04-08-2024

1771CMD303021240004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The unit of magnetic flux is :

(1) debye
(2) henry
(3) weber
(4) rutherford

2) A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and makes an
angle of 60° with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the magnetic flux

through the area A would be equal to :

(1) 2 weber
(2) 1 weber
(3) 3 weber
(4) (3/2) weber

3) Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:

(1) charge
(2) mass
(3) momentum
(4) energy

4) The magnetic field of 2 × 10–2 tesla acts at right-angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50 turns.
The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1 V when it is removed from the field in time t. The value of
t is :

(1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.01 s
(3) 1 s
(4) 20 s

5) A circular loop of radius r is made of a single turn of thin conducting wire. The self-inductance is
L. If the number of turns in the loop is increased to 8. the self-inductance would be:
(1) 64L
(2) 8L
(3)
(4) L/8

6) Two coils of self-inductances L1 and L2 are placed so close together that the effective flux in one
coil is completely linked with the other. If M is the mutual inductance between them, then:

(1) M = L1L2
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two inductor coils with inductance 10 mH and 20 mH are connected in series. What is
the resultant inductance of the combination of the two coils?

(1) 20 mH
(2) 30 mH
(3) 10 mH

(4)

8) A metal rod of length L rotates about an axis passing through its mid-point. The potential
difference between the ends of rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

9) Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the figure. Their mutual

inductance will be

(1) Maximum in situation (a)

(2) Maximum in situation (b)
(3) Maximum in situation (c)
(4) The same in all situation

10) Statement 1 :- Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Statement 2 :- Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.

(1) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(2) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
(3) Both the statements are true.
(4) Both the statements are false.

11) Consider a metal ring kept on a horizontal plane. A bar magnet is held above the ring with its
length along the central axis of the ring. If the magnet is now dropped freely, the acceleration of the
falling magnet is (g is acceleration due to gravity)

(1) More than g

(2) Equal to g
(3) Less than g
(4) Depends on mass of magnet

12) A wheel with 10 spokes each of length L m is rotated with a uniform angular velocity in a
plane normal to the magnetic field B. The emf induced between the axle and the rim of the wheel

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) A wire is bent to form the double loop shown in figure. There is a uniform magnetic field
directed into the plane of the loop. If the magnitude of this field is decreasing, current will flow

from:

(1) A to B and C to D
(2) B to A and D to C
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D
14) A Copper rod PQ is drawn out normally through the magnetic field then

(1) Charge on both P and Q develops and will be positive on both

(2) Charge on both P and Q develops and will be negative on both
(3) Charge at P will be positive and at Q will be negative
(4) Charge at Q will be positive and at P will be negative

15) Induced emf in the coil depends upon –

(1) Conductivity of coil

(2) Amount of flux
(3) Rate of change of linked flux
(4) Resistance of coil

16) In the figure shown, the direction of induced current in the loop is :-

(1) Clock wise

(2) Anti clockwise
(3) Not induced
(4) None of them

17) The self inductance L of solenoid depends on the number of turns per unit length n as:

(1) L ∝ n
(2) L ∝ n2
(3) L ∝ n–1
(4) L ∝ n–2

18) Two coils of self inductance 2H & 8H have a mutual inductance of 3H. Find the coupling factor
between them

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 8/3
(4) 4/3

19) The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce

(1) Flux leakage

(2) Hysteresis
(3) Copper loss
(4) Eddy current

20) A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the
combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is :-

(1)

(2) 40 sec
(3) 20 sec
(4) 5 sec

21) Conducting square loop of side L moving with uniform velocity perpendicular to one of the sides.
Perpendicular magnetic field B is constant with time. Then current induced in the loop is

(1)
clockwise

(2)
anti-clockwise

(3)
anticlockwise
(4) Zero

22) A semicircle loop PQ of radius 'R' is moved with velocity 'v' in transverse magnetic field as shown

in figure. The value of induced emf. across the ends PQ of the loop is :-

(1) Bv (πr), end 'P' at high potential

(2) 2 BRv, end P at high potential
(3) 2 BRv, end Q at high potential

(4)
B v, end P at high potential
23) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be :

(1) East
(2) Clockwise
(3) Anticlockwise
(4) West

24) Assertion (A) : In steady state, current in L-R circuit is independent of L. Reason (R) : In an
R-L circuit if current is increasing inductor behave like conducting wire.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true

25) Phase difference between induced emf and flux for a coil rotating in magnetic field :-

(1) 0
(2) π/2
(3) π
(4) 2π

26) Assertion (A) : When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the
coils is maximum.
Reason (R) : Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

27) If the current in a primary circuit is I=Io Sin ωt and the mutual inductance is M, then the value of
induced voltage in secondary circuit will be:-

