1. What is a significant risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

a) Smoking
b) Hypertension
c) Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
d) Diabetes
Answer: c) Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
2. What type of diet is recommended after a tonsillectomy?
a) High-fiber foods
b) Soft, cool foods
c) Spicy, warm foods
d) Protein-rich foods
Answer: b) Soft, cool foods
3. What is the priority dietary intervention for cholecystitis?
a) High-fat diet
b) Low-fat diet
c) Low-sodium diet
d) High-protein diet
Answer: b) Low-fat diet
4. What should a nurse assess in a patient with anemia?
a) Dietary habits and sleep patterns
b) Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation
c) Blood pressure and pulse
d) Sodium and potassium levels
Answer: a) Dietary habits and sleep patterns
5. How often should restraint orders be renewed for a 19-year-old patient?
a) Every 8 hours
b) Every 6 hours
c) Every 4 hours
d) Every 12 hours
Answer: c) Every 4 hours
6. What is the most significant risk factor for an aortic aneurysm?
a) Obesity
b) Hypertension
c) Smoking
d) Diabetes
Answer: b) Hypertension
7. What is the first action in managing a leg ulcer?
a) Perform wound irrigation
b) Apply antibiotic ointment
c) Assess the wound and circulation
d) Start compression therapy
Answer: c) Assess the wound and circulation
8. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate for Cushing’s syndrome?
a) High-sodium, low-potassium diet
b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
c) Low-sodium, low-potassium diet
 d) High-protein, low-carbohydrate diet
Answer: b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
9. According to Erikson, what is the primary developmental task for infants?
a) Trust vs. Mistrust
b) Autonomy vs. Shame
c) Initiative vs. Guilt
d) Industry vs. Inferiority
Answer: a) Trust vs. Mistrust
10. What should a nurse check before administering nitroglycerin?
a) Blood pressure
b) Respiratory rate
c) Blood glucose levels
d) Heart rate
Answer: a) Blood pressure
11. What lab findings are typical in sickle cell anemia?
a) High hemoglobin levels and low reticulocyte count
b) Low hemoglobin levels and high reticulocyte count
c) High platelet count and low hemoglobin levels
d) Low white blood cell count and high hemoglobin levels
Answer: b) Low hemoglobin levels and high reticulocyte count
12. What is the definition of agnosia?
a) Difficulty walking
b) Inability to recognize objects or sounds
c) Difficulty with speech
d) Loss of muscle control
Answer: b) Inability to recognize objects or sounds
13. What should healthcare providers monitor to detect elder abuse?
a) Unexplained injuries, emotional distress, or financial exploitation
b) Regular blood pressure levels
c) Medication compliance
d) Weight gain trends
Answer: a) Unexplained injuries, emotional distress, or financial exploitation
14. What is a key concept in Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory?
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Job satisfaction and dissatisfaction are influenced by different factors
c) Behavior is motivated solely by financial incentives
d) Learning occurs through observation
Answer: b) Job satisfaction and dissatisfaction are influenced by different factors
15. What is the primary focus of an occupational nurse?
a) Promoting health and safety in the workplace
b) Diagnosing chronic conditions
c) Conducting community health surveys
d) Administering immunizations to children
Answer: a) Promoting health and safety in the workplace
16. What is the correct calculation for IV flow rate?
a) (Volume to be infused × Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes
 b) (Volume infused ÷ Drop factor) × Time in hours
c) (Drop factor ÷ Volume infused) × Time in hours
d) (Time in minutes × Drop factor) ÷ Volume infused
Answer: a) (Volume to be infused × Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes
