MODULE TEST -CURRENT AFFAIRS 2

QUESTIONS & EXPLANATION

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1.The National Geospatial Policy 2022 aims to transform India into a
global geospatial leader. Which of the following statements are
correct?

1.​ The policy promotes liberalization and commercialization of

geospatial data.
2.​ The policy plans a National Digital Twin for better
decision-making.
3.​ The policy excludes defense and security applications.

Choose the correct option:

A) 1, 2, 3​
B) 1, 2​
C) 2, 3​
D) All of the above

1.B

The Ministry of Science and Technology has notified the National

Geospatial Policy (NGP) 2022, aiming to make India a global leader in the
geospatial sector. The policy envisions unlocking the potential of the
geospatial economy, which is projected to surpass ₹63,000 crore by 2025
with an annual growth rate of 12.8%, and is expected to create
employment opportunities for over 10 lakh people.

The background of this policy dates back to 2021, when the Ministry of
Science and Technology issued the "Guidelines for Acquiring and

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Producing Geospatial Data and Geospatial Data Services including Maps."
These guidelines significantly deregulated the geospatial sector by
liberalizing the acquisition, production, and access to geospatial data.
Building upon this momentum, the 2022 policy introduces a
comprehensive framework designed for the holistic development of
India's geospatial ecosystem.

The National Geospatial Policy 2022 is a citizen-centric policy anchored

in geospatial technology, designed to strengthen the sector to support
national development, economic prosperity, and a thriving information
economy. The policy outlines an ambitious roadmap, including setting up
high-resolution topographical surveys and creating a high-accuracy
Digital Elevation Model (DEM) by the year 2030.

The vision of the policy is to establish India as a world leader in the

global geospatial space by fostering an innovative, best-in-class
ecosystem. It aims to develop a coherent national framework that can
support the digital economy, enhance service delivery to citizens, and
boost geospatial infrastructure, knowledge, standards, and businesses.
The policy also seeks to promote innovation and strengthen national and
sub-national capabilities for the generation and management of
geospatial information.

An important institutional mechanism under the policy is the

establishment of the Geospatial Data Promotion and Development
Committee (GDPDC) at the national level, which will serve as the apex
body for strategy formulation and implementation in the geospatial

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sector. The GDPDC will replace and subsume the functions of the
National Spatial Data Committee (NSDC) established in 2006 and a
similar GDPDC formed in 2021. The Department of Science and
Technology (DST) will continue to act as the nodal department, with
GDPDC providing recommendations to ensure smooth governance of the
geospatial regime.

The policy has set specific milestones to realize its vision. By 2025, it
aims to establish an enabling policy and legal framework that supports
the liberalization of the geospatial sector and democratizes data for
enhanced commercialization and value-added services. By 2030, the goal
is to achieve high-resolution topographical surveys and mapping,
targeting an accuracy range of 5-10 cm for urban and rural areas, and
50-100 cm for forests and wastelands. Looking forward to 2035, the
policy envisions creating high-resolution bathymetric geospatial data for
inland waters and sea surface topography to support the Blue Economy.
Another significant goal is the creation of a National Digital Twin of
major cities and towns — a virtual ecosystem of dynamic, smart,
connected digital replicas, designed for secure and interoperable data
sharing to enhance decision-making.

The policy's significance lies in its potential to act as a catalyst for

achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by empowering
decision-making with accurate geospatial data. It also plays a crucial role
in boosting India’s startup ecosystem and reducing dependence on
foreign technologies. Geospatial data is invaluable for applications in

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military operations, disaster and emergency management,
environmental monitoring, and urban and rural planning, making it a
critical element in modern governance.

However, there are several concerns associated with the policy.

Geospatial data is inherently complex due to the nature of its content
and the relationships among data objects, which makes its secure
management a major challenge. National security concerns arise when
sensitive geospatial data, particularly involving critical infrastructure or
defense installations, could potentially be misused or leaked. Despite
existing models for data sharing and access control, there is a pressing
need to strengthen security measures, especially for interoperable
Geographic Information System (GIS) applications used by defense
services. Moreover, the unrestricted integration and availability of
geospatial data can lead to privacy violations and expose sensitive
information like building ownerships or strategic infrastructure to public
access, posing significant risks.

Geospatial technology itself relies on advanced tools such as Geographic

Information Systems (GIS), the Global Positioning System (GPS), and
Remote Sensing, which together enable geographic mapping and spatial
analysis. These tools help in capturing location-based data about objects,
events, and phenomena, which are indexed to their geographic
coordinates on Earth, known as geotagging. Geospatial data can be static,
like the location of a road or an earthquake site, or dynamic, like the
movement of vehicles or the spread of infectious diseases. This

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technology is pivotal for creating intelligent maps and recognizing
spatial patterns, ultimately facilitating more informed and efficient
decision-making in the allocation of resources and planning of
development activities.

2.Consider the following statements about Edakkal Caves:

1.​ Kerala Tourism has launched a ₹2.9 crore project aimed at

enhancing public amenities around the Edakkal Caves in
Wayanad
2.​ Inside the caves, pictorial writings dating back to at least 6,000
BCE during the Neolithic period can be found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2.C

Kerala Tourism has launched a ₹2.9 crore project aimed at enhancing

public amenities around the Edakkal Caves in Wayanad. This initiative
focuses on improving infrastructure such as pathways, rest areas, and
visitor facilities to accommodate the growing number of tourists and to
preserve the site's archaeological significance. ​

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The Edakkal Caves, situated at an altitude of 1,200 meters on Ambukuthi
Hill, are renowned for their prehistoric petroglyphs dating back to the
Neolithic and Mesolithic periods. Discovered in 1890 by British police
official Fred Fawcett, these natural rock shelters feature carvings of
human and animal figures, tools, and undeciphered symbols, offering
insights into early human civilization in South India. ​

The caves' proximity to ancient trade routes linking the Mysore

highlands to the Malabar Coast underscores their historical importance.
Some carvings, such as the depiction of a "man with a jar cup," suggest
potential connections to the Indus Valley civilization. The ongoing
development project aims to enhance the visitor experience while
ensuring the preservation of this significant archaeological site.

Prehistoric rock shelter at 1200 ft, renowned for 6000 B.C. Stone Age
engravings and burial sites, reflecting ancient human settlement and
cultural diversity.

Situated high atop Ambukuthi Mala hills, 25 kilometres away from

Wayanad, located in the district of the same name, is Edakkal Caves
– a true archaeological wonder and find. Known for its mystical
rock formation and engravings that can be traced back to the Stone Age,
Edakkal Caves is the hub for those interested in glimpsing a peek of the
primitive way of life.

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A trek up around 300 steps takes you to the Edakkal Caves. Despite the
name, the place isn't really a cave, but more of a rock formation where a
boulder wedged itself between two other boulders, creating an odd
shelter-like structure. The name 'Edakkal' itself means 'Stone in between'
in the Malayalam language, thus being appropriately named by the
locals.

Significance and History

1200 ft above the sea level does the Edakkal Caves stand. Its pictorial
engravings are quite old in nature and the oldest of these interesting
engravings can be dated back to 6000 B.C., the era that is known today as
'The Stone Age'. Despite such an early civilisation which could have been
using the area as a settlement, it was only discovered and recognised for
its archaeological importance in 1895 by Fred Fawcett, a police official
from the British East India Company on one of his hunting trips.

There is not much knowledge regarding the origins of these caves, other
than the possible indications of an early civilisation having possibly
existed here from the carvings. Whilst the earliest carvings can be from
the Neolithic era, the latest are from 1000 B.C., clearly indicating that this
rock formation hides a lot about the past of humans. There are symbols
in the carvings which do indicate that the caves have been inhabited
multiple times, but it has not been easy to decipher. Only around 400 of
these have been successfully identified, and some of them are believed
to have links to the Indus Valley Civilisation.

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3.Which platform is associated with the SWAYATT Initiative for
promoting inclusive and transparent public procurement in India?
A) Startup India Portal
B) Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
C) Digital India Portal
D) Invest India Platform

3.B

The SWAYATT Initiative was launched in 2019 with the aim of enhancing
market access for women entrepreneurs, youth, startups, Micro & Small
Enterprises (MSEs), and Self-Help Groups (SHGs) on the Government
e-Marketplace (GeM) platform. The initiative focuses on increasing seller
inclusion through targeted training, registration drives, and
capacity-building efforts, enabling these groups to leverage GeM for
expanding their market presence and growth.

Since its inception, SWAYATT has witnessed remarkable achievements.

The number of women-led enterprises and startups on GeM has seen
exponential growth, increasing from 6,300 women-led MSEs and 3,400
startups at the time of launch to over 1,77,786 Udyam-verified
women-led MSEs. Currently, women-led businesses constitute 8% of
GeM’s total seller base. Furthermore, GeM has facilitated orders worth
₹35,950 crore from startups, directly addressing barriers related to
market access, finance, and value addition.

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Looking ahead, SWAYATT aims to double the number of women
entrepreneurs on the platform and increase their procurement share,
which currently stands at 3.78%. Additionally, the initiative targets
onboarding 1 lakh startups registered with the Department for
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). In support of this goal,
a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between GeM and
the FICCI Ladies Organisation (FICCI-FLO) to train and onboard more
than 9,500 women entrepreneurs, thereby creating direct market
linkages and fostering inclusive growth.

To improve visibility for startups, women entrepreneurs, and youth

among government buyers, GeM has introduced dedicated storefronts
such as "Startup Runway" and "Womaniya", making it easier for these
groups to showcase their products and services.

The Government e-Marketplace (GeM), established in 2016 under the

Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (DGS&D) and the Ministry
of Commerce and Industry, serves as India’s National Public
Procurement Portal. Developed with technical support from the National
e-Governance Division under MeitY, GeM offers a completely paperless,
cashless, and system-driven online procurement platform. It minimizes
human intervention in public procurement, ensuring greater
transparency, efficiency, and cost-effectiveness for Central and State
Governments, PSUs, and other affiliated entities.

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4.Aksharam Museum, known for preserving literary and cultural
heritage, is located in which district of Kerala?

A) Alappuzha​
B) Thiruvananthapuram​
C) Kottayam​
D) Kozhikode

4.C

Aksharam Museum — India’s first language-literary-cultural marvel — is

located in Mariyappally, Nattakom, Kottayam, Kerala.
Spread across 15,000 square feet, this museum is dedicated to celebrating
the essence of letters, language, and culture. It was conceived by the
Sahithya Pravarthaka Co-operative Society with the support of the Kerala
State Government and the Cooperative Department.
The Aksharam Museum was inaugurated on November 26, 2024, and was
designed to be both eco-friendly and fully accessible to visitors. It aims to
offer an immersive experience through cutting-edge digital technology,
holographic displays, interactive galleries, and documentary theaters.
The museum will be developed in four phases, starting with galleries
that explore the history of the Malayalam language, the evolution of
Indian scripts, the history of Malayalam printing, and the legacy of
Sahithya Pravarthaka Co-operative Society. A unique feature is the World
Language Gallery, which showcases over 6,000 global languages and the
signatures of 124 literary luminaries.

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A special attraction is the "Letter Tourism Circuit", which links key
cultural and historical sites in Kottayam — including CMS College, CMS
Press, Deepika Daily’s founding site, Pahlavi Cross at Valiyapalli,
Kumaranalloor Devi Temple, Thirunakkara Temple, and Mannanam St.
Joseph Press — offering visitors a deeper sense of Kerala’s literary
heritage.
The Aksharam Museum, built at a cost of ₹15 crore, positions Kottayam
as a vibrant center for academic inquiry and cultural exploration,
celebrating the evolution of language, literature, and Kerala’s rich
literary traditions.

5.Which ministry is responsible for implementing the One Nation-One

Port (ONOP) Initiative in India?
A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B) Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Ministry of Finance

5.B

One Nation-One Port (ONOP) Initiative is a nationwide effort to

standardize port operations, streamline documentation, and enhance the
overall efficiency of global trade in India. It was launched by the
Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) to simplify
processes and remove inconsistencies across the country's ports.

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Aim:
●​ Remove inconsistencies in port documentation and processes.
●​ Enhance ease of doing business by reducing delays and
inefficiencies.
●​ Improve global trade competitiveness by standardizing logistics
and operations.
●​ Reduce the carbon footprint through more efficient port
operations.

Key Features:
●​ Standardized Port Documentation: This reduces paperwork
significantly, cutting container operation documents by 33% (from
143 to 96) and bulk cargo documents by 29% (from 150 to 106).
●​ Sagar Ankalan LPPI Index: A tool introduced to benchmark the
performance of ports, driving operational excellence across the
sector.
●​ Integration with Digital Trade: Supports the MAITRI initiative,
which focuses on the use of AI and blockchain for trade facilitation.
●​ Bharat Ports Global Consortium: Enhances global supply chains
and expands India's maritime footprint.
●​ Alignment with PM Gati Shakti and National Logistics Policy: This
initiative supports India's broader economic growth strategy
through seamless logistics and improved trade infrastructure.

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India's extensive coastline is home to numerous ports facilitating
significant maritime trade. As of 2024, the country boasts 13 major
ports, each playing a pivotal role in the nation's economy. Here is a list
of these major ports:​

1.​ Kolkata Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) – Located in West

Bengal, it is one of the oldest ports in India.​​

2.​ Paradip Port – Situated in Odisha, it primarily handles bulk cargo.​​

3.​ Visakhapatnam Port – Found in Andhra Pradesh, it is a significant

port for handling iron ore and coal.​​

4.​ Kamarajar Port (Ennore Port) – Located in Tamil Nadu, it

specializes in coal and other bulk cargo.​​

5.​ Chennai Port – Also in Tamil Nadu, it is one of the largest

container ports in India.​​

6.​ Tuticorin Port (V.O. Chidambaranar Port) – Situated in Tamil

Nadu, it handles a variety of cargo, including coal and salt.​​

7.​ Cochin Port – Located in Kerala, it serves as a major gateway for

trade with the Middle East.​​

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 8.​ New Mangalore Port – Found in Karnataka, it handles
commodities like iron ore and coal.​
9.​ Mormugao Port – Situated in Goa, it is known for exporting iron
ore.​​

10.​Mumbai Port – Located in Maharashtra, it is one of the busiest

ports in the country.​​

11.​Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) – Also in Maharashtra, it is

the largest container port in India.​​

12.​Deendayal Port (Kandla Port) – Located in Gujarat, it handles a

diverse range of cargo.​​

13.​Vadhavan Port – Maharashtra​

These ports are administered by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and

Waterways under the Government of India. They serve as critical hubs
for international trade, handling a wide array of cargo, including
containers, bulk commodities, and liquid cargo. The strategic
development and modernization of these ports are integral to enhancing
India's maritime infrastructure and boosting economic growth.

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6.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Old and
New Parliament Buildings in India?
1.​ The Old Parliament Building was inaugurated in 1927 and will be
converted into a ‘Museum of Democracy’ after the new building
becomes operational.
2.​ The New Parliament Building will have a triangular shape and
incorporate architectural styles from around India, with the Lok
Sabha Hall seating up to 1,000 members.

a) Both statements are correct.

b) Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct.
d) Both statements are incorrect.

6.B
Statement 1 is correct: The Old Parliament Building was inaugurated in
1927 and will be converted into a ‘Museum of Democracy’ after the new
building becomes operational.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The New Parliament Building is triangular in

shape and incorporates architectural styles from around India, but the
Lok Sabha Hall will have a capacity of up to 888 seats, not 1,000.

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The Old Parliament Building in New Delhi has a rich history, marking
the shift of India's capital from Calcutta to Delhi during the coronation of
George V as Emperor of India on December 12, 1911. In 1913, renowned
architects Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker were selected to design the
Imperial City at New Delhi, with their initial focus on the President’s
House and the North and South Blocks. However, following the passage
of the Government of India Act in 1919, which provided for a bicameral
legislature, there arose a need for a new building to accommodate the
Legislative Council. The construction of the Parliament building began in
1921 and was completed in 1927.

The structure featured a Legislative Assembly Chamber (later the Lok

Sabha), a Council of States Chamber (now the Rajya Sabha), and the
Chamber of Princes (now the Library Hall). The building's architecture
was inspired by the Roman Colosseum, taking on a circular shape, with
Indian elements like jaalis and chhatris incorporated into the design. The
circular structure stands supported by 144 cream sandstone pillars, each
27 feet tall. The foundation for the Parliament was laid by Duke of
Connaught on February 12, 1921, and it was officially inaugurated by
Lord Irwin, the Governor-General of India, on January 18, 1927. While
the old building will not be demolished, it will be converted into a
‘Museum of Democracy’ once the new Parliament building is fully
operational.

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The New Parliament Building is part of the Central Vista Redevelopment
Project announced in 2019, aimed at modernizing and redefining the
power corridor of India. The project includes the construction of a new
Parliament, residences for the Prime Minister and Vice-President, and
additional blocks for government ministries.
The initiative seeks to revamp Lutyens’ Delhi, which includes iconic
structures like the Rashtrapati Bhavan and the North and South Blocks.
The need for a new Parliament building arose due to the current
building’s 93-year-old age, safety concerns, and its inadequate
infrastructure. The present building does not have enough seating
capacity for the increasing number of MPs, especially after 2026, when
the freeze on Lok Sabha seats will be lifted. The building also faces
issues with seepage, fire safety, and outdated communication structures.
Moreover, it was originally constructed when Delhi was in Seismic
Zone-II, but the city is now in Seismic Zone-IV, raising concerns about
structural stability.

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The new Parliament building, designed with a built-up area of 65,000 sq
m, will feature a triangular shape and incorporate architectural styles
from across India. The Lok Sabha Hall will have a capacity of up to 888
seats, expandable to 1,272 for joint sessions, while the Rajya Sabha Hall
will seat 384. The design features a peacock theme for the Lok Sabha and
a lotus theme for the Rajya Sabha, reflecting India’s national symbols.
The building will also be a Platinum-rated Green Building, emphasizing
environmental sustainability and offering accessibility for people with
disabilities.
13 Things You Need to Know About the New Parliament Building

1.​ The new Parliament building has a unique triangular shape, a

result of the triangular plot of land it sits on. Inspired by sacred
geometry, its design and materials complement those of the old
Parliament. Both structures are intended to function as one
complex, symbolising unity and continuity in India’s democratic
legacy.
2.​ The new Parliament building utilises green construction techniques,
slashing electricity consumption by 30% compared to the old one. It
incorporates rainwater-harvesting and water-recycling systems
while maximising space efficiency. Designed to last 150 years, it is
sustainable and aims for resource conservation.
3.​ Given Delhi’s location in seismic zone-IV, the new Parliament
building has been engineered to withstand earthquakes, ensuring
the safety and security of its occupants.

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 4.​ The new Lok Sabha chamber features peacock themed designs
carved on the walls and ceiling, enhanced by teal carpets that
complement the overall theme. The Lok Sabha chamber has been
expanded to accommodate 888 seats, a significant increase from the
previous 543, with the potential for further expansion to 1,272 seats
if needed.
5.​ The Rajya Sabha chamber with its lotus-themed decor, has been
expanded to accommodate 384 Members of Parliament (MPs), a
notable increase from the previous capacity of 250. Within both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, benches have been designed to seat
two MPs each with their individual touch screens on their desks,
promoting collaboration and interaction among members.
6.​ The recently constructed edifice includes a Constitution Hall, which
serves as a repository documenting the evolution of Indian
democracy.
7.​ The construction of the new building involved sourcing materials
from various regions of India to create a rich tapestry of
architectural elements. Sandstone from Sarmathura in Dholpur and
granite from Lakha village in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, were selected for
both the interior and exterior. The interior decor features wood
sourced from Nagpur, crafted by artisans from Mumbai to bring
intricate wooden designs to life. Furthermore, traditional
hand-knotted carpets woven by Bhadohi weavers in Uttar Pradesh
add cultural authenticity.

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 8.​ The 16-foot bronze statue of Mahatma Gandhi, installed at the main
entrance of the old Parliament since 1993, has been relocated
between the old and new buildings. It now faces the old structure
and is positioned near the entrance used by the Lok Sabha Speaker.
9.​ The new building displays national symbols, including the 9,500 kg,
6.5-meter-tall Lion Capital of Ashoka, visible from a distance. At the
entrance, carved stone features the Ashoka Chakra and the words
‘Satyameva Jayate’, symbolising India’s strength and commitment to
truth.
10.​The golden sceptre, Sengol, presented to Jawaharlal Nehru by Tamil
Nadu priests on the eve of Independence, is stationed in the new
Lok Sabha chamber near the Speaker’s podium, symbolising the
transfer of power from the British.
11.​The new building boasts galleries showcasing India’s cultural
diversity. ‘Shilp’ displays textile installations and pottery from all
states, while ‘Sthapatya’ exhibits yoga asanas and iconic monuments
from across the country.
12.​At every entrance, the building features guardian statues of
auspicious animals from Indian culture and Vaastu Shastra,
including the elephant, horse, eagle, swan, and mythical creatures
makara.
13.​The new Parliament building houses a Foucault pendulum,
showcasing the Earth’s rotation. At Parliament’s latitude, it
completes one rotation every 49 hours, 59 minutes, and 18 seconds.

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7.Where was the foundation stone of India's first biopolymer plant
laid on 22 February 2025?
a) Lakhimpur Kheri, Uttar Pradesh
b) Pune, Maharashtra
c) Surat, Gujarat
d) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh

7.A
The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh laid the foundation stone of the
nation's first biopolymer plant on 22 February 2025 in Kumbhi,
Lakhimpur Kheri district.

About the Plant: The biopolymer plant will be set up by Balrampur Sugar
Mills Limited at a cost of Rs 2,850 crore. It will produce polymers in a
biological way, promoting an environmentally friendly industrial
revolution.

Objective: The main objective is to promote environmental protection by

using biopolymers instead of plastic, aligning with the vision of
self-reliant India and sustainable development.

Benefit: The plant will produce products like bottles, plates, cups, and
bags that will be completely disposable and biodegrade within three
months after use. It will help reduce the environmental impact of plastic,

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promote biopolymer production under the "Make in India" initiative,
and boost trade and investment in Uttar Pradesh.

Make in India Initiative

Launched in 2014, Make in India aims to transform the country into a
leading global manufacturing and investment destination.
It is led by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
This initiative is an open invitation to potential investors and partners
from across the world to participate in the growth story of 'New India'.

Make in India has achieved significant success in 27 sectors, including

strategic areas of manufacturing and services.

Objective:
●​ Attracting foreign investment for new industrialisation and
developing the existing industrial base in India to overtake China.
●​ To increase the growth rate of the manufacturing sector to 12-14%
per annum.
●​ To create 100 million additional manufacturing jobs by 2022
(revised date 2025)
●​ To increase the contribution of the manufacturing sector to Gross
Domestic Product (GDP) to 25% by the year 2025.

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About Biopolymers:
These are materials that have been manufactured from biological
sources such as fats, vegetable oils, sugars, resins, and proteins.
The biopolymers have complex structures than synthetic polymers
therefore they are more active in vivo.
Furthermore, as biopolymers are biodegradable their decomposition is
easily done by bacteria in soil environment, as compared to synthetic
polymers which causes environmental pollution due to incineration.
Characteristics
●​ They can control life processes of living organisms and are
environmentally friendly.
●​ They are decomposed by the processes named –oxidation (mainly
reaction with oxygen), hydrolysis (decomposition by water) or by
some enzymes.
●​ Some of them are compostable and can show some chemical
properties in their surface.
●​ Bio polymers like polylactic acid, polyglycolate , poly 3-hydroxy
butyrate etc. may show plastic properties and instead.
●​ Benefits:
●​ These polymers can reduce carbon dioxide levels in the
atmosphere and also decrease carbon emissions.
●​ This happens because bio-degradation of these chemical
compounds can release carbon dioxide that can be reabsorbed by
crops grown as a substitute in their place.

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8.What is the main goal of the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra?
A) To promote digital literacy across rural India
B) To ensure that government schemes reach all deserving people
C) To provide financial aid to farmers in every state
D) To improve healthcare infrastructure in urban areas
8.B
The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra is a government initiative aimed at
raising awareness about and tracking the implementation of flagship
central schemes across India. These schemes include notable programs
like Ayushman Bharat, Ujjwala Yojana, PM Suraksha Bima, and PM
SVANidhi. The primary goal of the Yatra is to reach out to vulnerable
populations who are eligible for various schemes but have not yet
availed themselves of the benefits. It also aims to disseminate
information about these schemes, generate awareness, and interact with
beneficiaries to share their personal stories and experiences.
Additionally, the Yatra focuses on enrolling potential beneficiaries by
collecting details during the campaign.

The programme is being actively implemented with the involvement of

various Union ministries and state governments. Within just one month,
the Yatra has successfully reached more than 2.50 crore citizens across
68,000 Gram Panchayats (GPs) in India. Nearly 2 crore individuals have
taken the Viksit Bharat Sankalp, and over 2 crore beneficiaries of Central
Government schemes have shared their experiences under the initiative
‘Meri Kahani Meri Zubani.’

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In a key development, Prime Minister Modi recently interacted with the
beneficiaries of the Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra through video
conferencing. In his speech, he emphasized the main goal of the Yatra,
which is to ensure that government schemes reach all deserving
individuals. He highlighted that the drive had already connected with
about 11 crore people within 50 days. The Prime Minister praised the
government's efforts to reach the doorsteps of beneficiaries, particularly
marginalized groups such as the poor, Dalits, deprived individuals, and
tribals. He noted that doctors were reaching these communities, which
was once considered a significant challenge.

The achievements of the drive were also highlighted, including the

receipt of around 12 lakh new applications for Ujjwala connections,
along with numerous applications for Suraksha Bima Yojana, Jeevan
Jyoti Yojana, and PM SVANidhi. Furthermore, health checkups for over
two crore people, including one crore TB checkups and 22 lakh sickle cell
checkups, have been carried out so far.

Additionally, the Prime Minister discussed the government’s impact on

women's empowerment, particularly through schemes like Mudra
Yojana. He noted that in the past decade, 10 crore women had joined
self-help groups (SHGs), and over ₹7.50 lakh crore had been provided to
them. The government plans to increase the number of beneficiaries
further, aiming for two crore women through initiatives like the ‘NaMo
Drone Didi Scheme.’ This program seeks to provide drones to 15,000

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women SHGs between 2024-25 and 2025-26, empowering women SHGs
and introducing new technologies in agriculture by offering drone
services to farmers.

9.Who won the 2024-25 Ranji Trophy final?

a) Kerala defeated Vidarbha​

b) Vidarbha defeated Kerala​
c) Maharashtra defeated Kerala​
d) Kerala defeated Maharashtra

9.B

The 2024–25 Ranji Trophy, India's premier first-class cricket tournament,

concluded with Vidarbha clinching their third title by defeating Kerala in
the final. The tournament, held from October 11, 2024, to February 26,
2025, featured 38 teams divided into four Elite groups and a Plate group.

Champions: Vidarbha secured their third Ranji Trophy title by

overcoming Kerala in the final.
Player of the Series: Harsh Dubey from Vidarbha was named Player of
the Series, taking 69 wickets throughout the tournament.
Most Runs: Yash Rathod, also from Vidarbha, accumulated 960 runs,
making him the tournament's top run-scorer.

Notable Performances: Several prominent Indian players, including Rohit

Sharma, Yashasvi Jaiswal, Shubman Gill, Rishabh Pant, and Virat Kohli,

____________ _____________________
returned to domestic cricket during this season to regain form after
challenging international series.

The Ranji Trophy has a rich history, dating back to 1934 when it was first
contested. It is named after the famous cricketer Ranjitsinhji, who was
an Indian prince and a prominent English cricketer. The tournament has
historically been a platform for players to showcase their talent at the
domestic level, many of whom later make a mark in international
cricket. Over the years, it has seen legendary performances from players
like Sunil Gavaskar, Kapil Dev, Sachin Tendulkar, and more recently,
players like Ravichandran Ashwin and Rohit Sharma. The competition
has grown into one of the most prestigious domestic cricket events in
India.

The inaugural Ranji Trophy match was played in 1934–35, marking the
beginning of India's premier domestic first-class cricket competition.
Bombay defeated Northern India to claim the first title.

Mumbai holds the record for the most Ranji Trophy titles, with 42
championships to their name. Their dominance includes a remarkable
streak of 15 consecutive titles, a feat unmatched in the tournament's
history. The team has also reached the final 48 times, winning 87.5% of
those appearances

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
10.Which organization organized the 40th Chief Information Security
Officers (CISOs) Deep-Dive training program under the Cyber
Surakshit Bharat Initiative?

A) Ministry of Defence​
B) National e-Governance Division (NeGD)

C) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)​

D) National Security Agency (NSA)

10.C

The Cyber Surakshit Bharat Initiative is an initiative launched by the

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government
of India, aimed at fortifying the country's cybersecurity infrastructure in
line with the Government's vision of a Digital India. This initiative is
designed to spread awareness about cybercrime and build the capacities
of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials
across all government departments. The goal is to enhance the
cybersecurity posture of India through education, awareness, and
enablement, ensuring the protection of e-infrastructure across various
government sectors.

The initiative is a collaborative effort between the National

e-Governance Division (NeGD) and several industry partners such as
Intel and Microsoft. It is considered a pioneering public-private
partnership in the cybersecurity space. The program operates on three

____________ _____________________
core principles: education, awareness, and enablement. It includes a
series of awareness programs about the importance of cybersecurity,
along with workshops on best practices and the provision of
cybersecurity health toolkits to manage and mitigate cyber threats.
Additionally, the initiative organizes regular training programs across
the country for officials from central and state governments, public
sector banks (PSBs), union territories (UTs), public sector undertakings
(PSUs), and technical arms of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

One of the key components of this initiative is the Deep-Dive training

programme, which specifically targets CISOs. The training aims to
educate CISOs on understanding cyber attacks and the latest
technologies for safeguarding e-infrastructure. It also provides a
comprehensive view of legal provisions, enabling CISOs to formulate
effective cybersecurity policies and develop robust cyber crisis
management plans. The training sessions aim to ensure that CISOs and
other technical officials are well-equipped to address and respond to
evolving cyber threats efficiently.

India has made significant strides in enhancing its cybersecurity

framework to protect its digital infrastructure, economy, and citizens
from cyber threats. Below are some key cybersecurity initiatives
undertaken by the Government of India:

____________ _____________________
1. National Cyber Security Policy (NCSP) 2013:
Launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MeitY), this policy aims to create a secure cyber ecosystem in the
country.

It focuses on improving the overall cybersecurity posture of the country,

protecting critical information infrastructure, and building capacity in
cybersecurity skills.

One of the primary goals is to ensure a robust and resilient cyberspace

for citizens, businesses, and government entities.

2. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In):

CERT-In is the national agency responsible for responding to computer
security incidents, providing early warnings, and offering technical
support for cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities.

It works in close coordination with other government agencies, critical

sectors, and the private sector to ensure the protection of national
information infrastructure.

3. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre

(NCIIPC):
Established under the provisions of the National Critical Information
Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) Act, 2013, this body ensures the

____________ _____________________
protection of critical national infrastructure, such as banking,
telecommunications, power, and transportation systems, against cyber
threats.

It develops strategies, frameworks, and guidelines to protect systems

from cyber-attacks.

4. Cyber Swachhta Kendra (Botnet Cleaning and Malware Analysis

Centre):
Launched by CERT-In, the Cyber Swachhta Kendra is a unique initiative
aimed at cleaning and securing computers from malware and botnet
infections.

The initiative provides free security software tools for users to clean
their devices and enhance their cybersecurity awareness.

5. Digital India Programme:

Launched by the Government of India, Digital India aims to transform
India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.

Cybersecurity is a crucial pillar of this initiative, with significant

investments in the development of secure digital infrastructure and
strengthening of data protection laws.

____________ _____________________
6. National Cyber Coordination Centre (NCCC):
NCCC is an initiative by the Government of India to create a holistic
cybersecurity framework by monitoring real-time cyber threats and
vulnerabilities across the nation.

It works on intelligence gathering, analysis, and coordinated responses

to cyberattacks targeting critical national infrastructures and
institutions.

7. Cybersecurity Skills Development and Capacity Building:

To address the growing need for cybersecurity professionals, the
government has focused on training and developing skilled
professionals.

Programs like Cyber Surakshit Bharat aim to enhance cybersecurity

awareness and skills, especially among government officials and other
key stakeholders.

8. Data Protection Law (Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019):

The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, was introduced to provide a
comprehensive framework for the protection of personal data and to
regulate how organizations manage and store data.

The bill aims to ensure that data privacy is upheld and that
organizations comply with global standards for cybersecurity.

____________ _____________________
9. PMGDISHA (Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan):
Although not strictly a cybersecurity initiative, PMGDISHA aims to
digitally empower rural citizens by enhancing digital literacy and
promoting safe online practices.

The initiative helps citizens become aware of cybersecurity risks and

practices that protect them online.

10. National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI):

NIXI facilitates the exchange of internet traffic between networks and
ensures the stability, security, and efficient functioning of India's
internet infrastructure.

It has also played an active role in enhancing India’s cybersecurity by

providing safe and resilient internet infrastructure.

11. Cybersecurity Awareness Campaigns:

The government has run various awareness campaigns to educate
citizens about the importance of cybersecurity and safe online practices.

Initiatives like Stay Safe Online provide valuable information on

securing online accounts, protecting against identity theft, and dealing
with cybercrimes.

____________ _____________________
12. Cybercrime Prevention against Women and Children (CCPWC):
Launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs, this initiative aims to address
cybercrimes, including cyberbullying, child pornography, and other
forms of cyber harassment against women and children.

The initiative provides training, awareness, and dedicated resources to

prevent such crimes.

13. Cybersecurity in Smart Cities Mission:

With the rise of smart cities, the government has integrated
cybersecurity into the development of urban infrastructure. The Smart
Cities Mission ensures that digital and IoT infrastructure deployed in
cities is protected from cyber threats.