(1) e = MIoω Cos ωt

(2) e = –MI0ω Cos ωt
(3) e = (Mω Cos ωt)/Io
(4) e = –(MωCos ωt)/ Io

28) The mutual inductance of the two coils is 1.25 henry. In the first coil, the current changes at 80
amp/s, the value of induced emf in volts in the secondary coil will be :–

(1) 12.5
(2) 64
(3) 0.016
(4) 100

29) Switch S of the circuit shown in figure. is closed at t = 0. If e denotes the induced

emf in L and i, the current flowing through the circuit at time t, which of the following graphs is
correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.4 T with its plane parallel to
the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 3 mm s–1. The induced emf in the loop
when the radius is 0.3 cm is :-

(1) zero
(2) 4.8 π µV
(3) 7.2 µV
(4) 7.2 π µV
31) An electric potential difference will be induced between the ends of the conductor shown in the
figure when the conductor moves in the direction :-

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) L
(4) M

32) As shown in the figure a metal rod makes contact and complete the circuit. The circuit is
perpendicular to the magnetic field with B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance is 3Ω, force needed to move

the rod as indicated with a constant speed of 2m/sec is :-

(1) 3.75 × 10–3 N

(2) 3.75 × 10–2 N
(3) 3.75 × 102 N
(4) 3.75 × 10–4

33) An e.m.f. of 15 volt is applied in a circuit containing 5 henry inductance and 10 ohm resistance.
The ratio of the currents at time t = ∞ and at t = 1 second is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1 – e–1
(4) e–1

34) A boat is moving due east in a region where the earth's magnetic field is 5.0×10–5NA–1m–1 due
north and horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms–1,
the magnitude of the indueced emf in the wire of aerial is :-

(1) 0.50 mV
(2) 0.15 mV
(3) 1 mV
(4) 0.75 mV
35) The current in a LR circuit builds up to th of its steady state value in 4s. The time constant of
this circuit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) If I = 5 A and decreasing at a rate of 103 (A/s) then VB – VA is

(1) 5 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V
(4) 20 V

2) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed in a uniform

magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity is connected as
shown in figure. Then in steady state

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Charged stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time

3) A uniform magnetic field exists in a region given by A rod of length 5 m placed

along y - axis is moved along x - axis with a constant speed Then induced EMF in the rod will
be

(1) 0
(2) 25 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 15 V

4) Calculate rate of doing mechanical work by external agent in the figure shown for conducting rod
of length 'ℓ' moving in uniform magnetic field with constant velocity :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) An inductor coil of self inductance 10 H carries a current of 10 A. The magnetic field energy
stored in the coil is :

(1) 500 J
(2) 5 m J
(3) 50 J
(4) Zero

6) A transformer is employed to reduce 220 V to 11 V. The primary draws a current of 5 A and the
secondary 90 A. The efficiency of the transformer is :-

(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 70%
(4) 90%

7) A rod of length (l=1m) and resistance r=0.5 Ω are connected to electrical circuit as shown in
figure. Resistance of connecting wires are negligible. The rod is moving with velocity v = 10 m/s in
external magnetic field B = 1 tesla. The current through the circuit is
(1) 4 A clock wise
(2) 5 A anticlock wise
(3) 4 A anticlock wise
(4) 5 A clock wise

8) Assertion:– According to Gauss’s law for magnetism, the net magnetic flux through any closed
surface is zero.
Reason:– The number of magnetic field lines leaving the surface is balanced by the number of lines
entering it.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

9) In the figure magnetic energy stored in the coil in steady state is

(1) zero
(2) Infinite
(3) 25 J
(4) None of these

10) Calculate current through battery after long time closing of

the key :

(1) 7 Amp
(2) 5 Amp
(3) 2.5 Amp
(4) 3 Amp

11) In the circuit shown in the following figure E = 10 V, R1 = 2 ohm, R2 = 3 ohm and R3 = 6 ohm
and L = 5 henry. The current I1 just after pressing the switch S is :-

(1) (10/4) amp

(2) (10/5) amp
(3) (10/12) amp
(4) (10/6) amp

12) The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount in a time . The
total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time is
represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two concentric square loops are placed as shown in digram. Now pointer P is moved towards Q
then direction of induced current in loop B is :-

(1) Anticlokwise
(2) Clockwise
(3) No current will be induced
(4) None of these

14) If magnetic field passing through a coil of area 0.1 m2 is changing according to the equation B =

10 sin tesla. Find the magnitude of induced emf at t = 0.5s

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

15) A metallic ring connected to a rod oscillates freely like a pendulum. If now a magnetic field is
applied in horizontal direction so that the pendulum now swings through the field, the pendulum will

:-

(1) Keep oscillating with the old time period

(2) Keep oscillating with a smaller time period
(3) Keep oscillating with a larger time period
(4) Come to rest very soon

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Statement-I : Bond angle and bond length remain same in the different conformers of the ethane
Statement-II : Dihedral angle changes in the different conformers of the ethane

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

2)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diasteromers
(3) Identical
(4) Geometrical isomers
3) Which of the following compound are meso forms ?

