MCQ FROM SOLUTION

1 Raoult's law states that:

a) The vapor pressure of a solution is directly proportional to the mole fraction of the
solvent.
b) The vapor pressure of a solution is inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the
solute.
c) The vapor pressure of a solution is equal to the vapor pressure of the solvent.
d) None of the above.
2 A solution that obeys Raoult's law over the entire range of concentration is called:
a) Ideal solution b) Non-ideal solution
c) Concentrated solution d) Dilute solution
3 Positive deviation from Raoult's law occurs when:
a) A-B interactions are stronger than A-A and B-B interactions.
b) A-B interactions are weaker than A-A and B-B interactions.
c) A-B interactions are equal to A-A and B-B interactions.
d) None of the above.
4 The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to
a) Temperature b) Concentration of the solute
c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
5 The addition of a non-volatile solute to a solvent:
a) Increases the vapor pressure of the solvent
b) Decreases the vapor pressure of the solvent
c) Does not affect the vapor pressure of the solvent
d) None of the above
6 Henry's law states that
a) The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the
gas above the liquid.
b) The solubility of a gas in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of the
gas above the liquid.
c) The solubility of a gas in a liquid is independent of the partial pressure of the gas
above the liquid.
d) None of the above.
7 When a solute dissociates in solution, its observed molecular weight is
a) Greater than the theoretical molecular weight
b) Less than the theoretical molecular weight
c) Equal to the theoretical molecular weight
d) None of the above
8 A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of a non-volatile solute in 100 g of water. If the
vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 23.8 mm Hg, the vapor pressure of the solution will be
a) Less than 23.8 mm Hg b) Greater than 23.8 mm Hg
c) Equal to 23.8 mm Hg d) Cannot be determined
9 The molality of a solution containing 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) dissolved in 250 g of
water is
a) 0.4 m b) 0.2 m
c) 0.1 m d) 0.8 m
10 The osmotic pressure of a solution containing 10 g of a non-volatile solute in 1 L of water
at 27°C is 2.46 atm. The molar mass of the solute is
a) 100 g/mol b) 200 g/mol
c) 300 g/mol d) 400 g/mol
11 A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% w/w. What would be the molality of the
solution
a) 0.555 m b) 0.617 m
c) 0.444 m d) 0.777m
12 The freezing point of a 0.1 molal solution of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in
water is: (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg/mol)
a) -0.186°C b) -0.372°C
c) 0.186°C d) 0.372°C
13 The boiling point of a 0.1 molal solution of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in water
is: (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg/mol)
a) 100.052°C b) 100.52°C
c) 99.48°C d) 99.948°C
14 The degree of dissociation (α) of a weak electrolyte is related to the van't Hoff factor (i)
by the equation
a) i = 1 + α b) i = 1 - α
c) i = 1 + (n-1)α d) i = 1 - (n-1)α
15 The phenomenon of lowering of vapor pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile
solute is used in
a) Desalination of seawater b) Refrigeration
c) Preservation of food d) All of the above
16 Which of the following colligative properties can be used to determine the molecular
weight of a solute
a) Osmotic pressure b) Elevation of boiling point
c) Depression of freezing point d) All of the above
17 Assertion - The vapour pressure of a solution of a non-volatile solute in a volatile solvent
is lower than the vapour pressure of the pure solvent.
Reason - The addition of a non-volatile solute decreases the surface area of the solvent.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion - The osmotic pressure of a solution is a colligative property.
Reason - The osmotic pressure of a solution depends only on the number of solute
particles and not on their nature.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion - Ideal solutions obey Raoult's law at all concentrations.
Reason - In ideal solutions, the intermolecular forces between solute-solute, solvent-
solvent, and solute-solvent molecules are identical.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion - Molality of a solution does not change with temperature.
Reason - Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1 Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) ECell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
(b) ECell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(c) ECell is an intensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(d) ECell is an extensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an intensive property.
2 Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
3 An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic cell when ____________.
(a) Ecell = 0 (b) Ecell>Eext (c) Eext>Ecell (d) Ecell = Eext
4 Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct?
(a) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
(b) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution.
(c) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
(d) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.
5 The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from Al 2O3 is?
(a) 1F (b) 6F (c) 3F (d) 2F
6 The cell constant of a conductivity cell _____________.
(a) changes with change of electrolyte.
(b) changes with change of concentration of electrolyte.
(c) changes with temperature of electrolyte.
(d) remains constant for a cell.
7 While charging the lead storage battery ______________.
(a) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb. (b) PbSO4 cathode is reduced to Pb.
(c) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb. (d) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2.
8 The positive value of the standard electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu indicates that?
(a) this redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than the H+/H2 couple.
(b) this redox couple is a weaker oxidising agent than H+/H2.
(c) Cu can displace H2 from acid.
(d) Cu cannot displace H2 from acid.
9 Using the data given below find out the strongest reducing agent
Eo (Cr 2O72-/Cr3+) = 1.33V Eo(Cl2/Cl-) = 1.36V
Eo(MnO4-/ Mn2+) = 1.51V Eo(Cr3+/ Cr) = – 0.74V
(i) Cl– (ii) Cr (iii) Cr3+ (iv) Mn2+
10 Molar conductivity of ionic solution depends on ___________.
(a) pressure. (b) distance between electrodes.
(c) concentration of electrolytes in solution. (d) surface area of electrodes.
11 The ionic conductance of Ba2+ and Cl- ions are respectively 127 and 76 Ω-1 cm2 at infinite
dilution. The equivalent conductance of BaCl2 at infinite dilution is
(a) 203 Ω-1 cm2 (b) 279 Ω-1 cm2 (c) 101.5 Ω-1 cm2 (d) 139.5 Ω-1 cm2
12 Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt bridge because
(a) Velocity of K+ ion is greater than that of NO3 -
(b) Velocity of K+ ion is lesser than that of NO3 -
(c) Velocity of K+ and NO3 - ions are equal
(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water
13 The potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 is
(i) 0.591 V (ii) 0.00V (iii) – 0.591 V (iv)-0.059 V
14 For the given cell, Mg|Mg2+|| Cu2+|Cu
(a) Mg is cathode (b) Cu is anode
2+ 2+
(c) The cell reaction is Mg + Cu → Mg + Cu (d) Cu is the oxidising agent
15 What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 in the presence of
Cu electrodes?
(a) Oxygen will be released at cathode. (b) Copper will dissolve at anode.
(c) Oxygen will be released at anode. (d) Copper will deposit at anode.
16 The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn
through the cell is called ___________.
(a) Cell potential (b) Cell emf
(c) Potential difference (d) Cell voltage
17 Assertion: Copper sulphate can be stored in zinc vessel.
Reason: Zinc is more reactive than copper.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: Mercury cell does not give steady potential.
Reason: In the cell reaction, ions are not involved in solution.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion: Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O2.
Reason: Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion: Ʌm for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is
diluted.
Reason: For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM KINETICS
1

