XIII CT - 01 NEET 2026

Date: TARGET: NEET XIII (2026)

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 720
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
 General instructions.
 Use a blue or black pen for filling the OMR. A pencil or any other coloured ink is not
allowed.
 Write your name and other identifying information at the appropriate place only.
 Manage your time e ectively and allocate su icient time for each section.
 Any form of cheating or academic dishonesty will result in immediate disqualification.
 Raise your hand and ask the invigilator silently if you have any doubts or clarifications
during examination.
 Do not leave the examination hall until the invigilator has collected all the answer
sheets.
 Paper instructions.
 This question paper consists of 180 Objective type of questions. There are 45
questions in each PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BOTANY & ZOOLGY subject, respectively.

 Each question has four options, (1), (2), (3) & (4). Only one of
these options is correct.
 Marking Scheme:
 Positive : +4 if only correct option is chosen.
 Zero : 0 if none of the answers are chosen
i.e. question is unanswered.
 Negative : -1 in all other cases.

NAME: ……………………………………………………….. DAK ROLL NO.: ……………..………………………….

Dakshana Foundation
Head O ice: Dakshana Valley, Kadus Village, Pune 412 404, Maharashtra, India
Website: www.dakshana.org | E-mail: academics@dakshana.org | Mobile: +91.77987.86405
 PHYSICS
1 A body covers a distance of 5 m along a 8 A swimmer's resultant speed in direction of
semicircular path. The ratio of distance flow of river is 20 km/hr. Against the direction
covered to displacement is of flow of river the swimmer's resultant speed
(1) 11/7 (2) 12/5 (3) 8/3 (4) 7/5 is 10 km/hr. Swimmer's speed in still water
2 A ball of mass m is dropped from the top of and river flow speed. (in km/hr) are :
tower of suitable height. The ratio of distance (1) 12, 4 (2) 10, 3 (3) 15, 5 (4) 15, 10
covered by the ball is first 3 s to the next 3 s is 9 A train of length 200 m moving with constant
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 acceleration crosses a bridge of length 300 m.
3 The velocity-time (v-t) graph for a particle It enters on the bridge with speed 3 m/s and
moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. The leaves with speed 5 m/s. Then time taken by
acceleration at t = 4.5 s is the train to cross the bridge :
(1) 25 Sec (2) 75 Sec (3)125 Sec (4)150 Sec
10 Two cars start o to race with velocity 4 m/s
and 2 m/s and travels in a straight line with
constant acceleration 1 m/s2 and 2 m/s2 . If
they reach the final point at same instant,
then length of the path is :
(1) 30 m (2) 32 m (3) 20 m (4) 24 m

(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3) 8 m/s2 (4) 6 m/s2 11 A person hired a boat for 3 hrs. The river flows
at a 1106.. speed of 2.5 km/hr and speed of
4 A particle is projected in x-y plane with initial
boat is 7.5 km/hr w.r.t. water. The start from a
velocity 3𝚤̂ + 2𝚥̂) m/s, then velocity of particle
point rowing along the the river and comes
after 2 s, if it moves under the acceleration of
back to the same point in 3 hrs. Then distance
(𝚤 – 𝚥̂) m/s2 is
travelled by him is -
(1) 5𝚤̂ m/s (2) (5𝚤̂ + 𝚥̂) m/s
(1) 20 km (2) 8 km (3) 6 km (4) 5 km
(3) 2𝚤̂ m/s (4) (5𝚤̂ – 𝚥̂) m/s
12 A balloon is going vertically upwards with a
5 A man is moving on a straight horizontal road
velocity of 12 m/s. It releases a packet when it
with velocity 5 km/h. Rain is falling vertically
is at height of 65 m from the ground. The time
with velocity 5 km/h. The relative velocity of
taken by packet to reach ground is
rain w.r.t. man is
(1) 5 s (2) 6 s (3) 7 s (4) 8 s
(1) 10 km/h (2) 5√2 km/h
(3) 5√5 km/h (4) Zero 13 A body sliding down from rest on a smooth
6 inclined plane slides down distance in 2 s.
Two vectors
are given. The unit vector along the vector It will slide the complete plane in
(1) 4 s (2) 6 s (3) 5 s (4) 3 s
14 The resultant of two forces acting at an angle
150° is 10 N and is perpendicular to one of the
(1) (2)
force. The other force is
(1) 20√3 N (2) 10√3 N
(3) (4) (3) 20 N (4) 20√5 N
7 A particle is moving towards west a velocity 10m/s.
15 A body is thrown vertically upwards and takes
In 20 sec. velocity changes to 10 m/s southward.
The average acceleration in this time is : 5 seconds to reach maximum height. The
distance travelled by the body will be same in :
(1) m/s2 in S-E direction (1) 1st and 10th second
√
(2) 2nd and 8th second
(2) m/s2 in S-W direction
√ (3) 4st and 6th second
(3) 1/2 m/s2 in South direction (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Zero
16 For ground to ground projectile motion the 22 When a horse starts suddenly, the rider falls
angle between instantaneous velocity vector backward due to inertia of
and acceleration vector at highest point of its (1) Rest (2) Direction
motion is (3) Motion (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 23 If the normal force is doubled, the coe icient
of friction is :
17 In the given figure, the horizontal range of
(1) Not changed (2) Halved
projectile is
(3) Doubled (4) Tripled
24 A light string passing over a pulley (m = 0) and
connect two blocks of masses m1 and m2. If
acceleration of masses is g/8 then the ratio of
masses is :