Smart cities are adopting cybersecurity measures such as data

encryption, secure communication channels, and real-time monitoring
systems to safeguard public services.

14. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI):

The government has been working to enhance digital security and trust
through Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to facilitate secure electronic
transactions and digital signatures.

PKI ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data and

communications across government portals and private platforms.

____________ _____________________
11.Who was honored with the Kadammanitta Ramakrishnan Award in
2025?​
A) Prabha Varma
B) Rafeeq Ahamed
C) Dr. M. Leelavathy
D) Sugathakumari

11.C
​The Kadammanitta Ramakrishnan Award is a distinguished Malayalam
literary honor established in 2015 by the Kadammanitta Ramakrishnan
Foundation to celebrate the legacy of the esteemed poet Kadammanitta
Ramakrishnan. This award acknowledges significant contributions to
Malayalam poetry and carries a cash prize of ₹55,555, a plaque crafted
by Bhattathiri, and a citation.

List of Kadammanitta Ramakrishnan Award Recipients:

2015: O. N. V. Kurup​
2016: Ashok Vajpeyi​
2017: V. Madhusoodanan Nair​
2018: Chandrashekhara Kambara​
2019: Sugathakumari​
2020: K. G. Sankara Pillai​
2023: Prabha Varma​
2025: Dr. M. Leelavathy​

____________ _____________________
These laureates have been honored for their exceptional contributions to
Malayalam literature, enriching the cultural tapestry of the region.​

Dr. M. Leelavathy, a distinguished Malayalam literary critic and scholar,

has authored several notable works that have significantly contributed
to the field of literary criticism. Some of her prominent works include:​

Varnaraji: A collection of 14 critical studies analyzing the works of

renowned Malayalam writers such as G. Sankara Kurup, Balamani
Amma, P. Kunjiraman Nair, Changampuzha Krishna Pillai, Vyloppilli
Sreedhara Menon, Edasseri Govindan Nair, N. V. Krishna Warrier,
Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri, Vayalar Ramavarma, P. Bhaskaran, O.
N. V. Kurup, Sugathakumari, and Vishnu Narayanan Namboothiri. ​

Kavitadhwani: A critical study that earned her the Sahitya Akademi

Award in 1986. ​

Appuvinte Anweshanam: A work that won her the Vayalar Award in

2007. ​
Dhwaniprayaanam: Her autobiography, which provides insights into her
personal and professional journey.

____________ _____________________
12.Which of the following is true about the Tropospheric Emissions
Monitoring of Pollution (TEMPO)?

1.​ TEMPO operates in low Earth orbit and provides air quality
monitoring data over a global scale.
2.​ TEMPO is in geostationary orbit, monitoring major pollutants
across North America with a resolution of several square miles.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12.B
TEMPO is in geostationary orbit, monitoring major pollutants across
North America with a resolution of several square miles.

Tropospheric Emissions Monitoring of Pollution

The Tropospheric Emissions Monitoring of Pollution (TEMPO) is a
cutting-edge satellite initiative aimed at monitoring major air pollutants
across North America. This mission will make crucial scientific
observations, particularly of pollutants such as ozone, nitrogen oxide,
sulfur dioxide, and formaldehyde. TEMPO is designed to provide hourly
air quality measurements during the daytime with a resolution of
several square miles, enabling detailed monitoring of pollution sources
ranging from rush-hour traffic to forest fires and volcanic emissions.

____________ _____________________
Unlike the current pollution-monitoring satellites operating in low Earth
orbit (LEO), TEMPO will be positioned in geostationary orbit, offering a
unique advantage in terms of continuous and real-time data collection.
With this new technology, NASA joins forces with South Korea’s
Geostationary Environment Monitoring Spectrometer and the European
Space Agency’s Sentinel-4 satellite to form a global air quality monitoring
satellite constellation.

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending

from the Earth's surface to about 8-15 km (5-9 miles) in altitude,
depending on geographic location. It is the layer in which all weather
events, including clouds, storms, and precipitation, occur. This layer
plays a critical role in climate, weather patterns, and the overall
functionality of Earth's atmosphere.

Characteristics of the Troposphere

Altitude and Thickness:
The troposphere varies in thickness depending on location. Over the
poles, it is about 8 km thick, while at the equator, it is around 18 km
thick.
It extends from the Earth's surface to about 10 km (33,000 feet) at the
poles and 18 km (59,000 feet) at the equator.

____________ _____________________
Temperature:
Temperature decreases with altitude in the troposphere. On average, the
temperature at the Earth's surface is about 15°C (59°F), and it decreases
by approximately 6.5°C for every kilometer of altitude (known as the
environmental lapse rate).

The upper boundary of the troposphere, called the tropopause, marks a

point where the temperature begins to stabilize or even increase slightly
in higher layers.

Composition:
The troposphere is composed primarily of nitrogen (78%), oxygen (21%),
and small amounts of other gases, including carbon dioxide, water
vapor, and ozone. Water vapor, which is vital for weather processes,
makes up about 0-4% of the troposphere's volume and is highly variable.

Water Vapor:
The troposphere contains the highest concentration of water vapor
compared to the other atmospheric layers. Water vapor is a key
component for weather processes like cloud formation and precipitation.

The concentration of water vapor decreases with altitude, and it is a

crucial factor in the Earth's weather systems.

____________ _____________________
Pressure:
Atmospheric pressure is highest at the surface and decreases with
altitude. In the troposphere, about 75% of the atmosphere’s mass is
contained, and the pressure decreases from approximately 1013
millibars at sea level to a much lower pressure at the tropopause.

Clouds and Weather Phenomena:

Cloud formation occurs in the troposphere, where moist air rises, cools,
and condenses into clouds. These clouds play a vital role in weather
systems by influencing local and global climates.

The troposphere is also the site of many weather phenomena, including

thunderstorms, tornadoes, hurricanes, and rainfall.

Tropopause:
The tropopause is the boundary that separates the troposphere from the
stratosphere. It is marked by a sudden change in temperature behavior.
As you go higher in the troposphere, the temperature drops, but at the
tropopause, the temperature becomes stable or even increases with
altitude in the stratosphere.
Scientific Phenomena Associated with the Troposphere
Weather and Climate:
The troposphere is the layer where all weather systems take place. The
presence of water vapor, air masses, pressure systems, and temperature
gradients contribute to the formation of various weather conditions. The

____________ _____________________
movement of these weather systems, driven by the Earth's rotation and
the uneven heating of the surface, leads to weather phenomena like:

Cyclones (Tropical Storms): Form in warm, moist environments

(especially in the tropics) and can grow into powerful tropical storms or
hurricanes.

Thunderstorms: Develop due to the strong upward motion of warm,

moist air, leading to rapid condensation and intense energy release.

Precipitation: Occurs when moist air cools, causing water vapor to

condense into liquid or solid forms (rain, snow, hail).

Air Masses:
Air masses are large bodies of air with uniform temperature, humidity,
and pressure. They form in the troposphere and influence regional
weather patterns. The interactions between air masses—such as cold
fronts, warm fronts, and occluded fronts—are responsible for weather
phenomena like storms and precipitation.

Convection and the Formation of Winds:

Convection in the troposphere involves the upward movement of warm
air and the downward movement of cooler air, contributing to the
formation of winds. Winds are also influenced by the Coriolis effect,
which is caused by the Earth’s rotation.

____________ _____________________
Trade winds, westerlies, and polar easterlies are types of winds found in
different regions of the troposphere. These winds play a key role in
distributing heat and moisture around the Earth.

Jet Streams:
The jet streams are fast-moving air currents found near the tropopause
in the upper troposphere. These high-speed winds flow from west to east
and can reach speeds of up to 200 mph. Jet streams influence weather
systems, particularly by affecting the movement of storm systems and
the development of low- and high-pressure areas.

Ozone Layer and Pollution:

The ozone layer primarily resides in the stratosphere, but there are low
concentrations of ozone in the troposphere as well. Tropospheric ozone
forms as a result of photochemical reactions involving pollutants like
nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds.

While ozone in the stratosphere protects life on Earth by absorbing UV

radiation, ozone in the troposphere contributes to air pollution, leading
to smog formation and poor air quality.

Tropospheric Disturbances:
Various disturbances such as monsoons, tornadoes, hurricanes, and
cyclones occur in the troposphere. For instance, the Indian monsoon is

____________ _____________________
primarily driven by seasonal wind patterns in the lower layers of the
troposphere, bringing heavy rainfall to the subcontinent.

Turbulence:
Turbulence is common in the troposphere, particularly at altitudes
where there is a rapid change in wind speed or direction. This
turbulence is often experienced during air travel, and it occurs due to
the mixing of air masses with different temperatures and moisture
contents.

Tropopause Inversions:
In some regions, temperature inversions occur near the tropopause,
where the air temperature actually increases with height rather than
decreasing. This can prevent vertical air movement, leading to the
trapping of pollutants near the Earth's surface and contributing to poor
air quality.

Key Scientific Concepts Related to the Troposphere

Adiabatic Cooling and Heating:
As air rises, it expands and cools (adiabatic cooling), and as it descends,
it compresses and warms (adiabatic heating). This principle is crucial for
understanding weather systems, particularly the formation of clouds and
precipitation.

____________ _____________________
Latent Heat:
Latent heat is the heat released or absorbed by water vapor during
phase changes (e.g., condensation and evaporation). This energy
exchange drives many weather phenomena, particularly in
thunderstorms and hurricanes.

Diurnal Temperature Variations:

The troposphere experiences daily temperature fluctuations due to the
heat received from the Sun. This affects local weather patterns,
especially in areas with significant land-ocean contrasts, where coastal
regions can have milder temperatures compared to inland areas.

13.Kerala’s first ‘WE Park’ was inaugurated in which district?

A) Thiruvananthapuram
B) Kozhikode
C) Kollam
D) Ernakulam
13.C
Kerala's first 'WE Park' was inaugurated in Kollam on March 1,
2025, by Tourism Minister Shri P. A. Mohamed Riyas. Situated
beneath the railway bridge near SN College, this innovative project
is part of the state's new design policy aimed at transforming
underutilized urban spaces into vibrant community hubs.
Developed at a cost of ₹2 crore over 70 cents of land, the park

____________ _____________________
features amenities such as shuttle and volleyball courts, a skating
area, chess block, open gym, garden, seating arrangements, parking
facilities, essential services, and kiosks. The initiative reflects the
government's commitment to enhancing urban aesthetics and
promoting active community participation .​
The success of the Kollam 'WE Park' has inspired similar projects
across Kerala, including in Farookh, Kozhikode. These parks aim to
convert neglected spaces under bridges into engaging public areas
equipped with recreational facilities. Plans are underway to
develop more such parks statewide, with the Public Works
Department collaborating with various stakeholders to bring this
vision to fruition.

____________ _____________________
14.Which animated film won the Best Animated Feature award at the
97th Oscar Awards 2025?
A) Elemental
B) Spider-Man: Across the Spider-Verse
C) Nimona
D) Flow

14.D
The 97th Academy Awards ceremony took place on March 2, 2025, at the
Dolby Theatre in Hollywood, Los Angeles. Hosted by comedian Conan
O'Brien, the event was broadcast on ABC and streamed live on Hulu,
marking the first time the Oscars were available on that platform. The
ceremony honored films released in 2024 across 23 categories. ​

Major Winners at the 97th Oscars

Best Picture: Anora​
Best Director: Sean Baker (Anora)​
Best Actress: Mikey Madison (Anora)​
Best Actor: Adrien Brody (The Brutalist)​
Best Supporting Actress: Zoe Saldaña (Emilia Pérez)​
Best Supporting Actor: Kieran Culkin (A Real Pain)​
Best Original Screenplay: Sean Baker (Anora)​
Best Adapted Screenplay: Conclave​

____________ _____________________
Best Animated Feature: Flow​
Best International Feature Film: I'm Still Here​
Best Documentary Feature: No Other Land​
Best Sound: Dune: Part Two​
Best Visual Effects: Dune: Part Two​
Best Costume Design: Wicked​
Best Production Design: Wicked​

Anora emerged as the biggest winner of the night, securing five Oscars,
including Best Picture, Best Director, and Best Actress. Sean Baker made
history by winning four Oscars for the same film. ​The Brutalist also had
a notable night, with Adrien Brody winning Best Actor. The film also
received awards for Best Original Score and Best Cinematography. ​Other
significant wins included Emilia Pérez for Best Supporting Actress (Zoe
Saldaña) and A Real Pain for Best Supporting Actor (Kieran Culkin). ​
Oscars. The ceremony was well-received, drawing 19.69 million viewers
in the United States, marking the highest viewership in five years.

____________ _____________________
15.Consider the following statements regarding the Captive Elephant
(Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024:
1.​ The rules ease conditions for transferring captive elephants but
allow it only for specific purposes like education and scientific
research, under wildlife protection regulations.
2.​ These rules completely remove any legal oversight on the
movement of captive elephants in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

15.A
Statement 2 is incorrect — the rules do not remove legal oversight;
regulation continues under specific guideline.

About Project Elephant

Project Elephant was launched by the Government of India’s Ministry of
Environment and Forests in February 1992. This centrally sponsored
scheme aims to support states in managing and conserving their wild
Asian elephant populations by providing financial and technical
assistance. The project focuses on long-term conservation efforts,
ensuring the well-being of both wild and captive elephants, and
protecting their habitats across India.

____________ _____________________
Recent Updates
In recent developments, the Indian government notified the Captive
Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024, which eased the conditions
for transferring elephants held in captivity. The rules maintain strict
regulations, keeping in mind the elephant's cultural and historical
significance in India. Translocation of captive elephants is now permitted
under controlled conditions for specific purposes such as education and
scientific research, while still adhering to wildlife protection regulations.

Asian Elephants in India

India is home to the largest and most stable population of Asian
elephants, hosting more than 60% of the global wild Asian elephant
population. According to the 2017 Elephant Census, India recorded
29,964 wild elephants, with Karnataka leading the count at 6,049
elephants, followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054). India also
manages 31 dedicated elephant reserves spread across 14 states,
covering approximately 76,508 square kilometres. Recent additions to
the list include the Dandeli Elephant Reserve in Karnataka, the Singphan
Reserve in Nagaland, and the Lemru Reserve in Chhattisgarh.

Species and Behaviour

Asian elephants are divided into three subspecies: the Indian, Sumatran,
and Sri Lankan elephants. As the largest terrestrial mammals in Asia,
they inhabit forests and grasslands in 13 countries across South and

____________ _____________________
Southeast Asia. Asian elephant herds are led by the matriarch — the
oldest and largest female — and typically consist of smaller groups
compared to their African savannah counterparts. These intelligent
creatures are known for their long gestation period of around 22 months
(680 days) and typically give birth to calves every four to six years
depending on their age. Elephants have played a major cultural role in
Asia, being deeply woven into religious practices, festivals, and folklore.

Protection Status
Asian elephants are listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List, protected
under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and
included in Appendix I of CITES, granting them the highest level of
global protection from hunting and trade.

Objectives of Project Elephant

Project Elephant is designed to ensure the conservation of elephants and
their habitats through a series of targeted objectives. These include
scientific conservation planning, combating illegal ivory trade and
poaching, reducing unnatural elephant deaths, restoring habitats and
wildlife corridors, mitigating human-elephant conflict, limiting human
encroachment into elephant habitats, promoting research and public
awareness, ensuring the health of captive elephants, and fostering
eco-friendly development for communities living near elephant
territories.

____________ _____________________
Threats to Elephants
Despite conservation efforts, elephants face several significant threats.
Habitat loss and fragmentation due to expanding human settlements and
infrastructure have severely disrupted elephant migratory paths.
Human-elephant conflict is rising, especially in agricultural areas where
elephants raid crops, sometimes leading to fatal encounters for both
sides. Poaching, though reduced, remains a persistent threat, especially
for tusked males targeted for ivory. Additionally, elephants are
vulnerable to accidents such as train collisions, electrocution, and
injuries from man-made traps and trenches.

Conservation Measures
To address these threats, the Indian government has launched multiple
initiatives alongside Project Elephant. These include restoring habitats,
creating elephant corridors, setting up anti-poaching squads, promoting
human-elephant conflict mitigation strategies, and ensuring strong legal
protections through the Wildlife (Protection) Act. Compensation for
affected communities and disease monitoring for both wild and captive
elephants are also prioritized to foster peaceful coexistence.

Current Significance of Project Elephant

Project Elephant remains a cornerstone of India’s conservation strategy.
With continued government backing, updates like the Captive Elephant
Rules, 2024, and expanded elephant reserves, India is striving to balance
development and biodiversity. The project not only helps protect

____________ _____________________
elephants but also plays a crucial role in preserving India's rich
ecological heritage. Conservation efforts are now more focused on
combining scientific research, community support, and policy regulation
to ensure the long-term survival of these iconic animals.

16.Vantara, a wildlife conservation, rescue, and rehabilitation

initiative, recently inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, is
located in which state of India?

A) Maharashtra​
B) Gujarat​
C) Rajasthan​
D) Madhya Pradesh

16.B

The Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi, inaugurated Vantara, a

unique wildlife conservation, rescue, and rehabilitation initiative, in
Jamnagar, Gujarat, on March 4, 2025. Vantara aims to provide a safe and
secure haven for rescued animals while also promoting ecological
sustainability and wildlife welfare. The Prime Minister praised Anant
Ambani and his team for their compassionate efforts in setting up this
initiative, which he described as an inspiring example of India’s age-old
ethos of protecting and caring for all living beings. During his visit, the
Prime Minister shared heartfelt observations about several rescued
animals.

____________ _____________________
He mentioned an elephant that had survived an acid attack and was
receiving careful medical attention, as well as other elephants that had
been blinded — tragically, in some cases, by their own caretakers. He
also highlighted the story of an elephant injured in a road accident, a
lioness suffering from severe spinal injuries after being hit by a vehicle,
and a leopard cub abandoned by its family but now nurtured with
proper care at Vantara.
The Prime Minister expressed deep concern over human cruelty and
called for greater kindness and responsibility towards animals, while
applauding the dedicated work being done at Vantara to give injured and
abandoned animals a second chance at life.

17.Which of the following provisions are true regarding Article 371F?​

1.It applies to Sikkim and mandates that the State Legislative
Assembly must consist of at least 40 members.​
2.The Governor of Sikkim has special responsibility for maintaining
peace and promoting equitable social and economic advancement in
the state.

A.​1 only
B.​ 2 only
C.​ Both 1 and 2
D.​Neither 1 nor 2

17.B

____________ _____________________
Article 371F applies to Sikkim and specifies that the State Legislative
Assembly must consist of at least 30 members (not 40). Additionally, it
assigns special responsibility to the Governor of Sikkim for maintaining
peace and ensuring equitable arrangements for the social and economic
advancement of different sections of the state.

About Article 371

Article 371, located under Part XXI of the Indian Constitution, grants
special provisions that are temporary, transitional, and specific to
certain states of India. While Article 371 has been part of the
Constitution since its enforcement on 26 January 1950, subsequent
articles from 371A to 371J were introduced through constitutional
amendments under Article 368 to address the unique socio-political and
cultural needs of various regions.

Article 371

This article is dedicated to the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat. It

assigns the Governor of Maharashtra a special responsibility to establish
separate development boards for the regions of Vidarbha, Marathwada,
and the rest of Maharashtra. Similarly, the Governor of Gujarat holds
responsibility for the development of Saurashtra, Kutch, and other parts
of the state.

____________ _____________________
Article 371A

This provision is specific to Nagaland. It states that no Act of Parliament

relating to the religious or social practices of the Nagas, their customary
law and procedures (including matters of civil and criminal justice), or
ownership and transfer of land and resources will apply to Nagaland
unless the state's Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
The Governor is also entrusted with special responsibility for
maintaining law and order in the state.

Article 371B

This article pertains to Assam and was introduced in 1969. It empowers

the President to make provisions for the formation and functioning of a
committee within the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members
elected from the state’s tribal areas.

Article 371C

This article was inserted in 1972 for Manipur. It provides for the
constitution of a committee comprising legislators from the Hill Areas of
Manipur and assigns the Governor special responsibility for reporting
annually to the President regarding the administration of these Hill
Areas.

Articles 371D and 371E

These articles provide special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and

Telangana. The President can issue orders to ensure equitable

____________ _____________________
opportunities and access to public employment and education for people
from different parts of Andhra Pradesh. Article 371E also allows
Parliament to establish a Central University in Andhra Pradesh.

Article 371F

Applicable to Sikkim, this article stipulates that the State Legislative

Assembly must consist of at least 30 members. It grants the Governor
special responsibility for maintaining peace and promoting equitable
arrangements for the social and economic advancement of different
communities in the state.

Article 371G

This article applies to Mizoram and protects the religious and social
practices, customary laws, and legal procedures of the Mizo people. It
also governs the administration of civil and criminal justice, as well as
the ownership and transfer of land within the state.

Article 371H

This article confers special responsibility upon the Governor of

Arunachal Pradesh, especially concerning the state’s law and order
situation.

Article 371I

Relating to Goa, this article mandates that the Legislative Assembly of

Goa must consist of at least 30 members.

____________ _____________________
Article 371J

This article grants special status to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region,

now referred to as Kalyana Karnataka. It provides for the establishment
of a separate development board aimed at ensuring equitable
development in the region and promoting opportunities in education
and employment.

18.Which of the following statements is true regarding global biofuel

production?
1.​ India is the world's second-largest biofuel producer, following
Brazil.
2.​ The United States is the world's largest biofuel producer, with
Brazil in second place.
A.​1 only
B.​ 2 only
C.​ Both 1 and 2
D.​Neither 1 nor 2

18.B

​India has emerged as the world's third-largest biofuel producer,

following the United States and Brazil. The United States leads globally
with a reported output of 16.27 billion liters of biodiesel and renewable
diesel in 2023 . Brazil ranks second, driven by its extensive
sugarcane-based ethanol production, with companies like Raízen leading
the sector.

____________ _____________________
India has emerged as the world’s third largest biofuel producer

Biofuels represent renewable energy fuels which are derived from

organic sources such as biomass and organic waste.

These can be broadly categorized in three types: Liquid Biofuels

(ethanol, biodiesels, bio-methanol etc.), Biogas (Bio-LNG, Bio-CNG) and
Solid Biomass.

India has achieved 19.6% ethanol blending in petrol as of January 2025

and is on track to reach 20%, five years ahead of its original 2030 target.
An infographic showing different generations of biofuels.

____________ _____________________
Significance of Biofuels
Fulfilment of Energy Demand: India accounts for more than a quarter of
net global primary energy demand growth between 2017-2040.

Environment Impact: Biofuel Promotion helped in reducing CO2

emissions by 519 lakh metric tons, and substituting 173 lakh metric tons
of crude oil.

Energy Security: Ethanol blending programme has reduced import

dependency and saved Rs. 85,000 crore in foreign exchange.

Circular Economy: Enables circularity by employing waste for wealth

creation and delivering wider socioeconomic benefits.

Rural Development: Provides additional financial incentives to farmers

through development of market for agricultural residues/wastes.

Challenges in biofuel production

●​ Feedstock challenge: Lack of quality feedstock, competing demand
for feedstock affecting food security and fragmented and complex
waste supply chain.
●​ Technological: Negligible commercial viability of advanced biofuel
production.
●​ Funding: High capital expenditure requirement and uncertainty of
profit margins.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
19.Who signed the Washington Declaration?
A) United States and North Korea
B) United States and Japan
C) China and South Korea
D) United States and South Korea

19.D
Washington Declaration:
The Washington Declaration was signed between the United States and
South Korea to mark the 70th anniversary of their bilateral relations.
The declaration aims to enhance cooperation in nuclear deterrence,
specifically designed to protect the Korean Peninsula from potential
nuclear attacks. Under the agreement, a U.S. nuclear-armed ballistic
missile submarine (SSBN) will be deployed in the region. A Joint Nuclear
Consultative Group will be established to formulate joint response
tactics. South Korea will also receive intelligence from the U.S. about
nuclear advancements, and the U.S. will bolster South Korea’s nuclear
deterrence capabilities through joint military training programs and an
annual intergovernmental simulation. The declaration reaffirms the
non-proliferation treaty, which commits South Korea to not pursue its
own independent nuclear weapons program. Additionally, it states that
only the U.S. President holds the authority to use the U.S. nuclear arsenal
in the event of a nuclear confrontation.

____________ _____________________
20.Operation AAG, launched by the Kerala Police in May 2024, aims to
combat which of the following?

1.​ Targeting habitual offenders and dismantling criminal

networks.
2.​ Kerala Police will work in collaboration with Kerala Fire and
Safety department in making urban spaces free from fire
hazards.

A) Only statement 1 is correct​

B) Only statement 2 is correct​
C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct​
D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct

20.A
​Operation AAG (Action Against Goons) is a significant law enforcement
initiative launched by the Kerala Police to combat gang-related violence
and organized crime across the state. The operation commenced in May
2024, following a surge in goonda activities and drug-related offenses in
urban areas like Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi, and Kozhikode. The
primary objectives of Operation AAG include:​
●​ Targeting habitual offenders: Arresting individuals involved in
repeated criminal activities.
●​ Dismantling criminal networks: Identifying and disrupting the
support systems of gang members, including funding sources and
supply chains.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Preventing drug-related crimes: Addressing the nexus between
drug trafficking and organized crime.

●​ Utilizing legal frameworks: Implementing the Kerala Anti-Social

Activities (Prevention) Act (KAAPA) to detain habitual offenders
and prevent future crimes.​
As of May 2024, the operation has led to the arrest of over 5,000
individuals statewide. Authorities have been collecting biometric data
and other information to create a comprehensive database of habitual
offenders. The operation is being conducted under the supervision of
district police chiefs and is set to continue until May 25, 2024. ​
In addition to Operation AAG, a parallel initiative called Operation
D-Hunt focuses on curbing drug-related offenses. This dual approach
aims to address both the supply and demand aspects of organized crime
and drug trafficking in Kerala. ​

The Kerala Police have also intensified efforts in specific regions, such as
Kochi and Ernakulam, through targeted operations like Operation Clean.
These operations aim to neutralize major threats and prevent the
resurgence of criminal activities by focusing on arresting wanted
criminals and history-sheeters. ​

The success of Operation AAG is indicative of Kerala's commitment to

enhancing public safety and maintaining law and order through
proactive and comprehensive policing strategies.

____________ _____________________
21.What is the primary goal of the National Referral Centre for
Wildlife (NRC-W) established in Gujarat?’
1.​ To promote tourism in Gujarat's wildlife parks.
2.​ To track and manage wildlife diseases, particularly those
transmissible to humans.

A) Only statement 2 is correct

B) Only statement 1 is correct

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

D) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct

21.A

The Government has approved a project worth ₹2,927.71 crore, which

includes establishing a National Referral Centre for Wildlife (NRC-W) in
Gujarat's Junagadh district. The NRC-W aims to track wildlife diseases,
with particular focus on those transmissible to humans, such as the
Babesiosis outbreak in 2020 that claimed the lives of 23 lions in Gujarat's
Gir National Park. The initiative will be guided by four main principles:
surveillance, response, prevention, and preparedness. The Central Zoo
Authority will act as the nodal agency for the project.

In addition to the NRC-W, significant conservation efforts for the Asiatic

lion are underway through projects such as Project Lion, launched in

____________ _____________________
2020. This project focuses on improving lion habitats, along with
advanced monitoring techniques, including the use of radio-collars and
cameras. Lions are listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and are
protected under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. Other initiatives
such as the International Big Cats Alliance (2023) and the Greater Gir
Concept, which aims to create new lion habitats beyond Gir National
Park, have also been introduced. The Barda Wildlife Sanctuary has
emerged as a new habitat for the lions, serving as a second home to the
species.

The initiative to protect big cats, particularly lions, began in 2013,

coinciding with the first World Lion Day. Over the last century, the lion
population has experienced a dramatic decline of 80%, which has
emphasized the importance of such initiatives. Lions play a vital role in
the animal kingdom as apex predators, helping maintain ecological
balance by regulating the populations of grazers and targeting the
weakest members of prey herds. This contributes to the overall health of
prey populations and disease control. Despite their crucial ecological
role, lions face threats like poaching, genetic inbreeding, diseases such as
plague and canine distemper, and natural disasters.

India is home to the endangered Asiatic lion, primarily inhabiting the

protected territory of Sasan-Gir National Park in Gujarat. In 2020, there
were 674 Asiatic lions in India, a significant increase from 523 in 2015.
Conservation efforts have been amplified with initiatives like Project
Lion, which was launched in August 2020 to secure new habitats for the

____________ _____________________
species. The project also continues the work of the Asiatic Lion
Conservation Project, which focuses on scientific management, disease
control, and veterinary care. Additionally, the lion census is conducted
every five years to monitor population trends and conservation progress.

22.What is the primary aim of the Ennidam initiative launched by

Kudumbashree in Kerala?

A) To enhance the financial stability of women in Kerala.

B) To develop new educational institutions for women in Kerala.

C) To promote socio-cultural and recreational activities among

Kudumbashree members.

D) To provide health services in rural areas of Kerala.

22.C
Ennidam is an initiative launched by Kudumbashree, Kerala's poverty
eradication and women's empowerment programme, to promote
socio-cultural and recreational activities among its members. The project
was inaugurated on May 17, 2024, coinciding with Kudumbashree's 26th
anniversary, with the state-level launch at Karikottukuzhy ADS in
Aryancode panchayat, Thiruvananthapuram district. ​
Key Features of Ennidam:
Cultural Centres: Ennidam establishes cultural centres within each Area
Development Society (ADS) in Kerala, serving as venues for creative and
recreational activities for Kudumbashree members. ​

____________ _____________________
Holistic Welfare: The initiative aims to enhance overall happiness by
addressing challenges across various domains, including equality,
financial stability, mental health, nutrition, hygiene, democratic values,
arts, sports, and literature. ​

Community Engagement: Ennidam strengthens the ward-level ADS

mechanism and provides a platform for members to engage in
socio-cultural and artistic activities, fostering community bonding and
personal development

23.What is the main purpose of the Vidhya Vahan mobile application

introduced by Kerala's Motor Vehicle Department?
A) To track the real-time location of school buses for safety
B) To monitor the performance of school bus drivers
C) To manage traffic signals and control congestion in schools
D) To provide real-time updates on bus arrivals at designated stops

23.A

The Kerala Motor Vehicle Department (MVD) has introduced the Vidhya
Vahan mobile application to enhance the safety and convenience of
school transportation. This innovative app enables parents to track their
children's school buses in real-time, offering them peace of mind
regarding their children's whereabouts during commutes. The app
features real-time tracking of the school bus's location and speed,

____________ _____________________
emergency alerts in case of deviations or emergencies, and direct
communication with the bus driver or helper. It is a free service, but
parents must register their mobile numbers with the respective school
authorities to gain access. To use the app, parents can register their
mobile number with the school, download the Vidhya Vahan app from
the Google Play Store, and log in using their registered number to start
tracking.

24.Match the following Vanitha Ratna Award 2024 winners with their
area of contribution.

Person Area of Contribution

A. T Devi 1. Masters' Athletics

Competitions

B. K Vasanthi 2. Cleared Civil Service

Examination after an accident

C. Sherin Shahana 3. Advocating for unwed

mothers' rights in Wayanad

D. A N Vinaya 4. Gender Equality Advocacy in

Kerala Police

____________ _____________________
 A.​A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
B.​ A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
C.​ A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
D.​A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

24.D
The Vanitha Ratna Award is an annual honor bestowed by the Kerala
Government's Department of Women and Child Development to
recognize women's exceptional contributions across various fields,
including social service, education, literature, science, arts, culture,
health, media, sports, and empowerment. Established in December 2013,
the award includes a cash prize of ₹3 lakh. ​

In 2024, six distinguished women were honored with the Vanitha Ratna
Award:​
●​ T Devi: A former member of the Kerala Women's Commission, T
Devi has been instrumental in advocating for the rights of unwed
mothers, particularly from the Adivasi communities in Wayanad. ​
●​ K Vasanthi: Residing in Cherthala, K Vasanthi has earned accolades
in national and international masters' athletics competitions. ​
●​ Sherin Shahana: After a life-altering accident at 22, Sherin defied
odds by clearing the Civil Service Examination. She hails from
Wayanad. ​

____________ _____________________
 ●​ A N Vinaya: Throughout her 33-year tenure with the Kerala Police,
A N Vinaya championed gender equality, advocating for uniform
policies and equal training opportunities. She continues her
advocacy in Wayanad. ​

●​ Dr. Nandini K Kumar: The former Deputy Director General of the

Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR), Dr. Kumar has also
served on international ethical committees. ​

●​ P K Medini: A freedom fighter and social activist from Alappuzha, P

K Medini is renowned for her revolutionary songs and
contributions to social causes. ​

The awards were presented by Health and Woman and Child

Development Minister Veena George during the Women's Day
celebrations at Nishagandhi Auditorium in Thiruvananthapuram.

25.What is TRINETRA?

A) A new digital payment platform in Kerala​

B) An advanced cybersecurity operations center for Kerala Police​
C) A mobile app for Kerala’s public transport system​
D) A weather monitoring system in Kerala

25.B

____________ _____________________
​The Advanced Cybersecurity Operations Centre (SOC), named TRINETRA,
was inaugurated on March 6, 2025, by Kerala's Chief Minister, Shri
Pinarayi Vijayan. Developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics
(C-DOT), an R&D center under the Department of Telecommunications,
Ministry of Communications, Government of India, TRINETRA is an
AI-powered, integrated cybersecurity platform. ​

Key Features of TRINETRA:

Comprehensive Monitoring: Provides continuous surveillance of
endpoints, network traffic, and user behavior to proactively identify
vulnerabilities and detect anomalies. ​

24x7 Operations: Ensures round-the-clock cybersecurity monitoring,

focusing on protecting police headquarters, city commissionerates, and
affiliated police stations. ​

Data Protection: Plays a crucial role in safeguarding digital

infrastructure, enhancing cybersecurity resilience, and mitigating
potential cyber threats. ​

This initiative marks a significant advancement in fortifying Kerala

Police's cybersecurity infrastructure, ensuring robust defense
mechanisms for critical systems and data

____________ _____________________
26.The Balfour Declaration of 1917 is significant in the Israel-Palestine
conflict because:

A) It promised military aid to Palestine against the Ottoman Empire.

