(1001CMD303029250081) *1001CMD303029250081* Test Pattern

English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2025-2026) 04-12-2025

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE - MEA,B,C,D,L,M & MEN

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2026
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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : SYLLABUS - 3

1. The coefficient of volume expansion for an ideal 5. A cylindrical tube of cross-sectional area A has two
gas at constant pressure is :- air tight frictionless pistons at its two ends. The
1 pistons are tied with a straight piece of metallic
(1) T (2)
T wire. The tube contains a gas at atmospheric
(3) loge T (4) eT pressure P0 and temperature T0. If temperature of
2. 10 gm of ice at – 5°C is added to 10 gm of water at
the gas is doubled then the tension in the wire is :-

60°C. Specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm-°C,

specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-°C and latent heat
of ice = 80 cal/gm. The amount of ice left in the (1) 4 P0 A (2) P0A/2
mixture at the resulting temperature is nearly :- (3) P0 A (4) 2 P0 A
(1) 10 gm (2) 7 gm 6. Two gases A and B are contained in the same
(3) 3 gm (4) zero vessel which is at temperature T. The number of
3. Steam at 100°C is passed into 1.1 kg of water
molecules of gas A is N and mass of each
molecule is m. The number of molecules of gas B
contained in calorimeter of water equivalent is 2N and mass of its each molecule is 2m. If mean
0.02 kg at 15°C till the temperature of the square velocity of molecules of gas B is v2 and
calorimeter rises to 80°C. The mass of steam mean square velocity of x component of velocity
condensed in kilogram is :- of molecules of gas A is ux2 then ux2 /v2 is
(1) 0.13 kg (2) 0.5 kg (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(3) 0.8 kg (4) None 7. An insulated container of gas has two chambers
4. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a
separated by an insulating partition. One of the
chambers has volume. V1 and contains ideal gas
composite slab, consisting of two materials at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other
having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and chamber has volume V2 and contains ideal gas at
2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively are T2 pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is
and T1(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through removed without doing any work on the gas, the
A(T2 − T1 )K final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the
the slab, in a steady state is ( ) f,
6x container will be
with f equals to- T1 T2 (P1 V1 + P2 V2 )
(1)
P 1 V1 T 2 + P 2 V2 T 1
P 1 V1 T 1 + P 2 V2 T 2
(2) P 1 V1 + P 2 V2
P 1 V1 T 2 + P 2 V2 T 1
(3) P 1 V1 + P 2 V2
(1) 4 (2) 2 T1 T2 (P1 V1 + P2 V2 )
(4)
1 P 1 V1 T 1 + P 2 V2 T 2
(3) 6 (4)
2
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8. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes 11. The specific heat of substance at temperature
a linear process from A to B, in which pressure P t°C is S = at2 + bt + c. The amount of heat
and its volume V changes as shown in figure. required to raise the temperature of m gm of the
substance from 0°C to t0°C, is :-
mt30 a bt20
(1) + + ct0
3 2
m t30 a mbt20
(2) + + mct0
3 2
m t30 a mbt20
(3) +
3 2
the maximum temperature of gas during this
process is :- (4) None of these
P 0 V0 P 0 V0 12. A deep rectangular pond of surface area A,
(1) (2) containing water (density = ρ , specific heat capacity
2R 4R
3P0 V0 3P0 V0 = s), is located in a region where the outside air
(3) (4)
4R 2R temperature is at a steady value of – 26°C. The
9. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process in thickness of the frozen ice layer in this pond, at a
which T =T0 + aV3, where T0 and 'a' are positive certain instant is x. Taking the thermal conductivity
constants and V is molar volume. The volume at of ice as K, and its specific latent heat of fusion as L,
which pressure will be minimum is :- the rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer, at
1/3
this instant would be given by :-
T0
(1) ( )
(1) 26K/ ρ r( L – 4s) (2) 26K/( ρ x2 – L)
2a
1/3 (3) 26K/( ρ xL) (4) 26K/ ρ r( L+4s)
T0
(2)
13.
( )
3a Three rods A, B, and C of thermal conductivities K,
2/3 2K and 4K, cross-sectional areas A, 2A and 2A and
a
(3) ( )
lengths 2 ℓ , ℓ and ℓ respectively are connected as
2T0
2/3 shown in the figure. If the ends of the rods are
a
(4) ( ) maintained at temperatures 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C
3T0
respectively, then the temperature θ of the junction
10. One mole of a gas is subjected to two processes is :-
AB & BC one after another as shown in figure.
BC is represented by PVn = constant, we can
conclude :-