3
4

6 A catalyst alters, which of the following in a chemical reaction?

(a) Entropy (b) Enthalpy (c) Internal energy (d) Activation energy
7

8 The half-life of a reaction is doubled when the initial concentration is doubled. The order of
the reaction is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0
9
10
11 A first order reaction has a half-life length of 10 minutes. In 100 minutes, what proportion
of the response will be completed?
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 99.9% (D) 75%
12 In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is equal to:
(a) Specific rate constant (b) Average rate constant
(c) Instantaneous rate constant (c) None of the above
13

14 What is the order of reaction decomposition of Ammonia on platinum surface is

(A) Zero order reaction (B) First order reaction
(C) Second order reaction (D) Fractional order reaction
15

16

This graph is related to :

(a) First Order (b) Zero Order (c)Second Order (d)None of these
17 Assertion: All collision of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient
kinetics energy lead to compound formation.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: Increasing the pressure of reactants can increase the rate of a reaction.
Reason: Higher pressure can increase the frequency of collisions between reactant
molecules
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion: Hydrolysis of methyl ethanoate is a pseudo-first-order reaction.
Reason: Water is present in large excess and therefore its concentration remained constant
throughout the reaction.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion: The slowest elementary step in a complex reaction decides the rate of the
reaction.
Reason: The slowest elementary step always has the smallest molecularity.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM D AND F BLOCKS
1 Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice
of metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial
compounds?
a. They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.
b. They are very hard.
c. They retain metallic conductivity.
d. They are chemically very reactive.
2 Although Zirconium belongs to the 4d transition series and Hafnium to 5d transition
series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties
because___________.
a. both belong to d-block.
b. both have the same number of electrons.
c. both have almost similar atomic radii.
d. both belong to the same group of the periodic table.
3 Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in:
a. Effective shielding of 4f electrons b. Atomic no
c. Effective nuclear charge d. Atomic radius
- -
4 The product of oxidation of I with MnO4 in alkaline medium is
a. IO3- b. I2
- -
c. IO d. IO4
5 The formula of pyrolusite is
a. Mn3O4 b. MnO2
c. MnO d. Mn2O7
6 Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. La (OH)3 is less basic than Lu (OH)3
b. La is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanoids
c. Atomic radius of Zr and Hf is same
d. In lanthanoid series the ionic radius of Lu3+ is the smallest
7 Identify the non-transition element out there (if all of them have stable oxidation state
+2)
(a) (n-1) d 5 ns1 (b) (n-1)d 5 ns2
(c) (n-1) d 10 ns1 (d) (n-1)d10 ns2
8 Which one among the following transition elements has highest enthalpy of atomization?
(a) P = 3d3 4s2 (b) Q = 3d4 4s3
(c) R = 3d5 4s2 (d) S = 3d10 4s1
9 A transition element 'X' is placed in the first series of transition elements. It has the
following characteristics:
i) It is a coinage metal.
ii) It has a positive reduction potential.
 iii) It does not react with HCl but reacts with Nitric acid. Which of the following is
element X likely to be?
(a) Gold (b) Iron (c) Copper (d) Chromium
10 Zr and Hf are very hard to separate because:
I. they have almost same atomic radii.
II. They belong to same group.
III. They belong to same series.
IV. They have same general electronic configuration.
(a) I, II & IV are correct.
(b) II, III & IV are correct.
(c) I, II & III are correct.
(d) I, II, III & IV are correct.
11 Which is not an effect of lanthanoid contraction?
a. Pd and Pt has almost same ionic radii.
b. Zr and Hf are hard to separate.
c. Os has highest oxidation number among all transition elements.