(1) 40 m (2) 90 m (3) 60 m (4) 70 m

18 The acceleration of the given block is

(1) 8 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 3

25 A The variation of momentum with time of one
(1) 3 m/s 2
(2) 9 m/s 2
(3) 4 m/s 2
(4) 5 m/s 2 of the body in a two body collision is shown in
19 The ratio of tensions T2 to T1 in rope is (If ropes figure. The instantaneous force is maximum at
are massless the point :

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

(1) √2 :√3 (2) 1 : √2 (3) √3 :√2 (4) 1 : 2
26 A body of mass 3kg is acted on by a force
20 A body of mass 1 kg is acted on by a force (F) which varies with time as shown in figure. The
which varies with time (t) as shown in the momentum acquired is given by :
graph given below. The momentum acquired
by the body in 2 s, if it starts from rest is

(1) Zero (2) 5 N-s (3) 30 N-s (4) 50 N-s

27 The velocity of a body of mass 5 kg decreases
(1)2.5 N s (2) 10 N s (3) 1 N s (4) 5 N s from 20 ms–1 to 8 ms–1 in 6 seconds then force
acting on the body is:
(1) -10N (2) -12N (3) -15N (4) -18N
21 A 3 kg block is resting on a truck moving with
an acceleration of 2 m/s2 on a horizontal road. 28 8A particle moving in x-y plane under the
Force of friction on the block is action of a force F such that the component of
its linear momentum P at any time t are px =
2cost, Py = 2sint. The angle between F⃗ and P⃗
at time t is:
(1) 90o (2) 0o (3) 180o (4) 30o
(1) Zero (2) 4 N (3) 6 N (4) 8 N
29 A coin is dropped in a lift, it takes t1 time to 35
reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes
time t2 when lift is moving up with constant
acceleration. Then :
(1) t1 > t2 (2) t1 < t2
In following diagram find value of T2.
(3) t1 = t2 (4) None of these
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N (3) 4 N (4) 1 N
30 If the tension in the cable of elevator of 1000
kg is 1000 kg-wt, the elevator : 36 Two cars A and B start moving from the same
(1) Is accelerating upwards point with same speed 36 m/s. Car A moves
(2) Is accelerating downwards towards North and car B moves towards East.
(3) May be at rest or accelerating What is the relative velocity of B w.r.t. A :
(4) May be at rest or in uniform motion (1) 362m/s towards South-East
(2) 362m/s towards North-West
31 A block of mass 5kg is moving on a rough
(3) 362m/s towards North-East
surface as shown in figure. The frictional force
(4) None of these
acting on block is :
37 Two trains are moving with equal speed in
opposite directions along two parallel railway
tracks. If the wind is blowing with speed u
along the track so that the relative velocities
(1) 12 N (2) 15 N (3) 18 N (4) 10 N of the trains with respect to the wind are in the
32 A block of mass M = 5 kg is resting on a rough ratio 1 : 2, then the speed of each trains must
horizontal surface for which the coe icient of be
friction is 0.2. When a force F = 40 N is applied (1) 3 u (2) 2 u (3) 5 u (4) 4 u
as shown in figure the acceleration of the
block will be (g = 10 m/s2) : 38 A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the
wall by a force of 80N as shown in figure. The
value of friction force is (take μs = 0.2)

(1) 5.73 m/sec2 (2) 8.0 m/sec2

(3) 3.17 m/sec2 (4) 10.0 m/sec2

33 In a triangle, shown in figure :-

(1) 32 N (upward) (2) 8 N (downward)

(3) 8 N (upward) (4) 32 N (downward)

39 Which of the following is self-adjusting force ?

(1) A⃗ + B⃗ = C⃗ (2) A⃗ + B⃗ + C⃗ = 0⃗ (1) Static friction (2) Limiting friction
(3) Kinetic friction (4) Rolling friction
(3) B⃗ + C⃗ – A⃗ = 0⃗ (4) A⃗ + C⃗ = B⃗
40 A cubical block rests on a plane of μ = √3.
34 Find out mechanical advantage of given
The angle through which the plane be inclined
system :
to the horizontal so that the block just slides
down will be :
(1) 30o (2) 45o (3) 60o (4) 75o

41 A heavy box is sliding on a rough floor with an

initial speed of 4 m/s. It stops after 8 seconds.
If the average resisting force is 10 N, the mass
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 of the box is (in kg)
(1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 5 (4) 2.5
42 A horizontal force 10 N is necessary to just 44 A man walks in rain with a velocity of 5
hold a block stationary against a wall. The km/hour. Due to which the raindrops strike at
coe icient of friction between the block and him at an angle of 45º with the horizontal. The
wall is 0.2, the weight of the block is : downward velocity of the raindrops will be :-
(1)5 km/h (2)4 km/h (3)3 km/h (4)1 km/h

