My courses / HBC200 / General / HBC 200: BIOCHEMISTRY II END OF YEAR EXAMINATION

Started on Monday, 19 June 2023, 9:15 AM

Question 1

Complete

Marked out of 1

Factors that may lead to development of gout include

a. All the options provided

b. Consumption of organ meats

c. Phosphoribosyl-1'-pyrophosphate synthetase (PRPP synthetase) activity

d. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

e. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRase) deficiency

Question 2

Complete

Marked out of 1

If a black mice is crossed with a white mice and the outcome is a litter of 10 mice are all have Black and White patches, the
most likely conclusion is that:-

a. The alleles for black coat color and that for white coat color are weak

b. Gametes from both parents underwent mutation during meiosis

c. The coat colors displays incomplete dominance

d. Both parents were heterozygous for the coat color

e. This is a case of codominance


Question 3

Complete

Marked out of 1

2,3-BPG is synthesized from 1,3-BPG through the action of a ;

a. Isomerase

b. Epimerase

c. Synthase

d. Synthetase

e. Mutase

Question 4

Complete

Marked out of 1

The major role of variant surface glycoprotein (VSG) in trypanosomes is

a. To provide a surface of attachment to host antibodies

b. To reduce the duration of infection

c. To help escape host’s immune system

d. To make them more susceptible to antibody mediated lysis

e. To increase the permeability of nutrients required by the parasite

Question 5

Complete

Marked out of 1

A segmented, ambisense genome is found in

a. Bunyavirus

b. Parainfluenza virus

c. Parvovirus

d. Reovirus

e. Arenavirus
Question 6

Complete

Marked out of 1

Passive immunization is available for protection from

a. Yellow Virus

b. Parainfluenza type 2 virus

c. Influenza A virus

d. Hepatitis A virus

e. Rubella virus

Question 7

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not associated with Phase 2 reactions?

a. Conjugation with amino acids

b. Sulfation

c. Methylation

d. Conjugation with oxidized glutathione

e. Glucuronidation

Question 8

Complete

Marked out of 1

To cause a human pandemic, the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to:

a. develop into a virus with a different host range.

b. spread to primates such as chimpanzees.

c. arise independently in chickens in North and South America.

d. become capable of human-to-human transmission.

e. become much more pathogenic.

Complete

Marked out of 1

The heart muscle is except;

a. Anaerobic

b. FAs are its fuel of choice

c. Utilizes lactate

d. Aerobic

e. Utilizes KBs

Question 10

Complete

Marked out of 1

The shikimate pathway present in Plasmodium produces chorismate which is a precursor of

a. Formate

b. Glucose

c. Acidic amino acids

d. Pyrimidines

e. p-amino benzoic acid (pABA)

Question 11

Complete

Marked out of 1

Your patient, who has been hospitalized in a coma for 2 weeks, has developed erythema around his catheter. You order the
catheter be pulled and the tip cultured and that a new line be started on the opposite side of the body. The report comes back
that it is Staphylococcus epidermidis, which does not surprise you, as it is noted for the production of a loose network of
polysaccharide sticking to catheters. What is this layer on the cell called?

a. Peptidoglycan

b. Teichoic acids

c. Biofilm

d. Glycocalyx

e. Pili
Question 12

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate from ammonia and carbon
dioxide

a. Reaction results in hydrolysis of 2ATP molecules

b. All the options provided

c. The carbon dioxide is derived from hydrogen carbonate

d. It is the first step in pyrimidine biosynthesis

e. The enzyme catalysing the reaction is carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Question 13

Complete

Marked out of 1

The detailed purine biosynthesis pathway was elucidated by

a. Buchanan and Greenberg

b. Watson and Crick

c. Sanger

d. Madame Curie

e. Pierre Curie

Question 14

Complete

Marked out of 1

A 43-year-old female has developed breast cancer. Her mother and one maternal aunt had breast cancer and her maternal
grandmother had ovarian cancer. Which of the following best describes the mechanism behind this inherited problem?