(1) TA = TB = TC (2) TA > TB > TC (1) 60°C (2) 20°C

(3) WAB > WBC (4) UA > UB 200
(3) 40°C (4) °C
13
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14. A sphere and a cube of same material and same 19. The pressure of an ideal gas varies with volume
volume are heated upto same temperature and as P = α V, where α is a constant. One mole of
allowed to cool in the same surroundings. The the gas is allowed to undergo expansion such that
ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted will be :- its volume becomes 'm' times its initial volume.
4π The work done by the gas in the process is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) :1
3 αV 2
1/3
4π
2/3 (1) α V (m2 − 1) (2) (m2 − 1)
π 1 2 2
(3) ( ) : 1 (4) ( ) : 1
6 2 3 α 2V 2 α
(m2 − 1) (m2 − 1)
15. By cooling two liquids of equal volume from
(3)
2
(4) 2V
temperature 60°C to 50°C in same conditions 20. In the P-V diagram shown, the gas does 5 J of
with same heat rate time required are 324 and work in isothermal process ab and 4 J in adiabatic
810 sec respectively. If ratio of specific heat of process bc. What will be the change in internal
both are 3 : 4. Then ratio of their densities (water energy of the gas in straight path c to a ?
equivalent of calorimeter is negligible) :-
(1) 3/4 (2) 4/9 (3) 8/15 (4) 9/20
16. A sphere and cube made of same material and
having same surface area are heated to the same
temperature and kept in the same surrounding. (1) 9 J (2) 1 J (3) 4 J (4) 5 J
The ratio of their initial rates of cooling will be 21. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken
π through a cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V
√ , then x equal to :-
x diagram. Column-II gives the characteristics
(1) 3 (2) 10 involved in the cycle. Match them with each of
the processes given in Column-I.
(3) 6 (4) None
17. P – V plots for two gases during adiabatic process
are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
correspond respectively to :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Process A → B (p) Internal energy decreases
(1) He and O2 (2) O2 and He
(B) Process B → C (q) Internal energy increases
(3) He and Ar (4) O2 and N2
18. An ideal monoatomic gas with pressure P, volume
(C) Process C → D (r) Heat is lost
(D) Process D → A (s) Heat is gained
V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to a
volume 2V and a final pressure Pi. If the same gas (t) Work is done on the gas
is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V, the final (1) A → p,r,t; B → p,r; C → q,s; D → r,t
Pa (2) A → r,t; B → q,r; C → q,s; D → r,s
pressure is Pa. The ratio is :-
Pi
(3) A → p,r,t; B → p,q,r; C → s; D → r,t
(1) 2 – 1/3 (2) 21/3 (3) 2 – 2/3 (4) 22/3 (4) A → p,r,t; B → p,r; C → q; D → r,s
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22. A particle has simple harmonic motion. The 27. The time period of a particle executing S.H.M. is
π 8s. At t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio
equation of its motion is x = 5 sin(4t − ) , of the distance covered by the particle in the 1st
6
where x is its displacement. If the displacement second to the 2nd second is :
of the particle is 3 unit, then its velocity is :- 1
(1) (2) √ 2
2π 5π √ 2+1
(1) unit (2) unit
3 6 1/√2 2+1
(3) (4) √

(3) 20 unit (4) 16 unit

28. How long after the beginning of motion is the
23. A particle executes simple hamonic motion with a displacement of a harmonically oscillating particle
time period of 16s. At time t = 2s, the particle equal to one half its amplitude if the period is 24s
crosses the mean position while at t = 4s, its velocity and particle starts from rest.
is 4 ms – 1. The amplitude of motion in metre is :- (1) 12s (2) 2s (3) 4s (4) 6s
(1) √ 2π (2) 16√2 29. Distance travelled by particle in SHM when its
π phase changes from π to 5 π
32√2 6 6
(3) 24√2 π (4)
π A A
3A (4) A
24. (1) (2) (3) √

A body executes simple harmonic motion under 2 √ 2

the action of force F1 with a time period 4 sec. 30. A solid cylinder of density ρ 0, cross-section area A
5 and length ℓ floats in a liquid ρ ( > ρ 0) with its axis
If the force is changed to F2 it executes simple
vertical, as shown. If it is slightly displaced
harmonic motion with time period 3 sec. If both downward and released, the time period will be :-
5
forces F1 and F2 act simultaneously in the same
direction on the body, its time period will be :
12 24
(1) sec (2) sec
25 25
35 15
(3) sec (4) sec
24 12
25. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with
amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm ℓ ρ0 ℓ
from the mean position the magnitude of its (1) 2π√ (2) 2π√
g ρg
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration then
find its time period (in sec.)? ρℓ ℓ
(3) 2π√ (4) 2π√
ρ 0g 2g
(1) 7π
3
(2) 3π
8
(3) 4π
3
(4) 8π
3 31. The left block collides inelastically with the right
26. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point
block and sticks to it. Find the amplitude of the
resulting simple harmonic motion.
of suspension is now moved upward according to
the relation y = Kt2, (K = 1 m/s2) where y is the
vertical displacement. The time period now
T12
becomes T2. The ratio of is : (g = 10 m/s2) (1) V√
m
(2) V√
m
T22 K 2K
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 4 m 2m
5 6
(3) 2V √ (4) V√
5 K K
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32. The mass M shown in the figure oscillates in 35. A uniform rope of mass m and length ℓ hangs
simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. The from a ceiling as shown in figure. Find out time
amplitude of the point P is : taken by a transverse wave to travel the full
length of rope.