B) It was a statement by Britain supporting the establishment of a
Jewish "national home" in Palestine.
C) It divided Palestine between Jews and Arabs through a UN
resolution.
D) It declared Palestine as a British colony permanently.

26.B
Recently, the Hamas, the militant group ruling the Gaza Strip, have
mounted a scathing attack on Israel from the land, air and water leading
to multiple casualties. This has revived the century-old dispute between
Israel-Palestine Conflict once again, necessitating the intervention by
global and regional powers.

Israel, in the recent times, has cemented many peace agreements with
neighboring countries such as UAE, Saudi Arabia etc which is set to feel a
jolt due to the recent attack.

____________ _____________________
What is the Israel-Palestine Conflict?
Balfour Declaration:
The seeds of the conflict were laid in 1917 when the then British Foreign
Secretary Arthur James Balfour expressed official support of Britain for
a Jewish "national home" in Palestine under the Balfour Declaration.
Creation Of Palestine:
Unable to contain Arab and Jewish violence, Britain withdrew its forces
from Palestine in 1948, leaving responsibility for resolving the competing
claims to the newly created United Nations.

The UN presented a partition plan to create independent Jewish and

Arab states in Palestine which was not accepted by most of Arab nations.

Arab Israel War (1948):

In 1948, the Jewish declaration of Israel's independence prompted
surrounding Arab states to attack. At the end of the war, Israel
controlled about 50 % more territory than originally envisioned by the
UN partition plan.

UN Partition Plan:
As per the Plan, Jordan controlled the West Bank and Jerusalem's holy
sites, and Egypt controlled the Gaza Strip. But it fell short of solving the
palestinian crisis which led to the formation of Palestinian Liberation
Organisation in 1964.

____________ _____________________
Palestinian Liberation Organisation (PLO):
PLO was founded, with the aim of freeing Palestine from clutches of
Israel and Jewish domination and setting up the dominance of Muslim
Brotherhood in the Arab world.
The United Nations granted the PLO observer status in 1975 and
recognizes Palestinians' right to self-determination.
Six-Day War: In 1967 war, Israeli forces seized the Golan Heights from
Syria, the West Bank & East Jerusalem from Jordan and Sinai Peninsula
& Gaza strip from Egypt.
Camp David Accords (1978):
"Framework for Peace in the Middle East" brokered by the U.S. set the
stage for peace talks between Israel and its neighbors and a resolution to
the "Palestinian problem". This however remained unfulfilled.
Emergence of Hamas:
1987: Founding of Hamas, a violent offshoot of Egypt's Muslim
Brotherhood seeking to fulfill its agenda through violent jihad.
Hamas- It is regarded as a terrorist organization by the U.S. government.
In 2006, Hamas won the Palestinian Authority's legislative elections. It
ejected Fatah from Gaza in 2007, splitting the Palestinian movement
geographically, as well
1987: Tensions in the occupied territories of West Bank and Gaza
reached boiling point resulting in the First Intifada (Palestinian
Uprising). It grew into a small war between Palestinian militants and the
Israeli army.

____________ _____________________
Oslo Accords:
1993: Under the Oslo Accords Israel and the PLO agree to officially
recognize each other and renounce the use of violence. The Oslo Accords
also established the Palestinian Authority, which received limited
autonomy in the Gaza Strip and parts of the West Bank.
2005: Israel begins a unilateral withdrawal of Jews from settlements in
Gaza. However, Israel kept tight control over all border crossings
(blockade).
2012- UN upgrades Palestinian representation to that of "non-member
observer state".

Territorial Disputes of Israel with Neighboring Countries:

West Bank: The West Bank is sandwiched between Israel and Jordan.
One of its major cities is Ramallah, the de facto administrative capital of
Palestine. Israel took control of it in the 1967 war and has over the years
established settlements there.
Gaza: The Gaza Strip located between Israel and Egypt. Israel occupied
the strip after 1967, but relinquished control of Gaza City and day-to-day
administration in most of the territory during the Oslo peace process. In
2005, Israel unilaterally removed Jewish settlements from the territory,
though it continues to control international access to it.
Golan Heights: The Golan Heights is a strategic plateau that Israel
captured from Syria in the 1967 war. Israel effectively annexed the
territory in 1981. Recently, the USA has officially recognized Jerusalem
and Golan Heights as a part of Israel.

____________ _____________________
How has the relationship of India with Israel evolved over the years ?

India’s Stand on the Israel-Palestine Conflict:

India was one of the few countries to oppose the UN’s partition plan in
1947, echoing its own experience during independence a few months
earlier.

India recognised Israel in 1950 but it is also the first non-Arab country to
recognise Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO) as the sole
representative of the Palestinian. India is also one of the first countries
to recognise the statehood of Palestine in 1988.
In recent times, India is being seen shifted towards a Dehyphenation of
Policy.

Dehyphenation of Policy:
India’s policy on the longest running conflict in the world has gone from
being unequivocally pro-Palestine for the first four decades, to a tense
balancing act with its three-decade-old friendly ties with Israel.
In recent years, India’s position has also been perceived as pro-Israel.
Further, India believes in a Two-State Solution with respect to
Israel-Palestine conflict, and proposes the right to self-determination to
both the countries in a peaceful manner.

____________ _____________________
What is the Impact of Assault on Israel-Saudi Arabia Ties ?
One of the reasons for Hamas' assault on Israel can be attributed to
disrupting efforts to bring Saudi Arabia and Israel together, along with
other countries that may be interested in normalizing relations with
Israel.

Hamas had highlighted threats to Jerusalem’s Al-Aqsa Mosque, the

continuation of an Israeli blockade on Gaza and Israeli normalization
with countries in the region.
Dehyphening Saudi Arabia from Israel will help promote the agenda of
Muslim Brotherhood and territorial sovereignty over the Arab and
Middle East region.

Normalization of ties of regional powers with Israel will further

embolden and strengthen the position of Israel vis-a-vis reclaiming
Palestinian territories.
Ties with UAE,Egypt,Saudi Arabia etc will provide a vigorous push to
infrastructural development, and create inter-dependence and
inter-relationships among these countries, much to the chagrin of
Palestinians.

____________ _____________________
27.Who was the first judge of the Supreme Court of India to face a
motion of impeachment?

A) Justice K. Subba Rao

B) Justice V. Ramaswami

C) Justice Ranganath Misra

D) Justice M. Hidayatullah

27. B

Veeraswami Ramaswami (15 February 1929 – 8 March 2025) was an

Indian judge of the Supreme Court of India and the first judge against
whom removal proceedings were initiated in independent India.

About the Chief Justice of India (CJI)

Qualifications of CJI: A person is eligible to be appointed as Chief Justice

of India if they:

●​ Are a citizen of India.

●​ Have served as a Judge of a High Court for at least five years.
●​ Have been an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years.
●​ Are considered a distinguished jurist by the President of India.

Appointment of CJI

The President appoints the CJI under Article 124(2) of the Constitution.

____________ _____________________
The outgoing CJI recommends their successor based on seniority.

The Union Law Minister forwards the recommendation to the Prime

Minister, who then advises the President.

As per the Second Judges Case (1993), the senior-most Supreme Court
judge is appointed as the CJI.

Role and Powers of the CJI

●​ Master of the Roster: The CJI allocates cases to Supreme Court

benches and decides the composition of benches.
●​ Head of the Collegium System: The CJI leads the Supreme Court
Collegium, responsible for appointing and transferring judges.
●​ Administrative Authority: The CJI supervises court administration,
staff appointments, and judicial proceedings management.
●​ Judicial Leadership: The CJI is first among equals and does not hold
superior judicial power over other judges.

Removal of CJI or Judges

A Supreme Court judge, including the CJI, can be removed by the

President after an address by Parliament supported by a special
majority.

Grounds for removal (Article 124(4)):

●​ Proven misbehavior
●​ Incapacity

____________ _____________________
What is the Collegium System?

A mechanism for appointing and transferring judges in the Supreme

Court and High Courts.

Not established by an Act of Parliament, but evolved through Supreme

Court judgments (Judges Cases).

For SC Appointments: CJI + four senior-most judges.

For HC Appointments:

HC-level Collegium: Chief Justice of HC + two senior judges.

SC-level Collegium: CJI + two senior-most SC judges.

28.Which of the following countries is NOT part of the NATO Plus

grouping?

A) Australia

B) Japan

C) South Korea

D) Brazil

28.D

____________ _____________________
NATO Plus includes NATO members and five additional countries:
Australia, New Zealand, Japan, Israel, and South Korea. Brazil is not part
of this grouping.

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a transatlantic military

alliance consisting of 31 member countries from North America and
Europe. It was founded on April 4, 1949, with the signing of the North
Atlantic Treaty, also known as the Washington Treaty. NATO's primary
purpose is to safeguard the security and stability of its member states
through collective defense and military cooperation.

NATO's central aim is to ensure peace and security by guaranteeing the

territorial integrity, political independence, and security of its members.
The organization operates on the principle of collective defense, which is
enshrined in Article Five of the treaty. This article states that an armed
attack against one member is considered an attack against all members,
obliging them to come to the defense of the attacked member, using
armed forces if necessary.

The headquarters of NATO is located in Brussels, Belgium, serving as the

central hub for its decision-making and operations. The alliance plays a
crucial role in global security and defense, focusing on strengthening
relationships between member countries and promoting peacekeeping
and conflict prevention around the world.

____________ _____________________
Advantages for India if becoming a member of NATO Plus:

●​ India would gain access to seamless intelligence sharing between

these countries.
●​ India would get access to the latest military technology without
much of a time lag.
●​ It would further strengthen India’s defence partnership with the
United States.

29.M. Sreevidya, who won the Kerala State Youth Commission's Youth
Icon Award 2024-25 is known for which of the following
achievements?

A) Developing a software startup in Kochi.

B) Transforming barren land into a productive farm using innovative

and scientific farming techniques.

C) Winning an Olympic medal in athletics.

D) Founding a wildlife conservation NGO in Wayanad.

29.B

​M. Sreevidya, a commerce graduate from Badiyadka in Kasaragod

district, Kerala, has emerged as a pioneering figure in sustainable
agriculture and rural entrepreneurship. Despite lacking a farming

____________ _____________________
background, she transformed a rocky, barren 4-acre land into a thriving
green oasis through determination and innovative techniques.​

In 2015, Sreevidya began her agricultural journey by cultivating

plantains and taro, utilizing rainwater harvesting and unconventional
methods like using quarry explosives to create planting pits in the rocky
terrain. Her farm, Poongavanam Agrifarm, now boasts over 250 varieties
of exotic fruit trees, vegetables, and cash crops. She has integrated fish,
bee, and poultry farming, embracing aquaponics and biofloc fish
farming to enhance sustainability. Notably, she was the first in her
village to implement aquaponics, demonstrating her commitment to
modern, eco-friendly farming practices.​

Beyond agriculture, Sreevidya has ventured into rural tourism by

launching Dreamfly Tours and Travels in 2023, promoting
women-friendly tourism under the Kerala Responsible Tourism Mission.
Her initiatives have empowered local women, Kudumbashree workers,
and youth to engage in tourism activities, fostering community
development. Plans are underway to introduce "Erumadam"
accommodations, further integrating tourism with agriculture.​
Kerala Tourism

Her remarkable contributions have earned her several accolades,

including the Kerala Government's Best Young Farmer Award in 2020
and the Youth Icon Award for 2024–25. Sreevidya's journey exemplifies

____________ _____________________
how innovation, resilience, and community engagement can transform
challenges into opportunities, inspiring many in the realm of sustainable
agriculture and rural development.​

​The Kerala State Youth Commission has announced the recipients of the
Youth Icon Awards for the year 2024–25, honoring young individuals
who have made significant contributions across various fields. The
awards recognize excellence in areas such as arts, culture, sports,
literature, agriculture, entrepreneurship, and media. The selections were
made by a jury appointed by the Commission, considering public
suggestions and nominations.​

Nikhila Vimal – Recognized in the Arts/Culture category for her

impactful performances in Malayalam cinema and her commitment to
progressive social causes .​

Sajana Sajeevan – Honored in the Sports category as an all-rounder for

the Indian women's cricket team and a member of the 2024 ICC Women's
T20 World Cup squad .​

Vinil Paul – Awarded in the Literature category for his distinctive voice
in contemporary Malayalam literature .​
LinkedIn

____________ _____________________
M. Sreevidya – Recognized in the Agriculture category for her innovative
and scientific farming practices in Kasaragod .​

Devan Chandrasekharan – Honored in the Industry/Entrepreneurship

category as the founder of Fuselage Innovations, contributing to
industrial entrepreneurship .​

R. Roshipal – Recognized in the Media category for his distinguished

work as Principal Correspondent at Reporter TV .​

Each awardee will receive a cash prize of ₹20,000 and a statue of honor.
The awards aim to inspire the youth of Kerala by celebrating individuals
who have excelled in their respective fields and contributed positively to
society.​

30.According to the SIPRI Report (2020–2024), what is India’s rank

among the world’s largest arms importers during this period?

A) First​
B) Third ​
C) Second​
D) Fifth

30.C

____________ _____________________
As per the SIPRI Report for the period 2020–2024, India ranked second in
the world among arms importers, with Ukraine ranking first due to the
Russia-Ukraine war. Despite promoting defense self-reliance, India
continues to import advanced military systems to modernize its armed
forces.

The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), in its latest

report covering the period 2020–2024, highlights significant shifts in
global arms transfers and defense trade patterns. One of the most
striking revelations is that Ukraine has emerged as the world’s largest
arms importer during this period. The sharp rise in Ukraine’s imports is
directly linked to the ongoing conflict with Russia, which began in
February 2022. Western countries, particularly the United States and
European allies, have significantly ramped up military aid and weapons
transfers to Ukraine in response to the war, causing Ukraine to surpass
all other nations in arms procurement.

As for India, the report shows that it continues to be a major arms

importer, ranking second globally during the 2020–2024 period. Despite
India’s push for self-reliance under its ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’
(Self-Reliant India) campaign, the country still depends heavily on
foreign suppliers, especially for advanced fighter jets, submarines,
artillery systems, and missile defense technologies. Russia remains
India’s largest defense supplier, although India has also diversified its
imports in recent years by strengthening defense ties with countries like
France, Israel, and the United States.

____________ _____________________
The SIPRI report also points out a general trend of shifting arms
dynamics in Asia and Europe, with Ukraine’s rise as an arms importer
underlining the geopolitical consequences of the Russia-Ukraine war,
and India’s position reinforcing the fact that it remains one of the
world’s most security-conscious nations, investing heavily in
modernizing its defense forces amid persistent border tensions and
regional security concerns.

31.Consider the following statements about the Wagner Mutiny in

Russia recently seen in news :
1.​ The Wagner Group staged a mutiny against Russia’s Ministry of
Defense, accusing it of corruption and incompetence.
2.​ The mutiny was resolved through direct military action by the
Russian Army, which completely defeated the Wagner forces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
31.A
Statement 1 is correct — the Wagner Group, led by Yevgeny Prigozhin,
accused Russia's defense ministry of corruption and staged a mutiny.

____________ _____________________
Statement 2 is incorrect — the mutiny was not resolved by military
defeat but through negotiation, with Wagner forces agreeing to retreat
and relocate to Belarus.
Wagner Mutiny in Russia
In June 2023, Russia faced an unprecedented internal security crisis
when the Wagner Group, a Russian private military company, staged a
brief but serious mutiny against the country’s defense leadership. The
conflict began when Yevgeny Prigozhin, the chief of Wagner Group,
accused Russia’s Ministry of Defense (MoD) of corruption and
incompetence. Tensions escalated after Wagner forces released a video
claiming that the Russian military had ordered airstrikes on their
fighters. In response, Wagner troops captured the Southern Military
District headquarters in Rostov-on-Don and began a so-called "march of
justice" toward Moscow, leading to armed clashes and widespread alarm.
The Russian President condemned the mutiny as an act of "treason" and
instructed national security services to crush the rebellion. However, the
situation was defused through negotiations, reportedly brokered by the
President of Belarus, which led to Prigozhin agreeing to halt his march
and relocate to Belarus along with his forces. The resolution exposed the
Kremlin’s struggles to maintain control over its private military wings,
especially given Wagner’s past role in advancing Russian interests
abroad.

The mutiny highlighted several implications for Russia. First, it exposed

deep internal divisions within the country's military and security

____________ _____________________
structure. Wagner’s ability to stage an armed rebellion and advance
toward Moscow revealed significant vulnerabilities in Russia’s defense
apparatus, which could embolden future uprisings or challenges. Second,
the incident suggested a visible weakening of President Putin's authority.
Despite his tough rhetoric on television, Putin was forced to negotiate
rather than enforce his threats, potentially lowering his standing among
political and military elites.

Economically, the mutiny caused sharp currency volatility. The Russian

ruble plummeted to a 15-month low against the U.S. dollar due to the
uncertainty created by the rebellion, raising concerns about inflation,
import costs, and investor confidence in Russia’s economy. Furthermore,
the incident raised questions about Russia’s overseas military strategy,
especially in countries like Syria, Libya, and African nations, where
Wagner operatives have played crucial roles. Disbanding or reorganizing
the Wagner network could create instability in these regions and
complicate Russia’s military commitments.

The Wagner Group, officially known as PMC Wagner, was established in

2014 and gained notoriety for recruiting large numbers of ex-prisoners
and mercenaries, at one point fielding nearly 50,000 fighters during the
Russia-Ukraine conflict. Besides Ukraine, Wagner has been involved in
conflicts in Africa, the Middle East, and Latin America, serving as an
unofficial arm of Russia’s foreign military interventions.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
32.Dr. Jayshree Vencatesan was awarded the Ramsar Award for
'Wetland Wise Use' in 2025 for her contributions to:

A) The creation of artificial wetlands for wildlife conservation in

coastal areas.
B) Restoration and sustainable management of wetlands, including
the Pallikaranai Marsh in Chennai.
C) Developing freshwater aquaculture systems in wetlands across
Tamil Nadu.
D) Promoting ecotourism in wetlands with a focus on migratory bird
conservation.

32.B
​In March 2025, Dr. Jayshree Vencatesan, co-founder of Chennai-based
Care Earth Trust, became the first Indian to receive the prestigious
Ramsar Award for 'Wetland Wise Use', recognizing her exceptional
contributions to sustainable wetland management. ​

Dr. Vencatesan's conservation journey began with a modest sum of $350

and a deep commitment to protect India's marshlands, often dismissed
as wastelands. Her extensive work on the Pallikaranai Marsh in Chennai
brought attention to its critical role in flood mitigation and as a habitat
for over 337 species of flora and fauna. ​

____________ _____________________
Leading an all-women research team, she has mentored a new
generation of female conservationists, emphasizing the importance of
equipping women with technical skills and decision-making roles in
environmental management. ​
Dr. Vencatesan has restored 44 wetlands across Tamil Nadu, with 13,
including Pallikaranai, recognized as Ramsar sites. ​

She dedicated the award to her late father, Mayur Narasimhan, whose
nature-loving philosophy deeply influenced her path. ​ Her recognition
coincided with International Women's Day 2025, highlighting the vital
role of women in environmental conservation. ​

Ramsar Wetland Conservation Awards and Evian Special Prize by

Danone
Established in 1996, the Ramsar Wetland Conservation Awards celebrate
and recognize individuals and organizations for contributions towards
promoting the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
Award recipients receive the Evian Special Prize of USD 10,000 provided
by Danone.

The Award Categories

1.​ The Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for Innovation:
recognizing a person, project, programme, or policy that has
contributed to the conservation and wise use of wetlands through
an innovative technique or approach.

____________ _____________________
 2.​ The Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for Young Wetland
Champions: recognizing an individual or group of young people
aged between 18 and 30 years for contributions to the
conservation, wise use, and restoration of wetlands.
3.​ The Ramsar Wetland Indigenous Peoples Conservation and Wise
Use Award: recognizing groups or individuals for outstanding
leadership and transformative projects led by or involving
indigenous peoples.

Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

It is an international agreement for the preservation and responsible use
of wetlands known as the Ramsar Convention. The agreement was
signed on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar, the same date
annually celebrated as World Wetlands Day.

Wetlands: They are places where water either covers the soil or is
present at or near the soil’s surface year-round or for different parts of
the year, including the growing season. The Ramsar Convention
categorises various natural and human-made diverse water bodies, and
habitats as wetlands:
Natural– Oases, estuaries, deltas, mangroves, coastal areas, coral reefs
Human– Fishponds, rice paddies, and reservoirs.

____________ _____________________
33.In 2025, Kochi commemorated the 100th anniversary of Mahatma
Gandhi’s visit. What was the primary purpose of his visit to Kochi in
1925?

A) To address the issue of caste-based discrimination and support the

Vaikom Satyagraha.
B) To inaugurate the Kochi Port and promote economic growth.
C) To meet with British officials to discuss India’s political future.
D) To lead a campaign against British salt taxes in the region

33.A
On March 8, 2025, Kochi commemorated the 100th anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi’s visit to the city, marking a significant chapter in
Kerala’s freedom struggle. Gandhi arrived in Fort Kochi on this date in
1925, during his second visit to Kerala, primarily to support the Vaikom
Satyagraha, a movement aimed at securing temple entry for all Hindus,
irrespective of caste.

At that time, Fort Kochi was under direct British rule, making such
gatherings challenging to organize. Nevertheless, Gandhi addressed a
gathering from a makeshift platform built on country boats at the Fort
Kochi beachfront, emphasizing the importance of social reform and
unity. ​

____________ _____________________
In Mattancherry, Gandhi stayed at the residence of Mathura Das Asher, a
Gujarati freedom fighter. This house, located opposite the Mattancherry
Gujarati School, was adorned with decorations for the centenary
celebration. Rahul N. Asher, Mathura Das’s grandson, shared that Gandhi
had adopted his grandfather as a disciple and entrusted him with
establishing an ashram and educational institution in Champaran, Bihar.
Both Mathura Das and his wife actively participated in the freedom
movement, enduring imprisonment multiple times. ​

The centenary was marked by various events, including a padayatra in

Fort Kochi, exhibitions, and talks, reflecting on Gandhi’s enduring legacy
in the region. His visit not only bolstered the Vaikom Satyagraha but also
left an indelible mark on the social and political landscape of Kerala. ​
This centenary serves as a poignant reminder of the transformative
impact of Gandhi’s philosophy on Kerala's journey toward social justice
and equality.

Mahatma Gandhi visited Kerala five times between 1920 and 1937, each
visit marking a significant milestone in the state's social and political
landscape. Here's an overview of his visits:​

1. First Visit – August 18, 1920 (Calicut)

Gandhi's inaugural visit to Kerala was on August 18, 1920, when he
arrived in Calicut (now Kozhikode) to garner support for the
Non-Cooperation Movement. He addressed a gathering of about 20,000

____________ _____________________
people at Calicut beach, urging them to boycott British goods and
institutions. This visit laid the foundation for the national movement in
the region. ​

2. Second Visit – March 8–19, 1925 (Vaikom)

Gandhi's second visit was from March 8 to 19, 1925, primarily to support
the Vaikom Satyagraha, a movement aimed at securing temple entry for
all Hindus, irrespective of caste. During this visit, he met with various
leaders, including Sree Narayana Guru at Varkala. He also addressed a
gathering at the Union Christian College in Aluva, where he planted a
mango tree and wrote in the visitor’s diary, “Delighted with the ideal
situation.” ​

3. Third Visit – October 9–25, 1927

In his third visit, Gandhi traveled through Kerala from October 9 to 25,
1927. He spent time in Thrissur, where he met students of the Sarvodaya
school and inspired them to wear Khadi as part of the nationalist
movement. He also visited Sivagiri and met the spiritual leader Sree
Narayana Guru, staying at Varkala during this trip. ​

4. Fourth Visit – January 10–22, 1934

Gandhi's fourth visit to Kerala was from January 10 to 22, 1934. He was
well received at Olavakkode/Shornur on January 10, where he visited the
Sabari Ashram and held conversations with the inmates and the
Swamijis in the Ashram. Later, he visited Palghat, where he addressed a

____________ _____________________
women's meeting, apart from a public meeting. He also visited Chittur,
Koduvayur, Thenkurrissi, Veliyanchathanur, and Kuzhalmannam, where
he addressed a Nayadi's meeting. ​

5. Fifth Visit – January 12–21, 1937

Gandhi's fifth and final visit to Kerala was from January 12 to 21, 1937.
He arrived in Travancore via Kanyakumari and attended a reception at
the Central Stadium in Thiruvananthapuram. During this visit, he
entered the Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple along with the
untouchables, marking a significant step towards social equality. He also
spoke at the proclamation ceremony held in the evening.
34.Consider the following statements on Thakazhi Literary Award

1.​ The Thakazhi Literary Award is conferred by the Thakazhi

Smaraka Samiti and the Department of Cultural Affairs,
Government of Kerala, to honor an individual's overall
contributions to Malayalam literature.
2.​ K.P. Sudheera was awarded the Thakazhi Literary Award in 2025
for her significant impact on Malayalam literature.

A) Both statements are incorrect.

B) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
C) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.
D) Both statements are correct.
34.D

____________ _____________________
Thakazhi Literary Award
The Thakazhi Literary Award is a prestigious recognition established by
the Thakazhi Smaraka Samiti in honor of the legendary Malayalam
writer Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai, renowned for his novel Chemmeen.
This award aims to celebrate and promote Malayalam literature by
acknowledging individuals who have made significant contributions to
the field.​

K.P. Sudheera: A Literary Luminary

Dr. K.P. Sudheera, affectionately known as Vidyavachaspati, is a
distinguished Malayalam writer and translator hailing from Kozhikode,
Kerala. With a prolific career spanning several decades, she has
authored over 90 works encompassing novels, short stories, poetry,
children's literature, travelogues, biographies, and translations. Her
literary prowess has earned her numerous accolades, including the
Kerala Sahitya Akademi Award for Overall Contributions in 2022. ​
Sudheera's notable works include:​
Ganga: A novel exploring the sacredness of the Ganges and the cultural
tapestry of Kashi.​
Ajeevanantham: Delving into the lives of individuals serving life
sentences in Indian prisons.​
Pranaya Sameera: An epic narrative reimagining the life of Lord Krishna.​
Nashta Smrithiyude Kalam: A poignant tale depicting the struggles of a
grandmother battling Alzheimer's disease.​

____________ _____________________
Her works have been translated into multiple languages, including Hindi,
Telugu, Tamil, and Kannada, broadening her literary impact. ​

Recent Recipients of the Thakazhi Literary Award

Here is a list of the Thakazhi Literary Award recipients over the past five
years:

2021: Dr. M. Leelavathy, a renowned literary critic, was honored for her
invaluable contributions to Malayalam literature. ​

2022: M.K. Sanu, a distinguished writer, received the award for his
exceptional literary works.​

2023: Prof. M.K. Sanu was again recognized for his enduring influence on
Malayalam literature.​

2024: Dr. M. Leelavathy was honored once more for her continued
excellence in literary criticism.​

2025: K.P. Sudheera was bestowed with the award, acknowledging her
prolific and impactful contributions to Malayalam literature.​

____________ _____________________
35.What is the main theme of Unni Ammayambalam's novel
Algorithangalude Nadu (The Land of Algorithms)?
A) The impact of Artificial Intelligence on society.
B) The importance of traditional farming practices.
C) The story of Kerala's historical revolutions.
D) The effects of climate change on coastal areas.

35.A
Unni Ammayambalam, a prominent Malayalam author from
Kochukalingu, has been honored with the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya
Puraskar 2024 for his novel Algorithangalude Nadu (The Land of
Algorithms). The award recognizes his exceptional contribution to
children's literature, particularly in the realm of science fiction

The Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar is an annual literary award

conferred by the Sahitya Akademi, India's National Academy of Letters,
to honor outstanding contributions to children's literature in any of the
24 languages recognized by the Akademi. The award comprises a cash
prize of ₹50,000 and an engraved copper plaque.

For the Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2024, the winners were announced in June
2024. Notably, Nandini Sengupta received the award for her book The
Blue Horse and Other Amazing Animals from Indian History in English.
The award ceremony for the 2024 recipients was held on March 8, 2025,
at the Kamani Auditorium in New Delhi. ​

____________ _____________________
36.Which of the following statements is true regarding the recent
status of India's Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme?

A) The PLI scheme has achieved its production targets and is set to
continue with expanded coverage.

B) The government has decided to allow the PLI scheme to lapse due
to unmet production targets and delays in subsidy disbursements.

C) The PLI scheme has been extended to include additional sectors

beyond the initial 14 pilot sectors.

D) The scheme has successfully increased India's manufacturing

share in GDP to 25%, meeting its original goal.

36.B
What is the Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI)?
The PLI scheme was conceived to scale up domestic manufacturing
capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment
generation.
Launched in March 2020, the scheme initially targeted three industries:
Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing Electrical Component
Manufacturing and Medical Devices.
Later, it was extended to 14 sectors.

____________ _____________________
In the PLI scheme, Domestic and Foreign companies receive financial
rewards for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their
revenue over up to five years.

Targeted Sectors:
The 14 sectors are mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical
devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs,
specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products,
white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV
modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone
components.

Incentives Under the Scheme:

The incentives given, are calculated on the basis of incremental sales.

In some sectors such as advanced chemistry cell batteries, textile

products and the drone industry, the incentive to be given will be
calculated on the basis of sales, performance and local value addition
done over the period of five years.

The emphasis on R&D investment will also help the industry keep up
with global trends and remain competitive in the international market.

____________ _____________________
Success in Smartphone Manufacturing:
In FY 2017-18, mobile phone imports were USD 3.6 billion, while exports
were a mere USD 334 million, resulting in a -USD 3.3 billion trade deficit.
By FY 2022-23, imports reduced to USD 1.6 billion, while exports surged
to nearly USD 11 billion, yielding a positive net exports of USD 9.8 billion.

What are the Issues with the PLI Scheme?

Assembly vs. Value Addition:

The subsidy in the scheme for Mobile and allied Component
Manufacturing is paid only for finishing the phone in India, not on how
much value is added by manufacturing in India, turning out that very
little apart from assembly is done in India.

So India still imports much of what goes into the mobile phones.
The imports of mobile phone components — including display screens,
cameras, batteries, printed circuit boards — shot up between FY21 and
FY23.
Incidentally, these are the same two years when mobile phone exports
jumped the most.

WTO Constraints and Limited Value Addition:

WTO rules prevent India from tying PLI subsidies to domestic value
addition.

____________ _____________________
Although India's aspiration to make chips is sound, chips are complex
components.
The absence of significant domestic value addition likely stems from
these constraints.

Vague Disbursal of Incentives:

While an Empowered Committee has been formed to oversee the scheme
and handle fund disbursement for different sectors, the process of
awarding incentives lacks clarity.

There are no well-defined criteria or standardized parameters that

ministries and departments use to determine the allocation of these
incentives, raising concerns about the fairness and effectiveness of the
scheme.

Lack of a Centralized Database:

The lack of a centralized database that captures information like
increase in production or exports, number of new jobs created etc. make
the evaluation process an administrative complexities.
This information ambiguity impacts transparency and can lead to
malfeasance, further widening the fault lines and weakening the policy
structure.

____________ _____________________
37.Which of the following approaches is essential for the successful
implementation of Universal Basic Income (UBI) in India?

1.​ Gradually consolidating existing social welfare schemes and

expanding digital infrastructure for efficient UBI distribution.​

2.​ Completely eliminating all existing welfare schemes in favor of

direct cash transfers and focusing solely on urban areas for UBI
implementation.

A) Both statements are incorrect.

B) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
C) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.
D) Both statements are correct.

37.B
Option 1 (Correct Answer) is aligned with a more practical and
sustainable approach to implementing UBI in India. Gradually
consolidating existing social welfare schemes ensures a smooth
transition and avoids sudden disruptions in essential services. Expanding
digital infrastructure, particularly through initiatives like the JAM (Jan
Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) trinity, is crucial for ensuring efficient delivery of
cash transfers and promoting financial inclusion, especially in rural
areas. These measures would help India implement UBI in phases,
minimizing the risk of exclusion errors and improving the program’s
overall effectiveness.

____________ _____________________
Option 2 (Incorrect Answer) suggests a more drastic approach by
eliminating all welfare schemes and focusing only on urban areas. This
would not address the diverse socio-economic needs of India’s
population. Moreover, completely abandoning existing schemes could
harm vulnerable groups who rely on them, particularly in rural or
food-insecure regions. Additionally, focusing solely on urban areas
would miss out on addressing the economic challenges faced by rural
populations, where a larger portion of the population may need UBI the
most.
The concept of Universal Basic Income (UBI) has gained renewed
attention in India as a potential solution to address rising unemployment
and inequality exacerbated by automation and artificial intelligence.

While the idea has been debated for years, with proponents arguing it
could replace inefficient welfare schemes, questions of feasibility and
desirability persist. The potential for a modified, less ambitious version
of UBI in India, considering existing cash transfer schemes like
PM-KISAN, is worth exploring. A universal income transfer of
approximately 1% of GDP per capita could serve as a foundational social
safety net. This approach could offer advantages such as reduced
administrative costs and exclusion errors, while also addressing
concerns about fiscal constraints and implementation challenges.

____________ _____________________
38.Which of the following statements best describes the structure and
working principles of LIGO?

A) LIGO is a satellite-based observatory that works by detecting

electromagnetic waves emitted by celestial objects.
B) LIGO uses laser pulses fired through vacuum tubes to detect
differential arm motion caused by gravitational waves.
C) LIGO operates by focusing light from distant stars onto a detector
to study their motion.
D) LIGO detects gravitational waves using traditional telescopes and
optical methods.