a. A tumor suppressor leading to loss of apoptosis

b. A tumor suppressor leading to an inability to repair DNA

c. All the responses are correct

d. An oncogene leading to a constitutively active MAP kinase pathway

e. An oncogene leading to loss of apoptosis

Complete

Marked out of 1

In the muscle, the purine nucleotide cycle (PNC) promotes the following except;

a. Synthesis of alpha-ketoglutarate

b. Excretion of excess amino groups through the gut and kidney

c. Catabolism of branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)

d. Synthesis of fumarate

e. Synthesis of glutamine

Question 16

Complete

Marked out of 1

Zellweger syndrome

a. Doesn’t cause any developmental defects

b. Is due to loss of mitochondrial functions

c. Is not a genetic disorder

d. Is not associated with protein targeting

e. Is due to mutation in any of the PEX genes

Question 17

Complete

Marked out of 1

In the De novo pathway guanosine monophosphate is synthesized from

a. Adenylosuccinate

b. None of the options provided

c. Uridine monophosphate

d. Inosine monophosphate

e. Adenosine monophosphate
Question 18

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not a Phase 1 reaction?

a. Deamination

b. Oxidation

c. Hydroxylation

d. Acetylation

e. Hydrolysis

Question 19

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is the main site of first-pass metabolism before molecules reach systemic circulation?

a. Stomach

b. Intestine

c. Pancreas

d. Liver

e. Kidney

Question 20

Complete

Marked out of 1

Posttranscriptional modification includes the following EXCEPT

a. Capping at the 5’ end

b. Proteolytic cleavage

c. mRNA splicing

d. RNA editing

e. Polyadenylation
Question 21

Complete

Marked out of 1

N-glycosylation in most proteins is through which amino acid

a. Proline

b. Tyrosine

c. Asparagine

d. Serine

e. Glycine

Question 22

Complete

Marked out of 1

Select from the choices provided a precursor that is in the purine but not in the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway

a. Glycine

b. Amino acids

c. Ribose or deoxyribose

d. Phosphoribosyl-pyrophosphate (PRPP)

e. None of the options provided

Question 23

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not true about epinephrine?

a. It increases the heart rate

b. It causes contraction of respiratory passages

c. It acts primarily on muscle, liver and the AT

d. It increases the blood pressure

e. It promotes glycogenolysis
Question 24

Complete

Marked out of 1

The glycosome

a. contains all enzymes of glucose catabolism

b. has no membrane

c. is an organelle found in all parasitic protozoa

d. plays a major role in carbohydrate metabolism

e. Is found in human beings

Question 25

Complete

Marked out of 1

Cytogenetic analysis can reveal all the following in chromosomes EXCEPT;

a. Barr body

b. defects

c. sequence changes

d. translocation

e. numbers

Question 26

Complete

Marked out of 1

An example of genetic disorder associated with mutation in mitochondria is:

a. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

b. Parkinson’s disease

c. Achondroplasia

d. Albinism

e. Sickle cell disease

Complete

Marked out of 1

Acetylcholinesterase has an essential ________ residue in its active site.

a. Sulfhydryl

b. Carboxyl

c. Methyl

d. Acetyl

e. Hydroxyl

Question 28

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following regulators are said to act in “cis”?

a. The lac repressor and mammalian transcription factors

b. Mammalian transcription factors and enhancers

c. The lac operator and mammalian transcription factors

d. The lac operator and mammalian enhancers

e. The lac repressor and the lac operator

Question 29

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following enzymes of the glycolytic pathway in Fasciola hepatica is inhibited by MK-401?

a. Phosphoglycerate mutase

b. Hexokinase

c. Phosphofructokinase 1

d. Pyruvate kinase

e. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Question 30

Complete

Marked out of 1

Nucleotides function as

a. Energy carrying molecules

b. Genetic material in organisms

c. Biosynthetic intermediates

d. All the options provided

e. Secondary messengers

Question 31

Complete

Marked out of 1

Levamisole is antihelminthic drug which targets the metabolism of

a. Amino acids

b. Lipids

c. Glycogen

d. Glucose

e. Folic acid

Question 32

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following substrate = enzyme pairs are mismatched?