45 A helicopter is flying horizontally at 8m/s at an

(1) 20 N (2) 50 N (3) 100 N (4) 2 N altitude 180m when a package of emergency
medical supplies is ejected horizontally
43 In accordance with Newton's third law of backward with a speed of 12 m/s relative to
motion: the helicopter. Ignoring air resistance what is
(1) Action and reaction never balance each horizontal distance between the package and
other on a single object. the helicopter when the package hits the
(2) For appearance of action and reaction, ground ?
physical contact is not necessary. (1) 120 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 72 m
(3) This law is applicable whether the bodies
are at rest or they are in motion.
(4) All of these
 CHEMISTRY
46 The electron a inity values in Kjmol–1 of 56 If the kinetic energy of an electron is Increased
halogen x, y and z are respectively –348, –331 four times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie
and –312 then x, y and z are respectively:- wave associated with it would become
(1) F, Cl, Br (2) Cl, F, Br (3) Cl, Br, F (4) Br, Cl, F (1) Two times (2) Half
(3) One fourth (4) Four times
47 O(g) + 2e → O2-(g), E = + 744.4 kJ/mole. The
positive value of E is due to :- 57 Calculate the wavelength (in nm) associated
(1) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O
with a proton moving at 1.0×103 ms-1 (Mass of
(2) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O-1
proton = 1.67×10-27 kg and h = 6.63×10-34 JS)
(3) Energy is released to add on 1 electron to O-1
(4) None of the above are correct
(1) 2.5 nm (2) 14.0 nm
(3) 0.032 nm (4) 0.40 nm
48 NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) if equilibrium
58 If the De-Broglie wavelength of 3rd Bohr orbit of
pressure is 3 atm for the above reaction, Kp for
H-atom is 3Å, the circumference of the orbit
the reaction is:
will be :-
(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 4/27 (4) 1/27
(1) 9 Å (2) 16 Å (3) 3 Å (4) 6 Å
49 Two gaseous equilibria SO2(g) + ½ O2(g) SO3(g) 59 The wavelength of electron wave in two orbit is 3 : 5.
and 2 SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) have equilibrium The ratio of kinetic energy of electrons will be ?
constants K1 and K2 respectively at 298 K. (1) 25.9 (2) 5:3 (3) 9.25 (4) 3.5
Which of the following relationships between K1 60 What will be the mass of a particle if
and K2 is correct? uncertainty in its position is 10–8 m and
(1) K1 = K2 (2) K2 = 𝐾 uncertainty in velocity is 5.26 × 10–25 m s–1 ?
(1) 0.01 kg (2) 100 kg (3) 1 kg (4) 10 kg
(3) K2 = (4) K2 = 61 How many geometrical isomers are possible
for given compound ?
50 The radius of hydrogen atom in ground state is C6H5– CH = CH – CH = CH – COOH
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 6
0.53 Å. What will be the radius of Li2+ in the
ground state ? 62 Which of the following compound does not
(1) 1.06 Å (2) 0.265 Å have any geometrical isomer
(3) 0.17 Å (4) 0.53 Å
51 In a hydrogen atom, the electron is at a distance of
4.768 Å from the nucleus. The angular momentum (2)
(1)
of the electron is :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

52 The ratio of the frequency corresponding to the (3) (4)
third line in Lyman series of hydrogen atomic
63 Which can show geometrical isomerism ?
spectrum to that of the first line in Balmer
series of Li2+ spectrum is :-
(1) 4/5 (2) 5/4 (3) 4/3 (4) 3/4
(1)
53 If electron in H-atom, fall down from 5th energy
state to first excited state how many lines are
(2)
obtain in ultraviolet region :-
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) Zero
54 What is the maximum wavelength for the line
in the Lyman series of He+ ion ?
(1) 3R (2) 1/3R (4)
(3) 1/R (4) None of these (3)
55 If the uncertainty in the position of an electron
is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum will be
(1) <h/4π (2) > h/4π (3) Zero (4) Infinite
64 How many double bonds are cis arrangement 71 Which of the following will have lowest dipole
in following example : moment ?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

(1) (2)
65 How many chiral centre are present in
1- Chloro- 2 - methyl cyclohexane :-
(3) (4)
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

66 Select which one of the following can not show 72

geometrical isomerism

(1) (1) Diastereomers (2) Enantiomers

(3) Identical (4) Constitutional isomers
(2)
(3) Me-CH=C=C=CH-Me 73

(4)
67 Which one of the following is capable of Configuration of compound is :
Showing geometrical isomerism. (1) 2S, 3S (2) 2R, 3S (3) 2R, 3R (4) 2S, 3R

74

(1) (2)
(4)
Have configuration respectively :
(1) R, S (2) S, S (3) S, R (4) R, R
(3)
75 Which of the following combinations amongst
the four Fischer projections represents the
68 The correct stereochemical descriptions for the same absolute configurations ?
structure given below are :

