
of the United Nations, was
established in 1997 by the
Chemical Weapons
Convention to carry out its
mandate.
OBJECTIVES:
OPCW Member States share
the collective goal of
preventing chemistry from
ever again being used for
warfare, thereby
strengthening international
security. To this end, the
Convention contains four key
It was in
news due to
reports of
Chemical
weapons
used by ISIS
as well as
Assad
regime in
Syria. It was
awarded the
Nobel Peace
Prize in
2013 for its
extensive
efforts to
eliminate
Tests - 1715 and 1767
With reference to the Organization
for the Prohibition of Chemical
Weapons consider the following
statements:
1. OPCW is an intergovernmental
organisation, headquatered in
Hague, Netherlands.
2. It is the implementing body of
the Chemical Weapons Convention
(CWC)
3. It was awarded Nobel Peace
Prize in 2013.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
provisions:
destroying all existing
chemical weapons under
international verification by
the OPCW
monitoring chemical industry
to prevent new weapons from
re-emerging;
providing assistance and
protection to States Parties
against chemical threats; and
fostering international
cooperation to strengthen
implementation of the
Convention and promote the
peaceful use of chemistry.
chemical
weapons.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
46 Current
Affairs
With referene to ‘Pradhan
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’,
statements:
1. Under this scheme,
farmers will have to pay a
uniform premium of two
percent for any crop they
cultivate in any reason of the
year.
2. This scheme covers post-
harvest losses arising out of
cyclones and unseasonal
rains.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M CA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=134432
du.com/news/nati
onal/govt-
approves-new-
crop-insurance-
plan-for-
farmers/article810
2137.ece
EN Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana (PMFBY) is the new
crop damage insurance
scheme that has been
approved by the Union
Cabinet in January 2016. It will
replace the existing two crop
insurance schemes National
Agricultural Insurance Scheme
(NAIS) and Modified NAIS. The
new scheme will come into
force from the Kharif season
starting in June this year.
One of the highlights included
there will be a uniform
premium of only 2% to be
paid by farmers for all Kharif
crops and 1.5% for all Rabi
crops. In case of annual
commercial and horticultural
crops, the premium to be paid
by farmers will be only 5%.
Also POST-HARVEST LOSSES
includes (individual farm
basis): Coverage is available
Recently it
was
launched by
central
government
to enhance
insurance
coverage to
more crop
area to
protect
farmers
from
vagaries of
monsoon
and this
schemes is
radically
departure
from earlier
crop in
surance
schemes.
Asked in All India Test series Tests
- 1723,1771,1894,2069
With reference to Pradhan Mantri
Fasal Bima Yojana, consider the
1. It covers localized calamities
including hailstorms, unseasonal
rains, landslides and inundation.
2. It does not cover nuclear risks
and fields destroyed by domestic
or wild animals.
3. It proposes mandatory use of
remote sensing, smart phones and
drones for quick estimation of crop
loss.
4. Post-harvest losses coverage is
included under this scheme.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

upto a maximum period of 14
days from harvesting for
those crops which are kept in
"cut & spread" condition to
dry in the field after
harvesting, against specific
perils of cyclone / cyclonic
rains, unseasonal rains
throughout the country.
Hence only statement 2 is
correct.
47 Environment In which of the following
regions of India are you most
likely to come across the
‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its
natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwet
India
(b) Higher Himalayas of
Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western
Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
D M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/citie
s/Coimbatore/gro
wing-threat-to-
great-indian-
hornbills/article71
37163.ece
EN The great hornbill, a
magnificent bird reaching a
length of three-and-a-half
feet, is distinguished by a big
yellow beak with a casque and
striking tail feathers the
magnificent birds which were
a common sight in the
Western Ghats are rarely
seen, due to deforestation.
habitat loss threatens its
future, and hunting has
depleted populations. It is
protected at the highest level
under Schedule I of the
Wildlife Protection Act, but
that can do little to save the
habitat.
48 Current
Affairs
the key features of ‘National
Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA)?
1. River basin is the unit of
planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river
conservation efforts at the
national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers
of the States through which
the Ganga flows becoms the
A M FCA http://nmcg.nic.in/
ngrbaread.aspx
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=137894
EN The Central Government set
up the ‘National Ganga River
Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) in
2009 and mandated it to take
up regulatory and
developmental functions with
sustainability needs for
effective abatement of
pollution and conservation of
the river Ganga by adopting a
river basin approach for
comprehensive planning and
National
Mission for
Clean Ganga
(NMCG) is
the
implementa
tion wing of
National
Ganga River
Basin
Authority
(NGRBA).

Chairman of NGRBA on
rotation basis.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
management.
The Ministry of Water
Resources, River Development
and Ganga Rejuvenation
(MoWR, RD & GR) is the nodal
Ministry for the NGRBA. The
authority is chaired by the
Prime Minister and has as its
members the Union Ministers
concerned, the Chief
Ministers of the States
through which Ganga flows,
viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and
West Bengal, among others.
This initiative is expected to
rejuvenate the collective
efforts of the Centre and the
States for cleaning the river.
NGRBA functions include
development of a Ganga River
Basin Management Plan,
regulation of activities aimed
at prevention, control and
abatement of pollution, to
maintain water quality and to
take measures relevant to the
river ecology in the Ganga
basin states. It is mandated to
ensure the maintenance of
minimum ecological flows in
the river Ganga and abate
pollution through planning,
financing and execution of
programmes including that of
1) Augmentation of Sewerage
Infrastructure
2) Catchment Area Treatment
3) Protection of Flood Plains
4) Creating Public Awareness

49 Current
Affairs
Why does the Government
of India promote the use of
‘Neem-coated Urea’ in
agriculture?
(a) Release of Neem oil in the
soil increases nitrogen
fixation by the soil
microorganisms
(b) Neem coating slows
down the rate of dissolution
of urea in the soil
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a
greenhouse gas, is not at all
released into atmosphere by
crop fields
(d) It is a combination of a
weedicide and a fertilizer for
particular crops
B M FA Economic survey
(2015-16)
EM Urea is an important supplier
of nitrogen, which is
necessary for the
development of plants. But
only 30-40 per cent of
nitrogen present in the urea is
utilised by crops. The rest gets
degraded.
When ordinary urea is
applied, it gets converted to
ammonium carbamate. Some
of this gets converted to
ammonia gas in what is called
ammonia volatilisation.
About 8-10 per cent nitrogen
is lost during volatilization.
The rest of the ammonium
carbamate undergoes
chemical transformation and
nitrates are formed. Some of
these are absorbed by the
plants. The rest are either
leached into the underground
water or are denitrified to
gaseous nitrogen and nitrous
oxide under anaerobic
conditions (absence of
oxygen). Neem has properties
that check nitrogen loss at
each stage. It slows down the
process of nitrate formation
and hence excess nitrate is
not available for
denitrification.
When farmers use this urea,
the slow release of nitrogen
helps the fertility of the soil.
Therefore, there will be more
yield to the extent of 15-20%.
Also, the higher usage of
neem-coated urea would
Government
promoted
neem coted
urea to
prevent the
problem of
uncontrolled
use of
chemical
fertilizer and
it was
emphasise
in Economic
survey.
Tests - 1722, 1770, 2063
Which of the following best
explains the advantage of neem-
coated urea over normal urea?
(a) Neem checks the loss of
nitrogen by slowing nitrate
formation.
(b) Neem coated urea enhances
the rate of absorption of nitrogen.
(c) Neem coated urea increases
soil’s capacity to retain nitrogen.
(d) Presence of neem increases the
life span of plants.

check diversion of urea for
industrial use. Neem coated
urea also works as insecticide.
50 Polity and
Governance
statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a
State is appointed by the
Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a
State has a fixed tenure.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D D FA Indian Public
Administration(thir
d edition)
Ramesh k Arora
and Rajni Goyal
Chapter 18(The
Chief Secretary and
State Secretariat)
Page no.-335-336
Supreme Court of
India
E. P. Royappa vs
State Of Tamil
Nadu & Anr on 23
November, 1973
RR The incumbent to the post of
Chief Secretary is chosen by
and appointed by the Chief
Minister and the Ministers of
the State. The trend is that the
Chief Minister consults the
Union Government regarding
the appointment of the Chief
Secretary but, this consultation
is not obligatory.
There is no fixed tenure for the
post of Chief Secretary.
Administrative reform
commission in 1969 had
recommended that a Chief
secretary should have a
minimum tenure of three to
four years.
To check the
deep
understandi
ngs of the
concept of
Polity.
51 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘Stand Up
India Scheme’, which of the
correct?
1. Its purpose is to promote
entrepreneurship among
SC/ST and women
entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinance
through SIDBI.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/modi-to-
launch-stand-up-
india-scheme-
tomorrow/article8
430358.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=138523
EN "Stand Up India Scheme" was
initiated to promote
entrepreneurship among
Scheduled Castes, Schedule
Tribes and Women.
The scheme will provide
financial aid through the Small
Industries Development Bank
of India (SIDBI) with an initial
amount of Rs 10,000 crore.
The system will personally
guide each entrepreneur
through the pre-loan and
operational phases.
The scheme will also
familiarise the entrepreneurs
with factoring services, e-
market places and registration
with online platforms and
other aspects of web
entrepreneurship.
Constantly
in news
Tests- 1724,1775,1891,2063
"Stand up India Scheme" was
launched under the broader theme
of "Start Up India, Stand Up India"
to promote entrepreneurship
among:
1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Differently-abled
4. Women
5. Minorities
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

52 Environment The FAO accords the status
of ‘Globally Important
Agricultural Heritage System
(GIAHS)’ to traditional
agricultural systems. What is
the overall goal of this
initiative?
1. To provide modern
technology, training in
modern farming methods
and financial support to local
communities of identified
GIAHS so as to greatly
enhance their agricultural
productivity.
2. To identify and safeguard
eco-friendly traditional farm
practices and their
associated landscapes,
agricultural biodiversity and
knowledge systems of the
local communities
3. The provide Geographical
Indication status to all the
varieties of agricultural
produce in such identifies
GIAHS
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
du.com/sci-
tech/ecofriendly-
technologies-fetch-
better-results-in-
rice-
production/article
7154833.ece
http://www.fao.or
g/giahs/giahs/giahs
-about/en/
EN Statement 1 is incorrect.
GIAHS aims to protect
traditional agricultural
systems. It will not provide
any modern technology and
training.
Statement 2 is correct. GIAHS
aims to identify and safeguard
eco-friendly traditional farm
practices and their associated
landscapes, agricultural
biodiversity and knowledge
systems of the local
communities.
Statement 3 is also incorrect.
There is no such provision.
Test- 2139( Open Test 5)
This region is a delta region of
about 900 sq. km situated in the
west coast of Kerala State, India.
The farming System practiced here
is unique as it is the only system in
India that practices rice cultivation
below sea level. It is one of the
Globally Important Agricultural
Heritage Systems (GIAHS) sites in
India." The above passage
describes which of the following
places?
(a) Koratpur
(b) Pampore
(c) Kuttanad
(d) Munnar
53 Geography Which of the following is/are
tributary/ tributaries of
Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D M F NCERT 11, India
physical
environment, page
26
EM All the given rivers Dibang,
Kameng and Lohit are the
tributaries of Brahmaputra.
Concept of
Geography

54 Economy The term ‘Core Banking
Solution’ is sometimes seen
in the news. Which of the
following statements best
describes/describe this
term?
1. It is a networking of a
bank’s branches which
enables customers to
operate their accounts from
any branch of the bank on its
network regardless of where
they open their accounts.
2. It is an effort to increase
RBI’s control over
commercial banks through
computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure
by which a bank with huge
non-performing assets is
taken over by another bank.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A M FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/tamil-
nadu/post-offices-
in-south-migrating-
to-core-banking-
solutions/article82
21039.ece
EN Only statement 1 is correct.
Core banking solution enables
customers to operate their
accounts, and avail banking
services from any branch of
the bank on CBS network,
regardless of where they oepn
and maintain their account.
India post's
IT
modernisati
on project
55 Environment Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in
the news Their origin
1. Annex-I Countries :
Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions
Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development
Mechanisms : Kyoto Protocol
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
C E F Economic survey
(2015-16) Vol 2 pg.
187
http://unfccc.int/k
yoto_protocol/mec
hanisms/clean_dev
elopment_mechani
sm/items/2718.ph
p
EM The Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM), created
multilaterally under the
UNFCCC is one of the
mitigation instruments under
the Kyoto Protocol.
The Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM), defined in
Article 12 of the Protocol,
allows a country with an
emission-reduction or
emission-limitation
commitment under the Kyoto
Protocol (Annex B Party) to
Climate
change
negotiations
Test – 1784
regarding the Clean Development
Mechanism (CDM):
1. It is one of mitigation centric
instruments created under the
UNFCCC.
2. Certified emission reduction
(CER) credits earned under it can
be counted towards meeting Kyoto
targets.
(a) 1 only

(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
implement an emission-
reduction project in
developing countries. Such
projects can earn saleable
certified emission reduction
(CER) credits, each equivalent
to one tonne of CO2, which
can be counted towards
meeting Kyoto targets.
Annex-I countries are parties
to Kyoto protocol.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Test – 1726, 1777, 2069
With reference to Nagoya
Protocol, consider the following
statements:
1. It saves source countries from
all forms of foreign bioprospecting.
2. It is a legally binding treaty.
3. It covers traditional knowledge
(TK) associated with genetic
resources.
code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
56 Science and
Technology
In the context of the
developments in
Bioinformatics, the term
‘transcriptome’, sometimes
seen in the news, refers to
(a) a range of enzymes used
in genome editing
(b) the full range of mRNA
molecules expressed by an
organism
(c) the description of the
mechanism of gene
expression
(d) a mechanism of genetic
mutations taking place in
cells
B D CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/karnataka/ge
nome-of-the-asian-
elephant-
sequenced-for-the-
first-time-in-
india/article80060
26.ece
EN Bioinformatics refers to the
application of computer
technology to the
management of biological
information.
Transcriptome refers to the
full range of messenger RNA
(mRNA) molecules expressed
from the genes of an
organism.
Recent
developmen
ts in
technology
57 Current
Affairs
‘Mission Indradhanush’
launched by the Government
of India pertains to
(a) immunization of children
A E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/kerala/missio
n-
EN Mission Indradhanush: It was
launched by Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare on
25th Dec 2014. The objective
was
constantly in
news
Covered in PT365 material - Social
schemes
Tests - 1724,1775, 1891, 2065
Which of the following diseases

and pregnant women
(b) construction of smart
cities across the country
(c) India’s own search for the
Earth-like planets in outer
space
(d) New Educational Policy
indradhanush/artic
le7732816.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=138342
is to ensure that all children
under the age of two years as
well as pregnant women are
fully immunized with seven
vaccine preventable diseases.
By 2020, provide vaccination
to all children who are either
unvaccinated or partially
vaccinated against:
Diptheria,
Pertussis (Whooping cough)
Tetanus,
Tuberculosis,
Polio,
Measles and
Hepatitis B
The aim is to reach atleast
90% vaccination. At present
the immunisation is around
65%.
are parts of 'Mission
Indradhanush'?
1. Diptheria
2. Pertussis
3. Polio
4. Tuberculosis
5. Chicken Pox
6. Dengue
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
58 Environment Which of the following best
describes/ describe the aim
of ‘Green India Mission’ of
the Government of India?
1. Incorporating
environmental benefits and
costs into the Union and
State Budgets thereby
implementing the ‘green
accounting’
2. Launching the second
green revolution to enhance
agricultural output so as to
ensure food security to one
and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing
forest cover and responding
to climate change by a
combination of adaptation
and mitigation measures
C M FCA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=128649
http://www.envfor
.nic.in/major-
initiatives/national
-mission-green-
india-gim
EN The National Mission for
Green India (GIM) is one of
the eight Missions outlined
under the National Action
Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC). It aims at protecting;
restoring and enhancing
India’s diminishing forest
cover and responding to
climate change by a
combination of adaptation
and mitigation measures.
It envisages a holistic view of
greening and focuses on
multiple ecosystem services,
especially, biodiversity, water,
biomass, preserving
mangroves, wetlands, critical
habitats etc. along with
carbon sequestration as a co-
was
constantly in
news
Covered in PT365 material –
Environment
Tests - 1725, 1776
With reference to the National
Mission for Green India (GIM),
1. It is a mission under the
National Action Plan on Climatic
Change (NAPCC).
2. It will be implemented on both
public and private lands.
3. It has been merged with
MGNREGA to improve the
country’s forest cover.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
benefit.
Statements 1 and 2 are not
the aims of Green India
Mission.
ANSWER – D
related to the Green India Mission
(GIM) is/are correct?
1. It is a part of the National Action
Plan on Climate Change.
2. The approval for alternate
energy devices using LPG are given
under GIM.
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANSWER - C
59 Science and
Technology
With reference to pre-
packaged items in India, it is
mandatory to the
manufacturer to put which
of the following information
on the main label, as per the
Food Safety and Standards
(Packaging and Labelling)
Regulations, 2011?
1. List of ingredients
including additives
2. Nutrition information
3. Recommendation, if any,
made by the medical
profession about the
possibility of any allergic
reactions
4. Vegetarian/non-
vegetarian
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only
du.com/opinion/o
p-ed/labelling-to-
take-the-pinch-
out-of-
salt/article8801650
.ece
http://www.fssai.g
ov.in/Portals/0/Pdf
/covering%20letter
%20for%20draft%2
0regulation.pdf
EN Every pre-packaged items in
India the following
information on the label:
1. Name of the food
2. list of ingredients
3. declaration of food
additives
4. Net quantity or net weight
5. Batch identification
6. Name and address of the
manufacturer
7. Date Marking
8. Veg/ Non veg declaration
was in news
in relation
to Maggi
issue and
cancer
causing
chemicals in
bread

60 Current
Affairs
‘Project Loon’, sometimes
seen in the news, is related
to
(a) waste management
technology
(b) wireless communication
technology
(c) solar power production
technology
(d) water conservation
technology
du.com/opinion/o
p-ed/its-a-bird-its-
a-plane-its-the-
loon/article800865
2.ece
EN Project Loon is a research and
development project being
developed by Google X with
the mission of providing
Internet access to rural and
remote areas. The project
uses high-altitude balloons
placed in the stratosphere at
an altitude of about 18 km (11
mi) to create an aerial
wireless network with up to
4G-LTE speeds.
By partnering with
Telecommunications
companies to share cellular
spectrum Google is trying to
enable people to connect to
the balloon network directly
from their phones and other
LTE-enabled devices.
Microsoft is planning to use
unused TV spectrum to
provide internet access in
remote areas.
was
constantly in
news
Covered in PT365 material -
Tests - 1763, 1785
With reference to 'Project Loon'
1. It proposes to provide internet
connectivity to remote areas using
balloons floating in troposphere.
2. It aims to tap unused TV
spectrum to provide internet
access.
3. The project is being
implemented by Google Inc.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
ANSWER – D
Which of the following projects
is/are related to providing last mile
internet connectivity?
1. Project Loon
2. Aquila
3. White Fi
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER - D
61 Current
Affairs
‘Net metering’ is sometimes
context of promoting the
(a) production and use of
solar energy by the
households/consumers
(b) use of piped natural gas
in the kitchens of houeholds
du.com/business/I
ndustry/metering-
policy-hindering-
rooftop-solar-
sector-cleanmaxs-
jain-
says/article854209
EN It is the mechanism of selling
the surplus solar power where
meters measure the solar
power exported to the grid;
the consumer is given credit
for the exported power,
lightening the bill.
part of
India's
Green
initiatives/e
nvironment
friendly
strategies

(c) installation of CNG kits in
motor-cars
(d) installation of water
meters in urban households
6.ece
62 Economy India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of
Doing Business Index’ is
sometimes seen in the news.
Which of the following has
declared that ranking?
(a) Organization for
Economic Cooperation and
Development (OECD)
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Bank
(d) World Trade Organization
(WTO)
C E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/india-moves-
up-in-world-bank-
doing-business-
2016-
ranking/article781
1248.ece
EN World bank's Ease of doing
business report, India's
position has improved from
142 to 130. This is on account
of ease of starting a business,
dealing with construction
permit and getting electricity
permits. Now, companies can
get connected to the grid and
get on with their business, 14
days sooner than before. The
number of days it takes to
start a new business has gone
up marginally from last year,
from 28.4 to 29
Credit is one area where India
performs poorly and needs to
improve. Access to credit and
ease of paying taxes has
worsened, according to the
World Bank’s Doing Business
Report 2016.
was
constantly in
news
Tests - 1779, 2069
India has improved performance in
'Ease of doing business' index
owing to improvement in which of
the following indicators?
1. Starting a business
2. Getting credit
3. Dealing with construction
permit
4. Getting electricity
code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63 Medieval
History
Banjaras during the medieval
period of Indian history were
generally
(a) agriculturists
(b) warriors
(c) weavers
(d) traders
D M F NCERT Class VII- Ch
-6 and 7th:
TOWNS, TRADERS
AND
CRAFTSPERSONS
EM There were many kinds of
traders in medieval period
these included the Banjaras
.They were the most
important trader nomads.
Their caravan was called
tanda. Sultan Alauddin Khalji
used the Banjaras to transport
grain to the city markets.
Emperor Jahangir wrote in his
memoirs that the Banjaras
carried grain on their bullocks
from different areas and sold
it in towns.
to check
basic
/fundament
al
knowledge

64 Ancient
History
Who of the following had
first deciphered the edicts of
Emperor Ashoka?
(a) Georg Buhler
(b) James Prinsep
(c) Max Muller
(d) William Jones
B M F NCERT 12 - Themes
in Indian history,
page 28
EM It was James Prinsep in 1837
who succeeded in deciphering
an ancient inscription on a
large stone pillar in Delhi
which was the edict of
Emperor Ashoka.
to check
basic
fundamenta
l knowledge
65 Polity and
Governance
With reference to the ‘Gram
Nyayalaya Act’, which of the
corect?
1. As per the Act, Gram
Nyayalayas can hear only
civil cases and not criminal
cases.
2. The Act allows local social
activists as
mediators/reconciliators.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M F India year book,
chapter 20, Law
and Justice
http://www.downt
oearth.org.in/cove
rage/where-are-
rural-courts-44754
EM Gram Nyayalayas are mobile
village courts in India
established under Gram
Nyayalayas Act, 2008 for
speedy and easy access to
justice system in the rural
areas.
1st statement is not correct.
Gram Nyayalaya exercises the
powers of both Criminal and
Civil Courts.
The Gram Nyayalaya are
supposed to try to settle the
disputes as far as possible by
bringing about conciliation
between the parties and for
this purpose, it can make use
of the conciliators such social
activists/mediators.
Gram
nyayalayas
were setup
at many
locations
recently.
Covered in tests 1714, 1765, 1789
With reference to Gram
Nyayalayas, consider the following
statements:
1. It has jurisdiction over both civil
and criminal cases.
2. The appeals against its decisions
lie directly in High Courts.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66 Current
Affairs
With reference to the ‘Trans-
Pacific Partnership’, consider
1. It is an agreement among
all the Pacific Rim countries
except China and Russia.
2. It is a strategic alliance for
the purpose of maritime
security only.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/1
2-nations-sign-
transpacific-
partnership-trade-
deal/article819199
2.ece
EN The Trans-Pacific Partnership
was signed by only 12
member nations of Pacific
rim, not all the Pacific Rim
countries except China and
Russia. The members are:
Australia, Brunei, Canada,
Chile, Japan, Malaysia,
Mexico, New Zealand, Peru,
Singapore, the United States
and Vietnam.
It is not a strategic alliance. It
is a trade alliance.
Constantly
in news
International Relations
Asked Twice in All India Test
series Test- 1779, 2082, 1720
The 12 Pacific Rim nations have
signed the TPP (Trans-Pacific
Partnership) Agreement which is
considered to be a game changer
for the global economy. Which of
the following could be the reasons
for India having stayed out of the
agreement?
1. Trade diversion
2. Loss of competitiveness of
Indian exports

3. Investment diversion
code given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Test - 1724,1772,1891,1894,2070
Which of the following countries
is/are part of the Trans Pacific
Partnership Agreement?
1. Mexico
2. Australia
3. Vietnam
4. Japan
5. China
6. Indonesia
code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 6 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
67 Current
Affairs
statements:
The India-Africa Summit
1. held in 2015 was the third
such Summit
2. was actually initiated by
Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
du.com/opinion/e
ditorial/indiaafrica-
forum-summit-
reaching-out-to-
africa/article78238
07.ece
EN The 3rd India-Africa summit
was held in New Delhi in
October 2015. The previous
two gatherings were held in
2008 in New Delhi and in 2011
in Addis Ababa.
was
constantly in
news
International Relations.
68 Economy What is/are the
purpose/purposes of the
‘Marginal Cost of Funds
based Lending Rate (MCLR)’
announced by RBI?
1. These guidelines help
improve the transparency in
du.com/business/E
conomy/rbi-links-
lending-rates-to-
loan-
tenor/article80010
20.ece
EN To ensure better transmission
and transparency of rates, the
RBI introduced the MCLR
framework, under which
banks have to calculate their
cost of funds based on the
latest rates offered on
was
constantly in
news
Covered in PT365 material –
Economics Covered in tests twice
Test - 2057, 2139
regarding Marginal Cost of funds
based Lending rate (MCLR):
1. It refers to the minimum

the methodology followed
by banks for determining the
interest rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help
ensure availability of bank
credit at interest rates which
are fair to the borrowers as
well as the banks.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
https://rbi.org.in/S
CRIPTs/BS_PressRe
leaseDisplay.aspx?
prid=35749
deposits or borrowings. This
was to ensure that changes in
deposit rates were
immediately reflected on
banks’ cost of funds.
Apart from helping improve
the transmission of policy
rates into the lending rates of
banks, these measures are
expected to improve
transparency in the
methodology followed by
banks for determining interest
rates on advances. The
guidelines are also expected
to ensure availability of bank
credit at interest rates which
are fair to the borrowers as
well as the banks.
Further, marginal cost pricing
of loans will help the banks
become more competitive
and enhance their long run
value and contribution to
economic growth.
interest rate for loans that is
determined by a bank.
2. It is not sensitive to changes in
the policy rates thereby improving
monetary transmission.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Open test 4 – 2057
Consider the following differences
between Marginal Cost of Funds
based Lending Rate (MCLR) and
Base Rate:
1. Unlike base rate calculation,
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) cost is
considered in the calculation of
MLCR.
2. Unlike base rate calculation,
Repo rate is mandatory in the
calculation of MCLR.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
69 Environment What is/are unique about
‘Kharai camel’, a breed found
in India?
1. It is capable of swimming
up to three kilometres in
seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on
mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and
cannot be domesticated.
A D FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/opinion/o
p-ed/the-sinking-
ship-of-the-
desert/article7671
220.ece
http://www.downt
oearth.org.in/cove
rage/the-sinking-
ship-40705
EN The Kharai camel grazes on
mangroves and is tolerant to
saline water. It is found only
in Gujarat’s coastal areas. It is
capable of swimming up to
three kilometers into the sea
in search of mangroves.
3rd statement is incorrect. It
can be domesticed. Given the
breed’s ability to survive both
on land and sea, the Kharai
camel is one of the most
was in news Covered in tests of 1717, 1768,
2066
A dry land and coastal ecosystem
is the natural habitat of an Indian
animal species. The animal has no
predators in that area but its
existence is threatened due to the
destruction of its habitat. Which
one of the following could be that
animal?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Dugong

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
preferred choices of graziers
in the arid coastal region of
Kachchh. People consume its
milk, while male calves are
sold for economic returns.
(c) Kharai camel
(d) Wild water buffalo
70 Current
Affairs
Recently, our scientists have
discovered a new and
distinct species of banana
plant which attains a height
of about 11 metres and has
orange-coloured fruit pulp.
In which part of India has it
been discovered?
(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Anaimalai Forests
(c) Maikala Hills
(d) Tropical rain forests of
northeast
du.com/news/nati
onal/other-
states/andamans-
yield-a-sweet-
banana-with-
orange-
pulp/article775031
6.ece
EN Scientists at the Botanical
Survey of India (BSI)
discovered the new species of
banana from a remote
tropical rain forest on the
Little Andaman islands.
The new species has orange-
coloured fruit pulp and is
about 11 metres high,
whereas as the usual banana
species is about three to four
metres high.
was in news
71 Current
Affairs
the best description of ‘INS
Astradharini’, that was in the
news recently?
(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered
submarine
(c) Torpedo launch and
recovery vessel
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft
carrier
C M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/ins-
astradharini-
commissioned/arti
cle7731983.ece
EN INS Astradharini is India’s first
totally indigenously designed
(95%) and built torpedo
launch and recovery vessel
(TLRV).
was in news Covered in PT365 material -
72 Current
Affairs
What is ‘Greased Lightning-
10 (GL-10)’, recently in the
news?
(a) Electric plane tested by
NASA
(b) Solar-powered two-
seater aircraft designed by
Japan
(c) Space observatory
launched by China
(d) Reusable rocket designed
by ISRO
A D CA http://www.thehin
du.com/sci-
tech/science/nasas
-10engine-electric-
plane-completes-
flight-
test/article717046
8.ece
EN The Greased Lightning or GL-
10 is the electric plane with 10
engines tested by NASA that
can take off and land like a
helicopter and fly efficiently
like an aircraft.
recent
developmen
ts in science
and
technology

73 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘Initiative
for Nutritional Security
through Intestive Millets
Promotion’, which of the
correct?
1. This initiative aims to
demonstrate the improved
production and post-harvest
technologies, and to
demonstrate value addition
techniques, in an integrated
manner, with cluster
approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and
tribal farmers have larger
stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of
the scheme isto encourage
farmers of commercial crops
to shift to millet cultivation
by offering them free kits of
critical inputs of nutrients
and microirrigation
equipment.
Select the the correct answer
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C D CA http://agricoop.nic
.in/Admin_Agricoo
p/Uploaded_File/I
NSIMP.pdf
RR The statement 1 is correct.
The Initiative for Nutritional
Security through Intensive
Millets Promotion aims to
demonstrate the improved
production and post-harvest
technologies in an integrated
manner with cluster
approach.
Statement 2 is also correct.
Millets are mainly grown in
regions of low annual rainfall
and poor arid soil. It is poor,
small, marginal and tribal
farmers, who cannot afford
costly irrigation practices,
depend on cultivation of
millets. Hence these farmers
benefit from the scheme and
have a larger stake in this
scheme.
There is no such provision of
encouraging farmers of
commercial crops to shift to
millet cultivation.
initiatives of
the
government
to promote
food
security
74 Modern
History
The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’
were adopted as methods of
struggle for the first time
during the
(a) agitation against the
Partition of Bengal
(b) Home Rule Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation
Movement
(d) visit of the Simon
A E F NCERT 12 -
Modern India by
Bipin Chandra,
page 195
EM The Swadeshi and Boycott
were adopted as methods of
struggle for the first time
during the agitation against
the Partition of Bengal in
Swadeshi movement.
to check
fundamenta
l/basic
knowledge
Asked in Test – 1786
Which of the following factors
was/were responsible for the
decline of the Swadeshi
movement?
1. Repression by the government
2. Split in the Congress
3. Lack of effective organization
4. Inability of mass movement to
be sustained for long periods.

Commission to India Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75 Culture With reference to the
religious history of India,
statements:
1. The concept of
Bodhisattva is central to
Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
2. Bodhisattva is a
compassionate one on his
way to enlightenment.
3. Bodhisattva delays
achieving his own salvation
to help all sentinent beings
on their path to it.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B D F Themes in Indian
History - I (NCERT
Class XII)
https://www.brita
nnica.com/topic/b
odhisattva
EM Bodhisattva in Buddhism is
one who seeks awakening or
enlightment. This concept is
central to Mahayana sect of
Buddhism.
In Mahayana Buddhism,
bodhisattva refers to a human
being committed to the
attainment of enlightenment
for the sake of others. A
Bodhisattva may delay
achieving his own salvation to
help all sentinent beings on
their path to it.
to check
basic/funda
mental
knowledge
in Indian
philosophy/
culture
Asked in Open Test - 3 Test -1893
With reference to sects of
Buddhism, consider the following
statements:
1. The idea of transference of
merit is integral to the teachings of
Hinayana.
2. Achievement of status of
'Arhant' was integral to Mahayana.
3. Vajrayana sect represents
permeation of magic and
mysticism in Buddhism.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
76 Current
Affairs
‘Doctors Without Borders
(Medecins Sans Frontieres)’,
often in the news, is
(a) a division of World Health
Organization
(b) a non-governmental
international organization
(c) an inter-governmental
agency sponsored by
European Union
(d) a specialized agency of
the United Nations
B E FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/sci-
tech/health/mdeci
ns-sans-frontires-
on-indias-role-in-
the-rcep-
meet/article87286
09.ece
EN Médecins Sans Frontières
(MSF) or Doctors without
Borders, an international NGO
has warned India that it will
no more remain ‘the
pharmacy of the developing
world’ if the proposed
proposals in the Regional
Comprehensive Economic
Partnership (RCEP) agreement
are adopted.
was in news
in relation to
RCEP
proposals;
also in news
when an US
military air
strike hit a
hospital run
by Doctors
Without
Borders in
Afghanistan
to oust
Talibani
insurgents
PT-365 material (May-June)

77 Environment With reference to an
initiative called ‘The
Economics of Ecosystems
and Biodiversity (TEEB)’,
1. It is an initiative hosted by
UNEP, IMF and World
Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that
focuses on drawing attention
to the economic benefits of
biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach
that can help decision-
makers recognize,
demonstrate and capture the
value of ecosystems and
biodiversity.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C D CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/books/liter
ary-review/review-
of-green-signals-
ecology-growth-
and-democracy-in-
india/article74075
56.ece
dubusinessline.co
m/opinion/how-
green-is-my-
balance-
sheet/article84474
19.ece
EN The initiative on 'The
Economics of Ecosystems and
Biodiversity' (TEEB) is an
important partner in
implementing the CBD
programme of work on
incentive measures, and in
particular its work on
valuation. This major
international initiative, funded
by the European Commission,
Germany, United Kingdom,
Norway, the Netherlands and
Sweden, and managed by the
United Nations Environment
Programme as part of its
Green Economy Initiative
(GEI), seeks to draw attention
to the global economic
benefits of biodiversity, to
highlight the growing costs of
biodiversity loss and
ecosystem degradation, and
to draw together expertise
from the fields of science,
economics and policy to
enable practical actions
moving forward.
Members of the TEEB
Advisory Board include the
Executive Director of UNEP,
the Executive Secretary of the
CBD and the Director General
of IUCN, amongst others.
initiative to
implement
CBD
programme/
climate
change
78 Environment With reference to ‘Red
Sanders’, sometimes seen in
the news, consider the
1. It is a tree species found in
a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most
A M FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/andhra-
pradesh/red-
sanders-govt-
steps-up-vigil-in-
seshachalam-
EN Red Sanders, botanical name
Pterocarpus santalinus, is a
non-fragrant variety of
sandalwood that mostly
grows in rocky, hilly regions.
Saplings reach 8 to 10 m in 3-
4 years, but growth slows
was in news
in relation
to smuggling
of Red
Sanders
Tests - 1725, 1776
With reference to Red Sanders or
Red Sandalwood, a tree species
often in news, consider the
1. It is an endangered species
found in the Palakonda and

important trees in the
tropical rain forest areas of
South India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hills/article866171
8.ece
ss.com/article/expl
ained/explained-
logs-of-blood/
down after that. The trunks
are slender, and it takes at
least 20-25 years for the
tree’s beautiful, deep red
wood to be of use.
It is found in the thorny
scrub/dry deciduous forests of
the central Deccan, between
500 ft and 3000 ft. only in a
small pocket roughly 5,200 sq
km in the Palakonda and
Seshachalam hills in the
districts of Kadapa and
Chittoor, in some contiguous
areas of Anantapur district, in
the Nallamalla forests in
Kurnool and Prakasam, and in
parts of Nellore district. Some
contiguous patches in Tamil
Nadu and Karnataka see some
wild growth.
Red Sanders is a protected
species under the Convention
on International Trade in
Endangered Species (CITES) of
Wild Fauna and Flora.
Seshachalam hills of the Eastern
Ghats.
2. It is highly valued in the
international market for its rich
fragrance.
3. It is found extensively in the
tropical wet evergreen forests of
India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79 Environment Which of the following
Proper design and effective
implementation of UN-
REDD+ Programme can
significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest
ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
D M FA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/inter
national/wonderin
g-whats-cop21-
adp-heres-a-
glossary-for-un-
climate-
talks/article792994
8.ece
http://www.unep.
org/climatechange
/reddplus/Introduc
tion/tabid/29525/
Default.aspx
EN Reducing Emissions from
Deforestation and Forest
Degradation (REDD) attempts
to create financial value for
the carbon stored in forests,
offering incentives for
developing countries to
reduce emissions from
forested lands and invest in
low-carbon paths to
REDD+ goes beyond
deforestation and forest
degradation, and includes the
role of conservation,
it was
discussed in
UNFCCC
summit in
Paris(COP-
21)

(d) 1, 2 and 3 http://theredddesk
.org/what-redd
sustainable management of
forests and enhancement of
forest carbon stocks.
It is predicted that financial
flows for greenhouse gas
emission reductions from
REDD+ could reach up to
US$30 billion a year. This
significant north-south flow of
funds could reward a
meaningful reduction of
carbon emissions and support
new, pro-poor development,
help conserve biodiversity and
secure vital ecosystem
services.
80 Environment What is ‘Greenhouse Gas
Protocol’?
(a) It is an international
accounting tool for
government and business
leaders to understand,
quantify and manage
greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) It is an initiative of the
United Nations to offer
financial incentives to
reduce greenhouse gas
emissions and to adopt eco-
friendly technologies
(c) It is an inter-
governmental agreement
ratified by all the member
countries of the United
Nations to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions to
specified levels by the year
2022 (d) It is one of the
multilateral REDD+ initiatives
hosted by the World Bank
A D CA http://indianexpre
ss.com/article/tech
nology/tech-news-
technology/apple-
iphone-ipad-how-
long-will-it-last/
EN The Greenhouse Gas (GHG)
Protocol, developed by World
Resources Institute (WRI) and
World Business Council on
(WBCSD), sets the global
standard for how to measure,
manage, and report
greenhouse gas emissions.
Many companies and
organizations around the
world are using GHG Protocol
standards and tools to
manage their emissions and
become more efficient,
resilient, and prosperous
organizations.
in news
because of
reduction in
carbon
emission

81 Economy With reference to ‘Financial
Stability and Development
Council’, consider the
1. It is an organ of NITI
Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union
Finance Minister.
3. It monitors
macroprudential supervision
of the economy.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/india-
must-be-prepared-
to-deal-with-
brexit-global-
uncertainty-
fsdc/article881214
7.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=130256
ss.com/article/busi
ness/banking-and-
finance/india-alert-
to-global-financial-
threats-fsdc-arun-
jaitley-raghuram-
rajan-2895484/
(July 2016)
EN The Financial Stability and
Development Council (FSDC)
under the chairmanship of
union Finance Minister was
set up by the government as
the apex-level forum in
December 2010.
FSCDC was
constantly in
news in
relation to
the meeting
held in July
2016 with
respect to
rising bad
loans with
banks and
imapct on
India global
financial
threats.
Test 1779
With reference to the Financial
Sector, consider the following
statements:
1. Forwards Markets Commission
(FMC) is the independent regulator
for the commodities market.
2. Financial Stability and
Development Council is chaired by
the Union Finance Minister.
3. Financial Sector Appellate
Tribunal (FSAT) is proposed to be
set up as an appellate tribunal for
all financial regulators.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82 Environment With reference to ‘Agenda
21’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a global action plan for
2. It originated in the World
Summit on Sustainable
Development held in
Johannesburg in 2002.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A M FA http://www.ncert.
nic.in/ncerts/l/jess
101.pdf
du.com/opinion/co
lumns/the-
unfinished-agenda-
of-the-21st-
century/article697
5352.ece
/geninfo/bp/enviro
.html
EM Agenda 21 is a non-binding,
voluntarily implemented
action plan of the United
Nations with regard to
sustainable development. It is
a product of the Earth Summit
(UN Conference on
Environment and
Development) held in Rio de
Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
Agenda 21
was asked in
context of
news
coming with
respect to
Sustainable
Developmen
t Goals.
Test 1782
Which of the following owe their
origin to the Rio Earth Summit,
1992?
1. Agenda 21
2. United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP)
3. United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change
4. Convention on Biological
Diversity
code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

83 Modern
History
Satya Shodhak Samaj
organized
(a) a movement for
upliftment of tribals in Bihar
(b) a temple-entry
movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement
in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in
Punjab
C E F Spectrum, Bipin
Chandra, Old Ncert
EM In Poona, Jyotirao Phooley,
though a Mali by caste and of
comparatively little education
started the association called
the Satyashodhak Samaj in
1873 for asserting the worth
of man irrespective of caste.
He demanded representation
of all classes of the Hindus in
all the local bodies, in services
and institutions and also
established a primary school
for the so-called untouchables
in Poona.
to check the
basic/funda
mental
knowledge
in modern
indian
history
84 Science and
Technology
Viruses can infect
1. bacteria
2. fungi
3. plants
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D M F NCERT XIIth
BIOLOGY
EM Viruses are too small to be
seen by the naked eye. They
can't multiply on their own, so
they have to invade a 'host'
cell and take over its
machinery in order to be able
to make more virus
particles.Virus infects all of
the given organisms (Bacteria,
Fungi and Plant).
Mycoviruses are viruses that
infect fungi. The majority of
mycoviruses have double-
stranded RNA (dsRNA)
genomes.
Many different viruses can
infect plants. Certain crops
are well known to be affected
by virus diseases including
geraniums, roses, Easter lilies,
dahlias, gladiolus, and tulips.
The Virus that Infects
Bacteria. Coliphage T4 is a
virus that looks like an alien
landing pod. With its six legs,
the bacteriophage attaches to
Basic
biological
science
question.

the surface of the much larger
bacteria Escherichia coli (E.
coli). Once attached, the
bacteriophage injects DNA
into the bacterium.
85 Current
Affairs
The term ‘Base Erosion and
Profit Shifting’ is sometimes
context of
(a) mining operation by
multinational companies in
resource-rich but backward
areas
(b) curbing of the tax evasion
by multinational companies
(c) exploitation of genetic
resources of a country by
multinational companies
(d) lack of consideration of
environmental costs in the
planning and
implementation of
developmental projects.
B E CAA http://www.thehin
dubusinessline.co
m/opinion/column
s/all-you-wanted-
to-know-about-
beps/article775399
2.ece
du.com/opinion/le
ad/black-money-
the-hidden-wealth-
of-
nations/article813
0657.ece
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=138550
EN The 2015 final reports of the
Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development
(OECD)-led project on Base
Erosion and Profit Shifting
(BEPS) — which refer to the
erosion of a nation’s tax base
due to the accounting tricks of
Multinational Enterprises
(MNEs) and the legal but
abusive shifting out of profits
to low-tax jurisdictions
respectively — lays out 15
action points to curb abusive
tax avoidance by MNEs. As a
participant of this project,
India is expected to
implement at least some of
these measures.
was
constantly in
news
PT 365 Full Length Test - 2102
regarding Base Erosion Profit
Sharing Project (BEPS) are correct?
1. It is an initiative spearheaded by
FATF.
2. It aims to stop shifting of
corporate profits to low tax
countries from where the
economic activity takes place.
Choose the correct option using
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
86 Current
Affairs
Recently, India’s first
‘National Investment and
Manufacturing Zone’ was
proposed to be set up in
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
du.com/news/nati
onal/andhra-
pradesh/nimz-
works-gain-pace-
in-prakasam-
district/article8030
363.ece
http://www.newin
dianexpress.com/s
tates/telangana/Pr
otest-against-land-
acquisition-
spreads/2016/06/0
7/article3470099.e
ce
EN Andhra Pradesh is set to house
India's first national investment
and manufacturing zone after
the state assured the Centre of
availability of 10 sq km of land
in one place in Prakasham
district.
The imminent final approval for
the NIMZ, which is expected to
give a fillip to Make in India
campaign, comes four years
after the concept was mooted
to boost manufacturing in the
country and two years after the
Department of Industrial Policy
and Promotion gave an in-
principle nod to Andhra
Pradesh in this regard.
was in news
in relation
to protests
by the local
population
demanding
adequate
compensati
on for their
land being
taken up by
the
government
to set up
NIMZ

purpose/purposes of ‘District
Mineral Foundations’ in
India?
1. Promoting mineral
exploration activities in
mineral-rich districts
2. Protecting the interests of
the persons affected by
mining operations
3. Authorizing State
Governments to issue
licenses for mineral
exploration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
dubusinessline.co
m/economy/policy
/govt-notifies-
miners-
contribution-to-
district-mineral-
foundation/article
7662554.ece
http://www.prsind
ia.org/billtrack/the
-mines-and-
minerals-
development-and-
regulation-
amendment-bill-
2015-3648/
EN District Mineral Foundation
(DMF) is a trust set up as a
non-profit body, in those
districts affected by the
mining works, to work for the
interest and benefit of
persons and areas affected by
mining related operations. It
is funded through the
contributions from miners.
Its manner of operation
comes under the jurisdiction
of the relevant State
Government.
Setting up of
District
Mineral
Foundations
(DMFs)
through the
Mines and
Minerals
(Developme
nt &
Regulation)
Amendment
Act,
(MMDRA)
2015. On 16
September
2015,
Central
Government
issued a
notification
directing
states to set
up DMF.
Tests - 1723, 1774
With reference to the District
Mineral Foundation (DMF)
established under the Mines and
Minerals (Development and
Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015,
1. It will be funded from the
consolidated fund of the state.
2. The fund will be used for
developing the mining fields.
3. It will be set up in all districts
affected by mining activities.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
88 Current
Affairs
‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of
the Government of India,
aims at
(a) promoting the Self Help
Groups in rural areas
(b) providing financial and
technical assistance to young
start-up entrepreneurs
(c) promoting the education
and health of adolescent girls
(d) providing affordable and
quality education to the
citizens for free
D M CAA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=133798
du.com/features/e
ducation/mooc-
advantage/article8
144936.ece
EN Study Webs of Active-
Learning for Young Aspiring
Minds (SWAYAM), is a Web
portal where Massive Open
On-line Courses (MOOCs) will
be available on all kinds of
subjects. SWAYAM is the
Indian electronic e-education
platform which proposes to
offer courses from the high
school stage to Post-Graduate
stage in an interactive
electronic platform. The IT
platform for SWAYAM is going
to be built and is expected to
be operationalized by 31st
March 2016 with a capacity to
In news,
because of
Massive
Open Online
Courses
(MOOC) are
fast gaining
popularity
among
students
and working
professional
s as they
help them
study at
their
convenience
Tests – 1775
Which of the following best
describes SWAYAM, an initiative of
Ministry of Human Resouce
Development?
(a) A web portal where Massive
Open Online Courses will be
available.
(b) A web portal for self
certification of Online Vocational
Courses.
(c) An online portal for
development of women and girl
education programme.
(d) An online platform for foreign
universities to collaborate with
Indian counterparts.

host nearly 2,000 courses. and time.
Websites
such as edX
and
Coursera
enlist free
online
courses
from various
institutes
across the
world.
89 Modern
History
The Montague-Chelmsford
Proposals were related to
(a) social reforms
(b) educational reforms
(c) reforms in police
administration
(d) constitutional reforms
D E F NCERT XIIth std-
Bipan Chandra
EM On 20th August, 1917 Lord
Montague, the Secretary of
State for India, made the
following declaration in British
Parliament: “ The Policy of His
Majesty’s government… is
that of increasing association
of Indians in every branch of
administration, and the
gradual development of self-
governing institutions, with a
view to the progressive
realization of responsible
government in India as an
integral part of the British
empire.
Importance of Montagu's
Statement- From now
onwards, the demand by
nationalists for self-
government or Home Rule
could not be termed as
seditious since attainment of
self-government for Indians
now became a government
policy, unlike Morley's
statement in 1909 that the
reforms were not intended to
give self-government to India.
to test the
fundamenta
l knowledge
in modern
Indian
history
Tests - 1721, 1772, 1894, 2062
With reference to provisions/
outcomes of Montague
Declaration, 1917, consider the
1. It provided for the
establishment of a responsible
government in India.
2. The demand for self-
government could not be termed
as seditious.
3. It aimed at increasing
association of Indians in every
branch of administration.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90 Culture What is/are common to the
two historical places known
as Ajanta and
Mahabalipuram?
1. Both were built in the
same period.
2. Both belong to the same
religious denomination.
3. Both have rock-cut
monuments.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the statements
given above is correct
B D FA NCERT-
Introduction to
Indian Art Part-I
EM The Ajanta Caves in
Maharashtra, a World
Heritage Site, are 30 rock-cut
cave Buddhist temples carved
into the sheer vertical side of
a gorge near a waterfall-fed
pool located in the hills of the
Sahyadri mountains.
Guntapalle is a rock-cut cave
site near Eluru. The other
important site where rock-cut
stupas have been excavated is
Anakapalle near
Vishakhapatanam.
The Pallavas were one of the
ancient South Indian
dynasties that were active in
the Andhra region from the
second century CE onwards
and moved south to settle in
Tamil Nadu. Their early
buildings, it is generally
assumed, were rockcut, while
the later ones were structural.
The tradition of rock-cut cave
continued in the Deccan and
they are found not only in
Maharashtra but also in
Karnataka, mainly at Badami
and Aihole, executed under
the patronage of the
Chalukyas; in Andhra Pradesh
in the area of Vijayawada; and
in Tamil Nadu, mainly at
Mahabalipuram, under the
patronage of the Pallavas.
to test the
fundamenta
l cultural
history of
India
91 Economy With reference to ‘Bitcoins’,
1. Bitcoins are tracked by the
B D CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/a
ll-you-need-to-
know-about-
bitcoin/article8547
EN Bitcoin is a digital currency
that is not tied to a bank or
government and allows users
to spend money
anonymously. The coins are
was in news
constantly
Tests - 1786, 1789 (Open Test)
With reference to Bitcoins,
1. It is a digital code mined after
solving a complex maths problem.

Central Banks of the
countries.
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin
address can send and receive
Bitcoins from anyone else
with a Bitcoin address.
3. Online payments can be
sent without either side
knowing the identity of the
other.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
440.ece
http://www.financi
alexpress.com/pho
tos/business-
gallery/247548/bit
coin-meaning-
bitcoin-price-a-
look-at-the-digital-
currency-bitcoin-
economy/
created by users who ''mine''
them by lending computing
power to verifying other
users' transactions. They
receive bitcoins in exchange.
The coins also can be bought
and sold on exchanges with
U.S. dollars and other
currencies.
Bitcoins have become popular
because transactions can be
made anonymously, making
the currency popular with
libertarians as well as tech
enthusiasts, speculators - and
criminals.
2. It is used as peer to peer
transaction without any central
bank.
3. RBI has recognized and allowed
Bitcoins for daily transactions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
With reference to Bitcoins,
1. It is a digitial currency, created
and held electronically.
2. It is mined using special
softwares to solve mathematical
problems.
3. BitMEX is the sole exchange for
bitcoin trading.
4. It is not tradeable at the spot
market.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
92 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. New Development Bank
has been set up by APEC.
2. The headquarters of New
Development Bank is in
Shanghai.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B M CA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/inter
national/after-
forming-new-
development-
bank-brics-can-
leadthe-global-
south-chinese-
scholar/article8886
978.ece
EN The New Development Bank
(NDB) BRICS group of nations
comprising Brazil, Russia,
India, China and South Africa .
To begin with, the bank will
start operating with $50
billion in initial capital with
the five BRICS contributing
$10 billion each. According to
the pact, the capital of the
bank will be divided equally
among the five participating
nations and initially it will
focus on infrastructure
NDB was in
news
constantly
Tests - 1715,1766, 1890, 2060
with reference to " New
Development Bank BRICS".
1. The first President of NDB is an
Indian.
2. It will be headquartered in
Shanghai, China.
3. In the New Development Bank
each participant country will be
assigned vote on the basis of
capital share.
4. The Bank shall mobilize
resources for infrastructure and

projects member countries.
The headquarters of the bank
will be located in Shanghai,
China.
Eminent banker Kundapur
Vaman Kamath was appointed
as first President New
Development Bank (NDB) of
BRICS nations.
The Bank shall mobilize
resources for infrastructure
and sustainable development
projects in BRICS and other
emerging economies and
developing countries,
complementing the existing
efforts of multilateral and
regional financial institutions
for global growth and
development
Unlike the World Bank, which
assigns votes based on capital
share, in the New
Development Bank each
participant country will be
assigned one vote, and none
of the countries will have veto
power.
sustainable development projects
in BRICS as well as other countries.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
93 Environment ‘Gadgil Committee Report’
and ‘Kasturirangan
Committee Report’,
are related to
(a) constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) linking of rivers
(d) protection of Western
Ghats
D E FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/kerala/fightin
g-over-the-
western-
ghats/article74902
93.ece
EN The Kasturirangan panel was
set up to study the Gadgil
committee report on the
Western Ghats. The
Kasturirangan report seeks to
bring just 37% of the Western
Ghats under the Ecologically
Sensitive Area (ESA) zones —
down from the 64% suggested
by the Gadgil report.
Recommended prohibition on
development and commercial
activities like mining, thermal
Kasturiranga
n panel was
in news
PT 365 Environment material - Pg
31

power plants, polluting
industries and large housing
plans in Ecologically Sensitive
Area (ESA) zones.
94 Modern
History
1. Calcutta Unitarian
Committee
2. Tabernacle of New
Dispensation
3. Indian Reform Association
Keshab Chandra Sen is
associated with the
establishment of which of
the above?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B D F http://www.thebra
hmosamaj.net/fou
nders/keshub.html
RR Raja Ram Mohan Roy along
with Dwarka Nath Tagore and
William Adam established
Calcutta Unitarian committee
and 1823. Keshubh Chandra
was not associated with it.
On 24th January 1868, Keshub
laid the foundation stone of
his new church, the Brahmo
Samaj of India Tabernacle of
New Dispensation and the
newly constructed chapel was
consecrated on 22nd August
1869.
95 Current
Affairs
a member of ‘Gulf
Cooperation Council’?
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Oman
(d) Kuwait
A E FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/news/nati
onal/swaraj-
pushes-for-
indiagulf-
cooperation-
council-free-trade-
agreement/article7
710985.ece
EN The Cooperation Council for
the Arab States of the Gulf,
originally known as the Gulf
Cooperation Council (GCC), is
a regional inter governmental
political and economic union
consisting of all Arab states of
the Persian Gulf, except for
Iraq. Its member states are
Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar,
Saudi Arabia, and the United
Arab Emirates.
It was in
news
constantly
due to
Indian Prime
Minister's
visit to UAE
and Saudi
Arabia to
give a spur
to India and
GCC
countries;
US President
attended
GCC
Summit.
Tests- 1715, 1766, 1890
Which of the following countries
are the members of Cooperation
Council for the Arab States of the
Gulf?
1. Bahrain
2. Oman
3. Kuwait
4. Iraq
5. Libya
code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
purpose/purposes of
Government’s ‘Sovereign
Gold Bond Scheme’ and
‘Gold Monetization
Scheme’?
du.com/opinion/co
lumns/the-sum-of-
three-new-gold-
schemes/article78
69915.ece
EN The government had
launched three ambitious
schemes to reduce the
physical demand for gold and
fish out 20,000 tonnes of the
precious metal worth $800
was in news
constantly
Tests - 1713, 1765
Which of the following schemes
targets to reduce the import for
gold?
1. Sovereign gold bonds
2. Gold Monetisation

1. To bring the idle gold lying
with Indian households into
the economy.
2. To promote FDI in the gold
and jewellery sector
3. To reduce India’s
dependence on gold imports
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
billion lying idle with
households. PM launched the
maiden sovereign gold bond,
gold monetisation and the
Indian gold coin scheme. The
main objectives of the
schemes is to reduce India's
gold imports and bring all the
gold lying idle with individuals
and households.
3. Indian Gold Coin scheme
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
97 Current
Affairs
‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is
sometimes mentioned in the
news in the context of the
affairs of
(a) African Union
(b) Brazil
(c) European Union
(d) China
D E FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/opinion/o
p-ed/chinas-one-
belt-one-road-
programme/article
8179870.ece
EN It is a developmental strategy
and framework, unveiled by
Chinese leader Xi Jinping in
September and October 2013
in announcements revealing
the SREB (Silk Road Economic
Belt) and MSR (Maritime Silk
Road), respectively.
The “belt and road” run
through the continents of
Asia, Europe and Africa.
It focuses on connectivity and
cooperation among countries
primarily in Eurasia, which
consists of two main
components, the land-based
SREB and oceangoing MSR
and it is known as “One Belt
One Road”(OBOR).
The “belt and road” would be
serviced by a network of
roads, high-speed railways,
fibre-optic lines,
transcontinental submarine
optical cable projects, and
satellite information
passageways.
was
constantly in
news
Test code: 1893, PT-365(
International Relations, pg 37)
With reference to 'One Belt One
Road' (OBOR) initiative, consider
1. It aims to connect Asia, Europe
and Africa.
2. Both maritime route and road
route are an integral part of the
initiative.
3. China-Pakistan economic
corridor is a part of OBOR.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

98 Current
Affairs
Pradhan Mantri MUDRA
Yojana is aimed at
(a) bringing the small
entrepreneurs into formal
financial system
(b) providing loans to poor
farmers for cultivating
particular crops
(c) providing pensions to old
and destitute persons
(d) funding the voluntary
organizations involved in the
promotion of skill
development and
employment generation
A E CAA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/c
abinet-approves-
conversion-of-
mudra-into-
bank/article80728
87.ece
EN Pradhan Mantri MUDRA
Yojana is aimed at bringing
sole-proprietors or
entrepreneurs of Small &
Medium Enterprises into
formal financial system.
was in news
constantly
Test code: 1723, 1774
With reference to MUDRA (Micro
Units Development and Refinance
Agency) Bank, consider the following
statements:
1. The funding to small
entrepreneurs will be disbursed
through both banks and non-banking
financial institutions (NBFCs).
2. The bank will provide more than
50% of the loans to SC/ST
entrepreneurs.
3. MUDRA Bank is both financier and
regulator of Micro Finance
Institutions (MFIs).
above is/are true?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
99 Geography In which of the following
regions of India are shale gas
resources found?
1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D D FCA http://pib.nic.in/ne
wsite/PrintRelease.
aspx?relid=121651
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
business/ongc-to-
drill-17-
exploratory-wells-
for-shale-gas-
oil/article8517524.
ece
EN Shale gas is the natural gas
that is trapped within shale
formations. ONGC sought
permission for drilling 11
exploratory wells for shale oil
and shale gas in Cambay basin
at Mehsana, Ahmedabad and
Bharuch districts of Gujarat,
one well in Cauvery basin at
Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu
and five wells in KG Basin at
East and West Godavari
districts of Andhra Pradesh.
Other regions in India where
shale gas resources are found
- Cauvery, Ganga & Assam and
Assam - Arakan; Gondwana
basin (including Damodar).
It was in
news
because this
is the first
time that
the ONGC
has taken up
shale gas
exploration
in such a big
scale. Also,
it first time
that it has
taken up
shale gas
exploration
in the
Krishna-
Godavari
basin.