a. Guanine = Enzyme guanine deaminase

b. Xanthine = Xanthine deaminase

c. XMP = Nucleosidase

d. Guanosine = nucleoside phosphorylase

e. GMP = Enzyme 5’-nucleosidase

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is the inactive form of prednisolone?

a. Codeine

b. Prednisilone

c. Prediniphen

d. Morphine

e. Prednisone

Question 34

Complete

Marked out of 1

Some viruses are highly contagious, while other do NOT spread as easily. Which of the following rankings is TRUE as of July
2021?

a. SARS < influenza < Ebola < COVID-19

b. COVID-19 < influenza < SARS < Ebola

c. Influenza < COVID-19 < Ebola < SARS

d. Influenza < SARS < COVID-19 < Ebola

e. Ebola < SARS < Influenza <COVID-19

Question 35

Complete

Marked out of 1

The structural relationship between inosine and hypoxanthine is:

a. Hypoxanthine is a nucleoside derived from the base inosine

b. Inosine is a nucleoside derived from the base hypoxanthine

c. Inosine is a nucleotide derived from the deamination hypoxanthine

d. There is no relationship between hypoxanthine and inosine

e. Inosine is formed by amination of hypoxanthine

Complete

Marked out of 1

Some fundamental difference between Meiosis and Mitosis are the following EXCEPT;

a. Ploidy outcome: Haploid in meiosis and diploid in mitosis

b. Number of cell divisions: two in meiosis, one in mitosis

c. Purpose: Meiosis is for growth and repair while mitosis for gamete formation

d. Daughter cells: Identical in mitosis but differ in meiosis

e. Cells involved: Meiosis in germline cells while mitosis in somatic cells

Question 37

Complete

Marked out of 1

In March, a nursery school reports an outbreak among the children of a disease characterized by a high grade fever that starts
suddenly and rapidly falls. The children develop a short-lived (1 to 2 days) maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and
spreads to extremities; the face is spared. The children have mild malaise, but otherwise do not appear ill. The most likely
causative agent is

a. VZV

b. Coxsackie A16 virus

c. HHV-6

d. Parvovirus B19

e. Rubella virus

Question 38

Complete

Marked out of 1

Cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes are except;

a. Carry out hydroxylation reactions

b. Metalloproteins

c. They comprise of both oxidase and reductase functions

d. Complex with carbon monoxide and absorb light maximally at 450 nm

e. Complex with carbon dioxide and absorb light maximally at 450 nm

Complete

Marked out of 1

Frameshift mutation can be due to

a. Duplications

b. Indels

c. Insertions

d. All the other choices are correct

e. Deletions

Question 40

Complete

Marked out of 1

A diploid parent of the genotype FfDdee during meiosis will release the following gametes:-

a. FDe, fDe, Fde, fde

b. FDE, fDe, FDe

c. FDE, fDe, Fde, fde

d. FfDdEe, ffDdEe

e. FDe, fDe, Fde, fdE

Question 41

Complete

Marked out of 1

RNA is synthesized from DNA using the enzyme

a. RNA polymerase

b. Reverse transcriptase

c. Integrase

d. Primase

e. DNA gyrase
Question 42

Complete

Marked out of 1

Mixed-function oxidases are _______except;

a. NADP-linked enzymes

b. Monooxygenases

c. Transferases

d. Microsomal

e. Mitochondrial

Question 43

Complete

Marked out of 1

Some purine containing nucleosides are

a. Guanosine

b. Thymidine

c. Cytosine

d. Uridine

e. All the options provided

Question 44

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following statements on regulation of pyrimidine metabolism is false?

a. UDP and UTP are feedback inhibitors of CPS

b. None of the options provided

c. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) catalyzes the committed step in pyrimidine synthesis and serves as the focal
point for allosteric regulation.
d. PRPP and ATP are allosteric activators.
Question 45

Complete

Marked out of 1

The normal function of restriction endonucleases is to:

a. Protect bacteria from foreign DNA

b. Remove primer from Okazaki fragments

c. Repair damaged DNA

d. Polymerise nucleotides to form RNA

e. Excise introns from hn-RNA

Question 46

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is the function of a flavoprotein that is involved in drug metabolism and is located in the ER of a liver cell?