17. What is the main purpose of an organization’s vision statement?
a) Define daily tasks and responsibilities
b) Outline long-term goals and aspirations
c) Provide technical procedures for employees
d) Set quarterly financial targets
Answer: b) Outline long-term goals and aspirations
18. Which intervention is essential for asthma management?
a) High-protein diet
b) Use of bronchodilators and corticosteroids
c) Routine use of antihistamines
d) Oxygen therapy at all times
Answer: b) Use of bronchodilators and corticosteroids
19. What is the first action in caring for a bedridden patient?
a) Provide frequent meals
b) Reposition the patient every 2 hours
c) Monitor urinary output
d) Administer IV fluids
Answer: b) Reposition the patient every 2 hours
20. What type of study involves following a group of individuals over time?
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Experimental study
Answer: b) Cohort study

21. What intervention is crucial after a laparotomy?

a) Apply a compression bandage
b) Monitor vital signs and assess for bleeding
c) Encourage early ambulation
d) Begin oral feeding immediately
Answer: b) Monitor vital signs and assess for bleeding
22. What is a recommended diet for patients with depression?
a) High-fat and low-fiber foods
b) Balanced diet rich in omega-3 fatty acids and whole grains
c) High-sodium and low-potassium diet
d) Protein-only diet
Answer: b) Balanced diet rich in omega-3 fatty acids and whole grains
23. What is the priority intervention for bacterial meningitis?
a) Administer antiviral therapy
b) Initiate antibiotic therapy immediately
c) Start chemotherapy
 d) Perform a lumbar puncture before any intervention
Answer: b) Initiate antibiotic therapy immediately
24. What complication is common in infants born to diabetic mothers?
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Hypernatremia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Low bilirubin levels