38.B

Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO)

LIGO consists of two identical detectors at Hanford ( LIGO Hanford
Observatory) and Livingston (LIGO Livingston Observatory), separated
by 3000 km. These detectors work in unison as a single laboratory but
can make individual detections.
LIGO-India is the joint collaboration of India and the USA. It is the sixth
such gravitational wave observatory. The other three are the European
Virgo Collaboration (in Italy), the Japanese KAGRA, and GEO600 (in
Germany).

____________ _____________________
This collaboration enhances the efficiency of the search for gravitational
waves.
●​ LIGO or any other gravitational observatory differs fundamentally
from a typical astronomical observatory in three ways:
●​ It is blind to electromagnetic waves.
●​ It is not required to point at a specific area of the sky or to
concentrate starlight. Thus, it doesn’t need any specific location.
●​ A single detector cannot reliably make a discovery on its own.
Thus, the observatories work in tandem.
Structure and Working Principles of LIGO
LIGO is a massive L-shaped instrument with each arm of 4 km length. A
steel vacuum tube known as an interferometer is housed inside each
arm.

Through each arm, laser pulses are fired, and they return after hitting a
mirror at each end. These pulses’ timing and motion are tracked by a
photodetector.
The pulses won’t arrive on time when a gravitational wave passes by the
detector. This signal, along with others like it, can be used to study
gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves from distant galaxies hundreds of millions of light
years away can be found by the highly sensitive LIGO instrument.
For instance, scientists believe that the first gravitational wave detected
by LIGO in 2015 was produced by the collision of two black holes about
1.3 billion years ago.

____________ _____________________
Space stretches in one direction and simultaneously contracts in the
opposite direction as a result of gravitational waves.
As long as the wave is passing, LIGO experiences this as one arm of the
interferometer getting longer while the other gets shorter, then vice
versa, back and forth.
Since the arms are simultaneously changing length in opposite
directions, this motion is referred to technically as “Differential Arm”
motion or differential displacement.
LIGO India
The LIGO India project is an example of the increasing footprints of
Indian science in the world and a dream project of Indian physicists,
similar to the INO project. To be completed by 2030, location of the LIGO
India observatory is in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra.

____________ _____________________
Funding Organisations: The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the
Department of Science and Technology (DST) will provide funding for the
LIGO-India facilities.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) – funded LIGO Laboratory (USA)
will supply the hardware for a fully functional LIGO interferometer,
technical data on its design, installation, and commissioning, training,
and assistance with installation and commissioning, as well as the
specifications and designs for the necessary infrastructure (including the
vacuum system).
Institutions involved: There are four organisations in India that are in
charge of the project – Directorate of Construction, Services and Estate
Management under Department of Atomic Energy, and three dedicated
Science and Technology Institutions in India – Institute for Plasma
Research (IPR), Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics
(IUCAA), and the Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology
(RRCAT).

Collaborating Institutions: The project’s research and development will

involve numerous other research institutions from India and abroad.
Through the LIGO-India Scientific Collaboration (LISC), Indian
institutions will participate in the LIGO Scientific Collaboration (LSC).
Importance of LIGO-India Project

____________ _____________________
According to experts involved in the LIGO India project, the new LIGO
observatory in India, which will be the southernmost gravitational wave
detector in the world, is poised to make discoveries about the universe.
Tracing the genesis of various cosmic events in the sky is greatly
impacted by its special geographic location.
LIGO India will not only advance science but also unite a diverse group
of people, advancing the nation’s advancement in astronomy as well as
in the development of numerous cutting-edge technologies.
The LIGO India project team is especially dedicated to training the next
generation of female scientists and historically underrepresented groups.
Quantum sensing and metrology will significantly improve India’s
science and technology landscape.

The USA’s Vanderbilt Lab is developing a gravitational wave probe that

will land on the moon’s surface within the next decade or so. There is a
chance that LISA (joint Mission of NASA and ESA) and LIGO-India will
measure black holes together.

Space based Gravitational Wave Observatories

After the success of LIGO and other observatories on the Earth’s surface,
there have been efforts to place the Gravitational waves observatories in
space too.

LISA pathfinder: Launched in 2015, to test technology for future missions

to detect gravitational waves with a space-based observatory.

____________ _____________________
LISA: Laser Interferometer Space Antenna is a space-based gravitational
wave observatory building on the success of LISA Pathfinder and LIGO.
Led by ESA, the LISA mission is a collaboration of ESA, NASA, and an
international consortium of scientists.
evolved LISA: It is a mission aiming at exploring the Gravitational
Universe from space for the first time. It involves scientists from eight
European countries ‒ Denmark, France, Germany, Italy, The Netherlands,
Spain, Switzerland, and the UK.

39.Which of the following statements is correct regarding

'Varnapakittu'?
1.​ 'Varnapakittu' is a transgender art festival hosted in Kerala’s
capital, Thiruvananthapuram.
2.​ 'Varnapakittu' is a government scheme for financial support to
transgender entrepreneurs in Kerala.
A) Both statements are incorrect.
B) Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
C) Statement 2 is incorrect, but statement 1 is correct.
D) Both statements are correct.

39.C
'Varnapakittu' is Kerala's pioneering transgender arts and cultural
festival, organized by the state's Social Justice Department to celebrate
and promote the creativity of the transgender community. The fourth
edition took place in Thiruvananthapuram on March 16–17, 2025,

____________ _____________________
featuring a vibrant proclamation rally and performances at the
Nishagandhi Auditorium and Kanakakunnu Palace grounds. The event
aims to challenge societal binaries and foster inclusivity, with initiatives
like the 'Ananyam' cultural group nurturing transgender talents.
Additionally, the government provides various welfare measures,
including monthly allowances for transgender students and financial
support for sex reassignment surgeries. ​

Transgender Community in Kerala

The Government of Kerala issued a right based transgender policy in
2015, after the landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India in 2014
which firmly established the right to equality and equal protection for
transgender persons (TGs). Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)
Act, 2019, has raised several concerns regarding the status of
transgender people in India, especially with respect to the right of
self-identification. The policy also recommends the establishment of
District-level TG Boards that can register TGs and issue identification
cards. The visibility of transgender people in the public sphere in Kerala
has also increased during the last few years. But the issues of people
with other sexual identities are still not highlighted in that manner. The
survey conducted by the Social Justice Department on TGs revealed that
they are unable to acquire even basic capabilities essential to a life of
well-being and dignity. Hence, interventions for inclusion of TGs cannot
be limited to merely economic measures.

____________ _____________________
Various schemes for the welfare of TGs are being implemented by
various departments, primarily by the Social Justice Department.
Likewise, schemes/programmes aiming at the welfare of LGBTs have
been initiated under the Health and Family Welfare Department. DHS
has initiated steps for sex reassignment surgeries in Kottayam Medical
College. A programme, viz, “Nisarga” has been started by the Directorate
of Homeopathy for counselling and medication for transgender. All
transgender people and people with disabilities are included under the
health insurance scheme Karunya Arogya Suraksha Padhathi (KASP)
from 2023-24. Apart from these, Kerala State Literacy Mission Authority
(KSLMA) has initiated a special literacy programme, which focuses on
providing free and continuing education for the transgender persons in
the State. As part of Samanwaya programme, they have joined 4th, 7th,
10th and 12th equivalency programmes of KSLMA. 96 TGs were
benefited by the programme in 2022-23. As part of the continuing
education programme, KSLMA conducted a survey among 918 persons
from the transgender community, which revealed that 20.35 per cent of
them were unemployed and 16.70 per cent worked in the private sector.
While 1.65 per cent had Government jobs, 5.86 per cent were working in
semi-Government institutions. Over 30 per cent were engaged in some
form of self-employment. A majority of the people who were employed
had not disclosed their distinct gender identity before society in any
official records. The survey also found that six out of 100 transgender
persons were engaged in begging and eight out of 100 in sex work. Over
four per cent of the people did not have any documents to prove their

____________ _____________________
identity. The survey found that only 1.2 per cent of the transgender
surveyed were unable to read or write. The number of school dropouts
among transgenders increased as they progressed to higher classes,
mostly due to social stigma. While 10.61 percent of transgenders dropped
out of school between classes IV and VII, around 40 per cent dropped out
between classes VII and X. Among the transgenders surveyed, 26.55 per
cent had passed the plus two courses. While 13.60 per cent transgenders
were graduates, 2.10 per cent were post graduates. Around 67.14 per cent
of the persons surveyed were keen to enroll in continuing education
programmes of KSLMA.

As per the Disability Census conducted in Kerala, there are 1,187

transgender persons with disabilities; various schemes are to be
implemented by Government of Kerala on a rights based approach for
the wellbeing of Transgenders. In 2018-19, the Transgender Person Cell
in the Social Justice Directorate was set up for design, coordination and
implementation of various activities for the transgender persons giving
them a voice in their own planning. Since then, all the schemes under
SJD came under this comprehensive umbrella scheme “Mazhavillu”.
Community-level programmes, institutional intervention, research and
survey, sensitisation and workshops, pension, insurance and loan, and
skill development are the major components of the scheme. Transgender
persons’ arts festival was organised, marriage assistance was provided
and they are included as a priority category in the LIFE Housing Mission
project. A Transgender persons’ helpline (24x7) and crisis management

____________ _____________________
centre was established with the help of accredited NGOs working in the
field. Financial assistance is given for education (school drop outs being
high), vocational training, self-employment and for writing competitive
exams. Financial assistance for Sex Reassignment Surgery (SRS) in
hospitals based on medical advice was increased to Rs 2 lakh in 2019 and
further to Rs 5 lakh by 2020.

In 2020-21, 3,576 transgender persons have benefitted from various

schemes implemented by various departments. Hostel facility, beautician
course, continuing education scheme, sewing machine distribution,
entrepreneurship development programmes, TG short stay/shelter
homes, further treatment post SRS surgery, HIV sero surveillance centre
(KSSWB), imparting driving training, TG friendly toilet, self-employment
assistance, Varnam (TG fest) and sensitisation in school/colleges, among
various officials, elected representatives are the other schemes for TGs
implemented by SJD during 13th Five-Year Plan.

KSWDC launched a self-employment loan scheme for transgender

persons in 2020-21 to help them become self-reliant through
self-employment. This scheme is being implemented with the funding
support of the Directorate of Social Justice. An amount of Rs 30 lakh was
sanctioned in the initial phase disbursement of loans in the scheme and
22 transgender persons benefited from the scheme.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
40.Who was the captain of the Mumbai Indians team that won the
Women’s Premier League (WPL) 2025 title?

A) Smriti Mandhana
B) Meg Lanning
C) Harmanpreet Kaur
D) Alyssa Healy

40.C

The 2025 Women’s Premier League (WPL), officially known as the TATA
WPL 2025, marked the third edition of India’s flagship women’s T20
cricket tournament, organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in
India (BCCI). The season took place from February 14 to March 15, 2025,
across multiple cities including Vadodara, Bengaluru, Lucknow, and
Mumbai. This edition witnessed high-quality competition and growing
global attention toward women’s cricket, cementing WPL’s place as a
major event on the cricketing calendar.

The tournament followed a double round-robin format where all five

teams played against each other twice, with the top three progressing to
the playoff stage. The final match was held at Brabourne Stadium,
Mumbai, where the Mumbai Indians (MI) clinched their second WPL
title, defeating Delhi Capitals (DC) by eight runs in a thrilling finale.
While Mumbai celebrated their dominance, it was heartbreak yet again

____________ _____________________
for the Delhi Capitals, who reached their third straight final but remain
without a title.

The season was packed with stellar performances, with Nat Sciver-Brunt
of Mumbai Indians being the standout star. She was awarded the Player
of the Series for her consistent all-round brilliance, having scored a
remarkable 523 runs, the most by any player in the tournament. On the
bowling side, Amelia Kerr and Hayley Matthews, both from Mumbai
Indians, shared the honor of highest wicket-takers with 18 wickets each,
contributing significantly to MI’s title run.
Beyond the matches, WPL 2025 also highlighted the increasing
commercial appeal and fan following for women’s cricket. The league
was widely accessible through Sports18 on television and streamed
digitally on JioHotstar, ensuring fans across the country could tune in.
The Women’s Premier League is seen as a strong platform for promoting
women athletes, offering them the same high-profile exposure and
competitive experience as their male counterparts in the Indian Premier
League (IPL).

____________ _____________________
41.Consider the following statements about the SpaceX Dragon
spacecraft:
1.​ The Crew Dragon became the first commercially built and
operated spacecraft to carry astronauts to the International
Space Station (ISS).
2.​ Dragon spacecraft are launched using the Falcon Heavy rocket
developed by SpaceX.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

41.A
Dragon spacecraft are launched aboard the Falcon 9 rocket, not Falcon
Heavy.

The SpaceX Dragon spacecraft is a family of reusable spacecraft

developed and operated by the American aerospace company SpaceX,
founded by Elon Musk. Dragon was designed primarily to transport
cargo and crew to the International Space Station (ISS) and return safely
back to Earth. It is one of the most significant achievements in modern
commercial space exploration, marking the first time a private company

____________ _____________________
developed a spacecraft capable of delivering cargo to the ISS and
returning payloads safely to Earth.

There are two main versions of Dragon: Cargo Dragon (formerly known
as Dragon 1) and Crew Dragon (also known as Dragon 2). The Cargo
Dragon was first launched in 2010 on a demonstration flight under
NASA's Commercial Orbital Transportation Services (COTS) program, and
later began its regular missions as part of the Commercial Resupply
Services (CRS) contract with NASA. The Cargo Dragon can carry several
tons of supplies and scientific experiments to the ISS and is designed to
return cargo back to Earth — an ability that sets it apart from many
other cargo spacecraft, which usually burn up upon reentry.

The Crew Dragon is a newer version designed to carry astronauts to and

from the ISS. It marked a historic milestone when it became the first
commercially built and operated spacecraft to carry astronauts into
orbit, during the Demo-2 mission in May 2020, transporting NASA
astronauts Doug Hurley and Bob Behnken to the ISS. Crew Dragon is
designed with advanced safety systems including an autonomous
docking system, touchscreen controls, and a launch escape system for
astronaut safety during emergencies.

Dragon is launched atop SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket and is designed for

reusability, which greatly reduces the cost of space missions. After
completing its missions, Dragon makes a controlled reentry and

____________ _____________________
parachute-assisted splashdown in the ocean, where it is recovered for
reuse. This reusable nature has positioned Dragon as a key player in the
future of commercial spaceflight and even missions beyond Earth orbit.

In addition to ISS missions, SpaceX plans to use Dragon for private space
flights and space tourism. Missions like Inspiration4 in 2021, which
carried an all-civilian crew into orbit, highlighted the flexibility and
safety of the Crew Dragon design. Future missions may include private
trips around the Moon or to other space destinations, as SpaceX
continues to work on more ambitious projects like Starship.

In conclusion, the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft represents a new era in

space exploration — one where private companies work hand-in-hand
with government agencies to expand humanity’s reach beyond Earth,
making space more accessible and missions more affordable.

The "Dragons" used by SpaceX are not exactly the same in terms of their
design and functionality, but they share some core features, as they are
both part of SpaceX's spacecraft family. There are two main types of
Dragon spacecraft: Cargo Dragon and Crew Dragon (often referred to as
Dragon 2)

NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore were safely

rescued from the International Space Station (ISS) after an unexpected
nine-month stay. Originally scheduled for an eight-day mission aboard

____________ _____________________
Boeing's Starliner spacecraft, technical issues with the spacecraft's
thrusters left them stranded. In response, NASA partnered with SpaceX
to facilitate their return.​

On March 16, 2025, the SpaceX Crew-10 mission, launched aboard a

Falcon 9 rocket from Kennedy Space Center, successfully rendezvoused
with the ISS. The Crew-10 spacecraft, carrying astronauts Anne McClain,
Nichole Ayers, Takuya Onishi, and cosmonaut Kirill Peskov, docked with
the station, allowing for the handover of responsibilities and
preparations for Williams and Wilmore's return. ​

Subsequently, on March 18, 2025, the SpaceX Crew-9 mission undocked

from the ISS, carrying Williams, Wilmore, and fellow astronauts Nick
Hague and Aleksandr Gorbunov. The Dragon spacecraft splashed down
off the coast of Florida at 5:57 p.m. EDT, marking the end of their
extended mission. ​

During their extended stay, Williams and Wilmore conducted

approximately 150 scientific experiments, contributing valuable data to
ongoing research. Their safe return underscores the resilience and
collaboration inherent in human space exploration.​

____________ _____________________
42.On which date did renowned Malayalam lyricist Mankombu
Gopalakrishnan pass away?​

A) March 15, 2025

B) March 17, 2025
C) March 19, 2025
D) March 21, 2025

42.B
Mankombu Gopalakrishnan (1947–2025) was a celebrated Malayalam
lyricist, poet, and scriptwriter, renowned for his profound contributions
to Malayalam cinema. Born in Mankombu, Alappuzha, Kerala, he began
his career in 1971 with the film Vimochana Samaram. Over the years, he
penned over 700 songs for approximately 200 films, leaving an indelible
mark on the industry. His notable works include songs like
'Laksharchana Kandu Madangumbol' from Ayalathe Sundari, 'Ashada
Masam Aathmavil Moham' from Yudha Bhoomi, and 'Nadanpattinte
Madisheela Kilungumi' from Babu Mon .​

In addition to his lyrical prowess, Gopalakrishnan contributed to the

cinematic world as a scriptwriter and dialogue writer for more than 10
Malayalam films. He also played a significant role in adapting films from
other languages into Malayalam, including the Baahubali series and RRR,
showcasing his versatility and linguistic expertise .​

____________ _____________________
Gopalakrishnan's work was characterized by its lyrical beauty and
emotional depth, earning him a special place among Malayalam lyricists.
He passed away on March 17, 2025, in Kochi, leaving behind a rich
legacy that continues to inspire and resonate with music lovers and
filmmakers alike .​

43.What is the primary focus of Mission Vatsalya, and how is it

implemented?
1.​ Mission Vatsalya primarily focuses on institutionalizing children
in need of care, and it is implemented as a state-funded
initiative.
2.​ Mission Vatsalya promotes family-based non-institutional care
for children in difficult circumstances and is implemented as a
Centrally Sponsored Scheme in partnership with state
governments and UTs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

43.B

____________ _____________________
Mission Vatsalya
Mission Vatsalya is a comprehensive child protection initiative launched
by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) in India. The
scheme was introduced in 2021-22 and aims to provide holistic care and
protection to children in difficult circumstances, including those in need
of care and protection (CNCP), children in conflict with the law (CCL),
and children affected by HIV/AIDS. This initiative replaces previous child
protection schemes such as the Juvenile Justice Programme, the
Integrated Programme for Street Children, and Assistance to Children’s
Homes, which were merged into one comprehensive framework in 2009
under the Integrated Child Protection Scheme. Mission Vatsalya serves as
an umbrella scheme for all child protection services across the country.

The mission aims to foster a sensitive, supportive, and synchronized

ecosystem for child development and to secure a healthy and happy
childhood for every child in the nation. It also focuses on ensuring
opportunities for children to discover their full potential while assisting
states and union territories (UTs) in meeting the mandates of the
Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. In line with the Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs), the mission encourages non-institutional care, supports
educational needs, and promotes emergency outreach services to
safeguard children.

____________ _____________________
Implementation and Guidelines

Mission Vatsalya is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in

partnership with state governments and UT administrations. The
fund-sharing pattern is 60:40 between the Centre and the states/UTs,
except for eight northeastern states, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
and Jammu and Kashmir, where the Centre's share is 90%. Funds to
states are approved through the Mission Vatsalya Project Approval Board
(PAB), chaired by the Secretary of MWCD. This board reviews and
approves annual plans and financial proposals from states and UTs.

The scheme emphasizes child welfare through the creation of support

systems such as foster care, adoption services, and specialized facilities
for children with special needs, including transgender children. It also
supports the establishment of open shelters for children who are
runaway, trafficked, or in street situations. Special educational services,
including therapy and remedial classes, will be provided to children with
disabilities.

Mission Vatsalya further supports the adoption process through State

Adoption Resource Agencies (SARAs), which work in tandem with the
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) to regulate both in-country
and inter-country adoptions. These agencies coordinate and monitor
non-institutional care and adoption efforts at the state level.
Additionally, the scheme plans to establish cradle baby reception centers

____________ _____________________
in at least one specialized adoption agency in each region to receive
abandoned and trafficked children.

Focus on Non-Institutional Care and Special Needs Children

One of the key objectives of Mission Vatsalya is to promote family-based

care over institutionalization. Non-institutional care, such as foster care,
is encouraged, while institutionalization is seen as a last resort. This
approach ensures that children are cared for within family
environments, promoting better long-term outcomes for their emotional
and psychological well-being.

For children with special needs, the scheme will ensure that specialized
homes are established, providing them with the required care,
education, and therapy. These institutions will include special educators,
therapists, and nurses to offer occupational therapy, speech therapy, and
other essential services to children who are unable to attend regular
schools due to physical or mental disabilities. Moreover, employees in
these facilities will be trained in sign language, Braille, and other
relevant communication methods to ensure effective support.

Financial Support and Cradle Baby Reception Centers

Mission Vatsalya also ensures financial support for children living in

vulnerable situations, such as those in extended families or foster care.

____________ _____________________
The scheme provides for their educational, nutritional, and health needs,
thus securing a better future for them. Additionally, the establishment of
cradle baby reception centers will provide a safe place for abandoned
and trafficked children, ensuring that they are cared for in a protected
environment.

Long-Term Impact

Mission Vatsalya’s focus on strengthening statutory bodies, improving

service delivery structures, and building the capacity of stakeholders
involved in child protection services will have a long-lasting impact on
the country’s child welfare system. Through its various components,
including emergency outreach services, training, and capacity building,
the mission ensures that the needs of children in difficult circumstances
are met comprehensively. The integration of family-based care models
will further contribute to reducing the institutionalization of children,
supporting their development in nurturing environments.

____________ _____________________
44.Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore safely returned to Earth
aboard which spacecraft on March 19, 2025?

A) Orion
B) Soyuz MS-25
C) SpaceX Crew Dragon
D) Starliner

44.C
​NASA astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry "Butch" Wilmore have safely
returned to Earth after an extended 286-day mission aboard the
International Space Station (ISS), concluding a journey that was initially
planned to last just over a week. Their return on March 18, 2025, aboard
SpaceX's Crew Dragon spacecraft, marked the end of a mission filled
with unexpected challenges and significant milestones.​

Mission Overview
Williams and Wilmore launched on June 5, 2024, as part of Boeing's
Crew Flight Test (CFT) using the Starliner spacecraft. The mission aimed
to validate Starliner's capabilities for future crewed missions. However,
technical issues, including thruster malfunctions and helium leaks,
rendered the Starliner unfit for a safe return journey, leading NASA to
extend their stay on the ISS while alternative plans were developed .​

____________ _____________________
To facilitate their return, NASA assigned them seats on the SpaceX
Crew-9 mission. This mission, launched on September 28, 2024, from
Cape Canaveral's Space Launch Complex 40, was initially planned for
two crew members but was adjusted to accommodate Williams and
Wilmore. They joined NASA astronaut Nick Hague and Roscosmos
cosmonaut Aleksandr Gorbunov for the journey back to Earth .​

Return to Earth
The Crew Dragon spacecraft undocked from the ISS on March 18, 2025, at
1:05 a.m. EDT. After a 17-hour journey, it re-entered Earth's atmosphere
and executed a parachute-assisted splashdown in the Gulf of Mexico
near Tallahassee, Florida, at 5:57 p.m. EDT. Recovery teams promptly
retrieved the crew, who were then transported to NASA's Johnson Space
Center in Houston for medical evaluations and reunions with their
families .​
Mission Highlights and Challenges
During their extended stay, Williams and Wilmore conducted numerous
scientific experiments and technology demonstrations, contributing
valuable data to ongoing research. They orbited Earth 4,576 times,
covering approximately 195 million kilometers .​

The prolonged mission drew attention to the challenges of space travel

and the importance of reliable spacecraft. While some media outlets
described the astronauts as "stranded," NASA emphasized that they were
never in immediate danger and that contingency plans were in place.

____________ _____________________
The situation also sparked discussions about the future of Boeing's
Starliner program and its role in NASA's Commercial Crew Program.

Conclusion
The successful return of Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore
underscores the resilience and adaptability of astronauts and mission
teams in the face of unforeseen challenges. Their experience highlights
the collaborative efforts between NASA, SpaceX, and international
partners to ensure the safety and success of crewed space missions. As
NASA continues to advance its exploration goals, the lessons learned
from this mission will inform future endeavors and the development of
reliable spacecraft systems.

____________ _____________________
45.Match the following recipients of the prestigious Kala Ratna
Fellowship with their area of work.
Column A​ Column B
A) A. Ananthapadmanabhan​ 1) Renowned Theatre Director
B) Kalamandalam Saraswathy​ 2) Veteran Veena Maestro
C) Xavier Pulpattu​ 3) Acclaimed Classical Dancer

A.​A → 3, B → 2, C → 1
B.​ A → 1, B → 3, C → 2
C.​ A → 2, B → 3, C → 1
D.​A → 2, B → 1, C → 3
45.C

The Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Fellowships for 2024 were

announced to honor outstanding contributions in the fields of music,
dance, and theatre. The prestigious Kalarathna Fellowship, which carries
a cash prize of ₹50,000 along with a citation and a memento, was
awarded to three eminent personalities.

These are A. Ananthapadmanabhan, a highly respected veena maestro

known for his exceptional artistry in classical music; Kalamandalam
Saraswathy, a celebrated dancer who has dedicated her life to preserving
and promoting traditional dance forms; and Xavier Pulpattu, a veteran
theatre director renowned for his influential work in the field of
Malayalam drama and stagecraft. The Akademi recognized their lifelong

____________ _____________________
dedication and remarkable contributions to Kerala’s cultural and artistic
heritage through this honor.

A. Ananthapadmanabhan
A. Ananthapadmanabhan is a celebrated Veena maestro who has made
significant contributions to Carnatic classical music over decades. Known
for his mastery over the veena, his performances are a blend of
technical brilliance, depth of raga bhava (melodic expression), and
rhythmic sophistication. He has also played a vital role as a teacher,
nurturing young talents and spreading the appreciation of veena music,
especially at a time when string instruments are facing challenges in
popularity. His dedication to the veena and his scholarly approach have
earned him great respect in the classical music fraternity in Kerala and
beyond.

Kalamandalam Saraswathy
Kalamandalam Saraswathy is a highly respected dancer and guru,
well-known for her contributions to Kerala's classical dance traditions,
especially Mohiniyattam and Bharatanatyam. Trained at the legendary
Kerala Kalamandalam, she has spent decades both as a performer and as
a teacher, shaping future generations of classical dancers. Saraswathy is
admired for her elegant stage presence, intricate footwork, and deep
understanding of abhinaya (expressive gestures). Besides performing
across India and abroad, she has also worked to preserve the purity and

____________ _____________________
traditional essence of Kerala’s dance heritage, and has been a passionate
advocate for arts education.

Xavier Pulpattu
Xavier Pulpattu is a veteran theatre director who has left a lasting
impact on the Malayalam theatre scene through his innovative
productions and commitment to the art form. His works are known for
blending social commentary with artistic depth, often using minimalist
stagecraft while emphasizing powerful narratives and character-driven
plots. Beyond directing, Xavier Pulpattu has contributed as a playwright,
mentor, and theatre activist, working to keep live theatre relevant and
vibrant in Kerala’s cultural landscape. His vision and creativity have
inspired many young theatre practitioners across the state.

46.Which department of the Government of India launched the Open

Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)?​

A) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MCI)
C) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
D) Ministry of Finance​

46.C

____________ _____________________
​As of April 2025, the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
continues to make significant strides in transforming India's e-commerce
landscape. Launched in April 2022 by the Department for Promotion of
Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), ONDC aims to democratize digital
commerce by creating an open, interoperable network that allows
buyers and sellers to transact across various platforms, thereby reducing
the dominance of major e-commerce players .​

Key Developments in 2025

Transaction Milestone: ONDC has surpassed 200 million customer
transactions, with the last 100 million occurring in just six months,
indicating rapid adoption and scalability .​

Growth Projections: The network anticipates a 7x to 8x increase in

transactions by December 2025 compared to December 2024, reflecting
its expanding reach and user base .​

MSME Empowerment: In partnership with the Ministry of Micro, Small

and Medium Enterprises, ONDC launched the MSME Trade Enablement
and Marketing (TEAM) initiative with a budget of ₹277.35 crore over
three years. This program aims to onboard 5 lakh MSMEs, with a focus
on including 50% women-led businesses, to enhance their digital
commerce capabilities .​

____________ _____________________
Sectoral Expansion: ONDC has broadened its services beyond retail to
include mobility, food delivery, logistics, and digital lending, showcasing
its versatility and commitment to encompassing various facets of digital
commerce .​

Leadership Transition: After a three-year tenure, Thampy Koshy stepped

down as the Managing Director and CEO of ONDC. An executive
committee has assumed his responsibilities, with Koshy continuing to
advise the board during the transition period .​

Vision and Impact

ONDC's mission is to level the playing field for sellers, buyers, and
service providers across India, particularly benefiting small and medium
enterprises (SMEs). By fostering an open network, ONDC seeks to
enhance inclusivity, drive innovation, and reduce monopolistic practices
in the digital commerce space .​

____________ _____________________
47.Consider the following statements
1.​ Nila, India's first private payload hosting satellite, was launched
on March 15, 2025.
2.​ The satellite is named after a river in Kerala and weighs under 5
kg, showcasing India's growing role in private space sector
advancements
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

47.C
India's first private payload hosting satellite, Nila, was successfully
launched on March 15, 2025, marking a significant milestone in the
country's private space sector.​

Mission Overview
Developed by: HEX20, a Technopark-based satellite manufacturing
company in Kerala.
Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Transporter-13, via Berlin-based deployer
Exolaunch.
Deployment Time: 1:07 PM IST, approximately 53 minutes after launch.

____________ _____________________
First Signal Reception: March 16, 2025, confirming successful
deployment. ​
Technical Specifications
Type: CubeSat weighing under 5 kg.
Payload: Release Actuators from German company DCubed,
demonstrating HEX20's capability in hosting international payloads.
Development Time: Completed in just four months, showcasing rapid
innovation. ​
Significance
●​ Global Collaboration: Nila's mission underscores India's growing
role in international space technology partnerships.
●​ Private Sector Advancement: Demonstrates the capabilities of
India's private space industry in hosting and managing payloads.
●​ Educational Impact: The project involved collaboration with local
institutions, providing hands-on training and fostering talent in
space technology. ​
Naming Inspiration
The satellite is named Nila, after the culturally significant river in
Kerala, reflecting the company's roots and honoring regional heritage. ​

The successful launch of Nila represents a pivotal moment for India's

private space sector, highlighting innovation, collaboration, and the
nation's expanding capabilities in space exploration.

____________ _____________________
48.Which departments launched the Sansad Bhashini Initiative to
enhance the accessibility and efficiency of parliamentary operations
through AI technologies?
1.​ Lok Sabha Secretariat and Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MeitY)
2.​ Lok Sabha Secretariat and Ministry of Home Affairs
3.​ Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and Ministry of
External Affairs
4.​ Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and
Ministry of Urban Development

A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1

48.D
The Sansad Bhashini Initiative is a collaborative effort between the Lok
Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY), aimed at enhancing the accessibility and efficiency
of parliamentary operations through advanced AI technologies.​
Key Objectives
Multilingual Support: Facilitating real-time translation and transcription
of parliamentary debates and documents into multiple Indian languages,
thereby promoting inclusivity and broader public engagement.​

____________ _____________________
AI Integration: Leveraging AI tools to streamline parliamentary
processes, including the development of an interactive chatbot to assist
Members of Parliament (MPs) and officials in retrieving procedural
information and documents.​
Data Utilization: Utilizing the extensive parliamentary data provided by
the Lok Sabha Secretariat to train and fine-tune AI models, ensuring the
tools are tailored to the specific needs of parliamentary functions.​

Collaboration Details
An official Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between
the Lok Sabha Secretariat and MeitY to formalize this partnership. The
initiative is designed to integrate AI-powered tools that will facilitate
multilingual support, optimize documentation, and improve overall
parliamentary operations. The collaboration aims to deploy cutting-edge
AI applications such as real-time speech-to-text transcription,
speech-to-speech translation, and interactive AI chatbots .​

Broader Impact
By implementing the Sansad Bhashini Initiative, the Indian Parliament
seeks to modernize its operations, making them more accessible to a
diverse linguistic population and enhancing the efficiency of legislative
processes. This initiative aligns with the government's broader goals of
digital empowerment and transparency in governance.

____________ _____________________
49.Which of the following is the main objective of the Revised
Rashtriya Gokul Mission ?

A) To increase the number of foreign cattle breeds in India

B) To enhance the conservation and development of indigenous
bovine breeds
C) To promote the export of milk
D) To focus solely on dairy processing and marketing

49.B
The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM), launched in 2014, aims to promote
the development and conservation of indigenous cattle breeds, enhance
the genetic quality of the bovine population, and increase milk
production and productivity in India. The mission is implemented by the
Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying and focuses on activities
like strengthening semen stations, expanding the artificial insemination
network, improving Central Cattle Breeding Farms, and providing skill
development and farmer awareness programs.
The mission also supports the establishment of Gokul Grams, Integrated
Indigenous Cattle Development Centres that focus on the conservation
and development of indigenous bovine breeds.
The revised version of RGM, approved by the Union Cabinet, has an
outlay of ₹3,400 crore for the 15th Finance Commission cycle (2021-22 to
2025-26). Two new initiatives under the revised mission include Heifer
Rearing Centres (HRCs), which will receive a one-time assistance of 35%

____________ _____________________
of the capital cost for the establishment of 30 housing facilities for 15,000
heifers, and Interest Subvention for Farmers, which will provide a 3%
interest subvention on loans taken for the purchase of high genetic merit
(HGM) IVF heifers.
The mission has yielded significant achievements, including a 63.55%
increase in milk production over the last decade, an increase in per
capita milk availability from 307 grams per day in 2013-14 to 471 grams
per day in 2023-24, and a 26.34% increase in dairy productivity.
Additionally, the Nationwide Artificial Insemination Programme (NAIP)
under RGM offers free Artificial Insemination services to farmers in 605
districts.
50.With reference to the recent Supreme Court directives regarding the POSH Act,
2013, consider the following statements:

1.​ The Supreme Court directed all States and Union Territories to appoint
District Officers under the POSH Act by December 31, 2024.
2.​ Local Complaints Committees (LCCs) are to be set up only in central
government offices.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only 1​
B) Only 2​
C) Both 1 and 2​
D) Neither 1 nor 2

50.A LCCs are meant for all workplaces, especially where fewer than 10
employees are present or if the complaint is against the employer, not just for
central government offices.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
 ●​ The Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act or Sexual
Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition &
Redressal) Act was enacted in 2013 to implement the Vishakha
guidelines.