100 Current
Affairs
‘Global Financial Stability
Report’ is prepared by the
(a) European Central Bank
(b) International Monetary
Fund
(c) International Bank for
Reconstruction and
Development
(d) Organization for
Development
B E FCA http://www.thehin
du.com/business/E
conomy/world-
output-faces-risk-
of-39-drop-by-
2021/article84722
98.ece
EN Global Financial Stability
Report is published by
International Monetary Fund.
The financial stability report
assesses the risks faced by the
global financial system.
The latest report released,
warns that global output
could decline 3.9 per cent by
2021 if action is not taken to
address the risks faced by the
financial system. The main
message of this report is that
additional measures are
needed to deliver a more
balanced and potent policy
mix for improving the growth
and inflation outlook and
securing financial stability.
was in news
constantly
Tests - 2057 (Open Test)
Which among the following
organizations releases Global
Financial Stability Report?
(a) World Bank
(b) United Nations Development
Programme
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) International Labour
Organisation

6%
4%
3%
3%
7%
15%
3%
6%
16%
37%
Number of Questions by Topic
Modern History
Medieval History
Ancient History
Culture
Economy
Geography
Polity and Governance
Environment
Current Affairs
TOPIC
Topic
Number of Questions by
Topic
Modern History 6
Medieval History 4
Ancient History 3
Culture 3
Science and
Technology 7
Economy 15
Geography 3
Polity and
Governance 6
Environment 16
Current Affairs 37
Grand Total 100

27%
50%
23%
Number of Questions by Difficulty
Easy
Medium
Difficult
DIFFICULTY
Level Number of Questions by Difficulty
Easy 27
Medium 50
Difficult 23

27%
20%
19%
14%
20%
Number of Questions by Nature
CA
CAA
F
FA
FCA
NATURE
Nature Number of Questions by Nature
CA 27
CAA 20
F 19
FA 14
FCA 20

SECTIONWISE NATURE
Section wise Nature CA CAA F FA FCA Grand Total
Culture 2 1 3
Current Affairs 22 8 1 6 37
Economy 1 3 4 7 15
Environment 2 4 1 3 6 16
Geography 1 1 1 3
Ancient History 2 1 3
Medieval History 4 4
Modern History 6 6
Polity and Governance 2 3 1 6
Science and Technology 2 1 4 7
Grand Total 100
0
5
10
15
20
25
30
CA CAA F FA FCA
Section wise Nature
Culture, Current Affairs, Economy, Environment, Geography…
science and technology
Polity and Governance
Modern History
Medieval History
Ancient History
Geography
Environment
Economy
Current Affairs
Culture

SECTIONWISE DIFFICULTY
Section wise Difficulty Easy Medium Difficult Grand Total
Culture 3 3
Current Affairs 14 19 4 37
Economy 3 11 1 15
Environment 3 9 4 16
Geography 1 2 3
Ancient History 1 2 3
Medieval History 1 3 4
Polity 1 4 1 6
Grand Total 100
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
Easy Medium Difficult
Section wise Difficulty
Culture, Current Affairs, Economy, Environment, Geography…
science and technology
Polity
Modern History
Medieval History
Ancient History
Geography
Environment
Economy
Current Affairs
Culture

24%
66%
10%
Number of Questions by Source
Type
EM
EN
RR
SOURCE TYPE
Source Type Number of Questions by Source Type
EM 24
EN 66
RR 10
Grand Total 100

“The significant problems we face cannot be solved at the same level of thinking we were at when we created them." - Albert Einstein
- TEAM VISION IAS
 The analysis is based on premise that UPSC
wants to identify aspirants with certain skills
and aptitude required to function as a good
administrator. UPSC does not explicitly
describe these skills so we infer them from
Syllabus, Question Paper and feedback of
experts and students.
 This analysis is an attempt to quantify the
subjective understanding and make explicit
the implicit.
 We have inferred some conclusions from these
stats but you are free to infer differently.
Moreover independent/impartial thinking is
one of the qualities expected in
administrators.
www.visionias.in

 This year’s paper was more conceptual compared to the papers of CSAT era and
it displayed a good mix of current affairs and conventional subjects.
 The level of questions ranged from easy to moderate and difficult from almost
in all the sections .The elimination was difficult as the options framed were too
close or very similar.
 However, even in conventional or static portion the tilt was more towards
Polity and Governance. Polity questions were asked from traditional concepts
as compared to previous year’s trend. Eg. concept of rights, democracy, etc.
 In the current affairs section, the testing was done from their basic concepts as
well as facts related to them. However, the questions from this section was not
restricted to the present year but from the previous 2 – 3 years.
 Economy questions were largely drawn from Current Affairs eg- GST, Monetary
Policy Committee, etc. but conventional understanding in questions like post
1991 reforms, etc was also checked.
 Geography and Environment sections were difficult to attempt and required
conceptual clarity, linkage of current affairs with basic concepts (e.g. Indian
Ocean Dipole), detailed reading of Atlas, Conventions/Alliance to which India is
not party were also asked (e.g GCCA, etc), the questions on unique features of
geographical locations were also focused (eg Chandipur, Sathyamangalam Tiger
Reserve).
 The overall weightage to History sections has remained more or less same but
difficulty level has increased in terms of factual knowledge and standard
sources.
 S& T questions were largely drawn from news items.
 Govt initiatives ranging from education, health and nutrition, etc. were again
focused this year but solving them required deeper knowledge.
 Deceptive presentation is a common method to segregate deep knowledge
with superficial knowledge or hunch. This technique was used in questions like
National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (4,00,000 crores), National
Pension Scheme( age group), etc.

 Pointers for most of the questions could be traced to standard sources such as
The Hindu, Indian Express, PIB, etc. But as recommended earlier, in the age of
internet, complete knowledge of topic is expected.
Recommendations:
 In a difficult paper, the static-conventional part is the savior. Thoroughly read
basic/standard books to be very clear of basic concepts. One good News Paper
(like The Hindu, Indian Express, etc) and sites like PIB, PRS must be followed.
One shall also read India Year Book, as many of the questions related to
government initiatives could be answered based on that.
 Regularly follow the current issues and news. One should combine reading
newspaper with simultaneous revision of related conceptual key terms.
 Read one good book on each traditional subject. This will help in prelims,
mains and interview i.e. all stages of examination. This will also help in making
some unapproachable question approachable.
 Be ready for both analytical and factual questions at the same time. This year
there is a fair combination of both.
 In this year’s paper, where difficulty level is on the higher side, number of
attempted Q's also matter. In case of confusing options, one cannot go on
attempting all as has been the case in previous years. Negative marking takes
a heavy toll.
 Strategy should be to avoid negative marking in tough questions and maximize
your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
 Read questions carefully and use elimination technique wherever possible.
 One should always have few strong areas to rely on. Do not ignore your strong
areas to do research in weak areas.
 Solving previous year’s questions would help in identifying the key areas
which UPSC focuses on. Many of the topics from static portion (like Trade
disputes act, liberalization etc.) have been asked earlier by UPSC.

Nature of Question
F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available
in commonly recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then
it indicates that you had one more reason to prepare this.
FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which requires
information + application of mind.
Answer to these question are from commonly recommended books but not so
obvious to find.
CA: Current Affair question which can be answered almost completely using
given source alone.
CAA: Current Affair Applied question needs information from more than one
source to answer AND/OR application of mind (common sense and overall
understanding) of aspirant. This is why source for these questions may not be
answering the question completely.
FCA: Fundamental + Current affair. This is a F or FA question supplemented with
current affairs or a current affairs question that needs background information
for complete answer. Source to these questions might not answer the questions
in entirety.
U (Unconventional Question): Unconventional Question means the question
that is distantly related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even
reference sources (in addition to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

QN Section Question
A
n
s
w
e
r
Explanation
L
e
v
e
l
Nat
ure
Source
Source
Type
Motivation Vision IAS
1 Medieval
History
was a very important seaport
in the Kakatiya kingdom?
(a) Kakinada
(b) Motupalli
(c) Machilipatnam
(Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru
B Motupalli was the chief port of
the Kakatiyas and this port was
visited by the Venitian traveller,
Marco Polo.
D U Early India:
From the
Origins to A.D.
1300, Part 1
Romilla
Thapar page
384
RM To check in-
depth
knowledge on
Medieval
Indian history
2 Environment With reference to ‘Global
Climate Change Alliance’,
statements is/are correct? 1.
It is an initiative of the
European Union.
2. It provides technical and
financial support to targeted
integrate climate change into
their development policies
and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World
Resources Institute (WRI)
and World Business Council
for Sustainable Development
(WBCSD).
using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A The Global Climate Change
Alliance (GCCA) was established
by the European Union (EU) in
2007 to strengthen dialogue and
cooperation with developing
countries, in particular least
developed countries (LDCs) and
small island developing States
(SIDS). Under the first pillar, the
GCCA+ serves as a platform for
dialogue and exchange of
experience between the EU and
developing countries, focusing on
climate policy and bringing
renewed attention to the issue of
international climate finance.
Under the second pillar, the
GCCA+ acts as a source of
technical and financial support for
the world's most climate-
vulnerable countries, whose
populations need climate finance
the most.
International organisations –
notably the Centre for
International Forestry Research
D CA http://www.g
cca.eu/about-
the-
gcca/what-is-
the-gcca
RR To check
about the
Institutions
related to
climate
change and
climate
change
financing
mechanism

(CIFOR), the Food and Agriculture
Organisation (FAO), the United
Nations Capital Development
Fund (UNCDF), the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP),
the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP), UN Habitat
and the World Bank – are involved
in the implementation of some
GCCA-funded interventions, and
also co-finance some initiatives.
Through the Greenhouse Gas
Protocol (GHGP) World Resources
Institute (WRI) and the World
Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD) work with
businesses to develop standards
and tools that help companies
measure, manage, report and
reduce their carbon emissions.
3 Art and
Culture
religious history of India,
statements:
1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya
were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the
constituents of phenomena
were not wholly momentary,
but existed forever in a
latent form.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B Statement 1 is not correct:
Sautrantika and Sammitya were
the the sects of Buddhism.
Statement 2 is correct:
Sarvastivadins (They who say "All
is"), had the view that the
constituents of phenomena
(dharmas) were not wholly
momentary, but existed forever in
a latent form.
D U THE WONDER
THAT WAS
INDIA: A L
Basham page
272
RM To check in-
depth
knowledge of
religious
philosophies.
4 Geography Mediterranean Sea is a
border of which of the
following countries?
C The countries with coastlines on
the Mediterranean Sea are
Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and
M FCA Atlas EM These
countries are
often seen in
Map on Page 35, 3.1 Israel-
Palestine, PT-365 International
Relations.

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus,
Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy,
Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco,
Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia,
Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In
addition, the Gaza Strip and the
British Overseas Territories of
Gibraltar and Akrotiri and
Dhekelia have coastlines on the
sea.
On the Eastern shore, Turkey,
Syria, Lebanon and Israel have
their coastline on the
Mediterranean Sea.
news as they
are regions
under conflict
facing acute
refugee crisis.
5 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘National
Investment and
Infrastructure Fund’, which
is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI
Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs.
4,00,000 crore at present.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a fund
created by the Government of
India for enhancing infrastructure
financing in the country. Its
creation was announced in the
Union Budget 2015-16. Governing
Council of NIIF is an advisory body
- chaired by the Finance Minister.
It is not an organ of NITI Aayog.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
The proposed corpus of NIIF is Rs.
40,000 Crores (around USD 6
Billion). Hence statement 2 is also
not correct.
M CAA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
business/Indu
stry/Govt.-
mulls-
%E2%80%98o
utcome-
linked%E2%80
%99-
incentive-for-
NIIF-
chief/article14
378399.ece
http://arthape
dia.in/index.p
hp%3Ftitle%3
DNational_Inv
estment_and_
Infrastructure
_Fund_(NIIF)
http://niifindi
a.com/index.h
tml
EN Infrastructure
has been a
very
important
focus area of
the
government
and therefore
NIIF has
remained
continuously
in news.
6 Current
Affairs
The Global Infrastructure
Facility is a/an
(a) ASEAN initiative to
upgrade infrastructure in
B The GIF supports Governments in
bringing well-structured and
bankable infrastructure projects
to market. GIF’s project support
D CAA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/gif-
EN This is an old
news,
however is
important

Asia and financed by credit
from the Asian Development
Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration
that facilities the preparation
and structuring of complex
infrastructure Public-Private
Partnership (PPPs) to enable
mobilization of private sector
and institutional investor
capital.
(c) Collaboration among the
major banks of the world
working with the OECD and
infrastructure projects that
have the potential to
mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative
that seeks to finance and
facilitate infrastructure
development in the World.
can cover the spectrum of design,
preparation, structuring and
transaction implementation
activities, drawing on the
combined expertise of the GIF’s
Technical and Advisory Partners
and focusing on structures that
are able to attract a wide range of
private investors.
Along with the World Bank Group,
Canada is co-chair of the GIF’s
Governing Council.
launched-to-
help-india-
bridge-infra-
deficit/article6
486440.ece
considering
the focus on
infrastructure
and its
financing in
India
7 Polity and
Governance
For election to the Lok
Sabha, a nomination paper
can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the
constituency from which the
election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose
name appears in the
electoral roll of a
constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
C Qualifications for election to Lok
Sabha:
- must be a citizen of India
- not less than 25 years of age
- must be registered as an elector
for a parliamentary constituency
E F Laxmikant -
Indian Polity,
chapter -
"Parliament"
EM to check the
basic
knowledge
All India test series - test 2115
A person "X" is a 30 year old
citizen of India and is a
registered elector in
Parliamentary constituency. "X"
is qualified for which of the
following positions?
1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
8 Geography Consider the following
statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are
B Statement 1 is not correct: In
India, the Himalayas are spread
over Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal
D FA Atlas EM In depth
knowledge
and detailed

spread over five states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread
over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over
two States only.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim,
Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal
Pradesh. Some extensions of
Shiwaliks are also present in
Punjab and Haryana.
Western Ghats are spread over six
states, namely- Gujarat,
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat,
the second largest brackish water
lake in India, lies on the border of
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
Over 40% of it lies in Andhra
Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu.
observation of
Atlas is tested.
9 Environment Biological Oxygen Demand
(BOD) is a standard criterion
for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels
in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels
in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic
ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in
high altitude regions
C Biological oxygen demand (BOD)
is the amount of dissolved oxygen
needed (i. e., demanded) by
aerobic micro organisms to break
down organic material present in
a given water sample. A highly
polluted water will have a high
levels of biological oxygen
demand (BOD).
E F NCERT 12 -
Biology,
chapter 16
EM To check the
basic concepts
of ecology and
environment.
Asked in All India Test Series
tests - 2113, 2126, 2358 Q.
statements with regard to Bio-
chemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD):
1. It is the amount of oxygen
needed by aerobic micro
organisms to break down
organic material present in a
given water sample.
2. Higher level of BOD indicates
lower pollution level of the
water.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10 Current
Affairs
With reference to the role of
UN-Habitat in the United
Nations Programme working
towards a better urban
future, which of the
B Statement 1 is correct: UN-
Habitat is the United Nations
programme working towards a
better urban future. Its mission is
to promote socially and
hehindu.com/
news/national
/india-elected-
president-of-
EN It was in news
due to two
factors:
1. In October
2016, at the
Covered in PT 365 Updation –
Environment

1. UN-Habitat has been
mandated by the United
Nations General Assembly to
promote socially and
environmentally sustainable
towns and cities to provide
adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either
governments or local urban
authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributed to
the overall objective of the
United Nations system to
reduce poverty and to
promote access to safe
drinking water and basic
sanitation.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
environmentally sustainable
human settlements development
and the achievement of adequate
shelter for all. Statement 1 is
correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: It
partners with a range of
organizations in its endevaour. For
example, governments, local
authorities, NGOs, Trade unions,
professionals, Academics and
Researchers, Human Solidarity
Groups, Indigenous People,
Private Sector, Foundations,
Financial Institutions.
Statement 3 is correct: In the
absence of effective urban
planning, the consequences of
this rapid urbanization can lead to
lack of proper housing and growth
of slums, inadequate and out-
dated infrastructure – be it roads,
public transport, water,
sanitation, or electricity –
escalating poverty and
unemployment, safety and crime
problems, pollution and health
issues. UN-Habitat contributes to
the overall objective of a
sustainable urbanization.
un-
habitat/article
18413884.ece
http://www.t
hehindu.com/
opinion/editor
ial/Making-
cities-
inclusive/articl
e16079545.ec
e
https://unhabi
tat.org/about-
us/un-habitat-
at-a-glance/
UN
Conference on
Housing and
Sustainable
Urban
Development
– Habitat III –
member
states signed
the New
Urban
Agenda. This
conference
happens once
in 20 years.
2. In May
2017, India
was elected as
the president
of the UN-
Habitat. On
behalf of
India, Housing
and Urban
Poverty
Alleviation
Minister will
preside over
the meetings
of UN-Habitat.
11 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘National
Skills Qualification
Framework (NSQF)’, which of
the statements given below
is/are correct?
1. Under NSQF, a learner can
acquire the certification for
competency only through
formal learning.
2. An outcome expected
from the implementation of
B The National Skills Qualifications
Framework (NSQF) organizes
qualifications according to a series
of levels of knowledge, skills and
aptitude. These levels are defined
in terms of learning outcomes
which the learner must possess
regardless of whether they were
acquired through formal, non-
formal or informal learning.
It provides for multiple pathways,
hehindu.com/
features/educ
ation/Bridge-
the-skills-
gap/article145
56912.ece
http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/pri
ntrelease.aspx
?relid=157637
EN Many
programmes
have been
launched by
the
government
for skill
development
in the country.
In this regard,
NQSF has
Covered in PT 365 Economy

NSQF is the mobility
between vocational and
general education.
using the code give below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
horizontal as well as vertical, both
within vocational education and
vocational training and among
vocational education, vocational
training, general education and
technical education, thus linking
one level of learning to another
higher level. Thus Statement 1 is
not correct and statement 2 is
correct.
http://www.n
sda.gov.in/nsq
f.html
remained
regularly in
the news.
12 Modern
History
In the context of Indian
history, the principle of
‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
(a) Division of the central
legislature into two houses.
(b) Introductions of double
government i.e., Central and
Statement governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers;
one in London and another
in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects
delegated to the provinces
into two categories.
D The Government of India Act of
1919 was enacted to satisfy the
people of India to some extent.
The salient features of the Act
were as follows : (a) Preamble:
The Act provided for a Preamble
that laid down the basic principles
and policies upon which it was
based. According to it the policy
of the British Parliament was – (i)
to provide for the increasing
association of Indians in every
branch of Indian administration,
(ii) to develop self governing
institutions with a view to the
progressive realisation of
responsible government in British
India as an integral part of the
empire; (iii) accordingly, the
Preamble suggested for a
decentralised unitary form of
government. The Act divided the
functions of government in two
categories: central and provincial.
The provincial subjects were
further subdivided into
transferred and reserved. Thus,
in the provinces a new form of
government, dyarchy, was
introduced. Dyarchy means dual
set of governments, e.g.
M F NCERT-
Textbook-
Chapter-1-to-
8-Indian-
Constituition-
and-
Administratio
n-Class-11
RR With
reference to
Indian history
Government
of India act
1919 was one
of the
important act.
Thus the sole
criteria is to
check the
basic
knowledge of
subject and
topic.

accountable and non-
accountable.
In the transferred subjects the
Governors were to be assisted by
the ministers responsible to the
legislature while in the reserved
subjects the Governors were to be
advised by the councillors who
were not accountable to the
legislature.
13 Current
Affairs
Consider the following in
respect of ‘National Career
Services’:
1. National Career Service is
an initiative of the
Department of Personnel
and Training, Government of
India.
2. National Career Service
has been launched in a
Mission Mode to improve
the employment
opportunities to uneducated
youth of the country.
Which of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B National Career Service (NCS)
project is an initiative launched by
the Ministry of Labour and
Employment (India) Government
of India as a Mission Mode Project
for establishing quick and efficient
career related services. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
The main stakeholders for the NCS
would include:
- Unemployed candidates seeking
jobs
- Students seeking career
counseling
- Candidates seeking vocational /
occupational guidance
- Illiterate, under-privileged
sections of society, blue-collar
workers seeking placements and
guidance
- Person with different abilities
(PWDs), ex-servicemen, veterans /
senior citizens, etc.
- Employers seeking suitable
candidates
Thus statement 2 is correct.
M CAA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15449
8
https://www.
ncs.gov.in/Pag
es/default.asp
x
http://dget.ni
c.in/content/s
tudents/natio
nal-career-
service.php
EN Lack of
employment
has remained
continuously
in the news.
Though, NCS
was
established in
2015, it has
remianed in
news due to
focus on
helping
people in
finding
employment.
14 Current
Affairs
statements best describes
the term ‘Scheme for
Sustainable Structuring of
Stressed Assets (S4A)’,
B The S4A by RBI envisages
determination of the sustainable
debt level for a stressed borrower,
and bifurcation of the outstanding
debt into sustainable debt and
E CA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
business/Indu
stry/First-S4A-
debt-recast-
EN Stressed
assets and
NPAs have
constantly
remained in
Section and All India Test
series - 2128, 2222, 2241
among the steps taken by RBI

recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for
considering ecological costs
of developmental schemes
formulated by the
Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for
reworking the financial
structure of big corporate
entities facing genuine
difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan
of the Government regarding
Central Public Sector
Undertakings.
(d) It is an important
provision in ‘The Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code’
recently implemented by the
Government.
equity/quasi-equity instruments
which are expected to provide
upside to the lenders when the
borrower turns around.
gets-
approval/articl
e16437605.ec
e
http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/business/
banking-and-
finance/rbi-
unveils-new-
scheme-to-
tackle-bad-
loans-of-big-
firms-
2851186/
the news. RBI
came up with
many schemes
to adress
these issues.
Ex - S4A, 5:25
etc.
to improve the stressed assets
situation in banking sector?
1. Scheme for sustainable
structuring of stressed assets
(S4A)
2. Joint Lender"s
Forum
3. Double taxation avoidance
agreement (DTAA)
Select the correct answers
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air
Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce
Short Lived Climate
Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G2O group of
countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on
methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B The Climate & Clean Air Coalition
is the only global effort that unites
governments, civil society and
private sector, committed to
improving air quality and
protecting the climate in next few
decades by reducing short-lived
climate pollutants across sectors.
The Coalition's initial focus is on
methane, black carbon, and HFCs.
The governments of Bangladesh,
Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden
and the United States, along with
the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP), came
together to initiate the first effort
to treat these pollutants as a
collective challenge. The coalition
has 53 country partners and 17
International Governmental
Organizations and 45 Non
D CAA http://timesof
india.indiatim
es.com/city/v
aranasi/Solid-
waste-
management-
system-a-
failure-in-
Varanasi-says-
report/articles
how/2998095
5.cms
http://www.cc
acoalition.org/
en/partners
hehindubusin
essline.com/n
ews/national/
urgent-steps-
to-check-4-
RR The Pune
Municipal
Corporation
(PMC) was
invited to be a
member of
Climate and
Clean Air
Coalition
(CCAC) in
2013.

governmental organization
partners. India is not a partner
country however The Energy and
Resources Institute (TERI ) is a
partner NGO since 2015.
key-climate-
pollutants-
can-help-save-
2-million-
deaths-
annually-
who/article77
96565.ece
16 Geography With reference to ‘Indian
Ocean Dipole (IOD)’
sometimes mentioned in the
news while forecasting
Indian monsoon, which of
is/are correct?
1. IOD phenomenon is
characterised by a difference
in sea surface temperature
between tropical Western
Indian Ocean and tropical
Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can
influence an El Nino’s impact
on the monsoon.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B Statement 1 is not correct: The
Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular
oscillation of sea-surface
temperatures in which the
western Indian Ocean becomes
alternately warmer and then
colder than the eastern part of
the ocean.
Statement 2 is correct: an IOD can
either aggravate or weaken the
impact of El Nino on Indian
monsoon. If there is a positive
IOD, it can bring good rains to
India despite of an El Nino year.
D FCA http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/explaine
d/indian-
ocean-dipole-
and-the-
monsoon-the-
joker-in-the-
forecast-pack/
EM The question
aims to test
fundamentals
in Geography.
IOD and El
Nino are also
seen in news
frequently.
All India Test Series Test 2134
Which among the following can
suppress rainfall from the
Indian Monsoons?
1. La-Nina
2. Negative Indian Ocean
Dipole
3. Active phase of Madden
Julien Oscillation
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b)2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
17 Environment If you want to see gharials in
their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the
best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel
B National Chambal Sanctuary, also
called the National Chambal
Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is a tri-
state protected area in northern
India for the critically endangered
gharial (small crocodiles), the red-
crowned roof turtle and the
endangered Ganges river dolphin.
E CAA NCERT:
Contemporary
India - II ,
Chapter -2
Forest and
Wildlife
Resources.
http://timesof
india.indiatim
es.com/city/a
gra/number-
EN Recently it
was reported
that the
population of
Ghariyals has
increased in
the Chambal
Gharial
Wildlife
Sanctuary.
All India Test Series Tests 2118,
2212, 2352
statements regarding a
"Protected Area":
1. It falls in the tri-point of
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
and Uttar Pradesh.
2. It hosts critically endangered
species such as Gharial, the
Red-crowned Roof Turtle and

of-gharials-
muggers-goes-
up-in-
chambal/articl
eshow/57993
791.cms
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/i
nfant-
endangered-
ninja-
turtles/article
18593863.ece
the Ganges River Dolphin.
3. The headquarter of the
sanctuary is situated at Morena
in Madhya Pradesh.
sanctuaries is best described by
the above mentioned
statements?
(a) National Chambal Sanctuary
(b) Palpur Kuno Wildlife
Sanctuary
(c) Sanjay Gandhi National Park
(d) Pench National Park
18 Current
Affairs
Consider the following in
respect of Indian Ocean
Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in
India in 2015 under the
chairmanship of the Indian
Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary
initiative that seeks to
increase maritime co-
operation among navies of
the littoral states of the
Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B The ‘Indian Ocean Naval
Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary
initiative that seeks to increase
maritime co-operation among
navies of the littoral states of the
Indian Ocean Region by providing
an open and inclusive forum for
discussion of regionally relevant
maritime issues.
There are 35 members - navies of
the IONS which have been
geographically grouped into the
following four sub-regions:- South
Asian Littorals, West Asian
Littorals, East African Littorals,
South East Asian and Australian
Littorals.
The inaugural IONS-2008 was held
in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08.
CNS, Indian Navy was designated
the Chairman IONS for the period
2008-10.
The theme of the IONS-2008 was
“Contemporary Trans-national
D CAA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/national
/we-will-be-
able-to-
liquidate-the-
shortage-of-
women-
officers-in-
five-to-six-
years-navy-
chief/article17
664481.ece
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=13433
7
http://ions.go
v.in/
EN In-depth
knowledge
about IONS.
Also, Indian
ocean has
been a focus
area for the
government in
the light
growing
Chinese
presence in
the region.

Challenges – International
Maritime Connectivities”.
Thus statement 2 is correct and
19 Art and
Culture
The painting of Bodhisattva
Padmapani is one of the
most famous and oft-
illustrated paintings at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Bagh
(d) Ellora
A The painting is on the back wall of
the interior hall before the shrine-
antechamber in Cave No. 1 at
Ajanta dating back to the late fifth
century CE. The Boddhisattva is
holding a padma (lotus), has large
shoulders, and has three bents in
the body creating a movement in
the picture space. The modelling
is soft. The figure of the
Boddhisattva is wearing a big
crown in which detailed rendering
is visible.
E F AN
INTRODUCTIO
N TO INDIAN
ART, page 54
EM To test basic
knowledge of
art and
architecture
of Ancient
India
20 Art and
Culture
Traditions Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival –
Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra –
Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari - Santhals
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
A Pair 1 is matched correctly: Chalia
sahib is the festival of the Sindhis
which involves devotees fasting
for days.
Pair 2 is not matched correctly:
The Nanda Devi Jat is celebrated
every year in the Nanda Devi
temples spread across Garhwal
and Kumaon. The festival
commences on the day
earmarked for the Devi’s visit to
her maiti or parents’ home and
culminates with the return to her
husband’s home. This tradition is
beautifully expressed in the folk
songs of Uttarakhand.
Pair 3 is not matched correctly:
Pandharpur Wari or Wari (Vari) is
an annual pilgrimage to
Pandharpur - the seat of the god
Vithoba in Maharashtra, in
honour of the deity.
Palakhiscarrying the paduka (foot
prints) of various saints - most
D U http://timesof
india.indiatim
es.com/city/p
une/An-
unusual-
Warkari-at-
the-
Wari/articlesh
ow/52951360.
cms
india.indiatim
es.com/city/d
elhi/Jhulelal-
festival/article
show/134353.
cms
RR To check in
depth
knowledge
about cultural
heritage of
India.

notably Dnyaneshwar and
Tukaram - from the Warkari sect
are taken from their respective
shrines to Pandharpur.
statements can help in water
conservation in agriculture?
1. Reduced or zero tillage of
the land
2. Applying gypsum before
irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to
remain in the field
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D No-till farming (also called zero
tillage or direct drilling) is a way of
growing crops or pasture from
year to year without disturbing
the soil through tillage. No-till is
an agricultural technique which
increases the amount of water
that infiltrates into the soil and
increases organic matter
retention and cycling of nutrients
in the soil.
Gypsum improves the ability of
soil to drain and not become
waterlogged thus increasing
water-use efficiency of crops.
M FA http://www.fa
o.org/docrep/
003/T0234E/T
0234E04.htm
http://www.cr
oplife.com/cro
p-
inputs/micron
utrients/the-
role-of-
gypsum-in-
agriculture-5-
key-benefits-
you-should-
know/
RR http://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/ne
ws/economy/f
oreign-
trade/pakistan
-exporting-
2700-tonnes-
gypsum-daily-
to-
india/articlesh
ow/51457239.
cms
Partly covered in Test 2136.
Types of Farming Description
1. Mixed farming : different
varieties of crops grown on the
same land simultaneously.
2. Cover cropping : grasses
planted to provide seasonal soil
cover on cropland when the
soil would otherwise be bare.
3. Zero-tillage farming :
growing of crops without
disturbing the soil through
tillage.
Which of the pairs given above
is/are correctly matched?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22 Current
Affairs
statements:
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health
Card Scheme’ aims at
1. expanding the cultivable
area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to
assess the quantum of loans
to be granted to farmers on
the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of
fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and
3
B Launched by the central
government in February 2015, the
scheme is tailor-made to issue
‘Soil card’ to farmers which will
carry crop-wise recommendations
of nutrients and fertilizers
required for the individual farms.
This is aimed to help farmers to
improve productivity through
judicious use of inputs.
Thus only statement 3 is correct.
E CAA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15944
1
hehindu.com/
news/national
/other-
states/award-
for-himachal-
for-
implementing-
soil-health-
card-
scheme/articl
e8506563.ece
EN Soil health
card has
remained
continuously
in news due to
increased
focus on farm
output.
Covered in All India Test Series
2125,2219
With reference to Soil Health
Card Scheme, consider the
following Statements:
1. It is field-specific detailed
report of soil fertility status .
2. It aims to provide farm
insurance based on soil health.
3. Every soil health card will be
renewed every year.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

23 Science and
Technology
Commonly used/consumed
materials Unwanted or
controversial chemicals likely
to be found in them
1. Lipstick – Lead
2. Soft drinks – Brominated
vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food –
Monosodium glutamate
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D Lead is a common impurity found
in cosmetic lip products, such as
lipsticks, and other cosmetics,
such as eye shadows, blushes,
compact powders, shampoos, and
body lotions.
Brominated vegetable oil is a food
additive sometimes used to keep
citrus flavoring from separating
out in some sodas and soft drinks.
It's banned as a food additive in
Europe and Japan.
MSG, is a glutamate, or salt of
glutamic acid, a “non-essential”
amino acid. It is a
neurotransmitter - transporting
messages from one nerve cell to
another. Because it is said to
enhance flavours, some scientists
believe it “excites nerve endings”
and exhibits “neuro-excitatory
properties”, that is the ability to
stimulate neurons. It is commonly
used in chinese fast food.
D FA http://www.t
hehindu.com/l
ife-and-
style/fashion/
Beauty-
without-the-
beast-organic-
eco-friendly-
and-vegan-
cosmetics-in-
India/article17
381697.ece
hehindu.com/
news/national
/no-added-
msg-claim-
did-maggi-
in/article7313
318.ece
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-
international/
coke-to-drop-
ingredient-
entirely/articl
e5984124.ece
EN MSG was in
news due to
maggi
controversy.
24 Science and
Technology
Organic Light Emitting
Diodes (OLEDs) are used to
create digital display in many
devices. What are the
advantages of OLED displays
over Liquid Crystal displays?
1. OLED displays can be
fabricated on flexible plastic
substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded
in clothing can be made
using OLEDs.
C All the three statements are
correct with regard to OLED and
they are the disadvatages of LCDs.
Flexible Organic Light Emitting
Diodes (FOLED) fabricated on
flexible plastic substates can be
bent or rolled while operating.
The manufacturing process of
OLEDs is different to those of LCD
technology. OLEDs can be printed
onto almost any substrate with
inkjet printer technology. That is
D FA http://www.a
bout-
oled.com/adv
antages-and-
drawbacks.ht
ml
EN OLED being a
new display
technology
has been in
news
constantly.

3. Transparent displays are
possible using OLEDs.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
statements is correct
why new applications like displays
embedded in clothes or roll-up
displays are possible.
LCD technology engages a
backlight, whereas OLED has no
backlighting function. Hence it can
be used for making transparent
displays.
25 Art and
Culture
famous for Sun temples?
1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A The Sun Temple is situated in
Arasavalli Village in Andhra
Pradesh. Sun temples are not
located in Amarkantak and
Omkareshwar.
D U http://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/national
/andhra-
pradesh/Arasa
valli-temple-
wears-a-
festive-
look/article17
150240.ece
RR To check in
depth
knowledge
about cultural
heritage of
India.
26 Polity and
Governance
statements:
1. In the election for Lok
Sabha or State Assembly, the
winning candidate must get
at least 50 percent of the
votes polled, to be declared
elected.
2. According to the
provisions laid down in the
Constitution of India, in Lok
Sabha, the Speaker’s post
goes to the majority party
and the Deputy Speaker’s to
the Opposition.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D Statement 1 is not correct. In
election for lok sabha and state
assembly, the first past the post
system is followed where a
candidate who polls more votes
than any other candidate is
elected.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per
the constitution, the speaker and
deputy speaker in lok sabha are
elected among its members.
M F Laxmikant -
Indian Polity,
chapter -
"Parliament"
EM to check the
basic
knowledge
(partially covered)
statements with regard to
election system in India:
1. India chose first past the
post system because of its
cultural, religious and linguistic
diversity.
2. All the members of Rajya
Sabha are elected by
proportional representation
system.
Which of the statements give
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27 Economics Which of the following
has/have occurred in India
after its liberalization of
economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP
increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in
world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange
reserves increased
enormously.
using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
B The post-reform period shows the
gradual decline in the agriculture
sector’s contribution to the Indian
economy. India’s traditional
occupation, agriculture now
contributes only about 15% to the
GDP, down from 29 percent in
1991.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Share of India's exports increased
since 1991.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Before 1991, foreign investment
was negligible. The first year of
reform saw a total foreign
investment of only $74 million.
However, investments have
steadily risen since then, except
for occasional blips between 1997
and 2000 and 2008 and 2012 –
owing to the global economic
slowdown. As of 31 March 2016,
the country has received total FDI
of $371 billion, since 1991. The
year 2008 recorded the highest
FDI inflow of $43.40 billion. The
biggest spurt in inflow was
between 2005 and 2006 –
175.54%. As of March 2016, India
has attracted $10.55 billion worth
of FDI. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
It was India’s dismal state of forex
reserves that forced the
government to bring in economic
reforms. Now, 25 years later,
forex reserves are at a record
high. In 1991, it stood at just $5.8
billion. As of 24 June, the
country’s forex reserves are at
$360.8 billion. Usually, import
E FA http://www.fi
rstpost.com/b
usiness/25-
years-of-
liberalisation-
a-glimpse-of-
indias-growth-
in-14-charts-
2877654.html
RR To check basic
knowledge of
Indian
economic
development
All India test series, test 2112
the effects of New Economic
Policy 1991 on Indian
economy?
1. Increase in foreign direct
investment and forex reserves.
2. Increase in public investment
in agricultural infrastructure.
3. Reduction in regional
disparities.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

coverage of 7-8 months is
considered sufficient. The biggest
jump in reserves was witnessed
between 2007 and 2008 when the
kitty bulged 55% to hit $309.2
billion. Hence, sttement 4 is
correct.
28 Science and
Technology
What is the application of
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer
Technology? (a) Production
of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of
biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of
animals
(d) Production of organisms
free of diseases
C Somatic-cell nuclear transfer
involves removing the nucleus,
which contains the DNA, and
implanting it into an unfertilised
egg, whose nucleus has been
removed. It is used in
reproductive cloning of
organisms.
M F http://www.t
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-in-
school/Creatin
g-genetic-
copies/article
14478059.ece
EN 20 years of
cloning first
sheep - Dolly
29 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. National Payment
Corporation of India (NPCI)
helps in promoting the
financial inclusion in the
country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay,
a card payment scheme.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C (NPCI) is an umbrella organization
for all retail payments system in
India. It was set up with the
guidance and support of the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and
Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
The core objective was to
consolidate and integrate the
multiple systems with varying
service levels into nation-wide
uniform and standard business
process for all retail payment
systems. The other objective was
to facilitate an affordable
payment mechanism to benefit
the common man across the
country and help financial
inclusion. Thus statement 1 is
correct.
It offers many products and
services which include RuPay card,
BHIM app, Unified payment
interface among others. Thus
statement 2 is correct.
E CAA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=16033
9
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/smoothe
n-bhim-
refund-
process-it-
minister-to-
npci/article18
185655.ece
pci.org.in/
EN Digital
payment has
continuously
remained in
nws and NPCI
is one of the
most
important
step in this
regard.
and All India Test Series:
2121,2215,2239,2363
With reference to National
Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an umbrella organization
for all retail payments system
in India.
2. It has been incorporated
under the Companies Act,
1956.
3. RuPay card payment scheme
has been launched by the NPCI.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

30 Environment The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is
sometimes seen in the news
in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild
Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger
Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite
Navigation System
(d) Security of National
Highways
B Monitoring System for Tigers’-
Intensive Protection and
Ecological Status is a software
monitoring system launched by
the Indian Government in 2010 in
some tiger reserves to reduce
vulnerability of Tigers. The system
would enable field managers to
assist intensity and spatial
coverage of patrols in a
geographic information system
(GIS) domain.
M CAA http://www.n
ewindianexpr
ess.com/state
s/odisha/2017
/feb/08/m-
stripes-to-
monitor-str-
from-april-
1568257.html
india.indiatim
es.com/city/d
ehradun/mobi
le-app-to-
monitor-tiger-
reserves-
launched/artic
leshow/56896
945.cms
EN Official launch
of M-STrIPES
(Monitoring
System For
Tigers-
Intensive
Protection
and Ecological
Status)
software-
enabled
mobile app at
Corbett Tiger
Reserve.
31 Economics What is/are the most likely
advantages of implementing
‘Goods and Services Tax
(GST)’? 1. It will replace
multiple taxes collected by
multiple authorities and will
thus create a single market
in India.
2. It will drastically reduce
the ‘Current Account Deficit’
of India and will enable it to
increase its foreign exchange
reserves.
3. It will enormously increase
the growth and size of
economy of India and will
enable it to overtake China in
the near future.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A GST is one indirect tax for the
whole nation, which will make
India one unified common
market.
There is no information which
says GST will drastically reduce
the CAD of india. Neither it is true
that it will enable India to take
over China.
Hence, statements 2 and 3 are
not correct.
M CAA http://www.g
stindia.com/a
bout/
EN Consistently in
news
Covered in PT365 Economy
and VisionIAS test series - 2130
Which of the following can be
achieved with the
implementation of the Goods
and Services Tax Act (GST)?
1. Common marketplace for
direct taxes
2. Elimination of distortions in
intrastate trade
3. Boost investment and
growth
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

32 Current
Affairs
'Broad-based Trade and
Investment Agreement
(BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in
the news in the context of
negotiations held between
India and
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for
Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation
Organization
A The FTA talks with EU have been
deadlocked since 2013 after 16
rounds of negotiations. Last year
EU raised its concern over what it
called India’s “unilateral
termination” of existing Bilateral
Investment Treaties (BITs) with “a
significant number of” EU-
member countries.
E CA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=16013
1
hehindu.com/
business/Indu
stry/India-EU-
aim-to-break-
Free-Trade-
Agreement-
impasse/articl
e14378438.ec
e
EN FTA
negotiations
with EU has
remained
continuously
in news.
Covered in PT 365 Updation -
International
33 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. India has ratified to Trade
Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali
Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in
January 2016.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A The TFA is the WTO’s first-ever
multilateral accord that aims to
simplify customs regulations for
the cross-border movement of
goods. It was outcome of WTO’s
9th Bali (Indonesia) ministerial
package of 2013. India ratified it
in April 2016. It came into force in
February 2017. Thus statement 3
is not correct.
M CA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15999
2
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/india-
tables-legally-
vetted-
proposal-on-
global-
services-pact-
at-
wto/article17
355734.ece
EN TFA has
remained
regularly in
news for last 3
years.
and PT 365 Updation -
Economy All India test series -
partially covered in test 2124,
2121 and 2358
Doha round of WTO covers
negotiations on which of the
following?
1. Agriculture
2. Services
3. Non-Agricultural Market
Access 4. Trade Facilitation
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
34 Current
Affairs
What is the importance of
developing Chabahar Port by
India?
(a) India’s trade with African
countries will enormously
increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-
producing Arab countries will
be strengthened.
C India and Iran signed a series of
agreements that allowed New
Delhi to use the port of Chabahar
to access Central Asia and
Afghanistan without depending
upon Pakistan.
n/newsite/mb
Erel.aspx?relid
=147456
hehindu.com/
news/national
/India-to-
develop-Irans-
EN Chabahar port
has remained
continuously
in news.
Covered in PT365 International
Relations . All India test series,
test 2123 (covered in
explanation).
Chabahar Port is associated
with which of the following
locations?
1. Gulf of Oman
2. Persian Gulf

(c) India will not depend on
Pakistan for access to
Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and
protect the installation of a
gas pipeline between Iraq
and India.
Chabahar-
port/article14
336893.ece
3. Arabian Sea
the code given below. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35 Current
Affairs
In India, it is legally
mandatory for which of the
following to report on cyber
security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D The Indian Computer Emergency
Response Team shall serve as the
national agency for performing
the following functions in the area
of cyber security,–
(a) collection, analysis and
dissemination of information on
cyber incidents;
(b) forecast and alerts of cyber
security incidents;
(c) emergency measures for
handling cyber security incidents;
(d) coordination of cyber incidents
response activities;
(e) issue guidelines, advisories,
vulnerability notes and white
papers relating to information
security practices, procedures,
prevention, response and
reporting of cyber incidents;
(f) such other functions relating to
cyber security as may be
prescribed.
Any service provider,
intermediaries, data centres,
body corporate or person who
fails to provide the information
called for or comply with the
above section shall be punishable
with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to one year or
with fine which may extend to
one lakh rupees or with both.
D CAA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/pri
ntrelease.aspx
?relid=158620
http://lawmin.
nic.in/ld/P-
ACT/2000/The
%20Informati
on%20Technol
ogy%20Act,%2
02000.pdf
RR Cyber security
regularly in
news.

