Test Booklet Code- A

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 27-OCT.-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

PHYSICS : (Dt- 14-05-24 To 23-10-24 All Chapter)

CHEMISTRY : (Dt- 14-05-24 To 23-10-24 All Chapter)
BOTANY : (Dt- 14-05-24 To 23-10-24 All Chapter)
ZOOLOGY : (Dt- 14-05-24 To 23-10-24 All Chapter)

INSTRUCTION
1. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
04. A sphere of radius R and charge Q is placed inside a
concentric imaginary sphere of radius 2R. The flux
Attempt All 35 Questions associated with the imaginary sphere is :
(1) Q (2) Q
0 2 0
01. A cube of side b has charge q at each of its vertices. 4Q 2Q
(3) (4)
The electric field due to this charge distribution at 0 0
the centre of this cube will be :
05. A sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of
(1) q / b 2 (2) q / 2b 2 electric charge in its volume. At a distance x from its
(3) 32q / b 2 (4) zero centre, for x < R, the electric field is directly
proportional to :
02. Eclectic field at points P1 and P2 will be : (1) 12 (2) 1
(1) in same direction x x
(3) x (4) x 2
(2) in opposite direction
(3) along same axis 06. The electric field at a distance 3R from the centre of
2
(4) both (2) and (3) a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is
E. The electric field at a distance R from the centre
2
03. Electric lines of force about negative point charge are : of the sphere is :
(1) circular, anticlockwise
(2) circular, clockwise (1) E (2) E
2
(3) radial, inward (3) E (4) zero
(4) radial, outward 3
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 1
Test Booklet Code- A
07. When one electron is taken towards the other 14. An air-plane is flying horizontally, so that velocity
electron, then the electric potential energy of the : of wind above the wings is 50 ms–1 and that below
(1) decreases (2) increases the wings is 40 ms–1. If area of wings is 50 m2 and
(3) remains uncharged (4) will become zero density of air is 1.2 kgm–3. Then the dynamic lift on
the air plane is :
08. Three charges Q, (+q) and (+q) are placed at the (1) 13.5 kN (2) 27 kN
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as shown (3) 54 kN (4) 3 kN
in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the
system is zero, then Q is equal to : 15. A block of mass 50 kg moved on a horizontal
q surface by some external force through a distance of
(1)  5 m. Coefficient of friction of between the surfaces
2
is 0.4. The work done by friction is (g = 10 ms–2)
(2) –q (1) –1000 J (2) –500 J
(3) + 500 J (4) +1000 J
(3) +q
16. If L1 and L2 are the lengths of the first and second
(4) zero resonating air columns in a resonance tube, then the
wavelength of the note produced is :
09. The ratio of kinetic energies of two particles of (1) 2( L2  L1 ) (2) 2( L2  L1 )
masses 2kg and 3kg are in the ratio 8:27. The ratio  L   L 
of their momenta is : (3) 2  L2  1  (4) 2  L2  1 
 2  2
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 16 : 81
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 4 : 81
17. Choose the correct statement :
(a) in applying Gauss law, the charges may be
10. For the velocity time graph shown in figure in time
located any where inside the Gaussian surface
interval from t  0 to t  5s . The ratio of distance to
(b) the electric field due to a charge configuration
magnitude to displacement is :
with total charge zero may not be zero
(1) both a and b are true (2) a is true and b is false
(3) both a and b are false (4) a is false and b is true

18. In the following indicator diagram, the net amount

of work done will be : P
(1) positive
(2) negative
1 2
(3) zero
(1) 11 : 7 (2) 9 : 7
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 7 : 5 (4) infinity
V
11. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of 19. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon :
 (1) length of the wire (2) radius of the wire
radius R  2m with an angular acceleration of
4 (3) material of the wire (4) shape of the cross-section
rads–2. The magnitude of average velocity of the
particle over the time it rotates one quarter of circle 20. Two soap bubbles of radii 4mm and 6mm are kept in
is : contact. Radius of curvature at their point of contact is :
(1) 1.5 ms–1 (2) 2 ms–1 (1) 2 mm (2) 5 mm
(3) 1 ms–1 (4) 1.25 ms–1 (3) 12 mm (4) 24 mm
21. A ball dropped from the 16th storey of a multi-
12. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of storeyed building reaches the ground in 4 seconds.
linear density 5 gm–1 is : In the 3rd second of its free fall, it passes through
y = 0.03 sin (450t –9x), where distance and time are n storeys, where n is equal to (Take g = 10ms2)
measured in SI units. The tension in the string is : (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 10 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 5 (4) 7
(3) 7.5 N (4) 5 N
22. A body projected horizontally from top of tower.
13. A particle executing S.H.M. with an amplitude 5 cm When its velocity is at an angle 60° with horizontal
has a velocity 5 cms–1 at its mean position. Its its speed is V1 and when it is moving at an angle 30°
acceleration when its displacement is 3 cm is : with horizontal its speed is V2 then is V1 : V2 =
(1) 4 cms–2 (2) 5 cms–2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 cms–2 (4) 3 cms–2 (3) 3 :1 (4) 1: 3
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
23. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of 30. An ideal gas ( = 1.5) is expanded adiabatically.
suspension is now moved upward according to How many times has the gas to be expanded to
equation y  kt 2 where k  1m / sec 2 . If new time reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules
T12 2.0 times
period is T2 then ratio will be (1) 4 times (2) 16 times
T22
(1) 2/3 (2) 5/6 (3) 8 times (4) 2 times
(3) 6/5 (4) 3/2
31. A metallic ball and highly stretched spring are made
24. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10cm has of the same material and have the same mass. They
potential ‘V’ at a point distant 5cm from its centre, are heated so that they melt, the latent heat required
then the potential at a point distant 15cm from the (1) Are the same for both
centre will be (2) Is greater for the ball
1 2 (3) Is greater for the spring
(1) V (2) V
3 3 (4) For the two may or may not be the same
3 depending upon the metal
(3) V (4) 3V
2
25. The property of metals by which they could be 32. A rod of length 40 cm has the coefficient of linear
drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit expansion 1  6  106 / C . The other rod has
without breaking is coefficient of linear expansion,  2  4  106 / C . If
(1) Ductility (2) Brittleness
(3) Elasticity (4) Hardness the difference in their length at all temperature
remains the same, the length of the other rod is:
26. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the (1) 26 cm (2) 32 cm
result that the frequency of third harmonic of the (3) 60 cm (4) 80 cm
closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the
fundamental frequency of the open pipe. The
33. A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2 directly
fundamental frequency of the open pipe is
(1) 200 Hz (2) 300 Hz above the centre of a square of side a. The electric
(3) 240 Hz (4) 480 Hz flux through the square is
q q
27. The bob of a simple pendulum swings in a vertical (1) (2)
0  0
plane from left extreme A to right extreme B
through the equilibrium position O. The work done q q
(3) (4)
by gravity force during the journey AO and OB are 4 0 6 0
respectively
(1) positive, negative (2) zero, zero
34. Two simple pendulum of length 5 m and 20 m
(3) negative, positive (4) positive, positive
respectively are given small linear displacement in
28. If elongation of spring is 4m then Fmin for one direction at the same time. They will again be in
equilibrium (g = 10m s2) the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has
completed …. oscillations
(1) 5 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

35. P-V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown in figure.

(1) 60 N (2) 200 N
(3) 120 N (4) 80 N Work done by the gas in process ABCD is

29. The diagram below shows an instantaneous position

of a string as a transverse progressive wave travels
along it from left to right

Which one of the following correctly shows the

direction of the velocity of the points 1, 2 and 3 on
the string
1 2 3 1 2 3
(1) 4PV (2) 2PV
(1)    (2)    0 0 0 0