Answer: a) Hypoglycemia
25. What should a nurse monitor in a patient with Cushing’s syndrome?
a) Low blood pressure
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
d) Increased white blood cell count
Answer: c) Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
26. What is the key symptom of full-thickness burns?
a) Blisters and redness
b) White or charred skin without pain
c) Intense pain with intact epidermis
d) Excessive bleeding from the wound
Answer: b) White or charred skin without pain
27. What should a nurse prioritize when a patient complains of chest pain?
a) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
b) Provide a high-fat meal for energy
c) Encourage deep breathing exercises
d) Delay care until blood tests confirm the cause
Answer: a) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
28. What is a key complication of placental previa?
a) Severe bleeding during delivery
b) Preterm labor
c) Reduced amniotic fluid levels
d) Fetal growth restriction
Answer: a) Severe bleeding during delivery
29. What is the primary function of a lumbar pillow?
a) Reduce neck strain
b) Provide lumbar support and maintain spinal alignment
c) Prevent pressure ulcers
d) Support hip joint flexibility
Answer: b) Provide lumbar support and maintain spinal alignment
30. What is a common cause of hypothyroidism?
a) Iodine deficiency
b) Vitamin D deficiency
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Hypertension
Answer: a) Iodine deficiency
31. What should a nurse assess in a child frequently tired after sports?
a) Blood sugar levels
 b) Cardiovascular health and anemia
c) Liver enzymes
d) Vision acuity
Answer: b) Cardiovascular health and anemia
32. What happens to body temperature during ovulation?
a) Drops slightly
b) Remains constant
c) Increases slightly due to progesterone
d) Fluctuates unpredictably
Answer: c) Increases slightly due to progesterone
33. What type of study is quasi-experimental?
a) Randomized controlled trial
b) Study with interventions but no random assignment
c) Descriptive observational study
d) Cross-sectional data analysis
Answer: b) Study with interventions but no random assignment
34. What is the first step in evidence-based practice (EBP)?
a) Implement the intervention
b) Analyze the results
c) Frame the clinical question
d) Conduct a literature review
Answer: c) Frame the clinical question
35. What is a key side effect of benzodiazepines like diazepam?
a) Increased appetite
b) Drowsiness and potential dependence
c) Hyperactivity
d) Low blood sugar
Answer: b) Drowsiness and potential dependence
36. What is the role of hydroxyurea in sickle cell anemia?
a) Reduces frequency of pain episodes by increasing fetal hemoglobin
b) Improves oxygen saturation in the blood
c) Enhances iron absorption in the body
d) Increases platelet count
Answer: a) Reduces frequency of pain episodes by increasing fetal hemoglobin
37. What is a symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Hyperactivity
b) Progressive memory loss
c) Sudden weight gain
d) Increased visual acuity
Answer: b) Progressive memory loss
38. What should be avoided in a diet for a patient on warfarin?
a) Foods high in vitamin K
b) Dairy products
c) High-protein foods
d) Citrus fruits
Answer: a) Foods high in vitamin K
39. What intervention is critical for preventing skin breakdown in bedridden patients?
a) Restrict fluid intake
b) Reposition every 2 hours
c) Apply hot packs regularly
d) Avoid using moisturizers
Answer: b) Reposition every 2 hours
40. What is a common cause of diabetic retinopathy?
a) High blood sugar damaging retinal blood vessels
b) Excessive calcium intake
c) Frequent use of antihypertensives
d) Low potassium levels
Answer: a) High blood sugar damaging retinal blood vessels

41. What dietary advice is crucial for a patient with gallbladder issues (cholecystitis)?
a) High-fat diet
b) Low-fat diet
c) High-sodium diet
d) Low-protein diet
Answer: b) Low-fat diet
42. What is the primary developmental task for a 2-month-old infant, according to
Erikson?
a) Autonomy vs. Shame
b) Trust vs. Mistrust
c) Initiative vs. Guilt
d) Industry vs. Inferiority
Answer: b) Trust vs. Mistrust
43. What is the primary concern in the management of placenta previa?
a) Preventing urinary infections
b) Controlling severe bleeding
c) Reducing fluid retention
d) Treating anemia
Answer: b) Controlling severe bleeding
44. What question should a nurse ask a patient with suspected heart-related chest pain?
a) "What did you eat recently?"
b) "Can you describe the pain?"
c) "How many hours have you slept?"
d) "Do you feel any numbness in your fingers?"
Answer: b) "Can you describe the pain?"
45. Which type of burn involves all layers of the skin and is often painless?
a) First-degree burn
b) Second-degree burn
c) Full-thickness burn
d) Superficial burn
Answer: c) Full-thickness burn
46. What is the purpose of lumbar support?
a) Relieve neck tension
 b) Maintain proper spinal alignment
c) Improve knee stability
d) Prevent hip dislocation
Answer: b) Maintain proper spinal alignment
47. What is a key risk factor for an aortic aneurysm?
a) Low cholesterol
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes
d) Sedentary lifestyle
Answer: b) Hypertension
48. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia in a newborn?
a) Lethargy and jitteriness
b) Excessive crying
c) High-pitched breathing
d) Increased appetite
Answer: a) Lethargy and jitteriness
49. What lab finding is expected in sickle cell anemia?
a) Elevated hemoglobin levels
b) Decreased reticulocyte count
c) Increased reticulocyte count
d) Elevated platelet count
Answer: c) Increased reticulocyte count
50. What breathing pattern is associated with periods of deep breathing followed by
apnea?