36 Polity and
Governance
Right to vote and to be
elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
D According to Supreme Court
judgment Jyoti Basu vs Debi
Ghosal - A right to elect,
fundamental though it is to
democracy, is, anomalously
neither a fundamental right nor a
Common Law Right. It is a
statutory right. So is the right to
be elected, and the right to
dispute an election.
***NOTE - As per NCERT
One of the important decisions of
the framers of the Indian
Constitution was to guarantee
every adult citizen in India, the
right to vote i.e. universal adult
franchise. The article 326 of the
Constitution provides for the right
to vote and to be elected in India.
What is true of the right to vote is
also true of right to contest
election. All citizens have the right
to stand for election and become
the representative of the people.
D F
Union of India
vs. Association
for
Democratic
Reforms and
Anr. (2002)
5SCC 294 and
People’s
Union for Civil
Liberties vs.
Union of India
(2003)
****Article
326 of the
constitution &
NCERT - 11,
Indian
constitution at
work, chapter
3, page 66
EM to check the
basic
knowledge
37 Current
Affairs
What is the purpose of
‘evolved Laser
Interferometer Space
Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational
waves
(c) To detect the
effectiveness of missile
defence system
(d) To study the effect of
solar flares on our
communication systems
B eLISA is a spectacular plan of
setting into space three
spacecraft, a mother and two
daughter spacecraft, which will fly
in a triangular formation, trailing
the earth in its orbit around the
sun at a distance of over 50
million km. Laser interferometers
will accurately measure changes
in the distance between these
cubes. If they should be affected
by a gravitational wave, the
minute changes in this distance
are measure by the
interferometer.
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/S
pace-
antennae-to-
probe-
gravitational-
waves/article1
4433813.ece
EN Gravitationals
waves have
been regularly
in news.
Covered in PT 365 SnT and All
India Test Series 2115, 2209, 2360
Which of the following pairs
Spacecraft/ Mission : Purpose
1. New Horizons : to map and
investigate Mercury
2. Juno : to understand origin
and evolution of Jupiter
3. LISA Pathfinder : to
demonstrate the technology
needed to build a space-based
gravitational wave observatory
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

38 Current
Affairs
‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?
1. To enable the famous
foreign educational
institutions to open their
campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of
education provided in
government schools by
taking help from the private
sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary
monetary contributions from
private individuals and
organizations so as to
improve the infrastructure
facilities for primary and
secondary schools.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
A The Ministry of HRD recently
launched the Vidyanjali scheme
aimed at boosting the education
system by delivering volunteer
teachers to government schools.
It will not replace the regular and
professionally qualified teachers
in the government schools.
The volunteer's responsibility is
towards overall development of
the child, not academics.
The volunteer service will be used
in developing skills like public
speaking, creative writing,
counseling, music and dance.
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=14627
3
hehindu.com/
news/cities/Vi
jayawada/Vidy
anjali-
launched/artic
le14427857.ec
e
EN Many
schemes have
been lunched
by the
government
to improve
the learning
outcome and
quality of the
education.
Covered in PT 365 Social and
All India Test Series
2114,2208,2238,2364
The recently launched
Vidyanjali scheme aims at
(a) boosting the education
system by delivering volunteer
teachers to government
schools.
(b) providing support to young
entrepreneurs by coordinated
delivery of various
entrepreneurship programs.
(c) introducing compulsory
certification for teachers in
government and private
schools
(d) none of the above
39 Current
Affairs
What is the aim of the
programme ‘Unnat Bharat
Abhiyan’?
(a) Achieving 100% literacy
by promoting collaboration
between voluntary
organizations and
government’s education
system and local
communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of
higher education with local
communities to address
development challenges
through appropriate
technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s
scientific research
B With a view to uplift rural India,
the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
programme is launched in
collaboration with the Indian
Institutes of Technology (IIT) and
the National Institutes of
Technology (NITs) across the
country.
The programme aims to connect
institutions of higher education,
including Indian Institutes of
Technology (IITs), National
Institutes of Technology (NITs)
and Indian Institutes of Science
Education & Research (IISERs) etc.
with local communities to address
the development challenges
through appropriate technologies.
hehindu.com/
news/cities/T
hiruvananthap
uram/this-
bureaucrat-
also-
heals/article1
7413890.ece
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=16079
0
EN A lot of focus
in on
grassroot
innovation.
The scheme
was in news in
this regard.
Covered in PT365 - Govt
schemes & All India Test Series
2125,2219,2366:
With reference to Unnat Bharat
Abhiyan, consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to support smart
cities project and urban
development.
2. It connects IITs and NITs with
local communities to address
the development challenges.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

institutions in order to make
India a scientific and
technological power.
(d) Developing human capital
by allocating special funds
for health care and
education of rural and urban
poor, and organizing skill
development programmes
and vocational training for
them.
40 Polity and
Governance
statements: 1. The Election
Commission of India is a five-
member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home
Affairs decides the election
schedule for the conduct of
both general elections and
bye-elections.
3. Election Commission
resolves the disputes relating
to splits/mergers of
recognized political parties.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
D Only statement 3 is correct.
Election Commission of India is a 3
member body and it is the
election commission which
decides the election schedule for
both general elections and bye-
elections.
It is also the function of election
commission to resolve the
disputes relating to splits/mergers
of recognized political parties.
E FA Laxmikant -
Indian Polity,
chapter -
"Election
Commission"
EM to check the
basic
knowledge
41 Environment In India, if a species of
tortoise is declared
protected under Schedule I
of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972, what does it
imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of
protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the
wild, a few individuals are
under captive protection;
and not it is impossible to
prevent its extinction.
A The Act provides for the
protection of wild animals, birds
and plants; and for matters
connected therewith or ancillary
or incidental thereto. It extends to
the whole of India, except the
State of Jammu and Kashmir
which has its own wildlife act. It
has six schedules which give
varying degrees of protection.
Schedule I and part II of Schedule
II provide absolute protection -
offences under these are
E FA NCERT:
Contemporary
India - II ,
Chapter -2
Forest and
Wildlife
Resources.
EM Schedule I of
the Wildlife
(Protection)
Act, 1972 is
often seen in
news.
All India Test Series - Tests
2134, 2127 , Q. With reference
to the black-necked crane,
statements: 1. The high altitude
wetlands in the Tibetan plateau
are the main breeding ground
of the species.
2. It is given legal protection
under Schedule I of the Wildlife

(c) It is endemic to a
particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated
above are correct in this
context.
prescribed the highest penalties.
Species listed in Schedule III and
Schedule IV are also protected,
but the penalties are much lower.
Schedule V includes the animals
which may be hunted.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
regarding Wildlife Protection
act, 1972? 1. Schedule V of the
Act contains vermins which can
be hunted.
2. As per the act, only the
central government can declare
an animal as vermin.
3. The Act covers only animals
and not plants.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
42 Polity and
Governance
In India, Judicial Review
implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary
to pronounce upon the
constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary
to question the wisdom of
the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary
to review all the legislative
enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary
to review its own
judgements given earlier in
similar or different cases.
A Judicial review is the power of
judiciary to examine the
constitutionality of legislative
enactments and executive orders
of both the Central and state
governments. On examination, if
they are found to be violative of
the Constitution (ultra-vires), they
can be declared as illegal,
unconstitutional and invalid (null
and viod). Consequently, they
cannot be enforced by the
government. The constitutional
validity of a legislative enactment
or an executive order can be
challenged in a high court or
supreme court on the following
three grounds: (a) it infringes the
fundamental rights (Part III), (b) it
is outside the competence of the
authority which has framed it, and
(c) it is repugant to the
constitutional provisions.
M F Laxmikanth
Ch-30 High
Court
EM to test the
basic concept

43 Modern
History
freedom struggle, consider
the following events:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian
Navy
2. Quit Indian Movement
launched
3. Second Round Table
Conference
What is the correct
chronological sequence of
the above events?
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
C Second Round Table Conference
took place on 7th September
1931.
The Quit India Movement, also
known as the August Movement
was a Civil Disobedience
Movement launched by Gandhi JI
on 8th August 1942.
Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny
was a rebellion launched on
February 18, 1946, by seamen on
the HMIS Talwar. Hence correct
chronological sequence of the
above events are 3-2-1
E F NCERT
chapter 13
class 12
themes in
indian history-
3
RR To check the
basic
knowledge of
all the
important
historical
events.
44 Economics Consider the following
statements:
1. Tax revenue as a percent
of GDP of India has steadily
increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent
of GDP of India has steadily
increased in the last decade.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D Service tax, personal income tax
and corporation tax have been
reduced in the recent past to
boost aggregate demand, so as to
protect the economy from global
recession.
Excise duty rates have been
reduced in the recent past to
boost aggregate demand, so as to
protect the economy from global
recession hence tax revenue as a
percent of GDP of India has
steadily not increase in the last
decade . Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP
of India has not steadily increased
in the last decade. Hence
M CAA Economic
survey 2014-
15
RM Economic
survey has
discussed this
issue in detail.
VisionIAS 2017 Open test 4-
2375 Q. With respect to Indian
following statements: 1. The
current account balance has
remained negative in the last
three years. 2. The fiscal deficit
has steadily declined over the
last three years. Which of the
statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
45 Current
Affairs
Recently there was a
proposal to translocate some
of the lions from their
habitat in Gujarat to which
one of the following sites?
(a) Corbett National Park
B An environment ministry’s expert
committee approved Kuno Palpur
in Madhya Pradesh as the second
home for Asiatic lions found only
in Gir national park. However, the
Gujarat government will not share
M CA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/national
/other-
states/M.P.-
seeks-
EN Important
news
regarding lion
conservation

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife
Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife
Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
lions unless 33 studies as
mandated by international wildlife
watchdog IUCN is completed
%E2%80%98i
mmediate%E2
%80%99-
transfer-of-
Asiatic-lions-
from-
Gujarat/article
14477032.ece
46 Polity and
Governance
not necessarily the
consequences of the
proclamation of the
President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State
Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of
Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local
bodies
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B When the President’s Rule is
imposed in a state, the President
dismisses the state council of
ministers headed by the chief
minister. The state governor, on
behalf of the President, carries on
the state administration with the
help of the chief secretary of the
state or the advisors appointed by
the President. This is the reason
why a proclamation under Article
356 is popularly known as the
imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in
a state. Further, the President
either suspends or dissolves the
state legislative assembly.The
Parliament passes the state
legislative bills and the state
budget. The President's Rule
doesnot lead to dissolution of
local bodies.
Hence, the answer is 1 and 3 only.
M F Laxmikanth
Ch-16
Emergency
Provisions
EM to test the
basic
knowledge
47 Polity and
Governance
envisaged by the Right
against Exploitation in the
1. Prohibition of traffic in
human beings and forced
labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests
of minorities
4. Prohibition of
C RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
includes Article 23 & 24 of the
Indian Constitution.
Article 23 prohibits traffic in
human beings, begar (forced
labour) and other similar forms of
forced labour. Any contravention
of this provision shall be an
offence punishable in accordance
with law. This right is available to
both citizens and non-citizens. It
E F Laxmikanth -
Ch-7
Fundamental
Rights
EM to test the
factual and
basic
knowledge
Right against exploitation
guaranteed by the Constitution
prohibits which of the following
activities?
(a) Exploitation of religious
minorities.
(b) Exploitation of Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(c) Trafficking in human beings
and forced labour

employment of children in
factories and mines
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
protects the individual not only
against the State but also against
private persons.
Article 24 prohibits the
employment of children below
the age of 14 years in any factory,
mine or other hazardous
activities like construction work
or railway. But it does not prohibit
their employment in any harmless
or innocent work.
(d) Forced migration due to
displacement and development
activities
48 Geography Which of the following is
geographically closest to
Great Nicobar?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka
A Great Nicobar is the
southernmost and largest of the
Nicobar Islands of India, north of
Sumatra. The island of Sumatra is
located 180 km (110 mi) to the
south of Great Nicobar.
M FA Atlas
http://www.li
vemint.com/L
eisure/bCr0Gp
LRbAL603xnOj
VT5J/Fear-
and-survival-
in-Great-
Nicobar.html
EM Important
from the view
point of
India's
territorial
extent.
All India Test Series - Test 2118
(partially covered) Which one
of the following pairs of islands
is separated from each other by
the "Eight Degree Channel?
(a) Andman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
49 Polity and
Governance
Out of the following
statements, choose the one
that brings out the principle
underlying the Cabinet form
of Government:
(a) An arrangement for
minimizing the criticism
against the Government
whose responsibilities are
complex and hard to carry
out the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for
speeding up the activities of
the Government whose
responsibilities are
increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of
parliamentary democracy for
ensuring collective
responsibility of the
Government to the people.
C The Parliamentary system is also
known as the ‘Westminster’
model of government, responsible
government and cabinet
government. The Constitution
establishes the parliamentary
system not only at the Centre but
also in the states. The features of
parliamentary government in
India are: (a) Presence of nominal
and real executives; (b) Majority
party rule, (c) Collective
responsibility of the executive to
the legislature, (d) Membership of
the ministers in the legislature, (e)
Leadership of the prime minister
or the chief minister, (f)
Dissolution of the lower House
(Lok Sabha or Assembly).
M F Laxmikanth
Ch-Salient
Features of
Indian
Constitution.
EM to test the
basic clarity

(d) A device for
strengthening the hands of
the head of the Government
whose hold over the people
is in a state of decline.
50 Polity and
Governance
not a feature to Indian
federalism?
(a) There is an independent
judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly
divided between the Centre
and the States.
(c) The federating units have
been given unequal
representation in the Rajya
Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an
agreement among the
federating units.
D The Constitution of India
establishes a federal system of
government. It contains all the
usual features of a federation,
viz., two government, division of
powers, written Constitution,
super-macy of Constitution,
rigidity of Constitution,
independent judiciary and
bicameralism.
Moreover, the term ‘Federation’
has nowhere been used in the
Constitution. Article 1, on the
other hand, describes India as a
‘Union of States’ which implies
two things: one, Indian
Federation is not the result of an
agreement by the states; and
two, no state has the right to
secede from the federation.
E F Laxmikanth-
CH-Salient
Features of
the
Constitution
EM to test the
basic clarity
VisionIAS Test Series - Tests
2104 & 2203
In the context of Indian
federation, consider the
1. States have no right to
secede from the federation.
2. It is the result of an
agreement among the states.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51 Modern
History
The object of the Butler
Committee of 1927 was to
(a) Define the jurisdiction of
the Central and Provincial
Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the
Secretary of State for India.
(c) Impose censorship on
national press.
(d) Improve the relationship
between the Government of
India and the Indian States.
D The Report of the Butler
Committee on the relations
between the Indian States and
British India . The Committee
advise that the Viceroy (instead of
the Governor-General in Council)
should represent the Crown in all
dealings with the States. This
proposed change is comparable
with the new Imperial
arrangement by which the
Governor-General of a Dominion
is High Commissioner for the
Dominion's Protectorates. The
Committee sympathize with the
fear of the Native Princes that
M F spectrum
page no.321
EM To check the
basic
knowledge.
All India Open test 2(2226),All
India test series - 2110
Harcourt Butler Committee was
appointed by the British
Government on December 16,
1927 to
(a) curb the left wing
movement.
(b) grant autonomy to British
administered province.
(c) strengthen the relationship
of princely states with the
Crown.
(d) modernize Indian
agriculture.
(2) Consider the following pairs:

their States might pass without
their consent under a new
Government in British India
responsible to an Indian
Legislature, and they plainly
express the opinion that no such
transference should be made
without the consent of the
Princes.
Committee Objective
1. Butler committee : to clarify
the relationship between the
British crown and the Princely
states.
2. Hunter Committee : to
report on development of local
self government
3. Hartog Committee : to look
into the Punjab wrongs Which
of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
52 Current
Affairs
The term ‘Domestic Content
Requirement’ is sometimes
seen in the news with
reference to
(a) Developing solar power
production in our country
(b) Granting licenses to
foreign T.V. channels in our
country
(c) Exporting our food
products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign
educational institutions to
set up their campuses in our
country
A ‘Domestic Content Requirement’,
recently in news, is related to
development of solar power
production.
The World Trade Organization had
ruled against India's domestic
content policy for solar cells and
modules; India appealed the
ruling in a bid to keep DCR rules in
place for government
procurement. The case against
India was originally filed in 2013,
following the announcement of
DCR in JNNSM Phase II policy and
after India decided to file an anti-
dumping case against the U.S.,
China, Malaysia and Taiwan.
E F http://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/ind
ustry/energy/
power/remov
al-of-
domestic-
content-
requirement-
in-solar-not-a-
big-
blow/articlesh
ow/54412591.
cms
EN WTO ruling
against India.
Covered in 2017 Vision IAS
Open test 1-2225
correct about National Solar
Mission?
(a) The Mission has the target
of achieving 1,00,000 MW solar
power by 2022.
(b) WTO has allowed India to
mandate Domestic Content
Requirement in achieving the
target under the mission.
(c) It is one of the eight
missions of National Action
Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC).
(d) Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy is the
implementing agency for the
National Solar Mission.
53 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. The Nuclear Security
Summits are periodically
held under the aegis of the
United Nations.
2. The International Panel on
D Nuclear Security Summits are an
United States-led initiative and
are not under the aegis of the
United Nations.
The International Panel on Fissile
Materials (IPFM) was founded in
January 2006 and is an
D U http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/explaine
d/nuclear-
security-
summit-how-
to-
RR The fourth
edition of
Nuclear
Security
Summit (NSS)
was held in
Washington,

Fissile Materials is an organ
of International Atomic
Energy Agency.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
independent group of arms-
control and nonproliferation
experts (and not an organ of
International Atomic Energy
Agency) from both nuclear
weapon and non-nuclear weapon
states. Its members include
nuclear experts from seventeen
countries: Brazil, Canada, China,
France, Germany, India, Iran,
Japan, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan,
South Korea, Russia, South Africa,
Sweden, the United Kingdom, and
the United States.
understand-
what-it-does/
http://fissilem
aterials.org/ip
fm/about.htm
l
United States
last year.
54 Current
Affairs
Who among the following
can join the National Pension
System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens
only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to
55 only
(c) All State Government
employees joining the
services after the state of
notification by the respective
State Governments
(d) All Central Government
employees including those of
Armed Forces joining the
services on or after 1st April,
2004
C NPS (National Pension System) is
a defined contribution based
Pension Scheme launched by
Government of India. Eligibility-
- NPS is applicable to all new
employees of Central Government
service (except Armed Forces) and
Central Autonomous Bodies
joining Government service on or
after 1st January 2004.
- NPS is applicable to all the
employees of State Governments,
State Autonomous Bodies joining
services after the date of
notification by the respective
State Governments.
- All citizens of India between the
age of 18 and 60 years as on the
date of submission of his / her
application to Point of Presence
(POP) / Point of Presence-Service
Provider (POP-SP) can join NPS.
Recently, NRIs were also allowed
to open National Pension Scheme
(NPS) accounts online.
M FCA https://india.g
ov.in/spotlight
/national-
pension-
system-
retirement-
plan-all
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/NRIs-
can-now-
apply-online-
for-National-
Pension-
Scheme/articl
e14428129.ec
e
EN Recent
changes in the
scheme.

55 Geography With reference to river
Teesta, consider the
1. The source of river Teesta
is the same as that of
Brahmaputra but it flows
through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in
Sikkim and it is a tributary of
river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay
of Bengal on the border of
India and Bangladesh.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B Statement 1 is not correct. The
Teesta River originates from the
Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier
and flows southward through the
Sikkim Himalaya. where the
Rangpo River joins, and where it
forms the border between Sikkim
and West Bengal up to Teesta
Bazaar. Just before the Teesta
Bridge, where the roads from
Kalimpong and Darjeeling join, the
river is met by its main tributary,
the Rangeet River. Hence
Statement 2 is correct.
It changes course southwards
flowing into West Bengal. The
river then goes merging up with
the Brahmaputra River after it
bifurcates the city of Jalpaiguri
and flows just touching Cooch
Behar district at Mekhliganj and
moves to Fulchori in Bangladesh.
Thus it does not flow directly into
the Bay of Bengal. Hence
M FCA EM River Teesta
has been
often seen in
news with
respect to
India-
Bangladesh
international
relations. Its
waters are still
disputed
between the
two nations.
PT 365 Updation Material, Page
16. Eliminating statement 3,
one could arrive at the correct
answer.
56 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika
virus disease is transmitted
by the same mosquito that
transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika
virus disease is possible.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C Zika virus is primarily transmitted
to people through the bite of an
infected mosquito from the Aedes
genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in
tropical regions. This is the same
mosquito that transmits dengue,
chikungunya and yellow fever.
Although Zika virus is primarily
transmitted through mosquitoes,
it can also be sexually transmitted
as well.
M FCA Atlas EN Last year,
World Health
Organization
(WHO)
confirmed
India’s first
three cases of
Zika virus.
Covered in june 2016 current
affairs All India Test series, test
2114 and 2360 (partially
covered)
statements about Zika virus
disease: 1. It is caused by a
virus transmitted by mosquito.
2. Presently there is no vaccine
available for Zika virus.
3. Zika can be passed from a
pregnant woman to her foetus.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

57 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. The Standard Mark of
Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS) is mandatory for
automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality
Certification Mark issues by
the Food and Agriculture
Organisation (FAO).
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A In 2010, a certification from the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
has been made mandatory for all
types of automotive tyres and
tubes.
AGMARK is a certification mark
employed on agricultural products
in India, assuring that they
conform to a set of standards
approved by the Directorate of
Marketing and Inspection, an
agency of the Government of
India. The AGMARK is legally
enforced in India by the
Agricultural Produce (Grading and
Marking) Act of 1937 (and
ammended in 1986).
D U http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/india/zik
a-virus-all-
you-need-to-
know-
4676548/
nhp.gov.in/Zik
a-virus_pg
http://www.w
ho.int/mediac
entre/factshe
ets/zika/en/
RR AGMARK has
been in use to
promote
agricultural
produce.
58 Economics What is/are the
advantage/advantages of
implementing the ‘National
Agriculture Market’ scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic
trading portal for agricultural
commodities.
2. It provides the farmers
access to nationwide market,
with prices commensurate
with the quality of their
produce.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C National Agriculture Market
(NAM) is a pan-India electronic
trading portal which networks the
existing APMC mandis to create a
unified national market for
agricultural commodities. Hence,
NAM promotes uniformity,
streamlining of procedures across
the integrated markets, removes
information asymmetry between
buyers and sellers and promotes
real time price discovery, based
on actual demand and supply,
promotes transparency in auction
process, and access to a
nationwide market for the farmer,
with prices commensurate with
quality of his produce and online
payment and availability of better
quality produce and at more
reasonable prices to the
consumer. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
E CAA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/cities/ch
ennai/BIS-
certification-
to-be-made-
mandatory-
for-tyres-and-
tubes/article1
2079528.ece
EN One of the
important
reforms in
agricutural
sector.
Covered in PT 365 Economy All
India test series, test 2112,
2357
With reference to the National
Agricultural Market (NAM),
statements:
1. It aims to create a pan-India
electronic trading portal for
agricultural commodities.
2. It will be implemented as a
Central Sector Scheme through
Agri-Tech Infrastructure Fund
(ATIF).
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

59 Economics With reference to the
‘National Intellectual
Property Rights Policy’,
statements:
1. It reiterates India’s
commitment to the Doha
Development Agenda and
the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial
Policy and Promotion is the
nodal agency for regulating
intellectual property rights in
India.
Which of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C The Union Cabinet approved the
National Intellectual Property
Rights (IPR) Policy in 2016 that will
lay the future roadmap for
intellectual property in India. This
policy shall weave in the strengths
of the Government, research and
development organizations,
educational institutions,
corporate entities including
MSMEs, start-ups and other
stakeholders in the creation of an
innovation-conducive
environment, which stimulates
creativity and innovation across
sectors, as also facilitates a stable,
transparent and service-oriented
IPR administration in the country.
The Policy recognizes that India
has a well-established TRIPS-
compliant legislative,
administrative and judicial
framework to safeguard IPRs,
which meets its international
obligations while utilizing the
flexibilities provided in the
international regime to address its
developmental concerns. It
reiterates India’s commitment to
the Doha Development Agenda
and the TRIPS agreement. Hence
These objectives are sought to be
achieved through detailed action
points. The action by different
Ministries/ Departments shall be
monitored by DIPP which shall be
the nodal department to
coordinate, guide and oversee
implementation and future
development of IPRs in India. Hence
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=13889
1
EN IPR issues is
always a
important
issues in
Indian
perspective.
Covered in PT365 Economy &
asked in All India Test Series
tests 2124,2218 and 2363
statements regarding India’s
new Intellectual Property
Rights policy 2016:
1. It suggests making
Department of Science &
Technology as the nodal agency
for all IPR issues.
2. It is entirely in compliant
with the WTO’s agreement on
TRIPS.
3. It aims to remove
Compulsory Licensing clause
from India’s Patents Act.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

60 Environment According to the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, which
of the following animals
cannot be hunted by any
person except under some
provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus),
Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus
khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus
bubalis) are all mentioned under
Schedule I for the Wildlife
M FA NCERT:
Contemporary
India - II ,
Chapter -2
Forest and
Wildlife
Resources.
http://envfor.
nic.in/legis/wil
dlife/wildlife2
s1.pdf
EM The questions
aims to test
general
awareness on
endangered
species. Indian
wild ass and
the wild
buffalo are
endangered
species.
All India Test Series - Test 2127
Which of the following species
are critically endangered?
1. Namdapha Flying Squirrel
2. Malabar Civet
3. Siberian Crane
4. Gharial
5. Wild Ass
the code given below. (a) 1 and
4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c)
2, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
only
61 Polity and
Governance
statements is/are true of the
Fundamental Duties of an
Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has
been provided to enforce
these duties.
2. They are correlative to
legal duties.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D There is no legislative process
provided to enforce the
Fundamental duties and they are
not correlative to legal duties. Like
the Directive Principles, the
fundamental duties are also non-
justiciable. The Constitution does
not provide for their direct
enforcement by the courts.
Moreover, there is no legal
sanction against their violation.
D F Laxmikant -
Indian Polity,
chapter -
"Fundamental
Duties"
EM to test the
basic clarity
62 Modern
History
1. Radhakanta Deb – First
President of the British
Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu
Chetty – Founder of the
Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee –
Founder of the Indian
Association
Which of the above pairs
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B The British Indian Association was
established on 31 October 1851.
The first committee of the
association was composed of :
Raja Radhakanta Deb –
President, Raja Kalikrishna Deb –
Vice-President, Debendranath
Tagore – secretary, Digambar
Mitra – Asst Secretary.
In May 1884, M.
Veeraraghavachariar, G.
Subramania Iyer and P.
Anandacharlu established the
Madras Mahajana Sabha.
D F Ncert class
8th-THE
MAKING OF
THE
NATIONAL
MOVEMENT:
1870S-1947.
EM To check the
factual
knowledge.
asked in All India Test Series -
2121 Consider the following
pairs: Political Associations :
Founder
1.Madras Mahajan Sabha :P.
Ananda Charlu
2.Indian League :Surendranath
Banerjee
3.East India Association
:Dadabhai Naoroji Which of the
pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was
an Indian merchant, Indian
independence activist and
political activist who founded the
Madras Native Association.
Indian Association was the first
declared Nationalist Organization
founded in British India by
Surendranath Banerjee and
Anand Mohan Bose in 1876.
(2) Consider the following pairs:
Associations Leader associated
1. Bombay Presidency
Association :Pherozeshah
Mehta
2. Poona Sarvajanik sabha :M.
G. Ranade 3. Madras
Mahajansabha :Subramaniya
Iyer Which of the pairs given
matched?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
63 Polity and
Governance
objectives is not embodied in
the Preamble to the
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
B The Preamble secures to all
citizens of India liberty of thought,
expression, belief, faith and
worship, through their
Fundamental Rights, enforceable
in court of law, in case of
violation.
The ideals of liberty, equality and
fraternity in our Preamble have
been taken from the French
Revolution (1789–1799).
M F Laxmikanth -
Indian Polity,
Chapter -
Preamble
EM to test the
basic clarity
VisionIAS OPEN TEST 2 - 2226
expressions is/are a part of
Preamble of the Constitution of
India?
1. Faith
2. Worship
3. Status
4. Freedom
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
64 Current
Affairs
‘Quality Council of India
(QCI)’, consider the following
statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by
the Government of India and
the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is
appointed by the Prime
Minister on the
recommendations of the
industry to the Government.
Which of the above
C Quality Council of India (QCI) was
set up jointly by the Government
of India and the Indian Industry
represented by the three premier
industry associations i.e.
Associated Chambers of
Commerce and Industry of India
(ASSOCHAM), Confederation of
Indian Industry (CII) and
Federation of Indian Chambers of
Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to
establish and operate national
accreditation structure and
D CAA http://www.q
cin.org/about.
php
EN The Quality
Council of
India (QCI), on
its eLearning
portal
‘eQuest’,
recently
launched
online
certificate
courses in
manufacturing

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
promote quality through National
Quality Campaign.
Chairman of QCI is appointed by
the Prime Minister on
recommendation of the industry
to the government. The
Department of Industrial Policy &
Promotion, Ministry of Commerce
& Industry, is the nodal ministry
for QCI.
65 Current
Affairs
setting up of Small Finance
Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small
business units
2. To supply credit to small
and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young
entrepreneurs to set up
business particularly in rural
areas.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A The objectives of setting up of
small finance banks will be to
further financial inclusion by-
(i) provision of savings vehicles,
and
(ii) supply of credit to small
business units; small and marginal
farmers; micro and small
industries; and other unorganised
sector entities, through high
technology-low cost operations.
M CAA https://rbi.org
.in/scripts/BS_
PressReleaseD
isplay.aspx?pri
d=32614
EN Small Finance
Banks (SFBs)
have been in
news.
PT365 Economy and All India
test series, test 2123 (covered
in explanation)
statements regarding "small
finance banks" is/are correct?
1. They are required to
maintain both CRR and SLR.
2. They are not required to
follow Priority Sector Lending
norms.
3. Foreign investments in these
banks is not permitted.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
66 Current
Affairs
With reference to ‘Asia
Pacific Ministerial
Conference on Housing and
Urban Development
(APMCHUD)’, consider the
1. The first APMCHUD was
held in India in 2006 on the
theme ‘Emerging Urban
Forms – Policy Responses
and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual
Ministerial Conferences in
partnership with ADB, APEC
D The 1st APMCHUD was held in
New Delhi, India from 13th-16th
December, 2006 on the theme of
‘A Vision for Sustainable
Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by
2020’. ‘Emerging Urban Forms –
Policy Responses and Governance
Structure’ was the theme of the
6th Asia Pacific Conference on
Housing and Urban Development
held in December 2016.
2nd APMCHUD was held in
Tehran, Islamic Republic of Iran,
3rd in Solo, Republic of Indonesia,
D U http://mhupa.
gov.in/writere
addata/6thASi
a_Pacific_Vigy
an_bhawan.p
df
RR 6th Asia
Pacific
Conference on
Housing and
Urban
Development
held in
December
2016.

and ASEAN.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4th in Amman, Hashemite
Kingdom of Jordan and 5th in
Seoul, Republic of Korea.
Further, APMCHUD is a
consultative mechanism on the
promotion of sustainable
development of Housing and
Urban Development in the Asia-
Pacific Region established under
the aegis and support of UN-
Habitat.
67 Polity and
Governance
Democracy’s superior virtue
lies in the fact that it calls
into activity
(a) the intelligence and
character of ordinary men
and women.
(b) the methods for
strengthening executive
leadership.
(c) a superior individual with
dynamism and vision.
(d) a band on dedicated
party workers.
A The object of government
according to Mill's views, being
the attainment of values and
virtues in men , their self-
development, it is essential that
the government should be of
those whose self development is
being sought. This is only possible
if the people participate in the
making and working of their
government or the government is
truly representative.
"Virtue and intelligence should
become genuine attributes of
character in a citizen.....and then
through participation , people at
large , would be able to control
the rulers by influencing the
character and direction of public
policy".
D FA N.D. ARORA
and SS
Awasthy
'Poltical
Theory &
Political
Thought'
RM To test the
philosophy or
underlying
notion of a
basic concept
68 Current
Affairs
Which of the following is a
most likely consequence of
implementing the ‘Unified
Payments Interface (UPI)?
(a) Mobile wallets with not
be necessary for online
payments.
(b) Digital currency will
totally replace the physical
currency in about two
A UPI is a payment system that
allows money transfer between
any two bank accounts by using a
smartphone. UPI allows a
customer to pay directly from a
bank account to different
merchants, both online and
offline, without the hassle of
typing credit card details, IFSC
code, or net banking/wallet
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/What-is-
Unified-
Payment-
Interface/artic
le14593189.ec
e
EN Unified
Payment
Interface
officially
become
operational
PT365 Economy

decades.
(c) FDI inflows will drastically
increase.
(d) Direct transfer of
subsidies to poor people will
become very effective.
passwords.
69 Current
Affairs
The terms ‘Event Horizon’,
‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’
and ‘Standard Model’ are
sometimes seen in the news
in the context of
(a) Observation and
understanding of the
Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the
lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the
orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of
living organisms on the earth
A The terms - ‘Event Horizon’ -
boundary in space-time,
‘Singularity’ - location in space-
time where the gravitational field
of a celestial body becomes
infinite, ‘String Theory’ - links
together all physical aspects, and
‘Standard Model’ - unifying the
four fundamental forces, are
related to the observations and
understanding of the Universe.
E F http://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/
how-a-new-
discovery-
shakes-up-
the-standard-
model-of-
particle-
physics/article
18112302.ece
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/
no-big-bang-
the-universe-
was-there-all-
along-
studies/article
6959499.ece
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/c
v-
vishveshwara-
the-black-
hole-man-of-
india/article83
18058.ece
EN All terms have
been in news.

70 Science and
Technology
With reference to agriculture
in India, how can the
technique of ‘genome
sequencing’, often seen in
the news, be used in the
immediate future?
1. Genome sequencing can
be used to identify genetic
markers for disease
resistance and drought
tolerance in various crop
plants.
2. This technique helps in
reducing the time required
to develop new varieties of
crop plants. 3. It can be used
to decipher the host-
pathogen relationships in
crops.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D All the statements are correct.
Genome sequencing is figuring
out the order of DNA nucleotides,
or bases, in a genome—the order
of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up
an organism's DNA.
Genome sequencing of wild
varieties of plants can be used to
identify disease resistance and
drought tolerance genes in
various plants and develop new
varieties of crop plants in lesser
time. Genome sequencing of cop
plants can be helpful in
deciphering and understanding
the host-pathogen realationship
in crops.
D FA https://www.
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/pmc/articl
es/PMC48079
65/
RM Genome
sequencing
has been in
news due to
various
related
projects.
71 Polity and
Governance
The main advantage of the
parliamentary form of
governments is that
(a) the executive and
legislature work
independently.
(b) it provides continuity of
policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains
responsible to the
legislature.
(d) the head of the
government cannot be
changed without election.
C The Parliamentary system is also
known as the ‘Westminster’model
of government, responsible
government and cabinet
government. The Constitution
establishes the parliamentary
system not only at the Centre but
also in the states. The features of
parliamentary government in India
are: (a) Presence of nominal and
real executives; (b) Majority party
rule, (c) Collective responsibility of
the executive to the legislature, (d)
Membership of the ministers in the
legislature, (e) Leadership of the
prime minister or the chief minister,
(f) Dissolution of the lower House
(Lok Sabha or Assembly).
E F Laxmikanth,
Ch- Salient
Features of
the
Constitution -
Laxmikanth
EM to test the
basic clarity
VISION IAS TEST SERIES ( 35
Test Series Module)Test 2104,
2238
the defining features of the
parliamentary form of
Government in India?
1. Watertight separation of
powers between executive,
legislature and judiciary.
2. Executive being responsible
to the legislature.
3. Division of powers between
center and state.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3
only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

72 Polity and
Governance
In the context of India, which
one of the following is the
correct relationship between
Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative
with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and
hence independent of
society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are
important for the
advancement of the
personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are
important for the stability of
the State.
A Rights are what we want others to
do for us whereas the duties are
those acts which we should
perform for others. Thus, a right
comes with an obligation to show
respect for the rights of others.
The obligations that accompany
rights are in the form of duties.
E FA NIOS
"Democracy at
Work"- CH-
Fundamental
Righst and
Fundamental
Duties
EM To test the
basic
underlying
notion behind
a concept
73 Polity and
Governance
The mind of the makers of
the Constitution of India is
reflected in which of the
following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of
State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
A In the Berubari Union case (1960),
the Supreme Court said that the
Preamble shows the general
purposes behind the several
provisions in the Constitution, and
is thus a key to the minds of the
makers of the Constitution.
E FA Laxmikanth
Ch- Preamble
of the
Constitution
EM To test the
basic
underlying
notion behind
a concept
74 Geography If you travel by road from
Kohima to Kottayam, what is
the minimum number of
States within India through
which you can travel,
including the origin and the
destination?
(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
B The shortest route from Kohima
(Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala)
passes through the following
states:
Nagaland-Assam-West Bengal-
Odisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil
Nadu-Kerala
D U Atlas RR Cabinet
approved
North East
Road Network
Connectivity
Project Phase
I.
75 Polity and
Governance
The Parliament of India
exercises control over the
functions of the Council of
Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Questions hour
3. Supplementary questions
D The Parliament exercises control
over the ministers through various
devices like question hour,
discussions, adjournment motion,
no confidence motion, etc.
E F Laxmikanth
Ch-
Parliamentary
System
RM to test the
basic clarity

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
76 Polity and
Governance
Parliament of India, consider
1. A private member’s bill is
a bill presented by a Member
of Parliament who is not
elected but only nominated
by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private
member’s bill has been
passed in the Parliament of
India for the first time in its
history.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D A Private Member's bill is
introduced by any member of
Parliament other than a minister.
Its introduction in the House
requires one month’s notice. Its
drafting is the responsibility of the
member concerned.
The last Private Member's Bill
passed by parliament was the
Supreme Court (Enlargement of
Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction)
Bill, 1968, which became an act on
August 9, 1970. The Rights of
Transgender Persons Bill, 2014,
passed by the Rajya Sabha on
Friday is the first private
member's bill to get the ujpper
house's approval in the past 45
years.
D FCA Laxmikanth's
Ch-
Parliament
http://indianex
press.com/arti
cle/opinion/col
umns/transgen
ders-persons-
bill-rajya-
sabha-private-
member-bill-
3195872/
http://www.th
ehindu.com/ne
ws/national/ta
mil-
nadu/jallikattu-
row-private-
member-bill-
on-bull-in-rs-
but-
withdrawn/arti
cle17517515.e
ce
EM To test the
basic clarity of
polity
knowledge
through the
current affairs
77 Ancient
History
difference between the
culture of Rigvedic Aryans
and Indus Valley people,
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the
coat of mail and helmet in
warfare whereas the people
of Indus Valley Civilization
did not leave any evidence of
using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew
gold, silver and copper
A Statement 1 is correct: Rigvedic
Aryans used the coat of mail and
helmet in warfare whereas the
people of Indus Valley Civilization
did not leave any evidence of
using them.
Various materials were used in
Harappan civilisation to make
beads: stones like carnelian,
jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite;
metals like copper, bronze and
gold; and shell, faience and
terracotta or burnt clay. Some
D F Ancient India:
R.S. Sharma
page 38 THE
WONDER
THAT WAS
INDIA: A L
Basham page :
18
EM To check basic
and factual
knowledge in
Ancient
History.
VisionIAS All India Test Series –
2138
Which of the following metals
have been found in Harappan
cities?
1. Bronze
2. Copper
3. Iron
4. Silver
5. Gold
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only

whereas Indus Valley people
knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had
domesticated the horse
whereas there is no evidence
of Indus Valley people having
aware of this animal.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
beads were made of two or more
stones, cemented together, some
of stone with gold caps.
Evidences of the horse comes
from a superficial level of
Mohenjo daro and from a
terracotta figurine from Lothal.
The remains of the horse have
been reported from Surkotada
belonging to around 2000BC. A
few horse's teeth have been
found in the lowest stratum of the
Baluchistan site of Rana Ghundal,
probably dating from several
centuries earlier than the
foundation of Harappa. This
would indicate that horse-riding
nomads found their way to N.-W.
India in small numbers long
before the Aryan invasion.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
78 Current
Affairs
Recognition of Prior Learning
Scheme’ is sometimes
mentioned in the news with
reference to
(a) Certifying the skills
acquire by construction
workers through traditional
channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in
Universities for distance
learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled
jobs to rural and urban poor
in some public sector
undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills
acquired by trainees under
the National Skill
Development Programme.
A The Recognition of Prior Learning
(RPL) is an assessment of the skills
acquired by the individual through
experience, observation and self-
learning. The assessment, which is
followed by a certification, gives
an edge to an otherwise informal
worker. It provides the employee
with the confidence, social
recognition and empowerment
that are necessary to negotiate his
future employment. Following
successful assessment, a
candidate is given a financial
reward, in addition to
certification.
hehindu.com/
education/car
eers/Massive-
in-scale-and-
innovative-in-
approach/arti
cle17287913.e
ce
EN Recently,
IL&FS Skills
Development
Corporation
Ltd (IL&FS
Skills) a joint
initiative of
IL&FS
Education &
National Skills
Development
Corporation
(NSDC)
launched
Recognition of
Prior Learning
(RPL)
programme in
the Apparel
sector under

Pradhan
Mantri
Kaushal Vikas
Yojana
(PMKVY) 2.0.
79 Geography From the ecological point of
view, which one of the
following assumes
importance in being a good
link between the Eastern
Ghats and the Western
Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger
Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere
Reserve
A Sathyamangalam forest range is a
significant wildlife corridor in the
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between
the Western Ghats and the rest of
the Eastern Ghats Located in the
Erode district of Tamil Nadu, the
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is
the largest wildlife sanctuary in
the state. With a forest area of
1,411.6 square kilometres, the
reserve is a part of the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve and lies
between the Western Ghats and
the rest of the Eastern Ghats.
Situated in a key position between
the Western and Eastern Ghats,
the Sathyamangalam Tiger
Reserve boasts of a wide variety
of fauna.
The reserve also adjoins four
other protected areas --
Billigiriranga Swamy Temple
Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau,
Mudumalai National Park and
Bandipur National Park.
D FCA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
Bear-
population-
up-and-
counting-at-
the-
Sathyamangal
am-Tiger-
Reserve/articl
e13986305.ec
e
http://indiato
day.intoday.in
/story/sathya
mangalam-
tiger-reserve-
home-to-a-
new-breed-of-
bears/1/5684
90.html
RR The
Sathyamangal
am Tiger
Reserve was
in news for
increase in
Bear
population.
Also in
December
2016,
Sathyamangal
am Tiger
Reserve eco-
tourism plan
was revived.
80 Polity and
Governance
One of the implications of
equality in society is the
absence of
(a) Privileges (b) Restraints
(c) Competition (d) Ideology
A The term ‘equality’ means the
absence of special privileges to
any section of the society, and the
provision of adequate
opportunities for all individuals
without any discrimination.
E F Laxmikanth EM to test the
basic clarity
statements in respect of
Trade Related Analysis of
Fauna and Flora in
Commerce (TRAFFIC):
B TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade
monitoring network, is the leading
non-governmental organization
working globally on trade in wild
animals and plants in the context
D FCA http://www.tr
affic.org/traffi
c-programme/
EN Recent issues
of wildlife
poaching and
organisations
related.
All India Test series - Test 2127
statements is/are correct with
regard to TRAFFIC network?
1. It is a non-governmental

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under
United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is
to ensure that trade in wild
plants and animals is not a
threat to the conservation of
nature.
Which of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of both biodiversity conservation
and sustainable development.
TRAFFIC was established in 1976
by IUCN and WWF to respond to
the growing threats posed by
illegal wildlife trade and
overexploitation. It is not a
bureau under UNEP.
organization working in
monitoring global wildlife
trade.
2. It was jointly established by
IUCN and WWF.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
82 Polity and
Governance
Which principle among the
following was added to the
Policy by the 42nd
Amendment to the
Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work
for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers
in the management of
industries
(c) Right to work, education
and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and
human conditions of work to
workers
B The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
added four new Directive
Principles to the original list. They
require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for
healthy development of children
(Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to
provide free legal aid to the poor
(Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the
participation of workers in the
management of industries (Article
43 A).
4. To protect and improve the
environment and to safeguard
forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
M F Laxmikanth
Ch-Directive
Principles of
State Policy
EM to test the
factual and
basic
knowledge
VisionIAS Test Series - Test
Codes -
2104,2203,2238,2358,2364
Directive Principles was/were
added to the Constitution
through amendments?
1. To secure opportunities for
healthy development of
children.
2. Equal pay for equal work for
men and women.
3. To promote equal justice and
to provide free legal aid to the
poor.
the code given below:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
83 Polity and
Governance
(a) Rights are claims of the
State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges
which are incorporated in
the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the
citizens against the State.
C Rights are legal and moral
entitlements or claims of a person
over other fellow beings, over
society and over the government.
M F NCERT Class
9th Ch 6-
'Democratic
Rights'
EM to test the
basic clarity

(d) Rights are privileges of a
few citizens against the
many.
84 Current
Affairs
Which of the following gives
‘Global Gender Gap Index’
ranking to the countries of
the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health
Organization
A Global Gender Gap Index is
released by World Economic
Forum. As per the Global Gender
Gap Report 2016, India ranks at
87th in respect of Global Gender
Gap Index (GGI) among 144
countries of the World. As per the
GGR, India climbed 21 spots to
rank 87th in 2016, which is an
improvement from being ranked
at 108th in 2015.
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15510
3
EN India's
performance
in Global
Gender Gap
Report 2016.
Covered in PT365 Economy and
Social All India test sereis, test
2120, 2122
the key areas of inequality
considered by World Economic
Forum (WEF) to compute the
Global Gender Gap Report?
1. Health
2.Education
3. Economy
4. Politics
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85 Current
Affairs
regarding Smart India
Hackathon 2017?
1. It is a centrally sponsored
scheme for developing every
city of our country into
Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify
new digital technology
innovations for solving the
many problems faced by our
country.
3. It is a programme aimed at
making all the financial
transactions in our country
completely digital in a
decade.
B Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a
36 hrs non-stop digital product
development competition during
which teams of thousands of
technology students built
innovative digital solutions for the
problems posted by 29 different
central govt. ministries/
departments e.g. Ministry of
Railways, External Affairs, Ministry
of Defense, ISRO, Ministry of
Tourism, Dept. of Atomic Energy,
etc.
Smart India Hackathon 2017, has
been launched to build Digital
India and to engage the youth
directly with nation building. For
the first time, govt. departments
were directly engaging with
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15982
5
EN Smart India
Hackathon
2017
November 2016 VisionIAS
Monthly Current
Affairs(Environment)

(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
students and challenging them to
build digital solutions to improve
their efficiency, plug revenue
leakages and corruption.
86 Economics Which of the following
regarding the ‘Monetary
Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI’s
benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body
including the Governor of
RBI and is reconstituted
every year.
3. It functions under the
chairmanship of the Union
Finance Minister.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
A The Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934 (RBI Act) has been amended
by the Finance Act, 2016, to
provide for a statutory and
institutionalised framework for a
Monetary Policy Committee it
would be entrusted with the task
of fixing the benchmark policy
rate (repo rate) required to
contain inflation within the
specified target level. Hence
As per the provisions of the RBI
Act, out of the six Members of
Monetary Policy Committee,
three Members will be from the
RBI and the other three Members
of MPC will be appointed by the
Central Government. Hence
statement 2 is not correct. The
Governor of the Bank— ex officio
Chairperson of MPC. Hence
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15126
4
EN Important
Institutions
which will add
lot of value
and
transparency
to monetary
policy
decisions in
India.
Covered in PT365 Economy &
asked in All India Test Series
tests 2136 and 2017 VisionIAS
Open test 2225 Q.
With reference to Monetary
Policy Committee, consider the
1. It will fix the benchmark
policy interest rates to contain
inflation within the specified
target levels.
2. It will be headed by the
Finance minister.
3. The recommendations of
MPC will be binding on the RBI.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements regarding the
Monetary Policy Committee
(MPC): It is headed by the
Governor of Reserve Bank of
India (RBI). It is entrusted with
the task of fixing the policy
interest rate to contain
inflation within the specified
target level. The Members of
the MPC appointed by the
Central Government shall hold
office for a period of four years.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

87 Art and
Culture
With reference to Manipuri
Sankirtana, consider the
1. It is a song and dance
performance.
2. Cymbals are the only
musical instruments used in
the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate
the life and deeds of Lord
Krishna.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
B Sankirtana encompasses an array
of arts performed to mark
religious occasions and various
stages in the life of the Vaishnava
people of the Manipur plains.
Sankirtana practices centre on the
temple, where performers narrate
the lives and deeds of Krishna
through song and dance. Hence,
statement 1 and 3 are correct.
In a typical performance, two
drummers and about ten singer-
dancers perform in a hall or
domestic courtyard encircled by
seated devotees. Hence,
M F http://ccrtindi
a.gov.in/mani
puri.php
n/newsite/bac
kgrounders.as
px?relid=1024
93
https://ich.un
esco.org/en/R
L/sankirtana-
ritual-singing-
drumming-
and-dancing-
of-manipur-
00843
EM Knowledge
about
UNESCO world
Heritage sites
in India.
88 Modern
History
was/were associated with
the introduction of Ryotwari
Settlement in India during
the British Rule?
1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C In the British territories in the
south there was a similar move
away from the idea of Permanent
Settlement. The new system that
was devised came to be known as
the ryotwar (or ryotwari ). It was
tried on a small scale by Captain
Alexander Reed in some of the
areas that were taken over by the
Company after the wars with Tipu
Sultan. Subsequently developed
by Thomas Munro, this system
was gradually extended all over
south India. Lord Cornwallis was
asscoiated with Zamindari/
Permanent Settlement
M F NCERT Class 8
- Our Pasts -
Ch3 - Ruling
The Country
Side PAGE
NUMBER-29
EM To check the
factual
knowledge.
All India test series, test 2121
With regard to Warren
Hastings, consider the following
statements:
1. He facilitated the
establishment of Ryotwari
System in Madras.
2. He believed in the policy of
Orientalism as a means of
governance of the natives.
3. The defeat of British in the
Second Anglo-Mysore War was
a reason for his impeachment
in England.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
89 Environment In the context of solving
pollution problems, what
is/are the
advantage/advantages of
bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for
cleaning up pollution by
C Statement 1 is correct.
Bioremediation is treatment that
uses naturally occurring
organisms to break down
hazardous substances into less
toxic or non-toxic substances. It
uses microorganisms to degrade
D FA Vision IAS
environment
material.
EM Bioremediatio
n is constantly
in news due to
recent
incidents of oil
spill and
pollution.
All India Test series 2126, 2354
With reference to
Bioremediation, consider the
1. No toxic chemicals are used
in this process.
2. It is limited to those

enhancing the same
biodegradation process that
occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with
heavy metals such as
cadmium and lead can be
readily and completely
treated by bioremediation
using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can
be used to create
microorganisms specifically
designed for bioremediation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
organic contaminants in soil,
groundwater, sludge, and solids.
The microorganisms break down
contaminants by using them as an
energy source or cometabolizing
them with an energy source.
Statement 2 is not correct. Not all
contaminants are easily treated
by bioremediation using
microorganisms. For example,
heavy metals such as cadmium
and lead are not readily absorbed
or captured by microorganisms.
Statement 3 is correct. Genetic
engineering has been used to
create organisms designed for
specific purposes. For e.g.
bacterium Deinococcus
radiodurans (the most
radioresistant organism known)
has been modified to consume
and digest toluene and ionic
mercury from highly radioactive
nuclear waste.
compounds which are
biodegradable.
3. It requires anaerobic
conditions to be effective.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
90 Modern
History
The Trade Disputes Act of
1929 provided for
(a) the participation of
workers in the management
of industries.
(b) arbitrary powers to the
management to quell
industrial disputes.
(c) an intervention by the
British Court in the event of a
trade dispute.
(d) a system of tribunals and
a ban on strikes.
D Trade Disputes Act (TDA), 1929
made compulsory the
appointment of Courts of Inquiry
and Consultation Boards for
settling industrial disputes;
• made illegal the strikes in public
utility services like posts, railways,
water and electricity, unless each
individual worker planning to go
on strike gave an advance notice
of one month to the
administration;
• forbade trade union activity of
coercive or purely political nature
and even sympathetic strikes.
D F India's
struggle for
independence
, Bipin
chandra and
Spectrum
page no.346
EM To check the
basic and
factual
knowledge.

91 Polity and
Governance
Local self-government can be
best explained as an exercise
in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic
decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
B In January 1957, the Government
of India appointed a committee to
examine the working of the
Community Development
Programme (1952) and the
National Extension Service (1953)
and to suggest measures for their
better working. The chairman of
this committee was Balwant Rai G
Mehta. The committee submitted
its report in November 1957 and
recommended the establishment
of the scheme of ‘democratic
decentralisation’, which
ultimately came to be known as
Panchayati Raj.
E F Laxmikanth
Ch-Panchayati
Raj
RM to check basic
polity
underlying
principle
VisionIAS Test Series Test
Series-2105,2203
statements regarding the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment act:
1. It added a new part and a
new schedule to the
Constitution of India.
2. It promoted the process of
democratic decentralisation.
3. It has brought panchayati raj
institutions under the
justiciable part of Constitution.
Which of the above statements
are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
92 Polity and
Governance
statements: With reference
to the Constitution of India,
the Directive Principles of
State Policy constitute
limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D Directive Principles of state policy
cannot act as
constraints/limitations on the
government because they are not
enforceable and they are
fundamental to the governance of
a country. Fundamental Rights
operate as limitations on the
tyranny of the executive and
arbitrary laws of the legislature.
M F Laxmikanth
Ch-Directive
Principles of
State Policy
EM To check basic
polity
knowledge
93 Current
Affairs
The term ‘Digital Single
Market Strategy’ seen in the
news refers to
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) EU
(d) G20
C The Digital Single Market strategy
was adopted by European Union
on the 6 May 2015 and includes
16 specific initiatives which aims
to open up digital opportunities
for people and business and
enhance Europe's position as a
world leader in the digital
economy.
D CA http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/business/
economy/eu-
model-well-
suited-for-
indias-
structure-2/
https://ec.eur
opa.eu/digital-
single-
RR In May 2017,
EU published
the mid-term
review of the
Digital Single
Market
Strategy.

market/en/pol
icies/shaping-
digital-single-
market
94 Geography At one of the place in India, if
you stand on the seashore
and watch the sea, ‘you will
find that the sea water
recedes from the shore line a
few kilometres and comes
back to the shore, twice a
day, and you can actually
walk on the sea floor when
the water recedes. This
unique phenomenon is seen
at (a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
C Chandipur is located in Balasore
district. This beach is unique in
the whole world no where on
earth you can find a beach where
the sea water retreats inside the
sea from 1km to 5Km every day
and it again comes back to the
shore slowly during high tide. This
happens twice every day. It is also
known as Odisha's Hide and Seek
Beach. Bhavnagar has highest
tidal range in India.
D U http://indiato
day.intoday.in
/story/odisha-
orissa-
chandipur-
beach-hide-
and-seek-
beach-travel-
india-tourism-
lifetr/1/78164
1.html
http://odishat
ourism.gov.in/
?q=node/97
RR It is a
phenomenon
unique only to
Chandipur
beach, India.
Chandipur-on-
sea is also the
location of the
Indian Army's
Integrated
Test Range
and is often
seen in news.
95 Current
Affairs
‘Prohibition of Benami
Property Transaction Act,
1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider
1. A property transaction is
not treated as a benami
transaction if the owner of
the property is not aware of
the transaction.
2. Properties held benami
are liable for confiscation by
the Government.
3. The Act provides for three
authorities for investigations
but does not provide for any
appellate mechanism.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
B Salient features of Prohibition of
Benami Property Transaction Act,
1988 (PBPT Act)-
- The PBPT Act defines benami
transactions, prohibits them and
further provides that violation of
the PBPT Act is punishable with
imprisonment and fine. The PBPT
Act prohibits recovery of the
property held benami from
benamidar by the real owner.
- The definition of a benami
transaction has been widened to
include a transaction made in a
fictitious name; where the owner
is not aware or denies knowledge
of the ownership of the property
or the person providing the
consideration for the property is
not traceable.
- Properties held benami are liable
for confiscation by the
D CA http://www.b
usiness-
standard.com/
article/econo
my-policy/ls-
okays-
changes-to-
benami-
property-law-
11607270153
3_1.html
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15308
5
EN Benami
Property
Transactions
Act, 1988 was
amended and
renamed as
renamed as
Prohibition of
Benami
Property
Transactions
Act, 1988
(PBPT Act).
PT365 Economy

Government without payment of
compensation.
- An appellate mechanism has
been provided under the PBPT Act
in the form of Adjudicating
Authority and Appellate Tribunal.
96 Environment Due to some reasons, if
there is a huge fall in the
population of species of
butterflies, what could be its
likely
consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants
could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic
increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated
plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the
population of some species
of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct using the
code given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Butterflies are pollinating insects.
They help in pollination of many
flowering plants.
Butterflies also act as a lower
member of the food chain. A
number of animals, including birds
and mice feed on butterfly. As
populations of butterfly diminish,
so will populations of birds and
other animals that rely on them as
a food source. This loss of the
butterfly is the beginning of the
“butterfly effect.”
D FA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/cities/Ti
ruchirapalli/w
hen-
butterflies-
take-a-
hit/article792
8831.ece
RR To check the
basic concepts
and its
applicability.
97 Environment It is possible to produce
algae based biofuels, but
what is/are the likely
limitation(s) of developing
countries in promoting this
industry?
1. Production of algae based
biofuels is possible in seas
only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering
the algae based biofuels
production requires high
level of expertise/
technology until the
construction is complete.
B Statement 1 is incorrect.
Production of algal biofuel is
possible both in seas and on
continents. They can grow on
marginal or non-crop land and
also on brackish or polluted
water. Land based systems are
more developed then sea based
systems.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Developing and engineering ABB
technology requires a high level of
expertise until construction is
finished.
Innovation for higher productivity
D FCA http://www.fa
o.org/3/a-
ak333e.pdf
hehindubusin
essline.com/e
conomy/agri-
business/india
-can-be-a-
world-leader-
in-algal-
farming-says-
us-
expert/article
9449569.ece
RR In news

3. Economically viable
production necessitates the
setting up of large scale
facilities which may raise
ecological and social
concerns.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
also requires some knowledge
and/or experience. All Algal based
biofuel concepts require
significant capital investment.
Access to this technology by the
poor may be difficult. Large-scale
facilities are more economically
viable, but are also more likely to
have higher social and ecological
impacts.
98 Current
Affairs
the objectives of ‘National
Nutrition Mission’?
1. To create awareness
relating to malnutrition
among pregnant women and
lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of
anaemia among young
children, adolescent girls and
women.
3. To promote the
consumption of millets,
coarse cereals and
unpolished rice.
4. To promote the
consumption of poultry eggs.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
A There are two components of the
National Nutrition Mission as
follows:
1. Information, Education and
Communication (IEC) Campaign
against malnutrition
2. Multi-sectoral Nutrition
Programme
The key objectives of these
programmes are as under:
- To create awareness relating to
malnutrition amongst pregnant
women, lactating mothers,
promote healthy lactating
practices and importance of
balanced nutrition;
- To improve maternal and child
under-nutrition in 200 high
burdened districts and to prevent
and reduce the under-nutrition
prevalent among children below 3
years;
- To reduce incidence of anaemia
among young children, adolescent
girls and women.
D CA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=10319
2
india.indiatim
es.com/india/
Nutrition-
Mission-gets-
new-
boost/articles
how/5124807
8.cms
EM The Union
Budget 2016
increased
allocations for
the National
Nutrition
Mission and
establishment
of new labs
for testing
food given
under the
scheme.
Global
Nutrition
Report
99 Modern
History
statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881
was passed with a view to fix
the wages of industrial
B To improve the lot of the factory
workers in towns, he passed the
first Factory Act in 1881. The Act
prohibited the employment of
children under the age of seven,
D F India's
struggle for
independence
, Bipin
chandra,
EM To check the
basic
knowledge.

workers and to allow the
workers to form trade
unions.
2. N. M. Lokhande was a
pioneer in organizing the
labour movement in British
India.
Which of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
limited the number of working
hours for children below the age
of twelve and required that
dangerous machinery should be
fenced properly.
The Act also made provision for
one hour rest during the working
period and four days leave in a
month for the workers. Inspectors
were appointed to supervise the
implementation of these
measures. Hence there is no
provision for fixed wage and
formation of trade unions.
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was a
pioneer of the labour movement
in India. He is remembered not
only for ameliorating the working
conditions of textile mill-hands in
the 19th century but also for his
courageous initiatives on caste
and communal issues.
Chapter - the
Indian
working class
and the
national
movment
100 Environment In the context of mitigating
the impending global
warming due to
anthropogenic emissions of
carbon dioxide, which of the
following can be potential
sites for carbon
sequestration?
1. Abandoned and
uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas
reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline
formations
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
D Carbon sequestration is the
process involved in carbon
capture and the long-term storage
of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Geological sequestration involves
the storage of CO2 underground
in depleted oil and gas reservoirs,
saline formations or deep, un-
minable coal beds.
M FCA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
Carving-out-a-
model-for-
enhancing-
CO2-
sinks/article14
001561.ece
RR Carbon
sequestration
and its
methods are
often seen in
news. UPSC
has gone one
step further to
ask potential
sites for
geological
carbon
sequestration.
All India Test Series Tests 2138,
2132
Oceans are considered to be a
big reservoir of carbon sink. In
this context, which of the
following may provide for the
mechanism of ocean
sequestration?
1. Introduction of iron into
oceans
2. Introduction of urea into
oceans
3. Direct injection of carbon
dioxide in the ocean
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

TOPIC
Topic Number of Questions
Modern History 7
Medieval History 1
Ancient History 1
Art and Culture 5
Science and
Technology 4
Economics 6
Geography 8
Polity and
Governance 22
Environment 13
Current Affairs 33
Grand Total 100

DIFFICULTY
Difficulty Number of Questions
E - Easy 27
M - Medium 37
D - Difficult 36

NATURE
Nature Number of Questions
CA – Current Affair 15
CAA – Current Affair
Applied 20
F – Fundamental 31
FA – Fundamental
Applied 15
FCA – Fundamental and
Current Affair 10
U - Unconventional 9

SOURCE TYPE
Source Type Number of Questions
EM – Essential Material 37
RM – Reference Material 7
EN – Essential News 37
RR – Random Read 19
Grand Total 100

Easy Medium Difficult Total
Economics 2 4 0 6
Ancient History 0 0 1 1
Modern History 1 3 3 7
Medieval History 0 0 1 1
Geography 0 3 5 8
Polity and Governance 10 8 4 22
Environment 3 4 6 13
Art and Culture 1 1 3 5
Current Affairs 10 13 10 33
Total 27 37 36 100