d. Lu is smallest amongst all the lanthanoids metals.
12 In which of the following oxides or oxo anions does the metal NOT exhibit an oxidation
state equal to its group number?
(a) CrO3 (b) MnO4 (c) Mn 2O7 (d) MnO2
13 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(At. nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 72
(a) Ce2+ (b)Sm2+ (c) Eu2+ (d) Yb2+
14 KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the reaction:
3MnO42– 2H2O ⇌ 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 4OH–
The reaction can go to completion by removing OH– ions by adding
(a) KOH (b) CO2 (c) SO2 (d) HCl
15 The color of transition metal ions is caused by absorption of a specific wavelength. This
results in
(a) d-s transition (b) s-s transition (c) s-d transition (d) d-d transition
16 All the metals form oxides of the type MO except
(a) copper (b) barium (c) silver (d) lead
17 Assertion: Zn, Cd, Hg and Cn are not regarded as transition metals.
Reason: These elements do not belong to d-block of the periodic table
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: Permanganate titrations in the presence of HCl is not satisfactory.
Reason: HCl get oxidized by permanganate and produces chlorine gas
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion: Actinides show more complex oxidation states than lanthanides.
Reason: Actinides have 5f orbitals which are more shielded than the 4f orbitals of
lanthanides
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion: The ability of fluorine to stabilize the high oxidation state of metals exceeds
that of oxygens.
Reason: Oxygen can form multiple bonds to metals which makes it superior than fluorine.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM CO-ORDINATION
COMPOUNDS
1 Fac-mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes?
(a) [M(AA)2] (b) [MA3B3] (c) [M(AA)3] (d) [MA4B2]
2+ 2+
2 The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)] are called
(a) Ionization isomers (b) Linkage isomers
(c) Co-ordination isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
3 Which type of isomerism is shown by the complex compounds [Co(NH 3)5Br]SO4 and
[Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
(a) Ionisation (b) Optical (c) Linkage (d) Coordination
4 The diamagnetic species is
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2- (b) [NiCl4]2- (c) [CuCl4]2- (d) [CoF6]3-
5 IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is
(a) triamminechlorodibromidoplatinum (IV) chloride
(b) triamminechloridobromidonitrochloride-platinum (IV) chloride
(c) triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(d) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
6 The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(a) Square planar and paramagnetic (b) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(c) Square planar and diamagnetic (d) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
7 Which of the following has square planar structure?
(a) [NiCl4]2- (b) [Ni(CO)4] (c) [Ni(CN)4]2- (d) None of these
8 .Which of the following is a hexadentate ligand?
(a) EDTA4- (b) (COO)22- (c) en (d) NH3
3-
9 The IUPAC name of complex ion [Fe(CN)6] is
(a) Hexacyanidoiron(III)ion (b) Hexacyanatoferrate (III)ion
(c) Hexacyanidoferrate (III)ion (d) Tricyanoiron(III)ion
10 According to Werner’s theory of coordination compounds
(a) Primary valence is ionisable
(b) Secondary valence is ionisable
(c) Primary and secondary valencies are lonisable
(d) Neither primary nor secondary valence is ionisable
11 Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits
paramagnetic behaviour :
(a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (d) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
12 The oxidation state of nickel in [Ni(CO4)] is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
2–
13 Coordination number of [Ni(C2O4)2] is ...................
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
14 Identify the heteroleptic complex from the following:
a) [Cu(CN)4]3- b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ d) [PtCl4]
15 The types of isomerism exhibited by [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl is ..........
a) Coordination Isomerism b) Ionisation Isomerism
c) Linkage Isomerism d) Solvate Isomerism
16 Mohr’s salt is