a. Reducing the CYP to the ferrous form

b. Facilitate electron transfer from CYP to NADPH

c. Oxidizing the substrate

d. Oxidizing the CYP to the ferric form

e. Facilitate electron transfer from NADPH to CYP

Question 47

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following statements about the “genetic code” is most accurate?

a. The code is degenerate

b. There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids

c. The sequence of codons that make up a gene exhibits an exact linear correspondence to the sequence of amino acids
in the translated protein
d. Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons

e. Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons

Complete

Marked out of 1

The microbiome of the large intestine consists mainly of:

a. Protozoa

b. none of the above

c. Bacteria

d. Fungi

e. Viruses

Question 49

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following results when double-stranded DNA is heated except;

a. AT rich DNA will separate slower than GC rich DNA

b. Best wavelength to measure DNA is 260nm

c. Melting of the DNA occurs

d. The length of the Sequence influence the outcome

e. Hyperchromicity is observed

Question 50

Complete

Marked out of 1

Some key differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes are the following except;

a. Gene density

b. Absence/presence of repeating sequences

c. Genome size

d. Absence of regulatory sequences

e. Absence/presence of introns
Question 51

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following nucleoside is unique to DNA and transfer RNA:

a. Inosine

b. Thymidine

c. Pseudouridine

d. Methyladenosine

e. Dihydrouridine

Question 52

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not a manifestation of insulin deficiency?

a. Ketoacidosis

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Polyuria

d. Glycosuria

e. Polydipsia

Question 53

Complete

Marked out of 1

For a X-linked recessive condition, if a healthy man sires children with a carrier mother, outcome is the following except?

a. 50% of the boys will be healthy

b. 50% chance of girls as carriers

c. 50% chances that girls will be healthy

d. 50% of the boys are affected

e. 50% of the boys will be carriers

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following statements correctly describes insulin?

a. It is an anabolic signal to cells that glucose is scarce

b. It is a small polypeptide composed of a single chain bridged by disulfide groups

c. It does not have a prohormone form

d. It is converted from proinsulin to insulin primarily following secretion from β-cells

e. Its action is antagonistic to that of glucagon

Question 55

Complete

Marked out of 1

In a breed of rabbit, Black coat (B) is dominant to white coat and short ears are recessive to long ears (R). If a dihybrid female is
crossed with a male that is pure breeder for white coat and heterozygous for long ears, the progeny phenotype will be:-

a. 12.5% black coat and short ears, 12.5% white coat and short ears

b. 50% black coat and long ears, 50% black coat and short ears

c. 50% white coat and short ears , 50% black coat and long ears

d. 25% are black coat and long ears, 12.5% white coat and short ears

e. All are black coat and short ears

Question 56

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is the name of the process where structurally different compounds interact with the enzyme and prevent the metabolism
of the drug?

a. Uncompetitive inhibition

b. Feedback inhibition

c. Non-competitive inhibition

d. Competitive inhibition

e. Allosteric inhibition
Question 57

Complete

Marked out of 1

b-lactamases confer antibiotic resistance by

a. Modifying antibiotic structure

b. Altering penicillin-binding proteins

c. Altering antibiotic permeability

d. Modifying cellular RNA polymerase

e. Altering 70S ribosome structure

Question 58

Complete

Marked out of 1

In nullisomy, a cell;

a. Gains two non-homologous chromosomes

b. Losses a pair of homologous chromosomes

c. Gains extra chromosome

d. Carries an extra pair of homologous chromosomes

e. Loses one chromosomes to attain monosomy

Question 59

Complete

Marked out of 1

The enzyme that removes RNA primer during DNA replication is

a. DNA polymerase III

b. Primase

c. DNA polymerase I

d. RNA polymerase I

e. RNA polymerase III

Complete

Marked out of 1

The role of glutathione in tissues includes all except;

a. It participates in the reduction of NADP

b. It participates in the detoxification reactions

c. It participates in the absorption of amino acids

d. It participates in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide

e. It is biologically active in the oxidized form

Question 61

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following compounds is not a DNA mutagen

a. methyl methanesulfonate

b. proflavin

c. Ethidium bromide

d. N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine

e. Thymine

Question 62

Complete

Marked out of 1

Of the following, which diagnostic test has been more commonly used in the diagnosis of COVID-19?