ANALYSIS / APPROACH / SOURCE / STRATEGY:GENERAL STUDIES PRE 2018 PAPER
- TEAM VISION IAS
• The Paper portrayed a departure from the trend of CSAT era and appears to be on the tougher side.
• While it is a well-known fact that UPSC has shifted its focus to current affairs, yet this year, the questions were asked in an unconventional manner.
• It has been observed that some of the questions like those of Post Independence history (chronological sequence of events) have been inspired directly by the
articles in THE HINDU ( India @70 Midnight to millennium) or Culture (Buland Darwaza and Rumi Darwaza - covered in the ‘The Hindu’ article)
• Questions ranged from both conventional sources like those in economics e.g. CAR, Legal Tender Money to unconventional sources like those in History e.g.
Swarajya Sabha, Hind Mazdoor Sabha, etc
• It is observed that UPSC has raised the bar and it is now expected of aspirants to even read the fine print. Questions like that on GST, Application Programming
Interfaces, Digital India Programme require thorough reading and understanding of on-going projects of the Government.
• Environment questions largely focused on International climate initiatives and bodies. This year there was no focus on animal biodiversity and protected areas
unlike previous years.
• Polity section saw a mix of conceptual as well as factual understanding of basic concepts like in questions on Money Bill, Presidential election, Rule of law etc.
• Map reading and Atlas continue to play an important role in one's preparation in Geography section. However, locations which have been asked were directly
linked with current news (Allepo, etc) And there was less focus on conventional geography.
• S&T questions were more on technological aspect than on basic science such as biology. Direct relation with news was seen like Wanna Cry, IRNSS, etc. Thus, it saw
a mix of both fundamental and current affairs based question.
• The Current Affairs and schemes questions required deeper insights and understanding and was not restricted to only one year news.
• Admittedly, it was also realized that a few questions in this paper were very difficult and unconventional. Eliminating options were difficult this year.
VISIONIAS™... Inspiring Innovation
www.visionias.in

Recommendations
• Read Basic/standard books, follow one Good News Paper religiously and use the internet as extensively as possible.
• Have keen perception about things going around you and assume less and less. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet. Try to refer to the
official websites as much as possible.
• Read one good book on each traditional subject this will help in prelims, mains and interview i.e. all stages of examination. This will also help in making some
unapproachable question approachable.
• An appropriate strategy should be to avoid negative marking in tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
Nature of Question
F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly
recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it indicates that you had one
more reason to prepare this.
FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which requires information +
application of mind.
CA: Current Affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source
alone.
CAA: Current Affair Applied question needs information from more than one source to answer
AND/OR application of mind (common sense and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is
why source for these questions may not be answering the question completely.
FCA: Fundamental + Current affair. This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs
or a current affairs question that needs background information for complete answer. Source
to these questions might not answer the questions in entirety.
U (Unconventional Question): Unconventional Question means the question that is distantly
related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even reference sources(in addition
to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

QN Section Question
A
n
s
w
e
r
Explanation
L
e
v
e
l
Nat
ure
Source
Source
Type
Motivation
Vision IAS
(All India Test Series/
Current Affairs
Magazine/PT 365)
1 Polity Consider the following
statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the
single largest party in the
opposition was the
SwatantraParty
2. In the Lok Sabha, a
"Leader of the Opposition"
was recognised for the first
time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party
does not have a minimum of
75 members, its leader
cannot be recognised as the
Leader of the Opposition.
(a) 1 and 3 only(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3
Congress party won 364 of the
489 seats in the first Lok Sabha
and finished way ahead of any
other challenger. The Communist
Party of India that came next in
terms of seats won only 16 seats.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1969,
an official leader of opposition
was recognised for the first time.
However, it was given statutory
recognition in 1977.
Statement 3 is not correct: The
leader of the largest Opposition
party having not less than one-
tenth seats of the total strength of
the House is recognised as the
leader of Opposition in that
House.
M F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Parliament
NCERT 12th -
Politics in
India since
independence
Chapter-2
EM
2 Environment Which of the following leaf
modifications occur(s) in the
desert areas to inhibit water
loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D These are plants growing in
extreme dry conditions
throughout the year. For
example, plants growing in
deserts (psammophytes), on rock
(lithophytes) or alpine plants
growing above 14000 feet
altitude.
Xerophytes Adaptations
1. Conservation of Water
Modifications
a. Leaves few or absent or
represented by spines only
b. Petiole modified into leaf like
structure
M FA http://ncert.ni
c.in/ncerts/l/l
elm212.pdf
Class 6 ncert
chapter 9-
Page 83 and
84
http://ncert.ni
c.in/ncerts/l/f
esc109.pdf
EM Previous year
question

c. Stem reduced, branching sparse
d. In some cases stem flattened,
leaf like, green, photosynthetic in
nature Thick, fleshy and succulent
leaves as well as stem
2. Storage of Water
Modifications
Thick, fleshy and succulent leaves
as well as stem
3. Prevention of loss of water by
transpiration
Modifications
a. Intercellular spaces reduced
b. Spongy parenchyma/ palisade
parenchyma present
c. Stomata on lower surface,
sunken in stomatal pits
d. Leaves needle like
e. Thick cuticle on leaf surface
4. Prevention of excessive heat
Modifications
a. Leaves covered with dense
hairs;
b. Leaf surfaces shiny or glaborous
c. Leaf blade remains rolled during
the day
5. Efficient mechanism of water
absorption
Modifications
a. Long and profusely branched
roots
b. Dense root hairs
c. Well developed xylem
3 Current
Affairs/Gener
al awareness
As per the NSSO 70th Round
"Situation Assessment
Survey of Agricultural
Households", consider the
1. Rajasthan has the highest
percentage share of
C Statement 1 is correct: Among
the major States, Rajasthan had
highest percentage of agricultural
households (78.4 percent) among
its rural households followed by
Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and
Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent).
D CAA http://mospi.
nic.in/sites/de
fault/files/pub
lication_repor
ts/KI_70_33_1
9dec14.pdf
EN This NSSO Round was
recently seen in news
wrt to doubling of
farmers's income.

agricultural households
among its rural households.
2. Out of the total
agricultural households in
the country, a little over 60
percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60
percent of agricultural
households reported to have
received maximum income
from source other than
agricultural activities.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Kerala had the least percentage
share of agricultural households
(27.3 percent) in its rural
households preceded by other
southern States like Tamil Nadu
(34.7 percent) and Andhra
Pradesh (41.5 percent).
Statement 2 is not correct: During
the reference period of July 2012-
June 2013, about 45 percent out
of the total agricultural
households in the country
belonged to Other Backward
Classes (OBC). About 16 percent
of agricultural households were
from Scheduled Castes (SC) and
13 percent were from Scheduled
Tribes (ST).
Agricultural activity (cultivation,
livestock and other agricultural
activities) was reported to be the
principal source of income for
majority of the households in all
the major States, except Kerala
where about 61 percent of the
agricultural households reported
to have earned maximum income
from sources other than
agricultural activities.
4 Environment How is the National Green
Tribunal (NGT) different from
the Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been
established by an Act
whereas the CPCB has been
created by an executive
order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides
B The National Green Tribunal
(NGT) is a statutory body that
was established in 2010 by the
National Green Tribunal Act. It
was set up to handle cases and
speed up the cases related to
environmental issues. The
Tribunal shall not be bound by the
procedure laid down under the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but
M FCA https://www.
hindustantime
s.com/india-
news/govt-
tweaks-rules-
reduces-
judiciary-
control-on-
india-s-
environment-
RR The Union
government modified
the process of
appointments to the
National Green
Tribunal, The new
rules do away with a
condition that the
NGT can only be
headed by a former
All India Test Series -
Test (2447)-
statements regarding
National Green Tribunal:
1. It has been
established under
Biodiversity Act, 2002.
2. It deals with
enforcement of any

environmental justice and
helps reduce the burden of
litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes
cleanliness of streams and
wells, and aims to improve
the quality of air in the
country.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
shall be guided by principles of
natural justice.
The Tribunal's dedicated
jurisdiction in environmental
matters shall provide speedy
environmental justice and help
reduce the burden of litigation in
the higher courts. The Tribunal is
mandated to make and
endeavour for disposal of
applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of filing of the
same. Initially, the NGT is
proposed to be set up at five
places of sittings and will follow
circuit procedure for making itself
more accessible. New Delhi is the
Principal Place of Sitting of the
Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune,
Kolkata and Chennai shall be the
other 4 place of sitting of the
Tribunal.
The Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB), statutory
organisation, was constituted in
September, 1974 under the
Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974. Further,
CPCB was entrusted with the
powers and functions under the
Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981.
It serves as a field formation and
also provides technical services to
the Ministry of Environment and
Forests of the provisions of the
Environment (Protection) Act,
1986. Principal Functions of the
CPCB, as spelt out in the Water
(Prevention and Control of
watchdog/stor
y-
0QSiMC0j01IH
XMvr8U6hjJ.h
tml
http://www.d
owntoearth.or
g.in/news/sup
reme-court-
stays-centre-s-
amendment-
to-ngt-
appointment-
rules-59672
http://envfor.
nic.in/rules-
regulations/na
tional-green-
tribunal-ngt
https://timeso
findia.indiatim
es.com/topic/
national-
green-tribunal
http://cpcb.ni
c.in/Introducti
on/
Supreme Court judge
or the chief justice of
a high court, and
takes away the
judiciary’s control on
the process to
appoint the tribunal’s
members.
constitutional
experts say such a
move chips away at
the independence of
these institutions and
weaken the country’s
environmental
watchdog.
In an order issued on
February 9, 2018, the
Supreme Court has
stayed the Central
Tribunal, Appellate
Tribunal and other
Authorities
(Qualifications,
Experience and other
Conditions of Service
of Members) Rules,
2017 (i.e., the
Tribunal Rules) which
gives the central
government
complete control
over appointment of
tribunal members,
including the
National Green
Tribunal (NGT).
Henceforth, the
terms and conditions
for appointment and
legal right related to
environment and giving
relief and compensation.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither
1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement
1 is not correct: The
National Green Tribunal
has been established on
18.10.2010 under the
National Green Tribunal
Act 2010.
Statement 2 is correct: It
has been set up for
effective and
expeditious disposal of
cases relating to
environmental
protection and
conservation of forests
and other natural
resources including
enforcement of any
legal right relating to
environment and giving
relief and compensation
for damages to persons
and property and for
matters connected
therewith or incidental
thereto.
2447- With reference to
Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB), consider
the following
statements:

Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air
(Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to
promote cleanliness of streams
and wells in different areas of the
States by prevention, control and
abatement of water pollution,
and (ii) to improve the quality of
air and to prevent, control or
abate air pollution in the country.
termination of NGT
members will be
governed by the
National Green
Tribunal Act 2010.
(2) The National
Green Tribunal
slammed the Central
Pollution Control
Board (CPCB) over
inspection of paper
units in Uttar
Pradesh, saying its
conduct made it
difficult to trust the
pollution monitoring
body.
https://www.financia
lexpress.com/india-
news/your-conduct-
makes-it-hard-for-us-
to-trust-you-ngt-
raps-cpcb/960353/
November 2017
1. It was constituted
under the Water
(Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1974.
2. It is executing the
National Air Quality
Monitoring Programme.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither
1 nor 2
Also covered in PT 365
Environment p.g 21
Polity PT 365 pg- 41
statements:
1. The Parliament of India
can place a particular law in
the Ninth Schedule of the
2. The validity of a law
placed in the Ninth Schedule
cannot be examined by any
court and no judgement can
be made on it.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
A The Ninth Schedule was added to
the Constitution by the first
amendment in 1951 along with
Article 31-B with a view to provide
a “protective umbrella” to land
reforms laws to save them from
being challenged in courts on the
ground of violation of
fundamental rights. The SC upheld
the validity of Article 31-B and
Parliament’s power to place a
particular law in the Ninth
Schedule. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
The Supreme Court has said that
laws placed in the Ninth Schedule
M FCA Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Fundamental
Rights
EM http://www.thehind
u.com/news/national
/govt-mulls-putting-
scst-act-in-schedule-
ix-of-
constitution/article2
3872979.ece
Test (2456)-
Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India,
statements:
It was added by the first
Amendment to the
Any law included in this
schedule is not open to
judicial review.
given above is/are
correct?

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are open to judicial scrutiny and
that such laws do not enjoy a
blanket protection. Laws placed in
the Ninth Schedule after the
Keshwanand Bharti Judgment on
April 24, 1973, when it
propounded the “basic structure”
doctrine, were open to challenge.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6 Current
Affairs
best describes the term
"Merchant Discount Rate"
sometimes seen in news?
(a) The incentive given by a
bank to a merchant for
accepting payments through
debit cards pertaining to that
bank.
(b) The amount paid back by
banks to their customers
when they use debit cards
for financial transactions for
purchaing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant
by a bank for accepting
payments from his
customers through the
bank's debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by
the Government to
merchants for promoting
digital payments by their
customers through Point of
Sale (PoS) machines and
debit cards.
C Merchant Discount Rate is a fee
charged from a merchant by a
bank for accepting payments from
customers through credit and
debit cards in their
establishments. It compensates
the card issuing bank, the lender
which puts the PoS terminal and
payment gateways such as
Mastercard or Visa for their
services. MDR charges are usually
shared in pre-agreed proportion
between the bank and a merchant
and is expressed in percentage of
transaction amount.
hehindu.com/
business/Econ
omy/rbi-
reduces-
merchant-
discount-
rates-for-
debit-
cards/article2
1284463.ece
https://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/we
alth/spend/w
hat-is-
merchant-
discount-
rate/articlesh
ow/62390733.
cms
EN Recently RBI reduced
the merchant
discount rate for
debit cards.
PT- 365 Economy p.g. 13
Test 2453
The term 'Merchant
Discount Rate', often
seen in the news, refers
to:
(a) a discount given to a
customer for using
credit card at the point
of sale (PoS) terminal.
(b) a fee charged by
banks to pay for costs of
maintaining the
merchant's account.
(c) rate of interest which
a bank charges on its
loans and advances to
merchants.
(d) a fee charged from a
merchant by a bank for
accepting payments
from customers through
credit and debit cards.
Also covered in PT 365
Economy, Page 13.
7 Current
Affairs/Gener
al awareness
What is/are the
consequence/consequences
of a country becoming the
member of the 'Nuclear
Suppliers Group'?
A Membership of the NSG means:
1. Access to technology for a
range of uses from medicine to
building nuclear power plants for
India from the NSG which is
M CAA http://www.n
uclearsupplier
sgroup.org/en
/participants1
EN Frequently seen in
news
PT 365, International
Relations page no. 24

1. It will have access to the
latest and most efficient
nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a
member of "The Treaty on
the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
essentially a traders’ cartel. India
has its own indigenously
developed technology but to get
its hands on state of the art
technology that countries within
the NSG possess, it has to become
part of the group. Hence
2. With India committed to
reducing dependence on fossil
fuels and ensuring that 40% of its
energy is sourced from renewable
and clean sources, there is a
pressing need to scale up nuclear
power production. This can only
happen if India gains access to the
NSG. Even if India today can buy
power plants from the global
market thanks to the one time
NSG waiver in 2008, there are still
many types of technologies India
can be denied as it is outside the
NSG.
3. India could sign the Nuclear
non proliferation treaty and gain
access to all this know how but
that would mean giving up its
entire nuclear arsenal. Given that
it is situated in an unstable and
unpredictable neighbourhood
India is unlikely to sign the NPT or
accede to the Comprehensive Test
Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs
on any further nuclear tests.
4. With access to latest
technology, India can
commercialize the production of
nuclear power equipment. This, in
turn will boost innovation and
high tech manufacturing in India
business-
standard.com/
article/current
-affairs/india-
s-
membership-
to-nsg-to-
benefit-global-
export-
control-
system-
germany-
11804160054
6_1.html

and can be leveraged for
economic and strategic benefits.
Adherence to one or more of the
NPT, the Treaties of Pelindaba,
Rarotonga, Tlatelolco, Bangkok ,
Semipalatinsk or an equivalent
international nuclear non-
proliferation agreement, and full
compliance with the obligations of
such agreement(s); Hence, it does
not automatically become a
member of NPT.
Support of international efforts
towards non-proliferation of
weapons of mass destruction and
of their delivery vehicles.

8 Current
Affairs
With reference to India's
decision to levy an
equalization tax of 6% on
online advertisement
services offered by non-
resident entities, which of
is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of
the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that
offer advertisement services
in India can claim a tax credit
in their home country under
the "Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreements".
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D Statements 1 and 2 are not
correct: Equalisation Levy was
introduced in India in 2016, with
the intention of taxing the digital
transactions i.e. the income
accruing to foreign e-commerce
companies from India. It is aimed
at taxing business to business
transactions.
As the levy was not introduced as
part of the Income Tax Act but as
a separate legislation under the
Finance Bill, global firms that offer
such services in India cannot claim
a tax credit in their home country
under the double taxation
avoidance agreements
D CA https://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/tec
h/internet/go
ogle-and-
other-digital-
service-
providers-
generate-
over-rs-560-
cr-in-
equalisation-
levy/articlesho
w/63933584.c
ms
https://www.f
inancialexpres
s.com/opinion
/equalisation-
levy-not-so-
equal/257045
/
EN Has been in news
since it was
introduced in 2016.
Also it was recently
reported that the
Centre’s revenue
from equalisation
levy in 2017-18 was
over Rs 700 crore,
much higher than the
Rs 315 crore it
garnered from the
tax in the previous
10-month period
9 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility
and Budget Management
(FRBM) Review Committee
Report has recommended a
debt to GDP ratio of 60% for
the general (combined)
government by 2023,
comprising 40% for the
Central Government and
20% for the State
Governments.
2. The Central Government
has domestic liabilities of
21% of GDP as compared to
that of 49% of GDP of the
State Governments.
C 1. The FRBM Review Committee
(Chairperson: Mr. N.K. Singh)
submitted its report in January
2017. The Report was made public
in April 2017. The Committee
suggested using debt as the
primary target for fiscal policy. A
debt to GDP ratio of 60% should
be targeted with a 40% limit for
the centre and 20% limit for the
states. The targeted debt to GDP
ratio should be achieved by 2023.
2. The Central Government has
domestic liabilities of 46.1% of
GDP (2016-17) and as a per cent
of GDP, States’ liabilities increased
to 23.2 per cent at end-March
D CA http://www.p
rsindia.org/ad
ministrator/up
loads/general/
1493207354_
FRBM%20Revi
ew%20Commi
ttee%20Repor
t%20Summary
.pdf
https://dea.go
v.in/sites/defa
ult/files/Statu
s%20Paper%2
0final%2028.3
.18.pdf
EN Government has
decided to no longer
target revenue deficit
which brought he NK
Singh Panel
recommendations in
to focus.
https://www.thehind
ubusinessline.com/ec
onomy/revenue-
deficit-no-longer-a-
target-of-the-
govt/article22650963
.ece

3. As per the Constitution of
India, it is mandatory for a
State to take the Central
Government's consent for
raising any loan if the former
owes any outstanding
liabilities to the latter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2016. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
3. The Constitution of India
empowers State Governments to
borrow only from domestic
sources (Article 293(1)). Further,
as long as a State has outstanding
borrowings from the Central
Government, it is required to
obtain Central Government's prior
approval before incurring debt
(Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement
3 is correct.
10 Economy Consider the following
statements:
1. The quantity of imported
edible oils is more than the
domestic production of
edible oils in the last five
years.
2. The Government does not
impose any customs duty on
all the imported edible oils as
a special case.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A Statement 1 is correct. India
occupies a prominent position in
the world oilseeds industry with
contribution of around 10% in
worldwide production. But the
demand of edible oils (extracted
from oilseeds in addition to palm
oil) is significantly higher than the
domestic production, leading to
dependence on imports (60% of
requirement).
Government imposes customs
duty on edible oils to safeguard
the interests of domestic oil
crushing industry. The duty on
two major edible oils, namely
crude sunflower seed oil and
crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is
25 per cent, while crude soyabean
oil attracts 30 per cent duty.
M CA https://econo
mictimes.indiat
imes.com/new
s/economy/agr
iculture/india-
still-highly-
dependent-on-
edible-oil-
imports-
icra/articlesho
w/60360710.c
ms
https://www.fi
rstpost.com/bu
siness/econom
y/ccea-
approves-hike-
in-import-duty-
on-refined-oil-
to-10-
1332071.html
http://agricoop
.gov.in/sites/d
efault/files/Edi
ble%20oil%20P
rofile%2026-
04-2018.pdf
EN ICAR Report and
Import duty on
edible oils is seen in
news frequently

11 Modern
History
He wrote biographies of
Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji
and Shrikrishna; stayed in
America for some time; and
was also elected to the
Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
C Lala Lajpat Rai was gifted with a
perceptive mind, he was a prolific
writer and authored several works
like – “Unhappy India”, “Young
India: An Interpretation”, “History
of Arya Samaj”, “England’s Debt
to India” and a series of popular
biographies His biographies of
Mazzini, Garibaldi and. Shivaji
were published in 1896 and those
of Dayanand and. Shri Krishna in
1898. His purpose in selecting
Mazzini and Garibladi was to
infuse patriotic sentiment in the
youth of Punjab, who had no
access to books in English. He
wanted his countrymen to
become acquainted with the
teachings of Italian leaders who
had so impressed his own mind.
He had seen the points of
similarity between the problems
of India and those the Italian
leaders had to face.
Lala Lajpat Rai travelled to the US
in 1907. He toured Sikh
communities along the West
Coast in the USA and noted
sociological similarities between
the notion of 'color-caste' there
and within castes in India.
He joined Swaraj Party in 1926
and was elected its Deputy Leader
in the Central Legislative
Assembly. He later resigned from
the Swaraj Party in August 1926.
M CA https://books.
google.co.in/b
ooks?id=pls8Y
eINi1sC&pg=P
R14&lpg=PR1
4&dq=biograp
hies+of+Mazzi
ni,+Garibaldi,+
Shivaji+and+S
hrikrishn&sou
rce=bl&ots=tO
EjHVAhta&sig
=sSMGpAl2IW
nGHSAJkOqHk
iyXcW8&hl=en
&sa=X&ved=0
ahUKEwijkI3l8
bfbAhXVfCsKH
b7-
DTMQ6AEIQz
AI#v=onepage
&q=biographi
es%20of%20
Mazzini%2C%
20Garibaldi%2
C%20Shivaji%
20and%20Shri
krishn&f=false
RR
12 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used
as a proof of citizenship or
D Statement 1 is not correct: The
Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of
Financial and Other Subsidies,
Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016
hehindu.com/
news/national
/aadhaar-bill-
EN Has frequently been
in news.
Test (2438)-

domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar
number cannot be
deactivated or omitted by
the Issuing Authority.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
says that the number can’t be
used as proof of citizenship or
domicile.
Aadhaar Act regulations, state
that an individual’s Aadhaar
number may be “omitted”
permanently or deactivated
temporarily by the Unique
Identification Authority of India,
the agency responsible for issuing
the numbers and managing the
database. The regulations give the
Authority the power to deactivate
Aadhaar numbers even in the
absence of an effective grievance
redressal procedure for those
whose numbers have been
suspended.
introduced-in-
lok-
sabha/article8
309741.ece
hehindu.com/
news/national
/around-81-
lakh-aadhaar-
deactivated-
till-date-
govt/article19
475097.ece
hehindu.com/
news/national
/website-
launched-for-
govt-map-
download-
but-aadhaar-
mandatory/ar
ticle17908003
.ece
Aadhar Card:
1. It is a proof of
nationality in India.
2. It is a compulsory
service every citizen
should avail in order to
receive benefits of
government subsidies.
3. There is no exit option
to get out of the Aadhar
database.
given above is/are
correct?
(a)2 and 3 only
(b)1 only
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)3 only
13 Geography Which of the following
has/have shrunk
immensely/dried up the
recent past due to human
activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
A As per NASA, over the last 50
years, Aral Sea has shrunk by
about 75% of its original size
mainly because of water diversion
for agricultural usages in
surrounding areas. Also from a
depth of 68 meters in the 1960s,
today it stands at less than 10
meters. In Lake Baikal, water level
has gone below the critical mark
of 456m eleven times since 1962.
Thus, while Aral Sea has dried up
immensely, Lake Baikal shows
more of a fluctuating regime and
shrinkage is not comparable to
that of Aral Sea.
D CAA http://www.the
hindu.com/toda
ys-paper/tp-
features/tp-
sundaymagazin
e/aral-sea-
region-in-
ecological-
tailspin/article1
9779675.ece
http://tass.com
/society/965383
https://www.sci
entificamerican.
com/gallery/shr
inking-sea-over-
half-of-the-aral-
sea-has-
EN Constantly in news

vanished-in-
three-years/
14 Current
Affairs
"Rule of Law Index" is
released by which of the
following?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of
Justice
(c) The Office of UN
Commissioner for Human
Rights
(d) World Justice Report
D The World Justice Project Rule of
Law Index measures how the rule
of law is experienced and
perceived by the general public
across the globe. It is the world’s
leading source for original,
independent data on the rule of
law.
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-
opinion/again
st-human-
rights/article2
2885113.ece
Vision IAS
February
Current Affairs
Page no: 88
EN Has been in news All India Test Series -
Test (2460)-
The Rule of Law Index is
brought out by
(a)OECD
(b)Transparency
International
(c)World Justice Project
(d)UNDP
15 Current
Affairs
links all the ATMs in India
(a) Indian Banks' Association
C National Financial Switch (NFS)
ATM network having 37 members
and connecting about 50,000
M CA https://www.
npci.org.in/pr
oduct-
EN NPCI and its
functions have been
in news frequently.

(b) National Securities
Depository Limited
(c) National Payments
Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
ATMs was taken over by NPCI
from Institute for Development
and Research in Banking
Technology (IDRBT) on December
14, 2009. Over the span of few
years, NFS ATM network has
grown many folds and is now the
leading multilateral ATM network
in the country. As on 31 st August’
17, there were 941 members that
includes 101 Direct, 776 Sub
members, 56 RRBs and 8 WLAOs
using NFS network connected to
more than 2.37 Lac ATM.
NFS has established a strong and
sustainable operational model
with in-house capabilities and
today can be compared at par
with other major and well-
established switch networks. The
operational functions and services
are at par with most of the global
ATM networks.
overview/nati
onal-financial-
switch-
product-
overview
https://www.li
vemint.com/
Money/Gg9Z4
hQBxSGKIjnY9
qRP7N/Everyt
hing-to-know-
about-your-
ATM.html
statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio
(CAR) is the amount that
banks have to maintain in
the form of their own funds
to offset any loss that banks
incur if the account-holders
fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each
individual bank.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is
the ratio of a bank's capital in
relation to its risk weighted assets
and current liabilities. It is decided
by central banks and bank
regulators to prevent commercial
banks from taking excess leverage
and becoming insolvent in the
process.
E CAA https://www.i
nvestopedia.c
om/terms/c/c
apitaladequac
yratio.asp
mictimes.india
times.com/def
inition/capital-
adequacy-
ratio
vemint.com/C
ompanies/9gff
tzb7edvMTRS
KJGcAfL/Govt-
may-not-
EM CAR is a basic
concept in economics
and was recently
seen in news in the
context of the
alleged fraud in PNB.

infuse-extra-
capital-into-
fraudhit-
PNB.html
17 Current
Affairs
The identity platform
'Aadhaar' provides open
"Application Programming
Interfaces (APIs)". What does
it imply?
1. It can be integrated into
any electronic device.
2. Online authentication
using iris is possible.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C Aadhaar Authentication is the
process wherein Aadhaar number,
along with other attributes,
including biometrics, are
submitted online to the Central
Identities Data Repository for its
verification and such repository
verifies the correctness, or the
lack thereof, on the basis of the
information available with it. An
authentication request is
entertained by the UIDAI only
upon a request sent by a
requesting entity electronically in
accordance with its regulations.
The modes of authentication
include: Demographic
Authentication, one-time pin
based authentication, Biometric-
based authentication, Multi-factor
authentication.
To support strong end to end
security and avoid request
tampering and man-in-the-middle
attacks, it is essential that
encryption of data happens at the
time of capture on the capture
device. Authentication related
APIs are enabled only for valid
ASAs and only for their registered
static IP addresses coming
through a secure private network.
M CA https://uidai.g
ov.in/authenti
cation.html
https://esign.
ncode.in/esign
/images/PDF/
aadhaar_auth
entication_api
_2_0%20(1).p
df
https://uidai.g
ov.in/images/r
esource/aadh
aar_registered
_devices_2_0
_09112016.pd
f
hehindu.com/
opinion/op-
ed/towards-a-
unique-digital-
south-asian-
identity/articl
e18410579.ec
e
business-
standard.com/
article/current
affairs/aadhaa
r-security-and-
authentication
-flaw-can-
give-access-
to-data-
EN Recently, UIDAI
proposed that
Adhaar validation can
be done using face
recognition from July
1, 2018 onwards.
u.com/todays-
paper/aadhaar-
validation-with-face-
recognition-from-
july-
1/article22445834.ec
e

without-otp-
ethical-
hacker-
11803300012
3_1.html
18 Current
Affairs
Very recently, in which of the
following countries have
lakhs of people either
suffered from severe
famine/acute malnutrition or
died due to starvation
caused by war/ethnic
conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
D Yemen is now on the brink of “the
world’s largest famine”, according
to the United Nations. Already, 17
million people are dependent on
external aid for food and
medicine, while the country is
fighting a massive cholera
outbreak. The breakdown of
government services, lack of
drinking water and a crumbling
health sector, besides the
miseries of civil war and aerial
bombardment, are fast turning
Yemen into a failed state, and a
breeding ground for extremist
groups such as al-Qaeda in the
Arabian Peninsula.
One year after South Sudan briefly
declared a famine, more than half
of the people in the world’s
youngest nation face extreme
hunger amid civil war. A new
report by the United Nations and
South Sudan’s government says
more than six million people are
at threat without aid, up about 40
% from a year ago.
hehindu.com/
news/internat
ional/in-
yemen-saudi-
blockade-
ratchets-up-
fears-of-
famine/article
20461062.ece
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-
international/
why-20-
million-
people-are-
on-brink-of-
famine/article
17357258.ece
EN has frequently been
in news.
19 Modern
History
Regarding Wood's Dispatch,
statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was
introduced.
2. Establishment of
universities was
recommended.
A In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a
despatch on an educational
system for India. Considered the
"Magna Carta of English
Education in. India", this
document was the first
comprehensive plan for the
spread of education in India.
M F SPECTRUM -
Development
of Education
(Chapter)
c.in/ncerts/l/h
ess202.pdf
NCERT Class 8
EM All India Test Series - Test
(2458)-
The Wood's Despatch of
1854 is regarded as the
'Magna Carta of English
Education in India'. Which
of the following were
favoured by it?

3. English as a medium of
instruction at all levels of
education was
recommended.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It asked the Government of
India to assume responsibility for
education of the masses, thus
repudiating the 'downward
filtration
theory', at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy
from vernacular primary schools
in villages at bottom, followed by
Anglo-Vernacular High Schools
and an affiliated college at the
district level, and affiliating
universities in the presidency
towns of Calcutta, Bombay and
Madras.
Statement 3 is not correct. 3. It
recommended English as the
medium of instruction for higher
studies and vernaculars at school
level.
4. It laid stress on female and
vocational, education, and on
teachers'
training.
5 . It laid down that the education
imparted in government
institutions
should be secular.
Statement 1 is correct. 6. It
recommended a system of grants-
in-aid to encourage private
enterprise.
Statement 2 is correct. The
Despatch recommended the
establishment of universities in
the three Presidency towns of
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
The universities were to be
modeled after the London
University and these were to have
History Social
Science
Civilising the
"Native",
Educating the
Nation.
1. Downward filtration
theory
2. Female and vocational
training
3. Secular education
4. Private
entrepreneurship in
education
using the code given
below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2, 3 and 4 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation -
In 1854, Charles Wood
prepared a despatch on
an educational system for
India. Considered the
"Magna Carta of English
Education in. India", this
document was the first
comprehensive plan for
the spread of education
in India.
- It asked the Government
of India to assume
responsibility for
education of the masses,
thus repudiating the
'downward filtration
theory', at least on paper.
Hence, option 1 is not
correct.
- It systematised the
hierarchy from
vernacular primary
schools in villages at
bottom, followed by
Anglo-Vernacular High
Schools and an affiliated

a senate comprising of a
Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and
fellows who were nominated by
the Government. The Universities
would confer degrees to the
successful candidates after
passing the examinations, (of
Science or Arts Streams)
conducted by the Senate. The
universities were to organize
departments not only of English
but also of Arabic, Sanskrit and
Persian, as well as law and civil
engineering.
college at the district
level, and affiliating
universities in the
presidency towns of
Calcutta, Bombay and
Madras.
- It recommended English
as the medium of
instruction for higher
studies and vernaculars
at school level.
- It laid stress on female
and vocational,
education, and on
teachers' training. Hence,
option 2 is correct.
- It laid down that the
education imparted in
government institutions
should be secular. Hence,
option 3 is correct.
- It recommended a
system of grants-in-aid to
encourage private
enterprise. Hence, option
4 is correct
20 Polity With reference to the
Parliament of India, which of
the following Parliamentary
Committees scruitinizes and
reports to the House whether
the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules,
by-laws, etc. conferred by the
Constitution or delegated by
the Parliament are being
properly exercised by the
Executive within the scope of
such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government
Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate
B The Committee on Subordinate
Legislation examines and reports
to the House whether the powers
to make rules, regulations, bye-
laws, schemes or other statutory
instruments conferred by the
Constitution or delegated by
Parliament are being properly
exercised. In both the Houses, the
committee consists of 15
members. It was constituted in
1953.
Hence, the answer is (b).
M F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Parliament
EM

Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory
Committee
21 Current
Affairs/Gener
al awareness
statements:
1. As per the Right to
Education (RTE) Act, to be
eligible for appointment as a
teacher in a State, a person
would be required to possess
the minimum qualification
laid down by the concerned
State Council of Teacher
Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for
teaching primary classes, a
candidate is required to pass
a Teacher Eligibility Test
conducted in accordance
with the National Council of
Teacher Education
guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of
teacher education
institutions are directly
under the State
Governments.
(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3(d) 3 only
B Statement 1 is not correct: In
accordance with the provisions of
sub-section (1) of section 23 of
the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education (RTE) Act,
2009, the National Council for
Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid
down the minimum qualifications
for a person to be eligible for
appointment as a teacher in class I
to VIII, vide its Notification dated
August 23, 2010.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the
essential qualifications for a
person to be eligible for
appointment as a teacher in any
of the primary schools is that
he/she should pass the Teacher
Eligibility Test (TET) which will be
conducted by the appropriate
Government.
Statement 3 is not correct: From
the mid-1960s to 1993, the
number of TEIs in India went up
from about 1,200 to about 1,500.
After the NCTE was set up, the
number of TEIs exploded, to
about 16,000 (over 90% private)
by 2011.
D CA http://mhrd.g
ov.in/sites/upl
oad_files/mhr
d/files/upload
_document/R
TE_TET.pdf
EN RTE Act and issue of
teacher training is
frequently seen in
news
https://www.livemin
t.com/Opinion/mMlp
r6ApjWOftrA8ktpWR
P/The-sordid-tale-of-
teacher-education-
in-India.html
22 Art and
Culture
Tradition State
1. ChapcharKut festival -
Mizoram
2. KhongjomParba ballad -
Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim
B Pair 1 is correct. Chapchar Kut is
the biggest festival of the Mizos
and is celebrated in March after
completion of jhum operation. It
is a spring festival. Pair 2 is
correct. Khongjom Parba is a style
of ballad singing from Manipur
D F 1.
http://manipur
times.com/revi
ving-the-dying-
traditional-
manipuri-
music-
EN

(a) 1 only(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only(d) 2 and 3
using Dholak (drum) which depicts
stories of heroic battle fought by
Manipuris against the mighty
British Empire in 1891. It is one of
the most popular musical art
forms of Manipur inciting the
spirit of patriotism and
nationalism among the people at
one time. Pair 3 is not correct.
Manipur dance has a large
repertoire, however, the most
popular forms are the Ras, the
Sankirtana and the Thang-Ta.
Thang-ta dance of Manipur was
an evolved from the martial arts
drills promoted by the kings of
Manipur.
khongjom-
parva-padma-
shri-awardee-
nameirakpam-
ibemni/
2.
http://www.ni
os.ac.in/media
/documents/to
urism_337_cou
rseE/Tourism_
Book-02.pdf
3.
http://ccrtindia
.gov.in/manipu
ri.php

23 Current
Affairs/Gener
al awareness
statements:
1. The Food Safety and
Standards Act, 2006 replaced
the Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India
(FSSAI) is under the charge of
Director General of Health
Services in the Union
Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A Statement 1 is correct: Various
central Acts like Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954, Fruit
Products Order, 1955, Meat Food
Products Order, 1973, Vegetable Oil
Products (Control) Order, 1947,
Edible Oils Packaging
(Regulation)Order 1988, Solvent
Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and
Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967,
Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992
etc. were repealed after
commencement of FSS Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is not correct: Ministry
of Health & Family Welfare,
Government of India is the
Administrative Ministry for the
implementation of FSSAI. The
Chairperson and Chief Executive
Officer of Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
have already been appointed by
Government of India. Before the
formation of FSSAI, from 1954
onwards Prevention of Food
Adulteration was part of Directorate
General of Health Services. After
having detached from the direct
administrative control of the Health
Ministry, this authority is holding
independent authority and has
attained special status.
D CA https://www.t
hehindubusin
essline.com/e
conomy/polic
y/fssai-
launches-logo-
for-organic-
food-
products/artic
le9949389.ece
http://www.fs
sai.gov.in/ho
me/about-
us/introductio
n.html
http://caiindia
.org/foodsafe/
abtFssai.html
news
24 Current
Affairs
The term "two-state
solution" is sometimes
mentioned in the news in the
context of the affairs of
(a) China (b) Israel
(c) Iraq (d) Yemen
B Two- State Solution of Israel
Palestine Issue: It envisages an
independent State of Palestine
alongside the State of Israel west
of Jordan river. The UNSC
Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000
with support from USA and
becoming first UNSC resolution to
agree on two state solution
E CA http://www.th
ehindu.com/ne
ws/internation
al/two-state-
solution-only-
way-to-end-
palestinian-
israeli-conflict-
sisi/article2246
1546.ece
EN has frequently been
in news.
PT-365 International
relations Page 10

25 Current
Affairs/
Schemes
provisions made under the
National Food Security Act,
2013, consider the following
statements:
1. The families coming under
the category of 'below
poverty line (BPL)' only are
eligible to receive subsidies
food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a
household, of age 18 years
or above, shall be the head
of the household for the
purpose of issuance of a
ration card.
3. Pregnant women and
lactating mothers are
entitled to a 'take-home
ration' of 1600 calories per
day during pregnancy and for
six months thereafter.
Act provides for coverage of upto
75% of the rural population and
upto 50% of the urban population
for receiving subsidized
foodgrains under Targeted Public
Distribution System (TPDS), thus
covering about two-thirds of the
population.
Statement 2 is correct: It provides
that eldest woman of the
household of age 18 years or
above is to be the head of the
household for the purpose of
issuing of ration cards.
Besides meal to pregnant women
and lactating mothers during
pregnancy and six months after
the child birth, such women will
also be entitled to receive
maternity benefit of not less than
Rs. 6,000.
M CA http://dfpd.ni
c.in/nfsa-
act.htm
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=10205
7
news
26 Economy India enacted the
Geographical Indications of
Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999 in
order to comply with the
obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
D Geographical Indications of Goods
are defined as that aspect of
industrial property which refer to
the geographical indication
referring to a country or to a place
situated therein as being the
country or place of origin of that
product. Typically, such a name
conveys an assurance of quality
and distinctiveness which is
essentially attributable to the fact
of its origin in that defined
geographical locality, region or
country. Under Articles 1 (2) and
E FA http://www.w
ipo.int/geo_in
dications/en/f
aq_geographic
alindications.h
tml
http://shodhg
anga.inflibnet.
ac.in/bitstrea
m/10603/145
14/15/14_cha
pter%207.pdf
EM Geographical
Indications of Goods
(Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999
is frequently seen in
news.
PT365 Science and Tech,
Page 66

10 of the Paris Convention for the
Protection of Industrial Property,
geographical indications are
covered as an element of IPRs.
They are also covered under
Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade
Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPS)
Agreement, which was part of the
Agreements concluding the
Uruguay Round of GATT
negotiations.
India, as a member of the World
Trade Organization (WTO),
enacted the Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration
& Protection) Act, 1999 has come
into force with effect from 15th
September 2003.
statements:
1. In India, State
Governments do not have
the power to auction non-
coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and
Jharkhand do no have gold
mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore
mines.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
D Unlike coal, the auction of mining
licences of non-coal minerals is
conducted by the respective state
governments.
Iron ore mines are located in
Bhilwara in Rajasthan.
India has gold deposits spread
across several states including
Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala,
Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and
Rajasthan. Governments of both
Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh
have auctioned several gold mines
in recent years.
D CAA http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/business/
govt-states-
likely-to-
auction-54-
non-coal-
mines-in-fy18-
4853479/
ewindianexpr
ess.com/thesu
ndaystandard/
2017/dec/09/
gold-rush-
sparks-tribal-
backlash-in-
jharkhand-
1723194.html
findia.indiatim
EN Recent news related
to auction of non-
coal mines and gold
mines.

es.com/city/vi
sakhapatnam/
ap-has-huge-
gold-mining-
potential/artic
leshow/56840
679.cms
http://www.mi
nes.rajasthan.g
ov.in/dmgcms/
page?menuNa
me=U/TcLwXb
xWrpRTAziIP1Y
F2XHCB9gDpO
28 Current
Affairs
With reference to digital
payments, consider the
1. BHIM app allows the user
to tranfer money to anyone
with a UPI-enabled bank
account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card
has four factors
authentication, BHIM app
has only two factors of
authentication.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A Statement 1 is correct: Bharat
Interface for Money (BHIM) is a
payment app that lets you make
simple, easy and quick
transactions using Unified
Payments Interface (UPI). You can
make direct bank payments to
anyone on UPI using their UPI ID
or scanning their QR with the
BHIM app. You can also request
money through the app from a
UPI ID.
Statement 2 is not correct: From
a consumer point of view, there
are three levels of authentication
that are required in this app. One
is the device ID and mobile
number, then the bank account
which you are linking to this app,
and the finally the UPI Pin which is
needed to complete the
transaction. There are three
factors of authentication versus a
normal net banking app or a chip-
pin debit card which will only have
two factors of authentication
M CA http://indiane
xpress.com/ar
ticle/technolo
gy/tech-news-
technology/bh
im-app-
narendra-
modi-upi-
online-
transaction-
safety-
4453599/
bhimupi.org.in
/who-we-are
in news.

29 Geography Among the following cities,
which one lies on a longitude
closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
A Delhi and Bengaluru are located
almost on the same longitude.
Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025° E
Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946°
E
longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867°
E
longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882° E
longitude of pune- 73.8567° E
M FA Atlas EM
30 Current
Affairs
International Labour
Organization's Convention
138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural
practices to global climate
change
(c) Regulation of food prices
A India recently ratified the two
Core Conventions of International
Labour Organization (ILO)
Conventions 138 regarding
admission of age to employment
and Convention 182 regarding
worst forms of Child Labour
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=16560
4
in news.
PT 365 Social Issues
Page 12
VISION IAS OPEN TEST -
1- 2517
With reference to child
labour, consider the
1. Globally, the

and food security
(d) Gender parity at the
workplace
industrial sector
accounts for the
majority of child labour.
2. Sustainable
Development Goals aim
to eradicate child labour
in all its forms by 2025.
3. India has not ratified
any convention of
Organization on Child
Labour.
given above is/are
correct?(a)1 and 2
only(b)2 only(c)1 and 3
only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Test (2437)-
India is party to which of
the following conventions
of International Labour
Organisation?
1. The Minimum Age
Convention
2. The Worst Forms of
Child Labour Convention
3. Freedom of Association
and Protection of the
Right to Organise
Convention
below.
(a)1 only(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 and 3 ony
Mentioned in the
explanations for these
questions: In July 2017,

India ratified the two
Core Conventions of
Organization (ILO)-
Convention 138 regarding
admission of age to
employment and
Convention 182 regarding
worst forms of Child
Labour.
31 Polity Regarding Money Bill, which
is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to
be a Money Bill if it contains
only provisions relating to
imposition, abolition,
remission, alteration or
regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has
provisions for the custody of
the Consolidated Fund of
India or the Contingency
Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned
with the appropriation of
moneys out of the
Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with
the regulation of borrowing
of money or giving of any
guarantee by the
Government of India.
C Article 110 of the Constitution
deals with the definition of money
bills. It states that a bill is deemed
to be a money bill if it contains
‘only’ provisions dealing with all
or any of the following matters:
1. The imposition, abolition,
remission, alteration or
regulation of any tax;
2. The regulation of the
borrowing of money or the giving
of any guarantee by the
Government of India;
3. The custody of the
Consolidated Fund of India or the
contingency fund of India, the
payment of moneys into or the
withdrawal of money from any
such fund;
4. The appropriation of money
out of the Consolidated Fund of
India;
5. Declaration of any expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund
of India or increasing the amount
of any such expenditure;
6. The receipt of money on
account of the Consolidated Fund
of India or the public account of
India or the custody or issue of
M F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter -
Parliament
EM

such money, or the audit of the
accounts of the Union or of a
state; or
7. Any matter incidental to any of
the matters specified above.
32 Polity With reference to the
election of the President of
India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of
each MLA varies from State
to State.
2. The value of the vote of
MPs of the Lok Sabha is
more than the value of the
vote of MPs of the Rajya
Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A The President is elected not directly
by the people but by members of
electoral college consisting of:
1. the elected members of both
the Houses of Parliament;
2. the elected members of the
legislative assemblies of the
states; and
3. the elected members of the
legislative assemblies of the Union
Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.
Value of the vote is determined in
the following manner:
1. Every elected member of the
legislative assembly of a state
shall have as many votes as there
are multiples of one thousand in
the quotient obtained by dividing
the population of the state by the
total number of the elected
members of the assembly.
(Hence, it varies according to
population of state.)
2. Every elected member of either
House of Parliament shall have
such number of votes as may be
obtained by dividing the total
number of votes assigned to
members of the legislative
assemblies of the states by the
total number of the elected
members of both the Houses of
Parliament.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
M F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
President
EM http://www.thehind
u.com/news/national
/presidential-
election-how-are-
the-votes-
calculated/article191
08121.ece

33 Current
Affairs
In the Indian context, what is
the implication of ratifying
the 'Additional Protocol' with
the 'International Atomic
Energy Agency (IAEA)'?
(a) The civilian nuclear
reactors come under IAEA
safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear
installations come under the
inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the
privilege to buy uranium
from the Nuclear Suppliers
Group (NSG).
(d) The country
automatically becomes a
member of the NSG.
A India has ratified the Additional
Protocol, a commitment given
under India-U.S. nuclear deal by
the previous dispensation to grant
greater ease to International
Atomic Energy Agency to monitor
India’s civilian atomic programme.
The IAEA had in March 2009
approved an additional protocol
to India’s safeguards agreement
consequent to a pact reached
with the agency the previous year
to place its civilian nuclear
facilities under IAEA safeguards.
That agreement had paved the
way for the 45-member Nuclear
Suppliers Group to grant India-
specific waiver for it to have
commercial relations with other
countries in the civilian atomic
field.
D CA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-
opinion/India-
and-the-
Additional-
Protocol/articl
e16631586.ec
e
hehindu.com/
news/national
/IAEA-gets-
greater-
access-to-
India%E2%80
%99s-nuclear-
programme/ar
ticle11639229
.ece
EN Is seen context of
India US nuclear deal
and India's bid for
NSG membership
34 Current
Affairs
countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
among the 'free-trade
partners' of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
C The Association of Southeast
Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was
established on 8 August 1967 in
Bangkok, Thailand, with the
signing of the ASEAN Declaration
(Bangkok Declaration) by the
Founding Fathers of ASEAN,
namely Indonesia, Malaysia,
Philippines, Singapore and
Thailand.
ASEAN has existing free trade
agreements with Australia, China,
India, Japan, South Korea and
New Zealand.
M CA http://asean.o
rg/asean-
economic-
community/fr
ee-trade-
agreements-
with-dialogue-
partners/
EN Has frequently been in
news as Regional
Comprehensive
Economic Partnership
(RCEP) is a proposed
free trade agreement
(FTA) between the ten
member states of the
Association of
Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) and
the six states with
which ASEAN has
existing free trade
agreements.
PT365 International
Relations, page 12
35 Environment With reference to the 'Global
Alliance for Climate-Smart
Agriculture (GACSA)', which
B The term Climate-Smart Agriculture
was first coined by FAO in 2010 as a
means to attract climate finance to
its agricultural programmes in
D FCA http://sdg.iisd
.org/news/gac
sa-annual-
forum-
RR GACSA Annual Forum
Focuses on Collective
Action for Climate-
Smart Agriculture- 21

is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of
the Climate Summit help in
Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA
does not create any binding
obligations.
3. India was instrumental in
the creation of GACSA.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Africa. GACSA is an inclusive,
voluntary and action-oriented
multi-stakeholder platform on
Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
GACSA was launched in September
2014 in the margins of the UN
Climate Summit. The Alliance held
its inaugural Annual Forum in
December 2014, during which the
2015 Inception Year Work Plan was
endorsed.
The concept of Climate-Smart
Agriculture (CSA) was originally
developed by FAO and officially
presented and at the Hague
Conference on Agriculture, Food
Security and Climate Change in
2010, through the paper "Climate-
Smart Agriculture: Policies,
Practices and Financing for Food
Security, Adaptation and
Mitigation". They have been
established based on bottom-up,
inclusive, independent and
voluntary processes, with specific
objectives, functioning and
institutional setting.
The emergence of CSA alliances and
platforms worldwide is a positive
and strong signal to the
international community on the
willingness of all stakeholders, at
various levels of action, to tackle
the climate challenges in the
agricultural sectors, based on joint
efforts and context-specific
approaches.
The GACSA alliance is made up of a
diverse set of members that
includes governments, NGOs,
intergovernmental organizations
(including UN and the African Union
focuses-on-
collective-
action-for-
climate-smart-
agriculture/
http://www.fa
o.org/fileadmi
n/user_upload
/gacsa/docs/O
pen_Letter_to
_CSOs_from_
CoChais__1_.p
df
o.org/gacsa/m
embers/mem
bers-list/en/
December 2017:
Participants at the
Second Annual
Forum of the Global
Alliance for Climate-
Smart Agriculture
(GACSA) discussed
how multi-
stakeholder efforts
can promote the
implementation of
climate-smart
agriculture (CSA)
practices and
systems that address
the implications of
climate change in
diverse ago-
ecological regions.