(a) Fe2(SO4)3.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O (b) FeSO4.(NH4)2.SO4.6H2O
(c) MgSO4.7H2O (d) FeSO4.7H2O
4-
17 Assertion: [Fe(CN)6] is a heteroleptic complex.
Reason: It is a complex ion in which the metal is bound to only one kind of
donor groups.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry.
Reason: IUPAC name of [Ni(CO)4] is Tetracarbonylnickel(0)
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing
ambidentate ligand.
Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion : ([Fe(CN)6]3- ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired
electrons.
Reason : Because it has d2sp3 type hybridisation.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM HALOALKANES AND
HALOARENES
1 The reaction of ethyl chloride with aqueous KOH is an example of:
a) Nucleophilic substitution reaction b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
c) Elimination reaction d) Addition reaction
2 Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?
a) CH₃Cl b) CH₃Br c) CH₃I d) CCl₄
3 What is the IUPAC name of C₆H₅Br?
a) Benzyl bromide b) Bromobenzene c) Bromoaniline d) Bromotoluene
4 Which compound undergoes SN1 reaction most easily?
a) CH₃Cl b) C₆H₅Cl
c) (CH₃)₃CCl d) CH₃CH₂Cl
5 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding haloalkanes?
a) Haloalkanes are polar in nature b) The C–X bond is highly reactive
c) Haloalkanes are soluble in water
d) Haloalkanes have higher boiling points than alkanes
6 What is the major product when 2-bromopropane reacts with alcoholic KOH?
a) Propene b) Propanol c) 1-Bromopropane d) Acetone
7 Which reagent can be used to distinguish between CH₃CH₂Br and CH₃CH₂Cl?
a) AgNO₃ in ethanol b) NaOH
c) NH₄OH d) Br₂ in CCl₄
8 The SN2 mechanism of nucleophilic substitution is:
a) One-step with inversion of configuration
b) Two-step with retention of configuration
c) One-step with retention of configuration
d) Two-step with inversion of configuration
9 Which one of the following compounds does not undergo nucleophilic substitution?
a) Methyl chloride b) Benzyl chloride
c) Chloroethane d) Chlorobenzene
10 Chloroform reacts with oxygen in the presence of light to form:
a) Phosgene b) Freon
c) Carbon tetrachloride d) Chlorine
11 Which compound is formed when chloroethane reacts with alcoholic KOH?
a) Ethene b) Ethanol c) Ethane d) Acetylene
12 Which of the following is not used as a refrigerant?
a) Freon-12 b) Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
c) Methyl chloride d) Carbon tetrachloride
13 Which reagent is used to convert ethyl chloride to ethyl alcohol?
a) Aqueous KOH b) Concentrated H₂SO₄
c) Zn in presence of HCl d) NaOH in acetone
14 The major product of dehydrohalogenation of 2-bromobutane is:
a) 1-butene b) 2-butene c) Butyne d) Butadiene
15 What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in CH3Cl?
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d
16 What is the correct order of reactivity of the following haloalkanes towards SN1 reaction?
a) (CH₃)₃CBr > CH₃CH₂Br > CH₃Br b) CH₃Br > CH₃CH₂Br > (CH₃)₃CBr
c) CH₃CH₂Br > CH₃Br > (CH₃)₃CBr d) (CH₃)₃CBr > CH₃Br > CH₃CH₂Br
17 Assertion (A): Haloare nes are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution than
haloalkanes.
Reason (R): In haloarenes, the carbon-halogen bond has partial double bond character due
to resonance.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: The boiling points of alkyl halides increase with the increase in molecular mass.
Reason: Van der Waals forces increase with an increase in molecular size and mass.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true
19 Assertion (A): Tertiary alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions faster than primary alkyl
halides.
Reason (R): Tertiary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations due to
inductive and hyperconjugation effects.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion (A): Chloroform is used as an anesthetic in surgery.
Reason (R): Chloroform reacts with oxygen to form phosgene, which is toxic.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND
ETHERS
1 Phenols on reaction with CHCl3 and NaOH produces
a. Benzaldehyde b. Salicyaldehyde c. Salicylic Acid d. Benzoic acid
2 Which of the following compounds is/are Benzylic alcohols?