a. Virus isolation in cell culture

b. Viral antigen detection test

c. Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

d. Urinalysis

e. Real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) assay

Complete

Marked out of 1

A teenage girl is evaluated in the emergency room and noted to have increased respiration (tachypnea), vomiting, and
confusion. She bleeds from puncture sites during withdrawal of blood for testing, and a urine toxicology screen reveals
increased amounts of acetosalicylic acid, ibuprofen, and acetaminophen. She has a past history of depression and suicide
attempts. Which of the following enzymes are likely to be inhibited?

a. Lipoprotein lipase

b. Lipoxygenase

c. Phospholipase A2

d. Phospholipase D

e. Cyclooxygenase

Question 64

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following enzymes repairs nicks in DNA by forming a phosphodiester

a. DNA ligase

b. Helicase

c. DNA gyrase

d. Topoisomerase

e. DNA polymerase

Question 65

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following compounds is not a precursor of de novo pyrimidine synthesis in Plasmodium falciparum?

a. Glutamine

b. Aspartate

c. Formate

d. Carbon dioxide

e. Ethanol
Question 66

Complete

Marked out of 1

Allopolyploid comprise of;

a. Polytene chromosomes

b. Typical example is trisomy 18

c. Combination of chromosomes from one species

d. Combination of similar chromosomes derived from more than one species

e. Combination of chromosomes from non-disjunction events

Question 67

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following statement is TRUE about hydroxyproline

a. Formation of hydroxyproline from proline is dependent on Vitamin C

b. It is damaged by Fe2+ and molecular O2

c. It causes skin lesions and blood-vessel fragility

d. Higher amounts of hydroxyproline causes scurvy

e. It is not found in mature collagen

Question 68

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is transferred when an F+ cell is crossed with an F– cell?

a. Generally the whole bacterial chromosome

b. Both the plasmid and chromosomal genes

c. Only the fertility factor DNA

d. No genes

e. Only some bacterial chromosomal genes

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the sequences below will reanneal the slowest to form double-stranded DNA?

a. 5’TGCACGTATC3’

b. 5’ATATATATAT3’

c. 5’TCTCTCTCTC3’

d. 5’TGCATGCATG3’

e. 5’TCATCATCAT3’

Question 70

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is transcribed during repression?

a. Structural gene

b. Operator gene

c. Regulator gene

d. None of the above

e. Promoter gene

Question 71

Complete

Marked out of 1

Deoxyribonucleotides

a. Contain D-ribose

b. Examples include CTP and ADP

c. None of the options provided

d. They are found in RNA

e. They usually are derived from the corresponding ribonucleotides

Complete

Marked out of 1

Aneuploidy may result from any of the following except;

a. All the factors stated in the other choices

b. Deletion of centromere during mitosis

c. Rorbertsonian translocation

d. Non-disjunction during meiosis

e. Deletion of centromere during meiosis

Question 73

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is NOT and electron donors/acceptors during catabolic reactions

a. NADPH

b. NADH

c. NAD+

d. FADH2

e. FAD+

Question 74

Complete

Marked out of 1

In order to cause vasodilation and increase blood flow, NO binds to the heme group of _____________________, thereby activating
it.

a. Guanylate cyclase

b. Adenylate cyclase

c. Cytidylate cyclase

d. Thymidylate cyclase

e. Uridylate cyclase
Question 75

Complete

Marked out of 1

What is the term applied to a segment of a bacterial chromosome where genes for the enzymes of a particular metabolic
pathway are clustered and subject to coordinate control?

a. Origin

b. Operator

c. Terminal controller

d. Promoter

e. Operon

Question 76

Complete

Marked out of 1

What bacterial gene transfer process is most sensitive to extracellular nucleases?