(3)    (4)    (3) 3PV

0 0 (4) PV0 0

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 3

Test Booklet Code- A
41. At a certain temperature, the r.m.s velocity for O2 is
400 m/sec. At the same temperature, the r.m.s
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these Velocity for H2 molecules will be
15 questions. (1) 100 m/s
(2) 25 m/s
36. For a particle in uniform anti clockwise circular (3) 1600 m/s

motion, the acceleration a at a point P(R, ) on the (4) 6400 m/s
circle of radius R is (Here  is measured from the x-
axis) 42. Rain drop of radius ‘r’ is falling through air starting
v2 v2 ˆ from rest. The work done by all the forces on the
(1) iˆ  j drop, when it attains terminal velocity is
R R
2 2 proportional to
(2)  v cos  iˆ  v sin  ˆj (1) r5
R R
(2) r7
v2 v 2
(3)  sin  iˆ  cos  ˆj (3) r2
R R
(4) r4
v2 v 2
(4)  cos  iˆ  sin  ˆj
R R
43. A force of  F kˆ acts on O, the origin of the
37. If the earth were to suddenly contract to half of its coordinate system. The torque about the point
present radius without any change in its mass, the (1,  1) is
duration (in hrs.) of the new day will be nearly : (1)  F (iˆ  ˆj )
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 6 (4) 24 (2) F (iˆ  ˆj )
(3)  F (iˆ  ˆj )
38. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by
 (4) F (iˆ  ˆj )
V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field E at that point
is :
 44. A heavy rope is suspended from a rigid support. A
(1) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆjx 2  kˆ3xz 2 wave pulse is set up at the lower end, then

(2) E  iˆ 2 xy  ˆj ( x 2  y 2 )  kˆ(3xz  y 2 ) (1) the pulse will travel with uniform speed
 (2) the pulse will travel with increasing speed
ˆ 3  ˆjxyz  kz
(3) E  iz ˆ2
 (3) the pulse will travel with decreasing speed
(4) E  iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆjxy 2  kˆ3 z 2 x (4) the pulse cannot travel through the rope

39. What is the unit vector perpendicular to the 45. A ball impinges directly on a similar ball at rest. If
following vectors 2iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ and 6iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ 1/4th of the kinetic energy is lost by the impact, the
value of coefficient of restitution is :
iˆ  10 ˆj  18kˆ
(1) (1) 1
5 17 2 2
i  10 ˆj  18kˆ
ˆ (2) 1
(2) 3
5 17
(3) 1
iˆ  10 ˆj  18kˆ
(3) 2
5 17 3
(4)
ˆi  10 ˆj  18kˆ 2
(4)
5 17
46. An object may have:
40. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P (A) varying speed without having varying velocity
where P is the atmospheric pressure. If the water is (B) varying velocity without having varying speed
drawn out till the level of water is lowered by one (C) non-zero acceleration without having varying
fifth., the pressure at the bottom of the tank will now velocity
be : (D) non-zero acceleration without having varying
speed
 13 
(1) 2P (2)   P (1) Only (B) is correct
5 (2) Only (D) is correct
8 4 (3) Both (B) and (D) are correct
(3)   P (4)   P
5 5 (4) All are correct
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
47. A small ball of mass m and radius r is falling under
gravity through a viscous liquid of coefficient of Attempt All 35 Questions
viscosity . If g is the acceleration due to gravity
51. Which of the following species cannot undergo
then the terminal velocity of the ball is proportional
disproportionation?
to : (1) ClO4 (2) ClO3
(1) mg (3) ClO2 (4) ClO
r
(2) mg r
52. Assertion (A) : Noble gases have very high boiling
(3) mgr points
 Reason (R) : Noble gases have strong dispersion
forces hence they liquify at low temperature, hence
(4) mg
r they have high boiling point.
(1) (A) and (R ) are true and (R) explains (A)
(2) (A) and (R ) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
48. Fig. below shows the wave y = Asin(t–kx) at any (3) (A) and (R) are false
instant travelling in the +ve x-direction. What is the (4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
magnitude of slope of the curve at B:
53. Which of the following option contain amphoteric
oxide(s) only ?
(1) SnO2 and SiO (2) SiO2
(3) SnO2 and PbO2 (4) CO and SiO

54. Among the following, number of meta directing

groups when attached to benzene ring are
CN ,  NO2 , COOH , CH 3 ,  SO3 H , CHO,  F
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1)  / A (2) k / A (3) 2 (4) 6
(3) kA (4) A
55. Arrange the following groups in order of decreasing
– R (or – M) power
49. Charge on a metallic shell is 'Q', a point charge 'q' is (a) NO2 (b) SO3H
placed at it's centre and another charge q' is placed (c) CN (d) CHO
at outside point (fig.) all charges are positive then (1) a > c > b > d (2) a > b > c > d
net force on charge at centre : (3) a > d > c > b (4) d > c > b > a

56. Cleavage of Grignard reagent results in the

formation of
(1) carbonium ion (2) carbanion
(3) free radical (4) carbene

57. 13th group element with highest density is

(1) B (2) In
(1) towards left (2) towards right (3) Tl (4) Al
(3) upwards (4) zero
58. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is
not allowed?
50. In a mixture of gases, the average number of degrees 1
of freedom per molecule is 6. The r.m.s. sped of the (1) n  3, l  2, m  0, s  
2
molecules of the gas is V. The speed of sound in the 1
(2) n  3, l  2, m  2, s  
gas is : 2
(1) V (2) 3V 1
2 4 (3) n  3, l  3, m  3, s  
2
(3) V (4) 2V 1
3 3 (4) n  3, l  0, m  0, s  
2
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 5
Test Booklet Code- A
59. 2.45 grams of KClO3 on thermal decomposition 66. Which of the following compound can show both
geometrical and optical isomerism?
liberates V ml of oxygen at STP. Value of ‘V’ is
(1) 6720 (2) 672
(3) 67.2 (4) 67200 (1) (2)

60. Number of water molecules in 18 ml of water

is(density = 1 g /mL)
(3) (4)
18 N A
(1) (2) N A
22400 67. The magnetic behaviour of C2 vapour and its bond
NA 18 N A order is
(3) (4)
22400 22.4 (1) Para, 2 (2) Dia, 1
(3) Para, 1 (4) Dia, 2
61. Total isomers with the molecular formula, Cu / 250 C
68. CH 4  O2  X
C4 H11 N is
CH 4  O2 
Mo2O3
Y  H 2O
(1) 4 (2) 5 350 500C

(3) 9 (4) 3 ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively

(1) Methanol, methanol (2) Methanal, methanol
(3) Methanol, methanal (4) Methanal, methanal
62. p ka is least for
(1) BrCH 2CH 2COOH (2) C6 H 5COOH 69. Which of the following alkane cannot be prepared
from Wurtz reaction.
(3) HCOOH (4) ClCH 2  COOH (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(3) C4H10 (4) All
63. Number of possible monochloro benzenes is
(1) 1 (2) 3 70. Consider the following statements :
(3) 5 (4) 6 a. Electron density in xy plane in 3d x2  y 2 orbital is
zero
64. The type of isomerism found in urea molecule is b. In H-like species energy of orbitals depends on
only ‘n’ value.
(1) Chain (2) Position
c. 2 orbital has only one spherical node
(3) Tautomerism (4) Geometrical d. For 2 orbital is the nodal plane
The correct statements are
65. Match List I with List II. (1) b and c (2) a, b, c, d
List – I List – II (3) Only b (4) a and c
Group IUPAC prefix
71. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) CHO I) Carbamoyl
(1) Oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is +1
(2) Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam
(B) COOH II) Carboxy is –1
8
(3) Oxidation state of carbon in C3O2 is 
(C) CONH 2 III) Formyl (or) oxo 3
4
(4) Oxidation state of bromine in Br3O8 is 
(D) COOC2 H 5 IV) Amide 3