(1) 1 Z, 3Z (2) 1Z, 3E

(3) 1E, 3E (4) 1E, 3Z

69 The number of cis-trans isomer possible for the

following compound

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

70 Which of the following can show Geometrical

isomerism
(1) (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (II) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
76 The element having greatest di erence 84 The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The
between its first and second ionization value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will be:­
energies, is: (1) -2.55 eV (2) -5.1 eV (3) -10.2 eV (4)+2.55 eV
(1) Ca (2) K (3) Ba (4) Sc
85 Given
77 The correct statements among I to III regarding Reaction Energy Change (in kJ)
group 13 element oxides are, Li(s) → Li(g) 161
(I) Boron trioxide is acidic. Li(g) → Li+(g) 520
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric. ½ F2(g) → F(g) 77
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic. F(g) + e- → F-(g) (Electron gain enthalpy)
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II) and (III) only Li+(g) + F-(g) → LiF(s) -1047
(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I) and (II) only Li(s) + ½ F2(g) → Li F(s) -617
78 Statement-1: F atom has a less negative Based on data provided. the value of electron
electron gain enthalpy than CI atom. gain enthalpy of fluorine would be
Statement-2: Additional electron is repelled (1) -300 kJ mol-1 (2) -328 kJ mol-1
more e iciently by 3p electron in CI atom than (3) -350 kJ mol -1
(4) -228 kJ mol-1
by 2p electron in F atom.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and 86 INERT PAIR EFFECT
statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1. Statement-1: Boron does not show univalent nature
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
but unipositive nature of thallium is quite stable.
statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for Statement-2: Inert pair e ect predominates in
staternent-1. thallium.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-2 is false. (1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
79 Identify the least stable ion amongst the following: (2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and
(1) Li- (2) Be- (3) B- (4) C- statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
80 The increasing order of atomic radii of the (4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
following group 13 elements is
(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) Ga < Al < In < Tl
87 Which of the following order is incorrect
(3) Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) Al < Ga < Tl < In
against the property indicated:
(1) Mg < Ar < Na (2nd I.E.)
81 Which of the following series correctly (2) Be < F < Cl (|ΔHcg|)
represents relations between the elements (3) Rb < Na < K > Ca (atomic radius)
from X to Y ? (4) P < S < N (electronegativity)
X→ Y
(1) 18Ar → 54Xe Nobel character increases 88 Which of the following element has highest
(2) 3Li → 19K Ionization enthalpy increases metallic character.
(3) 6C → 32Br Atomic radii increases Element IP
(4) 9F → 35Br Electron gain enthalpy with negative (1) P 17 eV
sign increases (2) Q 2 eV
(3) R 10 eV
82 The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with (4) S 13 eV
negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I having atomic
number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively, is:- 89 EN of the element (A) is E1 and 1P is E2. Hence
(1) I > Br > Cl > F (2) F > Cl > Br > I EA will be according to mulliken
(3) Cl > F > Br > I (4) Br > Cl > I > F (1) 2E1 – E2 (2) E1 – E2 (3) E1 – 2E2 (4)(E1+E2)/2
83 Which of the following represents the correct
order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for 90 The increasing order of acidic nature of Li2O, BeO, B2O3
Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar ? (1) Li2O > BeO < B2O3 (2) Li2O < BeO < B2O2
(1) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (2) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (3) Li2O < BeO > B2O3 (4) Li2O > BeO > B2O3
(3) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (4) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
 BOTANY

