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D.A.V GROUP OF SCHOOLS, CHENNAI & RANIPET
COMMON QUARTERLY EXAMINATION – 2022 – 2023
CHEMISTRY
Class: XI Time: 3 hours
Date: 23.09.22 Max.Marks: 70
General Instructions
There are 33 questions in this question paper. All questions are compulsory.
Section A: Q. No. 1 to 16 are objective type questions. Q. No. 1 and 2 are
passage-based questions carrying 4 marks each while Q. No. 3 to 16 carry 1 mark
each.
Section B: Q. No. 17 to 25 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
Section C: Q. No. 26 to 30 are short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
Section D: Q. No. 31 to 33 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided.
Use of calculators and log tables is not permitted.
SECTION – A
1.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: (4)
Orbitals are regions or spaces where there is a maximum probability of finding
electrons. Qualitatively, these orbitals can be distinguished by their size, shape, and
orientation. An orbital of small size means there is more chance of finding the electron
near the nucleus. Shape and orientation mean the direction in which the probability of
finding the electron is maximum. Atomic orbitals can be distinguished by quantum
numbers. Each orbital is designated by three quantum numbers n, l, and m l (magnetic
quantum number) which define energy, shape, and orientation but these are not
sufficient to explain spectra of multi-electrons atoms. Spin quantum number (ms)
determines the spin of electrons. Spin angular momentum of the electron has two
orientations relative to the chosen axis which are distinguished by spin quantum
numbers ms which can take values +½ and –½.
(i) The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
(ii)A What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following
set of quantum numbers? n = 3, l= 1 and m = -1
a. 10
b. 6
c. 4
d. 2
OR
(ii)B Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of
titanium?
a. 3s 3p 3d 4s
b. 3s 3p 4s 3d
c. 3s 4s 3p 3d
d. 4s 3s 3p 3d
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(iii) The quantum numbers + ½ and –½ for the electron spin represent
a. rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively
b. rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
c. magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
d. two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classified analogue
(iv) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l:
1. n = 4, l =1 3. n =3, l =2
2. n = 4, I = 0 4. n =3, l =1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
a, (1) < (3) < (2) < (4)
b. (3) < (4) < (2) < (1)
c. (4) < (2) < (3) < (1)
d. (2) < (4) < (1) < (3)
2.Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: (4)
Modern periodic table arranges the elements in the increasing order of atomic number.
It has 18 groups and 7 periods. Atomic numbers are consecutive in a period and
increases in the group in a pattern. Elements are divided into four blocks, s-block, p-
block, d-block, and f-block based on their electronic configuration. 78% of elements are
metals, about 20 elements are non-metals, and few elements like B, Si, Ge, As are
metalloids. Metallic character increases down the group but decreases along the period
from left to right. The physical and chemical properties vary periodically with their
atomic numbers. Periodic trends are observed in atomic size, ionization enthalpies,
electron gain enthalpies, electronegativity, and valence. Oxides of metals are basic,
some are amphoteric. Non-metals form acidic oxides, some form neutral oxides. s-block
elements are soft, highly reactive, do not show variable oxidation states. p-block
elements are metals, non-metals as well as metalloids, show variable oxidation states,
exist as solids, liquids, and gases. d-block elements are metals, form coloured ions,
show variable oxidation states, have high melting and boiling points. Lanthanoids and
actinoids are f-block elements, form coloured ions. All actinoids are radioactive.
a. Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and reason is the correct
explanation for assertion.
b. Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but reason is not the
correct explanation for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(i) Assertion: Second period consists of 8 elements.
Reason: Number of elements in each period is four times the number of atomic orbitals
available in the energy level that is being filled.
(ii) Assertion: Sixth period is the longest period in the periodic table.
Reason: Sixth period involves the filling of all the orbitals of the sixth energy level.
(iii) Assertion: The element with [Xe]54 4f1 5d1 6s2 is a d- block element
Reason: Last electron enters in d- orbital in d- block elements
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(iv)A. Assertion: Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
Reason: When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the same principal
quantum level, the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does not increase very
much to compensate for the increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.