k1 A k2 A
(1) k2
(2) k1
k1 A k2 A
(3) k1 + k2
(4) k1 + k2
33. A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string
in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10 cm/s.
The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its
ℓ g
amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the snap (1) t=√ (2) t=√
g ℓ
shot of the wave is shown in figure. The velocity
of P when its displacement is 5 cm is : ℓ 1√ℓ
(3) t = 2√ (4) t=
g 2 g
36. Two uniform ropes are hanging from rigid
supports. The different masses are attached to
the free end of the ropes such that tension at
point A in the first rope and B in the second rope
are equal. If the ratio of mass per unit length is n
√ 3π ^
(1) i m/s and ratio of respective frequencies of the pulse
50
3π ^
√ produced at lower ends is 1 then find ratio of
(2) − j m/s k
50 wavelengths at parts A and B.
√ 3π ^
(3) j m/s
50
√ 3π ^
(4) − i m/s
50
34. A piece of cork is floating on water in a small
k
tank. The cork oscillates up and down vertically (1) nk (2)
n
when small wave pass over the surface of water.
k
The velocity of the wave being 0.21 ms – 1, wave (3) √ nk (4)
√ n
length 15 mm and amplitude 5 mm, the
maximum velocity of the piece of cork is :
37. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
material are slightly out of tune and produce
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases
to 7 Hz. If the original frequency of B is 530 Hz,
the original frequency of A will be :
(1) 0.44 ms – 1 (2) 0.24 ms – 1
(1) 537 Hz (2) 523 Hz
(3) 2.4 ms – 1 (4) 4.4 ms – 1
(3) 524 Hz (4) 536 Hz
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38. In case of string waves, match the statements in 41. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic
column-I with the statements in column-II. with a tuning fork of frequency f1. Now it is closed
Column-I at one end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is
(1) A tight string is fixed at both ends and increased slowly from f1, then again a resonance is
sustaining standing wave obtained with a frequency f2. If in this case the
(2) A tight string is fixed at one end and free at pipe vibrates in nth harmonic, then :
the other end
(3) A tight string is fixed at both ends and 3 5
(1) n = 3, f2 = f1 (2) n = 3, f2 = f1
vibrating in four loops 4 4
(4) A tight string is fixed at one end and free at 5 3
(3) n = 5, f2 = f1 (4) n = 5, f2 = f1
the other end, vibrating in 2nd overtone 4 4
Column-II 42. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open
(p) At the middle, antinode is formed in odd organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ 1 and ρ 2
harmonic respectively. The compressibility of gases are
(q) At the middle, node is formed in even equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are
harmonic vibrating in their first overtone with same
(r) the frequency of vibration is 300% more than frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :
its fundamental frequency
(s) Phase difference between SHMs of any two L 4L
(1) (2)
3 3
particles will be either π or zero.
(t) The frequency of vibration is 400% more than 4L ρ 1 4L ρ 2
(3) 3
√
ρ2
(4) 3
√
ρ1
fundamental frequency.
(1) (1) q,s (2) s (3) q,r,s (4) p,s,t
43. A pipe, 30 cm long is opened at both ends.
Which harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a
(2) (1) p,q,s (2) s (3) q,r,s (4) s,t source of 1.1 KHz ? If pipe is closed at one end
then which harmonic mode of pipe resonates
(3) (1) p,s (2) s (3) p,r,s (4) r,t with same source ? (Speed of sound = 330 m/s)
(4) (1) p,q (2) s (3) p,r,s (4) r (1) 2nd, 4th (2) 3rd, 5th
39. Two wires are fixed in a sonometer. Their tensions (3) 2nd, 5th (4) 2nd, not possible
are in the ratio 8:1. The lengths are in the ratio
36:35. The diameters are in the ratio 4:1. Densities 44. A tuning fork with frequency 325 Hz produces
resonance in a resonance column tube with upper end
of the materials are in the ratio 1:2. If the higher
open and lower end closed by water surface.
frequency in the setting is 360 Hz, the beat Successive resonance are observed at length 25.4 cm
frequency when the two wires sounded together is: and 77.4 cm. The speed of sound in air is :-
(1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 6 (1) 298 m/s (2) 338 m/s
40. A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the tube (3) 358 m/s (4) 289 m/s
at S. The smallest radius r of the circular segment to
hear minimum intensity at detector D must be :- 45. For equilibrium of the system, value of mass m
should be :-

(1) 1.75 m (2) 0.175 m

(1) 9 kg (2) 15 kg (3) 21 kg (4) 1 kg
(3) 0.93 m (4) 9.3 m
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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : SYLLABUS - 3

46. What is hybridisation of each carbon atom in 52. Which is chiral molecule?
following compound :-
HC ≡ C – CH = CH – CH3
(1) (2)
(1) sp, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (2) sp, sp, sp2, sp2, sp3
(3) sp, sp, sp2, sp3, sp3 (4) sp, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp3
47. The correct order of decreasing priority of (3) (4)
functional group according to IUPAC system is :
(1) 53. The pair of enantiomers among the following
compound is :
(2) OH > NH2 > CHO > CN
(3) CN > CHO > NH2 > OH
(4) COOH > CN > CHO > OH
48. IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 2,3-dimethyl-1-phenylbutane
(2) 3,4-dibromo-5-phenylpentane
(1) I and IV (2) II and IV
(3) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(4) 1-phenyl-2,3-dibromobutane (3) II and III (4) I and II
49. IUPAC name of the compound 54. Assertion :- 1, 2-Dimethyl cyclobutane shows
geometrical isomerism as well as optical isomerism
Reason :- It has restricted rotation as well as chiral
carbon.
(1) E-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
(2) Z-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(3) E-2-chloro-3-iodo pent-2-ene Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Z-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason
50. Statement-I : Neopentane forms only one is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
monosubstituted compound. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Statement-II : Neopentane is position isomer of (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
isopentane. 55. The correct order towards electrophilic substitution
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false reaction is
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are false
51. Total possible benzenoid structural isomer for
C7H8O. (1) iv > iii > ii > i (2) i > ii > iii > iv
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7 (3) iii > ii > i > iv (4) iii > iv > i > ii
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56. Which statement is incorrect ? 60. Rank the following alkenes in order of
(1) In carbocation ( CH3+ ) vacant orbital is pure
decreasing heats of hydrogenation
p orbital.
(2) Carbanion is sp3 hybridised.
(3) Generally triplet carbene is more stable (1) II > III > IV > I (2) II > IV > III > I
than singlet. (3) I > III > IV > II (4) I > IV > III > II
(4) Heterolytic cleavage produces free radicals. 61. What is the correct stability order of the
57. Select the incorrect order of stability ? following resonance structures?