Commission),
research/extension/education
organizations, farmer organizations,
financing institutions and the
private sector. Key donor
organisations engaging with GACSA
include the governments of Canada,
France, Japan, Netherlands,
Norway, Switzerland, the United
Kingdom and the United States of
America. Though some of the Indian
NGOs are its member but there are
not enough evidences of India
being instrumental in creation of
GACSA.
36 Current
Affairs/
Schemes
the aim/aims of "Digital
India" Plan of the
Government of India?
1. Formation of India's own
Internet companies like
China did.
2. Establish a policy
framework to encourage
overseas multinational
corporations that collect Big
Data to build their large data
centers within our national
geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our
villages to the Internet and
bring Wi-Fi to many of our
schools, public places and
major tourist centers.
B In order to transform the entire
ecosystem of public services
through the use of information
technology, the Government of
India has launched the Digital India
programme with the vision to
transform India into a digitally
empowered society and knowledge
economy.
Under the Digital India Plan, NII
would integrate the network and
cloud infrastructure in the country
to provide high speed connectivity
and cloud platform to various
government departments up to the
panchayat level. Cities with
population of over 1 million and
tourist centres would be provided
with public wi-fi hotspots to
promote digital cities. The scheme
would be implemented by DoT and
Ministry of Urban Development
(MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is
correct.
M CA http://digitali
ndia.gov.in/co
ntent/about-
programme
news
PT-365 Government
Schemes p.g. 36
Towns sometimes
mentioned in news -
B Aleppo is in Syria, Kirkuk and
Mosul are in Iraq while Majar-i-
Sharif is in Afghanistan.
M CAA http://www.theh
indu.com/news/i
nternational/ten

Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif -
Afghanistan
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
These cities have been in recent
news due to war and violence.
-killed-in-twin-is-
strikes-in-
northern-
iraq/article23108
732.ece
http://www.theh
indu.com/opinio
n/op-ed/the-
many-conflicts-
in-
syria/article2275
4671.ece
https://www.hin
dustantimes.com
/world-
news/terrorists-
target-afghan-
army-camp-in-
mazar-e-
sharif/story-

38 Modern
History
In the Federation established
by The Government of India
Act of 1935, residuary
powers were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
B The Government of India Act of
1935 envisaged an all-India
federation consisting of eleven
Governor’s provinces, six Chief
Commissioner’s provinces, and
such Indian States as would agree
to join the federation.
The governmental subjects were
divided into three Lists i.e.
Federal, Provincial and
Concurrent. The provincial
legislatures were given exclusive
power to legislate with respect to
matters in the Provincial list. The
federal legislature had the
exclusive power to make law on
matters in the Federal List. The
federal and the provincial
legislatures had concurrent
jurisdiction with respect to
matters in the Concurrent List. In
case of conflict between a
provincial law and a federal law
on a matter enumerated in the
Concurrent List, the latter was to
prevail, and the former would, to
the extent of the repugnancy be
void. Residuary powers were
vested in the Governor-General,
who could, in his discretion,
assign any such power by a public
notification to the federal
legislature or the provincial
legislature.
E F 1. Laxmikanth
Ch - Historical
background
2. SPECTRUM
EM VISION IAS Open Test 2-
(2518)
With reference to
‘Government of India
Act 1935’ which of the
following statements
is/are correct?
adoption of dyarchy at
the Centre.
2. It provided for
bicameral legislature in
all the provinces of
British India.
3. It introduced
provincial autonomy in
the states.
Select the correct
answer using the code
given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation -
Features of the
Government of India
1935 Act
establishment of an All-
India Federation
consisting of provinces
and princely states as
units. The Act divided
the powers between the
Centre and units in
terms of three lists—
Federal List (for Centre,
with 59 items),
Provincial List (for

provinces, with 54
items) and the
Concurrent List (for
both, with 36 items).
Residuary powers were
given to the Viceroy.
However, the federation
never came into being
as the princely states did
not join it.
2. It abolished dyarchy
in the provinces and
introduced ‘provincial
autonomy’ in its place.
Moreover, the Act
introduced responsible
governments in
provinces, that is, the
governor was required
to act with the advice of
ministers responsible to
the provincial
legislature. This came
into effect in 1937 and
was discontinued in
1939. Hence, statement
3 is correct.
adoption of dyarchy at
the Centre. However,
this provision of the Act
did not come into
operation at all. Hence,
4. It introduced
bicameralism in six out
of eleven provinces.
Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
5. It further extended

the principle of
communal
representation by
providing separate
electorates for
depressed classes
(scheduled castes),
women and labour
(workers).
establishment of a
Reserve Bank of India to
control the currency and
credit of the country.
establishment of not
only a Federal Public
Service Commission but
also a Provincial Public
Service Commission and
Joint Public Service
Commission for two or
provinces.
establishment of a
Federal Court, which
was set up in 1937
statements:
1. The Speaker of the
Legislative Assembly shall
vacate his/her office if
he/she ceases to be a
member of the assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative
Assembly is dissolved, the
Speaker shall vacate his/her
office immediately.
A Usually, the Speaker remains in
office during the life of the
assembly. However, he vacates his
office earlier in any of the following
three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of
the assembly;
2. if he resigns by writing to the
deputy speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution
passed by a majority of all the then
members of the assembly. Such a
resolution can be moved only after
giving 14 days advance notice.
M F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter- State
Legislature
EM

(a) 1 only(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Article 179 of the Indian
Constitution provides that
whenever the Assembly is
dissolved, the Speaker shall not
vacate his office until immediately
before the first meeting of the
Assembly after the dissolution.
40 Polity Which one of the following
reflects the most appropriate
relationship between law
and liberty?
(a) If there are more laws,
there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there
is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws
have to be made by the
people.
(d) If laws are changed too
often, liberty is in danger.
B The term 'liberty' means absence
of restraints on the activities of
individuals, and at the same time,
providing opportunities for the
development of individuals.
However, liberty does not mean
'license' to do what one likes, and
has to be enjoyed within the
limitations mentioned in the
Constitution and various laws. The
concept of liberty is not absolute.
Absense of laws does not ensure
liberty.
D FA Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Preamble
NCERT 11,
Indian
Constitution
at work,
chapter 2
EM
statements:
1. No criminal proceedings
shall be instituted against
the Governor of a State in
any court during his term of
office.
2. The emoluments and
allowances of the Governor
of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of
office.
(a) 1 only(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C Like the President, the governor is
also entitled to a number of
privileges and immunities. During
his term of office, he is immune
from any criminal proceedings,
even in respect of his personal
acts. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
The Governor is entitled to such
emoluments, allowances and
privileges as may be determined
by Parliament. His emoluments
and allowances cannot be
diminished during his term of
office. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
E F Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Governor
EM Partially covered in 2457

42 Art and
Culture
The well-known painting
"Bani Thani" belongs to the
(a) Bundi school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
D Bani Thani is an Indian painting in
the Kishangarh school of
paintings. Bani Thani was painted
by an artist by the name of Nihâl
Chand. The painting's subject,
Bani Thani, was a singer and poet
in Kishangarh in the time of king
Savant Singh.
M F https://timesofi
ndia.indiatimes.
com/city/jaipur
/bani-thani-
paintings-to-
welcome-
passengers-at-
kishangarh-
airport/articlesh
ow/58451262.c
ms
RR To check basic factual
knowledge about
Indian Culture and
heritage. There will
be a display of
famous Bani-Thani
paintings of
Kishangarh style in
the galleries and halls
of the newly built
Kishangarh airport.
43 Current
Affairs
What is "Terminal High
Altitude Area Defence
(THAAD)", sometimes seen in
the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India's indigenous anti-
missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile
system
(d) A defence collaboration
between Japan and South
Korea
C The Terminal High Altitude Area
Defense, or simply abbreviated as
THAAD, is a American missile
defence system that is designed
to intercept and destroy short and
medium-range ballistic missiles in
their final flight phase. First
proposed in 1987 and then finally
deployed in 2008, the THAAD
cannot be used as a form of attack
against an enemy.
hehindu.com/
news/internat
ional/pentago
n-evaluating-
us-west-coast-
missile-
defense-sites-
officials/articl
e21253983.ec
e
xpress.com/ar
ticle/what-
is/what-is-
thaad-
everything-
you-need-to-
know-about-
the-us-anti-
missile-
system-
4630087/
in news.
44 Art and
Culture
With reference to cultural
history of India, consider the
1. Most of the Tyagaraja
Kritis are devotional songs in
praise of Lord Krishna.
B Statement 1 is not correct. Most of
Tyagaraja’s songs were in praise of
Rama, who, like Krishna, is believed
to be an incarnation of the god
Vishnu.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is
D FCA 1.
hehindu.com/
entertainment
/music/the-
saint-
EN To check the
knowledge of
religious philosophy
schools .
250TH Birth
Anniversary of

2. Tyagaraja created several
new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and
Tyagaraja are
contemporaries.
4. Annamacharyakirtanas are
devotional songs in praise of
Lord Venkateshwara.
given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
credited with various musical
innovations, including the use of a
structured variation of musical lines
within the performance, a practice
that may have been derived from
improvisatory techniques.
Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th
century and Annamacharya to the
15th century.
Annamācārya was a 15th-century
Hindu saint and is the earliest
known Indian musician to compose
songs called sankirtanas in praise of
the god Venkateswara, a form of
Vishnu.
composers-
possessions/ar
ticle23759797
.ece
2.
hehansindia.c
om/posts/ind
ex/Commoner
/2017-12-
13/Annamach
arya-The-
poet-saint-of-
Tirumala/3449
56
Tyagaraja
515 Death
Anniversary of
Annamacharya

45 Polity Which of the following are
regarded as the main
features of the "Rule of
Law"?
1. Limitation of Powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to
the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C Fundamental rights enshrined in
part III of the constitution is a
restriction on the law making power
of the Indian Parliament. The state
has got no power to deprive a
person of his life and liberty without
the authority of law.
The secondary meaning of rule of
law is that the government should
be conducted within a framework
of recognized rules and principles
which restrict discretionary powers.
Dicey’s Concept of Rule of Law-In
his book, the law and the
constitution, published in the year
1885, Dicey attributed three
meanings to the doctrine of rule of
law:
1. Supremacy Of Law
2. Equality Before The Law
3. Predominance Of Legal Spirit
D FA Indian polity
by M
Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Fundamental
Rights
EM All India Test Series –
Test (2436)
Which among the
following is/are
elements of concept of
rule of law in India?
1. Absence of arbitary
power.
2. Equality before law.
3. Constitution as source
of individual rights.
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
46 Economy Which one of the following
statements correctly
describes the meaning of
legal tender money?
(a) The money which is
tendered in courts of law to
defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a
creditor is under compulsion
to accept in settlement of his
claims
(c) The bank money in the
form of cheques, drafts, bills
of exchange etc.
(d) The metallic money in
circulation in a country
B Legal tender is any official
medium of payment recognized
by law that can be used to
extinguish a public or private
debt, or meet a financial
obligation.
A creditor is obligated to accept
legal tender toward repayment of
a debt. Legal tender can only be
issued by the national body that is
authorized to do so
E F XII:
Introductory
Marcoeconom
ics, Chapter -
3, Page: 38
EM Recently RBI has
banned entities
regulated by it from
dealing with or
providing services to
any individual or
business entities
dealing with or
settling virtual
currencies (VCs). It
does not consider the
legal tender money.
It is also a
fundamental concept
in economics.
All India Test Series-
Test (2542)
are considered as ‘Legal
Tender’ in India?
1. Cheques
2. Coins
3. Paper Currency
below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation- Legal
tender’ is the money that
is recognized by the law
of the land, as valid for
payment of debt.
The RBI Act of 1934,

which gives the central
bank the sole right to
issue bank notes, states
that “Every bank note
shall be legal tender at
any place in India in
payment for the amount
expressed therein”.
Legal tender can be
limited or unlimited in
character. In India, coins
function as limited legal
tender. Therefore, 50
paise coins can be offered
as legal tender for dues
up to ₹10 and smaller
coins for dues up to ₹1.
Currency notes are
unlimited legal tender
and can be offered as
payment for dues of any
size.
Cheques are not
considered as legal
tender.
47 Economy If a commodity is provided
free to the public by the
Government, then
(a) the opportunity cost is
zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is
ignored.
(c) the opportunity costs is
transferred from the
consumers of the product to
the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is
transferred from the
consumers of the product to
the Government.
C Opportunity cost is the cost of
choosing one alternative over
another and missing the benefit
offered by the forgone
opportunity, investing or
otherwise. Opportunity cost refers
to a benefit that a person could
have received, but gave up, to
take another course of action.
Stated differently, an opportunity
cost represents an alternative
given up when a decision is made.
Opportunity cost is also called the
economic cost.
D U NCERT,
Introductory
Microeconomi
cs, Chapter-1,
Page 4
https://www.i
nvestopedia.c
om/terms/o/o
pportunitycost
.asp
RR Fundamental
Concept in
Economics.

48 Economy Increase is absolute and per
capital real GNP do not
connote a higher level of
economic development, if
(a) industrial output fails to
keep pace with agricultural
output.
(b) agricultural output fails to
keep pace with industrial
output.
(c) poverty and
unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than
exports.
C An essential aspect of
development is to enable the
maximum number to experience
the fruits of development.
Concepts of per capita income
(per capita GDP or per capita
NSDP) are not able to capture this
aspect of development.
There may be a case wherein
increase in absolute and per
capita GNP is reflective of growth
in income of a small section of
society and that majority of the
population is poverty stricken and
unemployed. Multi-dimensional
non-monetary social indicators
are better reflectors of overall
economic development in the
society.
M FA Introductory
Macroeconom
ics, Chapter-2:
National
Income
Accounting
EM Fundamental
Concept in
Economics.
statements:
Human capital formation as
a concept is better explained
in terms of a process which
enables
1. individuals of a country to
accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge,
skill levels and capacities of
the people of the country.
3. accumulation of tangible
wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible
wealth.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
C Human capital formation indicates,
“the process of acquiring and
increasing the number of persons
who have the skills, education and
experience which are critical for the
economic and the political
development of the country.
Human capital formation is thus
associated with investment in man
and his development as a creative
and productive resource.” Hence,
Intangible wealth consists of factors
such as the trust among people in a
society, an efficient judicial system,
clear property rights, effective
government, and good education
system etc. Human capital
formation enables accumulation of
intangible wealth. Hence, statement
4 is correct.
D FA http://ncert.ni
c.in/ncerts/l/k
eec105.pdf
EM Basic Concept in
Economics;
Government recently
launched Sustainable
Action for
Transforming Human
capital' Programme

50 Economy Despite being a high saving
economy, capital formation
may not result in significant
increase in output due to
(a) weak administrative
machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio
D Capital formation means
increasing the stock of real capital
in a country. In other words,
capital formation involves making
of more capital goods such as
machines, tools, factories,
transport equipment, materials,
electricity, etc., which are all used
for future production of goods.
For making additions to the stock
of Capital, saving and investment
are essential.
Capital output ratio is the amount
of capital needed to produce one
unit of output. For example,
suppose that investment in an
economy, investment is 32% (of
GDP), and the economic growth
corresponding to this level of
investment is 8%. Here, a Rs 32
investment produces an output of
Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8
or 4. In other words, to produce
one unit of output, 4 unit of
capital is needed.
Hence, if the capital-output ratio
is high, there will not be
significant increase in output
despite high savings and
investment.
E F NCERT,
Business
Studies, Page
396
EM Basic Concept in
Economics
All India Test Series –
Test (2457)-
With reference to
Incremental Capital
Output Ratio (ICOR),
statements:
1. It assesses the
marginal amount of
investment capital
necessary for an entity
to generate the next
unit of production
2. High ICOR value
indicates efficient
production of an entity.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51 Modern
History
After the Santhal Uprising
subsided, what was/were
the measure/measures taken
by the colonial government?
1. The territories called
'Santhal Paraganas' were
created.
2. It became illegal for a
Santhal to transfer land to a
non-Santhal.
C Statement 1 is correct. It was
after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56)
that the Santhal Pargana was
created, carving out 5,500 square
miles from the districts of
Bhagalpur and Birbhum. The
colonial state hoped that by
creating a new territory for the
Santhals and imposing some
special laws within it, the Santhals
D F Shekhar
Bandopadhya
ya's "Plassey
To Partition"-
Ch-Reform &
Rebellion pg
165
https://books.g
oogle.co.in/bo
oks?id=DORXV
EM

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
could be conciliated.
Statement 2 is correct. To protect
economic basis of Santhal society,
special regulations governed
transfer of land. It became illegal
for a Santhal to transfer land to a
non-Santhal.
9O1AHQC&pg=
PA52&lpg=PA5
2&dq=It+beca
me+illegal+for
+a+Santhal+to
+transfer+land
+to+a+non-
Santhal.&sourc
e=bl&ots=9bte
xXx9sG&sig=hB
SqxyEDQ186p
W8BcvsQrWf5
UTY&hl=en&sa
=X&ved=0ahU
KEwjd_Kqvobjb
AhUES48KHe-
HAWwQ6AEIQj
AF#v=onepage
&q=It%20beca
me%20illegal%
20for%20a%20
Santhal%20to
%20transfer%2
0land%20to%2
0a%20non-
Santhal.&f=fals
e
52 Modern
History
Economically, one of the
results of the British rule in
India in the 19th century was
the
(a) increase in the export of
Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of
Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of
Indian agriculture
(d) rapid inrease in the urban
population
C Economic Impact of British rule- 1.
Deindustrialisation - Ruin of
artisans and handicraftsmen:
cheap and machine made goods
imports flooded the Indian market
after the Charter Act of 1813
allowing one-way free trade for
British citizens. On the other
hand, Indian products found it
more and more difficult to
penetrate the European markets.
After 1820, European markets
were virtually closed to Indian
exports. Even the newly
E F SPECTRUM -
Ch-8
Economic
Impact of
British Rule in
India Pg 274
ER All India Test Series-
Test (2433)-
Which among the
following were the
economic impacts of
British rule in India?
1. Deindustrialisation
2. Deterioration of
agriculture
3. Rise of bourgeoisie
class in India
Select the correct
given below.

introduced rail network helped
the European products to reach
the remotest corners of the
country. Hence, option (a) is not
correct. Another feature of
deindustrialisation was the
decline of many cities and a
process of ruralisation of India.
Many artisans, faced with
diminishing returns and
repressive policies of the
Company abandoned their
professions and moved to
villages and took to agriculture.
This resulted in increased
pressure on land. An
overburdened agriculture sector
was a major cause of poverty
overburdened agriculture sector
was a major cause of poverty
during British rule and this upset
the village economic set-up.
Hence, option (d) is not correct.
2. Impoverishment of Peasantry -
The Govt. was only interested in
maximisation of rents and in
securing its share of revenue , had
enforced the Permanent
Settlement in large parts.
Transferability of land was one
feature of the new settlement
which caused great insecurity to
the tenants who lost all their
traditional rights in land. 3.
Development of Modern
Industries - It was only in the
second half of 19th Century that
modern machine based industries
started coming up in India. The
first cotton textile mill was started
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Following
were the economic
impact of the British rule
in India:
Deindustrialisation-
India was a major player
in the world export
market for textiles in the
early 18th century, but
by the middle of the
19th century it had lost
all of its export market
and much of its
domestic market. Other
local industries also
suffered some decline,
and India underwent de-
industrialization as a
consequence. While
India produced about 25
percent of world
industrial output in
1750, this figure fell to
only 2 percent by 1900.
Ruralisation- Loss of
peasantry during early
years of British rule,
along with the loss of
handicrafts Industry in
India led to formation of
new urban centres and
ruralisation of many
ancient and medieval
towns in India.
Deterioration of
Agriculture- Faulty Land

in 1853 in Bombay by Cowasjee
Nanabhoy and the first jute mill
came up in 1855 in Rishra
(Bengal). But most of the
industries were foreign owned
and controlled by British
managing agencies. Hence,
option (b) is not correct. 4.
Commercialisation of Indian
Agriculture - In the latter half of
the 19th century, another
significant trend was the
emergence of the
commercialisation of agriculture.
Agriculture began to be
influenced by commercial
considerations. Certain specialised
crops began to be grown not for
consumption in the village but for
sale in the national and even
international markets.
Commercial crops like cotton,
jute, groundnut, oilseeds,
sugarcane, tobacco, etc. were
more remunerative than
foodgrains. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
revenue collection
practices, plantation
Crops cultivation with
little or no revenue for
the farmers,
transferability of land,
little spending by
Government on
improvement of land
productivity made
farmer miserable. The
peasant turned out to
be the ultimate sufferer
under the triple burden
of the Government,
zamindar and
moneylender. His
hardship increased at
the time of famine and
scarcity.
Rise of bourgeoisie class
in India - There emerged
the new class of Indian
traders, moneylenders
and bankers. But, the
colonial situation
retarded the
development of a
healthy and
independent industrial
bourgeoisie, and its
development was
different from other
independent countries
like Germany and Japan.
53 Polity If the President of India
exercises his power as
provided under Article 356 of
the Constitution of a
particular State, then
B The President acquires the
following extraordinary powers
when the President’s Rule is
imposed in a state:
1. He can take up the functions of
M F Indian polity by
M Laxmikanth,
Chapter-
Emergency
provisions
EM Covered in Open test 1
(2459)
The Parliament can
make laws on the state
subjects during which of

(a) the Assembly of the State
is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the
Legislature of that State shall
be exercisable by or under
the authority of the
Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in
that State.
(d) the President can make
laws relating to that State.
the state government and powers
vested in the governor or any
other executive authority in the
state.
2. He can declare that the powers
of the state legislature are to be
exercised by the Parliament.
3. He can take all other necessary
steps including the suspension of
the constitutional provisions
relating to any body or authority
in the state.
The state governor, on behalf of
the President, carries on the state
administration with the help of
the chief secretary of the state or
the advisors appointed by the
President. Further, the President
either suspends or dissolves the
state legislative assembly.
The Parliament passes the state
legislative bills and the state
budget.
Hence, the correct answer is (b).
the following
conditions?
1. National Emergency
2. President's Rule
3. Financial Emergency
Select the correct
given below.
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
statements with respect
to President’s Rule:
1. A proclamation
imposing President’s
rule must be approved
by both Houses of
Parliament within one
month from date of its
issue.
2. The proclamation has
to be approved by a
majority of two-third of
the members present
and voting.
3. The state assembly is
dissolved immediately
as the proclamation
takes effect.
given above are not
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

54 Current
Affairs
Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil
Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery -
Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris -
Karnataka
Which ofthe pairs given
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
A Pair 1 is correctly matched. Toda
tribe of Tamil Nadu do intricate
Pithukuli work on cream coloured
shawls. The colours are always red
and black, and the shawl can be
used both sides.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a
form of embroidery originating
from the Bhusura village of Bihar
in India.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Uppada jamdani sarees are
diaphanous silk saree that trace
its origin to Uppada in Andhra
Pradesh. Jamdani itself is a hand
woven fabric that is also known as
muslin.
D CA 1.
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/ap-toy-
makers-
upbeat-over-
gi-
tag/article199
71677.ece
2.
hehindu.com/
society/bihars
-sujani-
embroidery-
has-a-gi-tag-
but-why-does-
no-one-know-
about-
it/article2291
7781.ece
EN GI Tag given to
commodities
Open Test 4 (2520)-
pairs:
Embroidery/Weaving
Pattern State
1. Kashidakari Himachal
Pradesh
2. Sujani Bihar
3. Kantha Karnataka
matched?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
Sujani (also known as
Sujini) is a form of
embroidery originating
from the Bhusura village
of Bihar in India. In
ancient times, it was
considered as a form of
quilting where in old
sarees and dhotis were
used as the creative
canvas, the cloth was
folded twice or thrice and
then simple stitches were
done on these used
clothing to add newness
to them. Today, Sujani
embroidery is also
practiced in the southern
part of Rajasthan for
making patterns on
Sarees, dupattas and
other clothing and home
furnishing.

55 General
science and
Science &
Technology
areas can GPS technology be
used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power
grids
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D Global positioning system
applications generally fall into 5
major categories:
1. Location - determining a position
2. Navigation - getting from one
location to another
3. Tracking - monitoring object or
personal movement
4. Mapping - creating maps of the
world
5. Timing - bringing precise timing
to the world
GPS's accurate time facilitates
everyday activities such as banking,
mobile phone operations and even
the control power grids by allowing
well synchronized hand-off
switching.
M F https://www.
novatel.com/f
ocus-
pages/what-
are-gps-
systems-used-
for/
https://www.s
ciencedirect.c
om/science/ar
ticle/pii/S1877
04281302439
7
EM

statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India
manages and services
Government of India
Securities but not any State
Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by
the Government of India and
there are no treasury bills
issued by the state
Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are
issued at a discount from the
par value.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C The Reserve Bank of India
manages public debt and issues
Indian currency denominated
loans on behalf of the central and
the state governments under the
powers derived from the Reserve
Bank of India Act. The RBI is the
debt manager for both the Central
Government and the State
Governments. RBI manages the
debt of state governments on the
basis of separate agreements.
Treasury bills or T-bills, which are
money market instruments, are
short term debt instruments
issued by the Government of India
and are presently issued in three
tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day
and 364 day. Treasury bills are
zero coupon securities and pay no
interest. They are issued at a
discount and redeemed at the
face value at maturity. For
example, a 91 day Treasury bill of
₹100/- (face value) may be issued
at say ₹ 98.20, that is, at a
discount of say, ₹1.80 and would
be redeemed at the face value of
₹100/-. The return to the
investors is the difference
between the maturity value or the
face value (that is ₹100). Hence,
statement 2 and 3 are also
correct.
M FCA https://www.r
bi.org.in/com
monman/engli
sh/scripts/FA
Qs.aspx?Id=71
1
https://m.rbi.
org.in/scripts/
PublicationsVi
ew.aspx?id=9
483
EM RBI recently allowed
foreign investors to
invest in T-bills.
PT - 365
Test (2456)- Which of the
following measure result in
an increase in money
supply in the Indian
economy?
1. Sale of government
security by the Central
Bank to public
2. Increasing Statutory
Liquidity Ratio by the
Central Bank
3. Sale of treasury bills by
the government to the
Central Bank.
below.
(a)3 only (b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only
2444-With reference to the
Treasury Bills (T-bills),
statements:
They are long-term
government bonds with
maturity of more than a
year.
They are issued at discount
and redeemed in face
value at maturity.
(a) 1 only b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. The Earth's magnetic field
has reversed every few
hundred thousand years.
C Statement 1 is correct. Earth's
magnetic field has flipped its
polarity many times over the
millennia. Magnetic Reversals are
the rule, not the exception. Earth
M FA 11th NCERT -
Fundamentals
of physical
geography
EM All India Test Series-
Test (2439)-
Which among the
following processes is
primarily responsible for

2. When the Earth was
created more than 4000
million years ago, there was
54% oxygen and no carbon
dioxide.
3. When living organisms
originated, they modified the
early atmosphere of the
Earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
has settled in the last 20 million
years into a pattern of a magnetic
pole reversal about every 200,000
to 300,000 years.
Statement 2 is not correct. When
Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago,
it had almost no atmosphere. As
Earth cooled, an atmosphere
formed mainly from gases spewed
from volcanoes. It included
hydrogen sulfide, methane, and
10 to 200 times as much carbon
dioxide as today’s atmosphere.
Statement 3 is correct. Living
organisms includes plants and
microbes. Life started to have a
major impact on the environment
once photosynthetic organisms
evolved. While photosynthetic life
reduced the carbon dioxide
content of the atmosphere, it also
started to produce oxygen. So,
when living beings originated,
they did modify the atmosphere.
flooding the atmosphere
with oxygen during the
evolution of Earth?
(a) Degassing
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Volcanic eruptions
(d) Diastrophism
There are three stages in
the evolution of the
present atmosphere. The
first stage is marked by
the loss of primordial
atmosphere. In the
second stage, the hot
interior of the earth
contributed to the
evolution of the
atmosphere. Finally, the
composition of the
atmosphere was modified
by the living world
through the process of
photosynthesis. Oceans
began to have the
contribution of oxygen
through the process of
photosynthesis.
Eventually, oceans were
saturated with oxygen,
and 2,000 million years
ago, oxygen began to
flood the atmosphere.
Hence, option b is
correct.
58 Current
Affairs
The terms 'WannaCry, Petya
and EternalBlue' sometimes
mentioned in the news
recently are related to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
C The WannaCry ransomware attack
was a May 2017 worldwide
cyberattack by the WannaCry
ransomware cryptoworm, which
targeted computers running the
Microsoft Windows operating
system by encrypting data and
demanding ransom payments in
hehindu.com/
news/cities/b
angalore/wan
nacry-impact-
on-india-
under-
reported/artic
in news.
PT-365 Science and
Technology page 46
Test (2436)-
WannaCry, recently
seen in news, is a
(a) nerve gas used in
chemical warfare.

the Bitcoin cryptocurrency. It
propagated through EternalBlue,
an exploit in older Windows
systems released by The Shadow
Brokers a few months prior to the
attack.
Petya is a family of encrypting
ransomware that was first
discovered in 2016. The malware
targets Microsoft Windows-based
systems, infecting the master
boot record to execute a payload
that encrypts a hard drive's file
system table and prevents
Windows from booting. It
subsequently demands that the
user make a payment in Bitcoin in
order to regain access to the
system.
le20542868.ec
e
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/technolo
gy/petrwrap-
ransomware-
attack-what-
we-know-so-
far/article191
59142.ece
(b)malicious software
that locks a device and
then demands a ransom
to unlock it.
(c)digital asset designed
to work as a medium of
exchange using
cryptography.
(d)virtual game which
has led to several
suicidal deaths.
59 Environment With reference to the
circumstances in Indian
agriculture, the concept of
"Conservation Agriculture"
assumes significance. Which
of the following fall under
the Conservation
Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture
practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of
plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to
cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and
temporal crop
sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answre
(a) 1, 3 and 4
C Conservation Agriculture is a set of
soil management practices that
minimize the disruption of the soil's
structure, composition and natural
biodiversity. Despite high variability
in the types of crops grown and
specific management regimes, all
forms of conservation agriculture
share three core principles. These
include:
maintenance of permanent or
semi-permanent soil cover (using
either a previous crop residue or
specifically growing a cover crop
for this purpose);
minimum soil disturbance through
tillage (just enough to get the seed
into the ground) ;
regular crop rotations to help
combat the various biotic
constraints;
CA also uses or promotes where
M FCA http://conserv
ationagricultu
re.mannlib.cor
nell.edu/page
s/aboutca/wh
atisca.html
RR Seen in news

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
possible or needed various
management practices listed below:
utilization of green manures/cover
crops (GMCC's) to produce the
residue cover;
no burning of crop residues;
integrated disease and pest
management;
controlled/limited human and
mechanical traffic over agricultural
soils.
When these CA practices are used
by farmers one of the major
environmental benefits is reduction
in fossil fuel use and greenhouse
gas (GHG) emissions. But they also
reduce the power/energy needs of
farmers who use manual or animal
powered systems.
60 Current
Affairs
The term "sixth mass
extinction/sixth extinction" is
often mentioned in the news
in the context of the
discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture
practices in agriculture and
large-scale commercial
farming with indiscriminate
use of chemicals in many
parts of the world that may
result in the loss of good
native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible
collision of a meteorite with
the Earth in the near future
in the mannere it happened
65 million years ago that
caused the mass extinction
of many species including
those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of
D Scientists have warned that the
sixth mass extinction of life on
Earth is unfolding more quickly
than feared. Wildlife is dying out
due to habitat destruction,
overhunting, toxic pollution,
invasion by alien species and
climate change. The ultimate
cause of all of these factors is
human overpopulation and
continued population growth, and
overconsumption.
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/tp-
national/earth
-facing-sixth-
mass-
extinction/arti
cle19260792.e
ce
EN Has been often seen
in news.
Current Affairs Monthly
Magazine July 2017,
Page 47

genetically modified crops in
many parts of the world and
promoting their cultivation in
other parts of the world
which may cause the
disappearance of good
native crop plants and the
loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind's over-
exploitation/misuse of
natural resources,
framentation/loss of natural
habitats, destruction of
ecosystems, pollution and
global climate change.
61 Current
Affairs
With reference to the Indian
Regional Navigation Satellite
A Statement 1 is correct: The space
segment consists of the IRNSS
M CA https://www.isro.g
ov.in/irnss-
E
N
Has frequently been
in news.
PT-365 Science and
Technology page 11

System (IRNSS), consider the
1. IRNSS has three satellites
in geostationary and four
satellites in geosynchronous
orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India
and about 5500 sq. km
beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own
satellite navigation system
with full global coverage by
the middle of 2019.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
constellation of Seven satellites,
NavIC. Three satellites are located
in suitable orbital slots in the
geostationary orbit and the
remaining four are located in
geosynchronous orbits with the
required inclination and
equatorial crossings in two
different planes.
Statement 2 is not correct: IRNSS
is an independent regional
navigation satellite system being
developed by India. It is designed
to provide accurate position
information service to users in
India as well as the region
extending up to 1500 km from its
boundary, which is its primary
service area. An Extended Service
Area lies between primary service
area and area enclosed by the
rectangle from Latitude 30 deg
South to 50 deg North, Longitude
30 deg East to 130 deg East.
Statement 3 is not correct: India
will not have its own satellite
navigation system with full global
coverage by the middle of 2019.
programme
du.com/sci-
tech/science/irnss-
1i-up-in-orbit-
completes-
navigation-
fleet/article235086
03.ece
Open Test 2517:
statements is/are
correct with reference
to India’s regional
navigation satellite
system NavIC?
1. It is a constellation of
five satellites.
2. All the satellites are
located in the
geostationary orbit.
3. It can provide
accurate position
information to users in
the region extending up
to 1500 km from India's
boundary.
Select the correct
given below.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1 only
62 General
science and
Science &
Technology
statements:
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly
expanding.
3. Matter warps its
surrounding space-time.
the prediction/predictions of
Albert Einstein's General
Theory of Relativity, often
discussed in media?
D General relativity predicted
radical things, such as that light is
deflected by gravity. It also
predicted black holes. It showed
that space and time are malleable
or flexible, and ever expanding.
Which basically predicted that our
universe was ever expanding.
D FCA http://indianexpres
s.com/article/explai
ned/a-theory-is-
validated-
revelations-are-
promised-indian-
ligo-rolls-4873162/
E
N
Ligo detector,
Stephen Hawking

63 Current
Affairs
Genetically Modified
mustard (GM mustard)
developed in India, consider
1. GM mustard has the genes
of a soil bacterium that give
the plant the property of
pest-resistance to a wide
variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes
that allow the plant cross-
pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been
developed jointly by the IARI
and Punjab Agricultural
University.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
B Statement 1 is not correct and
statement 2 is correct: According
to the developers, the GM
mustard uses a system of genes
from soil bacterium that makes
the plant better suited to
hybridisation than current
methods.
GM mustard was developed by
Delhi University-based Centre for
Genetic Manipulation of Crop
Plants (CGMCP) under the
leadership of Deepak Pental, a
former vice-chancellor of the
university.
M CA http://indianexpress
.com/article/india/g
m-genetically-
modified-mustard-
gets-geac-genetic-
engineering-
appraisal-
committee-nod-for-
cultivation-4651857/
https://www.indiati
mes.com/news/indi
a/mustard-is-all-set-
to-become-the-first-
genetically-
modified-food-in-
india-here-s-what-it-
means-321439.html
http://envfor.nic.in/
sites/default/files/pr
ess-
releases/Final_FAQs
_GMM_website1.pd
f
E
N
Has frequently been
in news as cleared for
commercial
cultivation by the
Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee.
64 Current
Affairs
Terms sometimes see in
news Context/Topic
1. Belle II experiment -
Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology -
Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle
Physics
matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B The Belle II experiment is a
particle physics experiment
designed to study the properties
of B mesons (heavy particles
containing a bottom quark). Belle
II is the successor to the Belle
experiment, and is currently being
commissioned at the SuperKEKB
accelerator complex at KEK in
Tsukuba, Ibaraki Prefecture,
Japan.
Blockchain technology can be
integrated into multiple areas.
The primary use of blockchains
today is as a distributed ledger for
cryptocurrencies, most notably
E CA http://www.thehin
du.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/global-
collaboration-
project-belle-ii-
moves-a-step-
forward/article179
39571.ece
du.com/business/E
conomy/use-of-
blockchain-beyond-
cryptocurrencies/ar
ticle23638320.ece
E
N
These terms have
been seen frequently
in news.
Test (2454)-
With regard to
Blockchain technology,
statements:
1. It is a digital public
ledger that records
every transaction.
2. It eliminates the need
for a third party for
conducting transactions.
3. Bitcoin is one of the
popular applications of
this technology.

bitcoin. While a few central banks,
in countries and regions such as
India, China, Hong Kong, United
States, Sweden, Singapore, South
Africa and the United Kingdom
are studying issuance of a Central
Bank Issued Cryptocurrency
(CICC).
CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome editing
tool. It is short for clustered
regularly interspaced short
palindromic repeats and CRISPR-
associated protein 9.
du.com/sci-
tech/science/what-
is-genome-
editing/article1948
1402.ece
given above is/are
correct?
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 only
(d)1,2 and 3
statements best describes
A The carbon fertilization effect
(CFE) is in principle simple: the
M FCA http://environ
mentalresearc
RR Seen in news

"carbon fertilization"?
(a) Increased plant growth
due to increased
concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of
Earth due to increased
(c) Increased acidity of
oceans as a result of
increased concentration of
carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living
beings on Earth to the
climate change brought
about by the increased
larger amount of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere that has
resulted from rising
anthropogenic emissions should
help the growth of plants, which
use carbon dioxide during
photosynthesis. The effect ought
to increase crop yields.
hweb.org/cws
/article/news/
54347
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/t
ropical-
forests-
absorb-far-
more-co2-
than-thought-
nasa/article67
48208.ece
66 General
science and
Science &
Technology
When the alarm of your
smartphone rings in the
morning, you wake up and
tap it to stop the alarm
which causes your geyser to
be switched on
automatically. The smart
mirror in your bathroom
shows the day's weather and
also indicates the level of
water in your overhead tank.
After you take some
groceries from your
refrigerator for making
breakfast, it recognises the
shortage of stock in it and
places an order for the
supply of fresh grocery
items. When you step out of
your house and lock the
B What Is The Internet Of Things?
The Internet of Things, or IoT,
refers to billions of physical
devices around the world that are
now connected to the internet,
collecting and sharing data.
This can be anything from
cellphones, coffee makers,
washing machines, headphones,
lamps, wearable devices and
almost anything else you can think
of.
How Does This Impact You?
There are many examples for
what this might look like or what
the potential value might be. Say
for example you are on your way
to a meeting; your car could have
access to your calendar and
already know the best route to
E FA https://www.f
orbes.com/sit
es/jacobmorg
an/2014/05/1
3/simple-
explanation-
internet-
things-that-
anyone-can-
understand/#
62b751471d0
9
https://www.z
dnet.com/arti
cle/what-is-
the-internet-
of-things-
everything-
you-need-to-
know-about-
EN Constantly in news All India Test Series-
Test (2458)
With reference to
'Internet of Things',
sometimes seen in
news, consider the
1. It is a network of
physical devices
connected via internet.
2. It can enable
connected devices to
communicate with each
other with limited
human intervention.
given above is/are
correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only

door, all lights, fans, geysers
and AC machines get
switched off automatically.
On your way to office, your
car warns you about traffic
congestion ahead and
suggests an alternative
route, and if you are late for
a meeting, it sends a
message to your office
accordingly
In the context of emerging
communication
technologies, which one of
the following terms best
applies to the above
scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
take. If the traffic is heavy your
car might send a text to the other
party notifying them that you will
be late. What if your alarm clock
wakes up you at 6 a.m. and then
notifies your coffee maker to start
brewing coffee for you?
What is an example of an Internet
of Things device?
A lightbulb that can be switched
on using a smartphone app is an
IoT device, as is a motion sensor
or a smart thermostat in your
office or a connected streetlight.
An IoT device could be as fluffy as
a child's toy or as serious as a
driverless truck.At an even bigger
scale, smart cities projects are
filling entire regions with sensors
to help us understand and control
the environment.
the-iot-right-
now/
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
PT-- 365 2018, S&T p.g.
43
67 CA/General
awareness
With reference to solar
power production in India,
statements:
1. India is the third largest in
the world in the manufacture
of silicon wafers used in
photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are
determined by the Solar
Energy Corporation of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D Statement 1 is not correct.
Manufacture of solar panels (also
called modules) start with
polysilicon, which is made from
silicon. Polysilicon is made into
ingots, which are cut into wafers.
Cells are made with wafers and a
string of cells is a module. Today,
only modules and cells are made
in India, with imported material.
At present, the only incentives
available for manufacturing these
is the Modified-Special Incentive
Package Scheme, which is
available to all electronic goods
manufacturers and implemented
by the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology, but there
have been few takers for the
hehindubusin
essline.com/e
conomy/macr
o-
economy/indi
an-solar-cells-
and-modules-
manufacture-
obsolete-says-
mnre/article9
995814.ece
mictimes.india
times.com/ind
ustry/energy/
power/solar-
power-tariff-
drops-to-
news

scheme.
Statement 2 is not correct. "Solar
Energy Corporation of India ltd"
(SECI) is a CPSU under the
administrative control of the
Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy (MNRE). It aims to become
the leader in development of
large scale solar installations,
solar plants and solar parks and to
promote and commercialize the
use of solar energy to reach
remotest corner of India. It also
explores new technologies and
their deployment to harness solar
energy.
Solar Power tariffs are determined
either through the regulations of
Central Electricity Regulatory
Commission/State Electricity
Regulatory Commission or
through competitive bidding.
historic-low-
at-rs-2-44-per-
unit/articlesho
w/58649942.c
ms
http://www.s
eci.co.in/web-
data/docs/FA
Q.pdf
68 Modern
History
The staple commodities of
export by the English East
Indian Company from Bengal
in the middle of the 18th
century were
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and
opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold,
spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and
opium
D Cotton, raw silk, saltpetre, opium
were the major commodities
exported from Bengal by the
English East India Company.
M F OLd NCERT
Bipin Chandra
EM
69 Modern
History
a very significant aspect of
the Champaran Satyagraha?
(a) Active all-India
participation of lawyers,
students and women in the
C Champaran Satyagraha of 1917
opened a new phase in the
national movement by joining it to
the great struggle of the Indian
peasantry for bread and land.It
was the first peasant movement
E F Old NCERT
Bipin Chandra
xpress.com/ar
ticle/opinion/c
olumns/celebr
EM Champaran
Satyagraha
completed 100 years
in 2017.
PT 365 Culture Page 25
Test (2455)-
satyagraha of Gandhiji
was the first act of civil

National Movement
(b) Active involvement of
Dalit and Tribal communities
of India in the National
Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest
to India's National
Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the
cultivation of plantation
crops and commercial crops
to have garnered nationwide
attention. The Champaran
Satyagraha yoked the peasant
unrest to the freedom struggle.
Subsequently, Gandhi’s localised
movements in Ahmedabad (for
mill workers) and Kheda (where
he supported distressed peasants)
were, in a sense, the training
grounds for the massive
nationwide protests after the
landmark year of 1919 all of which
eventually contributed to the
liberation of India from the
inglorious British rule.
ating-
champaran-
satyagraha-of-
1917-british-
rule-indian-
freedom-
movement-
4628343/
hehindu.com/
news/cities/D
elhi/champara
n-satyagraha-
was-a-new-
phase-in-
freedom-
fight/article18
192945.ece
disobedience in India?
(a) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(b) Champaran
Satyagraha
(c) Kheda Satyagraha
(d) Bardoli Satyagraha
2433- With reference to
the Champaran
Satyagraha, which of the
following statements are
correct ?
1. Its aim was to abolish
tinkathiya system.
2. Raj Kumar Shukla
persuaded Mahatma
Gandhi to visit
Champaran.
3. Rajendra Prasad and
J.B. Kriplani were
associated with this
movement.
Select the answer using
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Champaran Satyagraha
was Gandhiji's first act
of Civil Disobedience in
India.
Gandhiji was requested
by Rajkumar Shukla to
look into the problems
of indigo cultivators of
Champaran in Bihar. The
European planters had
been forcing the
peasants to grow indigo

on 3/20 of the total land
(called tinkathia
system). The European
planters demanded high
rents and illegal dues
from the peasants in
order to maximise their
profits before the
peasants could shift to
other crops. Besides, the
peasants were forced to
sell the produce at
prices fixed by the
Europeans.
Government appointed
a committee to look into
the matter and Gandhiji
was nominated as a
member. Gandhiji had
won the first battle of
civil disobedience in
India.
70 Post-
Independenc
e
were the founders of the
"Hind Mazdoor Sabha"
established in 1948?
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S.
Namboodiripad and K.C.
George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan,
DeenDayal Upadhyay and
M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K.
Kamaraj and
VeeresalingamPantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S.
Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta
D The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) is
a National Trade Union Centre in
India. It was founded in Hawrah
on 24.12.1948 by Socialist,
Forward Bloc follower and
independent unionists. Its
founders included Basawan Singh
(Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S.
Ruikar, Mani Benkara,
ShibnathBenerajee, R.K.
Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, VS.
Mathur, G.G. Mehta. Mr. R.S.
Ruikar was elected president and
Ashok Mehta as its General
Secretary. The HMS absorbed the
Royists Indian Federation of
Labour and the Socialist Hind
Mazdoor Panchayat. The Hind
D FCA http://www.hi
ndmazdoorsa
bha.com/abou
t-
hms.phphttp:/
/shodhganga.i
nflibnet.ac.in/
bitstream/106
03/55578/18/
18_chapter%2
011.pdfhttp://
www.thehind
u.com/todays-
paper/tp-
national/tp-
kerala/CMPrs
quos-trade-
union-merges-
RR Labour unions up in
arms against
proposed
amendments to
Industrial Disputes
Act

Mazdoor Sabha was intended to
be a third force in Indian trade
unionism, balancing between
INTUC on one side and AITUC on
the other. INTUC was discarded
because it was believed to be
under the control of the
government and AITUC was
rejected because it was controlled
by the Communist Party. The
independence of trade unions
from the Government, the
employers and political parties is
the basic feature of HMS..
with-Hind-
Mazdoor-
Sabha/article1
4782648.eceh
ttp://indianex
press.com/arti
cle/cities/mu
mbai/labour-
unions-up-in-
arms-against-
proposed-
amendments-
to-industrial-
disputes-act/
71 Art and
Culture
Which reference to the
religious practices in India,
the "Sthanakvasi" sect
belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
B Sthānakavāsī is a sect of
Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a
merchant named Lavaji in 1653
AD. It believes that idol worship is
not essential in the path of soul
purification and attainment of
Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is
essentially a reformation of the
one founded on teachings of
Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain
reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept
thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the
Śvētāmbara canon.
M FCA https://timeso
findia.indiatim
es.com/city/h
yderabad/jain
s-chant-
navkar-
manthra-36-
lakh-times-
for-world-
peace/articles
how/5962007
3.cms
EN Nearly 5000 Jains had
assembled at a place
in Ranigunj and
chanted
"NavkarNearly 5000
Jains had assembled
at a place in
Ranigunj(Secunderab
ad) and chanted
"NavkarManthra" for
36 lakh times for
world peace on July
16,2017 under the
aegis of Shri
Vardhaman
Sthanakvasi Jain
Shravak Sangh
Secunderabad.
NavkarManthra is to
Jains what Gayatri
Manthra is to Hindus
- a highly revered and
the most significant
mantra in Jainism.
72 Art and
Culture
cultural history of India,
A Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is
the most iconic architectural
hehindu.com/
EN To check basic factual
knowledge about

statements:
1. White marble was used in
making Buland Darwaza and
Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble
were used in making Bara
Imambara and Rumi
Darwaza at Lucknow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It
incorporates almost all the essential
features of Akbar’s architectural
traditions: red sandstone, stone
carvings, relief by inserting white
marble, etc. This monumental gate,
however, was probably less intended
to commemorate a military victory
than to underscore Akbar’s links with
the Chishti order. Its surface is
covered by marble slabs inscribed
with Quranic verses promising
paradise to true believers,
appropriate for the entrance into a
khanqah, a complex intended for
meditation and devotion.
AsafiImambara, or Bara Imambara,
of Lucknow was built to give
employment and revenue to the
public. Resources were strained, a
peak had been reached in
architectural style, and a certain
decadence had crept in. To overcome
these, the Nawabs used a more
economical style in architecture,
which also gave a touch of lightness
to the buildings.
Instead of stones and marble, brick
and lime were used. Stucco
ornamentation (gajkari) was used to
decorate the monuments, giving it a
deep relief effect even on flat walls.
Mother of pearl and shells deposited
in lake beds were used in the stucco
ornamentation to give a shine finer
than marble.
The local masons cleverly used the
brick, with its small size and
thickness, to form remarkably fine
details on the wall and column
surfaces. It’s a testimony to their skill
that they could adapt lowly material
to such wonderful effect: balusters
were imitated in clay supported on
opinion/colum
ns/buland-
darwaza-and-
rumi-darwaza-
gateways-to-
heaven/article
19700177.ece
Indian Culture and
heritage.

iron rods. Similarly, pottery was used
for roof finials and ornaments. This
skill can be seen in the delicately
built Rumi Darwaza that was the
main gateway to the Bara Imambara.
It was called so because the design of
the structure bears resemblance to an
ancient gateway at Constantinople.
It’s also called the “Turkish Gateway”.
The word Rumi means Roman, and
the name was probably given due to
the gateway’s design having traces of
Roman architecture.
73 Medieval
India
foreign travellers elaborately
discussed about diamonds
and diamond mines of India?
(a) Francois Bernier
B The Hope Diamond, said to be
mined in the Kollur mines in
Andhra Pradesh, and acquired by
French gem merchant, Jean-
Baptiste Tavernier, in 1666. It is
D FCA http://www.t
hehindu.com/l
ife-and-
style/secret-
lives-of-
EN

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
unclear as to how the merchant
got the diamond, but according to
the Smithsonian, Tavernier
purchased the 112 3/16 carat
diamond who then sold it to
French King Louis XIV of France.
indian-
jewels/article2
2377010.ece
https://www.t
henewsminut
e.com/article/
it-
isn%E2%80%9
9t-just-about-
koh-i-noor-
precious-
diamonds-
golconda-
india-lost-
42100
74 Art and
Culture
Which reference to Indian
history, who among the
following is a future Buddha,
yet to come to save the
world?
(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maityera
(d) Padmapani
C The universe of the Great Vehicle
contains numerous Bodhisattvas,
chief of whom, from the earthly
point of view, is Avalokiteshwar
("The Lord who Looks Down"),
also called Padmapani ("The
Lotus-Bearer") also called
Lokesvara in Sanskrit ( The Lord
of the World). His special
attribute is compassion, and his
helping hand reaches even to
Avici, the deepest and most
unpleasant of the Buddhist
purgatories. Another important
Bodhisattva isManjusri, whose
special activity is to stimulate the
understanding, and who is
depicted with a naked sword in
one hand, to destroy error and
falsehood, and a book in the
other, describing the ten
paramilas, or great spiritual
perfections, which are the
cardinal virtues developed by
Bodhisattvas. Vajrapani, a sterner
M F AL Basham's
"Wonder That
Was India"
Chapter-
Religion: cults,
doctrines and
metaphysics,
pg 276
RM To check indepth
knowledge of
religious philosophies
Art & Culture 10 Year's
Prelims Analysis
https://goo.gl/kTTcxD

Bodhi¬ sattva, is the foe of sin
and evil, and, like the god Indra,
bears a thunderbolt in his hand.
The gentle Maitreya, the future
Buddha, is worshipped as a
Bodhisattva. Also worthy of
mention is Ksitigarbha, the
guardian of the purgatories, who
is thought of not as a fierce
torturer, but rather as the
governor of a model prison, doing
his best to make life tolerable for
his charges, and helping them to
earn remission of sentence.
75 Modern
History
statements does not apply to
the system of Subsidiary
Alliance introduced by Lord
Wellesley?
(a) To maintain a large
standing army at other's
expense
(b) To keep India safe from
Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income
for the Company
(d) To establish British
paramountcy over the Indian
States
C The Company forced the states
into a “subsidiary alliance”.
According to the terms of this
alliance, Indian
rulers were not allowed to have
their independent armed forces.
They were to be protected by the
Company, but had to pay for the
“subsidiary forces” that the
Company was supposed to
maintain for the purpose of this
protection. If the Indian rulers
failed to make the payment, then
part of their territory was taken
away as penalty. During this
phase, from 1813 to 1857, the
British made almost all the Indian
States subordinate to their power,
by compelling them to enter into
subsidiary alliances with them.
The Indian Princes were put under
obligation to accept the British
Paramountcy.
Napoleonic invasion of Egypt in
the summer of 1798 offered
Wellesly a useful tool to soften
M F BL GROVER -
Ch 10 - Lord
BL GROVER -
Ch 10 - Lord
Wellesley
Shekhar
Bandopadhya
ya'Plassey to
Partition' -
Page 51
Test (2442)-
Policy of Subsidiary
Alliance, consider the
1. Indian rulers were not
allowed to employ any
European without
approval of the British.
2. The rulers of Indian
states were compelled
to accept permanent
stationing of British
troops.
3. British promised not
to interfere in the
internal affairs of the
State.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

London's resistance to expansion,
although he never believed for a
moment that there was any
danger of a French invasion of
British India either over land from
Egypt or a naval attack round the
Cape of Good Hope. However, to
assuage London's concerns he
evolved the policy of 'Subsidiary
Alliance', which would only
establish control over the internal
affairs of an Indian state, without
incurring any direct imperial
liability.
There was no component of fixed
income under this system.
Explanation:
Policy of Subsidiary
Alliance introduced with
the chief aim to expand
the British empire in
India. While the practice
of helping an Indian
ruler with a paid British
force was quite old, it
was given definite shape
by Welleseley who used
it to sub-ordinate the
Indian states to the
paramount authority of
the company.
76 Modern
History
Which of the following led to
the introduction of English
Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of
Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist
Controversy.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D CHARTER ACT OF 1813: The Act
incorporated the principle of
encouraging learned Indians and
promoting knowledge of modern
sciences in the country. The Act
directed the. Company to sanction
one lakh rupees annually for this
purpose. However, even this petty
amount was not made available
till 1823, mainly because of the
controversy raged on the question
of the direction that this
expenditure should take. In 1823,
the Governor-General-in Council
appointed a “General Committee
of Public Instruction”, which had
the responsibility to grant the one
lakh of rupees for education. That
committee consisted of 10(ten)
European members belonging to 2
groups Anglicists and Orientalists.
Hence, it promoted both Indian
and english education.
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST
E F Spectrum -
291-292
EM

CONTROVERSY: Within the
General Committee on Public
Instruction, the Anglicists argued
that the government spending on
education should be exclusively
for modern studies. The.
Orientalists said while western
sciences and literature should be
taught to prepare students to take
up jobs, emphasis should be
placed on expansion of traditional
Indian learning. Even the
Anglicists were divided over the
question of medium of
instruction—one faction was for
English language as the medium,
while the other faction was for
Indian languages (vernaculars) for
the purpose. Lord Macaulay's
Minute (1835), This famous
minute settled the row in favour
of Anglicists—the limited
government resources were to be
devoted to teaching of western
sciences and literature through
the medium of English language
alone.
77 Geography Which one of the following is
an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal
Pradesh)
A Kodaikanal Lake, also known as
Kodai Lake is a manmade lake
located in the Kodaikanal city in
Dindigul district in Tamilnadu,
India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the
then Collector of Madurai, was
instrumental in creating the lake
in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal
town which was developed by the
British and early missionaries
from USA.
M CAA ATLAS
hehindu.com/
todays-
paper/private-
firm-to-
maintain-
kodaikanal-
lake-
road/article21
246412.ece
EN Kodaikanal lake was
in news
78 Current
Affairs/
With reference to Pradhan
Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana,
C Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas
Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship
M CA http://pmkvyo
fficial.org/faq.
news
PT-365 Government
Schemes p.g. 93

Schemes consider the following
statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of
the Ministry of Labor and
Employment.
2. It, among other things, will
also impart training in soft
skills, entrepreneurship,
financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the
competencies of the
unregulated workforce of
the country to the National
Skill Qualification
Framework.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
scheme of the Ministry of Skill
Development & Entrepreneurship
(MSDE).
The Short Term Training imparted
at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is
expected to benefit candidates of
Indian nationality who are either
school/college dropouts or
unemployed. Apart from
providing training according to the
National Skills Qualification
Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also
impart training in Soft Skills,
Entrepreneurship, Financial and
Digital Literacy.
php?cat_id=4
6
Test (2449)-
statements with respect
to Pradhan Mantri
Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(PMKVY):
1. It intends to recognize
the knowledge acquired
and skills equipped by
the participants through
certification.
2. Persons from both
organized and
unorganized sectors can
join the scheme.
3. It is being
implemented by
National Skill
Development
Corporation.
given above is/are
correct?
(a)1 only(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
79 Modern
History
In 1920, which of the
following changed its name
to "Swarajya Sabha"?
(a) All India Home Rule
League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal
Federation
(d) The Servants of India
Society
A Gandhi had become the president
of the All India Home Rule League
in 1920. Its name was changed to
'Swaraj Sabha'
D F https://books.g
oogle.co.in/bo
oks?id=w_cAD
gAAQBAJ&pg=
PT256&lpg=PT
256&dq=Gand
hi+had+becom
e+the+preside
nt+of+the+All+
India+Home+R
ule+League+in
+1920.+Its+na
me+was+chang
ed+to+%27Swa
RR

raj+Sabha%27
&source=bl&ot
s=c33apPsTrC&
sig=cTuNw_Ng
Y86vPq3vHP0L
N2_xPr4&hl=e
n&sa=X&ved=0
ahUKEwj_2f2ip
LrbAhXEXSsKH
Q4hCMIQ6AEI
UjAD#v=onepa
ge&q=Gandhi%
20had%20beco
me%20the%20
president%20o
f%20the%20All
%20India%20H
ome%20Rule%
20League%20i
n%201920.%20
Its%20name%2
0was%20chang
ed%20to%20'S
waraj%20Sabh
a'&f=falsehttps
://books.googl
e.co.in/books?i
d=ZUtSDwAAQ
BAJ&pg=PT74&
dq=swarajya+s
abha&hl=en&s
a=X&ved=0ahU
KEwinwanrrrzb
AhWMM48KH
TgbATwQ6AEIL
DAB#v=onepag
e&q=swarajya
%20sabha&f=f
alse

80 Modern
History
events happened earliest?
(a) Swami dayanand
established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote
Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay wrote
Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore
became the first Indian to
succeed in the Indian Civil
Services Examination.
B 1. Swami Dayanand established
Arya Samaj - 1875
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote
Neeldarpan - 1858-59
3. Bankim Chandra
Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
- 1882
4. Satyendranath Tagore became
the first Indian to succeed in the
Indian Civil Services Examination –
1863
D F SPECTRUM EM
81 Environment Which of the following is/are
the possible consequence/s
of heavy sand mining in river
beds?
B Excessive instream sand-and-
gravel mining causes the
degradation of rivers. Instream
mining lowers the stream bottom,
M FCA http://www.in
ternationaljou
rnalssrg.org/IJ
GGS/2017/Vol
RR Govt launches a
‘Sand Mining
Framework’ to check
illegal mining.