91 Emerson's enhancement e ect and red drop 96 Identify the correct statements regarding
have been instrumental in the discovery of: - chemiosmotic hypothesis :
(1) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic (a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on
electron transport the inner side of the membrane.
(b) Protons accumulate within the lumen of the
(2) Two photosystems operating
thylakoids.
simultaneously (c) Primary acceptor of electron transfers the
(3) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron electrons to an electron carrier.
transport (d) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation stroma side of the membrane.
(e) Protons increase in number in stroma. Choose
92 With reference to factors affecting the rate of the correct answer from the options given
photosynthesis, which of the following below:
statements is not correct? (1) (a), (b) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (e)
up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
(2) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures 97 Given below are two statements :
with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants Statement I : RuBisCO is the most abundant
have much lower temperature optimum enzyme in the world.
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be Statement II : Photorespiration does not occur
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher in C4 plants. In the light of the above
yield statements,
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at choose the most appropriate answer from the
10% of full sunlight options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
93 One scientist cultured Cladophora in a incorrect
suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
culture by splitting light through a prism. He correct
observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
the region of: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) Violet and green light 98 Which out of the following statements is
(2) Indigo and green light incorrect ?
(3) Orange and yellow light (1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(4) Blue and red light (2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
and PS II
94 Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised during
non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(1) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP reductase
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack 99 Typical growth curve in plants is: -
NADP reductase. (1) Linear (2) Stair-steps shaped
(3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II. (3) Parabolic (4) Sigmoid
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
PS I and PS II. 100 What causes a green plant exposed to the light
on only one side, to bend toward the source of
95 Which one of the following is not true regarding
light as it grows?
the release of energy during ATP synthesis
(1) Green plants seek light because they are
through chemiosmosis? It involves : phototropic
(1) Breakdown of electron gradient (2) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to
(2) Movement of protons across the membrane grow faster
to the stroma (3) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side,
(3) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stimulating greater cell elongation there.
stroma side of the membrane (4) Green plants need light to perform
(4) Breakdown of proton gradient photosynthesis
101 Removal of shoot tips is a very useful 107 Which among the following spores are not
technique to boost the production of tea- involved in asexual reproduction of fungi?
leaves. This is because: - (1) Conidia (2) Zoospores
(1) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated (3) Sporangiospores (4) Ascospores
(2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(3) E ect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral 108 Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct
buds is enhanced.
option.
(4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.
(i) _______ bacteria are helpful in making curd,
102 Which of the following is incorrectly matched production of antibiotics, fixing nitrogen.
pair? (ii) ________ gave five kingdom classification.
(1) Ethylene – Cousins
(iii) _______ bacteria play a great role in
(2) Kinetin – Skoog and Miller
recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus,
(3) Gibberellic acid – F.W. Went
iron and sulphur.
(4) Auxin – Darwin and Darwin
(i) (ii) (iii)
103 Match List-I with List-II. (1) Heterotrophic Aristotle Photoautotrophic
List-I List-II (2) Chemoautotrophic Carl Woese Heterotrophic
(A) Auxin (I) Promotes female flower formation in (3) Autotrophic Linnaeus Chemoautotrophic
cucumber (4) Heterotrophic R.H. Whittaker Chemoautotrophic
(B) Gibberellin (II) Overcoming apical dominance
(C) Cytokinin (III) Increase in the length of grape stalks 109 All the unicellular eukaryotic organisms which
(D) Ethylene (IV) Promotes flowering have either autotrophic or heterotrophic mode
in pineapple of nutrition are placed in kingdom
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Monera (2) Protista
below : (3) Archaebacteria (4) Fungi
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) 110 Given below are two statements.
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) Statement I: Members of Protista are primarily
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) aquatic, and boundaries of this kingdom are
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) well-defined.
104 While proposing three domain system of Statement II: Protistan cell body contains a
classification, which kingdom is divided into well-defined nucleus and the other membrane-
two domains by Carl Woese? bound organelles.
(1) Protista (2) Fungi In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Monera (4) Animalia correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
105 Viroids differs from prions as the former
incorrect
(1) Consist of DNA as a genetic material
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(2) Are similar in size to viruses correct
(3) Show mutual association with virus (3) Both the statements I and II are correct
(4) Are infectious to plants (4) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
106 Match the following column I with column II 111 Given below are two statments.
and choose the correct option. Assertion (A): Members of Ascomycetes and
Column I Column II Basidiomycetes have an intervening dikaryotic
a. Flagellated protozoan (i) They have cavity that
state.
opens to outside of the cell
surface Reason (R): In these fungi plasmogamy is not
b. Ciliated protozoan (ii) It has false feet to immediately followed by karyogamy.
caputure its prey In the light of the above statements, choose the
c. Amoeboid protozoan (iii) The parasitic form cause correct answer from the options given below.
diseases, like sleeping
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
sickness
d. Sporozoan (iv) It includes organism that (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
have infectious spore like correct explanation of (A)
stage (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) a(iii); b(iv); c(i); d(ii) (2) a(ii); b(i); c(iv); d(iii) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) a(iii); b(i); c(ii); d(iv) (4) a(ii); b(iii); c(iv); d(i) correct explanation (A)
112 Read the following statements and select the 118 Select the wrong statement.
correct ones w.r.t. diatoms. (1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in
a. They are chief producers in the oceans. nature
b. Their cell walls form two thin overlapping (2) Eubacteria are also known as true bacteria
shells. (3) Cyanobacteria are present only in fresh water
c. Their cell walls are destructible. (4) Bacteria are the sole memebers of kingdom
d. The soil formed due to their cell wall Monera
accumulation is used in polishing, filtration of 119 Site of meiosis in club fungi is
oils and syrups. (1) Ascus (2) Zygote
e. They are multicellular. (3) Basidium (4) Basidiospore
(1) a, b, c and d only (2) a, b and e only
(3) c, d and e only (4) a, b and d only 120 Which one is wrong statement w.r.t. bacteria?
(1) They are the sole members of kingdom Monera
113 Mark the odd one regarding the features of (2) They are very complex in behaviour
viruses. (3) They show most extensive metabolic diversity
(1) Ability to multiply inside the host (4) They can be only parasite or saprophyte
(2) Presence of genetic material
121 Which one is not true about Nostoc?
(3) Host specificity
(1) Photosynthetic autotroph
(4) Presence of energy-storing system
(2) Has chlorophyll a
(3) Can fix atmospheric nitrogen
114 Select the incorrectly matched pair. (4) Unicellular eukaryote
(1) Nostoc – Has heterocyst
122 Read the below given features and select the
(2) Euglena – Has lipid-rich layer pellicle
correct group of fungi on the basis of the same
(3) Bacillus – Is rod-shaped bacteria
(4) Dinoflagellates a. Coenocytic mycelium
– Form red tides in sea
b. Motile or non-motile spores
115 Which one of the following matches is correct? c. Spores are endogenously produced
(1) Agaricus Commonly called Basidiomycetes (1) Phycomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
Pu ball fungus (3) Ascomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
(2) Colletotrichum Only asexual Deuteromycetes 123 Archaebacteria di er from other bacteria in
vegetative phase having di erent
(3) Ustilago Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes (1) Cell type
(4) Aspergillus Aseptate mycelia Deuteromycetes (2) Cell wall structure
(3) Types of genetic material
116 Read the given statements and choose the (4) Mode of nutrition
correct ones. 124 Slime moulds are
(a) Conidiophore produces conidia (1) Autotrophic (2) Parasitic
exogenously in chain. (3) Saprophytic (4) Chemoautotrophic
(b) Ascospores are sexual spores produced 125 Select one, which is correctly matched
exogenously in asci. (1) Red tide – Red algae
(c) Classification of fungl is based on (2) Pellicle – Euglena
morphology (3) Fruiting body formation – Under favourable
of the mycellum, mode of spore formation and in slime moulds conditions
fruiting bodies. (4) Entamoeba – Autotrophic protist
(d) Viruses are obligate intracellular paraites.
126 Read the given statements and choose the
(e) Mycoplasma can pass through
correct option
bacteriological filters
Statement A: Fungi are cosmopolitan in
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (c) and (e) only
distribution.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
Statement B: Puccinia is a white rust causing
117 Cell wall of members of Monera is made up of fungus in mustard.
(1) Chitin only (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Cellulose and amino acids (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Polysaccharide and amino acids (3) Both statements are correct
(4) Hemicellulose only (4) Both statements are incorrect
127 Which one is odd w.r.t. sexual spores produced 132 Choose incorrect statement
in fungi? (1) The boundary of the kingdom Protista is not
(1) Oospore (2) Ascospore well defined
(3) Conidia (4) Basidiospore (2) All the protistans have either flagella or cilia
(3) Diatoms are the chief producer in the ocean
128 Choose the incorrect statement
(4) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is actually
(1) Ascospores are produced endogenously
accumulation of fossil deposits of cell wall of
(2) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical
and genetic work diatoms
(3) The deuteromycetes reproduce by asexual
spores called conidia 133 The most notorious sporozoan is
(4) Claviceps and Penicillium are examples of (1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramoecium
basidiomycetes (3) Entamoeba (4) Plasmodium