●​ The PoSH Act covers concepts of quid pro quo (a favour or

advantage granted in return for something) harassment and hostile
work environment as sexual harassment.

●​ Under the Act, an employee is defined not just in accordance with

the company law.

1.​ All women employees, whether employed regularly,

temporarily, contractually, on an ad hoc or daily wage basis,
as apprentices or interns, or even without the knowledge of
the principal employer, can seek redressal for sexual
harassment in the workplace.

●​ Applicability: Public and Private sector, government and

non-government sectors and organised and unorganised sectors.
Even non-traditional workplaces and places visited by employees for
work are covered under the Act.

●​ A woman can file a written complaint to the internal or local

complaints committee within three to six months of the sexual
harassment incident.

●​ It also makes the employer duty-bound to organise regular

workshops and awareness programmes to educate employees about
the Act and conduct orientation and programmes for ICC members.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ If the employer fails to constitute an ICC or does not abide by any
other provision, they must pay a fine of up to ₹50,000, which
increases for a repeat offence.

●​ The PoSH Act defines sexual harassment to include

1.​ Unwelcome acts such as physical contact and sexual advances,

2.​ A demand or request for sexual favours,

3.​ Making sexually coloured remarks,

4.​ Showing pornography and

5.​ Any other unwelcome physical, verbal, or non-verbal conduct

of a sexual nature.

●​ It also lists down five circumstances that would constitute sexual

harassment if they are connected to the above-mentioned acts

1.​ Implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in

employment

2.​ Implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment in

employment

3.​ Implied or explicit threat about present or future employment

status

4.​ Interference with work or creating an intimidating offensive

or hostile work environment and

5.​ Humiliating treatment likely to affect health or safety.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ The Act mandates regular workshops and awareness programmes
by the employer to educate employees about the Act and conduct
orientation and programmes for ICC members.

●​ Penalties: Non-compliance with the provisions of the Act shall be

punishable with a fine upto Rs 50,000, cancellation of registration to
conduct business in case of repeated violations.

District Officers under the PoSH Act

●​ The PoSH Act mandates States to appoint an officer in every district

who would play a “pivotal” role in implementing the Act.

●​ Sections 5 and 6 of the POSH Act detail that the District Officers
would constitute Local Complaints Committees (LCCs).

●​ LCC will receive complaints from women employed in small

establishments with less than 10 workers or cases in which the
assailant is the employer himself.

●​ A District Officer’s responsibilities included appointing nodal

officers under the Act in rural, tribal and urban areas.

Safeguard mechanisms under the PoSH Act

Internal Complaints Committee (ICC)

●​ The law requires any employer with over ten employees to form an
ICC.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Any female employee can approach ICC and file a formal sexual
harassment complaint.

●​ ICC has to be headed by a woman, have at least two women

employees, another employee, and a third party such as an NGO
worker with five years of experience.

●​ The ICC has powers similar to civil court, and the inquiry process
complies with the “principles of natural justice.”

Local Area Committee (LAC)

●​ The Act mandates the Local Area Committee (LAC) in every district
to receive complaints from women working in firms with less than
ten employees and from the informal sector, including domestic
workers, home-based workers, voluntary government social
workers, etc.

●​ There are two ways to resolve the issue by the committee:

1.​ Conciliation: Between the complainant and the respondent

(which cannot be a financial settlement),

2.​ Inquiry: Committees could initiate an inquiry, taking

appropriate action based on the findings.

Annual Audit Report

●​ The employer has to file an annual audit report with the district
officer about the number of sexual harassment complaints filed and
actions taken at the end of the year.

____________ _____________________
Successes of the PoSH Act

●​ Increase in the number of complaints filed.

●​ Increased conviction rate (increased about 5 times from 2014-21).

●​ Increased compensation to victims of sexual harassment.

●​ Increase in the number of ICCs (increased more than 1.5 times from
2014-21).

Lacunae of PoSH Act

●​ Gender Neutrality: The PoSH act is not Gender Neutral. The

safeguards under the POSH Act do not apply to ‘men victims’.

●​ Appointment of District Officers: The SC directed appointing district

officers in each district within their territorial jurisdiction, as
contemplated under Section 5 of the PoSH Act.

●​ This was due to the realisation that treating Section 5 as a directory

would leave a gaping hole in the otherwise clearly delineated
workflow and redressal mechanism.

●​ Lack of awareness: The lack of clarity about how to conduct

inquiries, lack of awareness about ICC and whom to approach have
ended up duplicating the access barriers associated with the justice
system.

●​ Fear of retaliation by women, lack of confidence in the process and

its outcome.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ No centralised data maintained regarding cases of harassment of
women at workplaces.

●​ Inquiry Process: Many a times, the inquiry process has been done in
a “hurry” without adherence to the principles of natural justice.

●​ Unorganised nature of workforce: Law is largely inaccessible to

women workers in the informal sector as more than 80% of India’s
women workers are employed in the informal sector.

●​ Legal and procedural complexities: The PoSH Act and its procedures
involve legal complexities that can be challenging for victims to
navigate.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
51.With reference to the functions of the Central Board of Film
Certification (CBFC), consider the following statements:
1.​ Certification of Films
2.​ Prescribe Age Restrictions on Movies Exhibited
3.​ Certifying Foreign and Dubbed Movies
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)Only 1 and 2
B)Only 2 and 3
C)Only 1 and 3
D)1 , 2 and 3

51.D
●​ CBFC Full Form: Central Board of Film Certification

●​ Mandate: The CBFC has been mandated to regulate the public

exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act

1952.

○​ Films can be screened in cinemas and on television only after

certification by the board and edited.

●​ Formation: After the production of India’s first film Raja

Harishchandra, the Indian Cinematograph Act came into existence.

○​ Initially, the censor bodies were independent under the police

chiefs of the cities of Madras, Bombay, Calcutta, Lahore, and

Rangoon.

____________ _____________________
 ○​ After India’s independence, autonomous regional censors were

absorbed into the Bombay Board of Film Censors.

○​ The Bombay board was reorganized into the Central Board of

Film Censors after the passing of the Cinematograph Act of

1952.

○​ After revision of cinematography rules in 1983, the Central

Board of Film Certification came into existence.

CBFC: Its Structure and Composition

●​ Members: The board is made up of a chairperson and 23 members,

all of whom are appointed by the central government. The current

chairperson of CBFC is Prasoon Joshi.

●​ Qualifications: Members of the board are chosen from the fields of

social science, education, law, the arts, and filmmaking.

CBFC: Its Powers

●​ Powers to Certify: The CBFC has been given powers under the act to

certify films under four categories. It includes U, A, U/A and S. the

board can also refuse to certify a film under conditions such as:

○​ If the film glorifies anti-social activities;

○​ If the film contains criminal activities;

○​ If children are involved in violent acts or abuse;

○​ If the film ridicules the physically or mentally handicapped;

____________ _____________________
 ○​ If the film contains scenes that encourage alcohol

consumption, drug addiction or smoking;

○​ If the film contains scenes that depict sexual violence and

obscenity;

○​ If the film degrades race, religion or other social group;

○​ If the film hampers India’s sovereignty and integrity or affects

relations with a foreign nation;

CBFC: Its Functions

●​ Certification of Films: Before releasing a film for the consumption of

audiences, it must be considered appropriate. For that purpose, the

CBFC has been set up as a certifying body.

●​ Prescribe Age Restrictions on Movies Exhibited: The CBFC prescribes

the age group of people who can watch the movie.

●​ Certifying Foreign and Dubbed Movies: The CBFC not just certifies

films belonging to a particular language, but also those belonging to

foreign countries and different languages.

CBFC: Its Criticism

●​ Bribery for Certificate: There have been instances where film

producers have bribed the CBFC to obtain a UA certificate, which

entitles them to a 30-percent discount in entertainment tax.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Leaking of Movie: Many filmmakers have accused CBFC of

purposefully leaking movies on illegal streaming sites for their

criticisms against working of CBFC.

●​ Political Interference: CBFC has often acted as an extension of the

government body by opposing movies or scenes that do not confer

with the views of the government.

●​ Attack on freedom of Expression: Many filmmakers have accused

CBFC of violating their freedom of expression by demanding cuts,

thereby hampering the essence of the movie.

●​ Lack of Transparency: There is not clear transparency on the

functioning of the CBFC when it comes to certifying films.

Categories of Certification by CBFC

●​ U – Unrestricted public exhibition with family-friendly movies.

These contain universal themes like education, family, drama,

romance, sci-fi, action etc. They can also contain some form of mild
violence;

●​ A – Restricted to adult audiences but nudity is not allowed. They

may contain strong violence, explicit and strong sexual scenes and
abusive language.

●​ U/A – Unrestricted public exhibition, with parental guidance for

children under 12. They may contain moderate to strong violence,

moderate sexual scenes, frightening scenes, blood flow, or muted
abusive language.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ S – Restricted to specialized audiences, such as doctors or scientists.

They cannot be viewed in public.

About Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT)

●​ About: FCAT was set up under the Ministry of Information and

Broadcasting as per Section 5(D) of the Cinematograph Act, 1952, to

hear appeals filed by applicants aggrieved by any order of the
Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).

●​ Appeal Process: The aggrieved person needs to file an appeal within

30 days from the date of the CBFC order. Following the appeal, the
CBFC carries out a second review of the film.

●​ Members: The FCAT is headed by a chairperson, who is generally a

retired Supreme Court judge. The chairperson is assisted by other

members.

●​ Abolition: The FCAT was abolished through the Tribunals Reforms

(Rationalisation and Conditions of Service) Ordinance, 2021.

○​ Through the amendment, the term “Tribunal” has been

replaced with the term “High Court” in various sections of the

Cinematograph Act.

○​ Filmmakers aggrieved with the decisions of the CBFC are now

required to approach the High Court. However, this move has

not been viewed favorably by the film fraternity.

____________ _____________________
What is the case of Gujarat riots?
●​ In 2002, a coach of the Sabarmati Express was returning with
passengers from the Ram Janmabhoomi (a politically disputed site).
●​ It was reported to be set ablaze near Godhra railway station by a
mob consisting of people from the Muslim community.
●​ As many as 59 Hindu devotees, including children, were charred to
death in the train attack.
●​ A retaliatory bloodbath followed in many parts of the state.
●​ Instead of isolating those Muslim criminals who attacked the train
and punishing them legally, the state government allowed revenge
killings.

What is the Zakia Jafri protest petition about?

●​ Congress MP, Ehsan Jafri, was brutally slain in the Gulberg Society
massacre, a day after the Sabarmati express was torched in Godhra.
●​ Zakia, Ehsan Jafri’s wife, filed a complaint against top officials,
bureaucrats and some ministers, including the then Chief Minister
of Gujarat, Narendra Modi, alleging inaction.
●​ As the State police did not take any action, Zakia approached the
Gujarat High Court seeking the complaint to be treated as an FIR but
the court dismissed the petition.
●​ The dismissal by the High Court was challenged before the Apex
Court.
●​ The Supreme Court constituted a Special Investigation Team (SIT) to
investigate some cases of the 2002 riots.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ In 2012, the SIT had presented the final report before the concerned
Metropolitan Magistrate.
●​ The SIT has not found any conspiracy, linking acts of arson and
looting or outrageous claims made in sting operations or individual
utterances/publications of purported hate speech.

What commissions were constituted to investigate the case?

●​ Nanavati Commission- A Commission of Inquiry (Nanavati
Commission) was constituted by the Gujarat government headed by
then Chief Minister Narendra Modi.
●​ The final report of the Nanavati Commission submitted in 2008
described the train burning as a conspiracy.
●​ Banerjee commission- The UPA government set up a separate
inquiry commission headed by Justice UC Banerjee, who in his
report submitted in 2006, called the incident to be an accident.
●​ The Supreme Court rejected the report as unconstitutional and
invalid.
●​ Special Investigation Team (SIT) - The Supreme Court constituted a
SIT that concurred with the charges of the prosecution that this was
not an incident of unplanned mob outrage and rather it involved
conspiracy.

What was the SC’s verdict on the Zakia Jafri protest petition?
●​ Inaction of officials- The court held that the inaction of some
officials of one section of the State administration cannot be the

____________ _____________________
 basis to infer a pre-planned criminal conspiracy by the State
government.
●​ Lack of evidence- There is no evidence of the bureaucrats,
politicians or the state political establishment for hatching a larger
criminal conspiracy to precipitate mass violence against the
minority community.
●​ SIT report- The court further upheld the report of the Special
Investigation Team (SIT) and rejected the protest petition filed by
Zakia Jafri.
●​ False claims- The court also said the SIT probe has exposed the
falsity of claims made by disgruntled officials of Gujarat and said
that all those involved in abuse of process need to be in the dock.

52.Which of the following is recognized as India’s 58th Tiger Reserve?

A.​Madhav Tiger Reserve, Madhya Pradesh

B.​ Pench Tiger Reserve, Maharashtra
C.​ Guru Ghasidas National Park, Chhattisgarh
D.​Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan

52.A

____________ _____________________
As of March 2025, India has designated 58 protected areas as tiger
reserves, covering approximately 82,836.44 square kilometres. These
reserves play a crucial role in conserving the country’s tiger population,
which, as of 2023, stands at around 3,682 individuals—nearly 75% of the
global wild tiger population. Read this article to get the complete details
about the List of Tiger Reserves in India.

____________ _____________________
Tiger Reserves in India
Project Tiger managed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA) looks at 58 tiger reserves in India. India is home to 80% of the
world’s tigers. According to the Wild Life Protection Act of 1972, the state
government must declare an area as a Tiger Reserve if the NTCA
recommends it. The state must accept this recommendation.

The boundaries of a tiger reserve cannot be changed without approval

from the National Board for Wild Life and the NTCA. A state government
cannot remove the status of a tiger reserve unless it is in the public
interest and approved by both the National Board for Wild Life and the
NTCA.

Critical Tiger Habitats (CTH), also called the core areas of tiger reserves,
are protected under the Wild Life Protection Act. These areas must be
kept safe for tigers while respecting the rights of local tribes and forest
dwellers. The state government decides these areas after consulting
experts.

Project Tiger
Project Tiger was started to protect tigers in India as their numbers were
declining.The project focuses on ensuring that tiger habitats are
preserved and that tree-cutting is avoided. As India’s national animal, it
is important to safeguard tigers and their environment.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Project Tiger began on 1 April 1973, in Jim Corbett National Park,
Uttarakhand, under Indira Gandhi’s leadership.
●​ The main goal is to save the Royal Bengal Tiger from extinction.
●​ The project has successfully increased the tiger population from
around 1200 to about 5000.
●​ New reserves added to the project include Dholpur-Karauli and
Veerangna Durgavati
National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body
under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change,
Government of India. It was set up in 2005 to protect tigers and their
habitats in India. The NTCA is responsible for:

●​ Formulating and implementing the National Tiger Conservation

Strategy and Action Plan (NTCS&AP)
●​ Overseeing the management of tiger reserves
●​ Researching tigers and their habitat
●​ Raising awareness about tiger conservation.

Tiger Census 2022

In the 2022 tiger census, India’s tiger population increased to 3682 from
2967 in 2018. The Wildlife Institute of India reports that the upper limit
of the tiger population is 3925, with an average of 3682 tigers, showing a
6.1% annual growth rate.

____________ _____________________
Tiger Census 2022
●​ The tiger population increased from 1758 areas of 100 km² in 2018
to 1792 in 2022.
●​ 3080 unique tigers were photographed in 2022 up from 2461 in
2018.
●​ Five states (Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttarakhand,
Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu) each have more than 300 tigers.
●​ Eight states have more than 200 tigers.
●​ There has been a decline in tiger occupancy in the Western Ghats,
especially in the Wayanad landscape and the Biligiriranga Hills.

53.Who became the first female and first African President of the
International Olympic Committee (IOC) on March 20, 2025?
A.​Thomas Bach
B.​ Kirsty Coventry
C.​ Sebastian Coe
D.​Anita DeFrantz

53.B

Kirsty Coventry: First Female and African President of the IOC

On March 20, 2025, Kirsty Coventry, an iconic swimmer from Zimbabwe,
made history by becoming the first woman and the first African to be
elected as the President of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

____________ _____________________
This landmark appointment marks a major step toward inclusivity and
representation in global sports leadership.

Kirsty Coventry is best known for her remarkable swimming career,

where she won seven Olympic medals for Zimbabwe, including two
golds, four silvers, and one bronze, making her one of Africa’s most
decorated Olympians. After her athletic career, Coventry moved into
sports administration, serving as Zimbabwe’s Minister of Youth, Sport,
Arts and Recreation, and chairing the IOC Athletes' Commission.

Her elevation to the IOC presidency symbolizes a breaking of both

gender and continental barriers in one of the world’s most influential
sporting bodies, traditionally led by European men since its inception.
Coventry’s leadership is expected to emphasize athlete welfare, global
sports development, environmental sustainability, and further
promotion of the Olympic values of unity and diversity.
This historic election also signals Africa’s rising profile in international
sports diplomacy and the growing recognition of the continent’s
contributions to the Olympic movement.

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) is the supreme governing

body responsible for overseeing the global Olympic movement. Founded
in 1894 by Pierre de Coubertin, the IOC's primary objective is to organize
the modern Olympic Games, which occur every four years.

____________ _____________________
The IOC is based in Lausanne, Switzerland, and it consists of over 100
members who represent various National Olympic Committees (NOCs)
from around the world. The committee is tasked with ensuring that the
Olympic Games maintain their ideals of sportsmanship, fairness, and
peace through sport.

The IOC's role is extensive and multifaceted. It is involved in selecting

the host cities for the Olympic Games, managing the bidding process, and
providing logistical support for the Games. Additionally, the IOC is
responsible for promoting the Olympic values of excellence, friendship,
and respect, while working to ensure that the Games remain a symbol of
unity and international cooperation. The committee also plays a
significant role in funding and supporting athletes, ensuring that the
Games are accessible to people worldwide and that the sport remains a
beacon of inspiration for young people globally.

Beyond the Olympics, the IOC is responsible for fostering the

development of sport worldwide and supporting the programs and
activities of various international sports federations. It also works closely
with various organizations to combat issues like doping, corruption, and
unethical practices within the sports community. The IOC is a highly
influential entity in the world of sports, and its decisions have
far-reaching impacts, shaping the landscape of global athletics,
promoting global peace, and advocating for inclusion and equality in
sport.

____________ _____________________
In recent years, the IOC has expanded its focus on gender equality,
environmental sustainability, and the inclusion of marginalized
communities in sports. A landmark event occurred in March 2025, when
Kirsty Coventry of Zimbabwe became the first female and first African
president of the IOC, marking a significant shift toward greater diversity
and representation within the organization. Her leadership reflects a
new chapter for the IOC, one that is committed to furthering equality,
sustainability, and the universal values of sport across the globe.

54.Who are the current members of the Kerala Lok Ayukta as of April 2025?​
A) Justice N. Anil Kumar (Lok Ayukta) and Justice Ashok Menon (Upa
LokAyukta)
B) Justice N. Anil Kumar (Lok Ayukta) and Justice Shircy V. (Upa LokAyukta)
C) Justice Cyriac Joseph (Lok Ayukta) and Justice Babu Mathew P. Joseph
(Upa LokAyukta)
D) Justice Pius C. Kuriakose (Lok Ayukta) and Justice A. K. Basheer (Upa
LokAyukta)

54.B
Court of Kerala Lok Ayukta
The LokAyukta under the Kerala Lok Ayukta Act, 1999 (Act 8 of 1999) has
been constituted for investigating into the allegations of corruption and
mal-administration against public servants and for the speedy redressal
of grievances of the public.

____________ _____________________
 Property Statement of Public Servants
The Act also provides that all public servants are
required to submit their statements of assets and
liabilities, besides the statements in respect of those
of the members of their family, once in two years,
before the competent authority, in the forms
prescribed by the Rules.

​As of April 2025, the Kerala Lok Ayukta comprises:​

Justice N. Anil Kumar – Lok Ayukta​
Justice Shircy V. – Upa Lok Ayukta​

Additionally, Justice Ashok Menon has been

appointed as an Upa LokAyukta, pending the
acceptance of his resignation from the Central
Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal by the President
of India.

What is Lokayukta?
The Lokayukta is the Indian Parliamentary
Ombudsman, executed into power, through and for,
each of the State Governments of India.
It is an anti-corruption authority. The object of the
Lokayukta system in a state is to investigate
grievances, allegations against public servants.

____________ _____________________
Origin:
The origin of the Lokayukta can be drawn to the Ombudsman in
Scandinavian countries.
In India, the Administrative Reforms Commission, (1966-70), had
recommended the creation of the Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayukta in
the states.
Before the passing of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act in 2013, several
states in India passed laws for creating the Institution of 'Lokayukta'.
Maharashtra was first in this respect with its Lokayukta body established
in 1971.

Appointment:
The lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the Governor of the
state. While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults (a)
the chief justice of the state high court, and (b) the leader of Opposition
in the state legislative assembly.

Tenure:
In most of the states, the term of office fixed for lokayukta is of 5 years
duration or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. He is not eligible for
reappointment for a second term.

____________ _____________________
55.Consider the statements on Kerala's first hydrogen fuel cell bus:

1.​ Kerala launched its first hydrogen fuel cell bus at Cochin
International Airport (CIAL) as part of a three-year Proof of
Concept (PoC) project.
2.​ The hydrogen fuel cell bus project in Kerala is being
implemented in collaboration with BPCL, EKA Mobility, and
KPIT Technologies.

A) Both statements are true.

B) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
C) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
D) Both statements are false.

55.A
​Kerala has introduced its first hydrogen fuel cell bus, marking a
significant step toward sustainable transportation. This 9-meter bus,
designed to accommodate over 30 passengers, was launched at Cochin
International Airport (CIAL) as part of a three-year Proof of Concept
(PoC) project .​

The initiative is a collaboration between EKA Mobility, KPIT

Technologies, and Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL). EKA
Mobility provided the electric bus platform, while KPIT developed the
hydrogen fuel cell technology.

____________ _____________________
BPCL established the hydrogen production, dispensing, and refueling
infrastructure in Kochi, supporting the project's feasibility and future
scalability .​

The hydrogen fuel cell bus was showcased at the Global Hydrogen &
Renewable Energy Summit held in Kochi on March 12 and 13, 2025. The
state’s first green hydrogen production facility and refueling station,
currently under construction near the airport in Nedumbassery, is
expected to be completed soon. According to BPCL officials, nearly 70%
of the work has been completed, with final installations underway .​

This project is part of India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, with

Kerala selected for pilot projects involving hydrogen-fueled buses and
refueling stations. The Thiruvananthapuram–Kochi and
Cochin–Edappally routes in Kerala are among the selected corridors for
these trials .​

The introduction of the hydrogen fuel cell bus aligns with Kerala's goal
to achieve 'net zero-carbon' status by 2050, contributing to the state's
commitment to sustainable and clean energy solutions.

____________ _____________________
56. Who was awarded the 59th Jnanpith Award in 2025?​
A) Gulzar​
B) Vinod Kumar Shukla​
C) Amitav Ghosh​
D) Raghuveer Chaudhari​

56.B
​The 59th Jnanpith Award, India's highest literary honor, was conferred
upon Vinod Kumar Shukla, a distinguished Hindi writer, poet, and
essayist, on March 22, 2025. At 88 years old, Shukla becomes the first
author from Chhattisgarh to receive this prestigious award and the 12th
Hindi writer to be honored with it. ​

About Vinod Kumar Shukla:

Born: January 1, 1937, in Rajnandgaon, Chhattisgarh.​
Notable Works:
Naukar Ki Kameez (1979) – a novel adapted into a film by Mani Kaul.
Deewar Mein Ek Khirkee Rahati Thi (A Window Lived in a Wall) – a
novel that won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1999.
Sab Kuch Hona Bacha Rahega (1992) – a collection of poems.​

Writing Style: Known for his distinctive blend of magical realism and
philosophical reflections, Shukla's works often explore the complexities
of ordinary lives, transforming the mundane into the extraordinary. ​

____________ _____________________
The Jnanpith Award includes a cash prize of ₹11 lakh, a bronze statue of
Saraswati (the Hindu goddess of learning), and a citation. The selection
was made by the Jnanpith Selection Committee, chaired by renowned
storyteller and Jnanpith awardee Pratibha Ray. ​

Shukla's recognition underscores his significant contribution to Hindi

literature and highlights the rich literary heritage of Chhattisgarh.​

The Jnanpith Award is India's oldest and highest literary award. It's
given annually to an author for their "outstanding contribution towards
literature". The award was established in 1961 and first awarded in 1965.
The Award considers both English and other Indian languages. However,
eligibility is restricted to Indian citizens. It is not given posthumously.

It is presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith to recognize outstanding

contributions to Indian literature. Bharatiya Jnanpith, established in
1944 by Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain and his wife Rama Jain, is a prestigious
literary and research organization headquartered in New Delhi, India.
It is renowned for nurturing literature and culture, it has been actively
promoting literary endeavours such as awards, publications, fellowships,
and research for several decades.

Cash Prize and Recognition:

Awardees receive a cash prize of Rs 11 lakh, a statue of Vagdevi, and a
citation, honouring their literary achievements.

____________ _____________________
58th Jnanpith Award (2024)
Recipients: Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya
Languages: Urdu and Sanskrit
Notable Achievement: This was the second time the award was conferred
for Sanskrit literature and the fifth time for Urdu literature. ​

57th Jnanpith Award (2022)

Recipient: Damodar Mauzo
Language: Konkani
Notable Achievement: A prominent short story writer, novelist, and critic
in Konkani literature. ​

56th Jnanpith Award (2021)

Recipient: Nilamani Phookan
Language: Assamese
Notable Achievement: An acclaimed poet and scholar, recognized for his
significant contributions to Assamese literature. ​

55th Jnanpith Award (2020)

Recipient: Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
Language: Malayalam
Notable Achievement: A renowned poet, honored for his outstanding
contribution to Malayalam

____________ _____________________
57.Which railway station in Kannur district became Kerala’s first fully
green railway station?

A.​Kannur Railway Station

B.​ Kannapuram Railway Station
C.​ Payyanur Railway Station
D.​Thalassery Railway Station

57.B

Kannapuram Railway Station in Kannur district has earned the

distinction of becoming Kerala’s first fully green railway station. This
achievement reflects Indian Railways' growing emphasis on sustainable
development and environmental conservation. The station has
implemented several eco-friendly measures, including the use of solar
power, LED lighting, energy-efficient equipment, and rainwater
harvesting systems.

The green certification was granted based on parameters such as waste

management, energy conservation, water recycling, and the creation of a
green cover around the station premises. This initiative is part of Indian
Railways' broader commitment to reduce its carbon footprint and
promote clean energy in public infrastructure, aligning with national
goals for sustainable growth and climate action.

____________ _____________________
58.Consider the following statements regarding the Sanchar Saathi
Mobile App:
1.​ The Sanchar Saathi App helps users block lost or stolen mobile
phones and prevent their misuse.
2.​ The app has been developed and launched by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

58.A
The app was developed and launched by the Department of
Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications, not
the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

The Sanchar Saathi initiative is a citizen-centric platform launched by

the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of
Communications, Government of India. It aims to enhance mobile
security, combat fraud, and empower users to manage their mobile
connections effectively. Launched in May 2023, it is accessible through
both a web portal and a mobile application.​

____________ _____________________
Key Features of Sanchar Saathi
1. Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR)
This module allows users to:
Block and trace lost or stolen mobile phones across telecom networks.
Unblock devices if recovered, facilitating their reuse.
Protect personal data by preventing unauthorized access to lost devices.​

2. Telecom Analytics for Fraud Management and Consumer Protection

(TAFCOP)
●​ TAFCOP enables users to:Monitor all mobile connections registered
under their name.
●​ Identify and disconnect unauthorized or unnecessary connections,
thereby preventing misuse.​

3. Know Your Mobile (KYM)

This feature allows users to:
Verify the authenticity of mobile handsets by checking their IMEI
numbers.
Ensure the genuineness of new or used devices before purchase.​

4. Chakshu – Report Suspected Fraud Calls/SMS

Users can:Report fraudulent communications directly from their call or
SMS logs.Automatically fetch and report suspicious calls/SMS, aiding in
swift action against telecom fraud.​

____________ _____________________
Sanchar Saathi Mobile App
●​ Available for both Android and iOS platforms, the Sanchar Saathi
app offers:
●​ Seamless integration with device call/SMS logs for easy reporting of
fraudulent activities.
●​ Real-time updates on the status of lost or stolen devices.
●​ User-friendly interface for managing mobile connections and
verifying device authenticity.​
●​ The app requires permissions for call/SMS logs, camera access for
IMEI scanning, and file uploads for reporting purposes. ​

59.Who constructed the New Pamban Bridge?

A) Indian Railways
B) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
C) Larsen & Toubro
D) Indian Engineering Services

59.B

The New Pamban Bridge, inaugurated on April 6, 2025, is India's first

vertical lift railway sea bridge, connecting Rameswaram Island to the
mainland near Mandapam in Tamil Nadu. This 2.07-kilometer-long
bridge spans the Palk Strait, replacing the century-old Pamban Bridge
that had been in service since 1914.

____________ _____________________
The bridge features a vertical lift mechanism, where the central span can
be lifted vertically by up to 22 meters in approximately five minutes,
allowing maritime traffic to pass beneath. This design minimizes
disruption to train services and enhances navigability in the region. The
bridge's structural specifications include a total length of 2.07 kilometers,
a central span of 72.5 meters, and a track capacity designed to support
two railway tracks (currently operational with a single track). The
construction cost amounted to ₹550 crore (approximately ₹5.5 billion),
and the bridge is expected to have a lifespan of 100 years. The project
was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a public sector
undertaking under the Ministry of Railways.

The New Pamban Bridge holds significant importance by enhancing

connectivity between Rameswaram and the mainland, benefiting
pilgrims, tourists, and local communities. The bridge is also expected to
stimulate tourism, trade, and overall economic growth in the region.
Additionally, it marks the modernization of infrastructure, as it
incorporates advanced engineering techniques to ensure durability and
safety in a challenging marine environment prone to corrosion and
cyclonic activity.

This cutting-edge bridge marks a significant step in India's infrastructure

development, ensuring better and more efficient transport for the
coming decades.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
60.Where is Kerala's first extradosed cable-stayed bridge located?

A) Alappuzha

B) Kozhikode

C) Kochi

D) Thiruvananthapuram

60.A

The Naluchira Bridge, spanning the Karuvatta Leading Channel near

Thottappally in Alappuzha, Kerala, is the state’s first extradosed
cable-stayed bridge. This bridge, which was completed at a cost of ₹60.73
crore, is set to significantly improve regional connectivity.

____________ _____________________
It has a total length of 458 meters and a width of 10.5 meters, with a
central span of 70 meters that allows for uninterrupted passage. The
bridge also features additional spans ranging from 12 to 42 meters and
pedestrian access with 1.5-meter-wide footpaths on both sides.

It uses advanced construction technology, including pre-stressed box

girders and a cable-stayed design, ensuring both durability and
efficiency. The bridge’s construction commenced in 2020 after being
allocated funds in the 2016–17 budget. It was funded by the Kerala
Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB) and is expected to be fully
operational by March 2025.

Strategically, the bridge connects the Ambalappuzha–Thiruvalla State

Highway to National Highway 66, replacing the older ferry services and
facilitating smoother travel between Ambalappuzha and Kuttanad
constituencies. Additionally, it will improve road access for the residents
of Naluchira and Illichira.

A bypass connecting Karumadikuttan Mandapam to Thottappally

Kottaravalavu is also under construction to further enhance
connectivity.

____________ _____________________
61.Operation Brahma was launched by India in response to which of
the following events?
A) A terror attack in Myanmar
B) A 7.7-magnitude earthquake in Myanmar
C) A cyclone that hit the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
D) Floods in Northeast India

61.B

Operation Brahma is India’s large-scale humanitarian mission launched

in response to the devastating 7.7-magnitude earthquake that struck
Myanmar on March 28, 2025. The earthquake, which also impacted
neighboring Thailand, killed over 1,600 people and caused widespread
destruction, severely affecting civilian infrastructure and overwhelming
Myanmar’s healthcare system. As part of the relief effort, India quickly
mobilized comprehensive assistance, including rescue teams, medical
aid, and relief supplies.

The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) deployed an 80-member

team equipped with specialized tools such as concrete cutters, drill
machines, plasma cutters, and other advanced rescue equipment to
assist in search and rescue operations. Alongside them, the Indian Army
dispatched a specialized 118-member medical team drawn from the elite
Shatrujeet Brigade Medical Responders to provide urgent humanitarian
assistance.

____________ _____________________
A critical component of the mission is the establishment of a 60-bed
Medical Treatment Centre, designed to offer immediate trauma care,
emergency surgeries, and essential medical services to support
Myanmar’s strained healthcare system. Additionally, the Indian Navy
sent two warships — INS Satpura and INS Savitri — carrying 40 tonnes
of humanitarian aid to the port of Yangon, ensuring quick delivery of
essential supplies such as food, medicine, and relief materials. Operation
Brahma highlights India’s commitment to regional solidarity and
humanitarian outreach in times of crisis.