(1) 1 only
(2) 3 only
(3) 1 and 2
(4) 2 and 3

4) Which one is most stable conformers of n− butane?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If angle of rotation of compound "A" is +60°, what will be angle of rotation for compound 'B'.

(1) –60°
(2) +60°
(3) 0°
(4) Can not predict

6) Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds?

(1) Torsional strain

(2) Angle strain
(3) Steric interactions
(4) Electrostatic forces of interaction

7) Which of the following compound show cis and trans isomerism?

(1) Cl – CH = CH – Cl

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) How many geometrical isomers are possible for the given compound ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

9) Which one of the following cycloalkanes will be least stable ?

(1) Cyclopropane
(2) Cyclobutane
(3) Cyclohexane
(4) Cyclopentane

10) Which of the following compound possesses pos?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

11) Stereo isomers but not mirror images are called:

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Mesomers
(3) Tautomers
(4) Diastereomers

12) In which of the following, chiral carbon is present ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following is/are D -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Statement-I :- Enantiomers are optically active compounds.

Statement-II :- Racemic mixture is obtained from equal mixture of enantiomers and is optically
inactive.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

15) Statement-1 :- All double bond containing compounds show geometrical isomerism.
Statement-2 :- Alkenes have restricted rotation about the carbon-carbon double bond.

Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true but Statement-2 is a correct explanation of

(1)
Statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true but Statement-2 is not a correct explanation of
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

16) Stability order of conformer of n-butane is :

(1) Anti > Gauche > Fully eclipsed > Partial eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partial eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) Anti > Gauche > partial eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(4) None of these

17) Which of the following name is correct :

(1)

Eclipsed

(2)

Staggered
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

18) Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
A and B are

(1) Identical
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) None of these
20) Which of the following compound is optically active:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Most stable conformation of ethylene glycole is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) Determine E/Z configuration of the following compound :

(1) E, E
(2) Z, Z
(3) E, Z
(4) Z, E

23) Statement- I : Angle required to get maximum stable conformation from minimum stable in n
Butane is 180°.
Statement- II : Maximum stable conformation of n Butane is called as Gauche form.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

24) Maximum conformational isomers possible for ethane is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) Zero
(4) Infinite

25) Geometrical isomerism result because the molecule :

(1) rotates the plane of polarized light

(2) has a plane of symmetry
(3) has a centre of symmetry
(4) has two dissimilar groups attached to both ends of double bond.

26) In which of the following alkene hyperconjugation is not possible ? (a) (b)

(c) H2C=CH2 (d)

(1) a, b
(2) a, d
(3) b, c
(4) a, c
27)

Which is temporary effect

(1) Inductive
(2) Mesomerie
(3) Hyperconjugation
(4) Electromeric

28) 'Hyper conjugation' is refer for :-

(1) Delocalisation of lone pair with multiple bond

(2) Delocalisation of π bonded electron
(3) Delocalisation of C–H, σ bonded electron with adjacent π-orbital
(4) Cyclic resonance

29) Which gives zero inductive effect?

(1) —COOH
(2) —CCl3
(3) —COCl
(4) —H

30) Which of the following statement is incorrect for inductive effect ?

(1) It involves shifting of σ bonded electron

(2) It is distance dependent effect
(3) It arise due to difference in electronegativity of atom attach to organic chain
(4) It is a temporary effect

31) Which effect is distance dependent :-

(1) Inductive
(2) Hyperconjugation
(3) Resonance
(4) All of these

32) Which of the following has maximum –I effect?

(1) –NO2
(2) –COOH
(3) –F
(4)

33)
Decreasing order of –I effect of the triad
(–NO2, –COOH, –OH)

(1) –OH > –NO2 > –COOH

(2) –NO2 > –COOH > –OH
(3) –COOH > –OH > –NO2
(4) –NO2 > –OH > –COOH

34) Odd electron intermediate species is :

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) Carbon free radical
(4) None of these

35) A neutral divalent carbon species obtained by removal of two monovalent atoms from the same
carbon is called a :-

(1) Carbanion
(2) Carbene
(3) Carbocation
(4) Free radical

SECTION-B

1) What should be G so that following anion is most stable among following ?

(1) –CH3
(2) –COOH

(3)

(4)

2) Which of the following resonating structure is not valid?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which is wrong electronic delocalisation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which does not show conjugation?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) Arrange the following canonical structure in order of their stability :-

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > II > IV > III
(4) III > II > I > IV

6) Which of the following is an electrophile ?

(1) R–NH2
(2) H2O

(3)

(4)

7) Intermediates formed by heterolytic cleavage of bond :-

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) Free Radical
(4) Both 1 and 2

8) Which of the following is nucleophile :-

(1) FeCl3

(2)

(3) BF3
(4) ROH

9) In which of the following lone-pair is involved in resonance :-

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) III, IV
(4) I, II

10) Which of the following resonating structure is not correct for

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In which of the following resonance will be possible?