a) Cheyne-Stokes
b) Kussmaul’s
c) Biot’s
d) Eupnea
Answer: a) Cheyne-Stokes
51. What is a priority nursing action for bacterial meningitis?
a) Monitor blood pressure continuously
b) Implement droplet precautions
c) Perform a lumbar puncture immediately
d) Begin oxygen therapy
Answer: b) Implement droplet precautions
52. What is a primary treatment for asthma?
a) Use of antihistamines
b) Bronchodilators and corticosteroids
c) Oxygen therapy alone
d) Anti-inflammatory diet
Answer: b) Bronchodilators and corticosteroids
53. What should be done when a patient develops a rash while on lamotrigine?
a) Apply an antihistamine cream
b) Stop the medication immediately and notify a provider
c) Reduce the medication dosage
 d) Observe for one week before taking action
Answer: b) Stop the medication immediately and notify a provider
54. What diet is beneficial for a patient with depression?
a) Low-protein, high-fat diet
b) High-sodium, low-potassium diet
c) Omega-3-rich foods, whole grains, and vitamins
d) High-sugar, high-caffeine diet
Answer: c) Omega-3-rich foods, whole grains, and vitamins
55. What is the first step in evidence-based practice?
a) Frame a clinical question
b) Review previous interventions
c) Implement treatment protocols
d) Conduct patient interviews
Answer: a) Frame a clinical question
56. What is a symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Increased physical stamina
b) Gradual memory loss
c) Enhanced focus and clarity
d) Rapid weight gain
Answer: b) Gradual memory loss
57. Which lab test helps confirm hypothyroidism?
a) Elevated TSH levels
b) Decreased TSH levels
c) Elevated white blood cells
d) Increased hemoglobin levels
Answer: a) Elevated TSH levels
58. What is the role of hydroxyurea in sickle cell anemia?
a) Increase fetal hemoglobin levels
b) Reduce blood pressure
c) Boost immune function
d) Enhance oxygen absorption
Answer: a) Increase fetal hemoglobin levels
59. What should be included in the care plan for a bedridden patient?
a) Regular repositioning every 2 hours
b) Limiting fluid intake
c) Encouraging long periods of inactivity
d) Avoiding moisturizers
Answer: a) Regular repositioning every 2 hours
60. What is the main purpose of an ELISA test?
a) Diagnose tuberculosis
b) Detect antibodies for diseases like HIV
c) Assess liver enzyme levels
d) Confirm diabetes diagnosis
Answer: b) Detect antibodies for diseases like HIV
61. What is a significant risk factor for diabetic retinopathy?
a) Hypercalcemia
 b) High blood sugar levels
c) Low sodium levels
d) High protein intake
Answer: b) High blood sugar levels
62. What is the therapeutic goal for asthma management?
a) Prevent airway inflammation and obstruction
b) Reduce fluid retention
c) Prevent blood sugar spikes
d) Enhance protein absorption
Answer: a) Prevent airway inflammation and obstruction
63. What dietary restriction is critical for patients on warfarin?
a) Avoid high-protein foods
b) Avoid foods high in vitamin K
c) Restrict carbohydrate intake
d) Limit citrus fruits
Answer: b) Avoid foods high in vitamin K
64. Which vital sign should be monitored before administering nitroglycerin?
a) Blood pressure
b) Temperature
c) Respiratory rate
d) Heart rate
Answer: a) Blood pressure
65. What is the recommended dietary intervention for Cushing’s syndrome?
a) High-sodium, low-potassium diet
b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
c) High-fat, high-carbohydrate diet
d) Protein-only diet
Answer: b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
66. What type of study involves observing outcomes in a population over time?
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Experimental study
Answer: b) Cohort study
67. What lab result is commonly seen in anemia?
a) High hemoglobin levels
b) Low hemoglobin levels
c) Elevated platelet count
d) Increased sodium levels
Answer: b) Low hemoglobin levels
68. Which diet is ideal for a post-tonsillectomy patient?
a) Soft, cold foods like ice cream and gelatin
b) High-fiber foods like raw vegetables
c) Spicy, warm foods
d) High-protein, dry foods
Answer: a) Soft, cold foods like ice cream and gelatin
69. What is a common complication of placental abruption?
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Severe bleeding and preterm labor
c) Decreased fetal heart rate variability
d) Elevated bilirubin levels
Answer: b) Severe bleeding and preterm labor
70. What is the primary developmental task for toddlers, according to Erikson?
a) Trust vs. Mistrust
b) Autonomy vs. Shame
c) Initiative vs. Guilt
d) Industry vs. Inferiority
Answer: b) Autonomy vs. Shame

71. What is the priority intervention for a patient with DKA?

a) Administer insulin immediately
b) Replace fluids and electrolytes
c) Provide oxygen therapy
d) Monitor hemoglobin levels
Answer: b) Replace fluids and electrolytes
72. What complication is associated with thrombocytopenia?
a) Increased risk of infection
b) Increased risk of bleeding
c) Decreased appetite
d) Elevated blood pressure
Answer: b) Increased risk of bleeding
73. Which breathing pattern is characterized by rapid shallow breathing followed by
apnea?