1. Decreased salinity in the
river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-
table
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
which may lead to bank erosion.
Depletion of sand in the
streambed and along coastal
areas causes the deepening of
rivers and estuaries, and the
enlargement of river mouths and
coastal inlets. It may also lead to
saline-water intrusion from the
nearby sea. The effect of mining is
compounded by the effect of sea
level rise. Any volume of sand
exported from streambeds and
coastal areas is a loss to the
system.
Excessive instream sand mining is
a threat to bridges, river banks
and nearby structures. Sand
mining also affects the adjoining
groundwater system and the uses
that local people make of the
river.
Sand aquifer helps in recharging
the water table and sand mining
causes sinking of water tables in
the nearby areas, , drops leaving
the drinking water wells on the
embankments of these rivers dry.
Turbidity increases at the mining
site.
ume4-
Issue1/IJGGS-
V4I1P101.pdf
A ‘Sand Mining
Framework’ was also
launched by the Shri
Tomar. This
Framework has been
prepared by the
Ministry of Mines
from the study
conducted on sand
mining in various
States and intensive
consultations with
institutions like
National Council for
Cement and Building
Materials (NCCBM),
Cement Manufacture
Association (CMA),
Public and other
stakeholders while
preparing the sand
mining framework.
The suggestions in
the Framework will
provide a roadmap to
the States helping
them to frame their
policies and act as a
check on illegal
mining of sand.
http://pib.nic.in/newsit
e/PrintRelease.aspx?reli
d=177717
http://www.thehindu.c
om/business/Economy/
government-launches-
sand-mining-
framework/article2330
2652.ece
The news appeared
on PIB and Hindu

82 Environment With reference to
agricultural soils, consider
1. A high content of organic
matter in soil drastically
reduces its water holding
capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role
in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of
time can contribute to the
salinization of some
agricultural lands.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B Organic matter affects both the
chemical and physical properties
of the soil and its overall health.
Properties influenced by organic
matter include: soil structure;
moisture holding capacity;
diversity and activity of soil
organisms, both those that are
beneficial and harmful to crop
production; and nutrient
availability. Increased levels of
organic matter and associated
soil fauna lead to greater pore
space with the immediate result
that water infiltrates more
readily and can be held in the
soil. The improved pore space is a
consequence of the bioturbating
activities of earthworms and
other macro-organisms and
channels left in the soil by
decayed plant roots.
Sulfur is one of three nutrients
that are cycled between the soil,
plant matter and the
atmosphere. The sulfur cycle
describes the movement of sulfur
through the atmosphere, mineral
and organic forms, and through
living things. Although sulfur is
primarily found in sedimentary
rocks, it is particularly important
to living things because it is a
component of many proteins.
Sulfur is released by weathering of
rocks and minerals. Water,
temperature and chemical
reactions break down minerals
releasing their component
elements. Once sulfur is exposed
M FA http://www.fa
o.org/docrep/
009/a0100e/a
0100e08.htm
ertilesoilsoluti
ons.com/soilw
ater-
science/how-
the-sulfur-
cycle-works-
in-crop-
nutrition/
o.org/tempref
/agl/agll/docs/
salinity_broch
ure_eng.pdf
RR

to the air, it combines with
oxygen, and becomes sulfate
(SO4). Plants and microbes take
up sulfate and convert it into
organic compounds. As animals
consume plants, the sulfur is
moved through the food chain
and released when organisms and
plants die and decompose.
Primary salinization occurs
naturally where the soil parent
material is rich in soluble salts, or
in the presence of a shallow saline
groundwater table. In arid and
semiarid regions, where rainfall is
insufficient to leach soluble salts
from the soil, or where drainage is
restricted, soils with high
concentrations of salts (“salt-
affected soils”) may be formed.
Several geochemical processes
can also result in salt-affected soil
formation. When an excess of
sodium is involved in the
salinization process this is referred
to as sodification. Secondary
salinization occurs when
significant amounts of water are
provided by irrigation, with no
adequate provision of drainage
for the leaching and removal of
salts, resulting in the soils
becoming salty and unproductive.
Salt-affected soils reduce both the
ability of crops to take up water
and the availability of
micronutrients. They also
concentrate ions toxic to plants
and may degrade the soil
structure.

83 Environment The Partnership for Action
on Green Economy (PAGE), a
UN mechanism to assist
countries transition towards
greener and more inclusive
economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on
2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations
Conference on Sustainable
Development 2012, Rio de
Janeiro
(c) The United Nations
Framework Convention on
Climate change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable
Development Summit 2016,
New Delhi
B The Partnership for Action on
Green Economy (PAGE) was
launched in 2013 as a response to
the call at Rio+20 to support those
countries wishing to embark on
greener and more inclusive
growth trajectories.
PAGE seeks to put sustainability at
the heart of economic policies and
practices to advance the 2030
Agenda for Sustainable
Development and supports
nations and regions in reframing
economic policies and practices
around sustainability to foster
economic growth, create income
and jobs, reduce poverty and
inequality, and strengthen the
ecological foundations of their
economies.
PAGE brings together five UN
agencies – UN Environment,
International Labour Organization,
UN Development Programme, UN
Industrial Development
Organization, and UN Institute for
Training and Research – whose
mandates, expertises and
networks combined can offer
integrated and holistic support to
countries on inclusive green
economy, ensuring coherence and
avoiding duplication.
M FCA http://www.u
n-
page.org/abo
ut/who-are-
we
RR Seen in news
84 General
science and
Science &
Technology
"3D printing" has
applications in which of the
following?
1. Preparation of
confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic
ears
D 3D printing or additive
manufacturing is a process of
making three dimensional solid
objects from a digital file. The
creation of a 3D printed object is
achieved by laying down
successive layers of material until
D FA https://3dprin
ting.com/what
-is-3d-
printing/
EN Constantly in news BIO INK was mentioned
in PT 365 Science and
Tech 1.5. Page 6-7
(related)

3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing
technologies
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
the object is created. Each of
these layers can be seen as a
thinly sliced horizontal cross-
section of the eventual object.
Recently 3-D printed food
restaurant has come up in
Netherlands.
In America , 3D printed bionic ear
was generated via 3D printing of a
cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in the
anatomic geometry of a human
ear.
Industrial 3D printers have
opened new paths at each stage
of production of motor vehicles;
from the functional prototyping
phases, design, and tooling
production to parts
manufacturing, the automotive
industry is one of the pioneers in
the use and integration of 3D
printing in its processes.
3 D printing has been used in
reconstructive surgery to help
repair damaged tissue for
example in cases of birth defects
or traumatic injuries to severe
burns or disease.
3 D printing is used to produce
computer parts (such as circuit
boards) which are used in data
processing.
statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano
is an active volcano located
in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about
140 km east of Great
Nicobar.
A Barren Island is India’s only active
volcano. It is located 140kms to
the east of Port Blair (lies in South
Andaman) while Great Nicobar is
southernmost region of Andaman
& Nicobar and lies further south
of Port Blair.
The Barren Island volcano had
M CAA Atlas
hehindu.com/
news/national
/the-barren-
islandvolcano-
erupts-
again/article1
EN Barren island volcano
erupted in January
2017
Tests (2439, 2459,
2460)-
The only active volcano
under Indian territory
was in news recently.
Where is that volcano
situated?

3. The last time the Barren
Island volcano erupted was
in 1991 and it has remained
inactive since then.
(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only(d) 1 and 3
been lying dormant for more than
150 years until it saw a major
eruption in 1991. Since then it has
shown intermittent activity,
including eruptions in 1995, 2005
and 2017.
7369862.ece (a) Dhosi Hill
(b) Narcondam Island
(c) Baratang Island
(d) Barren Island
Vision Current affairs -
5.9. INDIA'S ONLY
ACTIVE VOLCANO
Feb-2017 p.g. 52
86 Environment Why is a plant called
Prosopis juliflora often
mentioned in news?
(a) Its extract is widely used
in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the
biodiversity in the area in
which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the
synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of these
B Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an
exotic tree, is one of the top
invaders in India. A native of
South and Central America, it was
introduced in India to meet the
fuel and wood requirement of the
rural poor and to restore
degraded lands. A recent study
has shown that apart from
threatening local plants, with
whom it competes for resources,
this tree is also affecting the
nesting success of birds.
E CA http://www.d
owntoearth.or
g.in/news/sile
nt-invader-
44025
c.in/ncerts/l/k
esy203.pdf
EM Often in news due to
their impact on
habitat loss
statements:
1. Most of the world's coral
reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of
the world's coral reefs are
located in the territories of
Australia, Indonesia and
Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more
number of animal phyla than
those hosted by tropical
rainforests.
D Most coral reefs are located in
tropical shallow waters less than
50 meters deep, in the western
regions of the Indian ocean,
Pacific Ocean and Greater
Caribbean.
Global distribution of corals-
Australia-17%
Indonesia-16%
Philippines-9%
So, Australia, Indonesia and
Philippines together host more
than one-third of world’s corals.
32 of the 34 recognised animal
Phyla are found on coral reefs
compared to only 9 Phyla in
tropical rainforests.
M FA https://coral.o
rg/coral-reefs-
101/coral-
reef-
ecology/geogr
aphy/
RM

88 Environment "Momentum for Change :
Climate Neutral Now" is an
initiative launched by
(a) The Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World
Meteorological Organization
C The UNFCCC secretariat launched
its Climate Neutral Now initiative
in 2015. The following year, the
secretariat launched a new pillar
under its Momentum for Change
initiative focused on Climate
Neutral Now, as part of larger
efforts to showcase successful
climate action around the world.
D F https://unfccc
.int/climate-
action/mome
ntum-for-
change/climat
e-neutral-now
RR India ratified the
Paris Agreement to
the UNFCCC in 2016.
The action plan for
implementation of
Paris Agreement and
its components is
being developed.
(IYB, page 217)
89 Modern
History
With reference to
educational institutions
during colonial rule in India,
consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras
- William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren
Hastings
3. Fort William College -
Arthur Wellesley
B 1. Pair 1 is not correctly matched
In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started
the Sanskrit College at Benares.
2. Pair 2 is correctly matched-
Calcutta Madrasa was established
by Warren Hastings in 1781 for
the study of Muslim law and
related subjects.
3. Pair 3 is not correctly matched
Fort William College was set up by
Lord Richard Wellesley in 1800 for
training of
civil servants of the Company in
languages and customs of Indians.
M F Spectrum - Ch
10 -
Development
of Education
Pg 291
EM
Regions sometimes
mentioned in news - Country
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria
Which of the pair given
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
C Catalonia is a semi-autonomous
region in north-east Spain.
Crimea was earlier part of Ukrain,
currently under Russian control.
Mindanao is in Philippines and
was in news for insurgency.
Oromia is in Ethiopia and has
been in recent news for ethnic
clashes.
M CAA ATLAS
ehindu.com/ne
ws/internation
al/all-you-
need-to-know-
about-
catalonias-
independence-
referendum/ar
ticle18984755.
ece
ehindu.com/ne
ws/internation
al/62-
earthquake-

strikes-off-
mindanao-in-
philippines/arti
cle23440664.e
ce
ehindu.com/op
inion/editorial/
the-marawi-
siege/article19
156095.ece
91 Post-
Independenc
e
events:
1. The first democratically
elected communist party
government formed in a
State in India.
2. India's then largest bank,
'Imperial Bank of India', was
renamed 'State Bank of
India'.
3. Air India was nationalised
and became the national
carrier.
4. Goa became a part of
independent India.
Which of the following is the
correct chronological
sequence of the above
events?
(a) 4 - 1 - 2 – 3
(b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
(c) 4 - 2 - 1 – 3
(d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4
B 01-08-1953 Air India nationalised
and becomes India’s national
carrier
01-07-1955 India’s largest bank
Imperial Bank of India renamed as
State Bank of India
05-04-1957 First democratically
elected Communist Party
government outside Europe gets
to power in Kerala with CPI leader
EMS Namboodiripad as the Chief
Minister
19-12-1961 Goa is officially ceded
to India after 400 years of
Portuguese rule
hehindu.com/
specials/indep
endence-day-
india-at-
70/70-years-
of-
india/article19
491975.ece
EN 70 years of India's
Independence
92 Polity Right to Privacy is protected
as an intrinsic part of Right to
Life and Personal Liberty.
Which of the following in the
Constitution of India
correctly and appropriately
C The SC in the case of KS
Puttaswamy and others vs Union
of India and others that 'Right to
Privacy' is an integral part of Right
to Life and Personal Liberty
guaranteed in Article 21 of the
hehindu.com/
news/resourc
es/supreme-
court-verdict-
on-right-to-
EN constantly in news Open test 1- 2438
are Fundamental Rights?
1. Right to Privacy
2. Right to form Political
Party

imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the
provisions under the 42nd
Amendment to the
Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the
Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the
freedoms guaranteed in Part
III
(d) Article 24 and the
provisions under the 44th
Amendment to the
Constitution
Constitution.
It added that the right to privacy
is intrinsic to the entire
fundamental rights chapter of the
Constitution.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
privacy/article
19551827.ece
3. Right to Property
4. Right to
Constitutional Remedies
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

93 Economy Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on
Economic Affairs has
announced the Minimum
Support Price for which of
the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
B The MSP is fixed on the
recommendations of the
Commission for Agricultural Costs
and Prices (CACP). The CACP is a
statutory body and submits
separate reports recommending
prices for Kharif and Rabi seasons.
Initially, MSP covered paddy, rice,
wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi
(Finger Millet), barley, gram, tur,
moong, urad, sugarcane,
groundnut, soybean, sunflower
seed, rapeseed and mustard,
cotton, jute and tobacco. From
1994-95 onwards, Nigerseed and
Sesame were included under MSP
Scheme of CACP, in addition to the
edible oilseeds already covered by
the Commission. Similarly, during
2001-2002, the government
enhanced the terms of reference of
the Commission by including lentil
(masur).
M FCA http://niti.gov
.in/writereadd
ata/files/write
readdata/files
/document_p
ublication/MS
P-report.pdf
https://cacp.d
acnet.nic.in/Vi
ewContents.as
px?Input=1&P
ageId=36&Key
Id=0
EN Frequently in News PT - 365 Updated
Material, 3.10
Page 21
94 Environment In which one of the following
States is Pakhui Wildlife
Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
A Pakhui is a Wildlife Sanctuary and
a dedicated Tiger Reserve (also
known as the Pakke Tiger
Reserve) in the district of East
Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh,
India. It has an area of over 860
square kilometres and is bordered
by the Kameng River and Pakke
River, which are important
sources of water for the animals
and the irrigation of the
vegetation. The Pakhui reserve is
neighbour to the Nameri Tiger
reserve in Assam, making this area
a true treasure trove in terms of
these spectacular animals.
This area was first declared the
Pakke Reserve Forest in July of
M F https://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/ma
gazines/panac
he/history-
amid-natural-
beauty-
tawang-in-
arunachal-
pradesh-has-
a-culture-of-
its-
own/articlesh
ow/51297423.
cms
antasticindia.o
rg/pakhui-
RR Pakhui is mainly
important from two
aspects one is tiger
reserve as it is a part
of ‘Project Tiger’ and
another hornbills.
The great hornbill is
the state bird of
Arunachal Pradesh
and is the most
valued and hunted by
tribal groups,
followed by the
Rufous-necked
hornbill. There has
been campaigns to
save hornbills.
Hornbills are

1966. Eleven years later, it was
named the Camo Sanctuary. Then,
in 2002, it was formally christened
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary and
Pakke Tiger Reserve.
wildlife-
sanctuary.htm
l
especially vulnerable
in North-east India
due to the traditional
value of these birds
for their feathers,
casques, medicinal
value of their fat and
flesh among many
tribal groups. Many
areas especially in
eastern and central
Arunachal have such
high hunting
pressure that the
great hornbill has
become extremely
rare or locally extinct.
This Tiger Reserve
has won India
Biodiversity Award
2016 in the category
of 'Conservation of
threatened species'
for its Hornbill Nest
Adoption
Programme.
Prime Minister’s
frequent visit to
North-East India and
his inauguration of
Hornbill festival has
kept the region in
news.
Orang Tiger Reserve in
Assam and Kamlang
Tiger Reserve in
Arunachal Pradesh
were notified 49th and
50th tiger reserves in
the country. (IYB page
202)

95 General
science and
Science &
Technology
With reference to India's
satellite launch vehicles,
statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellite
useful for Earth resources
monitoring whereas GSLVs
are designed mainly to
launch communication
satellites.
2. Satellites launched by
PSLV appear to remain
permanently fixed in the
same position in the sky, as
viewed from a particular
location in Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-
staged launch vehicle with
the first and third stages
using solid rocket motors;
and the second and fourth
stages using liquid rocket
engines.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
A Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle) and GSLV
(Geosynchronous Satellite Launch
Vehicle) are the satellite-launch
vehicles (rockets) developed by
ISRO.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver
the “earth-observation” or
“remote-sensing” satellites with
lift-off mass of up to about 1750
Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular
polar orbits of 600-900 Km
altitude. Apart from launching the
remote sensing satellites to Sun-
synchronous polar orbits, the
PSLV is also used to launch the
satellites of lower lift-off mass of
up to about 1400 Kg to the
elliptical Geosynchronous
Transfer Orbit (GTO).
The GSLV is designed mainly to
deliver the communication-
satellites to the highly elliptical
(typically 250 x 36000 Km)
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
(GTO).
So, statement 1 is true.
PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle) is an indigenously-
developed expendable launch
system of the ISRO (Indian Space
Research Organization). It comes
in the category of medium-lift
launchers with a reach up to
various orbits, including the Geo
Synchronous Transfer Orbit,
Lower Earth Orbit, and Polar Sun
Synchronous Orbit. So, the second
statement that satellites launched
by PSLV appear to be fixed
M FA http://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/
what-is-the-
difference-
between-gslv-
and-
pslv/article67
42299.ece
mictimes.india
times.com/def
inition/pslv
https://www.i
sro.gov.in/lau
nchers/gslv-
mk-iii
EN Constantly in news Partially covered in
Test (2437)-
is/are possible
advantages of GSLV MK-
III?
1. It can be used to carry
heavier communication
satellites into the
Geosynchronous
Transfer Orbit.
2. It can save foreign
exchange reserves of
the government.
3. It will carry
people/astronauts into
space.
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Also covered in PT 365,
page-14

(geostationary satellite) is not
true.
GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy
lift launch vehicle developed by
ISRO. The vehicle has two solid
strap-ons, a core liquid booster
and a cryogenic upper stage.
96 Economy With reference to the
governance of public sector
banking in India, consider the
1. Capital infusion into public
sector banks by the
Government of India has
decade.
2. To put the public sector
banks in order, the merger of
associate banks with the
parent State Bank of India
has been affected.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B Statement 1 is not correct as
Capital infusion into public sector
banks by the Government of India
has not steadily increased in the
last decade.
Statement 2 is correct. The
merger of SBI associated banks
under Section 35 of the State
Bank of India Act, 1955 will result
in the creation of a stronger
merged entity. This will minimize
vulnerability to any geographic
concentration risks faced by
subsidiary banks. It will create
improved operational efficiency
and economies of scale. It will also
result in improved risk
management and unified treasury
operations.
n/newsite/Prin
tRelease.aspx?
relid=158491
http://indianex
press.com/arti
cle/business/b
anking-and-
finance/10-
year-review-of-
psu-banks-
equity-return-
bank-
profitability-
fails-to-keep-
pace-with-
govt-capital-
infusion-
4765680/
https://timesof
india.indiatime
s.com/india/ce
ntre-has-
pumped-rs-2-
6-lakh-crore-
into-govt-run-
banks-over-11-
years/articlesh
ow/62974836.
cmshttps://the
wire.in/bankin
g/sbi-
associate-
merger-loss-
npas
EN Frequently observed
in News

97 Current
Affairs
Consider the following items:
1. Cereals grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing
advertising material
Which of the above items
is/are exempted under GST
(Goods and Services Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in
India was implemented on July 1,
2017. While cereals, eggs, fish etc.
are exempted from GST, the
question mentions 'cooked' and
'processed' which in all likelihood
will be available at restaurants and
factories. These are therefore not
exempted from the purview of GST.
With reference to newspapers
containing advertisements,
government has recently published
a clarification that these will be
taxed under GST.
The newspaper would have to pay 5
per cent GST on the revenue earned
from space selling but can avail of
input tax credit for the tax paid by
the advertisement agency on
commission received.
M CA https://timeso
findia.indiatim
es.com/busine
ss/faqs/gst-
faqs/list-of-
items-
exempted-
under-
gst/articlesho
w/60191945.c
ms
EN GST has been often
been in news. Also,
goverment gave a
clarification
https://timesofindia.i
ndiatimes.com/busin
ess/india-
business/govt-
clarifies-on-gst-on-
newspaper-ad-space-
sale/articleshow/601
95706.cms
98 Current
Affairs/Gener
al awareness
statements:
1. The definition of "Critical
Wildlife Habitat" is
incorporated in the Forest
Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India,
Baigas have been given
Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of
Environment, Forest and
Climate Change officially
decides and declares Habitat
Rights for Primitive and
Vulnerable Tribal Groups in
any part of India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A Statement 1 is correct: The
phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is
defined only in the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is correct: In a bid to
undo historical injustice meted
out to primitive tribal
communities living in central
India, the government of Madhya
Pradesh, for the first time,
recognised the habitat rights of
seven villages in Dindori district,
mostly inhabited by the Baigas.
Statement 3 is not correct: Under
the act the District Level
Committee shall ensure that all
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups receive habitat rights, in
consultation with the concerned
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=69806
http://www.d
owntoearth.or
g.in/news/bai
ga-tribals-
become-india-
s-first-
community-
to-get-habitat-
rights-52452
EN Critical Wildlife
Habitat guidelines
were issued
http://www.downtoe
arth.org.in/news/criti
cal-wildlife-habitat-
guidelines-issued-
ntca-order-
superseded-59934
Test (2447)-
With reference to
Critical Wildlife Habitats
(CWLHs), consider the
following statements.
1. They are declared by
the central Government
under Wildlife
2. These areas are
required to be kept as
undamaged for the
purpose of wildlife
conservation.
3. They are notified with
the consent of the Gram
Sabhas and affected
stakeholders.

traditional institutions of
Groups and their claims for
habitat rights are filed before the
concerned Gram Sabhas.
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
99 General
science and
Science &
Technology
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread
plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D Agencies like wind, water,
animals, insects, mites,
nematodes, birds etc. are the
different methods of indirect
transmissions of pathogens
causing plant disease.
M FA https://www.i
ndiaagronet.c
om/indiaagro
net/Disease_
management/
content/trans
mission_of_pl
ant_diseases.
htm
RR

100 Current
Affairs/
Schemes
With reference to organic
farming in India, consider the
1. 'The National Programme
for Organic Production'
(NPOP) is operated under
the guidelines and directions
of the Union Ministry of
Rural Development.
2. 'The Agricultural and
Processed Food Products
Export Development
Authority' (APEDA) functions
as the Secretariat for the
implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India's
first fully organic State.
given above is/are corect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B Ministry of Commerce has
implemented the National
Programme for Organic
Production (NPOP) since 2001.
Agricultural and Processed Food
Products Export Development
Authority (APEDA) functions as
the Secretariat for the
implementation of the NPOP.
Sikkim has become India’s first
fully organic state, in 2016, by
implementing organic practices on
around 75,000 hectares of
agricultural land.
D CA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15500
0
http://apeda.g
ov.in/apedaw
ebsite/organic
/organic_cont
ents/Chapter_
2.pdf
hehindu.com/
news/national
/Sikkim-
becomes-
India’s-first-
organic-
state/article13
999445.ece
news
u.com/news/national
/label-mandatory-
for-food-certified-as-
organic-from-
july/article22378459.
ece

TOPIC
Topic Number of questions
Medieval India 1
Art and Culture 6
Current Affairs 21
Current Affairs/Schemes 4
Current Affairs/ General
Awareness
6
Economy 11
Environment 11
General Science and Science
and Technology
6
Geography 9
Modern History 12
Post-Independence 2
Polity 11

DIFFICULTY
D–Difficult 28
M - Medium 55
E–Easy 17

NATURE
Current Affair
14
Applied
10
FA – Fundamental Applied 14

SOURCE TYPE
EN 51
RR 15
RM 2
EM 32
Grand Total 100

Topic Difficult Medium Easy
Medieval India 1
Art and Culture 3 3
Current Affairs/Schemes 1 3
Current Affairs/ General
Awareness
4 2
Economy 2 5 4
Environment 2 8 1
General Science and
2 3 1
Geography 2 7
Post-Independence 2
Polity 2 7 2
Copyright © by Vision IAS
photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS.

- TEAM VISION IAS
• This year the paper appeared to be on the tougher side as it was lengthy and the options framed were confusing. The themes of the questions asked seemed
relevant but required in-depth understanding and knowledge. However, the static portions like History, Polity, Geography, Economics, etc. as expected were given
due weightage.
• Questions ranged from both fundamental topics like those in Economics e.g. PPP, P-Notes; Modern history e.g. Swadeshi Movement; Geography e.g. 21st
June etc.
to unconventional sources and topics in S&T which scaled the difficulty level of this paper.
• UPSC has raised the bar and it expects the aspirants to even read the fine print. Questions like that on Compensatory Afforestation, External Debt, Glacier, Jagirdari
and Zamindari, etc. required thorough reading and deeper understanding of the static subjects.
• In the History section, this time Medieval India questions were given more weightage unlike art & culture in the previous years. However, the modern history
section was of moderate level difficulty overall.
• Environment questions unlike previous years did not focus on International climate initiatives and bodies. This year there was focus on environmental governance
issues especially which were in the news like Forest Rights Act, Environmental Protection Act, Solid Waste Management Rules, Wetland Conservation rules, etc.
• Polity questions demanded deeper understanding of the Constitution and its provisions. The options in polity questions were close and were not asked from regular
sources like Laxmikanth. The judgements of SC have been paid special emphasis this year.
• Map reading and Atlas continue to play an important role in one's preparation in Geography section. This year this section saw a mix of factual and conceptual
questions like dew drops, bordering countries and seas, minor minerals, etc. In map based questions, in-depth observation was required.
• S&T questions were more on technological aspect than on basic science such as biology. Direct relation of S&T developments could be linked with current affairs in
questions like digital signature, black hole, patents, etc. However, few questions checked deeper knowledge and clarity like functional chromosomes, RNA-I, etc.
• The Current Affairs understanding was not restricted to only one year news.
www.visionias.in

Recommendations
• Read Basic/standard books, follow one Good News Paper religiously and use the internet as extensively as possible.
• Have keen perception about things going around you. After reading newspaper always clarify key terms from internet. Try to refer to the official govt. websites
more.
• Read standard text books on static subjects and don’t ignore NCERTs. Never ignore any subject completely to increase attemptability in the paper.
• An appropriate strategy should be to avoid negative marking in tough questions and maximize your score by first finding the easy ones and completing them.
Nature of Question
F: Fundamental, Conventional and conceptual question which is easily available in commonly
recommended books. If a current affairs source is mentioned then it indicates that you had one
more reason to prepare this.
FA: Fundamental Applied question is an analytical question which requires information +
application of mind.
Answer to these questions are from commonly recommended books but not so obvious to
find.
CA: Current Affair question which can be answered almost completely using given source
alone.
CAA: Current Affair Applied question needs information from more than one source to answer
AND/OR application of mind (common sense and overall understanding) of aspirant. This is
why source for these questions may not be answering the question completely.
FCA: Fundamental + Current affair. This is a F or FA question supplemented with current affairs
or a current affairs question that needs background information for complete answer. Source
to these questions might not answer the questions in entirety.
U (Unconventional Question): Unconventional Question means the question that is distantly
related to syllabus provided by UPSC. It is neither present in even reference sources (in
addition to recommended books) nor prominently in news.

QN Section Question
A
n
s
w
e
r
Explanation
L
e
v
e
l
Nat
ure
Source
Source
Type
Vision IAS
Current Affairs
Magazine/PT 365)
Motivation
1 Current
Affairs
With reference to Asian
Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB), consider the
1. AIIB has more than 80
member nations.
2. India is the largest
shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any
members from outside Asia.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A • Statement 1 is correct and
statement 3 is not correct: It
is a multilateral development
bank with a mission to
improve social and economic
outcomes in Asia and beyond.
Currently it has 97 approved
members with India as a
founding member.
• Statement 2 is not correct:
India is the second largest
shareholder in AIIB with 7.5%
voting shares while China
holds 26.06% voting shares
being the largest.
E CA https://www.
aiib.org/en/ab
out-
aiib/index.htm
l
EN PT 365 International
Relations Page 24
Test 2660
Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB):
1. Membership to AIIB is
limited to Asian
countries only.
2. It finances projects
within Asia only.
3. Its annual meeting is
always held in Shanghai.
Which of the
statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) None (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation-
The Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB)
is a multilateral
development bank with
a mission to improve
social and economic
outcomes in Asia and
beyond. Headquartered
in Beijing, the bank
commenced its
operations in January
2016 and have now
Recently, third
annual meeting of
AIIB was held in
Mumbai where Asian
Infrastructure Forum
was launched.

grown to 86 approved
members from around
the world. So far, AIIB
has only invested in one
solar power project
outside Asia, in Egypt.
While 75% of the capital
is from Asia, several
non-Asian regions like
Europe, North America,
some East African and
Latin American
countries have also
joined the bank as
members.
With the total project
portfolios of US$4.4
Billion, India has been
the largest borrower of
Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB)
lending since the time
the Bank started its
operations.
The AIIB's third Annual
Meeting was held in
Mumbai, India on June
25 and 26, 2018. The
Board of Governors of
the AIIB announced that
the Fourth AIIB Annual
Meeting will be held in
Luxembourg in July
2019. '
2 Current
Affairs
What was the purpose of
Inter-Creditor Agreement
signed by Indian banks and
financial institutions
recently?
(a) To lessen the
D • Project Sashakt was proposed
by a panel led by PNB
chairman Sunil Mehta. Bad
loans of up to Rs. 50 crore will
be managed at the bank level,
with a deadline of 90 days.
M CA https://econo
mictimes.india
times.com/ind
ustry/banking
/finance/banki
ng/guidelines-
EN PT 365 Economy Page 5 Has been in news
frequently since last
year.

Government of India’s
perennial burden of fiscal
deficit and current account
deficit.
(b) To support the
infrastructure projects of
Central and State
Governments
(c) To act as independent
regulator in case of
application for loans of Rs.
50 core or more
(d) To aim at faster
resolution of stressed assets
of Rs. 50 crore or more
which are under consortium
lending
For bad loans of Rs. 50-500
crore, banks will enter an
inter-creditor agreement,
authorizing the lead bank to
implement a resolution plan
in 180 days, or refer the asset
to NCLT.
on-inter-
creditor-
agreement-
next-
week/articlesh
ow/65490962.
cms

3 Economics The Chairman of public
sector banks are selected by
the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of
concerned bank
A • Banks Board Bureau
recommends for selection of
heads - Public Sector Banks
and Financial Institutions and
helps banks in developing
strategies and capital raising
plans.
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=13696
8
EN All India Test Series
Test 2671
Bank Board Bureau (BBB):
1. It will advise the
government on top-level
appointments at Public
Sector Banks (PSBs) and
Financial Institutions
(FIs).
2. It has been set up as a
three member body.
3. Only a retired governor
of RBI can become the
Chairman of the Bureau.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
Following are the
functions of BBB:
To be responsible for the
selection and
appointment of Board of
Directors in PSBs and FIs
(Whole-time Directors
and Non-Executive
Chairman);
To advise the
Government on matters
relating to appointments,
confirmation or extension
of tenure and
termination of services of
the Board of Directors of
the above mentioned
The Banks Board
Bureau (BBB) recently
identified 75 senior
management
personnel of public
sector lenders to take
over leadership role
in the future.

levels;
To advise the
Government on the
desired structure at the
Board level, and, for
senior management
personnel, for each PSB
and FI;
To advise the
Government on evolving
suitable training and
development
programmes for
management personnel
in PSBs/FIs; and
To advise the
Government on the
formulation and
enforcement of a code of
conduct and ethics for
managerial personnel in
PSBs/FIs;
To build a data bank
containing data relating
to the performance of
PSBs/FIs, its senior
management and the
Board of Directors and
share the same with
Government; etc.
Statement 2 is not
correct: With a view to
improve the Governance
of Public Sector Banks
(PSBs), the Government
set up an autonomous
Banks Board Bureau
having three ex-officio
members and three
expert members in
addition to Chairman. All
the Members and

Chairman are part time.
Statement 3 is not
correct: The Chairman of
Bank Board Bureau is
appointed by Central
government. Till now BBB
had two Chairmen and
both are retired
bureaucrats.
4 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural
Gas Regulatory Board
(PNGRB) is the first
regulatory body set up by
the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB
is to ensure competitive
markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the
decisions of PNGRB go
before the Appellate
Tribunals for Electricity.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B • Statement 1 is not correct:
The Petroleum and Natural
(PNGRB) was constituted
under The Petroleum and
Natural Gas Regulatory Board
Act, 2006.
• Statement 2 is correct: The
Act provide for the
establishment of Petroleum
and Natural Gas Regulatory
Board to protect the interests
of consumers and entities
engaged in specified activities
relating to petroleum,
petroleum products and
natural gas and to promote
competitive markets and for
matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto.
Appellate Tribunal
established under section 110
of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36
of 2003) is the Appellate
Tribunal for the purposes of
Petroleum and Natural Gas
Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
M CAA http://www.p
ngrb.gov.in/ab
out-us.html
EN All India Test Series
Test 2671
functions is/are
performed by the
Petroleum and Natural
Gas Regulatory Board?
1. It regulates the
production of crude oil
and natural gas.
2. It determines the
prices for petroleum
products in India.
3. It facilitates and
promotes a competitive
market for petroleum
and petroleum
products.
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
The Petroleum and
Natural Gas Regulatory
Board (PNGRB) was
constituted under the
provisions of the
The Government has
envisaged to develop
the National Gas
Grid. For this the
Petroleum and
Natural Gas
Regulatory Board
(PNGRB) is the
authority to grant
authorization to the
entities for the
development of City
Gas Distribution
(CGD) network in
Geographical Areas
(GAs) as per PNGRB
Act, 2006.

Petroleum & Natural
Act, 2006.
The Board shall-
Protect the interest of
consumers by fostering
fair trade and
competition amongst
the entities;
5 Science &
Technology
With reference to
communications
technologies, what is/are the
difference/differences
between LTE (Long-Term
Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice
over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed
as 3G and VoLTE is
commonly marketed as
advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only
technology and VoLTE is
voice-only technology.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D • VoLTE is a technology update
to the LTE protocol used by
mobile phone networks.
• Under LTE, the infrastructure
of telecom players only
allows transmission of data
while voice calls are routed to
their older 2G or 3G
networks. This is why, under
LTE, you cannot access your
4G data services while on a
call. This leads to problems
such as slow internet speeds
and poor voice clarity. VoLTE
allows voice calls to be
‘packaged’ and carried
through LTE networks. This
would mean 4G data
accessibility even during
calls. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct.
• LTE is commonly marketed
as 4G LTE. Hence, statement
1 is not correct.
M FCA https://www.t
hehindubusin
essline.com/o
pinion/column
s/slate/all-
you-wanted-
to-know-
about-
volte/article98
64031.ece
EN In news due to
advent of 5G
6 Current
Affairs
regarding the Maternity
Benefit Amendment Act,
2017?
1. Pregnant women are
entitled for three months
C Maternity Benefit (Amendment)
Act, 2017
• It provides for full paid
absence from work for a
period of 26 weeks (earlier
12 weeks) to take care of the
child. Hence statement 1 is
M CA Ministry of
Labour
https://labour
.gov.in/sites/d
efault/files/M
aternity%20Be
nefit%20Ame
EM PT 365 Social Issues
Page 4
As per the recent
DoPT notification,
male
personnel in the
central government
who are
single parents to

pre-delivery and three
months post-delivery paid
leave.
2. Enterprises with creches
must allow the mother
minimum six creche visits
daily.
3. Women with two children
get reduced entitlements.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
not correct.
• The Act is applicable to all
establishments employing 10
or more women.
• For women who are
expecting after having 2
children, the duration of paid
maternity leave shall be 12
weeks. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
• Maternity leave of 12 weeks
to be available to mothers
adopting a child below the
age of three
months from the date of
adoption as well as to the
“commissioning mothers”.
• The Act makes it mandatory
for employers to educate
women about the maternity
benefits
available to them at the time
of their appointment.
• Any establishment which has
50 or more employees shall
have the facility of creche.
Further, the proviso of
Section 11A states that
employer shall allow 4 visits
a day to the creche by the
woman employee. Hence
ndment%20Ac
t%2C2017%20
.pdf
hehindu.com/
news/national
/maternity-
leave-govt-
for-incentive-
scheme/articl
e25520440.ec
e
dependent children
can now
avail of child care
leave (CCL) of a total
730 days
during their entire
period of service, a
provision
that till now applied
only to women
employees.
7 Current
Affairs
not a sub-index of the World
Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing
Business Index’?
(a) Maintenance of law and
order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
A • Doing Business measures
regulations affecting 11 areas
of the life of a business. Ten
of these areas are included in
this Doing Business 2019
ranking on the ease of doing
business: starting a business,
dealing with construction
M CA http://www.d
oingbusiness.o
rg/en/reports/
global-
reports/doing-
business-2019
EN November Current
Affairs Page 26
Doing Business
Report 2019 was
released recently.

(d) Dealing with construction
permits
permits, getting electricity,
registering property, getting
credit, protecting minority
investors, paying taxes,
trading across borders,
enforcing contracts and
resolving insolvency. Doing
Business also measures labor
market regulation, which is
not included in this year’s
ranking.
8 Environment In India, ‘extended producer
responsibility’ was
introduced as an important
feature in which of the
following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste
(Management and Handling)
Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic
(Manufacturing and Usage)
Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste
Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and
Standard Regulations, 2011
C • Extended producer’s
responsibility (EPR) is the
main feature of the E-waste
Rules, 2011, wherein the
producer of electrical and
electronic equipment has the
responsibility of managing
such equipment after its ‘end
of life’, thus the producer is
responsible for their products
once the consumer discards
them.
D CAA https://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
what-about-e-
waste/article2
4193081.ece
downtoearth.
org.in/news/w
aste/report-
on-e-waste-
management-
places-5-
companies-in-
the-red-
63317"
EN The term EPR is
frequently seen in
news.
UPSC has attempted
to confuse students
as the concept of EPR
was also introduced
in the Plastic Waste
(Management and
Handling) Rules,
2016.
However, option(b)
mentions The
Recycled Plastic
(Manufacturing and
Usage) Rules, 1999.
Therefore the correct
answer is E-waste
(Management and
Handling) Rules,
2011, in which
Extended producer’s
responsibility (EPR)
was also the main
feature.
9 Economics The economic cost of food
grains to the Food
Corporation of India is
Minimum Support Price and
C • The economic cost comprises
the procurement price of
foodgrains, costs related to
procurement (such as statutory
M FA https://www.f
inancialexpres
s.com/opinion
/reforming-fci-
EM

bonus (if any) paid to the
farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals
and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals
and charges for godowns
taxes, labour costs, mandi fees,
and so on) and costs of
distribution (including freight,
storage and administration).
not-a-piece-
of-
cake/1586038
/
10 Polity &
Governance
In the context of any
country, which one of the
following would be
considered as part of its
social capital?
(a) The proportion of
literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings,
other infrastructure and
machines
(c) The size of population in
the working are group
(d) The level of mutual trust
and harmony in the society
D • Social capital is a sociological
concept that refers to the
intangible relational assets
that emerge from social
interactions. These assets are
generated through give and
take and activate the “norm
of reciprocity,” creating social
obligations that connect and
bind people and groups. The
more social capital is used,
the greater the benefits.
• The concept of social capital
is composed of three distinct
but interrelated structural,
emotional and behavioral
components. They are,
respectively, networks, trust
and collaborative cultural
norms.
• In every society, some people
have a greater share of valued
resources – money, property,
education, health, and power –
than others. These social
resources can be divided into
three forms of capital –
economic capital in the form of
material assets and income;
cultural capital such as
educational qualifications and
status; and social capital in the
E FA NCERT Class
XII Sociology:
Chapter 5 –
Patterns of
Social
Inequality and
Exclusion.
EM

form of networks of contacts
and social associations
(Bourdieu 1986). Often, these
three forms of capital overlap
and one can be converted into
the other. For example, a
person from a well-off family
(economic capital) can afford
expensive higher education,
and so can acquire cultural or
educational capital. Someone
with influential relatives and
friends (social capital) may –
through access to good advice,
recommendations or
information – manage to get a
well-paid job.

11 Economics The Service Area Approach
was implemented under the
purview of
(a) Integrated Rural
Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
National Rural Employment
Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill
Development Mission
B • The Service Area Approach
(SAA) introduced in April
1989, in order to bring about
an orderly and planned
development of rural and
semi- urban areas of the
country, was extended to all
Indian scheduled commercial
banks including Regional
Rural Banks (RRBs).
• Service area approach is an
alternative and improved
method of Lead Bank
Scheme for deployment of
bank credit for rural
development. Under SAA,
each bank branch in rural and
semi-urban area was
designated to serve an area
of 15 to 25 villages and the
branch was responsible for
meeting the needs of bank
credit of its service area.
• The primary objective of SAA
was to increase productive
lending and forge effective
linkages between bank credit,
production, productivity and
increase in income levels
M F https://shodh
ganga.inflibne
t.ac.in/bitstre
am/10603/10
1099/9/09_ch
apter%202.pd
f
https://rbi.org
.in/scripts/BS_
ViewMasCircu
lardetails.aspx
?id=9853
EM
12 Geography With reference to the
management of minor
minerals in India, consider
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’
according to the prevailing
law in the country.
2. State Governments have
the power to grant mining
leases of minor minerals, but
the powers regarding the
A • Statement 1 is correct- Sand
is a minor mineral, as defined
under section 3(e) of the
Mines and Minerals
(Development and
Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR
Act).
• Statement 2 is not correct-
As per Section 15 of the
Mines and Minerals
(Development and
D CAA http://pib.nic.i
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=15542
3
EN

formation of rules related to
the grant of minor minerals
lie with the Central
Government.
3. State Government have
the power to frame rules to
prevent illegal mining of
minor minerals.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Regulation) (MMDR) Act,
1957, State Governments
have been empowered to
frame rules in respect of
minor minerals for regulating
the grant of quarry leases,
mining leases or other
mineral concessions in
respect of minor minerals and
for purposes connected
therewith.
• Statement 3 is correct-
Section 23C of the MMDR
Act, 1957 empowers state
governments to frame rules
to prevent illegal mining,
transportation and storage of
minerals and for purposes
connected therewith. Control
of illegal mining is, therefore,
under the legislative and
administrative jurisdiction of
state governments.
statements:
1. Most of India’s external
debt is owed by
governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt
is denominated in US dollars.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D • As per the Government
report on External debt by
December 2018-Commercial
borrowings are the largest
component of external debt
with a share of 37.1 percent,
followed by NRI deposits
(23.9 percent) and short term
trade credit (19.9 percent).
Hence, Statement 1 is not
correct.
• US dollar denominated debt
continued to be the largest
component of India’s external
debt with a share of 45.9
percent at end December
2018, followed by the Indian
M CAA https://dea.go
v.in/sites/defa
ult/files/India
%27s%20Exter
nal%20Debt%
20as%20at%2
0the%20end%
20December%
202018.pdf
RR All India Test Series-
Test 2683, 2671
With reference to
India's external debt
profile, consider the
1. NRI deposits form the
highest component of
India's external debt.
2. A large majority share
of total external debt is
in the form of long-term
debt.
3. US dollar-
denominated debt
continued to be the
largest component of

rupee (24.8 percent), SDR
(5.1 percent), yen (4.9
percent) and euro(3.1
percent). Hence, Statement 2
is not correct.
India’s external debt.
Which of the
are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Indian economy:
1. Commercial
borrowings are the
largest component of
external debt.
2. Major portion of
external debt is in form
of short term debt.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Commercial borrowings
are the largest
component of external
debt with a share of
37.1 percent, followed
by NRI deposits (23.9
percent) and short term
trade credit (19.9
percent).
US dollar denominated
debt continued to be
the largest component
of India’s external debt
with a share of 45.9
percent at end

December 2018,
followed by the Indian
rupee (24.8 percent),
SDR (5.1 percent), yen
(4.9 percent) and euro
(3.1 percent).
14 Economics Which of the following is not
included in the assets of a
commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short
notice
B • A bank places its funds in
assets to earn profits. The
assets include investments,
loans and advances, money at
call and short notice, bills
discounted and purchased. It
also includes the cash in hand
with the banks and also the
cash held with the RBI.
• The liabilities include deposits
(both time and demand) and
borrowings.
• Hence (b) is the correct
answer.
D F Introductory
Macroeconom
ics.
NCERT class
12 Economics
EM
15 Economics In the context of India, which
of the following factors
is/are contributor/
contributors to reducing the
risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency
earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government
expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians
abroad
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B • Currency crisis is brought on
by a decline in the value of a
country's currency. This
decline in value negatively
affects an economy by
creating instabilities in
exchange rates, meaning that
one unit of a certain currency
no longer buys as much as it
used to in another currency.
• A substantial amount of
foreign exchange reserves
can help to cushion against
any risks of currency crisis.
• The foreign current earnings
of India's IT sector and
remittances from abroad
would lead more inflow of
foreign currencies in the
economy and boost the
M FA Introductory
Macroeconom
ics. NCERT
class 12
Economics
EM

foreign exchange reserves.
Hence, Statements 1 and 3
are correct.
• Statement 2 is not correct as
increasing the government
expenditure is not related to
change in foreign exchange
reserves or any currency
fluctuations.
16 Polity &
Governance
suggested that the Governor
should be an imminent
person from outside the
State and should be a
detached figure without
intense political links or
should not have taken part in
politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative
Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee
(1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission
(1983)
(d) National Commission to
Review the Working of the
Constitution (2000)
C Sarkaria Commission Report
(1988)
• Recommendation on
appointment of Governor:
o Governor should be an
eminent person and not
belong to the state
where he is to be posted.
o State chief minister
should have a say in the
appointment of governor
o Governor should be a
detached figure without
intense political links or
should not have taken
part in politics in recent
past. Hence, Statement
(c) is correct.
o Governor should not be a
member of the ruling
party.
E FA Laxmikant:
Indian Polity
EM
17 Economics Which of the following is
issued by registered foreign
portfolio investors to
overseas investors who want
to be part of Indian stock
market without registering
themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposits
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
D • A Participatory Note (PN or
P-Note) is a derivative
instrument issued in foreign
jurisdictions, by a SEBI
registered Foreign
Institutional Investor (FII) or
its sub-accounts or one of its
associates, against underlying
Indian securities. The
underlying Indian security
E F http://www.ar
thapedia.in/in
dex.php?title=
Participatory_
Notes_(PNs)
EM All India Test Series
Test 2657
Participatory Notes (P-
Notes):
1. It is a derivative
instrument.
2. It is issued in a foreign
jurisdiction by an RBI

(d) Participatory Note instrument may be equity,
debt, derivatives or may even
be an index.
• A promissory note is a
financial instrument that
contains a written promise by
one party to pay another
party a definite sum of
money, either on demand or
at a specified future date.
• Commercial Paper (CP) is an
unsecured money market
instrument issued in the form
of a promissory note. CPs are
short-term instruments and
the maturity period varies
from seven days to up to one
year. It was introduced to
enable highly rated corporate
borrowers to diversify their
sources of short-term
borrowings, and also to
provide an additional
instrument to investors.
• Certificate of Deposits-It is a
saving certificate with a fixed
maturity date at fixed interest
rate. It is issued by
commercial banks and
financial institutions. It is
issued in the form of
promissory note in exchange
of funds deposited in banks
for specified period.
registered Foreign
Institutional Investor
(FII).
Which of the
is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation-
A Participatory Note (PN
or P-Note) is a
derivative instrument
issued in foreign
jurisdictions, by a SEBI
registered Foreign
Institutional Investor
(FII) or its sub-accounts
or one of its associates,
against underlying
Indian securities. The
underlying Indian
security instrument may
be equity, debt,
derivatives or may even
be an index. Further, a
basket of securities from
different jurisdictions
can also be constructed
in which a portion of the
underlying securities is
Indian securities or
indices.
Being derivative
instruments and freely
tradable, PNs can be
easily transferred,
creating multiple layers,
thereby obfuscating the
real beneficial owner. It

is in this respect, that
concerns have been
raised about the misuse
of P-Notes for money
laundering and terror
financing.
statements:
1. As per law, the
Compensatory Afforestation
Fund Management and
Planning Authority exists at
both National and State
levels.
2. People’s participation is
mandatory in the
compensatory afforestation
programmes carried out
under the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A • Statement 1 is correct: As per
law, the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning
Authority exists at both
National and State levels.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It
does not provide for
mandatory people
participation in the
compensatory afforestation
programmes carried out
under the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
D CAA https://www.
downtoearth.
org.in/news/f
orests/green-
fund-rules-
notified-some-
hits-major-
misses-61381
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
what-the-
new-caf-rules-
imply/article2
4782006.ece
http://egazett
e.nic.in/Write
ReadData/201
8/188469.pdf
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=18188
9
RR The CAF Rules were
recently published on
August 10, 2018,
paving the way for
smooth
implementation and
coming into force of
the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund
Act, 2016.
A controversy
regarding the same
had emerged as
rights of gram sabhas
or Van Sanrakshan
Samitis (Village
Forest Committees)
had been restricted
to mere
'consultation' and not
'consent'. However,
the Act still mandates
that consultation
shall be taken up
paving the way for
people's participation
in management of
working plans in
forest land.
19 Polity &
Governance
In India, which of the
following review the
independent regulators in
sectors like
telecommunications,
A • Department related Standing
Committees: The Committee
system of Parliament is often
used in several countries for
oversight of regulators. In
M FA Laxmikant-
Indian Polity
https://www.p
rsindia.org/site
s/default/files/
RR

insurance electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up
by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department
Related Standing Committee
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative
Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
India, there are 24
Department Related Standing
Committees that comprise
members from both Houses
of Parliament. These
committees are ministry
specific, and may review the
working of regulators within
their respective departments.
The Ad hoc committees are
temporary and perform
specific task. The Ad Hoc
Committees dissolve, once
their task is done. These
committees are Ministries’
specific and review the
working of regulators within
their respective departments.
• Ad-hoc Committees:
Parliament may establish ad-
hoc committees which may
examine the working of
regulators. For instance, the
terms of reference of the
Joint Parliamentary
Committee (JPC) on the
allocation of 2G spectrum
include the review of the
policy on spectrum pricing
and grant of telecom licences.
Another example of
parliamentary oversight
through ad-hoc committees is
the scrutiny of the working of
SEBI and RBI by the JPC on
the stock market scam.
The two parliamentary
committees on finance which
exercise oversight of
regulators are:
parliament_or_
policy_pdfs/13
70586800_Parl
iamentary%20
Oversight%20o
f%20Regulator
s.pdf-

(a) the Committee on
Estimates; and
(b) the Public Accounts
Committee (PAC). The
Committee on Estimates
reviews budgetary estimates
of government departments.
Such estimates include the
budget of regulators. Most
laws establishing
independent regulators
require the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG) to
prepare annual audit reports
on the accounts of the
regulators. These reports are
tabled before Parliament and
reviewed by the PAC. The PAC
may require the regulator’s
officers to depose before the
Committee. For instance, the
Chairman and senior officers
of SEBI deposed before the
PAC when it was examining
the working of SEBI.
• Finance Commission,
Financial Sector Legislative
Reforms Commission and
NITI Aayog have no role in
reviewing the independent
regulators.
20 Economics With reference to India’s
Five-Year Plans, which of the
correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year
Plan, there was a determined
thrust towards substitution
of basic and capital good
industries.
A • Statement 1 is correct-India
adopted the strategy of
Import Substitution
Industrialization (ISI) in the
fifties. The chief objective was
to build self-reliant economy.
From the Second Five Year
Plan, there was determined
thrust towards substitution of
D F https://www.ni
pfp.org.in/med
ia/pdf/books/B
K_33/Chapters
/1.%20Import
%20Substitutio
n%20Strategy
%20Of%20Eco
nomic%20Deve
EM

2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan
adopted the objective of
correcting the earlier trend
of increased concentration of
wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan,
for the first time, the
financial sector was included
as an integral part of the
Plan.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
basic and capital goods
industries. The ISI strategy
was based on the model of
growth as propounded by PC
Mahalonobis.
• Statement 2 is correct- The
Fourth Plan provided a
necessary corrective to the
earlier trend which helped
particularly the stronger
sections in agriculture as well
as in industry to enable them
rapidly to enlarge and
diversify the production base.
In the long run, the full
potential of growth cannot be
realised unless the energies
of all our people are put to
profitable use. The emphasis
on spreading the impetus
and benefits of economic
growth to the weaker
sections is thus necessary in
the interest of equality as
well as growth. The Plan will
now assist the less
prosperous sections of our
farming population to
improve their position and
make a yet bigger
contribution to the national
economy.
The financial sector become
an integral part of the plan in
the 9th five-year plan.
lopment.pdf
http://planning
commission.nic
.in/plans/planr
el/fiveyr/4th/4
ppre.htm
https://books.g
oogle.co.in/bo
oks?id=77NTD
wAAQBAJ&pg=
PT127&dq=.+It
+was+the+first
+time+when+t
he+financial+s
ector+was+incl
uded+as+an+in
tegral+part+of
+the+plan.&hl=
en&sa=X&ved=
0ahUKEwj485C
7qs_iAhWGkn
AKHfv0AMwQ6
AEIKjAA#v=one
page&q=.%20It
%20was%20th
e%20first%20ti
me%20when%
20the%20finan
cial%20sector
%20was%20inc
luded%20as%2
0an%20integra
l%20part%20of
%20the%20pla
n.&f=false
21 Polity &
Governance
statements:
D • 42nd
Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976:
Inserted new article 228A.-
After article 228 of the
M F Laxmikant:
Indian Polity
EM

1. No High Court shall have
the jurisdiction to declare
any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the
Constitution of India cannot
be called into question by
the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements give
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution, Special
provisions as to disposal of
questions relating to
constitutional validity of State
laws.- (1) No High Court shall
have jurisdiction to declare
any Central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
However, the 43rd
Amendment Act of 1977
restored the original position.
Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• In the Kesavananda Bharati
case (1973), Supreme Court
laid down a new doctrine of
the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic
features’) of the Constitution.
It ruled that the constituent
power of Parliament under
Article 368 can amend the
constitution Under Article but
Such amendments Should not
does not enable it to alter the
‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution anything that
ultravires the constitution is
cut down by the highest
judiciary including the
Constitutional amendment.
correct.
statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity
(PPP) exchange rates are
calculated by comparing the
prices of the same basket of
goods and services in
different countries.
A • In purchasing power parity
(PPP) exchange rate — the
rate at which the currency of
one country would have to be
converted into that of
another country to buy the
same amount of goods and
services in each country. For
E FCA https://www.
businesstoday
.in/current/ec
onomy-
politics/india-
pips-japan-in-
gdp-based-on-
purchasing-
EM

2. In terms of PPP dollars,
India is the sixth largest
economy in the world.
Which of the statement
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
example-If a burger is selling
in India for Rs100 and in New
York for $2, this would imply
a PPP exchange rate of 1
dollar to Rs 50. Hence,
• On the PPP basis, China is
world's largest economy in
2018. Total wealth of china is
estimated at 25.3 trillion
international dollar. China is
followed by United States
with figure 19.4 trillion. India
is the third largest economy ,
in terms of PPP dollars.
Hence, Statement 2 is not
correct.
power-
parity/story/2
82226.html
oecd.org/sdd/
prices-
ppp/purchasin
gpowerparitie
s-
frequentlyask
edquestionsfa
qs.htm

23 Geography With reference to the
cultivation of Kharif crops in
which in the last five years
statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation
is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation
of jowar is more than that of
oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation
is more than that of
sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane
cultivation has steadily
decreased.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A D FCA http://agricoo
p.nic.in/sites/
default/files/K
rishi%20AR%2
02017-18-
1%20for%20w
eb.pdf (Page
3)
http://agricoo
p.nic.in/sites/
default/files/A
nnual_rpt_20
1617_E.pdf
(Page 3)
RR
24 Economics Among the agricultural
commodities imported by
India, which one of the
following accounts for the
highest imports in terms of
value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils
D Qty.: ‘000 tonnes Value in Rs. Crores
SN 2013-14
Qty Value
1 Vegetable
Oils
7943 44038
2 Pulses 3178 11037
3 Fresh
Fruits
769 7716
4 Cashew
raw
776 4668
5 Spices 156 3452
6 Sugar 881 2287
7 Alcoholic
Beverages
2076
8 Cotton
Raw Incld.
Waste
181 2376
9 Misc.
Processed
1474
M FCA http://agricoo
p.nic.in/sites/
default/files/o
verviewTrade
7082015.pdf
RR