(1) CH2=CH–CH2–CHO
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH2=CH–CHO

12) In which of the following compound resonance is not possible ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Out of the following II is not an acceptable resonating structure because :-

(1) N has 8 valence electrons in it

(2) N has 7 valence electrons in it
(3) N has 10 valence electrons in it
(4) N has vaccant orritau

14) Stability order of following resonating structure is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > I > III
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > I > II

15) Which can show +M effect :-

(1) –NO2
(2) –OH
(3) –CH=O

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Stratification is well developed in :-

(1) Tropical rain forest

(2) Grasslands
(3) Alpine vegetations
(4) Temperate forests

2) Which of the following is not the example of commensalism ?

(1) Clown fish - Sea anemone

(2) Orchid - Mango
(3) Barnacle - Whale
(4) Hermit Crob-sea anemone

3) Which is most potent force for organic evolution?

(1) Predation
(2) parasitism
(3) Interspecific competition
(4) Intraspecific competition

4) Non-obligatory relationship between two organism in which both are benefitted is called :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Protocooperation
(4) Amensalism

5) (A) (B)

(C) (D)
In above diagram four areas are given. In which area has max. species diversity ?

(1) B
(2) D
(3) A
(4) C

6) Closely related species living in same area were able to avoid competition and co-exist due
to__________in their foraging activities :-

(1) Morphological differences

(2) Behavioural differences
(3) Physiological differences
(4) All of the above

7)

What percentage of PAR is captured by plants ?

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 2-10%
(4) 1-5%

8) Assertion : Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organisation. Reason :
These levels are organism, species, population and Biomes.

(1) Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and reason is false.

9) Assertion : Predators are Prudent in nature.

Reason : They never overexploit their prey.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

10) Assertion : Plants have evolved diverse morphological and chemical defenses against herbivory.
Reason : Locomotion is absent in plants.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

11) How much of carbon is fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis annually ?

(1) 4 × 1013 kg
(2) 3 × 1013 kg
(3) 4 × 1017 kg
(4) 5 × 1047 kg

12) The given ecological pyramid represents pyramid of energy in an ecosystem. What must be the
amount of energy in the form of light available to this ecosystem :-
(1) 10,000 J
(2) 1,00,000 J
(3) 1,000,000 J
(4) 10,000,000 J

13)
In given figure Identify A and B respectively :-

(1) Producer, Sun

(2) Producer, Micro consumer
(3) Predator, Scavanger
(4) Decomposer, Autotrophs

14) Assertion : Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason : Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15) The organisms can tolerate narrow range of temperatures are called

(1) Stenothermal
(2) Biothermal
(3) Eurythermal
(4) Geothermal

16) Choose the true/false statements from the given set.

I. Decomposition rate is higher when detritus is enriched with lignin and chitin.
[Link] humus formed during humification is further degraded by some microbes and release
inorganic nutrients via mineralisation process.

(1) I is true while II is false

(2) I and II both are true
(3) I is false while II is true
(4) I and II both are false

17) Productivity is measured in term of weight by _____ and energy by _____ respectively
(i) (gm m–2) yr–1 (ii) g–2 yr–1
(iii) g–1 yr–1 (iv) (kcal m–2) yr–1

(1) (ii) and (iv)

(2) (iv) and (i)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

18) The major reservoir of carbon is ....(a)..... It is about ......(b)..... Here (a) and (b) are

(1) (a)–Atmosphere (b)–1%

(2) (a)–oceans (b)–71%
(3) (a)–Lithosphere (b)–49%
(4) (a)–oceans (b)–52 %

19) Logistic growth and exponential growth formula are respectively :-

(1)
= rN ; = rN

(2)
= rN ; = rN

(3)
= rN ; = rN

(4)
= rN ; = rN

20) In the above age pyramids which pyramid shows population growth of developing countries :-

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A, B and C

21) According to IUCN total plant and animal species described so far is :

(1) More than 1.5 million

(2) More than 7 million
(3) More than 20 million
(4) More than 50 million

22) The organization which publishes the 'Red Data Book' is:-

(1) National Environment Engineering Research Institute

(2) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(3) ICBN
(4) National Wild life Action Plan

23) Match the column I and coloumn II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dodo (i) Africa

(b) Quagga (ii) Bali, Javan, Caspian

(c) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(e) Tiger sub species (v) Russia

(1) (a)- iv (b)- ii (c)- i (d)- v (e) -iii
(2) (a)- iii (b)- iv (c)- ii (d)- i (e) -iii
(3) (a)- iii (b)- i (c)- iv (d)- v (e) -ii
(4) (a)- iii (b)- v (c)- iv (d)- i (e) -ii

24) Identify the correct labelling in the given pie chart of vertebrate species

A B C D

(1) Fishes Mammals Bird Reptile

(2) Amphibian Bird Reptile Fishes

(3) Mammals Fishes Bird Reptile

(4) Fishes Amphibians Reptile Bird

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) If we analyse the species-area relationships among large areas like the entire continents, then
slope of line becomes much steeper in the range of :-
(1) 0.1 to 0.6
(2) 0.1 to 0.2
(3) 0.6 to 1.2
(4) 0.2 to 0.6

26) The value of (Z) of species-area relationship for frugivorous birds and mammals in the tropical
forests of different continents is________.