a. Conjugation

b. Transduction

c. Site-specific recombination

d. Specialized transduction

e. Homologous recombination

Question 77

Complete

Marked out of 1

A receptor for the SARS-CoV-2 Virus is

a. Erb-B

b. TLR-9

c. ACE-2

d. CXCR4

e. CPG
Question 78

Complete

Marked out of 1

Literature on genetic disorders can be searched in;

a. Sequence Read Archive(SRA)

b. European Nucleotide Archive (ENA)

c. OMIM

d. UniprotKB

e. PROSITE

Question 79

Complete

Marked out of 1

Recent research has indicated that the best potential mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity will be by;

a. Administration of N-Acetylcysteine amide (NACA)

b. Use of activated charcoal

c. Intravenous fluids

d. Administration of N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)

e. Anti-nausea medication

Question 80

Complete

Marked out of 1

Single-strand breaks in DNA comprise the single most frequent type of DNA damage. These breaks are frequently due to
reactive oxygen species damaging the deoxyribose residues of the sugar phosphate backbone. This type of break is repaired by
a series of enzymes that reconstruct the sugar and ultimately reform the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. Which
class of enzyme catalyses the formation of the phosphodiester bond in DNA repair?

a. DNA glycosylases

b. DNA phosphodiesterases

c. DNA helicases

d. DNA polymerases

e. DNA ligases
Question 81

Complete

Marked out of 1

Both strands of DNA serve as templates concurrently in

a. Transcription

b. Excision repair

c. Mismatch repair

d. Translation

e. Replication

Question 82

Complete

Marked out of 1

Type II fatty acid synthesis (FASII) in Trypanosoma takes place in the;

a. Endoplasmic reticulum

b. Nucleus

c. Apicoplast

d. Mitochondrion

e. Cytosol

Question 83

Complete

Marked out of 1

A plant genome is defined BBBBBCCCCCDDDDDDEEEEEGGGGG, the following can be deduced except;

a. Is a product of non-disjunction

b. Pentaploidy

c. This is euploidy

d. Is likely to have superior agronomic characteristics

e. This is aneuploidy
Question 84

Complete

Marked out of 28

A =4

B =3

C =6

D =7

E =11

F =13

G =10

H =2

I =14

J =9

K =12

L=8

M =5

N=1
Question 85

Complete

Marked out of 1

A viral disease in which antiviral antibodies are thought to have an ‘‘enhancing’’ effect so that reinfection with the virus causes a
more serious disease is

a. Hanta virus

b. West Nile virus

c. Adenovirus E1A

d. Coxsackie A virus

e. Dengue virus

Question 86

Complete

Marked out of 1

In formation of cyclic AMP the stimulation of adenyl cyclase by the hormone-receptor complex requires the presence of:

a. UTP

b. UMP

c. CTP

d. GTP

e. CDP

Question 87

Complete

Marked out of 1

A small percentage of ingested acetaminophen is _________ before excretion.

a. Acetylated

b. Unchanged

c. Sulfated

d. Oxidized

e. Glucuronidated
Question 88

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not true about HbA1c?

a. It is formed by a condensation reaction between glucose and a residue of Hb

b. It is separated from free Hb by cation-exchange chromatography

c. It is a glycated Hb

d. It is a glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb)

e. It is formed by a condensation reaction between glucose and the N-end of the alpha chain of Hb

Question 89

Complete

Marked out of 1

A 27-year-old man is seen by his physician for a week-long cough, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. He is diagnosed with
diphtheria, which has reactivated because of waning immunity. One way in which diphtheria toxin leads to cell death is through
the inhibition of eEF-2. Which statement best explains the function of eEF-2?

a. It functions as a peptidyl transferase.

b. It is the agent that binds to, and is inactivated by, chloramphenicol.

c. It is analogous to the prokaryotic factor eIF-1.

d. It is required for the initiation of protein synthesis.

e. It is required for the translocation of peptidyl-tRNA during translation.