(1)

(2)
(1) I > II > IV > III (2) I > III > II > IV
(3) II > I > III > IV (4) III > I > IV > II
62. If isopropyl chloride and propyl chloride both
(3) react with Na in presence of dry ether which
alkane obtains ?

(4)

58. Correct order of basic strength :

(I) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (II) (CH3 – CH2)2NH
(III) (CH3 – CH2)3N
(1) II > I > III (2) III > II > I
(1) a, b only (2) a, c, d only
(3) I > II > III (4) II > III > I
59. Most acidic compound is :- (3) b, c, d only (4) All of these
63. For the reaction

(1) (2)

The product (C) is :

(3) (4) (1) CH2 = CH2 (2)

(3) H – C ≡ C – H (4)

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64. Which of the following show tautomerism? 69. 2-Bromopentane is treated with alcoholic KOH
solution, what will be the major product formed
(1) (2) in this reaction and what is the type of
elimination called?
(1) Pent-1-ene, β -elimination
(3) (4)
(2) Pent-2-ene, β -elimination
(3) Pent-1-ene, Nucleophilic substitution
65. Which is the wrong representation of resonance?
(4) Pent-2-ene, Nucleophilic substitution
(1) 70. Which of the following is most reactive in
electrophilic addition reaction (EAR)?
(2)
(1) Propene (CH3 – CH = CH2)
(3) (2) Ethene (CH2 = CH2)
(3) (HC ≡ CH)
(4)
(4)
66. Rank the following radicals in order of
Decreasing stability 71. B HgSO +dil.H SO
CH3 – C ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−−→ A
4 2 4

Product A and B are :

(1) Functional group isomers
(1) III > II > I > IV (2) III > II < I < IV
(2) Positional isomers
(3) II > III > II > IV (4) III < II < I < IV
(3) Geometrical isomers
67. Which of the following species is not
(4) Not isomers
electrophilic in nature :-
(1) BH3 (2) H3O ⊕
72. Which of the following reaction does not gives
benzoic acid -
(3) (4) Cl ⊕
Acidic
−−−−−−→
68. (1) C6 H5 − CH3
Propene reacts with Br2 to give 1,2-dibromopropane. KMnO4 , Δ

CrO2 Cl2 K2 Cr2 O7

The anti-addition takes place due to the formation of (2) C6 H5 − CH3 −−−−−→ −−−−−→
H2 O
intermediate :-
Acidic
(3) C6 H5 C ≡ CH −−−−−−−→
KMnO4 , Δ
(1) (2)
Acidic
(4) −−−−−−→
KMnO4 , Δ
(3) (4)

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73. Which of the following will give benzene as 76. Which of the following does not given alkane
major product? with RMgX.
(1) Ph – OH
(2) CH3 – NH2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – OH

(4)

77. Match the following :-

(A) Estimation of Nitrogen (p) Chromatography

Fractional
(1) A,B,C only (2) B,C,D only (B) Estimation of Halogen (q)
distillation
(3) A,B,C,D (4) A,B,C only
Separate Fraction of
74. (C)
Crude oil
(r) Carius Method

Separation of Coloured
(D) (s) Duma's Method
substance found in plant
The final product A and B are :- (1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s (2) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-p
(3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r (4) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(1)
78. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g
of an organic compound gave 0.47 g of AgBr.
Percentage of bromine in compound is
(2) (molar mass of AgBr = 188 g)
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 50% (4) 80%
79. Which is incorrect order :-
(3)
(1)

(4) (2)

75. Ozonolysis of which of following will give

(3)
acetone and butanal as product :-
(1) (2)
(4)
(3) (4)
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80. CH3 − CH3

Cl2
−−
Na AlCl3 +HCl
→ A −−−−−−→ B −−−−−−−→ C 83. Which of the following is the least stable
hν dry ether Δ
(Excess) arenium or benzenium ion ?
Product C is :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

81. Decreasing order of acid strength for the following :-

(3) (4)

84. Which of the following is not correct ?

AlCl3
(1) C6H6 + CH3Cl −−−→ C6H5CH3
Friedel craft reaction

Zn−Hg/HCl
−−−−−−−−→
(1) IV > III > I > II (2) II > IV > III > I (2)
(3) III > IV > II > I (4) IV > III > II > I Clemmenson reduction
82. Match the following : Na/Ether
(3) CH3 – Cl −−−−−−→ CH3CH3
Column I Column II Wurtz reaction
Free Re dP +HI

(a) (i)
radical (4) CH3 – CHO −−−− Δ
−−→ CH3CH3
addition Wolff-kishner reduction
85.
reaction

Electrophilic
(b) (ii) substitution
reaction
Here (B) & (C) are respectively :-
Free radical
(c) (iii) substitution (1)
reaction

Electrophilic
(d) (iv) addition (2)
reaction

(1) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)

(3)
(2) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)
(3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d) → (ii)
(4) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iii) (4)

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86. 89. Best method for preparation of 1-Bromo-3-propyl
A B
−−−→ →​
AlCl3 benzene ?

C
→ (1)

Which of the following is true :-

(1) A = Zn – Hg + HCl, B = , C = KMnO4
(2)
(2) A = , B = H2/Pd, C = KMnO4

(3) A = ,B= , C = KMnO4

(3)
(4) A = , B = Zn – Hg + HCl, C = P.C.C.
87.
(Major product)
(4)

(1) 90. Choose the correct option.