Operation Name Year Context Objective

Operation 2020 COVID-19 pandemic Evacuate Indians stranded

Samudra Setu abroad by sea

Vande Bharat 2020–20 COVID-19 global lockdown Repatriation of stranded Indians

Mission 21 by air

Operation Devi 2021 Taliban takeover in Evacuate Indian nationals and

Shakti Afghanistan Afghan allies

Operation Ganga 2022 Russia-Ukraine War Evacuate Indian students and

citizens from Ukraine

Operation Dost 2023 Earthquake in Turkey and Provide rescue teams, medical
Syria aid, and supplies

Operation 2023 Cyclone Mocha, Myanmar Deliver humanitarian aid and

Karuna & Bangladesh relief supplies

Operation 2025 7.7-magnitude earthquake Rescue, medical aid, and relief

Brahma in Myanmar supplies

____________ _____________________
62.Consider the following statements about the Abel Prize 2025:

1.​ The Abel Prize 2025 was awarded to Japanese mathematician

Masaki Kashiwara for his contributions to algebraic analysis and
the theory of D-modules.
2.​ The Abel Prize is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of
Sciences.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Only 2
B) Only 1
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

62.B

The Abel Prize is awarded by the Norwegian Academy of Science and

Letters, not the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences.
The Abel Prize for 2025 has been awarded to Masaki Kashiwara, a
renowned Japanese mathematician, for his pioneering contributions to
algebraic analysis and the development of the theory of D-modules.
Kashiwara’s work has had a profound influence on modern
mathematics, particularly in the fields of algebraic geometry,
representation theory, and mathematical physics.

____________ _____________________
His research helped unify diverse mathematical theories and opened
new avenues for the understanding of linear partial differential
equations using algebraic methods. Kashiwara is especially celebrated
for his role in founding the field of algebraic analysis, a sophisticated
blend of algebra, geometry, and analysis, and for advancing the
mathematical framework that underpins various areas of both pure and
applied mathematics.
The Abel Prize, often considered the equivalent of the Nobel Prize in
Mathematics, is awarded annually by the Norwegian Academy of Science
and Letters to honor outstanding scientific achievements in the field of
mathematics.
The Abel Prize 2024 was awarded to Michel Talagrand, a French
mathematician, for his groundbreaking work in probability theory and
functional analysis.

The Abel Prize 2023 was awarded to Argentine-American mathematician

Luis Caffarelli for his pioneering contributions to the theory of partial
differential equations

____________ _____________________
63.Which country was the "Country of Focus" at the 55th International
Film Festival of India (IFFI) in 2024?

A) France

B) Japan​
C) Australia​
D) Germany

63.C

The 55th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) was held from
November 20 to 28, 2024, at the Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Indoor
Stadium in Panaji, Goa. This prestigious event, organized by the Ministry
of Information and Broadcasting, showcased over 180 international films
from 81 countries, including 15 world premieres. The festival's theme,
"Young Filmmakers – The Future is Now", emphasized the importance of
nurturing emerging talent in the cinematic world. ​

A significant addition to this year's festival was the introduction of the

Best Debut Director of Indian Feature Film award, accompanied by a
cash prize of ₹5 lakh, aimed at encouraging fresh voices in Indian
cinema. ​
The festival commenced with the Australian film "Better Man" directed
by Michael Gracey and concluded with the Czech film "Dry Season" by
Bohdan Sláma. In the competition segment, Lithuanian drama "Toxic"
won the coveted Golden Peacock Award.

____________ _____________________
The Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award was presented to Phillip
Noyce, an esteemed Australian filmmaker, in recognition of his
outstanding contributions to cinema. Additionally, Vikrant Massey was
honored with the Indian Film Personality of the Year Award.
Australia was designated as the "Country of Focus", with seven
Australian films highlighting the nation's rich storytelling traditions,
including indigenous and contemporary narratives.

​The festival also paid tribute to the centenary celebrations of four

legendary figures in Indian cinema: actor-director Raj Kapoor, filmmaker
Tapan Sinha, Telugu star Akkineni Nageswara Rao, and singer
Mohammed Rafi, through a dedicated tribute program.

​The International Film Festival of India (IFFI) is one of Asia's oldest and
most prestigious film festivals, held annually in Goa since its inception in
1952. Over the years, IFFI has evolved into a significant platform for
showcasing global cinematic excellence, fostering cultural exchange, and
celebrating the art of filmmaking.​
Themes of IFFI
In recent editions, IFFI has embraced themes that reflect the dynamic
nature of global cinema:​

2024 (55th Edition): The theme was “Young Filmmakers: The Future is
Now”, emphasizing the importance of emerging voices in shaping the
future of global cinema. This edition introduced the Best Debut Director

____________ _____________________
of Indian Feature Film award to recognize young filmmaking talent from
India.

​2023 (54th Edition): The festival showcased over 270 films and
introduced the Best Web Series (OTT) Award, acknowledging the growing
influence of digital platforms in storytelling.

​2022 (53rd Edition): Held in a hybrid format due to the pandemic, this
edition paid tribute to the legendary filmmaker Satyajit Ray on his birth
centenary with a special retrospective of his films.

2021 (52nd Edition): Also conducted in a hybrid format, this edition

featured a Special Retrospective of 11 curated films to honor Satyajit
Ray's legacy.

​2020 (51st Edition): The festival adapted to the challenges posed by the
COVID-19 pandemic by incorporating virtual screenings and discussions,
ensuring the continuity of cultural exchange.​

Each year's theme reflects IFFI's commitment to adapting to the evolving

landscape of global cinema, celebrating both traditional storytelling and
innovative digital narratives.​

____________ _____________________
64.Which word was chosen as the Oxford Word of the Year 2024?

A) Brain rot​
B) Goblin mode​
C) Vax​
D) Rizz

64.A

Oxford University Press has named "brain rot" the Word of the Year for
2024. This term refers to the perceived deterioration of a person's mental
or intellectual state due to the overconsumption of trivial or
unchallenging online content, particularly on social media. The phrase
gained notable prominence throughout the year, influencing its
selection. Historically, "brain rot" was first used by Henry David Thoreau
in his book Walden in 1854.

Oxford Word of the Year:

2024: "Brain rot"

Meaning: Refers to the perceived mental deterioration caused by

overconsuming trivial or unchallenging content, especially on social
media.

Context: It highlights concerns about the negative impacts of excessive

online engagement, where users are exposed to shallow or low-quality
content, affecting their mental state.

____________ _____________________
2023: "Rizz"

Meaning: A slang term for charm or charisma, particularly in romantic

contexts.

Context: The word gained popularity through social media platforms,

referring to someone’s ability to attract or impress others, especially in
terms of romantic or flirtatious interactions.

2022: "Goblin mode"

Meaning: Describes a self-indulgent, lazy, and slovenly behavior that

rejects social norms and expectations.

Context: This term was popularized during the pandemic when people
embraced a carefree, unapologetic approach to life, especially in
rejecting the societal pressures of productivity.

Collins Word of the Year:

2024: "Brat"

Meaning: A term used to describe someone, particularly a young person,

who exhibits a rebellious, carefree attitude, often associated with social
media culture.

Context: Popularized by the album "Guts" by Olivia Rodrigo, where the

term symbolizes defiance and individualism, often used in a playful or
rebellious sense.

____________ _____________________
2023: "Permacrisis"

Meaning: Describes a prolonged period of instability and crisis, where

one crisis seems to follow another, creating a sense of continuous
turmoil.

Context: It reflects the global state of uncertainty and unpredictability,

covering issues like the COVID-19 pandemic, climate change, and
political unrest.

2022: "Climavore"

Meaning: Refers to a person who chooses their diet based on the

environmental impact of food production, particularly to reduce climate
change.

Context: Reflecting growing awareness about the climate crisis, people

increasingly adopt diets that are sustainable and reduce their carbon
footprint.

Cambridge Word of the Year:

2024: "Manifest"

Meaning: The act of making something real or visible, often through

intentional thoughts or actions.

Context: Reflects a growing interest in the idea of manifestation, where

people believe that positive thinking and visualization can bring their
desires or goals into reality.

____________ _____________________
2023: "Homer"

Meaning: A slang term for a person who frequently makes mistakes,

especially in a comical or unintended manner, based on the character
Homer Simpson from The Simpsons.

Context: This word became widely popular after social media trends,
where people humorously referred to themselves as "homering" when
making mistakes or blunders.

2022: "Permaculture"

Meaning: A system of agricultural and social design principles that aim

to create sustainable and self-sufficient environments.

Context: Reflects the increasing interest in sustainable living, especially

as environmental concerns grow, and people strive to live in harmony
with nature.

65.What is the theme for World AIDS Day 2024?

A) End AIDS: Make it Happen

B) My Health, My Right

C) Take the Rights Path: My Health, My Right

D) Access for All: Zero AIDS

65.C

____________ _____________________
The theme for World AIDS Day 2024 was “Take the rights path: My
health, my right!” This theme emphasized the critical importance of
protecting human rights in the global effort to end AIDS as a public
health threat by 2030. It underscored that achieving this goal is not only
a matter of medical progress but also of ensuring that everyone,
especially marginalized and vulnerable populations, has access to HIV
prevention, treatment, and care without discrimination or stigma

The World Health Organization (WHO), in collaboration with partners

and communities, commemorated World AIDS Day on December 1, 2024,
under this theme. The WHO called on global leaders and citizens to
champion the right to health by addressing the inequalities that hinder
progress in ending AIDS. The organization emphasized that with human
rights at the center and communities in the lead, the world can end AIDS
as a public health threat by 2030

This theme aligned with the broader message from UNAIDS, which
released a report titled “Take the rights path to end AIDS” on November
26, 2024. The report highlighted that the world can meet the agreed goal
of ending AIDS as a public health threat by 2030—but only if leaders
protect the human rights of everyone living with and at risk of HIV. The
report emphasized that upholding human rights is essential for an
effective HIV response .​

____________ _____________________
HIV
●​ HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which is a virus
that attacks the immune system in the human body.
●​ It primarily targets and damages CD4 immune cells, which are
essential for the body's ability to fight infections and diseases.
●​ Over time, HIV weakens the immune system, leaving the body
vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Transmission:
●​ HIV is primarily spread through the exchange of certain bodily
fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk.
Severity:
●​ If left untreated, the virus destroys a person’s immune system and
they are said to be in the Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
stage (AIDS) where they get several opportunistic infections that
may result in death.
Cure:
●​ Although there are no cures for the infection at present, the
disease can be managed using antiretroviral therapy.
●​ These medicines suppress the replication of the virus within the
body, allowing the number of CD4 immune cells to bounce back.
An old man from Germany, referred to as the Dusseldorf patient, has
become at least the third person to have been “cured of HIV” with the
virus not being detectable in his body even four years after stopping the
medicine.This was achieved with a bone-marrow transplant from people
carrying a specific HIV-resistant genetic mutation.

____________ _____________________
66.Which of the following issues was highlighted in the Hema
Committee Report on the Malayalam film industry?
A) Over-emphasis on digital platforms in film distribution
B) Financial mismanagement of film productions
C) Lack of female representation in film festivals
D) Prevalence of the casting couch and sexual abuse

66.D
Recently, the Hema committee report on the Malayalam film industry
was released. It has revealed alarming instances of sexual abuse, gender
discrimination, and inhuman treatment of women in the Malayalam film
industry.

It was led by retired Kerala High Court judge Justice K Hema, with
members including veteran actor Sharada and retired IAS officer K B
Valsala Kumari.

What are the Key Issues Highlighted in the Report?

●​ Sexual Abuse: It include unwanted physical advances even before
commencing work, rape threats, code names for women who
would agree to compromise among other shameful acts.
●​ Casting Couch: The report highlights the prevalence of the casting
couch, where women are often forced to exchange sexual favours
for job opportunities.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Directors and producers often coerce female actors into making
compromises, with those who comply being termed "cooperating
artists."
●​ Women were forced to work with abusers, resulting in significant
emotional trauma.
●​ The casting couch is a euphemism for the practice of soliciting
sexual favours from a job applicant in exchange for employment in
the entertainment industry, primarily acting roles.
●​ Safety on Film Set: Many female film workers frequently bring
their parents or close relatives to the set due to fears of sexual
demands and harassment.
●​ Criminal Influence: The report indicates that the Malayalam film
industry is plagued by criminal influence.
●​ Many industry men, sometimes under the influence of liquor or
drugs, insistently knock the hotel doors of female artists, causing
significant distress.
●​ Fear of Consequences: Although such crimes are covered by the
Indian Penal Code and the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013,
women in the film industry are apprehensive about the
consequences of lodging an official complaint.
●​ The stigma surrounding sexual harassment, particularly for public
figures, frequently deters actors from reporting such incidents.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Cyberthreats: Online harassment poses a significant challenge for
women in cinema, with both female and male artists facing
cyberbullying, public threats, and defamation.
●​ Social media platforms become avenues for vulgar comments,
images, and videos, where female artists are especially targeted
with explicit and threatening messages.
●​ Inadequate Facilities: Female artists often refrain from drinking
water on set due to inadequate toilet facilities, especially in
outdoor locations.
●​ The situation worsens during menstruation when female artists
struggle significantly with changing or disposing of their sanitary
products.
●​ Inhumane Working Conditions: The junior artists lack a minimum
remuneration. Junior artists are in some cases “treated worse than
slaves” with work extending up to 19 hours. Intermediaries
misappropriate a good part of their payments, which are not given
on time.
What is the Legal Framework to Address Sexual Exploitation in the Film
Industry?
●​ Indian Penal Code, 1860 (now replaced as Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita): Sections 354 (assault or criminal force to woman with
intent to outrage her modesty), 354A (sexual harassment) and 509
(word, gesture, or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman)
deal with sexual offences.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013: This law mandates the
establishment of Internal Complaints Committees (ICC) in
workplaces to address complaints of sexual harassment.
●​ Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000: IT Act addresses the
publication and transmission of obscene material in electronic
form, which can include digital content in films.
●​ Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act, 2012:
This act specifically protects children from sexual exploitation and
abuse, including in the context of films.
●​ Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA): This act aims to
prevent trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation.

What are Key Recommendations of the Report?

●​ Internal Complaints Committee (ICC): It proposed the mandatory
establishment of the Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) under
the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013.
●​ It should include members from Film Employees Federation of
Kerala (FEFKA) and Association of Malayalam Movie Artists
(AMMA).
●​ Independent Tribunal Proposal: Some members advocated for an
independent tribunal to handle cases of harassment and
discrimination in the cinema industry.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ The report also advocated in-camera proceedings at the tribunal to
ensure complete privacy, with names being withheld from media
reports.
●​ Written Contracts: Signing written contracts to protect the interest
of all those who work in cinema should be made mandatory for all
categories of employees including coordinators of junior artists.
●​ Gender Awareness Training Program: It should be made
mandatory that all cast and crew attend a basic gender awareness
training program before starting the production work.
●​ Training materials could be made in both Malayalam and English
and can be made available online.
●​ Women in Producer Role: There should be adequate and timely
budgetary support to incentivize movies that are predicated on
gender justice both thematically and in the production process.
●​ A single-window system should be established to provide loans at
nominal interest rates for movies produced by women (not by
proxies of men) and to streamline permissions for shooting. This
will simplify production and encourage more women to enter the
film industry.

____________ _____________________
67.Which of the following statements about the Ujjeevanam
programme are correct?
1.​ The programme was launched by the Government of Kerala to
eradicate extreme poverty in the state.
2.​ It aims to uplift only the urban population of Kerala by
providing financial support.

A) Only 1 is correct
B) Only 2 is correct
C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

67.A

The Ujjeevanam programme is not focused only on the urban

population. It is a statewide initiative targeting 64,006 families living in
extreme poverty, including both rural and urban areas across Kerala.
The programme aims to uplift these families by providing sustainable
income opportunities and other support, regardless of their geographic
location.
The Ujjeevanam programme is a significant initiative by the Government
of Kerala, led by the Kudumbashree Mission, aimed at eradicating
extreme poverty in the state. Launched on October 25, 2023, this 100-day
livelihood campaign focuses on providing sustainable income

____________ _____________________
opportunities to the most vulnerable families identified through a
comprehensive survey.​

Key Objectives and Features:

Target Beneficiaries: The programme identified 64,006 families living in
extreme poverty across Kerala. The goal is to uplift 93% of these families
by November 1, 2024, with the remaining 7% to be supported by
November 1, 2025.

​Implementation Strategy: Local bodies and Kudumbashree teams

collaborate to conduct household visits, assess individual livelihood
needs, and design personalized micro-level plans. These plans include
training, financial assistance, and support for income-generating
activities. ​

Holistic Approach: The campaign adopts a multi-departmental approach,

integrating efforts from various government departments to provide
comprehensive support, including food security, healthcare, and skill
development. ​

Expected Outcome: By the end of the campaign, Kerala aims to become

the first state in India without residents living in extreme poverty,
setting a precedent for poverty eradication through community-driven
initiatives. ​

____________ _____________________
68.Which of the following statements about the 2023 G20 Summit
hosted by India are correct?
1.​ The summit achieved 100% consensus on the New Delhi
Declaration, focusing on climate action, sustainable
development, and multilateral cooperation.
2.​ The African Union was granted permanent membership at the
summit.

A) Only 1 is correct
B) Only 2 is correct
C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

68.C

India assumed the G20 Presidency from December 1, 2022, to November

30, 2023, marking a significant milestone as it hosted the 18th G20
Summit in New Delhi on September 9–10, 2023.

Theme: Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam – One Earth, One Family, One Future

Drawing inspiration from the ancient Sanskrit philosophy of Vasudhaiva
Kutumbakam, India emphasized global unity, sustainability, and
inclusive growth throughout its G20 Presidency.

____________ _____________________
Key Outcomes of the 2023 G20 Summit
African Union's Membership: The African Union was granted permanent
membership, enhancing the G20's representation of the Global South.

Consensus on the New Delhi Declaration: The summit achieved a 100%

consensus on the declaration, focusing on sustainable development,
climate action, and multilateral cooperation.

​
Climate and Energy Commitments: Leaders agreed to triple renewable
energy generation and pledged $5.9 trillion by 2030 to assist developing
nations in achieving clean energy goals. ​

Digital Infrastructure and AI: The summit highlighted the importance of

digital public infrastructure and the regulation of artificial intelligence
to foster equitable technological growth. ​

Ukraine Conflict: The declaration called for an end to the use of force but
did not explicitly name Russia, reflecting India's neutral stance amidst
geopolitical tensions. ​

____________ _____________________
India's Global Diplomacy and Domestic Impact
Prime Minister Narendra Modi utilized the G20 platform to project
India's leadership on the world stage, emphasizing multilateralism and
the concerns of the Global South. Domestically, the summit served as a
significant diplomatic achievement ahead of the 2024 national elections. ​

Transition of G20 Presidency

At the conclusion of the summit, Prime Minister Modi formally handed
over the G20 Presidency to Brazil, with President Luiz Inácio Lula da
Silva assuming the role on December 1, 2023.

The Group owes its origin to the Financial Crisis in 1997-98 of the Asian
Tigers (Countries of East and Southeast Asia), which caused its
establishment in 1999. It worked first as a forum for the Central Bank
Governors and Finance Ministers of the major industrialised and
developing economies to discuss global economic and financial stability.
Elevation to Leader’s Level: After the 2008 global financial crisis, it was
upgraded to the level of Heads of State or Government when it became
clear that crisis coordination would be possible only at the highest
political level.
In 2009, it was declared as the “premier forum for international
economic cooperation”.
The G20 Leaders have met on a regular basis since then, and the G20 has
emerged as the leading platform for global economic cooperation.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
69.Which of the following events marked the culmination of the Ram
Janmabhoomi movement?
1.​ The Supreme Court awarded the entire disputed land to Hindu
petitioners for the construction of the Ram temple in 2019.
2.​ The Shilanyas ceremony for the Ram temple was performed by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 22nd January 2024.

A) Only 2 is correct
B) Only 1 is correct
C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

69.B
In 2019, the Supreme Court of India gave its verdict in favor of Hindu
petitioners, granting them the entire disputed land for the construction
of the Ram Temple. This legal decision was one of the pivotal moments
in the culmination of the Ram Janmabhoomi movement.
The Shilanyas (foundation stone laying ceremony) for the Ram temple
was actually performed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 5th August
2020, not on 22nd January 2024. The 22nd January 2024 was the date
when the Ram temple was inaugurated after its completion.

The Ram Temple in Ayodhya, inaugurated on 22nd January 2024, marks

the culmination of a 200-year-old saga that has significantly impacted
India's socio-political landscape. The temple, built in the traditional

____________ _____________________
Nagara style of architecture, is a symbol of religious and cultural
significance, resonating deeply within India's history.

Timeline of the Ram Janmabhoomi Movement:

The Ram Janmabhoomi movement traces its origins to 1751, when the
Marathas appealed to the Nawab of Awadh (Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula) for
control of Ayodhya, Kashi, and Mathura. The Marathas had helped the
Nawab in defeating the Pathan forces in the Doab region (the area
between the Ganges and Yamuna rivers in northern India), which led
them to seek control over these religious and cultural centers.

By the 19th century, judicial records referred to the presence of a

mosque at the birthplace of Lord Ram. Tensions escalated in 1855 when
a violent clash occurred near the Babri Masjid, resulting in Hindus
capturing the Janmasthan. In 1949, the idol of Ram Lalla was placed in
the mosque, sparking widespread demands for the construction of a
grand temple.

In the 1980s, the Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP) initiated the movement
for the "liberation" of the Ram Janmabhoomi, as well as the Krishna
Janmabhoomi and Vishwanath shrine. Legal battles followed, and in
1986, the locks of the Babri Masjid were opened to allow Hindus to offer
prayers. This period saw significant events, including the
foundation-laying ceremony in 1989 and the Rath Yatra led by LK Advani
in 1990, which led to widespread riots.

____________ _____________________
The demolition of the Babri Masjid on 6th December 1992 became a
pivotal moment in the movement, leading to political repercussions and
legal proceedings. The Acquisition of Certain Area at Ayodhya Act, passed
in 1993, allowed the government to acquire the disputed land. The
Liberhan Commission, in 2009, highlighted the premeditated nature of
the events that occurred in 1992.

In 2010, the Allahabad High Court verdict divided the disputed land into
a 2:1 ratio. Two-thirds of the 2.77-acre land, including the garbha griha,
was given to the Ram Janmabhoomi litigants (Shri Ram Lala Virajman
and Nirmohi Akhara), while one-third was allocated to the Sunni Central
Waqf Board. After prolonged legal battles, in 2019, the Supreme Court
awarded the entire disputed land to Hindu petitioners for the
construction of the Ram temple and allocated land for a mosque
elsewhere.

The movement culminated on 5th August 2020, when Prime Minister

Narendra Modi performed the Shilanyas of the Ram temple, establishing
the Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust. Finally, on 22nd
January 2024, the Ram Temple in Ayodhya was inaugurated, marking the
completion of this monumental journey.

____________ _____________________
Uniqueness of the Ram Temple:
The Ram Temple is built with traditional architecture, using pink
sandstone from Mirzapur and the hills of Bansi-Paharpur (Rajasthan). It
spans an expansive area of 71 acres, showcasing an architectural marvel
in its design and dimensions. The main temple measures 250 feet in
width and 161 feet in height, with the central temple area covering 2.67
acres. It houses 390 pillars, 46 doorways, and 5 mandaps.

Inside the temple, the main Garbh Griha holds the idol of Ram Lalla,
along with several mandaps, including the Rang Mandap and Nritya
Mandap. One of the most unique features of the temple is its innovative
anointment tradition. Every Ram Navami, at noon, a system of mirrors
and lenses focuses the sun's rays on the idol of Ram Lalla, performing
the anointment without the need for electricity. The brass used in this
system is a nod to tradition, replacing iron or steel.

The idol of Ram Lalla, crafted by Mysuru sculptor Arun Yogiraj, stands at
51 inches and was consecrated in a special ceremony. The construction
of the temple is designed for durability, with no iron used in the building
materials. The temple is built to endure for at least a millennium,
symbolizing strength and longevity.

The Ram Temple is not just a religious edifice but a symbol of resilience,
tradition, and the culmination of centuries of struggle and devotion.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
70.Which of the following statements about Vyommitra, the humanoid
robot developed by ISRO, are correct?
1.​ Vyommitra is designed to simulate the role of a crew member in
space for ISRO's Gaganyaan mission.
2.​ Vyommitra is a fully humanoid robot capable of performing all
tasks that human astronauts would do during space missions.
3.​ Vyommitra has the capability to monitor environmental
conditions like temperature and oxygen levels, and interact with
spacecraft control systems.
A) All three statements are correct
B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
C) Only 1 and 3 are correct
D) Only 1 is correct

70.C

Vyommitra is not a fully humanoid robot, and it cannot perform all tasks
of human astronauts. It is more of a test subject for simulations.
Vyommitra is a humanoid robot developed by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) as part of its preparations for the Gaganyaan
mission, India's first manned space mission. Vyommitra is designed to
simulate the role of a crew member in space and serve as a test subject
for space missions before human astronauts are sent into space.

____________ _____________________
Here are some key details about Vyommitra:

●​ Human-like Design: Vyommitra is a half-humanoid robot that is

designed to resemble a human in terms of structure. It has a head,
torso, and the ability to interact with its surroundings, though it
does not have legs for mobility.

●​ Functionality: The robot is equipped with various sensors and

systems to monitor environmental conditions in the spacecraft,
such as temperature, pressure, and oxygen levels. It can also
interact with the spacecraft’s control systems, provide updates, and
respond to commands.

●​ Purpose: Vyommitra's primary role is to simulate the experience of

a human astronaut in the spacecraft. It will undergo testing in
various scenarios to ensure the spacecraft is safe and operational
for future human missions. It will also be used to conduct tests and
assess how humans might perform tasks in space, helping to refine
the spacecraft's systems and ensure the astronauts’ safety.

Capabilities: Vyommitra is capable of:

●​ Voice Interaction: It can respond to voice commands, making it

capable of interacting with astronauts and ground control.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Health Monitoring: It is designed to monitor and report on various
health parameters that would be critical for astronauts on long
space missions.

●​ Environmental Sensing: Vyommitra will help simulate human

conditions inside the spacecraft, adjusting for aspects like
weightlessness and providing data on how the spacecraft
environment affects the human body.
●​ Development Timeline: Vyommitra was introduced by ISRO in 2020,
with its first public appearance in 2020. It is expected to be a key
part of the preparatory phase before sending humans to space in
the Gaganyaan mission.
●​ Gaganyaan Mission: Vyommitra’s role is critical in the context of
India’s Gaganyaan mission, which is expected to be launched by
2025. The Gaganyaan mission will carry Indian astronauts
(Gagannauts) into space, and Vyommitra serves as a precursor to
this historic event.

____________ _____________________
 71.The Sudarshan Setu, India’s longest cable-stayed bridge,
connects which two locations?
A) Veraval and Somnath
B) Mandvi and Diu Island
C) Porbandar and Dwarka
D) Okha and Beyt Dwarka

71.D
The Sudarshan Setu is India’s longest cable-stayed bridge, inaugurated
on February 25, 2024, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. This
remarkable engineering structure connects the Okha mainland to Beyt
Dwarka Island in Gujarat’s Devbhumi Dwarka district, beautifully
spanning the Arabian Sea. The bridge is a significant addition to India’s
infrastructure network, enhancing not just transportation but also
religious tourism, as it provides seamless access to the famous
Dwarkadhish Temple.
The Sudarshan Setu stretches across a total length of 2.32 km (7,612 feet),
with a central cable-stayed section measuring 900 meters. It has a width
of 27.2 meters, accommodating four lanes of traffic along with two
pedestrian walkways, each 2.5 meters wide. Architecturally, the bridge
features two A-shaped pylons, each standing at an impressive height of
129.985 meters. These pylons lean outward up to 22 meters from the
center, giving the bridge a striking visual identity, while the deck is built
using a composite of steel and reinforced concrete.

____________ _____________________
Beyond its structural strength, the Sudarshan Setu has embraced
sustainability by incorporating solar panels that generate up to 1
megawatt of electricity, making it an energy-efficient infrastructure
project. The total construction cost of the bridge was approximately ₹979
crore (around $110 million). In addition to its functional design, the
bridge’s footpaths have been decorated with verses from the Bhagavad
Gita and images of Lord Krishna, reflecting the deep cultural and
spiritual significance of the Dwarka region.

The bridge’s lighting system, supplied by Orient Electric, enhances its

aesthetic appeal, especially at night, transforming it into both an
architectural and spiritual landmark. The Sudarshan Setu is expected to
benefit not just the 8,500 residents of Beyt Dwarka but also the nearly 2
million pilgrims who visit the Dwarkadhish Temple each year. The
bridge is more than just a link between two pieces of land — it is a
symbol of progress and cultural pride, standing tall as an engineering
marvel while honoring the spiritual heritage of Gujarat

____________ _____________________
 72.Consider the following statements regarding Intuitive
Machines' Odysseus spacecraft:
1.​ Odysseus was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket
and aims to deliver NASA payloads to the Moon under the
CLPS initiative.
2.​ If successful, Odysseus will mark the first American
spacecraft landing on the Moon since Apollo 11 in 1969.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
72.A

Statement 1 is correct — Odysseus was launched on Falcon 9 and is part

of NASA’s CLPS initiative, delivering payloads to the Moon.
Statement 2 is incorrect — the last American spacecraft to land on the
Moon was Apollo 17 in 1972, not Apollo 11.

Intuitive Machines’ Odysseus spacecraft — a private Nova-C lunar lander

— was launched toward the Moon aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from
NASA's Kennedy Space Center in Florida. This mission marks the second
private attempt to land on the Moon, following the earlier failure of the
Peregrine lander.

____________ _____________________
The Falcon 9 rocket, developed by SpaceX, is a two-stage rocket designed
for reliable transportation of cargo and humans into Earth orbit. The
Odysseus spacecraft is carrying six payloads for NASA under the
Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative, aimed at testing
advanced technologies and conducting scientific research on the lunar
surface. Among the technologies being tested are a LIDAR-based sensor
for navigation and an electrostatic dust-removal system designed for use
on spacesuits.

Odysseus was scheduled to land on the Moon on 22nd February 2024,

and the mission aimed to become the first American spacecraft to touch
down on the Moon since Apollo 17 in 1972. This mission is a vital part of
NASA’s broader Artemis campaign and the CLPS program, which seeks to
pave the way for human exploration and sustainable presence on the
Moon through public-private collaboration.

____________ _____________________
73.Consider the following statements regarding Varkala:

1.​ Varkala is known for its scenic red laterite cliffs overlooking the
Arabian Sea and is a prominent destination for surfing in
Kerala.
2.​ Varkala Beach, also known as Papanasam Beach, hosts
international surfing festivals and offers surf schools for
beginners and professionals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

73.C

The International Surfing Festival 2025 was held at Varkala Vettakada

Beach from April 10 to 13, 2025. Organized by the Kerala Adventure
Tourism Promotion Society (KATPS) in collaboration with the
Thiruvananthapuram District Tourism Promotion Council (DTPC), the
event aimed to promote surfing in India and position Kerala as a prime
surfing destination. The festival featured competitions across various
categories, including National and International Men's and Women's
Open, as well as Under-16 divisions.

____________ _____________________
Notably, Kishore Kumar won the Men's Open category, while Sugar
Shanti Banarse secured the top spot in the Women's Open category. ​

The event also included activities like beach clean-ups, yoga sessions,
and cultural performances, enhancing its appeal to both participants and
spectators. The festival's success is expected to boost Varkala's profile on
the global adventure sports map and contribute to Kerala's growing
eco-tourism and coastal economy.

Varkala: The Cliff Beach Paradise of Kerala

Varkala is a serene coastal town located in the Thiruvananthapuram
district of Kerala, India. Known for its dramatic red laterite cliffs
overlooking the Arabian Sea, it’s one of the few places in southern Kerala
where cliffs are found adjacent to the sea — a unique geological
formation called the Varkala Formation, recognized by the Geological
Survey of India as a national geological monument.

Why Varkala is Special:

Varkala Beach, also called Papanasam Beach, is believed to wash away
sins — ‘Papanasam’ literally means ‘destruction of sins.’ Pilgrims visit the
beach to perform last rites and take holy dips.

The cliffs house several cafes, shops, and yoga retreats, giving the place a
very laid-back, global backpacker vibe.

____________ _____________________
It’s a prime destination for paragliding, parasailing, and surfing — the
beach and the waves make it ideal for water sports.

Spiritual Importance:
Janardhana Swamy Temple: A 2000-year-old Vishnu temple located near
the beach, also called "Dakshin Kashi" (Kashi of the South).

Sivagiri Mutt: The final resting place of Sri Narayana Guru, a social
reformer and spiritual leader, drawing pilgrims especially during the
annual Sivagiri pilgrimage.

Adventure Hub:
Besides spiritual tourism, Varkala has gained global attention for its
annual International Surfing Festival.
The 2025 Surfing Festival further elevated its name in the global
adventure sports scene, showcasing Varkala as one of India’s top surf
spots.

Eco-Tourism and Wellness:

Varkala is a hub for Ayurvedic treatment centers and yoga retreats.
The town is known for its clean beaches, scenic sunsets, and
eco-conscious resorts.
Close to Kappil Lake, where you can enjoy kayaking and boating with the
unique experience of backwaters meeting the sea.

____________ _____________________
74.What is the AMAZE-28 project in Kerala?

A) A research project focused on the development of electric vehicles,

built in Kochi.
B) A 3D-printed building project that took 28 days to complete,
involving advanced construction techniques.
C) A government initiative to develop the first fully automated
farming village in Kerala.
D) A large-scale renewable energy plant built on the banks of the
Periyar River in Kerala.