72. Identify the incorrect match from the following

V) Ethoxy carbonyl
(1) Heterocyclic aromatic – Aniline
(2) Alicyclic – Cyclohexane
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Heterocyclic non-aromatic – THF
below (4) Homocyclic aromatic - Tropone
(1) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - V
73. How many products do you expect with the
(2) A - I, B - V, C - III, D - II
halogenation of methylpropane ?
(3) A - V, B - II, C - IV, D - I (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) A- III, B - II, C - I, D - V (3) 4 (4) 5
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
74. Consider the following compounds/species:
79.
(i) (ii)
P Q

(1)

(iii) (iv) (2)

(3)

(v) (vi)
(4)

80. The number of ions amongst the following that have

(vii) (viii) the bond order of 2.5 are
N 2 , NO  , C2 , N 2 , C22  , CN 
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
The number of compounds/species which obey
Huckel’s rule is _________. 81. Which one of the following does not exhibit hyper
(1) 6 (2) 2 conjugation?
(3) 5 (4) 4 (1) Ethanal (2) Acetone
(3) Isobutylene (4) Ethanol
75. The correct order of energies of sub shells in Helium 82. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of
atom is their boiling points
(1) 1s < 2s (2) 1s = 2s i) n-butane ii) 2-methylbutane
(3) 1s > 2s (4) 1s < 2s = 2p iii) n-pentane iv) 2,2-dimethylpropane
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) ii > iii > iv > i
(3) iv > iii > ii > i (4) iii > ii > iv > i
76. The incorrect statement regarding conformations of
ethane is: 83. Consider the following properties
(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations I) pH II) Pressure
(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is III) Volume IV) Entropy
V) EMF of a cell VI) Boiling point
60°
Select intensive and extensive properties.
(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable Intensive Extensive
conformation (1) I, II, IV III, V, VI
(4) The conformations of ethane are inter-inter- (2) I, II, III, IV V, VI
convertible to one-another. (3) I, III, IV II, V, VI
(4) I, II, V, VI IV, III
77. Which of the following are electrophile:
84. In which of the following substance will hydrogen
 
BF3  CCl2 NH 4 CO2 bond be strong?
A B C D (1) HCl (2) H2O
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) HI (4) H2S
(3) B, C and D (4) A, B and D 85. Which one of the following orders is not in
accordance with the property stated against it?
78. Atomic no of the element having symbol Uno (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 –oxidizing power
is ______. (2) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 –Bond dissociation energy
(3) O > S > Se > Te – Electron gain enthalpy
(1) 108 (2) 107
(4) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 – Lewis basic
(3) 105 (4) 102 character
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 7
Test Booklet Code- A
93. Assertion (A) : Catenation ability of phosphorous is
greater than nitrogen
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can Reason (R): Single N – N bond is stronger than
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these single P – P bond
15 questions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
86. Which among the following statements are true with appropriate answer from the options given below:
respect to electronic displacement in a covalent bond (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(a) Inductive effect operates through a  - bond explanation of A
(b) Resonance effect operates through a  - bond (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(c) Inductive effect operates through a  - bond correct explanation of A
(d) Resonance effect operates through a  - bond (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (4) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
87. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given 94. Number of molecular violating octet rule from the
conjugate bases (R = CH3) is list given below
(1) RCOO  HC  C  NH 2  R 1) CO 2) CO2
3) BF3 4) BeCl2
(2) RCOO  HC  C  R  NH 2 5) SF6 6) PCl5
(3) R  HC  C  RCOO  NH 2 7) SCl4 8) CCl4
(4) RCOO  NH 2  HC  C  R 9) IF7 10) O2
(1) 7 (2) 4
88. Incorrect statement is (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) PbF4 is ionic
(2) C-14 is a radioactive isotope 95. Which of the following is not a property of
(3) CO is an acidic oxide alkanes?
(4) Catenation power of Ge  Sn
(1)They have high reactivity.
89. According Bohr’s theory, correct statements are (2)They are odourless.
A) Angular momentum of electron in 2nd orbit of (3)They are colourless.
H-atom is h (4)The general formula of alkanes is CnH2n+2

B) Velocity of electron is proportional to Z
96. Number of significant figures in 3.06 is
n
C) Radius of first orbit of H-atom is 52.9 A° (1) 6 (2) 8
D) Energy difference between 2nd orbit and 1st orbit (3) 4 (4) 3
of H-atom is greater than the energy difference
97. Among the following oxides of p-block elements,
between 3rd orbit and 5th orbit
(1) A, B and D only (2) A,B,C,D number of oxides having amphoteric nature is
(3) B and D only (4) B, C and D only Cl2 O7 , CO, PbO2 , N 2O, NO, Al2 O3 , BeO and N 2O5
(1) Seven (2) Five
90. What is the first step of the halogenation of alkane ? (3) Three (4) Six
(1) Heterolytic cleavage of the dihalogen
(2) Homolytic cleavage of the dihalogen 98. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid, H3PO4 in
(3) Propagation the reaction,
(4) Chain termination
NaOH + H3PO4  NaH2PO4 + H2O is
91. Identify the chain propagation of chlorination of (1) 59 (2) 49
methane (3) 25 (4) 98
 
(1) C H 3  C l 
 CH 3Cl
  99. In which of the following preparation of ethane a
(2) CH 3Cl  C l   C H 2Cl  HCl new C-C bond is formed
 
(3) Cl  Cl hv
homolysis
C l  C l (1) Sabatier-Senderson’s reaction
  (2) Reduction of ethyl iodide
(4) C l  C l 
 Cl2 (3) Decarboxylation
92. Statement I : P–Clequatorial bonds are longer than (4) Kolbe’s electrolysis
P–Claxial bonds in PCl5. 100. IUPAC name of
Statement II : Hybridization of ‘P’ in gaseous PCl5 is
3 2 HOOC  CH 2  CH  CH 2  COOH
sp d . |
In the light of the above statements, choose the COOH
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) 3-Carboxylic pentane-1,5-dioic acid
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Propane-1,2,3-trioic acid
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) 1,2,3-tricarobxylic propane
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
8 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
In which of the following options, correct words for
all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?
Attempt All 35 Questions A B C
101. Photosystem I (PS I) and photosystem II (PS II) are (1) Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration
(2) Fixation Transamination Regeneration
named:
(3) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
(1) in the sequence of their discovery (4) Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
(2) in the sequence in which they function during
light reaction 106. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation
(3) in the sequence of their positions during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of :
(4) in the sequence of electron transfer (1) epidermis (2) mesophyll
(3) bundle sheath (4) phloem
102. If green plant cells are incubated with O18 labelled
CO2 what molecule will become radioactive as the 107. Assertion: As electrons move through the
cells are exposed to light? photosystems, protons are transported across the
(1) ATP (2) NADPH membrane.
(3) Sugar (4) O2 Reason: The primary accepter of electron which is
located towards the outer side of the membrane
103. In chemiosmotic hypothesis, during synthesis of transfers its electron not to an electron carrier but
ATP, H+ diffuses through ATP- synthase : to a H carrier
(1) From the stroma into thylakoid lumen/space (1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
(2) From thylakoid space into stroma correct for the Assertion
(3) From the cytoplasm into stroma (2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
(4) From the peri-plastidal space to stroma not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
104. (4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