a) Cheyne-Stokes
b) Kussmaul’s
c) Biot’s
d) Eupnea
Answer: c) Biot’s
74. What is the role of vitamin K in newborn care?
a) Improve immunity
b) Prevent bleeding disorders
c) Enhance growth
d) Boost appetite
Answer: b) Prevent bleeding disorders
75. What dietary change is crucial for dialysis patients?
a) Increase sodium intake
b) Restrict potassium-rich foods
c) Consume high-fat meals
d) Avoid high-protein foods
Answer: b) Restrict potassium-rich foods
76. What intervention is critical for a bedridden patient to prevent pressure ulcers?
a) Avoid using moisturizers
 b) Reposition every 2 hours
c) Apply cold compresses daily
d) Reduce oral fluid intake
Answer: b) Reposition every 2 hours
77. What is the primary symptom of emphysema?
a) Persistent cough with phlegm
b) Destruction of alveolar walls
c) Elevated oxygen saturation levels
d) Decreased tidal volume
Answer: b) Destruction of alveolar walls
78. What lab finding is expected in hypothyroidism?
a) Elevated TSH levels
b) Low TSH levels
c) Increased white blood cell count
d) Low platelet count
Answer: a) Elevated TSH levels
79. What should be included in patient education for hydroxyurea?
a) It decreases fetal hemoglobin production
b) It reduces the frequency of pain episodes in sickle cell anemia
c) It increases white blood cell production
d) It reduces sodium absorption
Answer: b) It reduces the frequency of pain episodes in sickle cell anemia
80. What is the primary nursing intervention for bacterial meningitis?
a) Start IV fluids
b) Initiate droplet precautions
c) Perform chest compressions
d) Begin physical therapy
Answer: b) Initiate droplet precautions
81. What should a nurse monitor when administering benzodiazepines like diazepam?
a) Elevated appetite levels
b) Signs of drowsiness and dependence
c) Increased urine output
d) Decreased skin turgor
Answer: b) Signs of drowsiness and dependence
82. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing angina?
a) Encourage physical activity
b) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
c) Provide a high-sodium snack
d) Delay care until labs are available
Answer: b) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
83. What should be avoided in a post-tonsillectomy diet?
a) Soft, cold foods like ice cream
b) Spicy, hot foods
c) Gelatin and cold drinks
d) Applesauce
Answer: b) Spicy, hot foods
84. What is the first nursing action for a patient with a suspected placental abruption?
a) Administer corticosteroids
b) Monitor for fetal distress and severe bleeding
c) Provide a high-fat diet
d) Perform an immediate blood transfusion
Answer: b) Monitor for fetal distress and severe bleeding
85. What is the primary goal of asthma management?
a) Increase physical stamina
b) Prevent airway obstruction and inflammation
c) Reduce dietary fiber intake
d) Boost oxygen retention in tissues
Answer: b) Prevent airway obstruction and inflammation
86. What is a key risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Iodine deficiency
b) Advanced age
c) Low blood pressure
d) High vitamin D levels
Answer: b) Advanced age
87. What should a nurse assess in a patient with anemia?
a) Sleep patterns and dietary intake
b) Skin integrity
c) Blood glucose levels
d) Lung capacity
Answer: a) Sleep patterns and dietary intake
88. What is the main purpose of an ELISA test?
a) Detect HIV antibodies
b) Measure blood sugar levels
c) Assess liver enzymes
d) Determine hemoglobin concentration
Answer: a) Detect HIV antibodies
89. What is a common symptom of diabetic retinopathy?
a) Sudden eye pain
b) Blurry vision due to damaged retinal blood vessels
c) Increased tear production
d) Enhanced peripheral vision
Answer: b) Blurry vision due to damaged retinal blood vessels
90. Which breathing pattern suggests cardiac tamponade or severe asthma?
a) Kussmaul’s breathing
b) Pulsus paradoxus
c) Biot’s breathing
d) Cheyne-Stokes
Answer: b) Pulsus paradoxus
91. What is the priority dietary recommendation for a child with anemia?
a) Low-iron diet
b) Iron-rich foods like spinach and red meat
c) High-fat, low-sodium diet
 d) Foods high in potassium and sodium
Answer: b) Iron-rich foods like spinach and red meat
92. What type of study involves comparing groups based on their exposure to certain
factors?