129 Which of the following fungus does not belong 134 Select incorrect match
to the group Deuteromycetes? (1) Zygospore formation - Rhizopus
(1) Colletotrichum (2) Aspergillus
(2) Saccharomyces – Unicellular sac fungus
(3) Alternaria (4) Trichoderma
(3) Basidium as site of – Colletotrichum
karyogamy and meiosis
130 Cuscuta is a parasite. It belongs to the kingdom
(4) Lacks sexual – Alternaria
(1) Fungi (2) Plantae
reproduction
(3) Protista (4) Monera
135 Bacteriophages usually have
131 The vast majority of bacteria are
(1) ssRNA (2) dsDNA
(1) Photoautotroph (3) dsRNA (4) ssDNA
(2) Chemoautotroph
(3) Heterotroph
(4) Oxygenic photosynthesizer
 ZOOLOGY
136 Destruction of RBCs will not occur when blood 142 Assertion (A): SAN is called the pacemaker of
from individual with ______ blood group is the heart.
transfused to individual with blood group ‘O’ Reason (R): SAN generates the maximum
positive. number of action potentials, and is responsible
for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
Select the correct option which fills the blank
contractile activity of the heart.
correctly.
In the light of above statements, choose the
(1) A+ (2) B- (3) AB- (4) O- correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
137 In humans, deoxygenated blood is transported correct explanation of (A)
by all of the following blood vessels except (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) Renal vein (2) Pulmonary artery correct explanation of (A)
(3) Pulmonary vein (4) Hepatic vein (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
138 In each cardiac cycle of an healthy adult 143 A person with blood group A– can possibly
human, duration between ‘dub’ and ‘lub donate blood to a patient with blood group
’sound is _______.
(1) 0.5 second (2) 0.3 second Select the correct option to fill the blank.
(3) 0.1 second (4) 0.8 second (1) Only A– and O+ (2) A+, A–, AB– and AB+
(3) B+, O–, B– and O+ (4) Only AB+ and A–
139 Cardiac disorder which is characterised by 144 Choose the correct blood flow pathway in
sudden damage to heart muscles due to systemic circulation from the options given
inadequate blood supply is below.
(1) Heart attack (2) Heart failure
(3) Cardiac arrest (4) Atherosclerosis (1) Right ventricle Lungs