108. Assertion: Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment

associated with photosynthesis.
Reason: The wavelengths at which there is
maximum absorption by chlorophyll a, i.e., in the
blue and the red regions, also shows higher rate of
photosynthesis.
(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
correct for the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is
not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
Identify A, B and C. 109. The correct sequence of flow of electron during light
A B C dependent reactions in plants is:
(1) ATP 3 PGA RuBP (1) P680 → P700 → water → NADP+
(2) 3 PGA ATP Sugar (2) water → P700 → NADP + → P680
(3) RuBP 3-PGA ATP (3) P700 → P680 → NADP + → water
(4) Sugar RuDP NADPH (4) water → P680 → P700 → NADP+

105. Study the pathway given below 110. During oxygenic photosynthesis in chloroplasts, the
liberated oxygen comes from ___ and the reactions
leading to its liberation are associated with______.
(1) CO2, PS II (2) H2O, PSII
(3) CO2, Calvin cycle (4) H2O, PS I
111. Which of the following represents a correct order of
the events that occur in the catabolism of glucose in
the absence of O2?
(1) Glycolysis, TCA cycle and oxidative
phosphorylation
(2) Glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation and TCA
cycle
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation, TCA cycle and
glycolysis
(4) Glycolysis and fermentation
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9
Test Booklet Code- A
112. 119. How many molecules of O2 are used and how many
CO2 comes out during the glycolytic breakdown of
one glucose molecules?
(1) 1, 2 (2) 2,1
(3) 0,0 (4) 36,6

120. Statement-I: When carbohydrates are used as

substrate the RQ will be 1.
Statement-II: When carbohydrates are used as
substrate equal amounts of CO2 and O2 are evolved
and consumed.
Major Pathway of Anaerobic respiration. Identify A, (1) Both statements are correct
B and C. (2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
A B C (3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
(1) NAD+ Ethanol Lactic acid (4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Ethanol NAD+ Lactic acid
(3) Lactic acid Ethanol NAD 121. Statement-I: Eukaryotes have a membrane bound
(4) NAD Lactic acid Ethanol
nucleus, prokaryotes do not. Both prokaryotes and
113. Which is not found inside the mitochondrion? eukaryotes have non-membrane bound organelles..
(1) Citric acid (2) PEP Statement‐II: In 1839, Theodor Schwann, a British
(3) Malic acid (4) α-Ketoglutaric acid Zoologist, studied different types of animal cells and
114. The chemiosmotic generation of ATP is driven by : reported that cells had a thin outer layer which is
(1) Osmotic movement of water from low osmotic today known as the ‘plasma membrane’.
pressure to high osmotic pressure. (1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation (2) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
(3) A difference in H+ concentration on both sides of (3) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
membrane (4) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
(4) Facilitated diffusion of H+ ions from inter-
membrane space to matrix through F1 channel 122. Consider the given two statements:
115. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the Statement-I: The outer nuclear membrane usually
electron transport system is the formation of : remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Nucleic acids and also bears ribosomes on it.
(2) ATP in small step-wise units Statement-II: Nuclear pores are the passages
(3) ATP in one large oxidation reaction through which movement of RNA from nucleus to
(4) Sugars the cytoplasm and protein molecules from the
116. Which of the following is correct regarding T.C.A. cytoplasm to the nucleus takes place.
cycle: (1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
(1) Occurs in the cytoplasm in E. Coli (2) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
(2) Occurs in the mitochondrial matrix in (3) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
chlamydomonas (4) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
(3) Forms 4 NADH, 1 FADH2 and 2 ATP
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct 123. Identify the incorrect statement:
117. In plants, glucose is derived from sucrose, which is (1) Centrosome is an organelle usually containing
the end product of photosynthesis or from storage two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
carbohydrates. Sucrose is converted into glucose and (2) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie parallel
fructose by the enzyme to each other in which each has an organisation
(1) Zymase (2) Hexokinase like the cartwheel.
(3) Sucrase (4) Invertase (3) Centrioles are made up of nine evenly spaced
peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein where each
118. Match the Column: of the peripheral fibril is a triplet.
Column –I Column -II (4) The central part of the proximal region of the
(a) Complex I (1) Cytochrome b,c1 centriole is also proteinaceous and called the
complex
hub.
(b) Complex II (2) NADH
dehydrogenase
(c) Complex III (3) Cytochrome c 124. Resistance to an antibiotic is the character conferred
oxidase to bacterial cell by:
(d) Complex IV (4) ATP synthase (1) Peptidoglycan cell wall
(e) Complex V (5) FADH2 dehydrogenase (2) Main chromosomal DNA
(1) a-3,b-4,c-2,d-5,e-1 (2) a-4,b-5,c-1,d-2,e-3 (3) Plasmid DNA
(3) a-2,b-4,c-3,d-1,e-5 (4) a-2,b-5,c-1, d-3,e-4 (4) Satellite DNA
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
125. Regarding the genetic material in prokaryotes: 131. What is true regarding aleurone layer in a monocot
I: The main chromosomal DNA is linear seed?
II: Plasmid DNA is circular and single stranded I: It is composed of proteinaceous material.
(1) Only I is correct
II: It is the outermost cell layer of the seed..
(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I and II are correct (1) Only I
(4) Both I and II are incorrect (2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
126. What will not be true for the S Phase of the (4) Neither I nor II
interphase in the cell cycle?
(1) It marks the period during which DNA synthesis
132. What will happen if the main axis of the shoot
or replication takes place.
(2) During this time, the amount of DNA per cell terminates into a flower?
doubles. (1) Solitary flower will be produced
(3) If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C (2) Flowers will be arranged in acropetal succession
then it increases to 4C. (3) Flowers arrangement would be racemose
(4) There is an increase in the chromosome number. (4)The older flowers would be at the base

127. In plant cells:

133. Consider the following statements:
I: during the S phase, DNA replication begins in
the nucleus. I: Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia.
II: during the S phase, the centriole duplicates in the II: Flowers of mustard, datura and chilli are
cytoplasm. actinomorphic.
III: during the G2 phase, proteins are synthesised in III: The ovary in plum, peach and rose is perigynous.
preparation for mitosis Which of the above statements are true?
IV:cell growth stops during S phase and G2 phase.
(1) I and II only
(1) I is correct; II, III & IV are incorrect
(2)I & IV are correct; II & III are incorrect (2) I and III only
(3) I & III are correct; II and IV are incorrect (3) II and III only
(4) All the statements: I, II, III & IV are correct. (4) I, II and III

128. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the 134. Assertion (A): Leaves showing parallel venation are
microscope, show:
found in monocotyledonous plants
(1) Golgi complexes
(2) endoplasmic reticulum Reason (R): In leaves showing parallel venation,
(3) nuclear envelope the veins run parallel to one another and
(4) Chromosomes reticulations are absent
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
129. Consider the given two statements: explanation of (A).
Assertion (A): Plants continue to grow all their (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
lives.
correct explanation of (A)
Reason (R):All cells in a plant divide all the time.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). 135. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in the
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False. guava plant is:
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.
(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while
130. Assertion (A): Metaphase is the stage at which the other parts are situated below it.
morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied. (2) Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing
Reason (R): At metaphase, condensation of the ovary completely, and other parts arise above
chromosomes is completed. the ovary.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct (3) Gynoecium is present in the center and other
explanation of (A).
parts cover it partially.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). (4) Gynoecium is situated in the center, and other
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False. parts of the flower are located at the rim of the
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True. thalamus, at the same level.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code- A
140. Statement I:
In male honeybees, haploid cells divide by mitosis.
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these Statement II:
15 questions. Higher plants show mitotic divisions only in diploid
136. Sodium ions will be transported to the outside of the cells.
cell and potassium ions to the inside of the cell by: (1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(1) simple diffusion (2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
(2) facilitated diffusion incorrect.
(3) osmosis (3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is correct.
(4) active transport
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct.
137. The correct description of prokaryotic ribosomes
will be:
(1) They are about 25 nm by 50 nm in size and are 141. Regarding crossing over:
made of two subunits - 50S and 20S units which I: Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material
when present together form 70S prokaryotic between two homologous chromosomes.
ribosomes. II: Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated
(2) They are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size and are process and the enzyme involved is called
made of two subunits - 40S and 30S units which
recombinase.
when present together form 70S prokaryotic
III: Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic
ribosomes.
(3) They are about 20 nm by 25 nm in size and are material on the two chromosomes.
made of two subunits - 60S and 40S units which (1) I is correct; II & III are incorrect
when present together form 80S prokaryotic (2) I & II are correct; III is incorrect
ribosomes. (3) I, II & III are correct
(4) They are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size and are (4) I, II & III are not correct.
made of two subunits - 50S and 30S units which
when present together form 70S prokaryotic 142. Statement I:
ribosomes.
At Metaphase I the chromosomes align at the
equator and the microtubules from opposite poles of
138. Which number represents the site of ribosome
biogenesis in the given figure? the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister
chromatids.
Statement II:
At metaphase II the bivalent chromosomes align on
the equatorial plate and microtubules from the
opposite poles of the spindle attach to the
kinetochore of homologous chromosomes.
(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
(1) 1 (2) 2 incorrect.
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
139. Onion root tip cell has 16 chromosomes. This cell correct.
will have 16 chromosomes:
I: at G1 phase 143. Which one of the following statements is correct?
II: after S phase
(1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
III: after M phase
(2) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(1) I is correct; II & III are incorrect
(2) I & II are correct; III is incorrect (3) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in
(3) I, II & III are correct maize grain.
(4) I, II & III are not correct (4) A sterile pistil is called a staminode.
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
144. Consider the two statements:
I. The current availability of carbon dioxide in the
Attempt All 35 Questions
atmosphere is limiting for C3 plants.
II. C3 plants attain saturation at much higher carbon 151. The concentration of filtrate will ______ as it moves
dioxide concentration than that present in the down in the descending limb of loop of Henle
current atmosphere. (1) increase
(1) Both I and II are correct and II explains I (2) decrease
(3) remain unchanged
(2) Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
(4) first increase and then decrease
(3) I is correct but II is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are correct 152. Identify the correct statement from the following.
(1) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
145. Which of the following is not a C3 plant? in PCT
(1) Rice (2) Volume of the glomerular filtrate is 180 liters/day
(2) Wheat (3) Volume of urine per day is 1.5 liters
(3) Maize (4) All the above
(4) Potato
153. Which of the following cells secrete myelin sheath
(1) Neurons (2) Microglia
146. The catalytic knobs of ATP synthetase in a (3) Schwann cells (4) Astrocytes
thylakoid membrane is located:
(1) on the side facing the thylakoid space. 154. Which process plays important role in maintenance
(2) on the stroma side of the membrane. of ionic and acid base balance of body fluids
(3) embedded deep within the membrane (1) ultrafiltration (2) tubular secretion
(4) on the pigments molecules of Photosystems (3) reabsorption (4) glomerular filtration

155. We can produce concentrated/dilute urine. This is

147. Photorespiration is avoided by C4 plants primarily
facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the
because: mechanism. Identify the mechanism
(1) They do not participate in the Calvin cycle. (1) Reabsorption from PCT
(2) They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO2. (2) Reabsorption from collecting Duct
(3) They conserve water more efficiently. (3) Reabsorption/Secretion in DCT
(4) They are adapted to cold, wet climates. (4) Counter current mechanism in Henle’s loop/Vasa
recta
148. Consider the following two statements:
156. Cuboidal cells with microvilli are found in
I. Fermentation serves an important purpose in
(1) Mucosa of small intestine
muscle cells during exercise. (2) Epididymis
II. It is the only mechanism of ATP production (3) Mucosa of stomach
under such conditions. (4) PCT
(1) Both I and II are correct and II explains I
(2) Both I and II are cor6rect but II does not explain I 157. Increase in body fluid volume
(3) I is correct but II is incorrect (1) activates the osmoreceptors
(4) Both I and II are incorrect (2) suppresses release of ADH
(3) increases ADH secretion
(4) prevents diuresis
149. In aerobic cellular respiration, oxygen is actually
directly used only by: 158. Mammalian kidney resemble contractile vacuole of
(1) Glycolysis amoeba in excretion of
(2) Oxidation of pyruvate (1) Glucose (2) Excess water
(3) Krebs cycle (3) Urea (4) Ammonia
(4) Electron transport
159. Metanephridia, Malpighian tubules and antennal
glands are the excretory organs of the following
150. The products of three turns of Kreb’s cycle will be:
respectively
(1) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2
(1) Hydras, sponges and planarians
(2) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (2) Prawns, cockroaches and crabs
(3) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (3) Earthworms, insects and prawns
(4) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2 (4) Starfishes, cyclostomes and bony fishes
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code- A
160. Which fraction of blood changes after circulation 166. Which feature enables the mammalian kidney to
through kidney? concentrate urine in the medullary region?
(1) Urea and uric acid (1) Maintaining a high osmotic pressure in the
(2) Urea and proteins tissues between the tubules.
(3) Urea and glucose (2) Rapid removal of sodium ion from the medullary
(4) Glucose and proteins tissues
(3) Rapid flow of blood through the medulla
161. Changeable threshold material in Renal tubules (4) High oxidative metabolism of medullary cells
(1) Water and Glucose
(2) Urea and uric acid 167. Which of the following is true with regard to red
(3) Glucose and amino acids muscle fibres?
(4) Water and salts
(1) Short term contractions
(2) High intensity contractions
162. Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman’s
(3) More amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
capsule, all are likely to happen except
(4) More amount of oxygen storage
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the body
(2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Increase in blood urea level 168. Which one of the following options show the next
(4) Loss of glucose through urine stage of muscle contraction after the stage given in
question?
163. Examine the given diagrammatic view of human
skull given below and identify the skull bones
labelled from A-D.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

169. Correct order of stages of muscle contraction is

(1) Stimuli  Neurotransmitter secretion  Release
of calcium  Cross-bridges formation 
Excitation of Sarcolemma  Sliding of actin
filaments
A B C D (2) Stimuli  Neurotransmitter secretion 
(1) Frontal Temporal Maxilla Mandible Excitation of Sarcolemma  Release of Ca2+ 
(2) Occipital Frontal Mandible Maxilla Cross-bridges formation  Sliding of actin
(3) Parietal Temporal Maxilla Mandible filaments  ‘H’ band diminishes
(4) Temporal Parietal Mandible Maxilla (3) Stimuli  Excitation of Sarcolemma 
Neurotransmitter secretion  Cross-
164. Route of tubular secretion is bridges formation  Sliding of actin filaments
(1) Blood  Interstitial fluid  Renal fluid
 ‘H’ band diminishes
(2) Renal fluid  Interstitial fluid  Blood
(4) Stimuli  Neurotransmitter secretion  Cross-
(3) Blood  Renal fluid  Interstitial fluid
bridges formation  Excitation of Sarcolemma
(4) Interstitial fluid  Renal fluid  Blood
 sliding of action filaments.
165. The event that occurs at the site where the
170. Identify the correct combination from the following:
reabsorption of urea from renal fluid takes place is
(1) Mandatory reabsorption of NaCl (1) Amoeboid movement-Euglena
(2) Secretion of K+ and H+ ions (2) Flagellar movement-Spermatozoa
(3) Conditional reabsorption of K+ and glucose
(3) Ciliary movement-Hydra
(4) Obligatory reabsorption of water and glucose
(4) Muscular movement-Amoeba
14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A
171. Identify the correct match. 181. Examine the figure of pectoral girdle and forelimb
Area of sarcomere Type of myofilaments and identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
(1) H zone Both actin and myosin A
(2) I band Only myosin
(3) A band Only actin
(4) A-I junction Both actin and myosin B
C
172. Match the following and mark the correct option
Column-I Column-II D
A) Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin
B) Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid
A B C D
C) Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit
(1) Clavicle Humerus Radius Carpals
D) Sarcomere (iv) I-band (2) Scapula Femur Ulna Tarsals
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (3) Clavicle Femur Radius Carpals
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (4) Scapula Humerus Ulna Tarsals
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) 182. Identify the parts labelled as A to E in the given
figure of a vertebral column and select the correct
173. The myosin head detaches from actin as soon as option.
(1) ATP binds to actin
(2) ATP binds to myosin head
(3) Calcium binds to Troponin
(4) Calcium binds to Myosin