Assertion (A) : Staggered conformation of
(2)
ethane is more stable than its eclipsed
conformation.
(3)
Reason (R) : Of all the conformations of
ethane the staggered form has the least torsional
(4) strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum
torsional strain.
88. Which statement is correct for (D) :-
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' is the
correct explanation of 'A'

(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct but 'R' is not
correct explanation of 'A'
(1) D is racemic mixture
(2) D is anti diol (3) 'A' is correct but 'R' is incorrect
(3) D is optically active
(4) D is meso form of compound (4) 'A' is incorrect but 'R' is correct
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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
Topic : SYLLABUS - 3

91. Which of the following is incorrect ? 95. _____ in the favoured substrate for respiration ?
(1) In maize, Calvin cycle occurs in mesophyll cells. (1) Glucose (2) Protein
(2) Hatch and Slack pathway occurs in sorghum. (3) Lipids (4) Fatty acids
(3) During Hatch and Slack pathway, aspartic 96. Select the correct statement regarding synapses :-
acid or malic acid formed in mesophyll cells. (1) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters
(4) During Calvin cycle, 3-phosphoglycerate is (2) Impulse transmission across a electrical
formed in mesophyll cell. synapse is always faster than that across a
92. Which of the following induces femaleness in chemical synapse
cucumber? (3) Neurotransmitter receptors are situated on
(1) Ethylene (2) Ethanol pre synaptic membrane
(3) ABA (4) Gibberellin (4) Chemical synapses are rare in our system
93. Match the following columns and select the 97. Which of the following enclosed by schwan cells ?
correct option-
Column-I Column-II (1) Unmyelinated neuron of PNS only
Maintaining of sleep (2) All types of neuron of PNS
(a) Thymus gland (i) wake cycle and body
(3) All types of neuron of CNS
temperature
Regulate the synthesis (4) Myelinated neuron of CNS only
(b) Parathyroid gland (ii) and secretion of
pituitary hormones
98. Structurally Heart muscle is similar to -
Significant role in (1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle
(c) Pineal gland (iii) calcium balance (3) Visceral muscle (4) Involuntary muscle
in body
Differentiation of
99. Match Column-I with Column-II :-
(d) Hypothalamus (iv)
T-Lymphocyte Column-I Column-II
Pneumotaxic
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Pons i
center
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Control
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (B) Medulla ii
respiration
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Control body
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (C) Mid brain iii
temperature
94. How many of the following events are common in Corpora
glycolysis, link reaction and Kreb’s cycle ? (D) Hypothalamus iv
quadrigemina
C-C bond cleavage, Substrate level phosphorylation,
removal of water, reduction of NAD+, decarboxylation (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
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100. When 1 mole of pyruvate is completely oxidized, 104. Which of the following are true about resting
how many moles of carbon dioxide are produced ? phase of neuron ?
(1) 1 (a) Ion channels are working
(b) Influx of Na+ ions through VGC
(2) 2 (c) Na+ – K+ pump are working to transport 3K+
(3) 3 ions out and 2Na+ inside
(4) 4 (d) Potassium voltage gated channels are open to
maintain negative charge inside
101. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the (e) Potential difference across the membrane at
choloroplast and mitochondria is based on :- rest is – 70 mV
(1) Proton gradient (1) Only a (2) b, c, e
+
(2) Accumulation of K ion (3) a, c, e (4) a and e
105.
+
(3) Accumulation of Na ion The complex II of mitochondrial electron
(4) Membrane Potential transport chain is also known as
102. What is common intermediate of carbohydrates (1) Cytochrome bc1
and fat degradation ? (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(1) Succinate (3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(2) Pyruvate (4) NADH dehydrogenase
(3) Citrate 106. Number of CO2 molecules evolved in glycolysis is:
(4) Acetyl CoA (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 0
103. Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse 107. Which of the following is/are correct about
across the synapse are given below cellular Respiration?
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the (A) The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic
entry of ions, a new action potential is generated pathway as it involves both anabolism and
in the post-synaptic neuron. catabolism.
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post (B) The entire cellular respiration takes place in
synaptic membrane cytoplasm.
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic (C) Fermentation takes place under aerobic
membrane, neurotransmitter releases into condition in germinating seeds.
synaptic cleft. (D) Metabolic fate of pyruvate depends on the
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane cellular need.
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal. (E) Water is formed during respiration as a result
In which sequence to the events occur ? of O2. accepting electrons and getting oxidised.
(1) E → D → C → B → A Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) A → B → C → D → E given below:
(1) A, B, C, D only (2) A and D only
(3) A → B → D → C → E
(3) A, C, D, E only (4) A only
(4) E → D → C → A → B
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108. During TCA cycle which of the following 112. Assertion : There are three major ways in which
intermediate is a result of two successive different cells handle pyruvic acid produced by
decarboxylations ? glycolysis.
(1) Citric acid (2) Fumaric acid Reason : As per metabolic need and conditions
(3) α -ketoglutaric acid (4) Succinyl -Co-A available, pyruvate may participate in lactic acid