(1) 1.15
(2) 2.65
(3) 3.25
(4) 6.12

27) Latitudinal range of the greenland and New York, respectively :-

(1) 41° S, 71° S

(2) 71° N, 41° N
(3) 41° N, 71° N
(4) 71° S, 41° S

28) Species-Area relationship was given by :-

(1) British zoologist and geographer David Tilman

(2) Swedish botanist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt
(3) German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt
(4) British naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt

29) Select the correct option given according to diversity of tropical Amazonian rain forest in South
America.

(1) Insects > Fishes > Plants > Amphibians

(2) Insects > Plants > Fishes > Birds
(3) Insects > Reptiles > Bird > Fishes
(4) Insects > Plants > Reptiles > Birds

30) Which microbes used as a biopesticide ?

(1) Streptococcus
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Yeast

31) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to :-

(1) Growth of LAB

(2) Production of O2 & ethanol
(3) Production of CO2
(4) Growth of yeast Monascus

32) Which one of the following antibiotic was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in
World War-II:-

(1) Streptokinase
(2) Penicillin
(3) Statins
(4) Neomycin

33)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
(Products) (Produced by)

A Citric Acid i Streptococcus

Propionibacterium
B Streptokinase ii
sharmanii

Saccharomyces
C Swiss cheese iii
cerevisiae

D Ethanol iv Aspergillus niger

Option
A B C D

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)

Physical removal of large and small particle from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation is
called ?

(1) Primary treatment

(2) Secondary treatment
(3) Biological treatment
(4) Both (2) and (3)
35) The below diagram represent a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option for A, B and C

respectively.

(1) A-Sludge, B-Slurry, C-CH4 + CO2

(2) A-Slurry, B-Sludge, C-CH4 + CO2
(3) A-Sludge, B-CH4 + CO2, C-Slurry
(4) A-CH4 + CO2, B-Slurry, C-Sludge

SECTION-B

1) Animals eating plants are categorised separately as herbivores, they are in a broad ecological
context not very different from :-

(1) Parasite
(2) Predator
(3) Commensal
(4) Amensal

2) In accordance with their life styles what are the adaptations evolved by parasites :
(A) High reproduction capacity
(B) Well developed digestive system
(C) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(D) Absence of suckers and hooks

(1) A, C and D
(2) A and C
(3) B and D
(4) A, B, C, D

3) A population has more reproductive individuals compared to the pre-reproductive individuals.

What will be the growth status of the population?

(1) It will be declining

(2) It will be stable
(3) It will be expanding
(4) It will first decline and then becomes stable

4) Assertion : Ecology is the study of the relationship of living organism with the abiotic and biotic
components of their environment.
Reason : Temperature, light, water and soil are the most important physical factors of the
environment to which the organisms are adapted in various ways, in the environment
(1) A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is false.
(4) Both are incorrect.

5) Some species have evolved the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of environmental
conditions beyond which they are simply ........

(1) Regulator
(2) Conformers
(3) Migrater
(4) None of these

6) Read the following and find out which one is incorrect about ecological pyramids :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7)
How many statements are correct in relation to the given energy flow diagram.
(a) A and B are herbivores
(b) C and D are herbivores
(c) G and H are top carnivores
(d) A and B are producers

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
8) A climograph of various biome is given below. Identify the biome A, B, C, D represents ?

A B C D

1 Tundra Tropical Temperate Grassland

2 Tropical Tundra Temperate Grassland

3 Grassland Temperate Tundra Tropical

4 Grassland Tropical Temperate Tundra

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The figure below shows three diagramatic representation (A, B, C) of organismic response, give
the identification of correct diagram :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) Only B
(4) A, C

10)
Above pyramid showing -

(1) Pyramid of number in a grassland

(2) Pyramid of biomass in lake
(3) Pyramid of biomass in ocean
(4) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem

11) Factors related to increase in population density are :-

(1) Natality & emigration

(2) Natality & mortality
(3) Natality & immigration
(4) Emigration & predation

12) If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
population is ___________ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1) 10
(2) 1.0
(3) zero
(4) 0.1

13) According to IUCN some recently extinct species are

(1) Dodo, Quagga, Thylacine

(2) Sea cow, Dodo, Lion
(3) Bali, Javan, Elephant
(4) Dodo, Bali, Peacock

14) When we move from Colombia to Greenland, the bird speces will

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) No affect
(4) Can either increase or decrease