Left auricle
140 Read the following statements.
Statement A : A portal vein does not carry (2) Left ventricle Body tissues
blood directly to the heart but forms a network
of capillaries in another or intermediate organ Right auricle
before reaching the heart.
(3) Right ventricle Lungs
Statement B : Two portal systems are present
in humans. Select the correct option.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct. Left auricle
(2) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Only statement B is correct. (4) Left ventricle Body tissues
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Right auricle
141 Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 145 Read the following statements (a-d) and
electrocardiogram. choose the option with only correct
(1) P-wave represents depolarisation of atria. statements.
(2) Ventricular systole begins shortly after a. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible
Q wave. for immune responses of the body.
(3) T-wave represents the return of ventricles b. Platelets release certain factors
which prevent clotting of blood.
from excited to normal state.
c. Neutrophils are the only cells that are
(4) The end of T-wave marks the end of
phagocytic in function among granulocytes.
atrial systole. d. Formed elements constitute about 45%
of blood plasma.
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a and c (4) c and d
146 A condition when the heart stops beating is 152 Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lymphatic
called system.
(1) Cardiac arrest (1) The largest lymphatic vessel, the thoracic duct,
(2) Angina pectoris delivers lymph into the left subclavian vein
(3) Myocardial ischaemia (2) The heart actively pumps the lymph through
(4) Coronary vasoconstriction the lymphatic vessels
(3) Lymph has nearly similar mineral distribution as
147 Which one of the following blood vessels that in plasma
carries blood from intestine to the liver before it (4) A series of one way valves along the lymphatic
is delivered to systemic circulation? vessel ensures unidirectional flow of lymph
(1) Intestinal mesenteric capillaries 153 Assertion (A): Rh antigens of Rh+ foetus do not
(2) Hepatic portal vein exposed to Rh –ve blood of mother in the first
(3) Hepatic vein pregnancy.
(4) Jugular vein Reason (R): Foetal blood is well separated From
148 Select the time interval between the closure of blood of mother by placental barrier.
atrioventricular valves and closing of semilunar In the light of above statements, choose the correct
valves under normal physiological conditions answer from the options given below.
in an adult human. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) 0.1 s (2) 0.5 s (3) 0.4 s (4) 0.3 s correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
149 Read the following statements A and B correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
and choose the correct option.
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
Statement A: The valves in the heart allow
the flow of blood only in one direction. 154 Choose the incorrect match.
Statement B: These heart valves prevent (1) Auricular systole – 30% filling of ventricles
backflow of blood from ventricle to atria and (2) Joint diastole – 70% filling of ventricles
from aorta and pulmonary artery to ventricles. (3) Stroke volume – 70 mL blood is pumped into aorta
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Cardiac output – 5000 mL blood is pumped by
(2) Only statement A is correct ventricles per minute
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect 155 Select the correct statement w.r.t. the partial
(4) Only statement B is correct pressures of inhaled and exhaled air.
(1) The pO2 of alveolar air is lower than pO2 of
150 Arrange the following cells in increasing order venous blood.
of their abundance in blood of an adult healthy (2) The pO2 of alveolar air is lesser than pO2 of
man. exhaled air.
a. Lymphocytes b. Erythrocytes (3) The pO2 of arterial blood is greater than pO2 of
c. Eosinophils d. Thrombocytes alveolar air.
e. Neutrophils (4) The pCO2 of tissues is same as pO2 of arterial
blood.
(1) b, c, d, a, e (2) c, b, d, e, a
(3) c, a, e, d, b (4) c, b, e, a, d 156 In a normal adult human, CO2 is mainly transported
in 'X' form. The reason for being transported mainly
151 Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the disorders in 'X' form is
of the circulatory system. (1) A inity of haemoglobin for CO2 is more than O2
(1) Heart failure - Heart stops beating (2) Carbonic anhydrase is mainly present in plasma
(2) Angina - A symptom of pain (3) Na+ ions are more in intracellular fluid
acute chest (4) In presence of carbonic anhydrase, CO2 readily
converts into HCO-3
(3) Atherosclerosis -Causedby deposits of
fat, cholesterol and 157 The muscle fibres that can alter the diameter of
fibrous tissues, which blood vessels is
makes the lumen of (1) Cylindrical in shape (2) Striated
arteries narrower (3) Uninucleated (4) Voluntary
(4) Heart attack - Heart muscles are
158 Identify the conducting part of nodal tissue that
suddenly damaged by passes through the proximal part of
inadequate blood supply interventricular septum.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) Bundle of His (2) Purkinje fibres
(3) Chordae tendineae (4) Sino-atrial node
159 Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. 165 Read the following statements:
animal, type of heart and type of circulation? (a) Respiratory rhythm centre Present in Medulla
Animal Type of heart Type of circulation region.
(1) Rohu 2-chambered Single circulation (b) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO2
(2) Rana 3-chambered Incomplete and hydrogen ions.
double circulation (c) The role of oxygen the regulation of respiratory
(3) Lizard 3-chambered Incomplete Single rhythm is quite insignificant.
circulation (d) Pneumotaxic centre Present in Pons region.
(4) Human 4-chambered Complete double (e)Receptors associated with aortic arch and