Items
10 Cocoa
Products
52 1072
11 Wheat 11 27
12 Coffee 60 729
13 Fruits/
Vegetable
Seeds
8 449
14 Marine
Products
31 411
SN 2014-15
Qty Value
1 Vegetable
Oils
1154
8
59094
2 Pulses 4585 17063
3 Fresh
Fruits
858 9544
4 Cashew
raw
941 6600
5 Spices 161 4392
6 Sugar 1539 3668
7 Alcoholic
Beverages
0 2508
8 Cotton
Raw Incld.
Waste
259 3101
9 Misc.
Processed
Items
1749
10 Cocoa
Products
65 1551
11 Wheat 29 61
12 Coffee 75 930
13 Fruits/
Vegetable
Seeds
14 611
14 Marine
Products
28 452
SN 2015-16
Qty Value
1 Vegetable
Oils
1563
9
68630

2 Pulses 5798 25619
3 Fresh
Fruits
836 11013
4 Cashew
raw
962 8701
5 Spices 191 5382
6 Sugar 1943 4038
7 Alcoholic
Beverages
0 2915
8 Cotton
Raw Incld.
Waste
232 2563
9 Misc.
Processed
Items
0 1799
10 Cocoa
Products
56 1399
11 Wheat 516 870
12 Coffee 66 802
13 Fruits/
Vegetable
Seeds
14 702
14 Marine
Products
50 635
25 Polity &
Governance
In the context of polity,
which one of the following
would you accept as the
most appropriate definition
of liberty?
(a) Protection against the
tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do
whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop
oneself fully
D • The term ‘liberty’ means the
absence of restraints on the
activities of individuals, and
at the same time, providing
opportunities for the
development of individual
personalities.
• Liberty, as elaborated in the
Preamble, is very essential for
the successful functioning of
the Indian democratic
system. However, liberty
does not mean ‘license’ to do
what one likes and has to be
enjoyed within the limitations
mentioned in the
Constitution itself. In brief,
the liberty conceived by the
M F NCERT Class
11: Political
Theory
cert.nic.in/nce
rts/l/keps102.
pdf
EM

Preamble or fundamental
rights is not absolute but
qualified. Hence in the above
question the most
appropriate definition of
liberty is to provide
opportunity to develop
oneself fully.
26 Economics Which one of the following is
not the most likely measure
the Government/ RBI takes
to stop the slide of Indian
rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-
essential goods-and
promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian
borrowers to issue rupee
denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating
to external commercial
borrowing
(d) Following an
expansionary monetary
policy
D • Expansionary monetary policy
is when the RBI would use its
tools to stimulate the
economy. That increases the
money supply, lowers interest
rates, and increases
aggregate demand.
• Lower interest rates will also
tend to reduce the value of
the currency. If domestic
interest rates fall relative to
elsewhere, it becomes less
attractive to save money in
domestic banks.
• Therefore, it will lead to
outflow of foreign currency
and therefore, slide of Indian
Rupee.
E FA Introductory
Macroeconom
ics. NCERT
class 12
Economics
EM PT 365 Economy Page
16
27 Current
Affairs
statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s
recent directives relating to
‘Storage of Payment System
Data’, popularly known as
data diktat, command the
payment system providers
that
1. they shall ensure that
entire data relating to
payment systems operated
by them are store in a
system only in India.
A The Reserve Banks directive
related to Storage of Payment
System Data provides that:
1. All system providers shall
ensure that the entire data
relating to payment systems
operated by them are stored in a
system only in India. This data
should include the full end-to-end
transaction details / information
collected / carried / processed as
part of the message / payment
instruction. For the foreign leg of
the transaction, if any, the data
D CAA https://www.r
bi.org.in/script
s/Notification
User.aspx?Id=
11244
EN PT 365 Economy Page
64
Frequently seen in
news

2. they shall ensure that the
systems are owned and
operated by public sector
enterprises.
3. they shall submit the
consolidated system audit
report to the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India
by the end of the calendar
year
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
can also be stored in the foreign
country, if required.
2. System providers shall ensure
compliance of (i) above within a
period of six months and report
compliance of the same to the
Reserve Bank latest by October
15, 2018.
3. System providers shall submit
the System Audit Report (SAR) on
completion of the requirement at
(i) above. The audit should be
conducted by CERT-IN empaneled
auditors certifying completion of
activity at (i) above.
4. The SAR duly approved by the
Board of the system providers
should be submitted to the
Reserve Bank not later than
December 31, 2018.
Hence, only statement 1 is
correct.
28 Current
Affairs
adopted a law on data
protection and privacy for its
citizens known as ‘General
Data Protection Regulation’
in April 2016 and started
implementation of its from
25th May, 2018?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of
America
C General Data Protection
Regulation (GDPR) aims to protect
all European Union (EU) citizens
from data breaches. The
regulation, which was approved
by the EU Parliament in April 2016
after about four years of
preparation and debate, came
into effect on May 25, 2018.
E CA https://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/internat
ional/what-is-
the-eu-law-
on-data-
protection-all-
about/article2
3401965.ece
EN PT 365 Science and
Technology Page 22
Test 2659
is not correct about the
European Union's
General Data
Protection Regulation
(GDPR)?
(a) It aims to protect
European Union (EU)
citizens from data
breaches.
(b) It adopts a rights-
based approach.
(c) It applies only to
Information Technology
Frequently seen in
news

companies.
(d) It provides for
penalty in case of non-
compliance.
29 Current
Affairs
Recently, India signed a deal
known as ‘Action Plan for
Prioritization and
Implementation of
Cooperation Areas in the
Nuclear Field’ with which of
the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of
America
B Action Plan for Prioritization and
Implementation of Co-operation
Areas in the Nuclear Field
Identified Jointly by India and
Russia was signed on 5th October,
2018 in New Delhi.
D CA https://econo
mictimes.indiat
imes.com/indu
stry/energy/po
wer/india-
russia-sign-
civil-nuclear-
action-plan-
for-second-
plant-third-
country-
project/articles
how/66085647
.cms?from=md
r
news
30 Economics The money multiplier in an
economy increases with
which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash
reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking
habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory
liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the
population of the country
B • Money Multiplier is the ratio
of the stock of money to the
stock of high powered
money. It is the relationship
between the monetary base
and money supply of an
economy. It explains the
increase in the amount of
cash in circulation generated
by the banks' ability to lend
money out of their
depositors' funds. Therefore,
it refers to how an initial
deposit can lead to a bigger
final increase in the total
money supply.
• For example, if the
commercial banks gain
deposits of Rs1 Lakh and this
leads to a final money supply
of Rs 10 lakh. The money
multiplier is 10.
M F Introductory
Macroeconom
ics. NCERT
class 12
Economics
Page 42-43
Test 2657
correctly describes the
term 'Money
Multiplier'?
(a) It is the amount of
money that banks
generate with each
deposited reserve.
(b) A factor to calculate
the rate of foreign
exchange by the Central
Bank.
(c) It is the total
monetary assets held by
the central bank with
reference to a base
year.
(d) Number of times a
unit of currency can be
used to purchase new

• Therefore, increase in
banking habit of the
population would lead to
more deposits and hence
increase in Money Multiplier.
Hence (b) is the correct
answer.
goods and services.
Explanation-
The Money Multiplier a
phenomenon referring
to how an initial deposit
can lead to a bigger final
increase in the total
money supply. It
explains the increase in
the amount of cash in
circulation generated by
the banks' ability to lend
money out of their
depositors' funds
For example, if a
commercial bank
receives a deposit of Rs
100 and this leads to a
final money supply of Rs
1000, then the value of
money multiplier is 10.
31 Current
Affairs
statements about
Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States
and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining
population is one of the
criteria for determining PVTG
status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs
officially notified in the
country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi
tribes are included in the list
of PVTGs.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
C • 75 tribal groups have been
categorized by Ministry of
Home Affairs as Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18
States and UT of A&N
Islands. Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) are centrally
recognized special category
from among the Scheduled
Tribe. It was constituted
during the 4th five year plan
on the basis of the report of
the Dhebar commission
(1960-61). Such groups were
identified by one or more of
the following features:
Existence of pre-agricultural
D FCA https://tribal.
nic.in/pvtg.asp
x
EM PT 365 Social Issues
Page 14
Open Test-3 (2779)
Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
They are centrally
recognized special
categories from among
the Scheduled Tribes.
Any amendment to the
list of PVTGs requires a
Constitutional Order by
the President of India.
The maximum number
of PVTGs are found in
Lakshadweep Islands
among all the Indian
**In interim budget
2019- Welfare
Development Board
under the Ministry of
Social Justice and
Empowerment
specifically for the
purpose of
implementing
welfare and
development
programmes for De-
notified, Nomadic
and Semi-Nomadic
communities.
** A Committee
under NITI Aayog will
be set up to complete
the task of identifying

(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
practices, Practice of hunting
and gathering, Zero or
negative population growth
and relatively low level of
literacy as compared to other
tribal groups.
• Konda reddy of Khammam
district of Telangana and
Irular of Tamil Nadu are in
the list of PVTGs.
UTs/states.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
There are 75 centrally
recognized PVTGs in the
country. Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs) are
centrally recognized
special category from
among the Scheduled
Tribe. It was constituted
during the 4th five year
plan on the basis of the
report of the Dhebar
commission (1960-61).
Such groups were
identified by one or
more of the following
features: Existence of
pre-agricultural
practices, Practice of
hunting and gathering,
Zero or negative
population growth and
relatively low level of
literacy as compared to
other tribal groups.
Statement 2 is not
correct: The inclusion of
a tribe to the list of
PVTGs doesn’t require a
Constitutional Order.
De-notified, Nomadic
and Semi-Nomadic
communities.
**In May 2018, the
National Commission
for Denotified
Nomadic and Semi-
Nomadic Tribes,
chaired by Bhiku
Ramji Idate has
submitted its report.

Government of India
designed a procedure to
identify PVTGs.
According to the
procedure, the state
governments or UT
governments submit
proposals to the Central
Ministry of Tribal
Welfare for
identification of PVTGs.
After ensuring the
criteria is fulfilled, the
Central Ministry selects
those groups as PVTGs.
Statement 3 is not
correct: There are 75
listed PVTGs as of today.
The highest number of
PVTGs are found in
Odisha (13), followed by
Andhra Pradesh (12),
Bihar including
Jharkhand (9), Madhya
Pradesh including
Chhattisgarh (7), Tamil
Nadu (6), Kerala and
Gujarat having five
groups each. The
remaining PVTGs live in
West Bengal (3),
Maharashtra (3), two
each in Karnataka and
Uttarakhand and one
each in Rajasthan,
Tripura and Manipur. All
the four tribal groups in
Andamans, and one in
Nicobar Islands, are
recognised as PVTGs.

32 Polity &
Governance
prohibition or limitations or
provisions contained in
ordinary laws cannot act as
prohibitions or limitations on
the constitutional powers
under Article 142. It could
mean which one of the
following?
(a) The decisions taken by
the Election Commission of
India while discharging its
duties cannot be challenged
in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of
India is not constrained in
the exercise of its powers by
laws made by the
Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave
financial crisis in the country,
the President of India can
declare Financial Emergency
without the counsel from the
Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot
make laws on certain
matters without the
concurrence of Union
Legislature.
B Article 142 states that the
Supreme Court in the exercise of
its jurisdiction may pass such
decree or make such order as is
necessary for doing complete
justice in any cause or matter
pending before it.
Any decree so passed or orders so
made shall be enforceable
throughout the territory of India
in such manner as may be
prescribed by Parliament.
Until a provision in that behalf is
made, then it would be enforced
in such a manner as the President
may by order prescribe. One of
the important instances of
application by the Supreme Court
of Article 142 was in the Union
Carbide case — relating to the
victims of the Bhopal gas tragedy.
In this judgment, the Supreme
Court, while awarding
compensation of $470 million to
the victims, went to the extent of
saying that to do complete justice,
it could even override the laws
made by Parliament by holding
that, “prohibitions or limitations
or provisions contained in
ordinary laws cannot, ipso facto,
act as prohibitions or limitations
on the constitutional powers
under Article 142.” By this
statement the Supreme Court of
India placed itself above the laws
made by Parliament or the
legislatures of the States. Hence
the Supreme Court of India is not
constrained in the exercise of its
M F Laxmikant:
Indian Polity
hehindu.com/
opinion/op-
ed/article-
142-and-the-
need-for-
judicial-
restraint/articl
e18474919.ec
e
EM PT 365 Polity Page 39 The Supreme Court
recently approved
India's first Witness
Protection Scheme.
Court has stated that
the scheme shall be
the ‘law’ under
Article 141/142 of
the Constitution, until
the enactment of
suitable
Parliamentary and/or
State Legislations on
the subject.

powers by laws made by the
Parliament.
Some important cases where
Supreme Court invoked article
142 are:
1. Appointment of Lokayukta in
Uttar Pradesh.
2. Setting up R.M. Lodha Committee
to oversee the functioning of the
Medical Council of India (MCI).
3. Transfer the trial of accused in
Babri Masjid demolition case.
4. Ban on sale of alcohol within 500
meters of state and national
highways.
5. Witness Protection Scheme, 2018

33 Polity &
Governance
Legislative Assembly of a
State in India, consider the
1. The Governor makes a
customary address to
Members of the House at
the commencement of the
first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature
does not have a rule on a
particular matter, it follows
the Lok Sabha rule on that
matter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
A Article 176(1) of the Constitution
of India enjoins that the Governor
shall Address both the Houses
assembled together at the
commencement of the first
Session after each general
election to the Assembly and at
the commencement of the first
session of each year and inform
the Legislature of the causes of its
Summons. The Address of the
Governor contains a review of the
activities and Achievements of the
Government during the previous
year and their policy with regard
to important internal problems as
well as a brief account of the
programme of Government
Business for the session.
Article 208 in The Constitution Of
India 1949
208. Rules of procedure
(1) A House of the Legislature of a
State may make rules for
regulating subject to the
provisions of this Constitution, its
procedure and the conduct of its
business
(2) Until rules are made under
clause ( 1 ), the rules of procedure
and standing orders in force
immediately before the
commencement of this
Constitution with respect to the
Legislature for the corresponding
Province shall have effect in
relation to the Legislature of the
State subject to such
modifications and adaptations as
may be made therein by the
D FA DD Basu
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oc/695063/
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lature.org/we
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e/governors-
address
RR

Speaker of the Legislative
Assembly, or the Chairman of the
Legislative Council, as the case
may be
(3) In a State having a Legislative
Council the Governor, after
consultation with the Speaker of
the Legislative Assembly and the
Chairman of the legislative
Council, may make rules as to the
procedure with respect to
communications between the two
Houses. Hence there is no
mention that the State Assembly
follow the Lok Sabha rule.
34 Current
Affairs
statements:
1. The United Nations
Convention against
Corruption (UNCAC) has a
‘Protocol against the
Smuggling of Migrants by
Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-
first legally binding global
anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United
Nations Convention against
Transnational Organized
Crime (UNTOC) is the
inclusion of a specific
chapter aimed at returning
assets to their rightful
owners from whom they had
been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office
on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
is mandated by its members
States to assist in the
implementation of both
C Statement 1 is not correct and
statement 2 is correct: The United
Nations Convention against
Corruption (UNCAC), which
entered into force in December
2005, is the ever-first binding
global anti-corruption instrument.
It obliges the States to prevent
and criminalize different corrupt
practices, promote international
cooperation, cooperate for the
recovery of stolen assets and
enhance technical assistance and
information exchange.
UNTOC was adopted by General
Assembly in 2000 and came into
force in 2003. The Convention is
the first comprehensive and
global legally binding instrument
to fight transnational organized
crime. States that have ratified
UNTOC commit themselves to
taking a series of measures to
prevent and control transnational
unodc.org/sou
thasia/en/fron
tpage/2011/m
ay/indian-
govt-ratifies-
two-un-
conventions.h
tml
RR

UNCAC and UNTOC.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
organized crime, including (i) the
criminalising of the participation
in an organized criminal group, of
money laundering, related
corruption and obstruction of
justice and (ii) the adoption of
frameworks for extradition,
mutual legal assistance and
international cooperation.
The UNTOC is further
supplemented by three Protocols,
which target specific forms of
organized crime:
1) The Protocol to Prevent,
Suppress and Punish Trafficking in
Persons, Especially Women and
Children, provides an agreed upon
definition of trafficking in persons.
It aims at comprehensively
addressing trafficking in persons
through the so-called three P's -
Prosecution of perpetrators,
Protection of victims and
Prevention of trafficking.
2) The Protocol against the
Smuggling of Migrants by Land,
Sea and Air, also provides a
definition of smuggling of
migrants. The Protocol aims at
preventing and controlling
smuggling of migrants, promoting
cooperation among States Parties,
while protecting the rights of
smuggled migrants.
3) The Protocol against the Illicit
Manufacturing of and Trafficking
in Firearms, their Parts and
Components and Ammunition
promotes, facilitates and
strengthens cooperation among

States Parties in order to prevent
and control the illicit
manufacturing of and trafficking
in firearms, their parts and
components and ammunition by
mainly committing Member
States to introduce solid
registration and storage systems
for all legally produced arms.
Statement 4 is correct: The
United Nations Office on Drugs
and Crime (UNODC) is mandated
by its Member States to assist in
the implementation of both
Conventions.

statements:
1. As per recent amendment
to the Indian Forest Act,
1927, forest dwellers have
the right to fell the bamboos
grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled
Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,
bamboo is a minor forest
produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and
Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of
Forests Rights) Act, 2006
allows ownership of minor
forest produce to forest
dwellers.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Indian Forest
(Amendment) Ordinance,
2017 exempts bamboo grown
in non-forest areas from
definition of tree, thereby
dispensing with the
requirement of felling/transit
permit for its economic use.
• Statement 2 is correct: Minor
Forest Produce (MFP) is
defined under the Scheduled
Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, as
all non-timber forest produce
of plant origin, and includes
bamboo, brushwood, stumps,
canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey,
waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu
leaves, medicinal plants and
herbs, roots, tuber and the
like.
Forest Rights Act 2006
defines forest rights as
inclusive of ‘Right of
ownership, access to collect,
use and dispose of minor
forest produce which have
traditionally been collected
within or outside village
boundaries’. Individuals,
communities and gram
sabhas having rights under
this particular section of the
Act will not only have the
rights to use but also rights of
ownership over MFPs.
M CAA https://www.
downtoearth.
org.in/news/b
amboo-now-
a-minor-
forest-
produce-
33239
http://www.ar
thapedia.in/in
dex.php?title=
Minor_Forest
_Produce_(MF
P)
EN PT 365 Environment
Page no 32
PT 365 Supplementary
Current Affairs Material
For Prelims 2019 Page
21

36 Polity &
Governance
Which Article of the
Constitution of India
safeguards one’s right to
marry the person of one’s
choice?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
(c) Article 25 (d) Article 29
B • The right to marry a person
of one’s choice is integral to
Article 21 (right to life and
liberty) of the Constitution”,
the Supreme Court said
Monday and set aside a 2017
order of the Kerala High Court
which annulled the marriage
of Kerala Muslim convert girl
Hadiya and Shefin Jahan.
M CAA https://indian
express.com/a
rticle/india/rig
ht-to-marry-
supreme-
court-hadiya-
case-
5131055/
EN Recently SC declared
'Right to marry'
person of one’s
choice is integral to
right to life & liberty
on Hadiya case
37 Science &
Technology
statements:
1. According to the Indian
Patents Act, a biological
process to create a seed can
be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no
Intellectual Property
Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not
eligible in the patented in
India.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C • Statement 1 is not correct and
Statement 3 is correct: As per
the Patents Act, 1970 - "plants
and animals in whole or any
part thereof other than micro
organisms but including seeds,
varieties and species and
essentially biological processes
for production or propagation
of plants and animals" are
inventions not patentable.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The
Intellectual Property Appellate
Board, a quasi-judicial body,
was constituted in September
1958. The Board is entrusted
with the task of adjudication of
disputes pertaining to
copyright registration,
assignment of copyright, grant
of Licenses in respect of works
withheld from public,
unpublished Indian works,
production and publication of
translations and works for
certain specified purposes. It
also hears cases in other
miscellaneous matters
instituted before it under the
Copyright Act, 1957.
downtoearth.
org.in/blog/ag
riculture/was-
there-a-
victory-for-
monsanto-in-
india-s-
supreme-
court-on-a-
patent-
matter--62800
EN In April, 2018, the
Delhi high court had
ruled Monsanto’s
patent over Bt cotton
seeds as invalid. In
the verdict, the two-
judge bench headed
by Justice S Ravindra
Bhat, had said some
items such as seeds,
animals and plants
cannot be patented
under Indian laws.
Recently, however,
the Supreme Court,
while reversing a
Delhi high court
judgment, on January
8, 2019, allowed agri-
business giant
Monsanto to claim
patent on its
genetically modified
(GM) cotton seeds.

statements:
The Environment Protection
Act, 1986 empowers the
Government of India to
1. state the requirement of
public participation in the
process of environmental
protection, and the
procedure and manner in
which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for
emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants
from various sources
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C • Statement 1 is correct: The
Environment Impact
Assessment Notification was
made by the GOI in
pursuance of the powers
conferred on it by the
Environment Protection Act
[sub-section (1) and clause (v)
of sub-section (2) of section 3
of the Environment
(Protection) Act , 1986]. One
of the most significant
determinants of EIA is the
procedure of Public Hearing
(PH) and Public Participation
(PP) on any developmental
project.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per
Section 3 of the Environment
Protection Act, the
Government of India is
empowered to make rules in
the laying down standards for
emission or discharge of
environmental pollutants
from various sources.
D FCA http://extwprl
egs1.fao.org/d
ocs/pdf/ind46
56.pdf
The-
Environment-
Protection-
Act-1986
EM
39 Environment As per the Solid Waste
Management Rules, 2016 in
following statements is
correct?
(a) Waste generator has to
segregate waste five
categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable
to notified urban local
bodies, notified towns and
all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for
exact and elaborate criteria
C • The SWM Rules 2016 provide
for detailed criteria for
setting‐up solid waste
processing and treatment
facility, solid waste
management in hilly areas,
for waste to energy process,
for Sanitary Landfills, for site
selection, development of
facilities at the sanitary
landfills, specifications for
land filling operations and
closure on completion of
landfilling, pollution
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=13859
1
RM

for the identification of sites
for landfills and waste
processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory the part
of waste generator that the
waste generated in one
district cannot be moved to
another district.
prevention, Closure and
Rehabilitation of Old Dumps
etc.
40 Current
Affairs
statements:
As per the Industrial
Employment (Standing
Orders) Central
(Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term
employment are
implemented, it becomes
easier for the
firms/companies to lay off
workers
2. no notice of termination
of employment shall be
necessary in the case of
temporary workman
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C Statement 1 is correct: The
government has notified fixed
term employment for all sectors
through an amendment to the
Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Central Rules, 1946.
Fixed-term employment for all
sectors will make it easier for
companies to hire-and-fire
workers along with reducing the
role of middlemen.
Statement 2 is correct: No notice
of termination of employment
shall be necessary in the case of
temporary workman whether
monthly rated, weekly rated or
piece rated and probationers or
badli workmen.
M CA https://indian
express.com/a
rticle/business
/economy/ind
ustrial-
employment-
standing-
orders-
central-rules-
1946-
amendment-
eases-hire-
and-fire-to-
reduce-
middleman-
role-5103765/
EN
41 Science &
Technology
In the context of digital
technologies for
entertainment, consider the
1. In Augmented Reality (AR),
a simulated environment is
created and the physical
world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR),
images generated from a
computer are projected onto
B • Virtual Reality technology
immerses users in a
completely virtual
environment that is
generated by a computer.
You need to wear a special VR
headset to experience virtual
reality. Most VR headsets are
connected to a computer
(Oculus Rift) or a gaming
console (PlayStation VR) but
D FCA https://www.f
orbes.com/sit
es/quora/201
8/02/02/the-
difference-
between-
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augmented-
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mixed-
reality/#2f384
RR

real-life objects or
surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be
present in the world and
improves the experience
using the camera of smart-
phones or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and
transposes an individual,
providing complete
immersion experience.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
there are standalone devices
(Google Cardboard is among
the most popular) as well.
Most standalone VR headsets
work in combination with
smartphones – you insert a
smartphone, wear a headset,
and immerse in the virtual
reality.
• In augmented reality, users
see and interact with the real
world while digital content is
added to it. Pokemon Go is
an example of augmented
reality. If you own a modern
smartphone, you can easily
download an AR app and try
this technology. There’s a
different way to experience
augmented reality, though –
with special AR headsets,
such as Google Glass, where
digital content is displayed on
a tiny screen in front of a
user’s eye.
• Hence, only statements 3
and 4 are correct.
8622d07
42 Current
Affairs
The word ‘Denisovan’ is
sometimes mentioned in
media in reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of
dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in
North-East India
(d) a geological period in the
history of Indian
subcontinent
B • The first evidence for
Denisovans or Denisova
hominins was first discovered
in 2008 in a cave in the Altai
mountains in Siberia. Analysis
of a fossil jawbone containing
molars recovered from Baishiya
Karst cave in Xiahe, Gansu,
China shows Denisovans lived
in the Tibetan Plateau some
1,60,000 years ago. This is the
firsttime evidence of Denisovan
presence has been found
outside the Denisova cave.
D U https://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/
denisovans-
lived-in-
tibetan-
plateau-fossil-
evidence-
shows/article2
7005280.ece
RR

43 Science &
Technology
With reference to the recent
developments in science,
which one of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes
can be created by joining
segments of DNA taken from
cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial
functional DNA can be
created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out
from an animal cell can be
made to replicate outside a
living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from
plants and animals can be
made to undergo cell
division in laboratory petri
dishes.
A • Options C and D are correct:
Given appropriate
surroundings, most plant and
animal cells can live,
multiply, and even express
differentiated properties in a
tissue-culture dish. The cells
can be watched continuously
under the microscope or
analyzed biochemically, and
the effects of adding or
removing specific molecules,
such as hormones or growth
factors, can be explored. In
addition, by mixing two cell
types, the interactions
between one cell type and
another can be studied.
Experiments performed on
cultured cells are sometimes
said to be carried out in vitro
(literally, “in glass”) to
contrast them with
experiments using intact
organisms, which are said to
be carried out in vivo
(literally, “in the living
organism”).
• Options B is correct: DNA is
an organic chemical molecule
made from atoms of carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen,
and phosphorous. Like many
other organic molecules that
are made inside living cells,
DNA can also by synthesized
in test tubes using the tools
of organic chemistry. In most
descriptions of DNA synthesis
technology, we hear that DNA
D U https://www.
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/books/NBK
26851/
https://blogs.s
cientificameric
an.com/oscilla
tor/genes-
cannot-be-
made-from-
scratch/?redir
ect=1
RR

sequences can be made by
simply adding together the
A's T's C's and G's -- the
"bases" that make the rungs
of the twisted DNA ladder.
• Options A is not correct:
Functional chromosomes can
not be created by joining
segments of DNA taken from
cells of different species.
44 Science &
Technology
statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that
identifies the certifying
authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of
identity of an individual to
access information or serve
on Internet
3. an electronic method of
signing an electronic
document and ensuring that
the original content is
unchanged
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D • Digital Signature Certificates
(DSC) are the digital
equivalent (that is electronic
format) of physical or paper
certificates. Examples of
physical certificates are
drivers' licenses, passports or
membership cards.
• Certificates serve as a proof
of identity of an individual for
a certain purpose; for
example, a driver's license
identifies someone who can
legally drive in a particular
country. Likewise, a digital
certificate can be presented
electronically to prove your
identity, to access
information or services on
the Internet or to sign certain
documents digitally.
M FCA https://defpro
c.gov.in/nicge
p/app?page=D
SCInfo&servic
e=page
RR
45 Science &
Technology
In the context of wearable
technology, which of the
following tasks is/are
accomplished by wearable
devices?
1. Location identification of a
person
2. Sleep monitoring of a
person
D • Wearable technology is a
category of electronic devices
that can be worn as
accessories, embedded in
clothing, implanted in the
user's body, or even tattooed
on the skin. The devices are
hands-free gadgets with
practical uses, powered by
E U https://www.
mdpi.com/199
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1073/11/3/54
7/pdf
earscience.org
.au/lions-
hearing/heari
RR

3. Assisting the hearing
impaired person
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
microprocessors and
enhanced with the ability to
send and receive data via the
Internet.
• Location- and position-
tracking sensors (i.e., GPS,
altimeter, magnetometer,
compasses, and
accelerometers) are the most
common type of sensors on
wearable devices, such as
activity trackers,
smartwatches, and even
medical wearables where
they are used to check the
physical activity and health of
patients.
• Fitness trackers, also known as
activity trackers, are typically
worn on the wrist, chest, or
ears, and are designed to
monitor and track outdoor
sport activities and measure
fitness-related metrics, such as
the speed and distance of
running, exhalation, pulse rate,
and sleeping habits.
• In more recent times, there has
been a new surge in wearable
technology worn on the ear,
referred to as hearables.
• Hearing-Aids is a category of
hearables involving use of a
microphone, speaker and
amplifier. This amplifies sounds
to help people with hearing
impairment hear. Example,
Phonak Audeo V.
• Hence, all the options are
correct.
ng-
technology/he
arables

46 Science &
Technology
‘RNA interference (RNAi)’
technology has gained
popularity in the last few
years. Why?
1. It is used in developing
gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in
developing therapies for the
treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop
hormone replacement
therapies.
4. It can be used to produce
crop plants that are resistant
to viral pathogens.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
A • RNAi is a gene silencing
technology that inhibits
protein synthesis in target
cells using double-stranded
RNA.
• RNAi has huge significance
within the Indian context,
considering the deep-seated
resistance over the years to
Bt cotton and other
genetically modified seeds.
RNA-reliant solutions could
be a viable alternative.
• RNAi is used in functional
genomics (systematic analysis
of loss-of-function phenotypes
induced by RNAi triggers) and
developing therapies for the
treatment of viral infection,
dominant disorders,
neurological disorders, and
many types of cancers (in vivo
inactivation of gene products
linked to human disease
progression and pathology).
D U http://ncert.ni
c.in/ncerts/l/l
ebo112.pdf
vemint.com/O
pinion/qQSEp
NfNPUEShuTe
zgvMaO/RNA-
technologies-
and-Indias-
path-
forward.html
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/probe/doc
s/techrnai/
RR
47 Science &
Technology
Recently, scientists observed
the merger of giant
‘blackholes’ billions of light-
years away from the Earth.
What is the significance of
this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’
were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’
were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic
space travel through
‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists
to understand ‘singularity’.
B • The LIGO detectors
discovered the first
gravitational waves produced
by two giant merging
blackholes in 2016.
M CA https://www.t
hehindu.com/
opinion/editor
ial/awestruck-
on-the-nobel-
prize-for-
physics/article
19797660.ece
Technology Page 46
The 2017 Nobel Prize
for physics has been
awarded to the LIGO-
VIRGO collaboration
for their detection of
gravitational waves
arising from the
merger of two black
holes.

48 Science &
Technology
the reasons for the
occurrence of multi-drug
resistance in microbial
pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of
some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of
antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in
livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases
in some people
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
B • Antibiotic consumption in
Humans: In 2014, India was
the highest consumer of
antibiotics, followed by China
and the United States. In
India, antibiotic FDCs are
heavily prescribed even
without the knowledge of a
proven advantage over single
compounds. Injudicious use
of antibiotic FDCs could lead
to emergence of bacterial
strains resistant to multiple
antibiotics. (However, the per
capita consumption of
antibiotics in India is much
lower than in several other
high-income countries).
• Antibiotic consumption in
Animals: The use of
antibiotics in food animals
plays a major role in human
health, as antibiotic-resistant
bacteria can be transmitted
between humans and animals
through contact, in food
products, and from the
environment.
• Hence, 2 and 3 are correct.
M FCA https://cddep.
org/wp-
content/uploa
ds/2017/11/A
MR-INDIA-
SCOPING-
REPORT.pdf
Technology Page 33
Increasing global
focus in AMR
49 Science &
Technology
What is Cas9 protein that is
often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used
in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the
accurate detection of
pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants
pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance
synthesized in genetically
A • CRISPR-Cas9 is a system used
by bacterial cells to recognise
and destroy viral DNA as a
form of adaptive immunity.
Using components of the
CRISPR system, researchers
can remove, add or alter
specific DNA sequences in the
genome of higher organisms.
• The gene editing tool has two
components — a single-guide
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/health/h
ow-safe-is-
crispr/article2
4542728.ece
Technology Page 4
Frequently seen in
news.

modified crops RNA (sgRNA) that contains a
sequence that can bind to
DNA, and the Cas9 enzyme
which acts as a molecular
scissor that can cleave DNA.
50 Science &
Technology
statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is
transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike
Hepatitis C, does not have a
vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of
people infected with
Hepatitis B and C viruses are
several times more than
those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected
with Hepatitis B and C
viruses do not show the
symptoms for many years.
B • Hepatitis B is a viral infection
that attacks the liver and can
cause both acute and chronic
disease. The virus is
transmitted through contact
with the blood or other body
fluids of an infected person.
(HIV also gets transmitted via
the exchange of a variety of
body fluids from infected
individuals, such as blood,
breast milk, semen and
vaginal secretions)
• The hepatitis B vaccine is the
mainstay of hepatitis B
prevention. WHO
recommends that all infants
receive the hepatitis B
vaccine as soon as possible
after birth, preferably within
24 hours. (Hence, option b is
not correct)
• Hepatitis B is a global public
health threat and the world’s
most common serious liver
infection. It is up to 100 times
more infectious than the
HIV/AIDS virus.
• In those people who develop
symptoms from acute
infection, the average time
from exposure to symptoms
ranges from 2 to 12 weeks.
However, most people who are
infected with the hepatitis C
M FCA https://www.
who.int/news-
room/fact-
sheets/detail/
hepatitis-b
Technology Page 4
S&T-MONTHLY
REVISION CURRENT
AFFAIRS TEST:
Hepatitis, consider the
1. It is a viral disease
which primarily
affects the nervous
system.
2. Vaccines have been
developed for all
types of hepatitis.
3. National Viral
Hepatitis Control
Program seeks to end
viral hepatitis as a
public health threat in
the country by
2030.
Which of the
is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Government
launched the
National viral
hepatitis program.

virus do not develop
symptoms. Most people with
chronic hepatitis C virus
infection do not have any
symptoms or have general, or
common symptoms such as
chronic fatigue and depression.
Many people eventually
develop chronic liver disease,
which can range from mild to
severe, including cirrhosis
(scarring of the liver) and liver
cancer. Chronic liver disease in
people with hepatitis C usually
happens slowly, without any
signs or symptoms, over
several decades.

51 Medieval
History
With reference to Mughal
India, what is/are the
difference/differences
between Jagirdar and
Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders or
land assignments in lieu of
judicial and police duties,
whereas Zamindars were
holders of revenue rights
without obligation to
perform any duty other than
revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to
Jagirdars were hereditary
and revenue rights or
Zamindars were not
hereditary.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D • The Sultan was the fountain
pen of judiciary system in
Mughal period. He was all in
all in the state .He was
responsible for any kind of
error in the state. The second
agency of judiciary was the
Qazi. Qazi had a bigger role
in the judiciary system in the
state and he held the court
and gave justice. Whereas
Jagirdars were those
mansabdars who were given
salary in lieu of military
service in terms of
jagirs(land). Hence
The judicial and police
functions were performed
locally by zamindars.
• An important feature of the
jagir system was shifting of
jagir-holders from one jagir
to another for administrative
reasons. This system of
transfers checked the
jagirdars from developing
local roots. Thus jagirs were
transferable and could be
seized too. Zamindars on the
other hand were hereditary.
The zamindars were present
in practically every part of the
Mughal Empire and held the
most significant position in
the agrarian structure of
Mughal India. Hence
D F Themes In
Indian History
Part -II; Old
NCERT Satish
Chandra,
Medieval India
EM

52 Economics With reference to land
reforms in independent
correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were
aimed at family holdings and
not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land
reforms was providing
agricultural land to all the
landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation
of cash crops as a
predominant form of
cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted
no exemptions to the ceiling
limits.
B • The unit of application of
ceiling differs from State to
State. In Andhra Pradesh,
Assam, Bihar, Punjab,
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West
Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and
Maharashtra, it is on the
basis of an 'land holder',
whereas in the other States it
is one the basis of a 'family'.
• Moreover, there were a list of
exemptions to ceiling limits
by different states.
• In order to bring about
uniformity, a new policy was
evolved in 1971. The main
features were:
o Lowering of ceiling to 28
acres of wet land and 54
acres of unirrigated land
o A change over to family
rather than the
individual as the unit for
determining land
holdings lowered ceiling
for a family of five.
o Fewer exemptions from
ceilings
o Retrospective application
of the law for declaring
benami transactions null
and void; and
o No scope to move the
court on ground of
infringement of
fundamental rights.
• Therefore, Options (a) and
(d) are not correct.
• After Independence, the
immediate goal of the
D U http://plannin
gcommission.
nic.in/reports/
articles/venka
/index.php?re
pts=m-
land.htm
India People
and Economy-
Class 12th
NCERT Page
55
RR

Government was to increase
foodgrains production by (i)
switching over from cash
crops to food crops; (ii)
intensification of cropping
over already cultivated land;
and (iii) increasing cultivated
area by bringing cultivable
and fallow land under plough.
• Therefore, Land reforms were
not focussed on cash crops
and hence it did not lead to
cash crops being
predominant form of
cultivation. Also, the Land
reforms in Haryana and
Punjab were the reason for
introducing Green
Revolution. It focussed more
on food crops production as
predominant form of
cultivation and not cash
crops. Therefore, Option (c) is
not correct.
• The Land Reforms in India-
aimed at the redistribution of
ownership holdings and
reorganising operational
holdings from the view point
of optimum utilisation of
land. It has also aimed at
providing security of tenure,
fixation of rents and
conferment of ownership.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
53 Current
Affairs
The Global Competitiveness
Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary
Fund
C • The Global Competitiveness
Report (GCR) is a yearly
report published by the
World Economic Forum
hehindubusin
essline.com/e
conomy/india-
ranks-58th-
EN PT 365 Economy Page 67
Test 2670
The Global
Competitiveness Report,
Frequently seen in
news.

(b) United Nations
Conference on Trade and
Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
most-
competitive-
economy-in-
wef-
index/article2
5244640.ece
often seen in news, is
released by:
(a) World Trade
Organization
(b) World Economic
Forum
(c) United Nations World
Tourism Organization
(d) International
Monetary Fund
54 Modern
History
statements about ‘the
Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade
monopoly of the East India
Company in India except for
trade in tea and trade with
China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty
of the British Crown over the
Indian territories held by the
Company.
3. The revenues of India
were now controlled by the
British Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A Main Provisions of Charter Act,
1833
• Monopoly of East India
Company to trade with India
was brought to an end but
the company retained the
trade with China and the
trade in tea. Hence
• The company’s shareholders
were given a 10.5 percent
dividend on the revenue in
India.
• The company was allowed to
continued territorial
possession for period of 20
years i.e. from 1833 to 1853,
without prejudice to the
sovereignty of the Crown. The
company was held in trust to
the Crown. Hence statement
2 is correct.
• The Charter Act of 1813
required the Company to
maintain its territorial and
commercial accounts
separately. By this Act the
Company was put under
greater control of the British
Crown, but could retain its
D FA Spectrum EM

hold on the details of
administration and Indian
revenues. From 1853, the
revenues of India were
controlled by the British
Parliament. Hence,
55 Modern
History
With reference to Swadeshi
Movement consider the
1. It contributed to the
revival of the indigenous
artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of
Education was established as
a part of Swadeshi
Movement.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
C • The Swadeshi Movement had
its genesis in the anti-partition
movement which was started
to oppose the British decision
to partition Bengal.
• The Swadeshi Movement was
the great emphasis given to
self-reliance or ‘Atmasakti’ as
a necessary part of the
struggle against the
Government. One of the
major planks of the
programme of self-reliance
was Swadeshi or national
education. In August 1906,
the National Council of
Education was established.
The Council defined its
objectives in this way. . . ‘to
organize a system of
Education Literary; Scientific
and Technical — on National
lines and under National
control from the primary to
the university level. The most
important aspect of the
movement was a focus on
self-reliance or Atma-shakti
which led to the
development of indigenous
industries.
E F Spectrum EM All India Test Series
Test 2676
The 'Swadeshi'
movement led to:
1. Establishment of
National Council of
Education.
2. The inclusion of the
Muslim mass into the
Indian Freedom
Movement.
3. Immediate
annulment of the
partition of Bengal.
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to
Swadeshi and Boycott
movement, consider the
1. Indian National
Congress adopted the
resolution of supporting
Swadeshi and Boycott
movement at its
Calcutta Session (1906).
2. It led to decline in the
import of foreign goods.

3. Movement came to
an end with the
unification of Bengal.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
The most important
aspect of the movement
was a focus on self-
reliance or Atma-shakti
which led to the
development of
indigenous industries
and nationalistic
institutes like Bengal
National College founded
by Aurobindo Ghosh,
Bengal Technical
Institute, National
Council of Education.
56 Modern
History
Movement/Organization
Leader
1. All India Anti-
Untouchability League :
Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha :
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement :
E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
D • In order to better organize
the campaign for the
amelioration of the
untouchables' condition,
Gandhi set up a new body in
October 1932. It was first
named the All India Anti-
Untouchability League and
later renamed the Harijan
Sevak Sangh. Gandhi started
publishing a weekly journal
called "Harijan" on 11
February 1933 from Yerwada
Jail during British rule. Hence
pair 1 is correctly matched.
• All India Kisan Congress
E F Spectrum EM All India Test Series
Test 2679, 2665, 2676
With respect to
Mahatma Gandhi's
social reform
movements, consider
the following
statements:
1. He set up All India
Anti-Untouchability
League.
2. He started a weekly
journal Harijan.
3. He was pioneer in
passing of Temple Entry
Bill, 1934

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Sabha, 1936 was founded in
Lucknow in April 1936 with
Swami Sahjanand Saraswati
as the President and N.G.
Ranga as the general
secretary. Hence, pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
organized the "Self Respect
Movement", designed as
Dravidian Uplift, seeking to
expose Brahminical tyranny
and the deceptive methods
by which they controlled all
spheres of Hindu life. Hence,
pair 3 is correctly matched.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
pairs:
Leaders Association
1. Bhagat Singh
Naujawan Bharat Sabha
2. Sahajanand Saraswati
All India Kisan Sabha
3. Jayprakash Narayan
Congress Socialist Party
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
statements about
Periyar E.V. Ramasamy:
1. He opposed
Brahmanical
domination.
2. He participated in the
non-cooperation
movement, offered
satyagraha and
defended khadi.
3. He gave full support
to the scheme for
Pakistan after Lahore
resolution of Muslim
League.
Which of the
are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation-
Naicker was active in
the Congress-led
freedom struggle for
sometime. He
participated in the non-
cooperation movement,
offered satyagraha and
defended khadi.
Protesting against the
Brahmanical dominance
in high politics, he quit
Congress and developed
Dravidian cultural
alternatives to the
prevailing hegemonic
Brahminical culture. In
1925, he organized the
"Self Respect
Movement", designed
as Dravidian Uplift,
seeking to expose
Brahminical tyranny and
the deceptive methods
by which they
controlled all spheres of
Hindu life.
57 Ancient
History
not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur
C • Sohgaura is located in
Gorakhpur district of U.P.is a
copper plate inscription
found here. Here Ashokan
inscriptions were found.
Whereas, Chanhudaro, Kot
Diji, Desalpur are Harappan
sites.
D U A History of
Ancient and
Early -
Upinder Singh
RR

58 Ancient
History
relief sculpture inscriptions is
‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka)
mentioned along with the
stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli (b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi(d) Sohgaura
A • Kanaganahalli is about 3 km
from Sannati, Karnataka.
Here, excavation found
mentions ‘Ranyo Ashoka’
(King Ashoka) mentioned
along with the stone portrait
of Ashoka.
D U A History of
Ancient and
Early -
Upinder Singh
RR
59 Art & Culture Consider the following
statements:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Trading the path of
Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
the feature/features of
Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D • The emergence of
Mahayana sect of Buddhism,
which emerged during the
fourth council of Buddhism
held in 1st century A.D at
Kashmir during the reign of
Kanishka. Bodhisattvas were
perceived as deeply
compassionate beings who
accumulated merit through
their efforts but used this not
to attain Nibbana and
thereby abandon the world
but to help others. The
worship of images of the
Buddha and Bodhisattvas
became an important part of
this tradition. Hence all the
statements are correct.
E F Themes in
Indian History
Part -II
Test 2662
about Mahayana sect of
Buddhism?
1. The emergence of
this sect of Buddhism.
2. Worshipping the
images of Buddha is an
important part of this
sect.
3. The sect emerged
during the reign of
Ashoka.
below.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
60 Ancient
History
With refence to forced
labour (Vishti) in India during
the Gupta period, which one
is correct?
(a) It was considered a
source of income for the
State, a sort of tax paid by
the people.
(b) It was totally absent in
the Madhya Pradesh and
Kathiawar region of the
Gupta Empire.
A • Forced labour (vishti) is a
forced labour which became
more common than before in
300-600C. It is mentioned
alongwith taxes in land grant
inscriptions which suggests
that it was considered as a
source of income for the
state, a sort of tax paid by the
people.
D U A History of
Ancient and
Early -
Upinder Singh
RR

(c) The forced labourer was
entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the
labourer was sent as the
forced labourer.
61 Modern
History
groups of plants was
domesticated in the ‘New
World’ and introduced into
the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and
rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and
rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and
sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
A • After the voyages of
Christopher Columbus in 1492,
the Columbian exchange
brought New World crops such
as maize, potatoes, sweet
potatoes, and manioc to
Europe, and Old World crops
such as wheat, barley, rice, and
turnips, and livestock including
horses, cattle, sheep, and goats
to the Americas.
M U https://www.k
hanacademy.o
rg/humanities
/us-
history/preco
ntact-and-
early-colonial-
era/old-and-
new-worlds-
collide/a/the-
columbian-
exchange-ka
RR

statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally
found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is
naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is
naturally found in India only.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A • Statement 1 is correct:
Asiatic Lion is found naturally
in India only. Gir National
Park is the last natural habitat
of this species.
The Bactrian camel or
Double-humped camel is a
large, even-toed ungulate
native to the steppes of
Central Asia. In India, it is
found in the Nubra valley.
One-horned rhino is naturally
found in areas of Assam such
as Kaziranga National Park,
India and also in Chitwan
National Park (CNP) of Nepal.
M U https://www.t
hehindu.com/
news/national
/india-to-
collaborate-
with-four-
nations-to-
protect-asian-
rhinos/article2
6431985.ece
n/newsite/Pri
ntRelease.asp
x?relid=18668
8
hebetterindia.
com/158673/
bactrian-
camel-nubra-
valley-ladakh/
RR Asked in 2683.
(Rhino range countries
mentioned in the
explanation)
statements on the New
Delhi Declaration on
Asian Rhinos 2019:
1. It was signed by India
and China to conserve
Asian rhinos.
2. The declaration
envisages trans-
boundary collaboration
and local community
engagement for rhino
conservation.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Asked in 2669, 2860:
recently launched
Asiatic Lions
Conservation Project,
statements:
1. It aims to double the
population of Asiatic
lions to 500.
2. It will be funded
through the centrally
sponsored scheme
'Development of
Wildlife Habitat'.
3. It has been launched
by the Zoological Survey
Government
Launched Asiatic Lion
Conservation Project;
New Delhi
Declaration on Asian
Rhinos 2019

of India.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Famous Place River
1. Pandharpur :
Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3
only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A • Pandharpur is a well known
pilgrimage town on the banks
of Chandrabhaga River in
Solpur district, Maharashtra,
India.
• Tiruchirapalli District is
located along the Kaveri River
in Tamil Nadu, India.
• Hampi is city near the
Tungabhadra River, with
numerous temples, farms and
trading markets.
D U Atlas RR
64 Economics In a given year in India,
official poverty lines are
higher in some States than in
others because
(a) poverty rates vary from
State to State
(b) price levels vary from
State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies
from State to State
(d) quality of public
distribution varies from State
to State
B The Planning Commission
methodology for estimating
poverty at national and state
level was regarded by some as
inappropriate in giving a
representative picture of the
incidence of poverty in the
country. The main points of the
criticism were:
(a) the adjustment procedure;
(b) the choice of deflators to
represent price changes in the
poverty line;
(c) application of the same
poverty line in all the states,
which imply the absence of price
differentials across the states;
(d) use of a fixed consumption
basket over time; and
(e) the uniform consumption
basket for all the states.
D FA http://plannin
gcommission.
nic.in/reports/
genrep/pov_r
ep0707.pdf
RR

65 Environment In the context of which of
the following do some
scientists suggest the used of
cirrus cloud thinning
technique and the injection
of sulphate aerosol into
stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial
rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency
and intensity of tropical
cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse
effects of solar wind on the
Earth
(d) Reducing the global
warming
D • The geo-engineering
technique known as
stratospheric aerosol
injection (SAI) could limit
rising temperatures that are
causing climate change.
• Cloud thinning strategy
would be used to shoot
powder over cirrus clouds,
which would thin out their
coverage and alter their
radiative effects over Earth.
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
scientists-
mull-
stratospheric-
barrier-to-
curb-
warming/articl
e25587354.ec
e
Page 5
Test 2667
'Stratospheric Aerosol
Injection (SAI)' a
geoengineering
technique would be
most useful for which of
the following purpose?
(a) Reduction of Carbon
dioxide emissions
(b) Clear visibility for
fighter jets
(c) Mitigate Global
Warming
(d) Cloud seeding
66 Environment In the context of which one
of the following are the
terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma
gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth
elements
(b) Natural gas extraction
technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based
automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy
technologies
D • Pyrolysis: Pyrolysis is the
process of heating organic
material at high temperatures
in the absence of oxygen.
• Plasma Gasification: Plasma
gasification is an extreme
thermal process using plasma
which converts organic
matter into a syngas
(synthesis gas) which is
primarily made up of
hydrogen and carbon
monoxide.
E FCA https://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/
plastic-
surgery/article
25604517.ece
EM PT 365 Environment
Page 39
MONTHLY REVISION
CURRENT AFFAIRS
technology/methods
is/are used for producing
energy from
waste?
1. Incineration
2. Biomethanation
3. Pyrolysis
4. Gasification
from the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Commonly seen in
news.
67 Environment Which of the following are in
Agasthyamala Biosphere
Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and
A • Located in the Western Ghats
in the south of the country,
the Agasthyamala Biosphere
Reserve is a unique genetic
M FCA http://www.u
nesco.org/ne
w/en/natural-
sciences/envir
EM Recently, the forest
department, after a
High Court order,
granted permission

Shendurney Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai,
Sathyamangalam and
Wayanand Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley
National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla
Brahmeswaram and
Papikonda Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi
National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri
Venkateswara Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and
Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam
Tiger Reserve
reservoir of cultivated plants.
Three wildlife sanctuaries,
Shendurney, Peppara and
Neyyar, are located in the
site, as well as the Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger reserve.
onment/ecolo
gical-
sciences/biosp
here-
reserves/asia-
and-the-
pacific/india/a
gasthyamala/
findia.indiatim
es.com/city/th
iruvananthapu
ram/women-
get-nod-to-
trek-to-
agasthya-
mala/articlesh
ow/67402572.
cms
to women to treck
the
Agasthyarkoodam
peak for the first time
in history. This was
due to the difficult
terrain and resistance
from the Kani Tribe, a
group of indigenous
people who opposed
women entry at the
peak.
Agasthyakoodam is
situated in the
Peppara Forest Range
and included in the
UNESCO World
Heritage List under
Agasthyamala
Biosphere Reserve.
statements:
1. Some species of turtles are
herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are
herbivores.
3. Some species of marine
mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes
are viviparous.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D • Statement 1 is correct: Green
sea turtles eat seagrasses and
algae, though juveniles snack
on crabs, sponges, and
jellyfish. In the wild, they can
live up to 80 years and grow
up to five feet long. Once
mature, it is the only sea
turtle that is strictly
herbivorous.
• Statement 2 is correct:
Parrotfish are algae eaters.
They obtain the algae by
ripping small chunks of coral
from a reef. Many other
herbivores thrive among the
fish population. Other
herbivores include the
Japanese angelfish, yellow
bloth rabbitfish, and tilapia.
D U https://scienci
ng.com/list-
herbivores-
ocean-
8599405.html
RR UPSC has previously
asked a question on
Dugong (aquatic
animal) and its
herbivore nature.

diet of Manatees consists of
water grasses, weeds, and
algae. Dugongs are related to
manatees, which are both
endangered and protected
animals. These slow-moving
herbivores graze on
underwater grasses, rooting
them out with bristled,
sensitive snouts and
chomping them with rough
lips.
Snakes that are viviparous
nourish their developing
young through a placenta and
yolk sac, something that is
highly unusual among
reptiles. Boa constrictors and
green anacondas are two
examples of viviparous
snakes, meaning they give
birth to live young with no
eggs involved at any stage of
development.
69 Environment Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer :
Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin :
Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat :
Eastern Ghats
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
C • Blue-finned Mahseer is found
naturally in the Cauvery river.
• The Irrawaddy dolphin is a
critically endangered species.
It is found near sea coasts
and in estuaries and rivers in
parts of the Bay of Bengal and
Southeast Asia. In India, it is
found in Lake Chilika and not
the Chambal river. The
gangetic dolphin is found in
the Chambal river.
• Rusty Spotted Cat is one of
the world's smallest feline.
E FCA https://www.th
ehindu.com/sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/th
e-hump-
backed-
mahseer-
critically-
endangered/arti
cle26653559.ec
e
https://www.tel
egraphindia.co
m/india/cauver
EM PT 365 Environment
page 25
Asked in 2880
Recently been given
Critically Endangered
status, the Hump-
backed mahseer fish,
which is also known as
the 'tiger of the river', is
most likely to be found
in:
(a) Ganga-Brahmaputra
basin
(b) Cauvery basin

The rusty spotted cat, one of
the few wild cats that inhabit
the forests of Andhra
Pradesh, is among the
animals in the Eastern Ghats.
y-fish-faces-
extinction/cid/1
511529
http://www.ne
windianexpress.
com/states/odis
ha/2019/may/1
0/chilikas-4-
new-mouths-
evoke-mixed-
reaction-
1974991.html
https://timesofi
ndia.indiatimes.
com/city/mumb
ai/spotted-cats-
find-home-at-
sgnp/articlesho
w/67445358.cm
s
https://www.th
ehindu.com/sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/Th
is-cat-is-so-
small-science-is-
forgetting-
it/article166951
61.ece
(c) Pulicat lake
(d) Deepor Beel
Asked in 2677
"They are primarily
found in are found in
the coastal areas in
South and Southeast
Asia. Chilika lake in
Odisha has emerged as
their single largest
habitat globally. They
are categorised as
Endangered in the IUCN
red list."
species has been
described in the above
passage?
(a) Yangtze Dolphin
(b) Irrawady Dolphin
(c) Ganges shark
(d) Mali Hka fish
70 Environment Why is there a great concern
about the ‘microbeads’ that
are released into
environment?
(a) They are considered
harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to
cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to
be absorbed by crop plants in
irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be
used as food adulterants.
A • Microbeads are
manufactured solid plastic
particles of less than one
millimeter in their largest
dimension. They are most
frequently made of
polyethylene but can be of
other petrochemical plastics
such as polypropylene and
polystyrene. Microbeads,
small pellets of plastic,
extensively used in personal
care products such as
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/f
eeding-on-
microplastics-
a-scourge-
stalks-the-
sea/article255
27355.ece
Page 17
Asked in 2668
With reference to
microbeads
(microplastics), consider
the following
statements:
1. They are plastic
pieces measuring less
than 5 mm.
2. They are found in
cosmetics, toothpastes
Frequently seen in
news.

shampoo, baby lotion and
face cream and considered
toxic to marine life, are being
banned internationally.
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/energy-
and-
environment/f
eeding-on-
microplastics-
a-scourge-
stalks-the-
sea/article255
27355.ece
and table salt.
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71 Art & Culture Building ‘Kalyaana
Mandapas’ was a notable
feature in the temple
construction in the kingdom
of
(a) Chalukya (b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara
D • A kalyana mandapa was
meant to celebrate divine
weddings in Vijayanagara
Empire.
M F NCERT-
Themes in
Indian History
Part-II
EM
72 Medieval
History
statements:
1. In the revenue
administration of Delhi
Sultanate, the in-charge of
revenue collection was
known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans
of Delhi was an ancient
indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’
came into existence during
the reign of Khalji Sultans of
Delhi.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A • In the revenue administration
of Delhi Sultanate, the in-
charge of revenue collection
was known as ‘Amil’. Hence
• The initial Turkish conquests
in India in the early 13th
century displaced many local
chiefs. In order to
consolidate, the Turkish
rulers made revenue
assignments (iqta), in lieu of
cash, to their nobles. So, Iqtas
were provinces or spheres of
influence which were put
under the charge of officers
called 'Iqtadars' (governors).
lqta is an Arabic word and
the institution had been in
force in the early lslamic
world as a form of reward for
D F NCERT-
Themes in
Indian History
Part-II
EM

services to the state. It was
used in the Caliphate
administration as a way of
financing operations and
paying civil and military
officers. It was not an ancient
indigenous institution. Hence
• In Akbar's administration,
the military department was
headed by Mir Bakshi which
looked after all matters
pertaining to the military
administration. He was also
considered as the head of
nobility. Hence statement 3 is
not correct.