74.B

Introduction to AMAZE-28
AMAZE-28 stands as Kerala's first 3D-printed building, marking a
significant milestone in the state's construction landscape. This
innovative project was inaugurated on October 10, 2023, at the Kerala
State Nirmithi Kendra (KESNIK) campus in PTP Nagar,
Thiruvananthapuram. The structure is a 380 sq. ft. one-room summer
house, designed primarily as a demonstration project to showcase the
potential of 3D printing technology in construction. ​

____________ _____________________
 Construction Process
The construction of AMAZE-28 was
completed in an impressive 28 days,
with the 3D printing of the walls taking
just 2 days. The rapid construction was
achieved through the use of
layer-by-layer 3D printing technology,
which allowed for precise and efficient building processes. Traditional
methods were employed for other components, such as windows and
roofing, to complement the 3D-printed structure. ​

Collaborative Effort
The project was a collaborative effort between KESNIK and Tvasta, a
Chennai-based construction technology start-up founded by IIT-Madras
alumni. Tvasta provided the necessary technology and expertise, while
KESNIK facilitated the construction and integration of the 3D-printed
building within its campus. ​

Significance and Future Prospects

AMAZE-28 serves as a model for sustainable and efficient construction
practices. The project has garnered interest from various government
and private agencies, with plans underway to commercialize and
popularize 3D printing technology in the construction sector. This
initiative aligns with Kerala's commitment to innovation and sustainable
development in the built environment. ​

____________ _____________________
75.Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 16th
Finance Commission?
1.​ The 16th Finance Commission is chaired by Dr. Arvind
Panagariya will begin its work on April 1, 2026.
2.​ The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

75.C
The 16th Finance Commission, commencing April 1, 2026, is chaired by
Dr Arvind Panagariya and addresses vital responsibilities such as
equitable resource distribution, grants-in-aid principles, and
strengthening local governance. It also focuses on disaster management
financing and urbanization challenges.

The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Indian

Constitution, is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution
of tax revenues between the central and state governments every five
years. The Commission plays a crucial role in maintaining fiscal
federalism, ensuring effective governance, and addressing economic
disparities among states.

____________ _____________________
Finance Commission
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body in India established
under Article 280 of the Constitution, tasked with maintaining fiscal
federalism by recommending the distribution of tax revenues between
the central and state governments. Constituted every five years by the
President, it comprises a Chairman and four members with expertise in
finance, economics, or public administration.

It recommends the sharing of net tax proceeds (e.g., income tax, GST)
between the Union and states, grants-in-aid for revenue-deficient states,
and measures to enhance local body resources for grassroots
governance.
It also advises on fiscal discipline, public expenditure, and other
financial matters referred by the President.

16th Finance Commission

The 16th Finance Commission of India, established under Article 280 of
the Constitution, is mandated to recommend the distribution of tax
revenues between the central and state governments for five years
commencing April 1, 2026.
The Commission is currently chaired by Dr Arvind Panagariya, and its
members include Ajay Narayan Jha, Annie George Mathew, Manoj Panda,
and Soumya Kanti Ghosh (part-time), with Ritvik Ranjan Pandey serving
as Secretary.

____________ _____________________
Terms of Reference and Key Responsibilities
●​ The terms of reference for the 16th Finance Commission
encompass several key responsibilities that guide its operations.
The Finance Commission advises on tax revenue sharing,
grants-in-aid principles, resource support for local bodies and
disaster management funding to strengthen state and local
governance.
●​ Tax distribution: The commission will recommend how to
distribute the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the
states.
●​ Grants-in-aid: The commission will recommend principles for
grants-in-aid of state revenues.
●​ Consolidated Fund: The commission will recommend measures to
increase the Consolidated Fund of a state.
●​ Disaster management: The commission will review the current
arrangements for financing disaster management initiatives.

16th Finance Commission Challenges

The 16th Finance Commission of India is tasked with addressing several
significant challenges that impact fiscal federalism and resource
allocation among the Union and State governments.
The following are some of the key challenges identified:
●​ Preserving Tax Devolution: Ensuring the state’s 41% share of
central taxes remains intact is crucial to prevent reduced state

____________ _____________________
 revenues and maintain their ability to fund essential services
amidst rising central liabilities.
●​ Urban Fiscal Support: Rapid urbanization demands over ₹840
billion for infrastructure over the next decade, necessitating
increased intergovernmental transfers to sustain urban finances.
●​ Balancing Regional Disparities: Significant income disparities
among states require tailored tax and grant allocations to provide
equitable support to less developed regions.
●​ Reforming Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS): The Commission
should consider limiting CSS to enhance state autonomy, ensuring
these schemes support national priorities without restricting state
governance.
●​ Disaster Financing Improvements: Given frequent natural
disasters, the Commission may strengthen disaster funding under
the Disaster Management Act, 2005 to improve response and
resilience.
●​ Debt and Fiscal Health: Rising state debts, especially post-COVID,
demand Commission recommendations that consider states’ fiscal
stability while supporting critical infrastructure needs.
●​ Post-COVID Economic Adjustments: To support recovery, the
Commission should tailor allocations to account for states’ reduced
revenues and increased healthcare costs post-pandemic.
●​ Mitigating Freebie Culture: Addressing excessive subsidies, the
Commission may introduce measures that balance welfare

____________ _____________________
 initiatives with long-term fiscal health, possibly through incentives
or spending guidelines.
Dr. Panagariya
In January 2015, Dr. Panagariya was
appointed as the first Vice Chairman
of NITI Aayog, India's premier policy
think tank, where he served until
August 2017 . During this tenure, he
also represented India as the Sherpa
for G20 negotiations, contributing to
shaping global economic policies .​

In April 2023, Dr. Panagariya was appointed as the Chancellor of

Nalanda University in Bihar, overseeing the institution's growth and
academic excellence . He also chairs the 16th Finance Commission of
India, a constitutional body responsible for recommending the
distribution of tax revenues between the central and state governments

Dr. Panagariya was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2012, one of
India's highest civilian awards, for his outstanding contributions to
economics and public policy . He has authored over fifteen books,
including India: The Emerging Giant (2008) and Free Trade and
Prosperity (2019), and has published extensively on topics such as trade
liberalization and India's economic development.

____________ _____________________
76.What is the primary objective of Kerala's Operation AMRITH?

A) To introduce new antibiotics to combat infectious diseases

B) To enforce the sale of antibiotics only with a valid prescription
C) To increase the production of antibiotics in Kerala
D) To eliminate the need for antibiotics in healthcare settings

76.B
​Operation AMRITH (Antimicrobial Resistance Intervention for Total
Health) is a pioneering initiative launched by Kerala's Drug Control
Department in January 2024 to combat the growing threat of
antimicrobial resistance (AMR). AMR occurs when bacteria, viruses,
fungi, and parasites evolve to resist the effects of medications, rendering
standard treatments ineffective and leading to increased mortality and
morbidity. ​

Key Objectives of Operation AMRITH

Enforce Prescription-Only Sales: The operation mandates that all
antibiotics be sold strictly with a valid doctor's prescription, aligning
with the H1 rule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. ​
Conduct Surprise Inspections: Regular, unannounced checks are carried
out in pharmacies to ensure compliance with the prescription
requirement. ​

____________ _____________________
Public Engagement: A toll-free helpline (18004253182) has been
established, allowing citizens to report pharmacies that violate the
prescription norms. ​

Educational Campaigns: The initiative is part of the broader "Antibiotic

Literate Kerala" campaign, aiming to raise awareness about the dangers
of antibiotic misuse. ​

Alignment with Kerala's AMR Strategy

Operation AMRITH is a critical component of the Kerala Antimicrobial
Resistance Strategic Action Plan (KARSAP), which was the first state-level
AMR action plan in India. KARSAP adopts a multi-sectoral approach,
addressing human, animal, and environmental dimensions of AMR. The
plan includes initiatives such as the Kerala Antimicrobial Resistance
Surveillance Network (KARS-NET) for human use surveillance and the
establishment of block-level AMR Committees in all 191 blocks of the
state. ​
Impact and Future Directions
Since its inception, Operation AMRITH has led to a significant reduction
in the over-the-counter sale of antibiotics in Kerala. The state's
comprehensive approach, combining regulatory enforcement with public
participation and education, serves as a model for other regions
grappling with AMR. Ongoing efforts aim to further strengthen
surveillance systems and expand community engagement to sustain and
enhance the impact of the initiative.

____________ _____________________
What is Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)?
Antimicrobial resistance is the resistance acquired by any
microorganism (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, etc.) against
antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals,
antimalarials, and anthelmintics) that are used to treat infections.

●​ As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections

persist, and may spread to others.
●​ It is a natural phenomenon as bacteria evolve, making drugs used
to treat infections less effective.
●​ Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are
sometimes referred to as “superbugs”.
●​ The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified AMR as one
of the top ten threats to global health.

____________ _____________________
What are the Implications of the Spread of Antimicrobial Resistance?
Healthcare Impact:
AMR can render previously effective antibiotics ineffective against
bacterial infections. This complicates the treatment of common illnesses
like pneumonia, urinary tract infections, and skin infections, leading to
prolonged illnesses, more severe symptoms, and increased mortality
rates.

Increased Healthcare Costs:

Treating resistant infections often requires more expensive and
prolonged therapies, increased hospital stays, and sometimes more
invasive procedures. This leads to higher healthcare costs for
individuals, healthcare systems, and governments.

Challenges in Medical Procedures:

AMR makes certain medical procedures riskier. Surgeries, cancer
chemotherapy, and organ transplants become more hazardous due to the
increased risk of infections that are resistant to standard antibiotics.

Limitations in Treatment Options:

As resistance grows, the available arsenal of effective antibiotics
diminishes. This limitation in treatment options may lead to a scenario
where previously manageable infections become untreatable, reverting
medicine to a pre-antibiotic era where common infections could be fatal.

____________ _____________________
77.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the
Vizhinjam International Seaport?

1) A mothership refers to a large cargo vessel that acts as a central

hub for the transshipment of goods.
2) The name of the first mothership to dock at the Vizhinjam port was
MV San Fernando, carrying 2,000 containers.

A) Only Statement 1 is correct.

B) Only Statement 2 is correct.
C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct.

77.C
A mothership refers to a large cargo vessel that serves as a central hub
for the transshipment of goods. It is used to transfer cargo between
smaller ships or directly to ports, acting as a key player in transshipment
operations.The name of the first mothership to dock at the Vizhinjam
International Seaport is MV San Fernando, which carried 2,000
containers during a trial run at the port.

The Vizhinjam International Transshipment Deepwater Multipurpose

Seaport is a transformative project undertaken by the Government of
Kerala, aimed at positioning the region as a key hub for international
transshipment. Located strategically near Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala,

____________ _____________________
the port will cater primarily to the transshipment and gateway container
business, with provisions for additional services such as a cruise
terminal, liquid bulk berth, and other terminal facilities. The project is
being developed under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, with
Adani Ports Private Limited playing a major role, structured on a Design,
Build, Finance, Operate, and Transfer (DBFOT) basis.

This project is part of Kerala’s efforts to enhance its maritime

infrastructure and reduce reliance on foreign ports. It is expected to
reduce the cost of container movement to and from international
destinations, competing directly with established transshipment hubs
like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai. The port boasts a natural depth of
more than 18 meters, which can be expanded to 20 meters, allowing it to
accommodate large vessels and mother ships. The initial phase of the
port is projected to have a capacity of 1 million TEUs (twenty-foot
equivalent units), with the potential to expand to 6.2 million TEUs. This
deepwater port will enhance India’s capability to handle ultra-large
container ships, addressing a key gap in infrastructure that currently
forces the country to rely on foreign ports for transshipment.

Project Progress and Benefits

The Vizhinjam International Transshipment Deepwater Multipurpose

Seaport officially commenced commercial operations on December 3,
2024. This followed a successful five-month trial run that began in July

____________ _____________________
2024, during which the port handled over 70 cargo ships and processed
approximately 147,000 TEUs (Twenty-Foot Equivalent Units) of cargo

The first phase of the port, with an initial capacity of 1 million TEUs, is
now fully operational. The port's strategic location near international
shipping lanes and its deep-water capabilities position it as a significant
player in global transshipment, aiming to rival major hubs like
Singapore, Colombo, and Dubai.​

Looking ahead, the port is slated for further expansion. The second and
third phases are expected to be completed by 2028, with plans to
increase its capacity to 3 million TEUs

The project has faced delays due to challenges such as natural disasters,
protests, and logistical issues. Once completed, the port is expected to
generate 5,000 direct job opportunities and stimulate significant
economic activity, including the development of an industrial corridor
and a boost to cruise tourism. It will also enhance related businesses
such as ship services, logistics, and bunkering. The creation of this
transshipment port will not only provide forex savings and foreign direct
investment but will also improve logistical efficiencies, increase revenue,
and promote economic growth.

The DBFOT model involves a 40-year concession with provisions for

extension, ensuring the involvement of the private sector in the
financing, construction, and operation of the port. Adani Group has
committed an investment of Rs 2,454 crore, while additional funding will

____________ _____________________
be mobilized from the state and central governments as viability gap
funding. The government of Kerala has provided 500 acres of land for
the development of the port. Once operational, the port will offer
cutting-edge automation, enabling the quick turnaround of vessels, with
state-of-the-art infrastructure tailored to handle Megamax container
ships.

Strategic Location and Future Prospects

Located just ten nautical miles from the international shipping route, the
Vizhinjam port is poised to compete with major international
transshipment ports for global traffic. Its minimal littoral drift along the
coast and low maintenance dredging requirements further enhance its
feasibility and efficiency. The port’s design ensures that it can
accommodate the largest and most modern ships, contributing
significantly to India’s maritime ambitions and its efforts to strengthen
its position in the global trade network.

78.Match the current officeholders in India:

Column A
1.​ Chief Justice of India Column B:
2.​ Comptroller and Auditor General A. K. Sanjay Murthy
of India B. Sanjay Malhotra
3.​ Governor of the Reserve Bank of C. Justice Ashish Jitendra Desai
India D. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
4.​ Chief Justice of Kerala High Court

____________ _____________________
Choose the correct option:
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
D. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

78.A

Position Name Assumed Office Notes

President of India Droupadi Murmu 25 July 2022 First tribal woman to hold the office.

Vice President of India Jagdeep 11 August 2022 Also serves as the Chairman of the
Dhankhar Rajya Sabha.

Chief Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna 11 November 51st CJI of India.

2024

Speaker of Lok Sabha Om Birla 19 June 2019 Elected as Speaker of the 17th Lok
Sabha.

Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar 19 February Appointed as the 25th Chief Election
2025 Commissioner of India.

Comptroller and Auditor General K. Sanjay Murthy 21 November Appointed as the 15th CAG of India.
of India 2024

Governor of Reserve Bank of Sanjay Malhotra 11 December Former IAS officer; appointed as the
India 2024 26th RBI Governor.

____________ _____________________
Chairperson of Securities and Tuhin Kanta 1 March 2025 Former Revenue Secretary; appointed
Exchange Board of India Pandey as SEBI Chairman.

Chief Secretary of Kerala

●​ Current Chief Secretary: Sarada Muraleedharan (IAS: 1990: KL)​

She is scheduled to retire by the end of April 2025.​

●​ Successor: The Kerala government is expected to announce the 50th

Chief Secretary in the Cabinet meeting scheduled for April 23, 2025

Chief Justice of Kerala

●​ Justice Ashish Jitendra Desai was appointed as the Chief Justice of

Kerala High Court on 22nd February 2024.
●​ He succeeded Justice S. Manikumar upon his retirement.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
79.Consider the following statements about the CAA Rules, 2024:

1.​ Applications are processed by Empowered Committees headed

by the Director of Census Operations.
2.​ The CAA applies to refugees from Bangladesh, Pakistan,
Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and Myanmar.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

79.A
The CAA applies only to Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan — not Sri
Lanka or Myanmar.
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) Rules, 2024 were formulated by
the Government of India to streamline the process of granting Indian
citizenship to eligible persons under the provisions of the Citizenship
Act, 1955, specifically under Section 6B. These rules are designed to
benefit persecuted minorities — Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis,
and Christians — from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who
entered India on or before December 31, 2014. Historically, the
Government of India has amended the citizenship rules multiple times,
including in 2004, and has issued important notifications in 2014, 2015,
2016, and 2018 to address the concerns of refugees.

____________ _____________________
The new rules under CAA 2024 simplify the application process,
requiring applicants to submit proof regarding their country of origin,
religion, date of entry into India, and knowledge of an Indian language.
The government has relaxed the documentary requirements for proving
citizenship of the mentioned countries, allowing applicants to submit a
range of documents such as birth certificates, educational certificates,
identity papers, licenses, land records, or any official document from the
country of origin. Similarly, for proving the date of entry into India, the
government permits more than 20 types of documents including visas,
residential permits, census slips, Aadhaar cards, ration cards, driving
licenses, court or government-issued letters, and birth certificates.

For the implementation mechanism, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)

has entrusted the Postal Department and Census officials of the Union
government with the task of receiving and verifying citizenship
applications. Security verification will be conducted by central
intelligence agencies like the Intelligence Bureau (IB). Once an
application is verified, it will be passed on to an Empowered Committee
led by the Director (Census Operations) in each state, which will make
the final decision on granting citizenship. These committees will include
representatives from the IB, the Postal Department (Postmaster General),
State or National Informatics Centre, the State Government’s Department
of Home, and the Divisional Railway Manager.

____________ _____________________
At the grassroots level, District-Level Committees (DLCs) will carry out
the initial examination of applications. These DLCs are chaired by the
Superintendent of the Department of Post, and a representative from the
District Collector's office will act as an invitee. Notably, the entire
process is centrally managed, meaning that state governments have no
role in the decision-making process, which has been fully vested with
these empowered and district-level committees formed under central
authority. This arrangement is intended to ensure a uniform and
expedited process for granting citizenship under the CAA framework.

80.What is the primary goal of the PROBA-3 mission?

A) To study Earth's magnetic field​

B) To create an artificial eclipse for observing the Sun’s corona​
C) To monitor satellite communication systems​
D) To measure Earth's climate patterns

80.B
About Proba-3 Mission:
●​ It is the European Space Agency's (ESA) first mission dedicated to
precision formation flying.
●​ It is the innovative mission which will demonstrate precision
formation flying between two satellites to create an artificial
eclipse, revealing new views of the Sun’s faint corona.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ The core objective of the mission is to create an artificial eclipse by
precisely coordinating two independent satellites. This capability
will enable scientists to observe the Sun's corona, a region typically
obscured by the intense brightness of the Sun.
●​ It consists of two small satellites — a Coronagraph spacecraft and a
solar-disc-shaped Occulter spacecraft.
Working
●​ By flying in tight formation about 150 metres apart, the Occulter
will precisely cast its shadow onto the Coronagraph’s telescope,
blocking the Sun’s direct light.
●​ This will allow the Coronagraph to image the faint solar corona in
visible, ultraviolet and polarised light for many hours at a time.
●​ It will provide new insights into the origins of coronal mass
ejections (CMEs) — eruptions of solar material that can disrupt
satellites and power grids on Earth.
●​ The mission will also measure total solar irradiance, tracking
changes in the Sun’s energy output that may influence Earth’s
climate.

____________ _____________________
81.Which of the following destinations in Kerala were selected under
the Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 initiative?

1.​ Munnar and Kovalam

2.​ Kumarakom and Beypur
3.​ Wayanad and Varkala
4.​ Thekkady and Kuttanad

A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 only

81.D
Swadeshi Darshan 2.0:
Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 is an initiative under the Ministry of Tourism,
Government of India, aimed at promoting sustainable tourism and
preserving India’s cultural and natural heritage. The program was
designed to develop tourism infrastructure in lesser-known destinations,
showcasing India’s diverse traditions, arts, crafts, and natural
landscapes. It also focuses on enhancing rural and offbeat areas that
have not traditionally been tourist hotspots, providing economic
opportunities to local communities while offering visitors authentic
cultural experiences.

____________ _____________________
The government has revitalized the original Swadeshi Darshan program
under the 2.0 version, which includes specific objectives such as the
promotion of rural tourism, empowerment of local artisans and
craftsmen, and development of eco-friendly tourism infrastructure. By
aligning tourism with cultural preservation and environmental
sustainability, Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 aims to boost India's global tourism
potential while supporting the socio-economic growth of rural areas.

Significance of Kumarakom and Beypur:

Kumarakom: Located in the Vembanad Lake region of Kerala,
Kumarakom is renowned for its serene backwaters, lush greenery, and
traditional Kerala village life. It is one of the key destinations selected
under Swadeshi Darshan 2.0, primarily because of its ecological
significance and tourism potential. Kumarakom offers tourists a chance
to experience the tranquility of Kerala’s backwaters, houseboat cruises,
and bird sanctuary. The region's cultural offerings, including local
handicrafts and traditional village life, make it an ideal spot for
eco-tourism.

Kumarakom's inclusion in Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 helps preserve and

promote the region’s unique culture and nature, while boosting local
employment in areas such as hospitality, agriculture, and crafts. By
showcasing Kerala's natural beauty and cultural heritage, the initiative
aims to attract more tourists to the region, providing a sustainable
growth model for the local community.

____________ _____________________
Beypur: Beypur, located in the Kozhikode district of Kerala, is historically
significant for its ancient port and maritime heritage. The town was once
an important hub for trade, particularly between India, the Middle East,
and Southeast Asia, and its shipbuilding industry is one of the oldest in
the region. Under Swadeshi Darshan 2.0, Beypur is being promoted to
highlight its maritime legacy and traditional industries. The town's port
and shipbuilding heritage offer tourists a unique insight into India's
historical trade routes and craftsmanship.

The promotion of Beypur under Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 aims to not only
boost maritime heritage tourism but also generate sustainable economic
growth by revitalizing the shipbuilding and fishing industries. It presents
an opportunity for local artisans, fishermen, and communities to benefit
from increased tourism while preserving the region's rich history.

Ministry and Selection of Destinations:

The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, is the key ministry

behind the Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 initiative. The program was
implemented in collaboration with state governments, which helped
identify suitable regions based on their potential for tourism
development while preserving local culture and heritage.

As for Kerala, Kumarakom and Beypur are among the selected

destinations from the state under the Swadeshi Darshan 2.0 initiative.

____________ _____________________
These locations were chosen for their unique cultural, ecological, and
historical significance, with the aim of enhancing their tourism
infrastructure and making them key attractions for both domestic and
international tourists.

Number of Locations Selected from Kerala: Kerala has two major

locations—Kumarakom and Beypur—selected under this initiative as
part of the government's efforts to promote sustainable tourism and
preserve the cultural richness of rural and coastal regions.

Kerala has received a significant boost to its tourism infrastructure with

the Central Government granting administrative and financial approval
for two flagship projects worth Rs 169.05 crore under the Swadesh
Darshan 2.0 initiative. These projects, designed and submitted by the
State Tourism Department, aim to elevate the tourism experience in
Alappuzha and Palakkad by capitalising on the state's natural and
cultural assets.

The project titled “Alappuzha - A Global Water Wonderland” is

allocated Rs 93.17 crore and is set to transform the district into a
premier international water tourism hub. The initiative focuses on
integrated development of the region’s water-based attractions, including
beach front enhancements, canal-side beautification, advanced waste
management systems, a state-of-the-art international cruise terminal,
and community-centered cultural experiences.

____________ _____________________
82.Who is Parbati Barua?
A)The first woman to lead the Indian Arm
B) The first woman to break the 100m sprint record in India
C) The first female elephant mahout in India
D) A famous Indian classical dancer

82.C
Parbati Barua: India's First Female Elephant Mahout
Parbati Barua, affectionately known as Hasti Kanya (Daughter of
Elephant), is India's first female elephant mahout. Born on March 14,
1953, in Gauripur, Assam, she began her journey at the age of 14 by
capturing her first wild elephant in the Kachugaon forests. Under the
guidance of her father, Prakritish Chandra Barua, a renowned elephant
expert, she mastered the art of elephant care and training. ​
Over the years, Parbati has been instrumental in resolving
human-elephant conflicts across Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha. She
employs traditional methods, such as the 'phand' (lasso) technique, to
capture and domesticate elephants, a practice she has revived and
refined. ​
In recognition of her pioneering work and dedication to wildlife
conservation, Parbati Barua was conferred the prestigious Padma Shri
award in 2024. This honor acknowledges her significant contributions to
animal welfare and her role in breaking gender barriers in a
male-dominated profession. ​

____________ _____________________
Her inspiring journey was also highlighted in the book Queen of the
Elephants by Mark Shand, which brought international attention to her
exceptional bond with elephants and her conservation efforts. ​

Parbati Barua continues to be a beacon of dedication and resilience,

embodying the harmonious relationship between humans and elephants.

____________ _____________________
83.What does the abbreviation SVEEP stand for in the context of voter
education by the Election Commission of India?
A) Social Voting Engagement and Electoral Participation
B) Systematic Voter Education and Electoral Participation
C) Standard Voter Education and Election Procedures
D) Simple Voter Education and Electoral Procedures

83.B

What is SVEEP?
The Systematic Voters’ Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP)
program is an initiative by the Election Commission of India aimed at
promoting greater electoral participation through comprehensive voter
education.

Vision: Universal and enlightened participation of citizens in elections

and democracy.

Goal: To enlighten, enable and empower every citizen to register as a

voter and cast his/her vote at every election in an informed and ethical
manner.

It was developed to inform, motivate, and facilitate voters, ensuring

widespread and informed participation in the electoral processes.
Here’s a quick revision of the program's objectives and aspects:

____________ _____________________
SVEEP Objectives (2022-25)
The objectives envisaged for SVEEP strategy (2022-25) are:
●​ Increase voter turnout to 75% in Lok Sabha elections 2024 by:
●​ Purifying the electoral roll of every polling booth
●​ Bridging the gender gap in enrolment and turnout
●​ Ensuring inclusion of all non-voters/ marginalised sections through
targeted interventions, technological solutions and policy changes
●​ Addressing urban and youth apathy in electoral participation
●​ Turning around all low-turnout constituencies and polling stations
●​ To enhance the quality of electoral participation in terms of
informed and ethical voting through continuous electoral and
democracy education
●​ Transition from the erstwhile IMF (Information, Motivation and
Facilitation) paradigm to a more holistic IMF-EEE (Information,
Motivation, Facilitation, Engagement, Education and
Empowerment) paradigm.

Key Features and Initiatives

●​ Outreach Campaigns: Extensive use of media, including social
media, to reach voters.
●​ Campaigns are customized linguistically and culturally for different
regions to maximize impact.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Educational Materials: Distribution of brochures, flyers, and
posters that detail the voting process and highlight the importance
of each individual's vote.
●​ Interactive Platforms: Organising interactive sessions such as
workshops, seminars, and roadshows to engage directly with the
electorate and address their questions.
●​ Cultural Events: Incorporation of cultural activities, like concerts
and exhibitions, to draw public interest and disseminate voter
education in an entertaining way.
●​ Example: Jashn-e-Jugalbandhi musical show in Srinagar.
●​ Partnerships: Collaboration with NGOs, educational institutions,
and corporate entities to broaden the reach of voter education
efforts.
●​ Special Focus Groups: Special initiatives to engage youth, women,
and the marginalized sections of society to ensure comprehensive
electoral participation.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
84.Who is the President of Sri Lanka who visited India in December
2024?​
A) Ranil Wickremesinghe
B) Anura Kumara Dissanayake
C) Sajith Premadasa
D) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
84.B
Anura Kumara Dissanayake was elected as the President of Sri Lanka in
the 2024 presidential election, marking a significant political shift in the
country. He is the leader of the Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna (JVP) and
the National People's Power (NPP) coalition. Dissanayake won with 43%
of the vote, defeating incumbent Ranil Wickremesinghe and opposition
leader Sajith Premadasa. His campaign focused on anti-corruption
measures and policies supporting the economically disadvantaged, amid
high living costs and significant poverty.

Anura Kumara Dissanayake’s State Visit (December 15–17, 2024)

President Anura Kumara Dissanayake, who assumed office in September
2024, made his first overseas trip to India from December 15 to 17, 2024.
During this visit, he held discussions with Indian Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and other senior officials. The talks focused on
enhancing bilateral relations, including energy cooperation, trade, and
infrastructure development. Key agreements included establishing
electricity grid connectivity and laying a multi-product petroleum
pipeline between the two countries.

____________ _____________________
85.Where is the G Smarakam memorial dedicated to Mahakavi G
Sankara Kurup located?
A) Thiruvananthapuram
B) Kozhikode
C) Kochi
D) Alappuzha

85.C
G Smarakam is a memorial dedicated to Mahakavi G Sankara Kurup, the
first recipient of the Jnanpith Award in 1965. Located near Abraham
Madamakkal Road, adjacent to Marine Drive in Kochi, Kerala, this
cultural center honors the poet's legacy and contributions to Malayalam
literature. ​

Key Features of G Smarakam:

Architectural Design: The
memorial is designed to reflect
the simplicity and elegance of
G Sankara Kurup's life and
works. A notable feature is a
six-meter-long "Odakuzhal" (a
traditional bamboo flute)
suspended above the main
monument, symbolizing his

____________ _____________________
acclaimed work. The space is complemented by soft flute music,
enhancing the tranquil atmosphere. ​
Cultural Space: The center includes a poetry museum with four cubicles,
each dedicated to the works of G Sankara Kurup and other poets. This
setup allows visitors to explore and appreciate the rich tapestry of
Malayalam poetry. ​
Community Engagement: G Smarakam serves as a venue for cultural
events and art exhibitions, fostering a deeper connection between the
public and the literary heritage of Kerala. ​
Inaugurated by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan in February 2024, G
Smarakam stands as a testament to the enduring legacy of G Sankara
Kurup and his pivotal role in shaping Malayalam literature.

86.What is the primary objective of the K-LIFT initiative launched by

Kudumbashree?
A) To promote large-scale industrialization in urban centers of
Kerala.
B) To provide livelihood opportunities to rural and tribal families by
supporting small-scale income generation activities.
C) To distribute free food and clothing to the underprivileged
communities in Kerala.
D) To establish digital payment systems in all panchayats of Kerala.

86.B

____________ _____________________
K-LIFT (Kudumbashree Livelihood Initiative For Transformation) is a
flagship livelihood generation program launched by Kudumbashree, the
Kerala State Poverty Eradication Mission. The initiative is designed to
ensure sustainable income and economic empowerment for women and
marginalized communities, especially in rural and tribal areas. The core
aim of K-LIFT is to provide livelihood opportunities to three lakh
(300,000) Neighborhood Group (NHG) members across Kerala in various
sectors, including agriculture, animal husbandry, micro-enterprises, and
resource-based industries.

As part of this initiative, Kudumbashree has focused on the

Edamalakkudy Gram Panchayat, a remote and tribal settlement located
within the forests of Idukki district. In the recent ‘Ooru Sangamam’
(Meeting of Hamlets), it was decided that under K-LIFT, livelihood
arrangements will be made for 100 tribal families residing in
Edamalakkudy. This move aims to improve their quality of life by
introducing multiple income-generating avenues suited to the region’s
unique ecosystem and culture.

The planned activities under K-LIFT for Edamalakkudy include the

promotion of animal husbandry (especially the breeding of indigenous
goat and poultry varieties), fish farming, and strengthening traditional
agricultural practices centered around black pepper and cardamom —
the key cash crops of the area. Alongside this, villagers will also be
supported in setting up sewing units, small shops, bamboo product

____________ _____________________
businesses, and forest resource collection and marketing. These efforts
are aimed at creating reliable and diverse streams of income for tribal
families, enabling economic resilience without disturbing the natural
harmony of their surroundings.

In the 'Ooru Sangamam' ( Meeting of Hamlets) of Kudumbashree, it was

decided to provide livelihood to a hundred families in Edamalakudy
Gram Panchayat this year. The 'Ooru Sangamam' which was attended by
members from various hamlets, was notable for its discussions on new
initiatives including branding of black pepper and cardamom, the main
agricultural products of Edamalakudy.

It has been decided to ensure a source of income for 100 members of

Kanana Panchayat as part of the K-LIFT (Kudumbashree Livelihood
Initiative For Transformation) project launched by Kudumbashree with
the aim of providing livelihood to three lakh NHG members in the state
this year. The panchayat provides employment to the residents in the
areas of animal husbandry, agriculture related activities, sewing unit,
small shop, bamboo products, collection and marketing of forest
resources etc.
Breeding of indigenous breeds of goats and poultry will be promoted
with emphasis on animal husbandry. Fish farming facilities will be
developed. The scheme will be implemented as soon as possible
considering the applications already received from the villagers for
starting various initiatives.

____________ _____________________
87.Consider the following statements about Kappad Beach in Kerala:

Statement 1: Kappad Beach is historically known as the landing site of

Vasco da Gama in 1498 which recently received The Blue Flag
certification.
Statement 2: The Blue Flag certification is awarded to beaches by the
United Nations for maintaining eco-friendly tourism and cleanliness
standards.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

87.A
The Blue Flag certification is awarded by the Foundation for
Environmental Education (FEE), not the United Nations.
Kappad Beach, located near Kozhikode (Calicut) in Kerala, is a
historically significant coastal spot where Portuguese explorer Vasco da
Gama first landed in 1498. Beyond its historic charm, Kappad Beach has
earned global recognition for its cleanliness, eco-friendly management,
and sustainable tourism practices — by receiving the prestigious Blue
Flag certification.

____________ _____________________
The Blue Flag is an international eco-label awarded by the Foundation
for Environmental Education (FEE), Denmark. This certification is
granted to beaches, marinas, and sustainable boating tourism operators
that meet strict environmental, educational, safety, and accessibility
criteria.
●​ It is a globally recognized eco-label accorded by the Foundation for
Environment Education in Denmark (FEE).
●​ The Blue Flag programme was started in France in 1985 and in
areas out of Europe in 2001.
●​ It is one of the world’s most recognised voluntary awards for
beaches, marinas, and sustainable tourism boats.
●​ It promotes sustainable development in freshwater and marine
areas through four main criteria: water quality, environmental
management, environmental education and safety.
●​ The mission of Blue Flag is to promote sustainability in the tourism
sector, through environmental education, environmental
protection and other sustainable development practices.
Kappad Beach’s Blue Flag status highlights:
●​ Eco-friendly infrastructure.
●​ Clean and safe bathing water.
●​ Waste management systems.
●​ Lifeguards and safety measures.
●​ Environmental education and awareness programs for visitors.