fermentation, alcoholic fermentation or in aerobic
109. Match the column I with column II :-
Column-I Column-II respiration.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(i)
(ii)
Cranial bones
Facial bones
(a)
(b)
5
6
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(iii) Axial skeleton (c) 8 (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(iv) Vertebro-chondral ribs (d) 14 (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(v) Lumbar vertebrae (e) 80 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(1) (i) – c, (ii) – d, (iii) – e, (iv) – b, (v) – a is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) (i) – d, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – c 113. Photorespiration is a wasteful process in
C3 plants, because.
(3) (i) – a, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – c, (v) – d
(1) There is synthesis of ATP
(4) (i) – d, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – c
(2) There is synthesis of Glucose
110. When blood calcium level is low. Regarding to
(3) No synthesis of sugars but there is release
this which is incorrect :-
of CO2
(1) PTH stimulates the bone dissolution
(4) No synthesis of sugars but there is synthesis
(2) PTH stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ from of NADPH
renal tubules.
114. Internodal elongation is stimulated by :-
(3) PTH stimulates Ca2+ absorption from
digested food (1) Auxin (2) ABA
(4) ADH secretion causes Ca2+ excretion from body. (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
111. Assertion : The protons or hydrogen ions that are 115. Assertion : Vasopressin hormone is also termed
produced by the splitting of water accumulate as antidiuretic hormone.
within the lumen of the thylakoids. Reason : Vasopressin acts mainly at kidney and
Reason : Water splitting complex is associated stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolytes
with the PS II, which itself is physically located on by the proximal convoluted tubule to reduced
the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid. loss of water through urine.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False statements (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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116. Choose incorrect statement. 120. The most free joint of all joints is :-
(1) Facial region has 14 skeletal elements. (1) Ball and socket joint
(2) Human skull is dicondylic. (2) Hinge joint
(3) Cranial bones are 8 in number. (3) Pivot joint
(4) Sternum is located on dorsal midline of (4) Fibrous joint
thorax. 121. Find the incorrect statements :
117. Statement-I :- Melatonin influences metabolism, (1) Locomotory structures need not be different
pigmentation, menstrual cycle as well as diurnal from those affecting other types of movements
rhythm.
Statement-II :- Thyroid gland is composed of (2) Protoplasmic streaming is found in amoeba
follicles and stromal tissue. (3) Hydra uses its tentacles as locomotory
(1) Statement I and II correct structures
(2) Statement I and II incorrect (4) All types of movements results in locomotion
(3) Statement I correct and II incorrect 122. Cardiovascular reflexes centre present in :-
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct (1) Cerebrum
118. The phenomenon of plant in which plants shows (2) Pons
response to environment and forms different (3) Medulla oblongata
kind of structure is known as : (4) Cerebellum
(1) Flexibility
123. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(2) Maturity (1) Abscisic acid is also called stress hormone.
(3) Elasticity (2) Chemically all PGRs are purine derivatives
(4) Plasticity (3) ABA acts as antagonist to GAs in most of
119. Statement I : Dark band is made up of myosin. the cases
Statement II : The edges of thin filaments on (4) GAs can speed up malting process.
either side of the thick filament partially overlap
the free ends of thick filaments leaving the 124. Which one is essential for activation of pyruvate
central part of thick filaments is called H-zone. dehydrogenase complex ?
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Mg+2 (2) NAD+
incorrect. (3) CoA (4) All of these
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 125. Joint between the bone of human skull is :
incorrect.
(1) Synovial Joint
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) cartilaginous Joint
correct
(4) Both Statement I Statement II (3) Hinge Joint
and are
correct. (4) Fibrous Joint
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126. Given below are two statement : 129. Chemiosmotic hypothesis explain ATP synthesis
Statement-I :- 'A' band consists of both actin & in mitochondria & chloroplast. Which of the
myosin filaments. following are necessary for chemiosmosis ?
Statement-II :- 'I' band consists of only actin
filaments where 'H' zone consists of only myosin (1) Membrane, Electron pump, Proton gradient
filaments. & Citrate synthase
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) Membrane, Proton pump, Proton gradient
most appropriate answer from the options given & Citrate synthase
below :- (3) Membrane, Proton pump, Proton gradient
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are & ATP synthase
incorrect. (4) Membrane, Proton pump, Electron gradient
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is & ATP synthase
incorrect. 130. Which of the following group of hormones
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is increases glycogenolysis ?
correct
(1) Thyroxine, MSH, Glucagon, Insulin
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (2) Adrenaline, Nor adrenaline, Cortisol, Glucagon
127. In muscles store house of calcium ions is : (3) Cortisol, Insulin, Adrenaline, Thyroxine
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) Insulin, Adrenaline, Cortisol, ACTH
(2) Myofibril 131. Which of the following pathway partially oxidise
glucose without the help of oxygen ?
(3) Sarcosome
(1) Calvin cycle
(4) Sarcoplasm
(2) Photorespiration
128. Match List I with List II.
List I List II (3) Glycolysis