15) How many alcoholic drinks of following are formed by distillation :-

(A) Wine (B) Beer (C) Whisky
(D) Brandy (E) Rum
(1) Only one
(2) Only three
(3) Only four
(4) All five types

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common
ancestor. The original variety of these finches was :–

(1) insectivorous
(2) vegetarian
(3) seed-eating
(4) cactus eating

2) First seed plant was originated when :-

(1) Fishes were at peak

(2) Amphibians were at peak
(3) When Dinosaurs were at peak
(4) When Dinosaurs were wipe out on earth

3) Which period is also called as 'Golden age of dinosaur ?

(1) Triassic
(2) Cretaceous
(3) Jurassic
(4) None

4) The story of Birds shown in the given figure is related to

(1) Darwin, Voyage Galapagos Island on HMS Beagle

(2) Wallace, Voyage Malay Island on HMS Beagle
(3) Darwin, Voyage Galapagos Island on HMS Maria
(4) Leonardo da vinci, Voyage Madagascar Island on HMS beagle

5) The extinction of dinosaur takes place

(1) before the origin of seaweeds

(2) before the origin of first amphibian
(3) nearly 65 million years ago
(4) before the origin of fishes

6) Who did an experiment to prove that "The organic compounds were the basis of life"?

(1) Darwin
(2) Stanley Miller and Harold [Link]
(3) Melvin
(4) Fox

7) Under certain conditions scientists have obtained living non-cellular structures. These are known
as :

(1) Microbes
(2) Protists
(3) Coacervates
(4) Prebiotic soup

8) Some scienticts believe that life come out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc. This
is known as

(1) Theory of Panspermia

(2) Chemical evolution
(3) Spontaneous generation
(4) Big-Bang theory

9) Find the incorrect match w.r.t. Miller's experiment.

(1) Gases-Hydrogen, Ammonia, Methane, Water vapour

(2) Temperature-400° C
(3) Energy source - Electric discharge
(4) Volume of chamber-5 litre

10) Read the following statements (A-D) and choose the correct option :-
(A) The universe is very old-almost 20 billion years old.
(B) Considering the size of earth, universe is indeed a speck.
(C) Earth is 4.5 million years old.
(D) There was no atmosphere on early earth.

(1) All statement are correct

(2) Statements A and B both are correct
(3) Statements A, C and D are correct
(4) Statements B and C are incorrect

11) In S.L. Miller’s electric discharge experiment, he observed formation of _______.

(1) Amino sugar

(2) Glucosamine
(3) Amino acid
(4) Proteins

12) Two key concepts of Darwinian theory are :-

(1) Use and disuse of organ

(2) Mutation and survival of the fittest
(3) Branching descent & natural selection
(4) Saltation and overproduction

13) There are two alleles (A1 & A2) out of which one (A1) has nil abundance in a population then the
abundance of second allele (A2) is

(1) 0.25
(2) 1.00
(3) 0.40
(4) 0.50

14) Study the relationship between A and B, and answer D correctly by selecting the correct option.
Thorns of Bougainvillea (A) : Tendrils of Cucurbita (B) :: Bones of forelimbs of Balaenoptera (C) :
_____(D)_____.

(1) Bones of hindlimbs of Panthera

(2) Bones of forelimbs of Vipera
(3) Bones of forelimbs of Pteropus
(4) Bones of hindlimbs of Macropus

15) Panspermia theory states that

(1) Life was created by a supernatural entity

(2) Life from some other celestial body was transferred to earth
(3) Life came from decaying and rotting matter
(4) Life came from chemicals

16) Which of the following is the correct combination of gases that was taken by miller in his
experiment ?

(1) CH4, NH3, H2O, H2

(2) NH3, O2, CO2, H2
(3) CH4, H2O, CO2, H2
(4) O2, H2, N2, H2O

17) The famous swan-neck flask experiment of louis pasteur demonstrated that life comes only from
pre-existing life and these observations dismissed the theory of _____.
(1) Panspermia
(2) Organic evolution
(3) Chemical evolution
(4) Spontaneous generation

18) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II :-

Options :-

(1) a-ii, b-iii c-iv, d-i

(2) a-iv, b-ii c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

19) Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life could have come from

(1) Pre-existing living organisms

(2) Pre-existing non-living matter
(3) Pre-existing nonliving organic molecules
(4) Panspermia

20) Oparin and Haldane belonged to which country

(1) America, Russia

(2) England, Russia
(3) U.K , England
(4) Russia, England

21) Which of the following is the correct order for evolution of mammals?

(1) Early reptiles → Sauropsids → Synapsids → Mammals

(2) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Thecodonts → Mammals
(3) Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → Mammals
(4) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids → Mammals

22) Which one of the following is incorrect " about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life ?