174. The number of true ribs in man is

(1) 9 pairs (2) 7 pairs
(3) 12 pairs (4) 2 pairs

175. The bone that bears the acromion process is A B C D E

(1) Clavicle (2) Scapula (1) Thoracic Cervical Lumbar Sacrum Coccyx
(3) Humerus (4) Radius (2) Thoracic Cervical Lumbar Coccyx Sacrum
(3) Lumbar Thoracic Cervical Coccyx Sacrum
176. The number of facial bones in the human skull is (4) Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacrum Coccyx
(1) 14 (2) 22
(3) 8 (4) 29 183. If the diameter of the afferent renal arteriole is
decreased than that of efferent renal arteriole, the
177. The number of carpals and tarsals in the human ultrafiltration will
skeleton are respectively (1) be faster
(1) 14 and 16 (2) 16 and 14 (2) be slower
(3) not take place
(3) 14 and 14 (4) 16 and 16
(4) take place with the same speed
178. The total number of bones that form the thoracic 184. Sternum is connected to ribs by
(rib) cage is (1) bony matter
(1) 36 (2) 37 (2) white fibrous cartilage
(3) 25 (4) 24 (3) hyaline cartilage
(4) areolar tissue
179. Find the wrong match.
185. Which one of the following statements is true?
(1) Humerus – upper arm (1) Head of humerus bone articulates with
(2) Metacarpals – palm acetabulum of pectoral girdle.
(3) Radius and ulna – fore arm (2) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid
(4) Tarsals – wrist cavity of pectoral girdle.
(3) Head of humerus bone articulates with a cavity
180. Vertebrochondral ribs in man are called acetabulum of pelvic girdle.
(1) 11th and 12th pairs (2) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs (4) Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid
(3) Last five pairs (4) Last three pairs cavity of pelvic girdle.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15
Test Booklet Code- A
193. The supportive skeletal structures in the human
external ears and in the nose tip are example of
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can (1) Ligament (2) Areolar tissue
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these (3) Bone (4) Cartilage
15 questions.
194. Areolar connective tissue joins
186. Which of the following function as socket that (1) Fat body with muscles (2)Integument with muscles
accepts the head of the femur (3) Bones with muscles (4) Bones with bones
(1) Glenoid cavity (2) Obturator foramena
195. Statement A: Compound epithelium is multilayered
(3) Acromion Process (4) Acetabulum
and has no role in secretion and absorption.
Statement B: Exocrine glands discharge their
187. A cricket player is fastly chasing a ball in the field.
products through ducts.
Which one of the following groups of bones are
(1) Both statement A and statement B are correct
directly contributing in this movement
(2) Both statement A and statement B are incorrect
(1) Femur, malleus, hyoid bone, metatarsals
(3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
(2) Pelvis, ulna, mandible, stapes
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is
(3) Sternum, maxilla, tibia, incus
incorrect
(4) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
196. Statement (A): Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
188. What will happen if ligaments are torn? mechanism acts as a counter check on the RAAS
(1) bones will be move freely at joints & no pain (Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system).
(2) no moment of bones Statement (B): ANP causes contraction of vascular
(3) bone will become unfixed smooth muscles.
(4) bone will become fixed (1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(2) Both (A) and (B) are false
189. Assertion (A): Ribs of man are termed as (3) (A) is true, but (B) is false
bicephalic. (4) (A) is false, but (B) is true
Reason (R): Each of these ribs has two articulation
surfaces on its dorsal end. 197. The muscles in the inner walls of hollow visceral
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct organs such as uterus
explanation of (A) (1) Unstriated, involuntary (2) Striated, involuntary
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (3) Striated, voluntary (4) Unstriated, voluntary
correct explanation of (A) 198. Muscles of tongue do not exhibit this character
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) They are voluntary (2) They show striations
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) They are uninucleate (4) Both (2) and (3)
190. Assertion (A): The mammalian skull is termed 199. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of areolar
dicondylic skull. tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and
Reason (R): The occipital condyles of mammalian select the right option about them.
skull articulate with two vertebrae, i.e., atlas and
axis.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) A – Macrophage, B – Mast cell, C – Fibroblast,
191. Select the correct option.
D – Collagen fibres
(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are
(2) A – Mast cell, B – Adipocyte, C – Collagen fibres,
connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and
D – Macrophage
ventrally to the sternum.
(3) A – Adipocyte, B – Fibroblast, C – Mast cell,
(2) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, 3 pairs
D – Macrophage
of vertebrochondral and 2 pairs of vertebral ribs
(4) A – Mast cell, B – Macrophage, C – Adipocyte,
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate directly
D–Collagen fibres
with the sternum.
(4) 11th and 12th pair of ribs are connected to the 200. Statement-I: Intercalated discs are present in
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage smooth muscle.
Statement-II: Smooth muscle fibres taper at both
192. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number ends and do not shows striations.
can cause clotting disorder leading to excessive loss (1) Both (I) and (II) are true
of blood from body (2) Both (I) and (II) are false
(1) Neutrophils (2) Thrombocytes (3) (I) is true, but (II) is false
(3) Erythrocyte (4) Leucocyte (4) (I) is false, but (II) is true
16 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code- A

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 17

 Test Booklet Code-A

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 27-OCT.-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 4 26 1 51 1 76 3 101 1 126 4 151 1 176 1
02 4 27 1 52 3 77 4 102 3 127 3 152 4 177 2
03 3 28 4 53 3 78 1 103 2 128 4 153 3 178 2
04 1 29 4 54 2 79 4 104 3 129 3 154 2 179 4
05 3 30 2 55 1 80 2 105 3 130 1 155 4 180 2
06 4 31 1 56 2 81 4 106 2 131 1 156 4 181 1
07 2 32 3 57 3 82 4 107 1 132 1 157 3 182 4
08 1 33 4 58 3 83 4 108 1 133 4 158 2 183 3
09 3 34 3 59 2 84 2 109 4 134 1 159 3 184 3
10 2 35 3 60 2 85 3 110 2 135 2 160 1 185 2
11 3 36 4 61 3 86 4 111 4 136 4 161 4 186 4
12 2 37 3 62 4 87 1 112 1 137 4 162 4 187 4
13 4 38 1 63 1 88 3 113 2 138 3 163 3 188 3
14 2 39 3 64 3 89 1 114 3 139 3 164 1 189 1
15 1 40 2 65 4 90 2 115 2 140 1 165 2 190 3
16 2 41 3 66 4 91 2 116 4 141 3 166 1 191 2
17 1 42 2 67 4 92 4 117 4 142 2 167 4 192 2
18 1 43 3 68 3 93 4 118 4 143 3 168 4 193 4
19 3 44 2 69 1 94 4 119 3 144 1 169 2 194 2
20 3 45 3 70 1 95 1 120 1 145 3 170 2 195 3
21 3 46 3 71 1 96 4 121 1 146 2 171 4 196 3
22 3 47 4 72 1 97 3 122 1 147 2 172 3 197 1
23 3 48 3 73 1 98 4 123 2 148 3 173 2 198 3
24 2 49 4 74 4 99 4 124 3 149 4 174 2 199 1
25 1 50 4 75 1 100 4 125 4 150 3 175 2 200 4