____________ _____________________
88. What is the revised daily wage under MGNREGA for Kerala
effective April 1, 2024?
A) ₹331
B) ₹375
C) ₹300
D) ₹346

88.D
The Government of India revised the daily wage rate under the Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) for
Kerala to ₹346 per day, effective from April 1, 2024.
This revision was part of the annual wage adjustment process, which
varies state-wise based on the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural
Labourers (CPI-AL).

What is MGNREGA?
About: MGNREGA is one of the largest work guarantee programmes in
the world launched in 2005 by the Ministry of Rural development.

The primary objective of the scheme is to guarantee 100 days of

employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural
household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work.

As of 2022-23, there are 15.4 crore active workers under the MGNREGA.

____________ _____________________
Legal Right to Work: Unlike earlier employment guarantee schemes, the
act aims at addressing the causes of chronic poverty through a
rights-based framework.

At least one-third of beneficiaries have to be women.

Wages must be paid according to the statutory minimum wages specified

for agricultural labourers in the state under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948.

Demand-Driven Scheme: The most important part of MGNREGA’s design

is its legally-backed guarantee for any rural adult to get work within 15
days of demanding it, failing which an ‘unemployment allowance’ must
be given.

This demand-driven scheme enables the self-selection of workers.

Decentralised planning: There is an emphasis on strengthening the

process of decentralisation by giving a significant role in Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs) in planning and implementing these works.
The act mandates Gram sabhas to recommend the works that are to be
undertaken and at least 50% of the works must be executed by them.

____________ _____________________
89.DC Connect" is a initiative primarily launched to:
A) Improve tax collection.
B) Promote tourism in districts.
C) Connect citizens with the District Collector for grievance redressal.
D) Monitor school attendance.

89.C

DC Connect (also called Collector Connect) is an innovative outreach

initiative launched by various District Collectors across India —
including in Kerala — to directly engage with citizens at the grassroots
level.

The program aims to create a transparent and accessible platform where

the public can submit grievances, suggestions, or queries directly to the
District Collector. It often uses digital platforms, social media, mobile
apps, and scheduled in-person interactions to enhance administrative
efficiency and citizen participation.

This initiative helps bridge the gap between local government offices and
the public, improving grievance redressal, service delivery, and local
governance.

____________ _____________________
90.Which of the following statements about Project PonVakku are
correct?

1.​ The initiative was launched to prevent child marriages by

providing a ₹2,500 reward for reporting impending child
marriages before they occur.
2.​ The program's implementation was limited to the Malappuram
district, where all the cases of child marriage prevention were
reported.

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.
C) Both statements are correct.
D) Neither statement is correct.

90.A
Statement 2 is incorrect because, although Malappuram had the highest
number of cases, the program is not limited to this district. It covers all
of Kerala, and the report also mentions no cases from several other
districts during the period in question.
Project Ponvakku is a Kerala government initiative aimed at preventing
child marriages by encouraging public participation and providing
financial incentives for reporting such incidents.​

____________ _____________________
Key Features of Project Ponvakku
Incentive for Informers: Individuals who inform authorities about
impending child marriages before they occur are eligible for a ₹2,500
reward. The identity of the informant is kept confidential to ensure their
safety.​

Eligibility Criteria:
●​ The information must be provided before the marriage is
solemnized.
●​ The informant's identity is protected, and rewards are given in
cash.
●​ If multiple individuals report the same case, the first informer is
prioritized.
●​ No reward is given if the marriage has already taken place.​
Implementation: The Women and Child Development Department has
appointed 258 officers to oversee the program. Awareness campaigns are
conducted, and contact details for reporting are displayed at Anganwadi
centers to facilitate easy communication.​

Impact and Statistics

From 2021 to 2024, 29 child marriages were prevented under this
initiative, with a total of ₹72,500 distributed as rewards. ​
The majority of cases occurred in Malappuram district, with 11 reported
instances. Notably, no cases were reported from Kottayam, Ernakulam,
Kannur, and Kasaragod districts during this period.​

____________ _____________________
The number of child marriages has been decreasing annually, indicating
the effectiveness of the program and increased public awareness.​
Kerala Kaumudi

Legal Framework
The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 defines a child as a person
who has not completed 21 years of age if male and 18 years if female.
Any marriage involving a child is considered voidable at the option of
the child, and various penalties are prescribed for those involved in
solemnizing or promoting such marriages.

India has a young population, comprising nearly one-fifth of the world’s

children, which can be an asset in an ageing world.
However, children require dedicated protection and nurturing, which
they currently lack due to their dependency on adults and lack of
political agency (inability to vote).
Despite their significance, children are often overlooked in policy and
societal priorities, leaving them vulnerable to various crimes, such as
physical and sexual abuse.

Alarming Statistics on Crimes Against Children

According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), an average of
18 crimes against children were reported every hour in India in 2022.

____________ _____________________
One-third of these crimes fall under the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, with offenders often being acquaintances
or family members.

India also has the highest number of child labourers in the 5-14 age
group globally, with over 10 million children engaged in labour, as per
the Census 2011.

Legal Framework for Child Protection

India has several laws designed to protect children’s rights, including:

●​ Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 –
Focuses on the care and rehabilitation of vulnerable children.
●​ POCSO Act, 2012 – Addresses sexual abuse against children.
●​ Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 – Prevents child marriages.
●​ Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 –
Regulates and restricts child labour.
●​ Despite these legal frameworks, children continue to suffer due to
ineffective implementation and lack of systemic attention.

Constitutional Provisions for Child Protection in India

●​ Article 15(3) – Special Provisions for Children:

This article empowers the State to make special provisions for
children.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Article 21A – Right to Education:
This article guarantees free and compulsory education for all
children aged 6-14 years.
●​ Article 23 – Prohibition of Trafficking and Forced Labor:
This article prohibits human trafficking, forced labour, and bonded
labour.
●​ Article 24 – Prohibition of Child Labor:
●​ Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in
hazardous occupations and industries.
●​ Article 39(e) and (f) – Directive Principles for Child Welfare:
●​ Article 39(e) directs the State to ensure that children are not forced
by economic necessity to enter vocations unsuited to their age or
strength.
●​ Article 39(f) directs the State to provide children with opportunities
and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of
freedom and dignity, and to protect them against exploitation and
moral and material abandonment.
●​ Article 45 – Provision for Early Childhood Care and Education:
This article directs the State to endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete
the age of six years.
●​ Article 47 – Duty of the State to Raise Nutrition Levels:
This article enjoins the State to raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living and improve public health, which directly

____________ _____________________
 benefits children by addressing issues like malnutrition, anemia,
and health inequities.
●​ Article 51A(k) – Fundamental Duty of Parents:
Under this provision, it is a fundamental duty of parents or
guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children
between the ages of 6 and 14 years.

91.Which is the first state in India to declare death through a

man-animal conflict as a state disaster.
A.​Kerala
B.​ Tamil Nadu
C.​ Gujarat
D.​Uttar Pradesh
91.D
Uttar Pradesh became the first state in India to declare death through a
man-animal conflict a state disaster and the deceased’s family were
mandated to give a compensation of Rs 5 lakh by state disaster
management authority.
In recent developments, Kerala has taken significant steps to address the
escalating issue of man-animal conflict by declaring it a state-specific
disaster. This move, announced on March 6, 2024, allows the Kerala State
Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA) to take swift and coordinated
action, including the deployment of rapid response teams and the
establishment of control rooms, to mitigate such conflicts. ​

____________ _____________________
This decision follows Uttar Pradesh's earlier initiative in 2018, where the
state declared deaths resulting from man-animal conflict as a state
disaster. In such cases, the deceased's family is entitled to a
compensation of ₹5 lakh from the State Disaster Management Authority.

What is Human-Animal Conflict?

Human-animal conflict refers to situations where human activities, such
as agriculture, infrastructure development, or resource extraction, come
into conflict with wild animals, leading to negative outcomes for both
humans and animals.

Implications:
Economic Losses: Human-animal conflict can result in significant
economic losses for people, especially farmers and livestock herders.
Wild animals can destroy crops, damage infrastructure, and kill
livestock, leading to financial hardship.
Threats to Human Safety: Wild animals can pose a threat to human
safety, especially in areas where people and wildlife coexist. Attacks by
large predators such as lions, tigers, and bears can result in serious
injury or death.

Ecological Damage: Human-animal conflict can have a negative impact

on the environment. For example, when humans kill predators, it can
lead to an increase in prey populations, which can then cause ecological
imbalances.

____________ _____________________
Conservation Challenges: Human-animal conflict can also pose a
challenge to conservation efforts, as it can lead to negative perceptions
of wildlife and make it difficult to implement conservation measures.
Psychological Impacts: Human-animal conflict can also have
psychological impacts on people, especially those who have experienced
attacks or property damage. It can lead to fear, anxiety, and trauma.

What Strategies Can be Implemented to Mitigate Human-Animal

Conflict?
●​ Habitat Management:
Protecting and restoring natural habitats for wildlife can reduce their
need to encroach on human settlements in search of food and shelter.
This can involve creating wildlife corridors, establishing protected areas,
and implementing sustainable land-use practices.
●​ Crop Protection Measures:
Implementing techniques such as fencing, scare devices, and crop
diversification can help protect crops from wildlife damage, reducing
economic losses for farmers.
●​ Early Warning Systems:
Developing and deploying early warning systems, such as alerting
communities about the presence of wildlife nearby, can help prevent
human-wildlife conflicts and mitigate threats to human safety.
●​ Community Engagement and Education:
Educating local communities about coexisting with wildlife, raising
awareness about the importance of conservation, and providing training

____________ _____________________
in conflict resolution techniques can foster greater understanding and
tolerance toward wild animals.
●​ Conflict Resolution Mechanisms:
Setting up conflict resolution mechanisms, such as wildlife conflict
response teams or hotlines, can facilitate timely interventions and
minimise conflicts between humans and animals.

What are the Government Measures to Tackle Human-Animal Conflict?

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: The act provides the legal framework
for the activities, Prohibition of hunting, Protection and management of
wildlife habitats, and establishment of protected areas etc.

The Biological Diversity Act, 2002: India is a part of the United Nations
Convention on Biological Diversity. It ensures that the Biological
Diversity Act complements rather than contradicts existing laws
concerning forests and wildlife.

National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016): It focuses on strengthening

and enhancing the protected area network, on the conservation of
Endangered wildlife and their habitats, on controlling trade in wildlife
products and on research, education, and training.

Project Tiger: Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, launched in

1973. It provides havens for tigers in the country’s national parks.

____________ _____________________
Project Elephant: It is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched in
February 1992 for the protection of elephants, their habitats and
corridors.

National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): It lays down

guidelines to be followed by different Ministries or Departments of
Central Government for the purpose of integrating measures for disaster
prevention or mitigation of its effects in their development plans and
projects

92.Which of the following statements about Kerala's TB eradication

efforts are correct?

1.​ Kerala conducted the highest number of Nucleic Acid

Amplification Tests during the 100-day TB elimination drive.
2.​ The state has previously received national awards for TB control
in 2022 and 2023 for its coordinated approach involving both
public and private healthcare sectors

A) Only statement 1 is correct.

B) Only statement 2 is correct.
C) Both statements are correct.
D) Neither statement is correct.
92.C

____________ _____________________
Kerala has been honored with a national award for its exceptional
tuberculosis (TB) eradication efforts during the 100-day TB elimination
drive from December 7, 2024, to March 7, 2025. The state conducted the
highest number of Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests (NAAT), including
CB-NAAT and TrueNat, screening a total of 87,330 individuals. Of these,
71,238 underwent advanced molecular tests, accounting for 82% of all
screenings, leading to the detection and continued treatment of 5,588 TB
patients. ​

As part of the campaign, Kerala mapped 8.16 million individuals at high

risk and tested 198,101 symptomatic individuals. The initiative also
included an extensive awareness campaign, increasing the preventive TB
examination rate from 1,500 to 2,201 per 100,000 people. ​

Union Health Minister JP Nadda praised Kerala's TB eradication

initiatives during a recent meeting with Health Minister Veena George.
The state has previously received national awards for TB control in 2022
and 2023 for its coordinated approach involving both public and private
healthcare sectors. ​

In 2024, 138 local self-government institutions in Kerala qualified for the

"TB-Free Panchayat" award, with more than half of the local bodies in
Wayanad and Idukki districts meeting the criteria for TB-free status.

____________ _____________________
About Tuberculosis
●​ It is an infectious disease caused by the Mycobacterium
tuberculosis bacteria, typically affecting the lungs (pulmonary TB).
●​ Extrapulmonary TB affects other parts of the body, e.g.,
Gastrointestinal TB, Skeletal TB, Liver TB.
●​ Transmission: Through air when an infected person coughs, speaks,
or sneezes.
●​ Tests for TB: Xpert MTB, RIF Ultra, and Truenat assays.
●​ Treatment: Common drugs include isoniazid, rifampin, and
pyrazinamide.
●​ The BCG vaccine helps in prevention.
●​ Drug-Resistant TB refers to TB that does not respond to standard
drugs.

WHO classifies drug-resistant tuberculosis (DR-TB) into five types:

●​ Mono-resistance: Resistance to one first-line anti-TB drug
●​ Poly-resistance: Resistance to more than one first-line anti-TB drug,
other than both isoniazid and rifampicin
●​ Multidrug resistance (MDR): Resistance to at least both isoniazid
and rifampicin
●​ Pre-extensively drug-resistant TB (pre-XDR): A type of MDR TB that
is resistant to a fluoroquinolone or a second-line injectable drug
●​ Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR): Resistance to any
fluoroquinolone, and at least one of three second-line injectable
drugs, in addition to MDR

____________ _____________________
India TB Report 2024
●​ Notified TB patients: 25.52 lakh in 2023 (up from 24.22 lakh in
2022).
●​ Case reporting: 67% from the public sector, 33% from the private
sector.
●​ Treatment success rate for Drug-Resistant TB (DR-TB): 65%.
●​ Incidence increase: Estimated incidence of TB in 2023 rose slightly
to 27.8 lakh.
●​ Mortality rate: Remained at 3.2 lakh.
●​ 2023 achievement: India met its target of initiating treatment in
95% of diagnosed patients.
●​ Drug resistance testing: 58% of diagnosed patients were tested for
drug resistance, up from 25% in 2015.

What is Ni-kshay Poshan Yojana?

●​ It is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health
Mission (NHM).
●​ Launched by: the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
●​ Aim: To Support TB patients through a Direct Benefit Transfer
(DBT) of ₹500 per month for nutritional needs.
●​ All notified TB patients are eligible for the scheme.
●​ Ni-kshay Mitras: Volunteers such as individuals, NGOs, corporates,
and political parties adopt TB patients.
●​ They offer support in terms of nutrition, supplements, additional
investigations, and vocational support.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ E-Nikshay Platform: Developed by the Central TB Division in
collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC) and World
Health Organization.
●​ It is a web-enabled system for TB patient management under the
National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP).
●​ All TB patients, public or private sector, must be registered on the
platform.

India’s fight Against TB

●​ National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP): Aims for TB
elimination by 2025, ahead of the global 2030 goal.
●​ Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan: Provides additional
patient support and encourages community involvement.
●​ National TB Call Centre – Ni-kshay SAMPARK: Provides
tele-counseling on TB treatment.
●​ TB Mukt Panchayat Initiative: Empowers Panchayati Raj
Institutions to take actions against TB.
●​ Tribal TB Initiative: Focuses on addressing TB in tribal
communities.
●​ Mission Indradhanush: BCG vaccine is provided under this mission.

____________ _____________________
____________ _____________________
93.Which of the following is NOT a component of the "NITI NCAER
States Economic Forum" portal?
A) State Reports
B) Data Repository
C) State Fiscal and Economic Dashboard
D) Real-Time Market Price Tracker

93.D
The Union Finance Minister launched the "NITI NCAER States Economic
Forum" portal, developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the
National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER).

About NITI NCAER States Economic Forum Portal: The portal is a

comprehensive repository of 30 years (1990–91 to 2022–23) of data on
Indian states, covering demography, economy, fiscal indicators, health,
education, and expert research on state finances.
4 Main Components of the Portal:
●​ State Reports: It summarizes the macro and fiscal landscape of 28
States, highlighting indicators in demography, economic structure,
socio-economic, and fiscal areas.
●​ Data Repository: Offers direct access to a comprehensive database
categorized under five key verticals — Demography, Economic
Structure, Fiscal Indicators, Health, and Education.

____________ _____________________
 ●​ State Fiscal and Economic Dashboard: Provides graphical
representations of key economic variables and quick access to raw
data and summary tables.
●​ Research and Commentary: It offers extensive research on State
finances and critical aspects of fiscal policy and financial
management at the State and national levels.
Significance of the Portal:
●​ User-Friendly & Comparative Tool: Enables benchmarking of states
against each other and the national average.
●​ Aid for Policy Making: Supports evidence-based policymaking
through historical trends and real-time analytics.
●​ One-Stop Research Hub: Acts as a centralized platform for scholars,
policymakers, and stakeholders to access long-term data in a
consolidated manner.

94.Who has been selected for the prestigious Sangeetha Kalanidhi

award for 2025?

A) T.R. Govindarajan​
B) R.K. Shriramkumar​
C) Shymala Venkateswaran​
D) Urmila Satyanarayana

94.B

____________ _____________________
Violinist R.K. Shriramkumar has been selected for the prestigious Sangita
Kalanidhi award for 2025, presented by the Music Academy. The award
will be conferred during the Academy’s 99th annual conference and
concerts, scheduled from December 15, 2025, to January 1, 2026. This
recognition comes in the 250th anniversary year of the legendary
composer Muthuswami Dikshitar.

About Sangita Kalanidhi Award

The Sangita Kalanidhi award is among the most esteemed recognitions in
Carnatic music. Established by the Music Academy, Chennai, it is
awarded annually to a musician who has made significant contributions
to the field. The awardee presides over the Academy’s annual
conference, delivering insights into musicology and performance
traditions.

●​ R.K. Shriramkumar: A Celebrated Violinist

●​ His Musical Legacy and Training
R.K. Shriramkumar hails from the Rudrapatnam family of musicians,
known for their deep-rooted traditions in Carnatic music. The ‘R’ in his
name stands for Rudrapattinam, a village on the banks of the Cauvery
River in Karnataka.
He is the grandson of the renowned violinist R.K. Venkatarama Shastry,
who conducted the Tyagaraja Aradhana at Thiruvaiyaru for nearly 40
years since the 1950s.

____________ _____________________
His initial violin training was under Savitri Satyamurthy.
He further received guidance from V.V. Subrahmanyam and trained in
vocal music under Sangita Kalanidhi D.K. Jayaraman.
His granduncle, Sangita Kalanidhi R.K. Srikantan, and uncles, the
Rudrapatnam Brothers (R.N. Thyagarajan and R.N. Tharanathan), are
also accomplished musicians.

Contributions to Carnatic Music

R.K. Shriramkumar is widely recognized for his expertise in violin
accompaniment, having performed with legendary artists from different
generations:

Yesteryear stalwarts: Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer, M.S. Subbulakshmi,

D.K. Pattammal, D.K. Jayaraman, T. Brinda, T. Mukta, M.
Balamuralikrishna, and K.V. Narayanasamy.
Contemporary musicians: Sudha Raghunathan, Vijay Siva, Bombay
Jayashree, Sowmya, and T.M. Krishna.

His deep knowledge of Sangita Sampradaya Pradarsani, a compilation of

Muthuswami Dikshitar’s compositions by Subbarama Dikshitar, has
made him an authority in the field.

Other Honorees of Music Academy Awards 2025

Apart from R.K. Shriramkumar, the Music Academy has announced
several other prestigious awards for 2025:

____________ _____________________
 ●​ Nritya Kalanidhi award: Dancer Urmila Satyanarayana.
Sangita Kala Acharya awards:

Vocalist Shymala Venkateswaran.

Thavil maestro T.R. Govindarajan.
TTK awards:

Kathakali artiste Madambi Subramania Namboothiri.

Veena players J.T. Jeyaraaj Krishnan and Jayasri Jeyaraaj Krishnan.
The Sangita Kala Acharya and TTK awards will be presented alongside
the Sangita Kalanidhi award on January 1, 2026, the final day of the
Sadas (Valedictory function). The Nritya Kalanidhi award will be
conferred at the 19th annual dance festival on January 3, 2026.

____________ _____________________
95.Which of the following statements are correct regarding the
recommendations of the Kerala Urban Policy Commission?
1.​ Thrissur and Kochi are recommended to be branded as fintech
hubs.
2.​ Kozhikode is recommended to be branded as a ‘Cultural City’
due to its UNESCO recognition.
3.​ Kannur is recommended to be branded as a fashion city.
4.​ Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam are recommended to be
developed as smart cities.

A.​1 ,2 and 3 only

B.​ 2, 3 and 4 only
C.​ 1 and 3 only
D.​1 and 4 only

95.C

The Kerala Urban Policy Commission, constituted by the Kerala state

government in December 2023 and chaired by M. Satheesh Kumar, has
submitted its report to Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan. The Commission's
primary task was to draft a comprehensive urban policy for Kerala’s
development over the next 25 years.

____________ _____________________
Key Recommendations:
Branding of Municipalities and Cities: The Commission recommends
branding municipalities and cities across Kerala based on their regional
characteristics. Some of the proposed city brands are:

●​ Thrissur & Kochi: To be branded as fintech hubs.

●​ Palakkad & Kasaragod: To be developed as industry-driven smart
cities.

●​ Thiruvananthapuram & Kollam: To form a knowledge corridor.

●​ Kannur: To be branded as a fashion city.

●​ Kannur-Kasaragod & Thrissur-Ernakulam stretches: To be

developed as educational and medical hubs.

●​ Kozhikode as 'Literature City': The Commission also recommends

officially branding Kozhikode as a ‘Literature City’ due to its
recognition as India’s only UNESCO City of Literature.

These initiatives aim to guide Kerala’s urban development by leveraging

the distinct characteristics of each region, ensuring sustainable growth
and enhancing the state's competitive advantages in different sectors.

____________ _____________________
96.Who were the recipients of the 2024 ACM A.M. Turing Award?
A) Andrew G. Barto and Richard S. Sutton
B) Donald Knuth and John McCarthy
C) Geoffrey Hinton and Yann LeCun
D) Vint Cerf and Bob Kahn

96.A
​The 2024 ACM A.M. Turing Award, often referred to as the "Nobel Prize
of Computing," was jointly awarded to Andrew G. Barto and Richard S.
Sutton for their pioneering work in developing the conceptual and
algorithmic foundations of reinforcement learning. This recognition
honors their contributions, which have significantly influenced modern
artificial intelligence systems, including advancements that enabled
programs like Google's AlphaGo and tools such as ChatGPT. ​

About the Awardees

Andrew G. Barto: A professor emeritus at the University of
Massachusetts Amherst, Barto has been instrumental in shaping the field
of reinforcement learning, focusing on how agents can learn optimal
behaviors through interactions with their environment. ​

Richard S. Sutton: Currently a professor at the University of Alberta,

Sutton, a former graduate student of Barto, has made significant

____________ _____________________
contributions to reinforcement learning, particularly in developing
algorithms that allow machines to learn from experience and feedback. ​

Significance of the Turing Award

The Turing Award carries a $1 million prize, supported by Google, Inc. It
is presented annually by the Association for Computing Machinery
(ACM) to individuals who have made substantial contributions of lasting
importance to computing. The award is named after Alan M. Turing, a
British mathematician and logician who is considered one of the fathers
of computer science. ​

Barto and Sutton's work laid the groundwork for reinforcement

learning, a key area of machine learning where agents learn to make
decisions by performing actions and receiving feedback. Their research
has been fundamental in developing algorithms that enable machines to
learn from experience, leading to significant advancements in AI
technologies used in various applications today.​

Their recognition underscores the profound impact of foundational

research on the development of intelligent systems and highlights the
importance of continued innovation in the field of artificial intelligence.

____________ _____________________
97. In which case did the Supreme Court of India lay down a
three-month deadline for the President to decide on Bills referred by
the Governor under Article 201?

A) State of Kerala vs. Union of India, 2018

B) State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor of Tamil Nadu, 2023

C) State of Tamil Nadu vs. Union of India ,2024

D) Manohar Lal Sharma vs. Union of India, 2023

97.B

The Supreme Court (SC) of India, in the State of Tamil Nadu vs. Governor

of Tamil Nadu,2023 has, for the first time, laid down a 3-month deadline
for the President to decide on Bills referred by the Governor under
Article 201 of the Constitution.

What is the SC’s Verdict on the President’s Role in State Bills?

Article 201: It states that “when a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the
consideration of the President, the President shall either assent to the
Bill or withhold assent therefrom."

The SC noted that Article 201 provides no specific timeline for

Presidential assent, and such delays can stall legislative processes,
leaving state Bills in “indefinite and uncertain abeyance.”

____________ _____________________
It emphasized that inaction violates the constitutional principle of
non-arbitrariness in the exercise of power.

Time Limit: The SC held that the President cannot exercise an “absolute
veto” by indefinitely delaying assent. A decision must be made within
three months, and any delay must be reasoned and communicated to the
State.

Withholding assent must be based on sound and specific grounds, not

done arbitrarily.

If the President fails to act within the time limit, States can file writ
petitions to compel a decision, seeking a Writ of Mandamus from the
Court.

Additionally, the SC stated that under Article 143, if a bill is reserved by

the Governor on the grounds of unconstitutionality, the President ought
to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion.

Although it is not mandatory, the reference to the SC in such cases

carries high persuasive value.

The SC clarified that unlike the Governor, who must assent to a State Bill
if it is passed again after being returned. The President is not
constitutionally bound to do so under Article 201.

This is because Article 201 applies only in exceptional cases where state
legislation has potential national implications.

____________ _____________________
References: The SC referred to the 2016 Office Memorandums issued by
the Ministry of Home Affairs, which prescribed a three-month timeline
for decisions on state bills reserved for the President.

The Court invoked recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission (1988)

and Punchhi Commission (2010), both of which called for time-bound
decisions on reserved Bills.

What are the Key SC Judgements Related to the Powers of the Governor
and the President?

President:

●​ S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994): SC ruled that the President's

Rule is subject to judicial review and cannot be imposed
arbitrarily.
●​ Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1988): The SC ruled that the
President's pardoning power is independent of the judiciary.
●​ However, it can be reviewed to ensure procedural fairness,
focusing on adherence to constitutional principles and procedural
requirements rather than the merits of the decision.
●​ R.C. Cooper v. Union of India (1970): The SC held that the
President’s satisfaction regarding the necessity of an ordinance is
not immune from judicial review and can be challenged.
●​ It also held that an ordinance is subject to the same constitutional
limitations as an Act of Parliament and cannot violate any
fundamental rights or other provisions of the Constitution.

____________ _____________________
Governor:

●​ S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994): The SC ruled that the

Governor's recommendation for President's Rule is subject to
judicial review and cannot be imposed arbitrarily.
●​ Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974): SC emphasized that the
Governor must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except
in situations where the Constitution requires the Governor to act in
his discretion.
●​ Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006):: The SC declared the
dissolution of the Bihar Legislative Assembly unconstitutional,
emphasizing that the Governor’s powers are not absolute and must
be exercised in accordance with constitutional principles.
●​ The judgement reinforced the importance of judicial review in
overseeing executive actions

The SC’s interpretation on Article 201 establishes a clear three-month

deadline for the President to act on state bills, enhancing accountability
and reducing arbitrary delays. This decision strengthens federal
governance by empowering States to challenge undue delays. It ensures
transparency and safeguards against the misuse of executive powers in
the legislative process.

____________ _____________________
98.What is the primary objective of the Vruthi National Conclave?

A) To discuss climate change and environmental degradation.

B) To highlight Kerala's achievements in sustainable waste

management.

C) To focus on technological advancements in the entertainment

industry

D) To promote Kerala’s traditional dance forms and cultural heritage.

98.C

The Vruthi 2025 – The Clean Kerala Conclave is a significant five-day

international event held from April 9 to 13, 2025, at Kanakakunnu
Palace, Thiruvananthapuram. Organized by the Kerala State Waste
Management Project (KSWMP), the conclave aims to showcase Kerala's
achievements in sustainable waste management and explore strategies
for a waste-free future.​

Theme: The conclave focuses on promoting sustainable waste

management, circular economy solutions, and climate resilience.​

____________ _____________________
Participants: The event brings together global experts, policymakers,
startups, investors, administrators, media professionals, and the general
public.​

Sessions: Over 60 sessions are organized across

seven thematic areas: liquid and solid waste
management, climate change, circular economy,
policies and regulations, media and
communication, public awareness, and innovation.​

Exhibitions and Festivals: The conclave features

exhibitions and a food festival, highlighting Kerala's
local culture and sustainable practices.​

Awards: Kannur district received an award for its

exemplary performance in the “Malinya Muktham Navakeralam”
campaign.​

Vision Document: The event culminated in the release of a vision

document outlining future waste management strategies.​

The conclave underscores Kerala's commitment to sustainable

development and serves as a platform for sharing innovative solutions in
waste management.

____________ _____________________
99.Who won the Indian Super League 2024–25 season?​

A) Mumbai City FC​

B) Bengaluru FC​

C) Mohun Bagan Super Giant​

D) Hyderabad FC

99.C
Mohun Bagan Super Giant clinched the ISL 2024–25 title by defeating
Bengaluru FC 2–1 in the final, held on April 12, 2025, at the Vivekananda
Yuba Bharati Krirangan in Kolkata.

The Indian Super League (ISL) 2024–25 season commenced on September

13, 2024, featuring 13 teams, including the newly promoted
Mohammedan Sporting Club, who secured promotion after topping the
I-League. The league ran from September 13, 2024, to March 12, 2025,
with playoffs starting on March 29–30, 2025, and culminating in the Final
on April 12, 2025. Mohun Bagan SG clinched both the ISL Shield and the
ISL Cup, marking their 7th Indian title.

The top scorer of the season was Alaeddine Ajaraie, who scored 23 goals,
while the Best Goalkeeper was Vishal Kaith, who kept 15 clean sheets.
The opening match took place between Mohun Bagan SG and Mumbai
City FC on September 13, 2024, at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati
Krirangan in Kolkata.

____________ _____________________
Matches were held across several venues, including Vivekananda Yuba
Bharati Krirangan in Kolkata, Sree Kanteerava Stadium in Bengaluru,
Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Kochi, Fatorda Stadium in Goa, Indira
Gandhi Athletic Stadium in Guwahati, JRD Tata Sports Complex in
Jamshedpur, Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, Jawaharlal Nehru
Stadium in Chennai, Mumbai Football Arena in Mumbai, G.M.C. Balayogi
Stadium in Hyderabad, and Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Delhi.

Award Winner Details

Golden Alaeddine Ajaraie Top scorer with 23 goals

Boot

Golden Vishal Kaith Best goalkeeper with 15 clean

Glove sheets

Best Hugo Boumous Outstanding all-around

Player performance

Champion Mohun Bagan Super Winners of the ISL 2024–25

s Giant season

Runner-Up Bengaluru FC Finished second in the final

Best Juan Ferrando Head coach of Mohun Bagan

Manager Super Giant

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100.Which of the following statements is/are correct
1: Dharmadam is the first constituency in Kerala to be declared free
of extreme poverty.
2: The initiative to eliminate extreme poverty in Kerala began in 2023.

A) Only Statement 1 is correct.

B) Only Statement 2 is correct.
C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

100.A
Dharmadam, the Assembly constituency represented by Kerala Chief
Minister Pinarayi Vijayan, has been officially declared the first
constituency in the state to be free of extreme poverty.

The initiative began in August 2021 as part of a comprehensive

government project aimed at eradicating extreme poverty across Kerala.
The effort involved coordinated interventions from various departments,
especially local self-government institutions. A total of 64,002 individuals
were identified as living in extreme poverty, and micro plans were
developed to uplift each of them and their families.

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In Dharmadam constituency, all eight panchayats have now been
officially declared free from extreme poverty. This success was achieved
through the implementation of the "Right to Swift Assistance" and micro
plan initiatives. Services under the micro plan were categorized into
three types: immediately implementable, short-term, and long-term
projects. A total of 196 families from the eight grama panchayats were
selected.

Those on the borderline of poverty were provided with essential

documents and support, including ration cards, disability certificates,
Aadhaar cards, bank accounts, LPG connections, welfare pensions, job
cards, voter identity cards, and access to free medical care for all family
members. Free food was distributed to 79 individuals from 19 families
through grama panchayats in collaboration with Kudumbashree units
and NGOs.
Healthcare services were extended to 139 individuals via Public Health
Centers (PHC) and Palliative Care Centers. Monthly income support was
arranged through various departmental and panchayat-level projects.
Under the LIFE housing project, 27 new houses were constructed, and 40
families received financial assistance for house renovation works.
Additionally, six families were provided with both land and housing.

The Kerala government aims to declare the entire state free from
extreme poverty by November 1, 2025, as part of the fourth-year
celebrations of the second Pinarayi Vijayan-led Left government. Chief

____________ _____________________
Minister Pinarayi Vijayan declared Dharmadam in Kannur as Kerala's
first legislative constituency free of extreme poverty.

Dharmadam is the Assembly constituency represented by Kerala Chief

Minister Pinarayi Vijayan.

Significantly, the four common factors taken as indicators of extreme

poverty were food availability, health, income, and housing, which have
been considered basic requirements for survival of a family.

In the NITI-Aayog's first multidimensional poverty index (MPI) released

in 2021, Kerala had been the state with the lowest poverty of 0.71%
across India.

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