(1) They were partially isolated from the surroundings

(2) They could maintain an internal environment
(3) They were able to reproduce
(4) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings

23) Which is the common ancestor of mammals and birds?

(1) Dinosaurs
(2) Archaeopteryx
(3) Platypus
(4) Reptiles

24) Which of the following is an example of missing link and an important evidence for evolution :-

(1) Neopilina
(2) Ornithorhynchus
(3) Archaeopteryx
(4) Balanoglossus

25) Darwin's finches are example of:

(1) Founders effect

(2) Adaptive Radiation
(3) Analogy
(4) Both 1 and 2

26) Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita show analogy.
B. Homologous organs are pentadactyl organ of man, cheetah and whale, they are modified fore
limbs.
C. Archaeopterynx is modern bird of mesozoic era.
D. Sweet potato and potato are the example of analogy.

(1) A, B and D
(2) B & D
(3) Only C
(4) Only B

27) Which of the following is correct?

(1) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between birds and mammals.

(2) Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are an example of homologous organs.
(3) Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals are examples of analogous organs.
(4) Australian marsupials are an example of adaptive convergence.

28) Which of the following cannot protect the user from contracting AIDS?

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Cervical caps
(3) Vaults
(4) All of these

29) Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

(1) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

(2) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(3) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(4) Very poor reversibility

30) Artificial insemination means

(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(4) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

31) In 'test tube baby' programme

(1) Fertilization is In vitro but embryo development is mainly in vivo

(2) Fertilization is in vivo but embryo development is in vitro
(3) Both fertilization and foetus development are in vitro
(4) Both fertilization and embryo development are in vivo

32) Emergency contraceptive methods must employed within

(1) 72 hours of ovulation

(2) 72 hours of onset of menstrual flow
(3) 72 hours of unprotected coitus
(4) 72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow

33) A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form
of this technique is

(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer

(2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(4) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer
34) An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly easily available effective and reversible with no or
least side effectsthen which contraceptive device is considered as this category -

(1) Spontaneous abortion

(2) Saheli
(3) MTP
(4) Sterilisation

35) Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to MTP (Medical termination of
pregnancy) ?

(1) MTP is legalised in our country

(2) It is generally performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rapes or casual relationships
(3) MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester
(4) Nearly 45-50 million MTPs are performed in a year in India

SECTION-B

1) Assertion :- Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.

Reason :- Different structures evolving for the same function and hence having similarity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

2) Out of the following which is an example of analogous structures?

(i) Eyes of octopus and man
(ii) Wings of pigeon and parrot
(iii) Potato and sweet potato
(iv) Gills of fishes and lungs of man

(1) i, ii and iii only

(2) ii, iii and iv only
(3) ii only
(4) i, iii and iv only

3) Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution ?

(1) Members of a same population showing diversity in their food

(2) Members of two different species adapted for different habitats
(3) Members of same species adapted for same habitats
(4) Members of different species adapted for same habitats

4) In following line diagram A,B,C show which type of evolution

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

5) Which of the following pairs of terms is not related?

(1) Evolution - Natural selection

(2) Vestigial structure - Appendix
(3) Analogous structures - Butterfly wings
(4) Adaptive radiations - Vertebrates hearts or brains

6) The given figure shows an example of :

(1) homologous organs

(2) convergent evolution
(3) divergent evolution
(4) both (a) and (c)

7) Miller does not used which molecules as substrate

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Ozone
(4) Water vapour

8) The first autotrophic life forms originated on earth were:

(1) Chemoautotrophic and aerobic

(2) Photoautotrophic and anaerobic
(3) Chemoautotrophic and anaerobic
(4) Photoautotrophic and aerobic

9) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ?
i. Formation of protobionts
ii. Synthesis of organic monomers
iii. Synthesis of organic polymers
iv. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(1) ii, iii, i, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv, i
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) i, iii, iv, ii

10) After about how many years of formation of earth, life appeared on this planet ?

(1) 500 billion years

(2) 50 million years
(3) 500 million years
(4) 50 billion years

11) Identify the correctly matched pair:

(1) Condoms – Terminal method of contraception

(2) Multiload 375 – Hormone releasing IUDs
(3) Saheli – Hormonal method of contraception
(4) Tubectomy – Surgical sterilization in males

12)

Assertion :- Forelimbs of horse and cheetah are example of homologous organs.

Reason :- Forelimbs of horse and cheetah perform same function of running.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

13) The theory of special creation has three connotations except :-

(1) All living organisms that we see today were created as such
Existing living forms share similarities to varying degress not only among themselves but also
(2)
with life forms that existed million years ago
(3) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also
(4) Earth is about 4000 yrs old

14) Which of the following method of contraception has maximum chances of failure?