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 18

 Test Booklet Code- A

HINT. SOLUTION
RM-NEET Batch | Grand Test- 03 | Date: 27-10-2024
27. Answer (1)
01. Answer (4)
02. Answer (4) From A to O, the KE increases and this must be due
03. Answer (3) to gravity force doing positive work on the bob.
04. Answer (1) From O to B, the KE decreases
05. Answer (3) 28. Answer (4)
06. Answer (4) 2 Fmin  f l  Kx
07. Answer (2) 29. Answer (4)
08. Answer (1) Particle velocity (vp) = v ×Slope of the graph at that
09. Answer (3) point
10. Answer (2) At point 1 : Slope of the curve is positive, hence
11. Answer (3) particle velocity is negative or downward ()
12. Answer (2) At point 2 : Slope negative, hence particle velocity
13. Answer (4)
is positive or upwards ()
14. Answer (2)
At point 3 : Again slope of the curve is positive,
15. Answer (1)
16. Answer (2) hence particle velocity is negative or downward ()
17. Answer (1) 30. Answer (2)
18. Answer (1) 3RT
vrms   vrms  T
19. Answer (3) M
20. Answer (3) vrms is to reduce two times i.e. temperature of the gas
21. Answer (3)
1 T' 1
S  g (4) 2  16 x  x  also
g will have to reduce four times or 
2 2 T 4
During adiabatic process
 1 5g
S n  g  n    S3   5x TV 1  T 'V '1
 2 2 1
1
22. Answer (3) V '  T  1
     (4)1.51  (4) 2  16
As the acceleration along horizontal is zero, V T '
horizontal component of velocity is constant  V '  16V
23. Answer (3)
31. Answer (1)
d2y
y  Kt 2  2  a y Latent heat is independent of configuration. Ordered
dt energy spent in stretching the spring will not
 2 K  2  1  2m / s 2 ( K  1 m / s 2 ) contribute to heat which is disordered kinetic energy
1 1 of molecules of substance.
Now, T1  2 and T2  2
g  g  ay  32. Answer (3)
l11  l2  2
T1 g  ay 6 T2 6 33. Answer (4)
Dividing,    12 
T2 g 5 T2 5 An imaginary cube can be made by considering
24. Answer (2) charge q at the centre and given square is one of it’s
q q face.
V  Vsurface  stat volt , Vout  stat volt q
10 15 So flux from given square (i.e. one face)  
Vout 2 2 6 0
   Vout  V
V 3 3 34. Answer (3)
25. Answer (1) Let the pendulums be in phase after t sec of start.
26. Answer (1) Within this time, if the bigger pendulum executes n
 4L  oscillations, the smaller one will have executed
f11  V; f1  v (n + 1) oscillations.
 3 
3v 20
f1  ;f 2 (2L)  v  f 2 
v Now, the time of n oscillation  2  n and the
4L 2L g
Given that f1 – f2 = 100 5
3v v v time of (n + 1) oscillation  2  (n  1)
   100   200 Hz g
4L 2L 2L To be in phase
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 19
 Test Booklet Code-A
20 5 41. Answer (3)
2  n  2  (n  1) or
g g 1 V MO
Vrms   H  
2n  n  1 or, n  1 m VO MH
Hence, the no. of oscillations executed by shorter VH 32
pendulum  n  1  1  1  2   16  4
400 2
35. Answer (3) VH  1600 m / s
WAB   PV0 0 ,WBC  0 and
42. Answer (2)
WCD  4 PV
0 0 43. Answer (3)
 WABCD   PV
0 0  0  4 PV
0 0  3PV
0 0 r  0i  0 j  i  j
36. Answer (4)  i  j
  i  jx  Fk  Fj  Fi
  F(i  j)
44. Answer (2)
g
Since acceleration is , the pulse will travel with
2
increasing speed
45. Answer (3)
1 m1m 2
KE  (1  e 2 )(u1  u 2 ) 2
r v2 v2 2 m1  m 2
a cos  iˆ  sin  ˆj
R R 1 m 1 1 
37. Answer (3) KE   (1  e 2 )u 2    mu 2 
2 2 4 2 
I11  I 2 2
1 e 2
1 1
2    e 2  1/ 2  e 
2 2 2  R  2 2 4 2
MR 2   M 
5 24 5  2  T1 46. Answer (3)
24 47. Answer (4)
 T1   6 hours
4 2 r 2 (B  L)g
VT 
38. Answer (1) 9 
 V  V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ  r 2g
E   i j VT 
r  x x 
k
y 
 iˆ(2 xy  z 3 )  ˆjx 2  kˆ3 xz 2  but m  r 3
m
39. Answer (3)   r2
  r
A  2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ and B  6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ mg
   VT 
  
C  A  B  2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ  6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ  r
48. Answer (3)
ˆi ˆj kˆ
The particle velocity is maximum at B and is
2 2 1  ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ dy
given by  (v p ) max  A
6 3 2 dt
  dx 
Unit vector perpendicular to both A and B Also wave velocity is v
dt k
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
  dy (v p ) max
12  102  182 5 17 So slope   kA
dx v
40. Answer (2) 49. Answer (4)
2P Electrostatic shielding
2 P  hg  h 
g 50. Answer (4)
 4 2P   3RT
4  8P  v rms 
P1   h  g     g  v rms 3 Mw
5   5 g  5 
vs  RT
8P 13P  vs 
Total pressure  P  Mw
5 5
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 20
 Test Booklet Code- A
51. Answer (1) 65. Answer (4)
In C lO 4 the oxidation state of Cl is in highest state, CHO  Formyl (or) oxo
it can undergo reduction but not oxidations COOH  Carboxy
52. Answer (3)  C O N H 2  Carbamoyl
Noble gases have very low boiling point due to
 COOC 2 H 5  Ethoxy carbonyl
weak van der Waals forces of attraction. Noble
gases do not have inter atomic forces other than 66. Answer (4)
weak dispersion forces.
53. Answer (3)
SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric oxides. SiO is Molecule posess a chiral centre as well as double
weakly acidic axide. CO is neutral oxide. bond about which geometrical isomeris is possible.
54. Answer (2)
67. Answer (4)
 
2 2
C 2  1s 2  1s 2  2 s 2  2 s 2  2 p x  2 p y ( n  0)
84
Bond order  2
2
68. Answer (3)
55. Answer (1) 69. Answer (1)
56. Answer (2) Conceptual
57. Answer (3) 70. Answer (1)
Density increases down the group Number of spherical Nodes = (n – l – 1)
58. Answer (3) Number of Nodal planes = l
Possible values of ‘l’ when n = 3 are 0,1 and 2, In 3dx2-y2 orbital 4 lobes along the x and y axes &
hence option (3) is not possible hence e density available on x & y axes Order of
59. Answer (2) energy of orbitals in H-like species is as follows
2KClO3   2KCl  3O2  1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d
(2 122.5g ) (3  22400)ml 71. Answer (1)
2.45g ?
Vo2  672ml
60. Answer (2)
Density of water = 1 g/ml
18 g (18 ml) contain NA molecules
61. Answer (3)
1)

2) 72. Answer (1)

3)