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Longitudinal study
Answer: b) Cohort study
93. What lab results indicate severe dehydration?
a) Low sodium levels
b) Elevated hematocrit and serum osmolality
c) Low serum osmolality
d) Increased platelet count
Answer: b) Elevated hematocrit and serum osmolality
94. What is a characteristic sign of Parkinson’s disease?
a) Increased reflexes
b) Resting tremor and bradykinesia
c) Rapid eye movement
d) Hyperactivity
Answer: b) Resting tremor and bradykinesia
95. What is the primary function of pulse oximetry?
a) Measure blood pressure
b) Assess oxygen saturation in the blood
c) Determine heart rate
d) Analyze blood glucose levels
Answer: b) Assess oxygen saturation in the blood
96. What should be included in the care plan for a child with a cleft palate?
a) Restrict all oral feeding
b) Use specialized feeding techniques
c) Avoid giving the child any liquids
d) Provide solid foods only
Answer: b) Use specialized feeding techniques
97. What is a key intervention for hypovolemia?
a) Restrict fluids
b) Use the Trendelenburg position
c) Administer diuretics
d) Apply cold compresses
Answer: b) Use the Trendelenburg position
98. What is a primary nursing action for a bedridden patient?
a) Avoid repositioning frequently
b) Conduct skin checks regularly
c) Restrict all physical activity
d) Avoid using cushions or pads
Answer: b) Conduct skin checks regularly
99. What condition does Helicobacter pylori infection commonly cause?
a) Gastric ulcers
b) Asthma
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: a) Gastric ulcers
100. What intervention helps manage radiation-induced mucositis?
a) Use topical agents for pain relief
b) Encourage acidic foods
c) Avoid oral hygiene
d) Increase salt intake
Answer: a) Use topical agents for pain relief

71. Which intervention is critical for preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden patients?
a) Restrict oral intake
b) Reposition the patient every 2 hours
c) Apply hot packs regularly
d) Avoid using barrier creams
Answer: b) Reposition the patient every 2 hours
72. What is the primary treatment for bacterial meningitis?
a) Administer antiviral therapy
b) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately
c) Use corticosteroids exclusively
d) Perform a surgical intervention
Answer: b) Begin antibiotic therapy immediately
73. What is the primary goal of Erikson’s stage of Initiative vs. Guilt?
a) Developing trust in caregivers
b) Exploring and asserting independence
c) Gaining a sense of purpose
d) Building competence in skills
Answer: c) Gaining a sense of purpose
74. What is a key feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
a) Irreversible airway obstruction
b) Sudden onset of symptoms
c) Decreased platelet count
d) Progressive memory loss
Answer: a) Irreversible airway obstruction
75. What lab test confirms a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a) Elevated troponin levels
b) Low hemoglobin levels
c) Increased potassium levels
d) High platelet count
Answer: a) Elevated troponin levels
76. What should a nurse assess in a patient taking benzodiazepines?
a) Blood sugar levels
b) Risk for dependence and drowsiness
 c) Increased appetite
d) Elevated heart rate
Answer: b) Risk for dependence and drowsiness
77. Which condition is associated with progressive destruction of alveolar walls?
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Pneumonia
d) Pleural effusion
Answer: b) Emphysema
78. What is a priority intervention after cleft lip surgery?
a) Administer antibiotics routinely
b) Apply elbow restraints to prevent injury
c) Encourage oral feedings immediately
d) Use a humidifier to prevent dryness
Answer: b) Apply elbow restraints to prevent injury
79. What is the role of vitamin K for newborns?
a) Prevents bleeding by aiding in clot formation
b) Boosts the immune system
c) Enhances bone growth
d) Improves vision
Answer: a) Prevents bleeding by aiding in clot formation
80. What breathing pattern is characterized by rapid, shallow breaths followed by
apnea?