A. Chlorophyll a I. Yellow-green (4) E.T.S

B. Chlorophyll b II. Yellow 132. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are
required respectively for fixation of each
C. Xanthophylls III. Blue-green
CO2 molecule in sorghum plant ?
Yellow to
D. Carotenoids IV. (1) 3, 2 (2) 5, 2
Yellow-orange
(3) 18, 12 (4) 30, 12
Choose the option with all correct matches. 133. Parathormone is antagonistic to :-
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1) Atrial natriuretic factor
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) Glucagon
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) Cortisol
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134. Which statement (s) is/are true ? 137. Read the following statements on plant growth
and development.
(1) Dark reaction is more temperature sensitive
A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
than light reaction B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in
(2) Light reaction is more temperature promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
sensitive than dark reaction C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-
differentiation.
(3) Light and dark, both reactions are not D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
sensitive to temperature E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of
lateral buds.
(4) Dark reaction is sensitive to temperature Choose the option with all correct statements.
but light reaction is not sensitive to light.
(1) A, B, C only (2) A, C, E only
135. Assertion : Catecholamines stimulates the (3) A, D, E only (4) B, D, E only
glycogenolysis in response to stress situation. 138. ATP : NADPH : CO2 consumption ratio during
Reason : Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid in the photosynthesis in the C3 plant :
our body. (1) 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (3) 2 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 4
Reason is a correct explanation of the 139. Which of the following hormone is not a
Assertion. protein/peptide/polypeptide hormone?
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (1) GnRH (2) Gonadotropins
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) Thymosins (4) Glucocorticoids
Assertion. 140. During skeletal muscle contraction, ATP are
required for :
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) Formation of cross bridge
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) Breaking of the cross bridge
136. Select the incorrect statement from following- (3) (1) and (2) both
(1) The posterior pituitary is under the direct (4) Shortening of A-band
neural regulation of the hypothalamus 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(2) Pars nervosa stores and releases oxytocin (1) E.T.S is present on inner membrane of
and vasopressin. mitochondria
(3) Melatonin hormone is secreted by pineal (2) E.T.S helps to oxidise NADH +H+ in
mitochondria
gland
(3) O2 is terminal hydrogen acceptor in E.T.S
(4) Prolactin stimulates milk ejection from the in mitochondria
mammary gland. (4) Complex I of E.T.S contains 2 cu centers
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142. Match the column – I with Column – II and 148. Which one is not correctly matched :-
choose the correct option :- (1) ANF = ↓ Blood pressure
Column-I Column-II (2) Progesterone = Alveoli formation in
A Grana of chloroplast i Light reaction mammary gland
B Mitochondrial matrix ii Dark reaction (3) Aldosterone = Na+ excretion and K+
reabsorption
C Cytoplasm of cell iii Krebs cycle
(4) Glucocorticoids - suppress immune reactions
D Stroma of chloroplast iv EMP pathway
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
149. Read the following statements.
(a) Prolactin regulates growth of mammary
(2) A-i, B-iv, C- iii, D- ii glands and milk formation in them.
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (b) Over secretion of GH stimulates abnormal
growth of body leading to dwarfism.
(4) A-i, B-iii, C- iv, D- ii (c) Melatonin helps in maintaining normal
143. Under certain conditions regaining the lost rhythms of sleep wake cycle and body
capacity of division by living cells is called: temperature.
(d) Thyroid hormones plays a role in regulation
(1) Dedifferentiation
of basal metabolic rate.
(2) Redifferentiation (e) Parathormone acts on bones and stimulate
(3) Differentiation process of bone resorption.
How many of above are true?
(4) Efficiency index
144. Glucose level in blood is not increased by –
(1) a, b, c, d (2) c, b, e
(3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d, e
(1) Thyoxine (2) Adrenaline
(3) Cortisol (4) Calcitonin
150. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
145. The electron transport system is located in the -
Less than
(1) Stroma (2) Matrix A. RQ of fats (i)
7 percent
(3) Cytosol (4) Cristae Energy released
146. Hyperparathyroidism in adults causes :-
B.
in fermentation
(ii) less than 1

(1) Tetany (2) Rickets C. RQ of glucose (iii) 1

(3) Osteomalacia (4) Osteoporosis Net ATP produced
D. (iv) 2
147. ATP is a _____ ? in fermentation
(1) High Energy Nucleotide Triphosphate (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) Adenine Triphosphate (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) High Energy Nucleoside Triphosphate (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(4) All are correct (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
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151. Which of the following hormone causes rapid 155. Which anatomical part of brain is correctly
elongation of internode in deep water rice plant matched:-
so that leaves and upper part of shoot to remain Corpus White matter &
above water- (A)
callosum largest commisure
(1) Cytokinin Wrapped by cerebrum
(B) Thalamus
(2) Ethylene & centre of signaling.
(3) ABA Outer part of cerebral
Limbic
(4) NAA (C) hemisphere with
system
152. What is the suitable oxidisable compound used
Amygdala & hippocampus.
in the photosynthesis of green sulphur bacteria ? Corpora
(D) Anterior part of midbrain
quadrigemina
(1) H2O (2) CO2
(E) Pons Part of brain stem
(3) H2S (4) C6H12O6
153. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was (1) A,B,C
described in :-
(2) B,C,D
(1) Volvox
(2) Chlorella (3) A,B,E
(3) Cladophora (4) C,D,E
(4) Spirullina 156. Which one of the following phytohormones
154. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and
promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :- the delay of leaf senescence in plants ?
(a) C4 plants show response to high light intensity (1) Ethylene
(b) Bundle sheath cells always form single layer
around vascular bundle (2) Abscisic acid
(c) 12 NADP+ and 16 ADP come out of each
(3) Gibberellin
calvin cycle
(d) The continued oxidation of acetyl – CoA via (4) Cytokinin
TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment
of oxaloacetic acid
157. Wild contraction of muscles due to low Ca++ in
Option :- body fluid.
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d) (1) Tetany
(2) Statements (a) and (b) (2) Arthritis
(3) Statements (c) and (d) (3) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Statements (a) and (d) (4) Myasthenia gravis
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158. Gland 'A' is endodermal and made up of both 163. Which of the following is not correct with
exocrine and endocrine part & secretes one pair reference to fermentation and aerobic respiration ?
of Antagonistic hormone. What is this gland 'A' :- (1) Fermentation accounts for only a partial
(1) Liver breakdown of glucose
(2) Gonads
(2) Relatively more molecules of ATP are
(3) Thymus generated under aerobic conditions
(4) Pancreas
(3) In fermentation there is a net gain of only
159. Choose the wrong statement from following two molecules of ATP for each molecule
option :-
of sucrose degraded to pyruvic acid
(1) Human brain is covered by three layers of
Meninges. (4) NADH is oxidised to NAD+ quite vigorously
(2) Limbic system regulates emotion like rage, in aerobic respiration
fear, anger etc. 164. Given match is related to functions of particular
(3) Both cerebral hemisphere are coordinated hormone. Find out the incorrect match :-
by white fibrous connective tissue strip (A) Proteolysis – Cortisol
which is known as corpus callosum.
(B) Glycogenolysis – Nor Adrenaline
(4) All the Information in human are analysed
in C.N.S. (C) Libido – Progesterone