73. Answer (1)

4)
74. Answer (4)
Cpds = ii, v, vii and viii obey Hucke‟s rule
5) C  C  NH  C  C with (4n + 2) p e s and are aromatic
6) C  NH  C  C  C Cpds – i, iii and iv are anti-aromatic
7) C  NH  C  C Cpd – vi is Non-aromatic
| 75. Answer (1)
C For multi electron system energy depends both on
(n + l ) value.
C
| 76. Answer (3)
8) C  N  C  C Conceptual
62. Answer (4) 77. Answer (4)
4>3>1>2 Conceptual
63. Answer (1) 78. Answer (1)
64. Answer (3) Conceptual
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 21
 Test Booklet Code-A
79. Answer (4) 101. Answer (1)
80. Answer (2) 102. Answer (3)
Oxygen of CO2 of reactant side goes into H2O and
C6H12O6 of product side in photosynthesis.
81. Answer (4)
103. Answer (2)
During ATP formation by ATPase H+ from lumen
Conceptual
of thylakoid move to stroma of chloroplast in
82. Answer (4)
photosynthesis
As number of carbons increases boiling point
While in aerobic respiration move from PMS to
increases and as branching increases boiling point
matrix of mitochondria
decreases
104. Answer (3)
83. Answer (4) 105. Answer (3)
Conceptual 106. Answer (2)
84. Answer (2) 107. Answer (1)
Conceptual It is PQ (plastoquinone) which is the 1st electron
85. Answer (3) acceptor and also 1st H-carrier of ETS in thylakoid
S > Se > Te > O membrane
86. Answer (4) 108. Answer (1)
Conceptual Chl-a is the chief pigment because absorption and
87. Answer (1) rate of photosynthesis shown maximum in same
88. Answer (3) region i.e blue and red region
CO………neutral 109. Answer (4)
89. Answer (1) In Z-sheme, correct sequence of flow electron is:
(C) is incorrect …….. r1  0.529 A  H2O  PS  II  ETS  PS  I  NADP+ while
in cyclic photophospharylation is  PS  I  ETS
90. Answer (2)
91. Answer (2)
 PS  I
110. Answer (2)
Conceptual
O2 comes from H2O in photosynthesis which is
92. Answer (4)
associated with PS-II in Z-scheme only
111. Answer (4)
112. Answer (1)
Given diagram is of fermentation.
113. Answer (2)
PEPA is produced during glycolysis and glycolysis
93. Answer (4) occurs in the cytoplasm of cells.
Catenation ability  B.D.E 114. Answer (3)
B.D.Esingle bond ® P–P > N–N Facilitated diffusion of H+ ions take place from PMS
94. Answer (4) to matrix through F0 channel of ATPase.
BeCl2 (4e) BF3 (6e) 115. Answer (2)
116. Answer (4)
SF6 (12e) PCl5 (10e)
117. Answer (4)
SCl4 (10e) IF7 (14e) 118. Answer (4)
95. Answer (1) 119. Answer (3)
Conceptual 120. Answer (1)
96. Answer (4) 121. Answer (1)
Conceptual 122. Answer (1)
97. Answer (3) 123. Answer (2)
124. Answer (3)
98. Answer (4)
Conceptual R-Plasmid provide resistance to some antibiotic in
99. Answer (4) bacteria
100. Answer (4) 125. Answer (4)
Conceptual 126. Answer (4)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 22
 Test Booklet Code- A
127. Answer (3) 159. Answer (3)
Centrosomes are not found in plant cells Metanephridia- Earthworm ,Malpighian tubules-
128. Answer (4) lnsects, Antennal glands-Praws
129. Answer (3) 160. Answer (1)
130. Answer (1) Urea and uric acid of changes after circulation
131. Answer (1) through kidney.
161. Answer (4)
132. Answer (1)
Water and salts are changeable threshold material in
133. Answer (4)
renal tubules.
134. Answer (1) 162. Answer (4)
135. Answer (2) Due to insufficient filtration in the bowman capsule,
Epigynous flower found in guava plant loss of glucose will not occurs.
136. Answer (4) 163. Answer (3)
Na+-K+ pump follow active transport 164. Answer (1)
137. Answer (4) Route of Tubular secretion is Blood-interstitial
138. Answer (3) fluid- Renal fluid
139. Answer (3) 165. Answer (2)
140. Answer (1) The events like the reabsorption of urea and
141. Answer (3) secretion of K and H ions occurs in collecting duct.
142. Answer (2) 166. Answer (1)
167. Answer (4)
143. Answer (3)
Red muscle fibres store more amount of oxygen.
144. Answer (1)
168. Answer (4)
145. Answer (3) 169. Answer (2)
146. Answer (2) 170. Answer (2)
147. Answer (2) Flagella movement exhibited by movement of
148. Answer (3) spermatozoa.
During exercise both aerobic and anaerobic 171. Answer (4)
respiration take place. A-I Junction both actin and myosin proteins present
149. Answer (4) 172. Answer (3)
150. Answer (3) 173. Answer (2)
151. Answer (1) The myosin head detached from action as soon as
The concentration of filtrate will increase as it ATP binds to myosin head.
moves down in the descending limb of loop of 174. Answer (2)
175. Answer (2)
Henle.
176. Answer (1)
152. Answer (4)
177. Answer (2)
All are correct The number of carpals 16 and tarsals 14.
153. Answer (3) 178. Answer (2)
The sheath is secreted by schwann cells The total number of bones in rib case is thoracic
154. Answer (2) vertebrae 12,ribs 24 and sternum 1 so total 37.
Tubular process plays an important role in 179. Answer (4)
maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of body Tarsals present in ankle
fluids. 180. Answer (2)
155. Answer (4) Vetrebro chondral ribs in man are 8th,9th and 10th
Counter current mechanism in Henle's loop and pairs.
Vasa recta facilitates the production of 181. Answer (1)
concentrate/dilute urine in human. 182. Answer (4)
183. Answer (3)
156. Answer (4)
If the diameter of afferent renal arteriole decreased
PCT is lined by simple cuboidal epithelial cell with
than that of efferent renal arteriole, the ultrafiltration
microvilli. will not takes place due to pressure not maintenence
157. Answer (3) impaired
Increase in body fluids volume Increase the ADH 184. Answer (3)
secretion. Sternum is connected to ribs by hyaline cartilage.
158. Answer (2) 185. Answer (2)
Mammalian kidney and contractile vacuole of Head of humerus is articulates with the glenoid
amoeba similar in removal excess water cavity of pectoral girdle.
(osmoregulation) 186. Answer (4)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 23
 Test Booklet Code-A
187. Answer (4) 193. Answer (4)
A cricket player is fastly running for a ball in the 194. Answer (2)
field so his leg bones such as femur, tibia, fíbula; 195. Answer (3)
tarsal, metatarsal and phalanges are directly
Statement. A. is incorrect because compound
contributing.
188. Answer (3) epithelium has limited role in secretion and
If ligaments are torn bone will become unfixed and absorption. Statement B is correct.
painful. 196. Answer (3)
189. Answer (1)
Statement A is correct l.e ANF act as Counter check
Ribs of man are termed as bicephalic because they
have two heads for articulation with thoracic to RAAS .
vertebrae dorsally l.e capitulum and tuberculum. Statement B is incorrect ANF is vasodialator
190. Answer (3) 197. Answer (1)
The Mammalian skull is termed as dicondylic
Uterus muscles are Unstriated and involuntary
because two occipital condyles are present in either
side of foramen magnum. 198. Answer (3)
191. Answer (2) Muscles of tongue are striated, voluntary and
192. Answer (2) multinuclated.
Thrombocytes are blood cells, whose reduction in
199. Answer (1)
number can cause clotting disorders leading to
excessive loss of blood from the body.] 200. Answer (4)

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 24