Question 90

Complete

Marked out of 1

2,5A synthetase is induced by:

a. Acyclovir

b. Cytarabine

c. Amantadine

d. Ribavirin

e. Interferon
Question 91

Complete

Marked out of 1

Excretion product of purine catabolism in humans is

a. Ammonia

b. Beta-isobutyrate

c. Uric acid

d. Xanthine

e. Urea

Question 92

Complete

Marked out of 1

Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) is a reductant in the metabolism of the following except;

a. Serotonin synthesis

b. Melanin synthesis

c. Phenylalanine catabolism

d. Nitric oxide (NO) synthesis

e. Catecholamine synthesis

Question 93

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following blood coagulation factors does not require posttranslational modification

a. Christmas factor

b. Stuart factor

c. Antihemophilic factor

d. Prothrombin

e. Factor VII
Question 94

Complete

Marked out of 1

Breast cancer can be caused by a mutation in the following gene

a. MLH1

b. MSH2

c. XP-G

d. PMS2

e. BRCA2

Question 95

Complete

Marked out of 1

Cholera toxin produces diarrhoea due to:

a. By decreasing C-AMP level

b. Stimulate cholinergic receptors

c. By increasing synthesis of C-AMP

d. Prevents axonal ion transport

e. Inhibits the Na+ - K+ stimulated ATPase

Question 96

Complete

Marked out of 1

COSMIC database can be used to access information on;

a. Genomic data in humans

b. Nucleotide sequences of microorganisms

c. Metabolic pathways of parasites

d. Drugs used in cancer treatment

e. Somatic mutations and cancer type in humans

Complete

Marked out of 1

Of the following, which diagnostic test has been more commonly used in the diagnosis of COVID-19?

a. Virus isolation in cell culture

b. Real-time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (rRT-PCR) assay

c. Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)

d. Viral antigen detection test

e. Urinalysis

Question 98

Complete

Marked out of 1

Chromatin:

a. A supramolecular assembly

b. Complex of RNA and proteins

c. Complex of protein and lipids

d. Complex of RNA, DNA, lipids and Proteins

e. A long strand of DNA

Question 99

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not true about energy systems in a skeletal muscle?

a. The phosphagen system breaks down phosphocreatine to rebuild ATP

b. The aerobic system is slower in ATP production but has lower capacity to produce ATP

c. The aerobics system may break a range of fuels such as fats, carbohydrates and proteins to rebuild ATP

d. The aerobic system is more reliable in endurance activities

e. The anaerobic glycolysis system only breaks down carbohydrates to rebuild ATP
Question 100

Complete

Marked out of 1

Regarding arachidonic acid the following statements are all TRUE except:

a. Can be synthesised from linoleic acid.

b. It is a 20 carbon fatty acid with five double bonds.

c. It is a precursor of PG-I2

d. It can form cyclic endoperoxide PG-H2

e. It is a precursor of TX-A2

Question 101

Complete

Marked out of 1

Excretion product of deoxythymidine triphosphate dTTP catabolism in humans is

a. Allantoin

b. Urea

c. Uric acid

d. Beta-aminoisobutyrate

e. Beta-Alanine

Question 102

Complete

Marked out of 1

Polydactyly is commonly found in the following defect:

a. Trisomy 18

b. Trisomy 21

c. Trisomy 13

d. Monosomy X

e. Nullisomy 4
Question 103

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following processes CANNOT provide arachidonic acid in mammals?

a. Dietary vegetable oils

b. Dietary animal fats

c. Biosynthesis of linoleic acid by fatty acid synthase followed by elongation/desaturation

d. Cleavage of 2’-linoleic acid as the linoleoyl CoA from membrane triacylglycerols with chain elongation/desaturation

e. Chain elongation and desaturation from linoleic acid

Question 104

Complete

Marked out of 1

Procaine undergoes ____________ to p-aminobenzoic acid and diethylaminoethanol.

a. Dehydrogenation

b. Hydroxylation

c. Deamination

d. Hydrolysis

e. Esterification

Question 105

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following statements are true about RNA polymerase in Mycobacterium tuberculosis EXCEPT

a. It is a drug target in the treatment of tuberculosis

b. It is activated by Rifampicin in the synthesis of RNA

c. It is a multiple-subunit protein

d. It recognizes and binds the promoter for transcription to start

e. Its C subunit catalyzes the synthesis of RNA

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following statement is true about Pyrimethamine

a. Mechanism of resistance involves ABC type transporters

b. Pyrimethamine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase in de novo synthesis of tetrahydrofolate

c. Pyrimethamine inhibits the formation of β-hematin

d. Resistance to Pyrimethamine is mediated by removal or inactivation of the drug

e. Pyrimethamine inhibits the formation of toxic reactive oxygen species

Question 107

Complete

Marked out of 1

If white color is dominant over black color in mice, the progeny of a cross between hybrid white mouse and true-breeding black
mouse will give __ percentage of black mice?