a) A, B, C, D b) A,D c) B, C d) A
3 The strongest acid among the following compound is :
a. o- nitro phenol b. p- nitro phenol c. m-nitro phenol d. p-chloro phenol
4 Which of the following will give phenol with CaO and NaOH ?
a. Salicylic acid b. Picric Acid c. Benzoic acid d. Amino Acid
5 The reactivity of alcohols towards HI is in the order :
a. 3°>2°>1° b. 3°>1°>2°
c. 1°>2°>3° d. 2°>1°>3
6 To get carboxylic acids directly from alcohol, which of the following oxidising agents is
used?
a) Alkaline KMnO4 b) Aqueous KMnO4
c) Acidified KMnO4 d) Anhydrous CrO3
7 Which one is secondary alcohol

(a)(i) b) (ii) c) (iii) d) (iv)

8 In the reaction between CH3-CH=CH-CH2-OH and PCC the product formed is?
a. CH3CHO and C2H5OH b. CH3-CH=CH-COOH
c. CH3-CH=CH-CHO d. CH3-CH2-CH2-CHO
9 Ethanol on warming with conc. H2SO4 at 413K gives
a. Ethene b. Diethyl ether
c. dimethyl ether d. ethyl hydrogen sulphate
10 When phenol reacts with bromine water, what is the result?
a) Brown liquid b) Colourless gas
c) White precipitate d) No reaction
11 Which of the following processes does not result in the production of alcohol?
a) Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes b) Free radical halogenation of alkanes
c) Reduction of aldehydes d) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes
12 Which of the following compound would not be easily oxidised by K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4?
a. C2H5OH b. (CH3)2CHOH c. (CH3)3COH d. CH3CHO
13 Which of the following acid react with acetic anhydride to form a compound aspirin?
a. Benzoic Acid b. Salicylic Acid c. Phthalic acid d. Acetic Acid
14 Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives?
a. Benzene b. Benzaldehyde c. Benzoic acid d. Benzophenone
15 The strongest acid among the following compound is :
a. o- nitro phenol b. p- nitro phenol
c. m-nitro phenol d. p-chloro phenol
16 Phenol is less acidic than
a) Ethanol b) o-nitrophenol
c) o-methylphenol d) o-methoxyphenol
17 Assertion: Addition reaction of water to butene in acidic medium yields butan-1-ol
Reason: Addition of water in acidic medium proceeds through the formation of primary
carbocation.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: Like bromination of benzene, bromination of phenol is also carried out in the
presence of Lewis acid.
Reason: Lewis acid polarises the bromine molecule.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion: Alcohols are more easily protonated than phenols.
Reason: Alcohols undergo intermolecular hydrogen bonding due to the presence of highly
electronegative oxygen.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion: Boiling points of alcohols are higher than ethers.
Reason: They can form intermolecular hydrogen-bonding.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM ALDEHYDES, KETONES
AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1 The most suitable reagent for the conversion of R-CH2OH → RCHO is
(a) KMnO4 (c) K2Cr2O7
(b) (c) CrO3 (d) PCC (Pyridimium chlorochromate)
2 An alkene C7H14 on reductive ozonolysis gives an aldehyde with formula C3H6O and
a ketone. The ketone is
(a). butan-2-one (b) pentan-2-one (c) pentan-3-one (d) propanone
3 HVZ reaction is used to prepare
(a)ß-haloacid (b) α-haloacid
(c) α, ß-unsaturated add (d) None of these
4 Methyl ketones are usually characterised through
(a) Tollen’s reagent (b) Iodoform test
(c) Schiff’stest (d) Benedict solution test.
5 The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of
(a). Nucleophilic addition (b) Electrophilic addition
(c) free radical addition (d) electromeric addition
6 Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with Grignard’s reagent to give addition
products which on hydrolysis give
(a) tertiary alcohols (b) secondary alcohols
(c) primary alcohols (d) carboxylic acids