(1) Rhythm/Periodic abstinence

(2) Vasectomy
(3) Condoms
(4) IUDs

15) Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of
birth control?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Both (1) & (2)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 2 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3) Mechanical energy convert in electric energy.

5) L × N2
∴ L1 = 64 L

9)

Angle between and is 0°

11)

13)

∴ Abig > Asmall , ∴ ebig > esmall

so direction of induced current in complete close circuit is decided by big loop. Now using Lens law
current in big loop is clockwise so A to B and D to C.

14)

By Fleming's right hand rule direction of induced current in rod PQ is from Q to P, hence P is
positive charged.

15)

18)

21)

Since flux linked with loop doesn't change so induced current is zero.
 22)
e = B(2R) v = 2Brv

25)

ϕ leads emf by

28) |es| =
es = 1.25 × 80
es = 100 Volt

29)

At the time t = 0, e is max and is equal to E, but current i is zero.

As the time passes, Current through the circuit increases but induced elf decreases.

30)

∵ flux linked with the loop is zero

∴ induced emf = 0

32) fext = fm =
fext = 3.75 × 10–3 N

34)

Eind = BH.v.l = 5 × 10–5 × 1.5 × 2 = 0.15 m volt

37)

38)

We know that

39) Theory Based

 40)

U = LI2 = × 10 × (102) = 500J

L = 10 H
I = 10 A

44)

45) at t = ∞

46) at t = 0, inductor behaves as a open circuit.

CHEMISTRY

52)

Both are optically active and are opposite so are enantiomers.

55) Net rotation of PPL is zero in meso comp.

58)

n=2 (unsymm. molecule)

GI = 22 = 4

62)

Chiral carbon :- Carbon having four different groups.

69)
Both have same configuration (2S, 3R)

70)

(1)
both phenyl ring in the same plane optically inactive.

(2)
bulky group at ortho position so both phenyl group are perpendicular to each other so
optically active compound.

(3)
both phenyl group are in the same plane so optically inactive.

(4)
both group which are attached in ortho position on the same phenyl rings are same so
optically inactive.

73) Gauche form at 0°

Staggered form at 180°

76) Absence of alpha hydrogen so not possible hyperconjugation.

79) H has zero I-effect

 81) I-effect is distance dependent.

96)

BOTANY

101)

NCERT Pg # 242

102)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 236, Last Para

103)

NCERT XII # 234

104)

Module Pg.# 6

105)

Module Pg. # 4

106)

NCERT Pg. # 235

107)

NCERT page No. # 243

108)

NCERT Pg. # 220

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 233

110)

NCERT Pg. # 239

111)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 254

 112)

NCERT XII Pg. # 249

113) NCERT Pg. No. 242, 243

114) NCERT Pg # 263

115) NCERT XII Pg. # 222

116)

NCERT Pg. # 243

117) NCERT Pg. # 243

118) NCERT XII, Pg. # 254

119)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 195

120)

NCERT Pg. 227, figure 13.4

121)

NCERT Pg.# 259

122)

NCERT Pg. No. 263

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 263

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg No.# 260

125) NCERT Pg. No. 220

126)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 262

127)

NCERT Pg. No. 219

 128)

NCERT XII Pg. # 262, Second para

129) NCERT XII, Page No. # 261

130) NCERT-XII, Pg # 187

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151

132)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 182

133)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 183

134)

NCERT-XII, Page # 154

135)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 186

136)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 233

137)

NCERT Pg.#235

138)

NCERT PG NO: 227

139) NCERT-Pg.190

140) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 224

141) NCERT-XII, Pg # 248,249

142) NCERT Pg # 246

143)
NCERT Pg. # 220, Fig. 13.1

144)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 223, fig 13.3

145) NCERT XII Pg. # 248

146)

NCERT XII Pg.# 229

147) NCERT Pg. # 227 [E], 247 [H]

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 263

149)

NCERT-XII Page No. #245

150)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 182

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 117

153) NCERT-XII Pg. # 139 (E) ; 152 (H)

155) NCERT-12th, Pg. # 137

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 127

162)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 134

164)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XII, Page No. -131

165)
NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XII, Page No. -127

169) NCERT Pg # 127

170) NCERT Pg # 127

171)

NCERT Reference Zoology-XII, Page No. 139

176)

NCERT Pg.# 130,131

177)

NCERT(XII) Pg#131/141(H) Para:7.3

190)

Adaptive radiations - Darwin finches and marsupials. Vertebrate's hearts and brains are the
examples of homologous organ.

191)

The given figure of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita sows an example of homologous organ or
divergent evolution. Homologous organ are those organs which are dissimilar in shape, size
and function but their origin, basic plan and development are similar. Other examples in
animals are fore limbs of frog, reptile, birds and mammals. Such differences are due to
divergent evolution or adaptation for varied conditions.

192)

NCERT Pg # 128

196)

NCERT(XII) Pg# 61 Para:4.2

198)

NCERT Pg.# 128