OR
B. Assertion: I and II group elements are called s-block elements
Reason: They lose their outermost electron(s) readily to form +1 or +2 ions
3. Which of the following contains same number of carbon atoms as are in 6.0 g of carbon
(C – 12)?
a. 6.0 g Ethane
b. 8.0 g Methane
c. 21.0 g Propane
d. 28.0 g CO (1)
4A. 12.044 x 1023 atoms of oxygen contains _______
a. 1 mole of oxygen
b. 2 moles of oxygen
c. 3 moles of oxygen
d. 4 moles of oxygen
OR
4B. A solution contains 8 moles of solute and the mass of the solvent is 4 kg. What’s the
molality of this solution?
a. 5 mol/kg
b. 8 mol/kg
c. 4 mol/kg
d. 2 mol/kg (1)
5. The percentage of nitrogen in HNO3 is (atomic mass N =14: O =16)
a. 22.22%
b. 35%
c. 28.54%
d. 45% (1)
6A. In which of the following pairs, the ions are isoelectronic?
a. Na+, Mg2+
b. Al3+, O-
c. Na+, Ca2+
d. N3-, Cl-
OR
6B. A metal’s work function is 3.8 kJ. Photons strike metal’s surface with an energy of
5.2 kJ. What’s the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons?
a. 3.8 kJ
b. 5.2 kJ
c. 9 kJ
d.1.4 kJ (1)
7A. Among the following the electron deficient compound is
a. BCl3
b. CCl4
c. PCl5
d. BeCl2
OR
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7B. The bond enthalpy of H2O and OH are 502 KJ mol-1 and 427 KJ mol-1. Then what is
the average bond enthalpy?
a. 502 KJ mol-1
b. 464.5 KJ mol-1
c. 427 KJ mol-1
d. 75 KJ mol-1 (1)
8A. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds e.g., H2O, HF, NH3. The boiling point
of such compounds depends to a large extent on the strength of hydrogen bond and
the number of hydrogen bonds: The correct decreasing order of the boiling points of
above compounds is
a. HF > H2O > NH3
b. H2O > HF > NH3
c. NH3 > HF > H2O
d. NH3 > H2O > HF
OR
8B. Which of the following statements is not correct from the view point of molecular
orbital theory?
a. Be2 is not a stable molecule.
b. He2 is not stable but He+2 is expected to exist.
c. Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic molecules
belonging to the second period.
d. The order of energies of molecular orbitals in N2 molecule is σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz
< (π2px = π2py) < (π* 2px = π* 2py) < σ*2pz (1)
9. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s²5p 4
corresponds to the element present in:
a.Group 16 and period 6
b. Group 17 and period 6
c. Group 16 and period 5
d. Group 17 and period 5 (1)
10. Which of the following the correct IUPAC name?
a. 3-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane
b. 4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
c. 5-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane
d. 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane (1)
11. Which one is strongest acid among following options?
a. CH2FCOOH
b. CH2ClCOOH
c. CHCl2COOH
d. CHF2COOH (1)
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In the following questions (Q. No. 12 - 16) a statement of assertion followed by a
statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
12.Assertion: Tertiary carbocations are generally formed more easily than primary
carbocations.
Reason: Hyperconjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups
stabilise tertiary carbocations. (1)
13. Assertion: Alkyl carbanions like ammonia have pyramid shape.
Reason: The carbon atom carrying negative charge has an octet of electrons. (1)
14A. Assertion: Of all the elements, helium has the highest value of first ionisation enthalpy.
Reason: Helium has the most positive electron gain enthalpy of all the elements
OR
14B. Assertion: The ionisation of s-electron requires more energy than ionisation of
p-electrons of the same shell.
Reason: s-electrons are closer to the nucleus than p-electrons and hence are more
strongly attracted by the nucleus. (1)
15. Assertion: Boiling points of cis – isomers are higher than trans - isomer
Reason: Dipole moments of Cis – isomers are higher than trans – isomers. (1)
16. Assertion: Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies of all
canonical forms.
Reason: Resonance hybrid cannot be explained by a single structure. (1)
SECTION – B
17A. A sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with chloroform,
CHCl3, supposed to be carcinogenic in nature. The level of contamination was
15ppm (by mass).
(i) Express this in per cent by mass.
(ii) Determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.