circulation carotid artery can recognize changes in CO2 and H+
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 concentration.
160 _A_ is the blood without formed elements and (f) Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of
clotting factors, while _B_ is blood without its inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.
formed elements. How many statements are correct about
Choose the option that correctly fills the given regulation of respiration?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
blanks A and B.
A B 166 The conducting part of respiratory tract does not
(1) Lymph Serum help in :
(1) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli
(2) Serum Plasma
(2) Clear air from foreign particles
(3) Sebum Lymph
(3) Humidify and bring the air to body temperature
(4) Lymph Plasma (4) Di usion of O2 and CO2 between blood and air
161 Select the incorrect match. 167 Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after
(1) Fall in RBC count - Erythrocytopenia in blood a normal expiration ?
(2) Rise in WBC count - Leucocytosis (1) TV + IRV (2) Only RV
(3) ERV + RV (4) TV + ERV + IRV
(3) Increase in number - Thrombocytopenia of
platelets 168 Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver
(4) Fall in WBC count - Leucopenia around ______ of O2 the tissues under normal
physiological conditions.
162 What would be the immediate result, if the
(1) 20 mL (2) 5 mL
chordae tendineae of mitral valves are cut?
(3) 4 mL (4) 1000 mL
(1) Opening and closing of valves remains
una ected 169 In which of the following disorder there is di iculty
(2) Decrease in the flow of blood in pulmonary artery in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation
(3) Decrease in the flow of blood in aorta of bronchi and bronchioles?
(4) Increase in flow of blood in pulmonary veins (1) Emphysema
(2) Asthma
163 All of the following can increase the rate of heart (3) Pleurisy
beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders.
thereby the cardiac output, except
(1) Sympathetic stimulation 170 How many group of animals in the list given below
(2) Increase adrenaline in blood have lungs for respiration?
(3) Parasympathetic stimulation Earthworm, Frog, Fish, Insects, Reptiles,
(4) Increase in nor-adrenaline in blood Aquatic arthropods, Flatworm, Molluscs, Birds
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five
164 Which Respiratory capacity is correctly
matched with its formula and volume? 171 (i) Cartilaginous rings are not found in alvelolar duct
Respiratory Formula Volume respiratory tubule.
Capacities (ii)Inspiration can occur if intra pulmonary pressure
(IPP) is less than the atmospheric pressure
(1) Functional ERV + TV 2300 mL
(iii) We have the ability to increase the strength of
Recidual Capacity inspiration and expiration with the help of additional
(2) Vital Capacity ERV + TV + 4600 mL muscles in the abdomen
IRV (iv) Solubility of the gases as well as the thickness of
(3) Total lung RV + IRV + 5800 mL the membranes involved in diffusion are also some
Capacity ERV important factors that can affect rate of diffusion.
How many points are correct ?
(4) Inspiratory TV + ERV 1600 mL
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Capacity
172 How many statements are correct ? 178 Artificial pacemaker is required when a person is
(A) Systemic circulation takes place between su ering from
left ventricle and right atrium of heart (1) Arteriosclerosis
(B)Adrenal medullary hormones can decrease (2) Atherosclerosis
the cardiac output (3) Irregularity of heart beat
(c) Heart failure is not the same as cardiac (4) Hypertension
arrest or heart attack
(D) The opening between the right atrium and 179 All the components of the nodal tissue are
the ventricle is guarded by a value, formed of autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the
two muscular flaps normal pacemaker?
(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three
(1) SA node has the highest rate of depolarization.
(2) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarization.
173 What will happen if a Rh- person donate blood
(3) SA node is the only component to generate the
to a Rh+ person for the first time? threshold potential.
(1) Rh- person will die (4) Only SA node can convey the action potential to
(2) Rh+ person will die the other components.
(3) Nothing will happen to both
(4) Rh- will live and Rh+ would die 180 A specialized nodal tissue embedded in the
174 Which statement is correct with regarding to lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-
the cardiac cycle? ventricular septum, delays the spreading of
(1) The pause between the end of the second heart impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. This
sound and the beginning of the first heart second delay allows
coincides with ventricular diastole. (1) the atria to empty completely.
(2) During ventricular systole, atrioventricular (2) blood to enter aorta.
values open and semilunar valves close. (3) the ventricles to empty completely.
(3) From the atria nearly 70% of the blood flows into (4) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
the ventricles during atrial systole.
(4) The first heart sound is of shorter duration and
created by the closure of the semilunar valves.
175 Heart beat becomes faster on stimulation by:
(1) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine
(2) Sympathetic nerves and adrenaline
(3) Parasympathetic nerves and acetylcholine
(4) Parasympathetic nerves and thyroxine
176 Time interval between the closure of semilunar
valve and closure of AV valve is
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s (3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s

177 A cardiac cycle involves

(1) Joint diastole-ventricular systole-auricular
systole
(2) Auricular systole-ventricular systole-complete
cardiac diastole
(3) Auricular systole-joint diastole-ventricular
systole
(4) Auricular systole-ventricular diastole-joint
diastole
Space for Rough Work