a) Kussmaul’s breathing
b) Biot’s breathing
c) Eupnea
d) Paradoxical breathing
Answer: b) Biot’s breathing
81. Which condition commonly causes fatigue in children after exercise?
a) Asthma or anemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hyperkalemia
d) Dehydration
Answer: a) Asthma or anemia
82. What is the first action for a patient presenting with angina?
a) Encourage deep breathing exercises
b) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
c) Perform a chest X-ray immediately
d) Administer high-sodium food for energy
Answer: b) Administer nitroglycerin and monitor symptoms
83. What is the most effective way to prevent complications in a patient with diabetes?
a) Routine insulin injections
b) Comprehensive health maintenance and blood sugar control
c) Restricting physical activity
d) Avoiding all sugar in the diet
Answer: b) Comprehensive health maintenance and blood sugar control
84. What complication is commonly associated with aplastic anemia?
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Bleeding due to low platelet count
c) Dehydration
d) High hemoglobin levels
Answer: b) Bleeding due to low platelet count
85. What lab test is used to assess blood oxygen saturation?
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Arterial blood gases (ABG)
c) Complete blood count (CBC)
d) Serum potassium levels
Answer: a) Pulse oximetry
86. What is a hallmark sign of Alzheimer’s disease?
a) Increased appetite
b) Gradual memory decline
c) Sudden loss of motor function
d) Excessive energy levels
Answer: b) Gradual memory decline
87. What diet is appropriate for a post-tonsillectomy patient?
a) Spicy foods to stimulate taste buds
b) Soft, cold foods like gelatin and ice cream
c) High-fat foods to promote healing
d) High-protein dry foods
Answer: b) Soft, cold foods like gelatin and ice cream
88. What dietary advice is critical for patients on anticoagulants?
a) Increase protein intake
b) Avoid vitamin K-rich foods
c) Increase salt intake
d) Limit fiber intake
Answer: b) Avoid vitamin K-rich foods
89. What is the correct nursing action for a child with bruising and unexplained
injuries?
a) Monitor hydration levels
b) Refer to the child protection team for evaluation
c) Ignore unless symptoms persist
d) Provide reassurance to the parents
Answer: b) Refer to the child protection team for evaluation
90. What is the function of troponin testing in healthcare?
a) Diagnose liver dysfunction
b) Confirm myocardial infarction
c) Assess kidney function
d) Measure lung capacity
Answer: b) Confirm myocardial infarction
91. Which ethical principle prioritizes doing no harm to patients?
a) Justice
b) Veracity
 c) Nonmaleficence
d) Autonomy
Answer: c) Nonmaleficence
92. What is the priority action for a patient in a vaso-occlusive crisis?
a) Restrict physical activity
b) Administer pain relief medications
c) Start aggressive fluid therapy
d) Encourage ambulation
Answer: b) Administer pain relief medications
93. What dietary restriction is essential for managing Cushing’s syndrome?
a) High-sodium, low-potassium diet
b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
c) Low-protein, high-fat diet
d) Low-sugar, high-fiber diet
Answer: b) Low-sodium, high-potassium diet
94. What lab result is indicative of aplastic anemia?
a) Elevated platelet count
b) Pancytopenia (low RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)
c) Increased reticulocyte count
d) High white blood cell count
Answer: b) Pancytopenia (low RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)
95. What is the best way to assess fluid balance in a patient?
a) Monitor body weight daily
b) Assess hydration by skin turgor
c) Measure serum sodium levels
d) Monitor heart rate
Answer: a) Monitor body weight daily
96. Which type of respiratory failure involves high CO2 levels?
a) Hypoxemic respiratory failure
b) Hypercapnic respiratory failure
c) Obstructive apnea
d) Cardiac-related respiratory failure
Answer: b) Hypercapnic respiratory failure
97. What is the priority nursing action for a post-surgery patient with low urine
output?
a) Start IV diuretics immediately
b) Encourage oral hydration if tolerated
c) Check for catheter obstruction or bladder retention
d) Record and report output every 12 hours
Answer: c) Check for catheter obstruction or bladder retention
98. What is the common cause of peptic ulcers?
a) Helicobacter pylori infection
b) High salt intake
c) Low calcium levels
d) Excessive carbohydrate consumption
Answer: a) Helicobacter pylori infection
99. Which condition may result in pulsus paradoxus?
a) Severe asthma or cardiac tamponade
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Diabetes insipidus
d) Chronic hypertension
Answer: a) Severe asthma or cardiac tamponade
100. What dietary change is advised for dialysis patients?
a) Limit protein intake entirely
b) Restrict potassium and sodium
c) Increase water intake
d) Avoid all carbohydrates
Answer: b) Restrict potassium and sodium