7 Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
(a) Phenyl acetaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpentanal
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) 1-Phenylpropanone
8 The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are
(a) ethanol only (b) ethanal and methanal
(c) propanal and methanal (d) methanal only
9 Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3 (c) C6H5CHO (d)
C6H5CH2CHO
10 Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzarro’s reaction?
(a) Benzaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpropanal
(c) p-Methoxybenzaldehyde (d) 2, 2-Dimethylpropanal
11 Hydrocarbons are formed when aldehydes and ketones are reacted with amalgamated
zinc and conc. HCl. The reaction is called
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Clemmensen reduction
(c) Rosenmund reduction (d) Wolff-Kishner reduction
12 When propanal reacts with 2-methylpropanal in presence of NaOH, four different
products are formed. The reaction is known as
(a) Aldol condensation (b) Cross aldol condensation
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) HVZ condensation
13 Which of the following does not answer iodoform test?
(a) n-Butyl alcohol (b) sec-Butyl alcohol (c) Acetophenone (d) Acetaldehyde
14 Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol condensation in the presence
of cold dilute alkali?
(a) CH ≡ C-CHO (b) CH2 = C(CH3)CHO (c) C6H5CHO (d) CH3CH2CHO
15 The weakest acid amongst the following is
a) ClCH2COOH b) ClCH2CH2COOH
c) HCOOH d) Cl2CHCOOH
16 Which of the following conversions can be carried out by Clemmensen Reduction?
(i) Benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol (ii) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexane
(iii) Benzoyl chloride into benzaldehyde (iv) Benzophenone into diphenyl methane
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
17 Assertion (A): Aldehyde and ketone both reacts with Tollen’s reagent.
Reason(R): Both aldehyde and ketone contain a carbonyl group.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false. d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion (A): Compounds containing -CHO group are easily oxidized to
corresponding carboxylic acids.
Reason (R): Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false. d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion (A): Phenol and benzoic acid can be distinguished by NaOH.
Reason (R): Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than phenol.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false. d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion (A): p-Chloro benzoic acid is stronger acid than benzoic acid
Reason(R): Chlorine has electron donating resonance effect(+R)
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM AMINES
1 Aniline first reacts with acetyl chloride producing compound A. A reacts with
HNO3/H2SO4 mixture and produces compound B which hydrolyses to compound C.
What is the identity of C?
(a) Acetanilide (b) p-Nitroacetanilide
(c) p-Nitroaniline (d) Sulphanilic acid
2 Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the
smallest pKb value?
(a) (CH3)3N (b) C6H5NH2 (c) (CH3)2NH (d) CH3NH2
3 In this reaction acetamide is converted to methanamine
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (b) Carbylamine reaction
(c) Stephen’s reaction (d) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
4 This on reduction with LiAlH4 produces secondary amine
(a) Methyl cyanide (b) Nitroethane
(c) Methyl isocyanide (d) Acetamide
5 Primary secondary and tertiary amine can be differentiated by which method
(A) Lucas test (B) Iodoform test (C)Tollen test (D) Hinsberg test
6 C6H5CONHCH3 can be converted into C6H5CH2NHCH3 by
(a) NaBH4 (b) H2-Pd/C (c) LiAlH4 (d) Zn-Hg/HCl
7 Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.