OR
17B. (i) State Avogadro’s law
(ii) Calculate the number of molecules present in 22g of CO2 (2)
18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH in solution prepared by dissolving 4g in enough water
to form 250ml of solution. (Atomic mass Na = 23; O = 16; H = 1) (2)
19A. Yellow light emitted from Sodium lamp has a wavelength (λ) of 580nm. Calculate the
frequency and wave number of yellow light.
OR
19B. List any two short comings of Bohr’s model (2)
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20A.
Which of the above elements is likely to be:
a. the least reactive element
b. the most reactive metal
c. the most reactive non-metal
d. the least reactive non-metal
OR
20B (i) State Modern periodic law.
(ii) Write the general electronic configuration of d – block elements. (2)
21. (i) Write the favourable factors for the formation of ionic bond.
(ii) Represent the resonance structure of CO32- (2)
22. Arrange the following in order of increasing radii:
(i) I, I+, I- (ii) O2-, N3-, S2-, F - (2)
23. What is the type of hybridisation of marked carbon in the following compound?
(i) *CH3CH=*CHCN
(ii) Define octet rule (2)
24. In Carious method of estimation of halogen, 0.15g of an organic compound gave 0.12g
of AgBr. Find out the percentage of bromine in the compound. (atomic mass Ag =108,
Br = 80) (2)
25. What are electrophiles and nucleophiles? Give an example for each. (2)
SECTION - C
26A (i) Write the electronic configuration of Cu (Z=29)
(ii) How many electrons in sulphur (Z = 16) can have n+l = 3?
(iii) what are degenerate orbitals
OR
26B. (i) State Hund’s rule
(ii) How many electrons in an atom may have the following quantum numbers?
(a) n = 4, ms = – ½ (b) n = 3, l = 0 (3)
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27A. 3g of H2 react with 29g of O2 to form H2O (Molecular mass of H2 =2.016)
(i) Which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) Calculate the maximum amount of H2O that can be formed.
(iii) Calculate the amount of reactant unused.
OR
27B. A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen gave the following analytical
data: C = 40% and H = 6.67%. Calculate the molecular formula if its molecular mass is
180. (3)
28. (i) Define ionisation enthalpy ?
(ii) Among the second period elements, the actual ionisation energies are in the order
Li > B > Be > C > O > N > F > Ne
Explain why (a) Be has higher ∆iH than B (b) O has lower ∆iH than N ? (3)
29. (i) Define dipole moment.
(ii) Dipole moment of NH3 (4.90 x 10-30 Cm) is greater than NF3 (0.8 x 10-30 Cm) -
Explain. (3)
30. (i) Give the condensed and bond line formula for the following
`````` a. 2-methylbuta-1,3-diene b. Hexa-1,3,5-triene
(ii) Identify the functional groups in the following compounds
(3)
SECTION – D
31A.(i) Classify the following types of reactions
(ii) In which of the following compounds the carbon marked with asterisk is expected
to have greatest positive charge?
a. b.
(iii) Write the IUPAC name of
a. b.
OR
31B. (i) What are functional isomers? give an example.
(ii) Suggest a method of separation to purify
a. A mixtue of liquid A (b.pt 365K) and a liquid B (b pt 356K)
b. A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point.
(iii) Explain the principle of paper chromatography. (5)
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32A. (i) State Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
(ii) A golf ball has a mass of 40g, and a speed of 45 m/s. If the speed can be
measured within accuracy of 2%, calculate the uncertainty in the position.
(iii) What will be the wavelength of an object of mass 0.1 kg moving with a velocity of
10 m s–1 ?
OR
32B. (i) What is Bohr’s radius?
(ii) Calculate the energy and radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit for hydrogen atom.
(iii) Calculate the wavenumber for the longest wavelength transition in the Balmer
series of atomic hydrogen. (5)
33A. (i) BF3 has zero dipole moment although the B-F bonds are polar – give reason
(ii) Represent the structure of ClF3 and SF6
(iii) Describe the hybridisation and shape of methane
OR
33B. (i) Define Bond order
(ii) Using MOT Compare the relative stability of the following species O2, O2+
(iii) What are the two types of hydrogen bonding and give example for each
(5)
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