160. In scapula bone below the acromion is a (D) Critinism – Decrease level of thyroxine
depression called ? (E) Gluconeogenesis – Glucagon
(1) Thoracic cavity (F) Erythropoiesis – Thyrocalcitonin
(2) Glenoid cavity (G) Development of somatic tissue – Growth
(3) Acetabulum hormone

(4) Foramen of Magnum (1) B, C and F are incorrect

161. Globular head of myosin has two sites, these (2) C, E and G are incorrect
are : (3) Only C & F are incorrect
(1) ATP binding site, active site for troponin (4) A, B, C, D are incorrect
(2) ATP binding site, active site for actin 165. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of
(3) Troponin binding site, active site for actin uric acid crystals
(4) ATP binding site, active site for tropomyosin (1) Tetany
162. In which animal neural organisation is first (2) Osteoporosis
developed ? (3) Arthritis
(1) Cockroach (2) Earthworm
(4) Gout
(3) Hydra (4) Human
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166. In human beings cilliary movement is found in 169. Match the following :-
(1) Small intestine Joint Example
(2) Limbs Ball &
A P Knee joint
Socket
(3) Jaw
Between the
(4) Fallopian tube B Hinge Q
carpals.
167. Assertion : When a stimulus is applied at a site C Pivot R Between atlas & axis
on the polarised membrane then this site
Carpal & metacarpal
becomes freely permeable to Na+ D Gliding S
of thumb
Reason : Stimulus induced permeability to Na+ Between Humerus
is extremely short lived. E Saddle T
and Pectoral girdle
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) A-T, B-P, C-R, D-Q, E-S
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) A-T, B-Q, C-R, D-P, E-S
Assertion.
(3) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P, E-T
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (4) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q, E-T
Assertion. 170. Match the following column –
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Column-I Column-II
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (A) Joseph Pristley (i) Kinetin
168. Statement-I : For each ATP produced, 4H+ (B) Miller (ii) Glycolysis
passes through F0 from the intermembrane space Oxygen
(C) E. Kurosowa (iii)
to matrix down the electrochemical proton discovery
gradient. Embden, Meyerhof, Gibberellic
(D) (iv)
Statement-II : The continued oxidation of acetyl Parnas acid
CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued (1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
replenishment of oxalosuccinate, the 1st member (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
of the cycle.
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 171. The electrons needed to replace those removed
from photosystem I are provided by :
correct.
(1) NADPH + H+
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. (2) Ferridoxin
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) PS II
correct. (4) FNR
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 24 English

172. Which of the following is not true for the cyclic 175. The axoplasm contains high concentration of
photophosphorylation? ___A___ and negatively charged proteins and
(1) Only PS-I is involved. low concentration of ___B___ :-
(2) Photolysis of water and release of O2.
A B
(3) NADP+ is not reduced.
(1) K ⊕ ions HCO3 – ions
(4) The electron expelled from P700 is cycled back.
173. Consider the following facts regarding the (2) Na ⊕ ions K ⊕ ions
structures labelled as alphabets in the adjacent (3) K ⊕ ions Na ⊕ ions
diagram of human brain and choose the correct
(4) 1 & 3 both
option:-
176. Which of the following hormone does not
require secondary messenger :
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Oxytocin
(4) FSH
(i) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor
signaling.
177. (i) Central part of thick filament not overlapped by
(ii) Passes through midbrain thin filaments is called the 'H' zone.
(iii) Structure connecting two cerebral hemisphere (ii) In human beings skeletal system is made up of
(iv) Contains regulatory centres for respiration,
206 bones and few cartilages.
cardio-vascular reflexes and gastric secretions
(iii) Each middle ear contains only two tiny bones
(1) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
known as ear ossicles.
(2) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-E
(iv) Each coxal bone of pelvic girdle formed by
(3) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-F
(4) i-C, ii-B, iii-E, iv-A the fusion of three bones.
174. Which acts as a mobile carrier for the transfer of Select the correct option with correct statements.
electrons between complex-II and complex-III ? (1) i, ii and iv
(1) Cytochrome-C
(2) ii, iii and i
(2) Ubi-quinone
(3) iii, ii and iv
(3) Plastocyanin
(4) FAD (4) i, ii, iii and iv
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 English 25
178. Coconut milk stimulate cell division as it is rich 180. Study the following statements and select the
correct answer :
in source of ? (a) In electron transport system e – transport from
(1) Auxin complex I to complex III and complex III to
complex IV through the cytochrome-C, which is
(2) Cytokinin mobile carrier.
(b) Electron transport system present in
(3) GA3
mitochondria as well as chloroplast.
(4) ABA (c) Ethylene is highly effective in fruit ripening as
179. In which step of Kreb cycle FAD+ get reduce to
it decreases the respiration rate during ripening of
fruit.
FADH2 ? (d) Enzymes eventually bring the activation
energy down making the transition of product to
(1) Citrate to isocitrate substrate more easy.
(e) For the formation of one molecule of glucose
(2) Citrate to α -ketoglutarate net consumption of ATP is 6 ATP in maize & rice.
(3) Succinate to malate (1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect
(4) Malate to oxaloacetate (3) Only (b) is correct (4) Only (c), (e) is correct

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 26 English

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MEA,B,C,D,L,M & MEN

1001CMD303029250081 04-12-2025

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 English 27
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MEA,B,C,D,L,M & MEN

04-12-2025 1001CMD303029250081

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