The structure of D would be

(a) C6H5CH2OH (b) C6H5CH2NH2
(c) C6H5NHOH (d) C6H5NHCH2CH3
8 Boiling point of which amine is maximum
(A) Propanamine (B) Ethyl methyl amine
(C) Trimethyl amine (D) Dimethyl amine
9 The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) N,N-Dimethyl butan-1-amine (B) N,N-Diethyl butan-1-amine

(C) N-ethyl-N-butyl ethanamine (D) N-butyl-N-ethyl ethanamines
10 Which of the following is the strongest base?
11 Which of the following is true for the basicity of amines?
(a) Alkylamines are generally less basic than arylamines because N is sp hybridised
(b) Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines due to aryl group
(c) Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines due to delocalisation of lone
pair of electrons in the benzene ring
(d) Alkylamines are generally less basic than arylamines because lone pair of electrons
on N in the arylamines are not delocalised in the benzene ring
12 Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
(a) Ethylamine (b) (CH3)2NH
(c) (CH3)3N (d) Propan-2-amine
13

In the above sequence, Z is

(a) Cyanoethane (b) Ethanamide
(c) Methanamine (d) Ethanamine
14 Method by which aniline cannot be prepared is
(A) Degradation of bezamide with bromine in alkaline solution.
(B) Reduction of nitrobenzene with H2 /Pd in ethanol .
(C) Potassium salt of pthamilimde treatedwith cholorobenzene followed by hydrolysis
with aqueous NaOH
(D) Hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution.
15 The action of nitrous acid on an aliphatic primary amine gives
(A) Secondary amine (B) Alcohol
(C) Nitro alkane (D) Aldehyde
16 The compound obtained by heating a mixture of ethylamine and choloroform with
ethanolic potassium hydroxide is
(A) An amide (B) An amide and nitro compound
(C) An ethyl isocyanide (D) An alkyl halide
17 Assertion: Acetanilide is less basic than aniline.
Reason: Acetylation of aniline results in a decrease of electron.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion: Aromatic 1°amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Reason: Aryl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution with anion formed by
phthalimide.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion: Nitration of aniline can be conveniently done by protecting the amino group
by acetylation.
Reason: Acetylation increases the electron-density in the benzene ring.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion: Aniline and N-methyl anilines can be differentiated by Carbyl amine test.
Reason: Aniline is a primary amine while N-methyl aniline is a secondary amine.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
 MCQ FROM BIOMOLECULES
1 Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Maltose (d) Starch
2 The glycosidic linkage in maltose is between:
(a) C1 of one glucose and C4 of another glucose
(b) C1 of one glucose and C1 of another glucose
(c) C2 of one glucose and C2 of another glucose
(d) C4 of one glucose and C4 of another glucose
3 Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
(a) Fructose (b) Lactose (c) Cellulose (d) Ribose
4 The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by:
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds (c) Disulfide bonds (d) Ionic bonds
5 Which of the following is a fibrous protein?
(a) Insulin (b) Keratin
(c) Hemoglobin (d) Myoglobin
6 The tertiary structure of a protein is stabilized by:
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulfide bonds (d) All of the above
7 Enzymes are:
(a) Proteins (b) Lipids
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Nucleic acids
8 Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble?
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin B12
9 Nucleic acids are polymers of:
(a) Amino acids (b) Nucleotides
(c) Fatty acids (d) Glucose
10 DNA and RNA differ in:
(a) Sugar moiety (b) Nitrogenous bases
(c) Phosphate group (d) All of the above
11 Which of the following is a purine base?
(a) Uracil (b) Cytosine
(c) Adenine (d) Thymine
12 DNA replication is:
(a) Semi-conservative (b) Conservative
(c) Dispersive (d) None of the above
13 Which of the following is a reducing sugar
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose (c) Starch (d) Cellulose
14 The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by:
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulfide bonds (d) Ionic bonds
15 Prodouct when glucose react with potassium iodide is:
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Maltose (c) n- Hexane (d) n- Hexanol
16 Sucrose is a …………….. chemical, and the hydrolysis product combination is
…………… in nature.
(a)dextrorotatory, dextrorotatory (b) laevorotatory, laevorotatory
(c) laevorotatory, dextrorotatory (d) dextrorotatory, laevorotatory
17 Assertion (A): Glucose exists in two forms, α-glucose and β-glucose.
Reason (R): Glucose contains an aldehyde group.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
18 Assertion (A): Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
Reason (R): Amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
19 Assertion (A): Enzymes are biological catalysts.
Reason (R): Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
20 Assertion (A): DNA is a double-stranded molecule.
Reason (R): The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.