73 Medieval
History
statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a
contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly
influenced by Shaikh Ahmad
Sirhindi.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
D • Nimbarka, a Telugu Brahmin,
is believed to have been a
younger contemporary of
Ramanuja (11th Century). He
spent most of his time in
Vrindavan near Mathura in
North India. He believed in
total devotion to Krishna and
Rama. The Mughal emperor
Akbar lived from 1542-1605.
correct.
• Naqshbandi Sufi Saint Shaikh
Ahmad Sirhindi was in
Haryana in the peiod of
1624.Whereas Kabir Das, is a
15th century mystical poet
and great Bhakti Saint of
India. He is the most
important Nirguna Bhakti
saint. The nirguna bhaktas
were devotees of a formless
God even while calling him
variously as Rama, Govinda,
Hari or Raghunatha. Hence
D U Themes in
Indian History-
Part II
RR
74 Modern
History
With reference to the British
colonial rule in India,
statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was
instrumental in the abolition
of the system of ‘indentured
labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s War
Conference’, Mahatma
Gandhi did not support the
resolution on recruiting
Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the
B • Mahatma Gandhi was
instrumental in the abolition of
the system of ‘indentured
labour’ in South Africa.
Moderates supported the First
World War. Hence statement 2
is not correct. Congress was
declared illegal by British
government after the launch
of second phase of Civil
Disobedience Movement. It
was not a factor that favoured
in launching of second phase of
Civil Disobedience Movement.
M F Spectrum EM All India Test Series
Test 2664
nationalist response to
British participation in
the First World War,
statements:
1. While the moderates
supported the Britain in
the war, extremists
opposed the move.
2. The revolutionaries
saw the war as an

breaking of Salt Law by
Indian people, the Indian
National Congress was
declared illegal by the
colonial rulers.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
opportunity to wage a
fight against the British
rule and liberate the
country.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75 Modern
History
National Movement,
consider the following pairs:
Person Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru :
President, All India Liberal
Federation
2. K. C. Neogy : Member, The
Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi : General
Secretary, Communist Party
of India
matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D • Tej Bahadur Sapru was a
prominent Indian freedom
fighter, lawyer and politician.
When the Montagu report of
1918 was made public, there
was a divide in the Congress
over it. The moderates
welcomed it while the
extremists opposed it. This
led to a schism in the
Congress with moderate
leaders forming the "Indian
National Liberal Federation"
in 1919. The party (INLF) was
founded by Surendra Nath
Banarjea and some of its
prominent leaders were Tej
Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa
Sastri and M. R. Jayakar.
• KC Neogy, was an Indian
politician from West Bengal.
He was a member of the
Constituent Assembly of
India, member of the first
Cabinet of independent India
and the chairman of the first
Finance Commission of India.
• Puran Chand Joshi, one of
the early leaders of the
communist movement in
M F Spectrum EM

India. He was the first general
secretary of the Communist
Party of India from 1935–47.
• Hence all the pairs given are
correctly matched.
76 Medieval
History
With reference to Mian
Tansen, which one of the
following statements is not
correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given
to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed
Dhrupada on Hindu gods and
goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs
on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many
Ragas.
A • Tansen was the most
important musician during
the reign of Akbar & is
credited with composing
many ragas. Tansen was one
of the best known dhrupad
singers and one of the nine
jewels of Emperor Akbar's
court. He composed songs on
his patrons. Tansen was the
title given to him by Raja
Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen
was a court musician in the
darbar of Raja Ramachandra
of Bandavagarh (Rewa).
• When Akbar heard of his
prodigious talent, he sent a
‘firman’ to the king asking for
Tansen and made him one of
the Navaratnas in his court.
He gave him the title of
‘Mian’. Hence all the
statements are correct except
statement (a)
hehindu.com/
entertainment
/music/the-
legend-of-
mian-
tansen/article
22893454.ece
RR
77 Medieval
History
Mughal Emperors shifted
emphasis from illustrated
manuscripts to album and
individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
C • With the establishment of the
Mughal empire, the Mughal
School of painting originated
in the reign of Akbar in 1560
A.D. Emperor Akbar was
keenly interested in the art of
painting and architecture.
During his reign, an
illustrated manuscript of the
Tuti-nama appears to be the
first work of the Mughal
D F http://ccrtindi
a.gov.in/minia
turepainting.p
hp
Test 2662
Which one of the
not correct about the
development of
paintings during the
Mughal period in India?
(a) Mughal painting
reached its climax under
the reign of Jahangir.

School. The style of painting
in this manuscript shows the
Mughal style in its formative
stage. Shortly after that,
between 1564-69 A.D. was
completed a very ambitious
project in the form of Hamza-
nama illustrations on cloth,
originally consisting of 1400
leaves in seventeen volumes.
Each leaf measured about
27"x20". The style of Hamza-
nama is more developed and
refined than that of the Tuti-
nama.
• Under Jahangir, painting
acquired greater charm,
refinement and dignity. He
had great fascination for
nature and took delight in the
portraiture of birds, animals
and flowers.
(b) Foundation of
Mughal painting was
laid by the Humayun.
(c) European paintings
were introduced in India
by the Portuguese in the
court of Jahangir.
(d) Themes in Rajasthani
paintings were
influenced by the
Mughal paintings.
Explanation-
Mughals made a
distinctive contribution
in the field of a painting
by introducing new
themes, new colors, and
new forms.
Mughal painting
reached climax under
the reign of Jahangir.
Jahangir claims that he
could distinguish the
work of each artist in
the picture. Under
Jahangir, special focus
was paid on portrait
painting and paintings
of animals.
78 Environment Which one of the following
National Parks lies
completely in the temperate
alpine
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdahpa National Park
(c) Neora Valley National
Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National
Park
D • A sprawling expanse of 87
square kilometers in the
Chamoli District of
Uttarakhand, Valley of
Flowers is set in the backdrop
of the majestic Zanskar
Ranges. The valley is situated
at a very remarkable area,
which is the conversion point
of Himalayan ranges, Zanskar
and Western and Eastern
D FA https://uttara
khandtourism.
gov.in/valley-
of-flower
EM Asked in 2688
is/are present in
Himachal and
Uttarakhand Himalayas?
1. Valley of Flowers
2. Dun Formation
3. Nagtibba hills
Select the correct
given below.

Himalayas. This fairyland
located in the high altitudes
of Himalayas is protected by
snowy mountains.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79 Current
Affairs
Atal Innovation Mission is set
up under the
(a) Department of Science
and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and
Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill
Development and
Entrepreneurship
C • The Atal Innovation Mission
(AIM) is a flagship initiative
set up by the NITI Aayog to
promote innovation and
entrepreneurship across the
length and breadth of the
country.
• AlM's objectives are to create
and promote an ecosystem of
innovation and
entrepreneurship across the
country at school, university,
research institutions, MSME
and industry levels.
E CA http://vikaspe
dia.in/educati
on/policies-
and-
schemes/atal-
innovation-
mission
EN PT 365 Polity Page 19
80 Geography On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the
horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the
horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead
at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead
at the Tropic of Capricorn
A • On 21st June, the Sun is
directly over Tropic of cancer.
Geometrically, it means the
Sun is normal (90*) to Tropic
of Cancer and makes an angle
of 47* to the Arctic Circle. As
such, the Sun is above the
horizon for all areas north of
Arctic Circle. The entire area
in the Arctic circle
experiences day. The North
Pole is inclined towards the
sun and the places beyond
the Arctic Circle experience
continuous daylight for about
six months. Since a large
portion of the Northern
Hemisphere is getting light
from the sun, it is summer in
the regions north of the
equator. The longest day and
the shortest night at these
M F G C Leong,
NCERT -
Fundamentals
of Physical
Geography
EM

places occur on 21st June.
• At this time in the Southern
Hemisphere all these
conditions are reversed. It is
winter season there. The
nights are longer than the
days. This position of the
earth is called the Summer
Solstice.
statements:
1. Agricultural soils release
nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia
into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases
reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D • Statement 1 is correct: A
major direct source of nitrous
oxide from agricultural soils is
that of synthetic fertilizer use.
Where large applications of
fertilizer are combined with
soil conditions favorable to
denitrification, large amounts
of nitrous oxide can be
produced and emitted to the
atmosphere.
Ammonia is a common by-
product of animal waste due
to the often inefficient
conversion of feed nitrogen
into animal product.
Emissions of ammonia from
livestock farming are
responsible for the
acidification and
eutrophication of deposited
ammonia in the environment.
Reactive nitrogen includes –
ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide
(NO), nitrous oxide (N2O).
Livestock and Poultry are
both responsible for
emissions of these.
M U https://www.
downtoearth.
org.in/news/p
ollution/annu
al-un-report-
recognises-
the-threats-
posed-by-
nitrogen-
pollution-
63469
unenvironmen
t.org/news-
and-
stories/press-
release/it-
time-fix-
broken-
nitrogen-
cycle-says-un-
environment-
frontiers
RR The annual Frontiers
report 2019
published by the
United Nations (UN),
has included a
chapter on nitrogen
pollution in its latest
edition, in a sign that
pollution caused by
the reactive forms of
nitrogen is now being
recognised as a grave
environmental
concern on a global
level.

82 Geography What is common to the
places known as Aliyar,
Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered
uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave
systems
(d) Water reservoirs
D • Aliyar is a village located near
Pollachi Town in Coimbatore
district in Tamil Nadu, India.
The famous Aliyar Reservoir is
located in this village.
• Isapur Dam is an earthfill dam
on Penganga river near Pusad
in the state of Maharashtra.
• The Kangsabati Reservoir
Project was started in 1956 as
part of the Indian Second
Five-year Plan to provide
water to 3,484.77 square
kilometres (1,345.48 sq mi) of
land in the districts of
Midnapur(erstwhile),
Bankura, and Hooghly. It
involves irrigation land using
water from the Kangsabati
River, as well as the Shilabati
and the Bhoirobbanki rivers.
hehindu.com/n
ews/cities/Coi
mbatore/tn-
agrees-to-
release-water-
from-sholayar-
and-
aliyar/article26
114721.ece
hehindu.com/n
ews/national/t
elangana/heav
y-flowing-
penganga-
threatens-to-
breach-
banks/article24
719430.ece
https://timesof
india.indiatime
s.com/city/kolk
ata/german-
help-for-south-
asias-biggest-
floating-solar-
power-plant-
in-
bengal/articles
how/68661562
.cms
RR
83 Environment In the context of proposals
to the use of hydrogen-
enriched CNG (H-CNG) as
fuel for buses in public
transport, consider the
1. The main advantage of the
use of H-CNG is the
elimination of carbon
monoxide emissions.
B • Statement 1 is not correct
and statements 2 and 3 are
correct: H-CNG is a blend of
hydrogen and CNG, the ideal
hydrogen concentration
being 18%. Compared to
conventional CNG, use of H-
CNG can reduce emission of
carbon monoxide up to 70%
M CA https://indian
express.com/a
rticle/explaine
d/cng-to-
hydrogen-cng-
why-switch-
and-how-
5278356/
Technology Page 46

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces
carbon dioxide and
hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth
by volume can be blended
with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less
expensive than CNG.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
and 15% reduction in total
hydro carbon emissions,
besides enabling up to 5%
savings in fuel.
• Statement 4 is not correct: In
its report to the Supreme
Court, the EPCA has
estimated that to fuel Delhi’s
5,500 buses, about 400
tonnes H-CNG would be
needed per day. Setting up
four fuel-dispensing facilities
would cost Rs 330 crore,
which can be funded from the
Environment Compensation
Charge (ECC) fund made up of
cess on commercial vehicles
entering Delhi, it said. For
consumers who pay Rs 42 per
kg for CNG, the cost of H-CNG
would not be more than Rs
43 per kg.
84 Geography Why are dewdrops not
formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the
radiation released from the
Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the
Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would
have low temperature on
cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the
blowing wind to ground
level.
B Dew is not formed:
• on cloudy nights because
cloudy nights are warmer
than clear nights
• in shady places because air
cannot move there freely
• on windy nights because wind
carries away the moist air
The atmosphere, heated by the
absorption of Earth radiation, in
turn radiates heat back to the
Earth's surface increasing the
Earth's surface temperature.
M F https://eesc.c
olumbia.edu/c
ourses/ees/cli
mate/lectures
/radiation_ha
ys/
https://books.
google.co.in/b
ooks?id=CtRO
CwAAQBAJ&p
g=PA121&lpg=
PA121&dq=W
hy+are+dewdr
ops+not+form
ed+on+a+clou
dy+night?&so
urce=bl&ots=I
PGNYa2F1A&s
EM

ig=ACfU3U2uE
g4rK0UbGd9f
MIujV5BFWW
uygg&hl=en&s
a=X&ved=2ah
UKEwi4zaTJu8
_iAhWTmuYK
HV2CBqE4ChD
oATAFegQICR
AB#v=onepag
e&q=Why%20
are%20dewdr
ops%20not%2
0formed%20o
n%20a%20clo
udy%20night
%3F&f=false

85 Polity &
Governance
statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to
the Constitution of India
introduced an Article placing
the election of the Prime
Minister beyond judicial
review.
2. The Supreme Court of
India struck down the 99th
Amendment to the
Constitution of India as being
violative of the
independence of judiciary.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
B • The Parliament passed the
Thirty-ninth amendment to
the Constitution which
removed the authority of the
Supreme Court to adjudicate
petitions regarding elections
of the President, Vice
President, Prime Minister and
Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Instead, a body constituted
by Parliament would be
vested with the power to
resolve such election
disputes.
• Amendments were also made
to the Representation of
Peoples Acts of 1951 and
1974 and placed in the Ninth
Schedule along with the
Election Laws Amendment
Act, 1975 in order to save the
Prime Minister from
embarassment if the apex
court delivered an
unfavourable verdict.
• The National Judicial
Appointments Commission
(NJAC) was a body tasked
with appointing judges to the
higher judiciary in India.
Article 124 of the
Constitution was amended
through the 99th Amendment
to reflect the change in the
system of appointments from
the collegium system, in
which a body of judges would
be consulted by the President
to appoint the judges, with
the judiciary’s opinion being
D U http://constit
utionnet.org/v
l/item/basic-
structure-
indian-
constitution
velaw.in/njac-
unconstitution
al-
constitution-
bench-41-2/
RR

final. The composition of the
NJAC includes as the Chief
Justice of India, the two
senior most judges of the
Supreme Court, the Law
Minister and two “eminent
persons”. A sub-committee
was further constituted to
appoint the “eminent
persons”. The composition of
the sub-committee includes
the Prime Minister, the Chief
Justice, and the Leader of the
Opposition.
• The composition of the NJAC,
therefore, presents a problem
it allows excessive executive
interference in the
appointment of judges. More
specifically, the term
“eminent persons” has not
been defined with clarity,
leaving a lot to the discretion
of the executive. Therefore, it
was natural for the judiciary
to fear the abuse of such
discretion by the executive,
resulting in political
appointments to the Supreme
Court and the High Courts.
Petitions were filed before
the Supreme Court to strike
down the 99th Amendment
as being unconstitutional. The
Court reasoned that the 99th
Amendment was
unconstitutional. In arriving
at this conclusion, the Court
evaluated the theory of
separation of powers and

held that the interference of
the executive in the
appointment of judges to the
higher judiciary was a
violation of the theory.
86 Polity &
Governance
statements:
1. The motion to impeach a
Judge of the Supreme Court
of Indian cannot be rejected
by the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha as per the Judges
(Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India
defines and gives details of
what constitutes ‘incapacity
and proved misbehaviour’ of
the Judges of the Supreme
Court of India.
3. The details of the process
of impeachment of the
Judges of the Supreme Court
of India are given in the
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the
impeachment of a Judge is
taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be
backed by each House of the
Parliament and supported by
a majority of total
membership of that House
and by not less than two-
thirds of total members of
that House present and
voting
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
C • A judge may be removed
from office through a motion
adopted by Parliament on
grounds of ‘proven
misbehaviour or incapacity’.
While the Constitution does
not use the word
‘impeachment’, it is
colloquially used to refer to
the proceedings under Article
124 (for the removal of a
Supreme Court judge) and
Article 218 (for the removal
of a High Court judge).
• The Judges Enquiry Act (1968)
regulates the procedure
relating to the removal of a
judge of the Supreme Court
by the process of
impeachment.
Impeachment procedure:
o A removal motion signed
by 100 members (in the
case of Lok Sabha) or 50
members (in the case of
Rajya Sabha) is to be
given to the
Speaker/Chairman.
o The Speaker/Chairman
may admit the motion or
refuse to admit it.
o If it is admitted, then the
Speaker/Chairman is to
constitute a three-
member committee to
M F Laxmikant:
Indian Polity (
Supreme
Court)
hehindu.com/
news/national
/the-hindu-
explains-how-
is-the-chief-
justice-of-
india-
impeached/ar
ticle23624312
.ece
prsindia.org/t
heprsblog/exp
lainer-
removal-
judges-office
Test 2652
According to the
which among the
following are the
grounds of removal for a
Supreme Court judge?
1. Proved misbehavior
2. Incapacity
3. Violation of
constitution
4. Corruption
5. Insolvency
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
In April 2018, Rajya
Sabha Chairman M.
Venkaiah Naidu on
Monday rejected the
Opposition’s
impeachment notice
against Chief Justice
of India (CJI) Dipak
Misra.

investigate into the
charges.
o The committee should
consist of (a) the chief
justice or a judge of the
Supreme Court, (b) a
chief justice of a high
court, and (c) a
distinguished jurist
o If the committee finds
the judge to be guilty of
misbehaviour or
suffering from an
incapacity, the House can
take up the consideration
of the motion.
o After the motion is
passed by each House of
Parliament by a special
majority, an address is
presented to the
president for removal of
the judge.
o Finally, the president
passes an order
removing the judge.
87 Polity &
Governance
The Ninth Schedule was
introduced in the
Constitution of India during
the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
A • To ensure that agrarian
reform legislation did not run
into heavy weather, the
legislature amended the
Constitution in the year 1951
which inserted Ninth
Schedule during the tenure of
Prime Minister Pt. Jawahar
Lal Nehru.
• Article 31-B was inserted by
the First Constitutional
(Amendment) Act 1951 which
states that without
prejudiced to the generality
E FA Laxmikant:
Indian Polity
(Constitutiona
l amendments
)
hehindu.com/
news/national
/govt-mulls-
putting-scst-
act-in-
schedule-ix-
of-
constitution/a
EM In May 2018, Govt
mulls putting SC/ST
Act in Ninth Schedule
of Constitution to
insulate it from
judicial scrutiny.

of the provisions contained in
Article 31-A, none of the Acts
and Regulations specified in
the Ninth Schedule nor any of
the provisions thereof shall
be deemed to be void, or
ever to have become void, on
the ground that such Act,
Regulation or provisions is
inconsistent with, or takes
away or abridges any of the
rights conferred by , any
provisions of this part, and
notwithstanding any
judgment , decree or order of
any court or tribunal to the
contrary, each of the said
Acts and Regulations shall,
subject to the power of any
competent legislature to
repeal or amend it, continue
in force.
rticle2387297
9.ece
statements:
1. Coal sector was
nationalized by the
Government of India under
Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are
allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India
imported coal to meet the
shortages of domestic
supply, but now India is self-
sufficient in coal product.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A • Adequate capital investment
to meet the burgeoning
energy needs of the country
was not forthcoming from the
private coal mine owners.
Unscientific mining practices
adopted by some of them
and poor working conditions
of labour in some of the
private coal mines became
matters of concern for the
Government. On account of
these reasons, the Central
Government took a decision
to nationalise the private coal
mines. The nationalisation
was done in two phases, the
first with the coking coal
hehindu.com/
business/Indu
stry/why-has-
coal-mining-
been-opened-
up/article2285
1689.ece
EN

mines in 1971-72 and then
with the non-coking coal
mines in 1973.
• Indira Gandhi was the Prime
Minister of the country from
1971-1973. Statement 1 is
correct.
After the Supreme Court
cancelled the coal block
allocations in 2014.
• To manage and reallocate the
cancelled blocks in a
transparent and accountable
manner, the Coal Mines
(Special Provisions) Act, 2015
was enacted. Enabling
provisions were made in the
above said Act for ‘allocation
of coal mines by way of
auction and allotment for the
sale of coal.’
• In a recent notification by the
Government on 20th
February, the government
opened up commercial coal
mining for the private sector
on February 20, and
approved the methodology
for auction of coal mines /
blocks for sale of coal.
• There will be an ‘ascending
forward auction’ -- a two-
stage online auction
comprising (i) technical bid
and (ii) financial bid with
initial and final price offers.
The bid parameter will be the
price offer in ₹/tonne which
will be paid to the State

government on the actual
production of coal.
India is still one of the largest
importer of Coal. Domestic
coal has been able to meet
only 75% of our annual coal
demand. The shortfall in local
coal availability is met
through imports of around
200 mt.
89 Polity &
Governance
statements:
1. The Parliament
(Prevention of
Disqualification) Act, 1959
exempts several posts from
disqualification on the
grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act
was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’
is well-defined in the
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
A • The expression 'office of
profit' has not been defined in
the Constitution or in the
Representation of the People
Act, 1951. They have been
mentioned in the Article 102
and 191 of the Constitution.
• According to Article 102 (1) (a),
a person shall be disqualified as
a member of Parliament for
holding any office of profit
under the government of India
or the government of any
state, 'other than an office
declared by Parliament by law
not to disqualify its holder'.
Article 191 (1) (a) has a similar
provision for the members of
state assemblies. Hence,
• Parliament has also enacted
the Parliament (Prevention of
Disqualification) Act, 1959,
which has been amended
several times to expand the
exempted list.
• There is no bar on how many
offices can be exempted from
the purview of the law. Hence,
E FCA The Hindu:
hehindubusin
essline.com/n
ews/national/
ec-dismisses-
plea-against-
27-aap-mlas-
in-office-of-
profit-
case/article25
325264.ece
Laxmikant:
Indian Polity (
Parliament)
EM PT 365 POLITY Page 1 In October 2018, EC
dismisses plea
against 27 AAP MLAs
in office-of-profit
case.

90 Polity &
Governance
Under which Schedule of the
Constitution of India can the
transfer of tribal land to
private parties for mining be
declared null
and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
B • The Indian Constitution
provides autonomy to tribal
areas in matters of
governance under the Fifth
and Sixth Schedules, which is
further fortified by the
Samatha v. State of Andhra
Pradesh & Ors (1997)
judgment where the
Supreme Court declared that
the transfer of tribal land to
private parties for mining
was null and void under the
Fifth Schedule. The
framework for protection of
the rights of tribal and
indigenous people is further
strengthened by the
Recognition of Forest Rights
Act, 2006 which protects the
individual and community
rights of tribal people in
forest areas and their right to
free and prior informed
consent in event of their
displacement and
resettlement.
E FA Laxmikant:Ind
ian Polity-
Chapter- Fifth
and Sixth
Schedule
The Hindu
hehindu.com/
opinion/op-
ed/protecting-
the-rights-of-
tribals/article1
7372134.ece
EM Recently,
Constitution (125th
Amendment) Bill,
2019 was introduced
in Rajya Sabha. The
Bill amends
provisions related to
the Finance
Commission and the
Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution to
increase the financial
and executive powers
of the 10
Autonomous Councils
in the Sixth Schedule
areas.
91 Current
Affairs
Recently, there was a
growing awareness in our
country about the
importance of Himalayan
nettle (Girardinia diversifolia)
because it is found to be a
sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre
D • Girardinia diversifolia
(Himalayan nettle), a fibre-
yielding plant, has become an
important livelihood option
for people living in the
remote mountainous villages
of the Himalayas.
D U https://www.
downtoearth.
org.in/blog/en
vironment/kh
ar-s-
experimentati
on-with-
himalayan-
nettle-brings-
recognition-
57880
RR

92 Science &
Technology
For the measurement/
estimation of which of the
following are satellite
images/remote sensing data
used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the
vegetation of a specific
location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions
from rice paddies of a
specific location
3. Land surface temperatures
of a specific location
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D • With the development of
remote sensing from space,
satellite data offers the
possibility for measuring land
surface temperature over the
entire globe with sufficiently
high temporal resolution and
with complete spatially
averaged rather than point
values.
• The global food supply is
being monitored with
satellite imagery and the
Normalized Difference
Vegetation Index (NDVI).
Near-infrared radiation is
being used to detect healthy
vegetation in agriculture.
Healthy vegetation reflects
green light and absorbs red
and blue light. The green light
that our eyes see is
chlorophyll created by plants
during photosynthesis.
Chlorophyll will reflect more
light in the green and near
infrared spectrum compared
to other wavelengths. This is
why near infrared radiation in
combination with NDVI is one
of the primary remote
sensing applications in
agriculture and the
environment.
• Remote sensing from
satellites can deliver
information on GHG soil
emissions by estimating
tropospherical, near-surface
CO2 and CH4 concentrations
D U https://gisgeo
graphy.com/1
00-earth-
remote-
sensing-
applications-
uses/
ciencedirect.c
om/science/ar
ticle/pii/S0034
42571200474
9
ciencedirect.c
om/science/ar
ticle/pii/S0009
28191630055
1
RR

based on the measurement
of the intensity of the
reflected sunlight in small
wavelength bands in the
visible and short-wavelength
IR portion of the spectrum.
states:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States
mentioned above, in terms
of percentage of forest cover
to the total area of State,
which one of the following is
the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
C The percentage of forested area
in 2017 by state as published by
the Forest Survey of India in
ascending order is:
• Maharashtra (16.47%),
Madhya Pradesh (25.11%),
Odisha (32.98%),
Chhattisgarh (41.09%).
D FCA https://www.t
hehindu.com/s
ci-tech/energy-
and-
environment/i
ndias-forest-
tree-cover-up-
by-1-in-2-
years-
centre/article2
2732640.ece
https://www.fi
rstpost.com/in
dia/forest-
survey-of-
india-report-
claims-rise-in-
forest-cover-
experts-call-
govts-
definition-
used-for-
measurement-
flawed-
4661521.html
EN
statements are correct about
the deposits of ‘methane
hydrate?
1. Global warming might
trigger the release of
methane gas from these
deposits.
2. Large deposits of
‘methane hydrate’ are found
D • Statement 1 is correct:
Methane hydrate is a
crystalline solid that consists
of a methane molecule
surrounded by a cage of
interlocking water molecules
(see image at the top of this
page). Methane hydrate is an
"ice" that only occurs
naturally in subsurface
M U https://www.
business-
standard.com/
article/econo
my-
policy/india-
might-hold-
world-s-
second-
largest-gas-
RR Asked in 2671, 2862.
With reference to Gas
hydrates, consider the
1. They are naturally
found under the sea bed
and glaciers.
2. They are crystalline
form of methane and
water.
Frequently in news

in Arctic Tundra and under
the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere
oxidizes to carbon dioxide
after decade or two.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
deposits where temperature
and pressure conditions are
favorable for its formation.
Owing to melting of ice,
global warming might trigger
the release of methane gas
from these deposits.
• Statement 2 is correct: Four
Earth environments have the
temperature and pressure
conditions suitable for the
formation and stability of
methane hydrate. These are:
1) sediment and sedimentary
rock units below Arctic
permafrost; 2) sedimentary
deposits along continental
margins; 3) deep-water
sediments of inland lakes and
seas; and, 4) under Antarctic
ice.
Methane is relatively short-
lived in the atmosphere; a
molecule of methane is
oxidized to water and carbon
dioxide after a decade or so,
mainly by reaction with
another trace gas, the
hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus,
unlike the case of carbon
dioxide (which stays in the
atmosphere longer than
methane), a concerted effort
to reduce methane emissions
would have almost
immediate results in terms of
reduction of greenhouse
effect.
hydrate-
reserves-
11806050143
0_1.html
http://www.b
bc.com/future
/story/201811
19-why-
flammable-
ice-could-be-
the-future-of-
energy
https://geolog
y.com/articles
/methane-
hydrates/
3. Krishna‐Godavari (KG)
basin in India is the
potential site for its
extraction.
Which of the
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

95 Environment Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
released into atmosphere
due to the burning of
crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D • Crop residues / biomass
burning are cheap and easiest
method to dispose the leftover
crop residues (wheat, rice,
sugarcane etc.) after
harvesting, for land clearing
and pest control. Burning of
crop residues is a common
approach to eliminate waste
after harvesting all over the
world. Burning of these
residues emit gases like sulphur
dioxide (SO2), oxides of
nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide
(CO2), carbon monoxide (CO),
black carbon (BC), organic
carbon (OC), methane (CH4),
volatile organic compounds
(VOC), non-methane
hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone
(O3), and aerosols etc which
affect the global atmospheric
chemistry and climate.
M FCA http://www.is
ca.in/EARTH_S
CI/Archive/v1/
i1/4.ISCA-
IRJES-2013-
005.pdf
EM Crop Residue/
Biomass burning is a
long pending issue
for the want of relief
from smog in
northern India during
winters.
Sea Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea :
Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B • The Adriatic Sea is a body of
water separating the Italian
Peninsula from the Balkan
peninsula. The countries with
coasts on the Adriatic are
Albania, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy,
Montenegro and Slovenia.
• Black Sea is a large inland sea
situated at the southeastern
extremity of Europe. It is
bordered by Ukraine to the
north, Russia to the
northeast, Georgia to the
east, Turkey to the south, and
Bulgaria and Romania to the
west.
M FA Atlas EM PT 365 International
Relations Page 30 & 40
Test 2879
The Caspian Sea is
bordered by which of
1. Russia
2. Tajikistan
3. Azerbaijan
4. Iran
5. Ukraine
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

• Caspian Sea is the world's
largest inland body of water,
variously classed as the
world's largest lake or a full-
fledged sea. It is an endorheic
basin (a basin without
outflows) located between
Europe and Asia. It is
bounded by Kazakhstan to
the northeast, Russia to the
northwest, Azerbaijan to the
west, Iran to the south, and
Turkmenistan to the
southeast.
• Mediterranean Sea is an
intercontinental sea that
stretches from the Atlantic
Ocean on the west to Asia on
the east and separates
Europe from Africa. The
countries surrounding the
Mediterranean in clockwise
order are Spain, France,
Monaco, Italy, Slovenia,
Croatia, Bosnia and
Herzegovina, Montenegro,
Albania, Greece, Turkey,
Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt,
Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and
Morocco.
• Red Sea is a narrow strip of
water extending
southeastward from Suez,
Egypt, for about 1,200 miles
(1,930 km) to the Bab el-
Mandeb Strait, which
connects with the Gulf of
Aden and thence with the
Arabian Sea. The six countries
bordering the Red Sea proper
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
The Black Sea is
bordered by which of
1. Greece
2. Ukraine
3. Georgia
4. Romania
Select the correct
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

are - Saudi Arabia, Yemen,
Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and
Djibouti.
97 Economics Among the following which
one is the largest exporter of
rice in the world in the last
five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam
B • India has been the world’s
top rice exporter since the
beginning of this decade.
(2011-12)
• India’s share in world exports
of rice in recent years (2014-
18) has stayed at 25-26 per
cent, Thailand’s has
fluctuated between 22 and 25
per cent, and Vietnam’s
between 13 and 16 per cent.
D FCA https://www.t
hehindubusine
ssline.com/opi
nion/columns/
c-p-
chandrasekhar
/the-dynamics-
of-indias-rice-
export-
boom/article25
994349.ece
EN
Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu Manas
above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
A • Bandarpunch is located at the
western edge of the High
Himalayan Range. It is part of
the Sankari Range and lies
within the Govind Pashu
Vihar National Park and
Sanctuary. It is a major
watershed for the
headwaters of the Yamuna
River, whose source lies
above Yamnotri, on the west
end of the massif below
White Peak.
• Bara-Sigri glacier which is the
second longest glacier in
Himalaya after Gangotri, is
located in the Chandra Valley
of Lahaul. The glacier feeds
the Chenab River.
• Milam Glacier is a major
glacier of the Kumaon
Himalaya. It is a part of the
Pithoragarh district of
Uttarakhand, India, about 15
kilometres (9 mi) northeast of
Nanda Devi. Mandakini is a
D U Atlas RR

tributary of the Alaknanda
River which originates from
the Chorabari Glacier near
Kedarnath in Uttarakhand,
India.
• Siachen Glacier is located in
the eastern Karakoram range
in the Himalayas. The glacier's
melting waters are the main
source of the Nubra River in
the Indian region of Ladakh,
which drains into the Shyok
River.
• Zemu Glacier is the largest
glacier in the Eastern
Himalaya. It is located at the
base of Kangchenjunga in the
Himalayan region of Sikkim,
India. Manas River is a
transboundary river in the
Himalayan foothills between
southern Bhutan and India.
99 Environment In India, the use of
carbofuran, methyl
parathion, phorate and
triazophos is viewed with
apprehension. These
chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in
processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in
cosmetics
A • Carbofuran, phorate, methyl
parathion, monocrotophos,
methyl demethon,
prophenophos and triazophos
are pesticides used in
agriculture.
M CAA https://indian
express.com/a
rticle/explaine
d/fall-
armyworm-
an-insect-that-
can-travel-
100-km-per-
night-the-
threat-it-
poses-for-
farmers-
5710850/
downtoearth.
org.in/news/p
esticide-ban-
lands-kerala-
Page 19
Last year, as reports
of Fall armyworm
(FAW) infestations
started pouring in
from across the
country, the Central
Insecticide Board and
Registration
Committee (CIBRC)
had allowed spraying
of select insecticides/
formulations —
Carbofuran, Phorate,
Thiamethoxam
(12.6%) plus Lambda-
cyhalothrin (9.5%),
and
Chlorantraniliprole

in-court-
33657
18.5% suspension
concentrate — on a
trial basis.
statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention,
it is mandatory on the part of
the Government of India to
protect and conserve all the
wetlands in the territory of
India.
2. The Wetlands
(Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010
were framed by the
Government of India based
on the recommendation of
Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands
(Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010
also encompass the drainage
area or catchment regions of
the wetlands as determined
by the authority.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Article 4 of the Ramsar
Convention states that "Each
Contracting Party shall
promote the conservation of
wetlands and waterfowl by
establishing nature reserves
on wetlands, whether they
are included in the List or not,
and provide adequately for
their wandering." It is not
mandatory on the part of the
Government of India to
protect and conserve all the
wetlands in the territory of
India.
Article 3 of the Ramsar
Convention states that "The
Contracting Parties shall
formulate and implement
their planning so as to
promote the conservation of
the wetlands included in the
List, and as far as possible the
wise use of wetlands in their
territory."
• Statement 3 is correct: As per
Wetlands (Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010, a
"wetland" means an area or
of marsh, fen, peatland or
water; natural or artificial,
permanent or temporary,
with water that is static or
flowing, fresh, brackish or
salt, including areas of marine
D U https://www.r
amsar.org/site
s/default/files
/documents/li
brary/scan_ce
rtified_e.pdf
RR Asked in 2675. Detailed
information on Ramsar
in explanation.
Which one of the
following statements
best describes the “wise
use of wetland” a key
concept of Ramsar
Convention?
(a) Put complete
restriction on the
cultivating genetically
modified agricultural
crops around the sites.
(b) Separate the human
settlement around the
all the sites by creating
the wide zone around it.
(c) Maintenance of
ecological character of
all the sites through
ecosystem approach for
sustainable use of
wetlands and their
resources.

water, the depth of which at
low tide does not exceed six
metres and includes all inland
waters such as lakes,
reservoir, tanks, backwaters,
lagoon, creeks, estuaries and
manmade wetland and the
zone of direct influence on
wetlands that is to say the
drainage area or catchment
region of the wetlands as
determined by the authority.

TOPIC
Topic Number of questions
Modern History 6
Medieval India 5
Art and Culture 2
Ancient India 3
Current Affairs 15
Economy 16
Environment 20
General Science and Science
and Technology 12
Geography 8
Polity 13

DIFFICULTY
D–Difficult 39
M - Medium 38
E–Easy 23

NATURE
Current Affair
19
Applied
12
FA – Fundamental Applied 13

SOURCE TYPE
EN 28
RR 32
RM 1
EM 39
Grand Total 100

Topic Difficult Medium Easy
Medieval India 5 0 0
Art and Culture 0 1 1
Ancient India 3 0 0
Economy 5 6 5
Environment 7 9 4
General Science and
5 5 2
Geography 5 3 0
Polity 2 6 5
Copyright © by Vision IAS
photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS.

- TEAM VISION IAS
• This year the paper appeared to be on the tougher side and the options framed were confusing.
• The static portions like History, Polity, Geography, Economics, etc. as expected were given due weightage.
• Questions in almost all the subjects ranged from easy to medium to difficult level. Few unconventional questions were also seen. This year many questions were
agriculture related which were asked from geography, environment and economics perspective.
• Few questions asked by UPSC, although inspired by current affairs, required overall general awareness. For instance the questions on Indian elephants, cyber
insurance, G-20, Siachen glacier, etc.
• Polity questions demanded deeper understanding of the Constitution and its provisions. The options in polity questions were close but very easy basic fundamental
questions like DPSP, Right to Equality, etc were asked from regular sources like Laxmikanth. Few Questions covering the governance aspect like Aadhar, Legal
Services, etc were also given weightage.
• In the History section, Ancient India questions were given more weightage unlike in the previous years, and their difficulty level was also high. Art & Culture and
Medieval Indian history also had tough questions. However, the modern history section was of moderate level difficulty overall.
• Environment questions unlike previous years did not focus on International climate initiatives and bodies. This year focus lay on environmental issues, application of
technology and related concepts like benzene pollution, steel slag, biochar, etc.
• Map reading and Atlas continues to play an important role in one's preparation in the Geography section. This year Geography included a mix of factual and
conceptual questions like major minerals, ocean mean temperature, jet streams etc.
• S&T questions were more on technology aspects than on basic science. Direct relation of S&T developments could be linked with current affairs like Visible light
communication, pronuclear transfer, Pneumococcal vaccine etc. However, few questions did seek to test deeper knowledge and clarity like germline gene therapy,
e-LISA, Carbon Nano Tubes etc.
• Overall weightage to Economics questions was increased this year. It ranged from basic, definition based questions, questions like demand deposit, WPI,
commercial paper, reserve tranche etc. to current affairs inspired questions like KCC, MSP. Statistics/trend based questions were this year as compared to last year.
• The Current Affairs based questions were not restricted to past one year news but gauged overall depth and comprehension of the topics.
• Overall, themes of the questions asked seemed relevant but required in-depth understanding and knowledge. Thus, we can say that UPSC expects the aspirants to
even read the fine print and prepare topics holistically.
www.visionias.in

QN Section Question
A
n
s
w
e
r
Explanation
L
e
v
e
l
Nat
ure
Source
Source
Type
Vision IAS
Current Affairs
Magazine/PT 365)
Motivation
1 S&T When reference to carbon
nanotubes, consider the
1. They can be used as
carriers of drugs and
antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into
artificial blood capillaries for
an injured part of human
body.
3. They can be used in
biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are
biodegradable.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are
cylindrical large molecules
consisting of a hexagonal
arrangement of hybridized carbon
atoms, which may by formed by
rolling up a single sheet of
graphene (single-walled carbon
nanotubes, SWCNTs) or by rolling
up multiple sheets of graphene
(multiwalled carbon nanotubes,
MWCNTs). Hence structurally,
carbon nanotubes (CNTs) can be
viewed as wrapped from
graphene sheets.
Carbon nanotubes were once
considered to be resistant to
chemical damage due to their
rigid and perfect chemical
structure, which rendered them
immune to biodegradation.
However, enzymes like peroxidase
were found to play an important
role in the process of
biodegradation of carbon
nanotubes. Hence option 4 is
correct.
NASA has demonstrated the use
of carbon nanotube arrays as
biosensors. Hence option 3 is
correct.
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are
characterized by unique chemical
and biological properties. CNTs
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/pmc/articl
es/PMC48132
64/
https://techno
logy.nasa.gov/
patent/TOP2-
104
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/pmc/articl
es/PMC41142
41/
https://nanos
calereslett.spr
ingeropen.co
m/articles/10.
1186/s11671-
018-2689-9
https://ir.uiow
a.edu/cgi/vie
wcontent.cgi?
article=5488&
context=etd
RR ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
TEST 2988
In the field of
nanotechnology, carbon
nanotubes (CNT) are
gaining importance. In
this context, which of the
following statements are
correct?
1. They are cylindrical
molecules that consist of
rolled-up sheets of
carbon atoms.
2. They can be used in
drug delivery and
cleaning up of oil spills.
3. They have extremely
high density and low
chemical stability.
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Carbon nanotubes (CNTs)
are cylindrical molecules
that consist of rolled-up
sheets of single-layer
carbon atoms (graphene).
They can be single-walled
(SWCNT) with a diameter
of less than 1 nanometer
(nm) or multi-walled
The use of
technologies based
on Carbon Nanotubes
is gaining ground and
that's why it is often
in the news.

have a large surface area that
allows them to attach a wide
range of biological substances. In
addition, CNTs are able to
penetrate through cell
membranes, capillaries, and
accumulated in cells and tissues.
It is expected that enabling
technology would facilitate the
making of nanodevices using
these blood-compatible
nanomaterials as building blocks
for biomedical applications such
as artificial implants, including
structural tissue replacements,
that is, artificial blood vessels, or
functional devices such as drug
delivery matrixes. Hence
statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(MWCNT), consisting of
several concentrically
interlinked nanotubes,
with diameters reaching
more than 100 nm. Their
length can reach several
micrometers or even
millimeters.
CNTs also have unique
thermal and mechanical
properties that make
them intriguing for the
development of new
materials:
their thermal
conductivity is better
than that of the diamond.
they are very light-weight
– their density is one-
sixth of that of steel just
like graphite, they are
highly chemically stable
and resist virtually any
chemical impact unless
they are simultaneously
exposed to high
temperatures and
oxygen.
their hollow interior can
be filled with various
nanomaterials,
separating and shielding
them from the
surrounding
environment - a property
that is extremely useful
for nanomedicine
applications like drug
delivery.
CNTs find an incredible
range of applications in
electronics, materials

science, energy
management, chemical
processing, and many
other fields.
Carbon nanotubes are
being developed to clean
up oil spills. Researchers
have found that adding
boron atoms during the
growth of carbon
nanotubes causes the
nanotubes to grow into a
sponge-like material that
can absorb many times
its weight in oil.
2 S&T Consider the following
activities:
1. Spraying pesticides on a
crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of
active volcanoes
3. Collecting breath samples
from spouting whales for
DNA analysis.
At the present level of
technology, which of the
above activities can be
successfully carried out by
using drones?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D Drone technology has been used
by defense organizations for quite
some time. However, the benefits
of this technology extends well
beyond just these sectors e.g.
emergency response,
humanitarian relief, healthcare,
disease control, weather
forecasting etc. Recently,
Australian scientists used drones
(that flew 200 metres above the
blowholes of whales) to collect
the mucus of whales from their
water sprays to examine their
health.The whale spray collected
by a drone contains DNA,
proteins, lipids and types of
bacteria. Hence option 3 is
correct.
Drones have also been used to
study the craters of active
volcanoes to know about their
recent activities, a place which
human beings cannot directly
access. Hence option 2 is correct.
Recently, the use of drones to
D CAA https://www.i
sro.gov.in/app
lications-of-
unmanned-
aerial-vehicle-
uav-based-
remote-
sensing-ne-
region
ciencedaily.co
m/releases/20
20/05/200525
115649.htm
irstpost.com/t
ech/science/r
esearchers-
are-now-
using-drones-
to-collect-
whale-mucus-
to-track-their-
health-
RR The Ministry of Civil
Aviation has
published the draft
Unmanned Aircraft
System Rules, 2020,
in a bid to frame
regulations around
drone usage

spray pesticides (in Telengana)
was in the news. It is considered
illegal in India. But in the US it is
legally practised in many states.
Hence option 1 is correct.
Hence option (d) is the correct
answer.
6024571.html
3 S&T The experiment will employ
a trio of spacecraft flying in
formation in the shape of an
equilateral triangle that has
sides one million kilometers
long, with lasers shining
between the craft." The
experiment in question
refers to
(a) Voyager-2
(b) New Horizons
(c) LISA Pathfinder
(d) Evolved LISA
D The experimental research on
black holes using gravitational
waves expanded following the
second detection of gravitational
waves by the LIGO detector. After
the success of the LISA Pathfinder
experiment, the evolved Laser
Interferometer Space Antenna
(eLISA) project is a plan of setting
into space three spacecraft, a
mother and two daughter
spacecraft, which will fly in a
triangular formation, trailing the
earth in its orbit around the sun at
a distance of over 50 million km.
Each arm of the imaginary
triangle, from the mother to each
daughter spacecraft, will measure
about a million km. Inside these
spacecraft will float “freely falling”
test masses – cubes with sides
measuring abut 46 mm. Laser
interferometers will accurately
measure changes in the distance
between these cubes. If they
should be affected by a
gravitational wave, the minute
changes in this distance are
measure by the interferometer.
Hence option (d) is the correct
answer.
M CA https://www.t
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/science/S
pace-
antennae-to-
probe-
gravitational-
waves/article1
4433813.ece
https://ui.ads
abs.harvard.e
du/abs/2013H
EAD...1330201
D/abstract
EN Gravitational Waves
and associated
developments are
always in the news.
After LISA pathfinder,
eLISA is next in the
line.

4 S&T Consider the following
statements:
1. Genetic changes can be
introduced in the cells that
produce eggs or sperms of a
prospective parent.
2. A person's genome can be
edited before birth at the
early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced
pluripotent stem cells can be
injected into the embryo of a
pig.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
D Germline gene therapy targets the
reproductive cells, meaning any
changes made to the DNA will be
passed on to the next generation.
Consequently, the practice has
dramatically divided opinion.
Germline gene therapy is when
DNA is transferred into the cells
that produce reproductive cells,
eggs or sperm, in the body. Hence
Although germline gene therapy is
illegal, embryonic genetic editing
is different from that and is
possible to make genome changes
to eliminate the vertical trasfer
(through inheritance) of certain
diseases and medical conditions.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Human-animal chimeras are
animals bearing human cells and
organs. They offer insights into
early human development and
disease onset and provide a
realistic drug-testing platform.
Researchers have experimented
by injecting several different
forms of human stem cells into pig
embryos to see which cell-type
would survive best. The cells that
survived longest and showed the
most potential to continue to
develop were intermediate
human pluripotent stem cells.
M CAA https://world
health.net/ne
ws/human-
embryos-
gentically-
altered-
unintended-
consequences
/
ncbi.nlm.nih.g
ov/pmc/articl
es/PMC68139
42/
http://sitn.hm
s.harvard.edu/
flash/2019/ge
netic-editing-
human-
embryos-
united-states-
ignites-
debate/#:~:te
xt=However%
2C%20germ%
20cells%20an
d%20embryos
,allowing%20s
cientists%20to
%20direct%20
evolution.&te
xt=Certain%20
genetic%20de
fects%20that
%20cause,cur
ed%20with%2
0embryonic%
20gene%20edi
ting.
RM ALL INDIA TEST SERIES:
TEST 2970
With reference to Gene
Therapy, consider the
1. It involves the delivery
of a normal gene into the
individual to compensate
for the non-functional
gene.
2. It allows correction of a
gene defect that has
been diagnosed in an
embryo.
given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Gene therapy is a
collection of methods
that allows correction of
a gene defect that has
been diagnosed in a
child/embryo. Here genes
are inserted into a
person’s cells and tissues
to treat a disease.
Correction of a genetic
defect involves delivery
of a normal gene into the
individual or embryo to
take over the function of
and compensate for the
non-functional gene.
The first clinical gene
therapy was given in
1990 to a 4-year old girl
with adenosine
Gene Therapy and
Mitochondrial
Replacement Therapy
have been in the
news.
https://www.deccanc
hronicle.com/lifestyle
/health-and-
wellbeing/030817/for
-first-time-disease-
edited-out-of-genes-
in-human-
embryo.html

ciencedaily.co
m/releases/20
17/01/170126
132536.htm#:
~:text=The%2
0researchers%
20injected%2
0several%20di
fferent,interm
ediate%22%2
0human%20pl
uripotent%20s
tem%20cells.
deaminase (ADA)
deficiency. This enzyme is
crucial for the immune
system to function. The
disorder is caused due to
the deletion of the gene
for adenosine deaminase.
In some children ADA
deficiency can be cured
by bone marrow
transplantation; in others
it can be treated by
enzyme replacement
therapy, in which
functional ADA is given to
the patient by injection.
But the problem with
both of these approaches
that they are not
completely curative. As a
first step towards gene
therapy, lymphocytes
from the blood of the
patient are grown in a
culture outside the body.
A functional ADA cDNA
(using a retroviral vector)
is then introduced into
these lymphocytes, which
are subsequently
returned to the patient.
However, as these cells
are not immortal, the
patient requires periodic
infusion of such
genetically engineered
lymphocytes. However, if
the gene isolate from
marrow cells producing
ADA is introduced into
cells at early embryonic
stages, it could be a

permanent cure.
Hence, both the
statements are correct.
5 S&T What is the importance of
using Pneumococcal
Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are
effective against pneumonia
as well as meningitis and
sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics
that are not effective against
drug resistant bacteria can
be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no
side effects and cause no
allergic reactions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
B A conjugate vaccine is a type of
vaccine which combines a weak
antigen with a strong antigen as a
carrier so that the immune system
has a stronger response to the
weak antigen.
A Pneumococcal Conjugate
Vaccine (PCV) is a pneumococcal
vaccine which gives prevention
against pneumococcal diseases,
that are infections caused by
bacteria called Streptococcus
pneumoniae, or pneumococcus.
Pneumococcal infections can
range from ear and sinus
infections to pneumonia and
bloodstream infections. A
pneumococcal vaccine is also
commonly called pneumonia
vaccine and can prevent
septicaemia (a kind of blood
poisoning, also called sepsis) and
meningitis. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
While vaccines are not intended
to replace antibiotics, they can
contribute to reduce AMR
(Antimicrobial Resistance or drug
resistance) by preventing
(resistant) bacterial diseases and
their transmission, and by
reducing antibiotic use and
misuse. PCVs for pneumococcos
can potentially reduce the
dependence on antibiotics by
nearly 50 fifty percent per year.
hehindu.com/
sci-
tech/health/fi
rst-
indigenous-
vaccine-for-
infant-
pneumonia-
approved/arti
cle32095084.e
ce
ciencedirect.c
om/science/ar
ticle/pii/S1201
97121930397
2#:~:text=Whi
le%20vaccines
%20are%20no
t%20intended,
reducing%20a
ntibiotic%20us
e%20and%20
misuse.
https://ourwo
rldindata.org/
vaccines-
antibiotic-
dependence
EN In July, 2020 Drug
Controller General of
India (DCGI) has
given approval to the
first fully
indigenously
developed
Pneumococcal
Polysaccharide
Conjugate Vaccine.
This vaccine has been
developed by M/s.
Serum Institute of
India Pvt. Ltd, Pune.
Serum Institute first
obtained the
approval of DCGI to
conduct Phase I,
Phase II and Phase III
clinical trials of
Pneumococcal
Polysaccharide
Conjugate Vaccine in
India. These trials
have since been
concluded within the
country. The said
Company has also
conducted these
clinical trials in
another country i.e.
Gambia.

Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines
can have side effects ranging from
fever, loss of appetite to
headache, fussiness. Hence
6 CURRENT
AFFAIRS
In India, the term "Public Key
Infrastructure is used in the
context of
(a) Digital security
infrastructure
(b) Food security
infrastructure
(c) Health care and education
infrastructure
(d) Telecommunication and
transportation infrastructure
A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a
technology for authenticating
users and devices in the digital
world. The basic idea is to have
one or more trusted parties
digitally sign documents certifying
that a particular cryptographic key
belongs to a particular user or
device. Hence option (a) is the
correct answer.
E CA https://www.
pki.network/in
dia/Faq/
RR Digital security
infrastructure in
news.
Difference between
Digital signature and
Digital Signature
Certificate has
already been asked
by UPSC.
7 GENERAL
SCIENCE
statements are correct
regarding the general
difference between plant
and animal cells?
1. Plant cells have cellulose
cell walls whilst animal cells
do not.
2. Plant cells do not have
plasma membrane unlike
animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one
large vacuole whilst animal
cell has many small vacuoles.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
C The most important difference
between a plant cell and an
animal cell is that the former has
a cell wall. A cell wall gives
mechanical support to a plant cell.
Animal cells do not have cell walls.
Plants have both a cell wall that is
made up of cell membrane
(plasma membrane) and cellulose.
The cell wall is, a rigid membrane
matrix found on the surface of all
plant cells whose primary role is
to protect the cell and its content.
Hence statement 1 is correct and
Plant cells have a large central
vacuole that can occupy up to
90% of the cell’s volume. Animal
cells may have many small
vacuoles, a lot smaller than the
plant cell. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
M F https://ncert.
nic.in/ncerts/l
/iesc105.pdf
Class 9th
NCERT
EM

8 ENVIRONME
NT
the reasons/factors for
exposure to benzene
pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden
furniture
5. Using products made of
polyurethane
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
D Sources of exposure to benzene
Human exposure to benzene has
been associated with a range of
acute and long-term adverse health
effects and diseases, including
cancer and aplastic anaemia. Active
and passive exposure to tobacco
smoke is also a significant source of
exposure. Benzene is highly volatile,
and most exposure is through
inhalation. Natural sources

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