a. 50%

b. 75%

c. 0%

d. 25%

e. 100%

Question 108

Complete

Marked out of 1

The synthesis of adenyl cyclase is increased by:

a. Thyroid hormones

b. Parathormone

c. Epinephrine

d. ACTH

e. Glucagon
Question 109

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following databases can be used to search a drug against its gene target

a. Therapeutic target database(TTD)

b. SRA

c. Protein data bank (PDB)

d. COSMIC

e. ONCOMINE

Question 110

Complete

Marked out of 1

Name the genetic disorder which is caused by the deficiency of the enzyme HGPRT?

a. Albinism

b. Cystic fibrosis

c. Severe Compromised Immunodeficiency Syndrome

d. Down syndrome

e. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Question 111

Complete

Marked out of 1

Adenylosuccinate synthetase

a. Its substrate is inosine monophosphate

b. Is an enzyme in the pyrimidimine synthesis pathway

c. Catalysis an exothermic reaction

d. Catalysis the breakdown of adenylosuccinate

e. None of the options provided

Complete

Marked out of 1

Sex influenced trait is;

a. is hormonally controlled

b. dictated by Y chromosome

c. dictated by X chromosome

d. Influenced by X chromosome inactivation

e. Gray hair is a good example

Question 113

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following processes creates high-frequency recombination donors?

a. Transformation

b. Recombination

c. Conjugation

d. Transduction

e. Transcription

Question 114

Complete

Marked out of 1

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition, the children of a carrier mother and albino dad will:-

a. 75% carriers

b. All albinos

c. 25% carriers

d. 50% albinos

e. 25% albinos
Question 115

Complete

Marked out of 1

You would like to establish the correlation between gut bacteria and obesity. Which of these databases will give you relevant
information

a. GiardiaDB

b. MicrobiomeDB

c. TritrypDB

d. PlasmoDB

e. Vectorbase

Question 116

Complete

Marked out of 1

Glycine conjugation of Benzoate results in;

a. Mercapturic acid

b. Benzylalcohol

c. Oxalic acid

d. Carbonic acid

e. Hippuric acid

Question 117

Complete

Marked out of 1

The drug allopurinol used in management of gouts works by

a. Inhibits Xanthine oxidase

b. Activates Xanthine oxidase

c. Reducing the purine synthesized

d. Increasing purine catabolism

e. Inactivates nucleosidases in purine catabolism

Complete

Marked out of 1

In Trichomonas vaginalis oxidative decarboxylation of Malate to Pyruvate is catalyzed by

a. Alcohol dehydrogenase

b. Malic enzyme

c. Pyruvate phosphate dikinase

d. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

e. Pyruvate decarboxylase

Question 119

Complete

Marked out of 1

The following neurotransmitters are linked to ion channels except;

a. Acetylcholine

b. Glutamate

c. GABA

d. Serotonin

e. Glycine

Question 120

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following is not required during polymerase chain reactions?

a. Divalent cations

b. ddNTPs

c. Taq DNA polymerase

d. dNTPs

e. Primers
Question 121

Complete

Marked out of 1

NO, a neurotransmitter is made from the amino acid____________________.

a. Glycine

b. Threonine

c. Arginine

d. Serine

e. Proline

Question 122

Complete

Marked out of 1

A viral disease in which antiviral antibodies are thought to have an ‘‘enhancing’’ effect so that reinfection with the virus causes a
more serious disease is

a. Coxsackie A virus

b. Rubella virus

c. Hanta virus

d. Dengue virus

e. West Nile virus

Question 123

Complete

Marked out of 1

Which of the following cis-acting elements typically resides adjacent to or overlaps with many prokaryotic promoters?

a. Operator

b. Structural gene(s)

c. Terminator

d. Regulatory gene

e. Repressor

← HBC 200: BIOCHEMISTRY CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT TEST III

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